strhw ilt comneses finalassessment studenthandout

1 © 2012 NetApp. All rights reserved. NetApp Confidential

Final Assessment

Course ID: STRHW-ILT-COMNESES

Rev. 1.0

Configuring and Monitoring NetApp E-Series Storage Systems

Objectives

By the end of this exercise, you should be able

to:

Assess your knowledge of E-Series storage

system configuration and monitoring

objectives

Identify topics for further investigation

NetApp Confidential 2

Instructions

In this assessment, you test your knowledge

of the topics covered by the Configuring and

Monitoring NetApp E-Series Storage Systems

class.

For the following multiple-choice questions,

select the best answer.



4

Which of the following components does NOT

have a redundant partner in the DE6600 disk

shelf?

A. ESM

B. Fan module

C. Power module

D. None of these

NetApp Confidential

When would you expect to see the SAA LED

on?

A. When the component is functionally

normally.

B. When power has been turned on to the

component.

C. When the component has failed.

D. When it is safe to remove the component.

5 NetApp Confidential

When you power off a storage system, which

component should be powered off first?

A. The controller shelf

B. All disk shelves

C. The configuration database

D. The SANtricity client



Why is it a best practice to cable disk shelves to

a controller shelf using the top-down-bottom-up

method?

A. It protects against drawer failure.

B. It protects against power outages.

C. It protects against shelf failure.

D. It protects against disk failure.


What is the preferred method of zoning from

host ports to controller ports in a SAN?

A. One-to-one

B. One-to-many

C. Two-to-two

D. Many-to-two


What is the SANtricity Client?

A. A host I/O performance modeling interface

B. A host server process that enables storage system

management with the storage data path

C. Inter-process communication that supports computer

program subroutines

D. A GUI or CLI run on a host server used for storage

system management

E. An OS dependent collection of utilities for servers

attached to SANtricity managed storage systems



What is SMutil?

A. A host I/O performance modeling interface

B. A host server process that enables storage system

management with the storage data path

C. Inter-process communication that supports computer

program subroutines

D. A GUI or CLI run on a host server used for storage

system management

E. An OS dependent collection of utilities for servers

attached to SANtricity managed storage systems


What uses the Access Volume?

A. Legacy operating environments

B. Redundancy check

C. Persistent Monitor

D. SMAgent

E. XOR parity calculations


What is best practice recommendation for the

system monitor?

A. It should run on all storage manager clients.

B. It should be stopped during a controller firmware

upgrade.

C. It should be stopped during storage system normal

operations.

D. It should only run on one client connected to the

storage system.

E. It should only be run on Windows server systems.



Management connections between the

SANtricity client and the controllers use which

communication API by default?

A. HIC

B. HTTP

C. HTTPS

D. SYMbol

E. ATM


In-band communication occurs between which

components?

A. The LAN and the ESMs

B. The ESMs and the disks

C. The I/O host and the controller

D. The controller and the disk shelf ESMs


Which file contains information about the

management domain?

A. EMWdata_vxx.bin

B. firmware-inventory.txt

C. storage-array-config.cfg

D. storage-array-profile.txt

E. performance-statistics.csv



What character must enclose commands written

at the SMcli on a Windows host?

A. \

B. /

C. „

D. “


Which SANtricity client utility associates a LUN

with a host OS storage system device?

A. dsmutil

B. SMdevices

C. hot_add

D. lun_mapper

E. hot_show_all


In the Array Management window, which tab

provides access to Ethernet management port

configuration and premium feature enablement?

A. Setup

B. Hardware

C. Configuration

D. Host Mappings

E. Storage & Copy Services



What function do hot spares provide?

A. Efficiency for configuring volumes to

maximize capacity usage

B. Spare capacity for disk pools in event of disk

failure

C. Spare capacity for volume groups in event of

disk failure

D. Spare capacity for both volume groups and

disk pools


What term describes a cache mechanism

periodically writing “dirty” data to disk?

A. Filling

B. Cleaning

C. Flushing

D. Fetching

E. Scrubbing


What function can the storage system use to

preserve cache data in the event of a complete

controller failure?

A. Write caching

B. Cache mirroring

C. Read caching

D. Pre-fetch caching

E. SSD read cache



With a system cache block size of 32K, how

much cache space per I/O is “lost” if incoming

I/Os are all 48K writes?

A. None

B. 4K

C. 8K

D. 16K

E. 24K


Where is a record of almost all non-I/O related

activity on the storage system recorded?

A. Event Log

B. Configuration database

C. NVSRAM

D. Storage Array Profile

E. Cache backup device


What can be performed by the controllers to

provide error detection on the disk media?

A. Cache flush

B. Disk Monitor

C. Cache Mirroring

D. Event Log

E. Media Scan



Which storage manager feature scans the

system for issues, reports them, and suggests

procedures that will correct the issue?

A. Diagmon

B. Recovery Guru

C. Performance Monitor

D. Storage System Diagnostics

E. Event Log


Where does the storage system‟s configuration

database reside?

A. On Controller A

B. On the SANtricity client host

C. On the first disk of all shelves

D. On all disks in the storage system

E. On the first disk of the controller shelf

F. On the first disk of the first disk shelf


Controller firmware package files start with

which character(s)?

A. N

B. CFW

C. DLP

D. RC

E. SMIA



Which of the following describes a difference

between controller cache and SSD Read

Cache?

A. Controller cache is enabled by default when a

volume is created; SSD Read Cache is not enabled

except by user configuration.

B. Controller cache uses DIMM RAM banks; SSD

Read Cache uses SSD disks.

C. Controller cache is used by all I/O coming to the

storage system; SSD Read Cache is only used by

“hot” data blocks determined by the controllers.

D. All of these.


Which description most accurately represents how the

storage system handles I/Os to the non-preferred

controller with ALUA support?

A. They are shipped over to the owning controller to be

managed, then returned through the non-preferred path

after completion.

B. They are rejected with a specific SCSI check condition and

noted in the Event Log.

C. The non-owning controller takes ownership of the volume

in order to handle them, then restores ownership to the

original controller.

D. The controller handles them normally, updating both

controllers‟ cache to maintain consistency, which is why

ALUA requires cache mirroring to be enabled.

E. The controller handles them normally, updating both

controllers‟ cache to maintain consistency, which is why

ALUA requires cache mirroring to be enabled. NetApp Confidential 29

What technology is used by the Snapshot

feature to ensure a point-in-time image is

maintained of the base volume?

A. Mirroring between the Snapshot images

B. Copy-on-write to the repository

C. Volume Copy of data to the repository

D. Hot-spare-copy to repository blocks



Synchronous mirroring requires what type of

connection between storage systems?

A. InfiniBand

B. iSCSI

C. SAS

D. FC

E. Either FC or iSCSI


What should the interval for an asynchronous

mirror group usually be equal to?

A. The corresponding application‟s RTO

B. The corresponding application‟s RPO

C. The amount of time required to copy the

mirror repository to the remote site

D. Half the corresponding application‟s RPO


Which file contains a description of all the

hardware and logical components and

properties of the storage system, including the

component serial numbers?

A. Performance-statistics.csv

B. Firmware-inventory.txt

C. Storage-array-config.cfg

D. Storage-array-profile.txt

E. EMWdata_vxx.bin



Where can you access the Event Log? Choose

two answers.

A. In the hot_add utility

B. In the messages utility

C. On the Enterprise Management window

Setup tab

D. On the Array Management window

Summary tab

E. In the Support Data


A foreign controller:

A. Is the alternate controller in a failover

scenario.

B. Belongs to the first dynamic disk pool.

C. Is new to the slot in which it is inserted.

D. Has a controller serial number that is stored

in the configuration database.

E. Cannot determine the board identifier for the

alternate controller in this storage system.


What state is a controller in while it is activating

a new version of firmware?

A. Offline

B. Service Mode

C. Suspended

D. Quiesced



When replacing a failed component in a shelf, why

should you wait for 30 to 60 seconds after the removal

of the failed component before inserting the

replacement component?

A. To ensure that the controller configuration database

has a record of the change.

B. To ensure that the storage manager has completed

the component repair sleep cycle.

C. To ensure that the administrator has time to

complete ESD and air blocking procedures.

D. To ensure that the host OS has completed start-of-

day processing and has started sending I/O to the

storage system.


What is used by the controllers to send and

receive SCSI commands?

A. The disk interface type

B. Inherent tools naming

C. The initiator-target (I_T) nexus

D. Media multipath numbering


The multipath driver resides on the

A. ESM

B. Disk shelf

C. Controller

D. Management host

E. I/O host



In a forced failover, the alternate controller

A. Powers off the storage system to prevent

data loss.

B. Initiates the hot spare disk to replace a failed

disk.

C. Sends the Enterprise Management window a

notification that the multipath driver failed.

D. Takes forced ownership of all the LUNs

owned by the failed controller.


When a disk fails, which characteristic must the

replacement disk have?

A. Is equal to or greater in size than the failed

disk

B. Is a host port identifier for a host-mapped

single host

C. Is assigned by the SANtricity client to a disk

pool

D. Is assigned by the SANtricity client to a

volume group


If used incorrectly, which disk option might

cause data corruption or data loss?

A. Reconstruct

B. Activate

C. Conserve

D. Revive



In the SANtricity client, how do you specify

which multipath driver to use?

A. set-dsmparams

B. Select Storage & Copy Services > Create

Mapping

C. Select Host Mappings > Set Multipath

D. Change the host type specification

E. Set storageArray multipath dsm


If an unresponsive storage system appears in

the Enterprise Management window, which

method might resolve the issue?

A. Delete the EMWdatavxxx.bin file.

B. Save and clear the Event Log.

C. Restart the SANtricity monitoring agent.

D. Set one controller in Service Mode, and then

return it to service.


Unless otherwise specified, what component do

you upgrade first when you upgrade controller

firmware?

A. The ESM firmware

B. The disk firmware

C. The SAS interposer

D. The SANtricity client

E. The multipath driver



Start-of-day (SOD) refers to

A. Starting or restarting the host-agent software

B. A host interface fault-isolation diagnostic

C. Normal controller startup processes

D. A volume-group or disk pool initialization

process

E. Initiating the management of a storage

system


The path for the transfer of data between the

controllers and the disks is named

A. In-band communication

B. Out-of-band communication

C. The disk net route

D. The drive channel

E. The management pathway


What is a typical cause of a “SAS device

miswire” error?

A. A cable is inserted into the wrong port of an

ESM.

B. An ESM or controller has failed.

C. A cable from a host is in the wrong zone on

the fabric switch.

D. A wide SAS port has transitioned to narrow

status.



Why is it important to have unique shelf IDs on

all the shelves in the storage system?

A. In order to differentiate between disk shelves

and controller shelves.

B. In order to determine if a disk shelf is cabled

correctly.

C. In order to correctly identify a failed disk.

D. In order to verify a 7-segment display LED.


Where do disk pools rebuild data to when a disk

fails in the pool?

A. They use hot spare disks.

B. They use preservation disks.

C. They use preservation pools.

D. They use preservation capacity.


Which controller in the E-Series has 12 Gbps

SAS 3.0 expansion ports?

A. E5500

B. E5400

C. E2700

D. E2600

E. None of these



What storage management package determines

which path to use to send data from an I/O host

to the controllers?

A. SANtricity client

B. SMutil

C. SMagent

D. Multipath driver


Which of the following statements is true of thin

provisioned volumes? Choose two.

A. They are only available in volume groups.

B. They are only available in disk pools.

C. They report the virtual (total) capacity in

Storage & Copy Services.

D. They use repositories to track data written to

the volume.



You can re-take this assessment

as many times as you would like,

until you feel confident of your

understanding and skill level.

strhw ilt comneses finalassessment studenthandout

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