qdb 15 = hpl

HPL - P a g e | 1

1. The rate of accidents in commercial aviation (excluding sabotage and acts of terrorism):

Is approximately 1 accident per million airport movements

2. As a cause of accidents, the human factor

Is cited in approximately 70 - 80 % of aviation accidents

3. Thinking on human reliability is changing.

Human errors are now considered as being inherent to the cognitive function of human and are

generally inescapable

4. In the initial phase of flight training the relationship between confidence and expertise can be

described as:

The pilot is competent enough to fly the aircraft at this stage, but does neither have a great deal of

confidence in his/her abilities nor in the whole system

5. Concerning the relation between performance and stress, which of the following statement(s) is (are)

correct?

A moderate level of stress may improve performance

6. Stress is a frequent aspect of the pilot's job. Under which of the following circumstances does it

occur?

1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his plan of action and does not immediately have a solution

2. Stress occurs with inexperienced pilots when the situational demands exceed their individual capabilities

3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not be able to find a solution for the problem he just is

confronted with

1, 2 and 3 are correct

7. Divided attention is the ability:

1. to execute several mental activities at almost the same time (i.e. when switching attention from outside

the aircraft to the airspeed indicator on the instrument panel)

2. to monitor the progress of a motor programme (i.e. flying or taxiing the airplane) on a relatively

subconscious level, while making a radio call at the same time (requiring a rather conscious level)

3 .to select information and check if it is relevant to the task in hand. At the same time no other operation

can be performed.

4. to delegate tasks to the copilot while concentrating on the procedures

1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false

8. The physiology of stress is now well known:

Stress promotes an increase in physical strength rather than promoting mental performance

9. An overstressed pilot may show the following symptoms:

1. mental blocks, confusion and channelized attention

2. resignation, frustration, rage

3. deterioration in motor coordination

4. high pitch voice and fast speaking

1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

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10. What airplane equipment marked a substantial decrease in hull loss rates in the eighties?

GPWS

11. Between which components, with reference to the SHELL Concept, covers pilot misinterpretation of

the old three-point altimeter?

Liveware - Hardware

12. Between which components is an interface mismatch causing disturbance of the biological rhythm,

thus leading to reduced human performance?

Liveware - Environment

13. The errors resulting from an illogical indexing system in an operations manual are related to an

interface mismatch between

Liveware - Software

The cooperating cockpit crew is the central function in the model which makes the judgements and

decisions to bring all the other factors into a harmonious and safe working whole.

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14. A pilot is skilled when he/she:

-1 : trains or practises regularly

-2 : knows how to manage himself/herself

-3 : possesses all the knowledge associated with his aircraft

-4 : knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected

1,2,4

15. In civil air transport, linear accelerations (Gx):

- 1 : do not exist

- 2 : have slight physiological consequences

- 3 : may, in the case of pull-out, lead to loss of consciousness

- 4 : cause sensory illusions on the pitch axis

2,4

16. Which of the following symptoms is not typical for a decompression sickness:

Red out

17. The following statements are true except

Poor circulation is called hypoxic hypoxia

18. The following situations can lead to stagnant hypoxia

Excessive G forces

19. Smoking can cause hypoxia due to an increase in carbon monoxide. This is called a

Hypemic hypoxia

Hypoxia is a lack of oxygen at the tissue level of the body due to a decrease of oxygen pressure in inspired

air or because of conditions that interfere with the diffusion or absorption of oxygen within the body.

Types of Hypoxia

Histotoxic Hypoxia- Interference of the tissue's ability to absorb or metabolize delivered oxygen. This is

often caused by alcohol, narcotics or poisons.

Hypemic Hypoxia- Reduction of the blood's ability to carry oxygen. Carbon monoxide is the most common

cause followed by anemia, blood loss and smoking.

Hypoxic Hypoxia- Lack of oxygen in the tissues due to decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen at altitude.

20. Stages of performance decrements due to hypoxic hypoxia are

Indifferent stage up to 6'000 ft, disturbance threshold at 12'000 ft

21. The most dangerous sign of hypoxic hypoxia is

Impaired judgment and self criticism

22. TUC at 25'000 ft at rest is about

4 minutes

23. A common phenomenon of hypoxia and hyperventilation is

Tingling sensation of arms and legs

24. The following statement about respiration is true

Transport of oxygen in the blood is made by combination with hemoglobin

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25. Oxygen is transported through the walls of the alveoli according to

The Diffusion law

26. A healthy young subject should have the following lung volumes

A residual volume of 1.2 liter

27. Usually, the body has a remarkable store of the following gases

Carbon dioxide

28. The respiratory control center is primarily sensitive to

Carbon dioxide

29. Ventilation is primarily stimulated by

An increase of carbon dioxide

30. The following statement is true

Increased carbon dioxide causes shortness of breath

31. The partial pressure of the respiratory gases within the pulmonary alveoli is

40 mmHg pCO2, 47 mmHg pH2O, 100 mmHg O2

32. Signs or symptoms of hyperventilation are

a) increased rate and depth of respiration

b) muscle twitching and tightness

c) breathlessness, feelings of suffocation

All above mentioned signs or symptoms

33. The problems of hyperventilation are caused by

Increased exhaling of carbon dioxide

34. The following maneuvers may be used to treat a hyperventilation except

Increasing rate and depth of breathing

35. The symptoms of hyperventilation are easily confused with those of

Hypoxia

36. The heart consist of

Two atriums, two ventricles and four valves

37. Expired air contains

15% oxygen and 4% carbon dioxide


Pulmonary veins contain venous blood

39. The following statements are false except

Blood consists of ~45% blood cells and ~55% blood plasma

40. What is the correct remedial action if symptoms of hyperventilation occur at an altitude where

hypoxia is not a consideration?

Decrease rate and depth of breathing

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41. A pilot who has been scuba diving should avoid flying:

Within 12 hours, or 24 hours if a depth of 30 ft has been exceeded

42. The time of useful consciousness without oxygen at an altitude of 25 000 ft is:

2 – 3 minutes

43. What does the "H" in the SHELL model mean?

Hardware

44. The term "pilot error" constitutes a certain relative amount of main causes in air accidents. Which of

the following is correct?

Around 70%

45. A person experiencing light headaches, dizziness, tingling at the fingertips and breathing rapidly

may be suffering from:

Hypoxia or hyperventilation

46. According to Jens Rasmussen, riding a bicycle is:

Skill based behaviour

47. You are flying from London to Oslo as commander. One of your passengers suffers a heart attack

during flight, and the situation is life threatening for him. You evaluate the situation, and decide to divert to

Amsterdam. What type of behaviour is this, according to Jens Rasmussen?

Knowledge based behaviour

48. What is the meaning of the "S" in the SHELL model?

Software

49. At an altitude where the pressure is half of that at sea level a person will have to:

Use supplementary oxygen

50. What is meant by Episodic memory?

Memory of experienced events, held in the long term memory

51. What is meant by "divided attention"?

Switching of attention from one set of stimuli to another

52. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

Emotional tension, anxiety or fear

53. Which one of the following signs distinguishes hypoxia from hyperventilation?

Cyanosis

54. What is a normal blood pressure?

Diastolic 80 mm Hg Systolic 120 mm Hg

55. A person experiences increased breathing rate. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

A high level of waste carbon dioxide in the lungs

56. What is the remedy for decompression sickness, or "bends"?

Increase the pressure on the body

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57. What is the name of the blood vessels which carry blood away from the cells?

Veins

58. Up to what altitude will generally healthy people be able to stay without showing any signs of

suffering from hypoxia?

Up to 10-12000 feet

59. The Skill-based, Rule-based, Knowledge-based Model (Jens Rasmussen) is associated with:

Behaviour

60. In 1972, a psychologist named Edwards presented a concept of the interface between flight crew

and other parts of the airspace environment. What is this concept called and the names of those elements

involved?

The SHEL Concept: software, hardware, environment and liveware

61. The "Swiss Cheese Model" deals with:

Analysis of weaknesses of the organization structure and model of operation with respect to the

possibility of an accident occurrence

62. A pilot using a checklist is an example of the interaction within the SHELL concept of:

L and S

63. Liveware - Liveware interaction is:

The interface between people

64. Which is an example of an error caused by liveware-hardware interface problems?

Switches, control or displays with poor design

65. Which is true regarding the interaction between various elements of the SHELL model?

The liveware is the hub of the SHELL model; therefore the non-human components should be

adapted and matched to this central component

66. With respect to the "Swiss Cheese Model", an accident is likely to happen if:

The openings in the "cheese slices" momentarily align, thus creating an open trajectory for the

accident opportunity

67. The distribution of primary causes of accidents in the worldwide jet aircraft commercial fleet shows

that human error is involved in:

About 70 % of cases

68. The most significant item of technical equipment introduced in the 1980s and 1990s which has

contributed to a reduction in accidents is:

GPWS

69. Who in the aviation industry is responsible for flight safety?

Everyone involved

70. In the case of fire in flight most fatalities are caused by:

Suffocation from fumes caused by aircraft furnishing and wiring

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71. The changes in atmospheric gas pressure with altitude are:

Non-linear, with a higher rate of change at lower levels

72. A certain amount of water vapor saturated air (i.e. intestinal gases) is transported from sea-level up

to 34 000 ft. In the same amount of dry air, the volume of this gas is :

Larger

73. Breathing 100% oxygen at 38000 ft is equivalent to breathe ambient air at:

10 000 ft

74. At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected?

Approximately 38 - 40 000 ft

75. You can survive at any altitude, provided that

Enough oxygen, pressure and heat is available

76. To safely supply the crew with oxygen, at which altitude is it necessary to breathe 100% oxygen

plus pressure after a rapid decompression?

Approximately 38 000 ft

77. When a pilot suffers from hypothermia (e.g. after loss of cabin heating) his/her demand for oxygen

will be:

Initially increased

78. Fatigue and stress

Lower the tolerance to hypoxia

79. The atmosphere contains the following gases:

78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases

80. The earth's atmosphere consists of different gases in various concentrations. Match the following:

1 nitrogen A 0,03%

2 oxygen B 0,92%

3 carbon dioxide C 20.95%

4 rare gas D 78,10%

1D, 2C, 3A, 4B

81. Gases of physiological importance to men are:

Oxygen and carbon dioxide

82. The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is 21% which

Is constant for all altitudes conventional airplanes can reach

83. The following applies for the physical properties of gases:

At sea-level a gas has 1/3 of the volume it would have at 27000 ft

84. The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately

34 000 ft is:

21%

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85. The respiratory process consists mainly of

The diffusion of oxygen through the respiratory membranes into the blood, transportation to the cells,

diffusion into the cells and elimination of carbon dioxide from the body

86. Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous during flying.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Carbon monoxide is odourless and cannot be smelled

87. Carbon monoxide poisoning

Is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heat is technically supplied by coating the

exhaust

88. In the following list you will find several symptoms listed for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning.

Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide poisoning.

Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness

89. Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning?

Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning

90. The momentum of gas exchange in respiration is

Dependent on the pressure gradient between the participating gases during respiration

91. Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood?

Hemoglobin in the red blood cells

92. Affinity to hemoglobin is best with:

Carbon monoxide

93. Which of the following is true concerning carbon monoxide?

It is to be found in the smoke of cigarettes lifting up a smoker's "physiological altitude"

94. An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:

Shortness of breath

95. The rate and depth of breathing is primarily regulated by the concentration of:

Carbon dioxide in the blood

96. Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood into the lungs?

Carbon dioxide

97. Which statement is correct?

Oxygen diffusion from the blood into the cells depends on their partial oxygen pressure gradient

98. "Tunnel vision" (loss of peripherical vision) can be observed if a pilot is subjected to more than:

+ 3.5 Gz

99. "Grey out" occurs in case of:

+ gZ

100. The negative (radial) acceleration of an airplane affects the sitting pilot with inertia along:

The vertical body axis upwards

HPL - P a g e | 9

101. How can a pilot increase his tolerance to +Gz?

Tightening of muscles, ducking the head and perform a kind of pressure breathing

102. Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by

The hemoglobin in the red blood cells

103. During hyperventilation:

Acidity level of the blood is reduced

104. Hypoxia is caused by

Reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung

105. Hypoxia can be caused by:

1. low partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere when flying at

high altitudes without pressurisation and supplemental oxygen

2. a decreased saturation of oxygen in the blood due to carbon

monoxide attached to the hemoglobin

3. blood pooling in the lower extremities due to inertia (+ Gz)

4. malfunction of the body cells to metabolize oxygen (i.e. after

a hangover)


106. A pilot may suffer from hypoxia:

After decompression at high altitude and not taking additional oxygen in time

107. Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo?

Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect (hypoxia of the brain), the solo pilot

may not be able to react in time (i.e. activate his emergency oxygen system)

108. The symptoms of hypoxia include:

Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria

109. Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia?

Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria

110. Flying a non-pressurised light aircraft at 9000 feet your passenger develops blue lips:

Assuming he is suffering from hypoxia you reduce altitude and supply him with oxygen

111. Which statement applies to hypoxia?

Sensitivity and reaction to hypoxia varies from person to person

112. Hypoxia can also be caused by

A lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of the hemoglobin to transport oxygen

113. Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight?

The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions

114. A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and without using supplemental oxygen will pass the

"critical threshold" at approximately:

22 000 ft

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115. Breathing 100% oxygen will lift the pilot's physiological safe altitude to approximately:

38 000 ft

116. The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are

Euphoria and impairment of judgment

117. When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating due to high arousal or overstress, the carbon

dioxide level in the blood is lowered, resulting in:

Less oxygen to be diffused into the cells

118. With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal or overstress:

An increased amount of carbon dioxide is exhaled causing muscular spasms and even

unconsciousness

119. Which of the following symptoms can mark the onset of hyperventilation?

Dizzy feeling

120. Out of the list of possible measures to counteract hyperventilation, the most effective measure is:

Breathe into a plastic or paper bag

121. What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required by physical need)?

1. Pressure breathing.

2. Anxiety or fear.

3. Overstress.

4. Strong pain.

5. Jogging.

1,2,3 and 4 are correct, 5 is false

122. Which of the following could a pilot experience when he is hyperventilating?

1. Dizziness

2. Muscular spasms

3. Visual disturbances

4. Cyanosis

1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

123. A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:

Talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to emotionally calm down and reduce the rate of

breathing simultaneously

124. What could cause hyperventilation?

Fear, anxiety and distress

125. A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even get unconscious.

Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when:

The pilot is emotionally aroused

126. Hyperventilation can cause unconsciousness, because:

Blood circulation to the brain is slowed down

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127. At what altitude ("threshold for compensatory reactions") does the human organism start with

remarkable measures to compensate for the drop in pO2 when climbing?

At about:

6000-7000 FT

128. Where is the "critical threshold" at which a pilot not using oxygen reaches the critical or lethal zone?

It starts at:

22000 FT

129. Short term memory can already be affected when flying as low as:

8000 FT

130. Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be sufficient up to an altitude of:

38000 FT

131. What is the Time of Useful Consciousness?

The length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and physical efficiency,

measured from the moment at which an adequate oxygen supply is no longer available

132. The "Effective Performance Time" or "Time of Useful Consciousness" after a decompression at 35

000 ft is:

Between 30 and 60 seconds

133. The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful

Consciousness). It

Varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude

134. After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately:

5-15 seconds

135. Flights immediately after Scuba-diving, using compressed gas, to depths greater than 10 metres:

Are forbidden

136. Pain in the Joints ("bends"), is a symptom of:

Decompression sickness

137. After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness)

will be approximately:

30 -90 seconds

138. You suffered a rapid decompression without the appearance of any decompression sickness

symptoms.

What should you do before flying?

Seek prompt aeromedical advice

139. Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment (> 10 m depth)

Can cause decompression sicknesses even when flying at pressure altitudes below 18 000 FT

140. After a decompression at high altitude

Nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids causing gas embolism, bends and chokes

HPL - P a g e | 12

141. In airline operations decompression sickness symptoms

May develop after a decompression from 7000 FT cabin pressure altitude to 30000 FT flight altitude

142. Symptoms of decompression sickness

Are bends, chokes, skin manifestations, neurological symptoms and circulatory shock

143. Decompression sickness symptoms may develop due to

Cabin pressure loss when flying at higher altitudes (above 18000 FT)

144. The eustachian tube serves for the pressure equalization between

Middle ear and external atmosphere

145. Disturbances of pressure equalization in air-filled cavities of the head (nose, ear etc.) are called:

Barotrauma

146. Barotrauma caused by gas accumulation in the stomach and intestinals can lead to:

Pressure pain or flatulence

147. What counter-measure can be used against a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)?

Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby increasing the pressure in the mouth

and throat. At the same times try to swallow or move lower jaw (Valsalva)

148. How can you determine if a person is suffering from a barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose

(aerosinusitis) or the middle ear (aerotitis)?

Hearing difficulties will normally accompany aerotitis

149. Barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis)

Is caused by a difference in pressure existing between the sinus cavity and the ambient air

150. Barodontalgia

Arises especially with irritations of the sensitive tissues close to the root of a tooth

151. At a high altitude flight (no cabin pressure system available), a pilot gets severe flatulence due to

trapped gases. The correct counter-measure is:

Descend to lower altitude

152. A barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)

Is more likely when the pilot is flying with a respiratory infection and during descent

153. Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain.

When is this case?

More frequent when flying above 18 000 FT in a non-pressurized aircraft

154. Please mark the counter-measure a pilot can use against a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis).

Stop descending, climb again and then descend with reduced sink rate

155. Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur

When descending rapidly

156. Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by

A reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressure

HPL - P a g e | 13

157. The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occur

With colds and rapid descents

158. A barotrauma of the middle ear is

An acute or chronic trauma of the middle ear caused by a difference of pressure on either side of

the eardrum

159. The effect of hypoxia to vision

Is stronger with the rods

160. When oxygen is being transferred from the blood into the tissues and carbon dioxide from the body

cells into the blood, it is called:

Internal respiration

161. Hypoxia effects visual performance.

A pilot may:

Get blurred and/or tunnel vision

162. Which of the following symptoms could a pilot get, when he is subjected to hypoxia?

1. Fatigue

2. Euphoria

3. Lack of concentration

4. Pain in the joints

5. Pain in the inner ear


163. The type of hypoxia, which occurs at altitude, is explained by:

Dalton´s law

164. Gaseous exchange in the human body depends on:

1. diffusion gradients between the participating gases

2. permeable membranes

3. partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolus air

4. acid-base balance in the blood


165. Hyperventilation causes

A lack of carbon dioxide in the blood

166. Anxiety and fear can cause

Hyperventilation

167. Symptoms of decompression sickness

Sometimes can appear with a delay after the airplane is on the ground

168. The first effect to be noticed on gradual exposure to high positive radial accelerations is

Grey-out

169. The ozone-layer is situated in the

Stratosphere

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170. The chemical composition of the earth´s atmosphere (ICAO standard atmosphere) is

78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide

171. According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the temperature lapse rate of the troposphere is

approximately

- 2 °C every 1000 feet

172. The barometric pressure has dropped to 1/2 of the pressure at sea level at

18 000 feet

173. Decompression sickness occurs in association with exposure to reduced atmospheric pressure.

The evolution of bubbles of nitrogen coming out of solution in body tissues can be derived from:

Henry´s law

174. The normal rate of breathing is

12 to 16 cycles a minute

175. The main function of the red blood cells is

To transport oxygen

176. Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not occur (indifferent phase)

Below 3 000 m

177. "The Bends" as a symptom of decompression sickness consists of:

Pain in the joints

178. The primary symptom of decompression sickness/illness is:

The bends

179. Hypoxia is:

A physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues, leading to

mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor judgment and slow reactions

180. Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the following symptoms:

Dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred vision

181. In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights should be delayed

24 hours

182. The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the gases

which compose the mixture corresponds to:

Dalton´s law

183. The cabin pressure in airline operation is

Normally not exceeding 6 000 to 8 000 feet

184. Someone who has anaemia has:

Not enough functional hemoglobin

185. The average pulse of a healthy adult in rest is about:

60 to 80 beats/min

HPL - P a g e | 15

186. Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors:

1. Adrenalin

2. Cortisol

3. Physical exercise.

4. Glucose concentration in the blood


187. During gas exchange, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is:

Lower than in the blood

188. The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a:

Shortage of CO2 in the blood

189. A pressurized cabin helps to prevent:

1. decompression sickness

2 the problem of expansion of gases in the intestines

3. hypoxia

4. coronary disease


190. Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a lack of oxygen up to

10.000 - 12.000feet

191. When flying above 10.000 feet hypoxia arises because:

The partial oxygen pressure is lower than at sea level

192. Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is 98%. This saturation decreases with:

1. decreasing air pressure

2. carbon monoxide poisoning

3. increasing altitude

4. increasing air pressure

1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

193. Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells

Have a shortage of oxygen

194. The severity of hypoxia depends on the:

1. rate of decompression

2. physical fitness

3. flight level

4. individual tolerance

1,2,3 and 4 are correct

195. Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia is correct?

It is a potential threat to safety

HPL - P a g e | 16

196. With regard to the humidity of air in current in a pressurized cabin, we know that it :

-1 : varies between 40 and 60%

-2 : varies between 5 and 15%

-3 : may cause dehydration effecting the performance of the crew

-4 : has no special effects on crew members

2,3

197. Which of the following statements concerning barotrauma are correct?

It is caused due to pressure differentials between gases in hollow cavities of the body and the

ambient pressure

198. Decompression sickness may occur as from:

- 1: an altitude of more than 18,000 ft

- 2 : an altitude of more than 5,500 ft

- 3 : a rate of climb of more than 500 ft/min exceeding 18,000 ft

- 4 : a temperature of more than 24°C

1,3

199. With regard to decompression sickness associated with flight, we know that:

Age, obesity and scuba diving are risk factors

200. The procedure to be followed in the event of decompression when flying above 10,000 ft must:

Allow for the rapid supply of oxygen in order to prevent the pilot becoming hypoxic

201. What is the "Time of Useful Consciousness" for a progressive decompression at 25,000 ft?

Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot

202. The Time of Useful Consciousness may vary according to:

1 : physical activity of the subjected crew

2 : the experience of the pilot on the type of aircraft in question

3 : the strength and time of decompression

4 : the cabin temperature

1,3

203. During a climb, we can observe the following with regard to the partial oxygen pressure:

An identical decrease to that for atmospheric pressure

204. The following may occur during gradual depressurization between 12,000 and 18,000 ft:

A loss of coordination associated with fatigue and headache

205. What is the main problem caused by positive (+Gz) accelerations?

A pooling of blood in the lower portions of the body, and hence less blood available

206. What type of acceleration has the most significant physiological effect upon the pilot?

Radial acceleration (+ Gz)

HPL - P a g e | 17

207. Incapacitation caused by barotrauma from gaseous expansion after decompression at high altitude

may be associated with the following part(s) of the body:

1 the digestive tract

2 the ears

3 the eyes

4 the sinuses

1

208. Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are due to positive acceleration (+ Gz)?

- 1: Decrease in heart rate

- 2: Pooling of blood into lower parts of the body

- 3: Drop in blood pressure above heart-level

- 4: Downward displacement or deformation of soft or mobile organs

2,3,4

209. What is hypoxia?

Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal limits or where the

oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some pathological condition

210. What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12,000 ft?

Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination

211. Which of the following statements are correct?

-1: Modern aircraft allow for 50 - 60% relative humidity in the cabin air under any conditions of flight, which

is satisfactory for the body

-2: Thirst is a belated symptom of dehydration

-3: Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such as dizziness and fatigue

-4: Drinking excessive quantities of water must be avoided since resistance to periods of low hydration will

otherwise be lost

2,3

212. What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when faced with explosive decompression?

Don an oxygen mask and descend to below 10,000 ft

213. What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft?

About 12 seconds

214. What is the Time of Useful Consciouness?

The length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and physical efficiency and

alertness, measured from the moment at which he loses his available oxygen supply

215. What are the main clinical signs of hypoxia during explosive decompression?

Increase in heart and respiratory rates, euphoria, impairment of judgment, memory disorders

216. Which is the procedure to be followed when symptoms of decompression sickness occur?

Descend to the lowest possible level and land as soon as possible

217. What is decompression sickness?

A sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids after a

cabin pressure loss at high altitude

HPL - P a g e | 18


-1: Scuba diving may be practiced without restriction

-2: Many medicines have effects which are incompatible with flight safety

-3: An adequate amount of fluid should be drunk when flying

-4: Alcohol has no effect on the inner ear

2 and 3 are correct

219. The atmospheric pressure at 18,000 feet altitude is half the atmospheric pressure at sea level.

In accordance with this statement,

The partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will also drop to 1/2 of the pressure of oxygen at sea

level

220. You climb from 0 to 50.000 ft and measure the decrease of the pressure per 5.000 ft. The absolute

difference in barometric pressure is greatest between:

0 and 5.000 feet

221. Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are caused by:

Decreased atmospherically pressure

222. The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 30.000 feet remains at 21 %; but the partial

pressure of oxygen:

Decreases with decreasing barometric pressure

223. Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately:

21% oxygen

224. Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:

21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases

225. Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere?

1. Density

2. Pressure

3. Temperature

4. Humidity

1,2 ,3

226. Boyle's law is directly applicable in case of:

The expansion of trapped gasses in the human body with increasing altitude

227. Dalton's law explains the occurrence of:

Altitude hypoxia

228. Henry's Law explains the occurrence of:

Decompression sickness

229. Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the alveoli?

Carbon dioxide

230. The blood in the pulmonary artery is:

Lacking in oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide

HPL - P a g e | 19

231. The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for:

Gases

232. The circulatory system, among other things, allows for :

1. transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide

2. transportation of information by chemical substances

1 and 2 are correct

233. The part of blood without cell is called:

Plasma

234. Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is transported by

Red blood cells

235. Haemoglobin is:

In the red blood cells

236. With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml the cardiac output is about:

5 liters/min

237. At rest the cardiac output (the quantity of blood the heart pumps in one minute) of an adult is

approximately:

5 liters/min

238. The heart muscle is supplied with blood from:

The coronary arteries

239. The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult is (systolic/diastolic):

120/80 mm Hg

240. Which of the following statements is correct?

The blood-pressure which is measured during flight medical checks is the pressure

In the artery of the upper arm (representing the pressure at heart level)

241. Blood-pressure depends on:

1. the cardiac output

2. the resistance of the capillaries (peripheral resistance)

1 and 2 are correct

242. The blood-pressure depends on:

1. the work of the heart

2. the peripheral resistance

3. the elasticity of the arterial walls

4. the blood volume and viscosity


243. Changes in blood-pressure are measured by:

Pressoreceptors

244. The pressoreceptors are located in

The carotid and aortic arterial vessels

HPL - P a g e | 20

245. When the pressoreceptors signal a lowering of the blood-pressure there are adaptation mechanisms

which result in:

1. an increase of respiratory activity

2. the arteriols to constrict

3. an increase of cardiac output

4. the heart rate to rise


246. The physiological effects of accelerations to the human body depend on:

1. the duration of the G-forces

2. the onset rate of the G-forces

3. the magnitude of the G-forces

4. the direction of the G-forces.


247. Positive g will cause the blood flow to the brain to:

Decrease

248. During sustained positive G-forces the order of symptoms you can expect is:

Tunnel vision, grey out, black-out and unconsciousness

249. Which of the following measures can reduce the chance of a black-out during positive G-

manoeuvres?

A tilt back seat

250. The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about:

16 cycles per minute

251. The volume of air exchanged during a normal breathing cycle (tidal volume) is about:

500 ml of air

252. When exhaling, the expired air contains:

More carbon dioxide than the inspired air

253. The primary factor to control the rate and depth of breathing is the:

Pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood

254. What law(s) governs the oxygen transfer at the alveoli?

Gas Diffusion Laws

255. The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the alveoli can be described by:

The law of diffusion

256. Early symptoms of hypoxia could be:

1. euphoria

2. decreased rate and depth of breathing

3. lack of concentration

4. visual disturbances

1,3 and 4 are correct

257. One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:

Impaired judgment, disabling the pilot to recognize the symptoms

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258. Which of the following symptoms can indicate hypoxia?

1. Blue lips and finger nails

2. Euphoria

3. Flatulence

4. Unconsciousness

1, 2 and 4 are correct.

259. What human function is most sensitive to lack of oxygen?

Night vision

260. You are crossing the Alps in a non-pressurised aircraft at an altitude of 15.000 feet. You do not use

the oxygen mask because you feel fine. This is unsafe, because:

Your judgment could be impaired

261. During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your acuity of vision has decreased. In this case

you can increase your acuity by:

Breathing supplementary oxygen

262. During flight all crewmembers have one or more of the following symptoms:

1. blue lips

2. mental disturbances

3. tingling sensations in arms and/or legs

4. reduction of peripheral vision

Which is the possible cause?

Hypoxia

263. Which measure(s) will help to compensate hypoxia?

1. Descend below 10 000 FT.

2. Breathe 100 % oxygen.

3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT.

4. Reduce physical activities.


264. Hypoxia can be prevented when the pilot

Is using additional oxygen when flying above 10.000 feet

265. A pilot should not fly immediately after donating blood because:

You have an increased susceptibility to fainting

266. Hyperventilation is:

Increased lung ventilation

267. Hyperventilation is:

A normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in partial oxygen pressure (i.e. when

climbing a high mountain)

268. If somebody starts breathing faster and deeper without physiological need

The blood turns more alkaline

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269. During running your muscles are producing more CO2, raising the CO2 level in the blood. The

consequence is:

Hyperventilation (the rate and depth of breathing will increase)

270. During a final approach under bad weather conditions, you feel dizzy; get tingling sensations in your

hands and a rapid heart rate.

These symptoms could indicate:

Hyperventilation

271. When hyperventilating you should:

Control your rate and depth of breathing

272. A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by:

Controlling the rate and depth of breathing, breathing into a bag or speaking with a loud voice

273. You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a plastic or paper bag. The intention is:

To raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possible

274. A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at 8.000 feet. You advise him to:

1. unbuckle and massage the belly

2. stand up and let go the gases out of the intestines

3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbonated beverages before flight in the future

4. drink a lot of water throughout the flight


275. On ascent the gases in the digestive tract will

Expand

276. Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by:

Leveling off and possibly climbing

277. The occurrence of pain in the joints (bends) during decompression can be explained by the principle

that:

The quantity of a gas dissolved in a fluid is proportional to the pressure of that gas above the fluid

(Henry's Law)

278. Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a decompression is called:

Bends

279. Which symptom does not belong to the following list?

Leans

280. The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following a decompression are called:

Creeps

281. Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following a decompression are called:

Chokes

282. Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in the joints. Which of

following answers is correct?

You should ask for medical advice (flight surgeon) since this is a symptom of decompression

sickness

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283. Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by:

1. SCUBA-Diving

2. Obesity

3. Age

4. Body height


284. Decompression symptoms are caused by:

Dissolved gases from tissues and fluids of the body

285. In the event of rapid decompression the first action for the flight deck crew is:

Don oxygen masks and ensure oxygen flow

286. After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30.000 FT the first action of the pilot shall be:

Maintaining aircraft control and preventing hypoxia (use of oxygen mask)

287. The following actions are appropriate when faced with symptoms of decompression sickness:

1. climb to higher level

2. descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA and land as soon as possible

3. breathe 100 % oxygen

4. get medical advice about recompression after landing


288. Decompression sickness can be prevented by:

1. avoiding cabin altitudes above 18 000 FT

2. maintaining cabin pressure below 8 000FT when flying at high altitudes

3. performing physical exercises before and during the flight

4. breathing 100 % oxygen for 30 min prior and during the flight


289. What is the TUC at 18'000 FT?

About 30 minutes

290. Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness would be about:

Between 45 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds

291. What is the approximate Time of Useful Consciousness for a seated pilot following a rapid

decompression at 35000 ft?

45 seconds

292. After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you have to wait a period of time before flying

again. This period is at least:

24 hours

293. Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:

Decompression sickness without having a decompression

294. If someone hyperventilates due to stress his blood will get:

More alkaline

HPL - P a g e | 24

295. Which phenomenon is common to hypoxia and hyperventilation?

Tingling sensations in arms or legs

296. What can be said concerning the following two statements?

1) Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia

2) Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to error

1 and 2 are both correct

297. The composition of the atmosphere at 50 000 ft is

78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, ~1% argon, 0.03% carbon dioxide

298. The composition of the atmosphere

Is constant up to ~100 km

299. The atmospheric pressure

Decreases about exponentially with increasing altitude

300. The temperature lapse rate

Within the troposphere is ~2°C per 1000 ft

301. The following statement about atmospheric humidity is true:

The relative humidity measures percentage of water vapor saturation

302. The following statement about relative humidity is false:

If an air mass is warmed, its relative humidity increases

303. The atmospheric pressure

At sea level is twice the amount of the pressure at 18 000 ft

304. Boyle's law states

The volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure

305. Henry's law states

The quantity of a gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas

306. Dalton's law states

The partial pressure of a gas is proportional to its fractional concentration in a gas mixture

307. Charles' law states

The volume of a gas at constant pressure is proportional to its absolute temperature

308. The general gas law states

The volume of a gas multiplied by its pressure divided by its absolute temperature is constant

309. The statement: Adjacent gases of different concentration mix until the concentration is balanced:

Is known as Diffusion law

310. The ozone layer

Absorbs UVB better than UVA

HPL - P a g e | 25

311. Ozone

Consists of molecular oxygen

312. The following statement about UV radiation is false:

UVB penetrates deeper into the skin than UVA and causes skin cancer

313. The ozone layer is

In the stratosphere

314. The following signs or symptoms may be harmful effects of ozone except

Bends and chokes

315. The following statement about ozone is false:

During a sunny day ozone is enriched more over rural areas

316. The following statement about UV radiation is false:

Light- skinned, blond, blue-eyed subjects are least sensitive to UV radiation

317. To maintain sea level conditions at 25'000 ft, the percentage of oxygen breathing is

62 %

318. What is the major factor in the general population which predisposes an individual to heart attack?

Family history

319. What is the approximate percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 18000 ft?

21 %

320. What is meant by "barotrauma"?

Trapped gases inside your body create pain as ambient pressure decreases

321. When exposed to decreasing barometric pressure, 1 litre of gas contained in the stomach and

intestines at sea level will expand to 8 litres at:

40 000 feet

322. Why does carbon monoxide (CO) lead to hypoxia?

CO in blood displaces oxygen from the blood corpuscles impairing oxygen transport

323. Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning, as from smoking tobacco, increases as:

Altitude increases

324. What is the content of Boyle's law?

The volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure, with temperature remaining constant

325. A balloon with 10 litres of air is brought from mean sea level up to 34 000 feet. What is the volume

of the balloon at this altitude provided the temperature is kept constant?

40 litres

326. What is dysbarism?

Dysbarism refers to the various medical problems caused by gas expansion induced by decreased

barometric pressure

HPL - P a g e | 26

327. It is not advisable to immediately fly after donating blood because

You have an increased risk susceptibility to fainting

328. The total gas volume of the lung is the sum of:

1) tidal volume

2) inspiratory reserve volume

3) expiratory reserve volume

4) residual volume

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3, 4

329. The effects of galactic radiation:

Increase with altitude

330. Galactic radiation is:

Steady and reasonably predictable

331. Among the symptoms of hypoglycaemia are:

Headache and lack of concentration

332. In order to avoid hypoglycaemia:

A pilot should eat regularly and ensure he/she has a balanced diet

333. Select the correct statement from the answers given below:

Galactic radiation effects increase with altitude


About 89 % of the nuclei are hydrogen (protons), 10 % helium and about 1 % heavier elements. The

common heavier elements (such as carbon, oxygen, magnesium, silicon and iron) are present in

about the same relative abundances as in the solar system

335. There are several sources for radiation. What is the maximum allowable dose per year for a pilot

who is in contact with galactic radiation?

5 milli-Sieverts

336. The percentage of oxygen in cabin air:

Is the same as at sea level

337. Human breathing 100% oxygen at 33700 ft is the equivalent of breathing air at:

Sea level

338. Below 70000 ft, what gas makes up the major part of the atmosphere?

Nitrogen

339. Carbon monoxide is particularly dangerous because:

1) its initial symptoms are not alarming

2) it is colourless

3) it is odourless

4) it is highly toxic

5) its effects are cumulative

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

HPL - P a g e | 27

340. What is the effect of increasing altitude on the total pressure and partial pressure of the main gases

in the atmosphere?

The total pressure will decrease and the partial pressures will decrease

341. The percentage of oxygen in the troposphere in dry air:

Is independent of altitude

342. After a rapid decompression at 35000 feet, the Time of Useful Consciousness is about:

30 to 60 seconds

343. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be treated by:

Increasing the amount of oxygen being physically dissolved in the blood

344. The exchange of gases between the alveoli and the blood is due to:

Diffusion

345. The circulation of blood:

1) transports oxygen to the body cells

2) withdraws waste products from the cells

3) conveys nutrients to the cells


1, 2, 3

346. Hypoxic hypoxia may be caused by:

1) climbing to a high altitude without using additional oxygen

2) malfuction in the oxygen supply system

3) loss of cabin pressurisation at high altitude


1, 2, 3

347. Which of the following gases is fundamentally responsible for decompression sickness?

Nitrogen

348. When faced with sustained cold temperature, how does the body resist this physical stress?

By intense vasoconstriction

349. Up to what altitude is blood oxygen saturation reduction unlikely to affect a pilot's judgment?

10000 ft

350. How are oxygen and carbon dioxide transported throughout the body?

Circulation

351. List the constituent parts of the blood and state their function:

Red cells carry oxygen, white cells are involved in immunity and platelets coagulate blood

352. How does an increase in altitude affect the haemoglobin oxygen saturation?

As altitude increases, the haemoglobin oxygen saturation decreases

353. How will hyperventilation cause the acid-base balance of the blood to be affected?

Hyperventilation causes too much CO2 to be removed from the blood causing the level of carbonic

acid to fall

HPL - P a g e | 28

354. Define Hypoxia and explain why living tissues require oxygen:

Hypoxia is the lack of sufficient oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues which require oxygen

for oxidation of carbohydrates from food to produce energy

355. Expanded abdominal air following rapid decompression at 30000 feet:

May be dangerous causing great pain

356. Decompression sickness/illness is charaterized by:

Over-saturated nitrogen gas molecules in the body tissues

357. Preventing hypoxia at altitude is achieved by:

Pressurizing the air inside the aircraft to achieve oxygen saturation in blood of more than 90%

358. During a rapid decompression in a 2-crew aircraft, the other pilot becomes incapacitated. Your first

action is to:

Don your own oxygen mask

359. During a steady climb above Flight Level 100 if cabin pressurisation fails:

The effects of hypoxia may be gradual and difficult to recognise

360. The partial pressure of oxygen in inspired air:

Is a highly significant factor in ensuring that oxygen diffuses from the lungs to the blood

361. Oxygen transport to the tissues:

Depends on haemoglobin level and blood flow

362. Carbon dioxide:

Is a normal product of internal respiration

363. Internal respiration:

Is a metabolic process that takes place inside the cells during which oxygen is used and carbon

dioxide produced

364. Which of the following statements is true concerning the pulse rate?

It has a normal range of 60-100 beats per minute

365. Blood pressure is normally measured in:

mmHg

366. Pilots should not fly immediately following giving a donation of blood:

Because there is a small increased risk of low blood pressure due to loss of blood volume

367. Ozone in the air of a pressurised cabin can be eliminated by:

Ozone converters

368. The low level of humidity found in a pressurised aircraft cabin:

Should be compensated for by drinking water before one gets thirsty

369. Records of radiation are normally kept for flights above:

49000 ft

HPL - P a g e | 29

370. One of the dangers of extreme cold is that:

Sleepiness occurs associated with a feeling of contentment or apathy

371. What are the main sources of radiation at height?

Galactic (cosmic) radiation caused by galactic particles and solar radiation caused by solar flares

372. One of the earliest and most significant features of Hypothermia (extreme cold) is:

Apathy

373. Among the factors that increase tolerance to long-duration g forces are?

Bending forward or supine body position and tensing of the abdominal muscles

374. Which sensations does a pilot get, when he is rolling out of a prolonged level turn?

Turning into the opposite direction

375. How can a pilot prevent "pilots-vertigo"?

Avoid steep turns and abrupt flight maneouvers and maintain an effective instrument cross check

376. How can a pilot overcome a vertigo, encountered during a real or simulated instrument flight?

1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check.

2. Always believe the instruments; never trust your sense of feeling.

3. Ignore arising illusions.

4. Move the head sidewards and back and forth to "shake-off" illusions.


377. Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a tight turn, are symptoms of

"Pilot`s vertigo"

378. "Pilot's vertigo"

Is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by contradictory impulses to the

central nervous system (CNS)

379. What can a pilot do to avoid "Flicker vertigo" when flying in the clouds?

Switch strobe-lights off

380. What do you do, when you are affected by "pilot`s vertigo"?

1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check.

2. Believe the instruments.

3. Ignore illusions.

4. Minimize head movements.


381. A pilot is prone to get vertigo, as visibility is impaired (dust, smoke, snow). What is the correct action

to prevent vertigo?

Depend on the instruments

382. The risk of spatial disorientation increases when:

There is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular organs

383. The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in the

Muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of body parts

HPL - P a g e | 30

384. Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the ambient, when:

The eustachian tube is blocked

385. The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-the-pants sense) are important for motor coordination.

They

Are completely unreliable for orientation when flying in IMC

386. The so-called "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is

Not suitable for spatial orientation when outside visual references are lost

387. Sensory input to the "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is given by

Subcutaneous pressure receptors and kinesthetic muscle activity sensors

388. Orientation in flight is accomplished by

1. eyes

2. utriculus and sacculus

3. semicircular canals

4. Seat-of-the-pants-Sense


389. What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic vision)?

Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash-blindness

390. Adaption is:

The adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of illumination

391. The "Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense"

Can give false inputs to body orientation when visual reference is lost

392. Illuminated anti-collision lights in IMC

Can cause disorientation

393. A shining light is fading out (i. e. when flying into fog, dust or haze). What kind of sensation could

the pilot get?

The source of light moves away from him

394. To prevent the "autokinetic phenomena", the following can be done:

Look out for additional references inside and/or outside the cockpit using peripheral vision also

395. Autokinesis is

The apparent movement of a static single light when stared at for a relatively long period of time in

the dark

396. A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a larger and wider runway

can lead to :

An early or high "round out"

397. The impression of an apparent movement of light when stared at for a relatively long period of time

in the dark is called

"Autokinesis"

HPL - P a g e | 31

398. Generally, the time for dark adaptation is:

30 min

399. Which of the following statements is correct concerning flight in an environment of low contrast (fog,

snow, darkness, haze)?

It difficult to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects

400. A pilot approaching an upsloping runway:

May feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him to land short

401. The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold.

Possible danger is:

Approach is higher than normal and may result in a long landing

402. Sunglasses with variable filtration (phototrope glasses)

Can have disadvantages when used in the cockpit due to their dependence on ultraviolet light

which is screened by the cockpit glass

403. Illusions that pilots experience in conditions of fog or mist are that:

Objects appear further away than they really are and can lead to steep approaches

404. Depth perception when objects are close (< 1 m) is achieved through

Seeing with two eyes (binocular vision)

405. Adaptation is

The adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of illumination

406. The approximate time required for complete adaption of the eye when moving from darkness to light

is:

10 seconds

407. The requirement of good sunglasses is to

Absorb enough visible light to eliminate glare without decreasing visual acuity, absorb UV and IR

radiation and absorb all colors equally

408. Why does a deficiency in vitamin A cause night-blindness?

Vitamin A is essential to the regeneration of visual purple

Vitamin A regenerates the visual purple (Rhodpsin), vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness

409. Scanning at night should be performed by:

Slight eye movements to the side of the object

410. Approaches at night without visual references on the ground and no landing aids (e.g. VASIS) can

make the pilot believe of beeing

Higher than actual altitude with the risk of landing short ("ducking under")

411. A pilot accustomed to landing on a wide runway may find, when approaching to a narrow runway,

that he/she is at a:

Greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land short

412. Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor blades

Can cause spatial disorientation and/or nausea, when looked at for a longer period of time

HPL - P a g e | 32

413. A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel he is at a greater height than

he actually is. To compensate he may fly a

Flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot

414. The proprioceptive senses ("Seat of-the-Pants-Sense")

Give wrong information, when outside visual reference is lost

415. Resonance of the body parts can result from:

Vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz

416. What impression do you have when outside references are fading away (e.g. fog, darkness, snow

and vapor)?

It is difficult to determine the size and speed of objects

417. Hypoxia will affect night vision

At 5000 FT

418. What does not impair the function of the photosensitive cells?

Fast speed

419. The fovea centralis is

The area of best day vision and no night vision at all

420. The retina of the eye

Is the light-sensitive inner lining of the eye containing the photoreceptors essential for vision

421. The eustachian tube is the passage way between the

Nasopharynx and the middle ear

HPL - P a g e | 33

422. Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus?

Gravity and linear acceleration

Any linear acceleration can be divided into a horizontal (utricle) and a vertical (saccule) vector. The brain

calculates the sum vector which provides the perception of the original acceleration. The angular

acceleration is recognised with the semicircular canals.

423. The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor

Angular accelerations

424. Which part of the ear could be affected due to air pressure changes during climb and/or descent?

The eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum)

425. Which part of the inner ear is responsible for the perception of sound?

The cochlea

HPL - P a g e | 34

426. Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity and linear acceleration?

The sacculus and utriculus

427. Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for the impression of angular acceleration?

The semicircular canals

428. The vestibular apparatus

Reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity

429. Which is the audible range to human hearing?

Between 16 Hz and 20 KHz

430. Which of the following components belong to the middle ear?

Ossicles

431. Through which part of the ear does the equalization of pressure take place, when altitude is

changed?

Eustachian tube

432. The most probable reason for spatial disorientation is

A poor instrument cross-check and permanently transitioning back and forth between instruments

and visual references

433. What could the crew do in order to avoid air-sickness with passengers?

1. Avoid turbulences.

2. Avoid flying through rough weather.

3. Seat passenger close to the center of gravity.

4. Give pertinent information.


434. The probability to suffer from air-sickness is higher, when

The passenger or student is afraid and/or demotivated to fly

435. What should a pilot do if he has no information about the dimensions of the runway and the

condition of the terrain underneath the approach? He should

Make an instrument approach and be aware of the illusory effects that can be induced

436. Vibrations within the frequency band of 1/10 to 2 Hertz are a factor contributing to air-sickness,

because they

Upset the vestibular apparatus

437. Vibrations can cause blurred vision.

This is due to tuned resonance oscillations of the:

Eyeballs

438. What is understood by air-sickness?

A sensory conflict within the vestibular system accompanied by nausea, vomiting and fear

439. When spinning an aircraft, the predominating type of acceleration will be

Angular acceleration

HPL - P a g e | 35

440. Flying a coordinated level turn will

Make the body`s pressure receptors feel an increased pressure along the body`s vertical axis

441. Being pressed into the seat can cause illusions and/or false reactions in a pilot lacking visual

contact to the ground, because this sensation

Corresponds with the sensation a pilot gets when starting a climb or performing a level turn

442. Vertigo is the result of

"Coriolis-effect"

443. Which flight manoeuvre will most likely induce vertigo? Turning the head while

Banking

444. With "vertigo" the instrument-panel seems to tumble. This is due to

The Coriolis Effect in the semicircular canals

445. "Pilot's vertigo":

Is a sensation of rotation during flight due to multiple irritations of several semicircular canals at

the same time

446. What is the name for the sensation of rotation occurring during flight and which is caused by

multiple irritations of several semicircular canals at the same time?

"Pilot's" Vertigo

447. Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot get, when he is stopping the rotation to recover

from a spin? He will get the illusion of

Spinning into the opposite direction

448. Starting a coordinated level turn can make the pilot believe to

Climb

449. When accelerating forward the otoliths in the utriculus/sacculus will

Give the illusion of climbing (body tilting backwards, nose of the a/c going up)

450. A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may experience:

The illusion of climbing or descending

451. The cupula in the semicircular canal will be bent, when a rotation begins. This is because

The fluid (endolymph) within the semicircular canal lags behind the accelerated canal walls

452. The semicircular canals monitor


453. Changes in ambient pressure and accelerations during flight are important physiological factors

limiting the pilots’ performance if not taken into consideration. Linear accelerations along the long axis of

the body

Change blood pressure and blood volume distribution in the body

HPL - P a g e | 36

454. Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B and C are chemical factors and essential to good night vision:

1. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease night vision performance

2. An excess intake of vitamin A will improve night vision performance significantly

3. Pilots should be carefully concerned to take a balanced diet containing sufficient vitamin A

4. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease visual acuity in photopic vision but not in scotopic vision


455. The semicircular canals detect


456. To prevent vertigo in flight we should

Not move the head suddenly while we are turning

457. When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a slight degree of hypoxia is the

Vision

458. The group of tiny bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) are situated in

The middle ear

459. The semicircular canals form part of the

Inner ear

460. Angular accelerations are picked up in the inner ear by


461. When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensation

That we are starting a spin into the opposite direction

462. When accelerating in level flight we could experience the sensation of a

Climb

463. Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db can end up in

Noise induced hearing loss

464. All pilots are going to suffer some hearing deterioration as part of the process of growing old.

The effects of aging

Are to cut out the high tones first

465. The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations between the frequencies

16 - 20,000 Hz

466. The intensity of a sound is measured in

Decibels

467. The part(s) of the eye responsible for night vision

Are the rods

468. The fovea

Is an area in which cones predominate

469. When the optical image forms in front of the retina; we are talking about

Myopia

HPL - P a g e | 37

470. Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by

The duration and intensity of a noise

471. During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which should be used to overcome illusions is the:

Visual sense, interpreting the attitude indicator

472. Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during flight:

If the brain receives conflicting information and the pilot does not believe the instruments

473. Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal equilibrium in the face of variations brought

about by external stimulations.

This internal equilibrium is called:

Homeostasis

474. Which of the following systems are involved in the appearance of motion sickness ?

-1 : Hearing

-2 : The vestibular system

-3 : Vision

-4 : The proprioceptive senses "Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense"

-5 : The gastrointestinal system

2,3,4

475. The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by the concentration of:

Carbon dioxide in the blood

476. Perceptual conflicts between the vestibular and visual systems are :

1 - classic and resistant when flying in IMC

2 - sensed via impressions of rotation

3 - sensed via distorted impressions of the attitude of the aircraft

4 - considerable during prolonged shallow turns under IMC

1,2,3,4

477. Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between the visual system and the

vestibular system?

-1: Illusions concerning the attitude of the aircraft

-2: Autokinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving)

-3: Illusions when estimating the size and distance of objects

-4: Illusions of rotation

1,4

478. The vestibular system is composed of

-1: two ventricles

-2 : a saccule

-3 : an utricle

-4 : three semicircular channels

2,3,4

HPL - P a g e | 38

479. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

- 1: The retina has rods on its peripheral zone and cones on its central zone

- 2: The retina has cones and the crystalline lens has rods

- 3: The rods allow for night-vision

- 4: The cones are located on the peripheral zone of the retina

1,3

480. In order to perceive colour vision, it is necessary:

-1 : for there to be considerable amount of light (ambient luminosity)

-2 : at night to look at the point to be observed at an angle of 15°

-3 : to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the light

-4 : to avoid white light

1

481. The retina allows for the acquisition of colours as a result of the:

Cones located in its central part

482. Accommodation, which enables a clear image to be obtained, is accomplished by which of the

following?

The crystalline lens

483. We know that, in the mechanism of sight, the retina allows for:

The acquisition of the visual signal and its coding into physiological data

484. We know that transverse accelerations (Gy)

- 1 : are above all active in turns and pull-outs

- 2 : are present during take-off and landing

- 3 : are rare during routine flights

- 4 : often lead to loss of consciousness

3

485. Rods (scotopic visual cells) allow for:

Good night-vision after adaptation to darkness (30 min)

486. To optimise one's night-vision performance, it is necessary:

- 1 : to spend some time getting adapted to low levels of illumination

- 2 : to increase the instrument panel lighting by reducing the cockpit lighting

- 3 : not to focus on the point to be observed

- 4 : to avoid blinding

1,3,4

487. Visual perception of depth at close to medium distance is primarily due to

Binocular vision

488. Autokinetic illusion is:

An illusion in which a stationary point of light, if stared at for several seconds in the dark, may -

without a frame of reference - appear to move

489. With regard to illusions due to perceptive conflicts, it may be said that they:

Are mainly due to a sensory conflict concerning perception of the vertical and the horizontal

between the vestibular and the visual system

HPL - P a g e | 39

490. With regard to central vision, which of the following statements are correct?

-1: It is due to the functioning of rods

-2: It enables details, colours and movement to be seen

-3: Its very active both during the day and at night

-4: It represents a zone where about 150.000 cones per mm are located to give high resolution capacity

2,4


70% of information processed by man enters via the visual channel

492. The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric information (piercing vision):

Is limited to the foveal area of the retina

493. Rising the sensory threshold of a sensory organ means:

A lesser sensitivity

494. Subcutaneous pressure receptors are stimulated by:

The pressure created on the corresponding body parts when sitting, standing or lying down

495. The kinesthetic sense does not orient an individual to his surroundings, but informs him of

The relative motion and relative position of his body parts

496. A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism on stimulation of receptors is called:

Reflex

497. The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by:

The pupil

498. When focusing on near objects:

The shape of lens gets more spherical

499. The ability of the lens to change its shape is called:

Accommodation

500. The mechanism of accommodation is controlled by:

The functioning of the ciliary muscle around the lens

501. Presbyopia is:

Far sightedness linked with age

502. Glaucoma

1. can lead to total blindness

2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual field

3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage


503. Glaucoma is:

High intra-ocular pressure

HPL - P a g e | 40

504. Glaucoma is characterised by:

1. disturbed light adaptation

2. progressive narrowing of the visual field

3. insidious onset and concealed progression

4. an increase in intra-ocular pressure

2, 3 and 4 are correct ,1 is false

505. The peripheral vision is important for:

Detecting moving objects

506. Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it is important during flight to use the scanning

technique, because

Only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an object clearly

507. The time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is about:

25 - 30 minutes

508. The photosensitive cells being responsible for night vision are called:

The rods

509. When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you can protect yourself from flashblindness by:

a) turning up the intensity of cockpit lights

b) looking inside the cockpit

c) wearing sunglasses

d) using face blinds or face curtains when installed

a), b), c) and d) are correct

510. Which scanning technique should be used when flying at night?

Look to the side (15 - 20 deg) of the object

511. The Eustachian tube connects:

The middle ear and the throat

512. Excessive exposure to noise damages:

The sensitive membrane in the cochlea

513. The inner ear is able to perceive:

1. angular acceleration

2. linear acceleration

3. noise

1 and 2 and 3 are correct

514. Angular accelerations are perceived by:


515. The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to:

Linear acceleration and gravity

HPL - P a g e | 41

516. Visual disturbances can be caused by:

1. hyperventilation

2. hypoxia

3. hypertension

4. fatigue


517. Disorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is:

1. flying in IMC

2. frequently changing between inside and outside references

3. flying from IMC into VMC

4. having a cold


518. Positive linear acceleration when flying in IMC may cause a false sensation of:

Pitching up

519. Linear acceleration when flying straight and level in IMC may give the illusion of:

Climbing

520. Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation is the result of:

Simultaneous head movements during aircraft manoeuvres

521. When turning in IMC, head movements should be avoided as much as possible. This is prevention

against:

Coriolis illusion

522. A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a tight turn, experiences:

Coriolis illusion

523. Empty field myopia is caused by:

Lack of distant focal points

524. When a pilot is staring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the dark he might get the

illusion that:

The light is moving

525. When you stare at a single light against the dark (an isolated star) you will find the light appears to

move after some time. This phenomenon is called:

Autokinetic phenomenon

526. How is haze effecting your perception?

Objects seem to be further away than in reality

527. The 'Black hole' phenomenon occurs during approaches at night and over water, jungle or desert.

When the pilot is lacking of visual cues other than those of the aerodrome there is an illusion of

Being too high and too far away, dropping low and landing short

528. You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27 m), to an international airport (runway width 45

m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:

High approach with overshoot

HPL - P a g e | 42

529. You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45 m) to a small airfield (runway width 27 m). On

reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:

Low approach with undershoot

530. What can be said about the following statements?

1. In case of conflicting information you can always trust your Seat- of-the-Pants-Sense.

2. In case of conflicting information between the sensory organs and the instruments you must believe the

instruments.

1 is false, 2 is correct

531. How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By

Maintaining a good instrument cross check

532. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?

Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments

533. How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight?

Establish and maintain a good instrument cross check

534. If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should:

Continue on instruments

535. If you are disorientated during night flying you must:

Rely on instruments

536. How long does it take to develop full night vision adaption?

30 minutes

537. The optic system of the eye consists of

Cornea, lens, vitreous humor

538. The three coats of the eye are

Sclera, uvea, retina

539. The refractive power of the lens is

Variable from 16..... 30 D

540. Shortsightedness means

Subjects start later with presbyopia than usual

541. The onset of presbyopia depends

On age and whether the subject is shortsighted, farsighted, or normal sighted


Cones are responsible for night vision and are most densely in the fovea centralis

543. Color vision is performed by three different classes of cones:

Red, green, blue

544. The normal visual acuity allows discrimination of two different points under an angle of

1 minute of arc

HPL - P a g e | 43

545. Sound waves are transferred from the outer ear to the inner ear by:

The Ossicles

546. The organ that transfers vibrations to nerve impulses in your ear is called

The cochlea

547. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?

The use of regular white light, such as flashlight, will impair night adaption

548. Below are four statements about rods and cones. Which one is true?

Cones give the best visual acuity

549. Visual acuity is best within ….. degrees of the fovea and reduces ….. towards the periphery of vision:

2-3, rapidly

550. The part of the eye that bends the light the most is:

The cornea

551. What is the audible range of the human ear?

20 – 20 000 Hz

552. What technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and the left during straight and level

flight?

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

553. What unit of measurement is used for intensity of sound?

dB

554. The function of the Eustachian tube is to equalise the pressure between the:

Middle ear and the external atmosphere

555. What is the World Health Organisation (WHO) definition of alcoholism?

When the excessive use of alcohol repeatedly damages a person´s physical, mental or social life

556. How should you scan for other traffic at night?

Look to the side of the object and scan slowly

557. By "long duration acceleration" we mean that it lasts longer than:

1 sec

558. Among the factors which can cause illusions while taxiing are:

Relative movement and cockpit height above the ground

559. The proprioceptors do not orient an individual to his/her surroundings, but informs him/her of:

The relative motion and relative position of his body parts

560. The system which controls breathing, digestion, heart rate, etc., over which there is no voluntary

control, is:

The autonomic nervous system

561. The Peripheral Nervous System passes information from the:

Sensory inputs to the CNS through sensory and motor nerves

HPL - P a g e | 44

562. The 5 human senses tend to adapt.

This statement is true

563. The Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) regulates:

Sweating, arterial pressure, body temperature and the General Adaption Syndrome

564. What are the main parts of the Central Nervous System and where is vision processed?

The brain and spinal chord are the main parts of the CNS and vision is processed at the cortex

565. During poor weather conditions a pilot should fly with reference to instruments because:

Perception of distance and speed is difficult in an environment of low contrast

566. Glaucoma is due to:

Increase in pressure of the liquid within the eye

567. What is meant by presbycusis?

Gradual loss of hearing with age

568. Night vision is significantly reduced (i.e. a loss of more than 25%) at 15000 ft in which stage of

hypoxia?

Compensatory

569. Which factors can lead to deterioration in vision?

1) Hypoxia

2) Smoking

3) Poor diet, lacking Vitamin A

4) Exposure to bright lights


1, 2, 3, 4

570. To prevent empty field myopia at higher altitudes:

It is recommended that a pilot uses short sharp scans, or periodically focuses on a distant object

such as a wingtip or cloud edge

571. Night vision:

Requires up to 30 minutes reaching its best performance

572. The cornea and the crystalline lens of the eye:

Cause the convergence of light rays onto the retina

573. During the cruise, at night, when the workload is low, it is recommended that:

The lighting in the cockpit be increased in order to prevent low vigilance

574. Vision of terrain relief (e.g. hills, valleys, etc.):

Is based on binocular vision at short distances and the rules of proportion and perspective for

objects that are further away

575. Among the factors which affect visual acuity are:

Hypoxia, age and angular distance from the fovea

HPL - P a g e | 45

576. Among the factors which affect night vision are:

Age, cabin altitudes above 5000 ft, smoking and alcohol

577. Presbyopia causes a:

Decrease of accommodation

578. Astigmatism is caused by:

A mis-shapened cornea

579. Cataract is caused by:

A clouding of the lens

580. If warned of an imminent thunderstorm:

Cockpit lights should be turned up

581. When scanning, how does the eye move and how is smooth vision achieved?

The eyes move in short jerky movements called saccades. Smooth vision is achieved in the visual

cortex

582. At which altitude (within the "indifferent zone") may a degradation of night vision occur?

From approximately 1600 m


Scotopic Vision is vision through the operation of the Rods

584. The eye can fully adjust to:

High levels of illumination in 10 seconds and darkness in 30 minutes

585. Concerning the light sensitive cells of the eye:

The cones detect colour vision and are highly sensitive to hypoxia

586. Which is correct with regard to Glaucoma?

Is a condition detected by pressure testing the eye ball

587. Colour Blindness:

May be subtle and only detected using specialised tests

588. Presbyopia:

Is common over the age of 50

589. Presbycusis results in:

Reduction in the perception of high tones first

590. By what action could the pressure gradient between the middle and the outer ear be balanced?

By swallowing

HPL - P a g e | 46

591. The damaging effects of noise on the pilot depends on:

1) the intensity of the noise

2) the frequency of the noise

3) the exposure time to noise

4) proper use of the headset in the cockpit


1, 2, 3, 4

592. The Ossicles (the malleus, incus and stapes) are:

Located in the middle ear

593. Presbycusis causes initial loss of:

High tones

594. Equalization of air pressure between the outer and the middle ear is:

Important to prevent pain and loss of hearing during flight

595. Hearing tests are carried out during pilot medicals to:

Detect early signs of deafness

596. Sound is measured in:

dB

597. The vestibular apparatus consists of the:

Semi-circular canals and the otoliths

598. The following three conditions will decrease the G-tolerance:

Obesity, alcohol, sleeps deprivation

599. What is the correct action to counteract vertigo?

Believe the instruments

600. What can cause spatial disorientation?

False perception of orientation of the aircraft with respect to spatial references

601. When might a pilot have the sensation of a nose-low attitude?

When decelerating in straight, horizontal flight

602. How can vertigo be prevented in conditions of good visibility?

By looking at the horizon

603. On approach, by day, in snowy conditions, without reference to glideslope information:

Judgment of height is extremely difficult

604. On experiencing a vestibular illusion in straight and level flight, it is recommended that:

You avoid head movements and rely on your instruments

605. When the weather is foggy, on approach, a pilot may get a feeling of:

The airfield being further away than it actually is

HPL - P a g e | 47

606. A pilot may get the illusion of low altitude on approach although the aircraft is on the correct

glidepath:

When the runway is wider than he is used to

607. The "Leans" or Somatogyral illusion can be caused by:

Reducing bank following a prolonged turn

608. The Somatogravic illusion gives the pilot a false impression of:

Climbing or descending

609. State the conditions which cause the "black hole effect" and the danger to flight safety:

The "black hole effect" can be caused by flying over water at night on the approach to an airfield

which can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it is, leading to a low

approach being flown

610. While flying VFR "wings level" on top of clouds at 10000 feet, your artificial horizon indicates a 20

degree bank:

You trust the instrument and level off according to the instrument read-out

611. Perceptional illusions are:

Normal an can be prevented by trusting instrument read-out

612. Which of the following factors may have an influence on medical disqualification?

High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory system

613. Alcohol, even when taken in minor quantities

Can make the brain cells to be more susceptible to hypoxia

614. When assessing an individual’s risk in developing coronary artery disease, the following factors may

contribute:

1.obesity

2.distress

3.smoking

4.family history


615. Concerning flying and blood alcohol content the following statement is correct:

No flying under the influence of alcohol

616. The metabolisation of alcohol

Is a question of time

617. Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s performance

The primary and the side effects have to be considered

618. When drugs against sleep disorders and/or nervosity have been taken and the pilot intends to fly,

attention has to be paid to

The effect they have on reaction time and perceptional awareness

HPL - P a g e | 48

619. Drugs against allergies (antihistamines), when taken by an aviator can cause the following

undesirable effects:

1. Drowsiness, dizziness

2. Dry mouth

3. Headaches

4. Impaired depth perception

5. Nausea

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct

620. The consumption of medicines or other substances may have consequences on qualification to fly

for the following reasons:

1. The disease requiring a treatment may be cause for disqualification.

2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of the body to a treatment.

3. Drugs may cause adverse side effects impairing flight safety.

4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily immediately disappear when the treatment is stopped.


621. Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the flyer, because there are long-term and short-

term harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can get:

A mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilot´s tolerance to hypoxia

622. A pilot who smokes will loose some of his capacity to transport oxygen combined with hemoglobin.

Which percentage of his total oxygen transportation capacity would he give away when he smokes one

pack of cigarettes a day?

5 - 8%

623. Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen

content in the blood equal to an altitude

Above 10 000 FT

624. Which of the following applies when alcohol has been consumed?

Even after the consumption of small amounts of alcohol, normal cautionary attitudes may be lost

625. Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, may

Intensify the effects of the drugs

626. Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate)

Is approx. 0.015% per hour and cannot be expedited

627. Carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion, is toxic because

It competes with oxygen in its union with haemoglobin

628. The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many factors. However, the rate of metabolism or

digestion of alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is about

0,01 - 0,015 mg % per hour

629. A slight lack of coordination which can make it difficult to carry out delicate and precise movements

occurs when the level of alcohol in the blood is exceeding

0.05 % blood alcohol

HPL - P a g e | 49

630. The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce modifications in cells which develop a

cancer) in the bronchi of the lungs is

Tar

631. One of the substances present in the smoke of cigarettes can make it significantly more difficult for

the red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a consequence contributes to hypoxia. Which substance are

we referring to?

Carbon monoxide

632. It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:

Pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents

633. The so-called Coriolis effect (a conflict in information processing in the brain) in spatial disorientation

occurs:

On stimulating several semicircular canals simultaneously

634. To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise should be

Double the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three times a week

635. Which of the following is most true?

Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to lose weight is by

reducing caloric consumption

636. The chemical substance responsible for addiction to tobacco is

Nicotine

637. It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:

The tissue around the nasal end of the Eustachian tube is likely to be swollen thus causing

difficulty in equalising the pressure within the middle ear and the nasal/throat area. Pain and

damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents

638. A large number of medical preparations can be bought without a doctor´s prescription. In relation to

using these preparations, which of the following is correct:

A pilot using any of these preparations should get professional advice from a flight surgeon if he

intends to fly and self-medicate at the same time

639. Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust gases of engines. If a pilot is exposed to carbon

monoxide, which of the following responses is correct?

A short exposure to relatively high concentrations of carbon monoxide can seriously affect a pilot´s

ability to operate an aircraft

640. The following occurs in man if the internal body temperature increases to 38°C:

Impairment of physical and mental performance

641. Which of the following mechanisms regulate body temperature when exposed to extreme high

environmental temperatures?

-1 : Shivering

-2 : Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels

-3 : Sweating

-4 : Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels

3,4

HPL - P a g e | 50

642. The following can be observed when the internal body temperature falls below 35°C:

Shivering will tend to cease, and be followed by the onset of apathy

643. We can observe the following in relation to a state of hypothermia:

Reasoning problems as soon as body temperature falls below 37°C


1 Hypothermia affects physical and mental abilities.

2 Man has effective natural protection against intense cold.

3 Shivering makes it possible to combat the cold to a certain extent, but uses up a lot of energy

4 Disorders associated with hypothermia appear at a body temperature of less than 35°C

1,3,4

645. Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is correct?

Complete adaption to the heat in a hot country takes about a fortnight

646. Exchange of gases between the body and the environment takes place at the:

Lungs

647. Our body takes its energy from:

1: minerals

2: protein

3: carbonhydrates

4: vitamines

2,3

648. What is meant by metabolism?

The generation and utilisation of energy by the body's cells and tissues

649. One of the waste products of the metabolic process in the cell is:

Carbon dioxide

650. The body loses water via:

1. the skin and the lungs

2. the kidneys

1 and 2 are correct

651. Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be affected by:

1. anaemia

2. smoking in the cockpit

3. carbon monoxide poisoning

4. hypoxia


652. Conductive hearing loss can be caused by:

1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by infection or trauma

2. a damage of the auditory nerve

3. an obstruction in the auditory duct

4. a ruptured tympanic membrane


HPL - P a g e | 51

653. Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is caused by:

Damage of the sensitive membrane in the cochlea due to overexposure to noise

654. Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of:

1. flatulence

2. pain in the ear during descent

3. pressure vertigo

4. pain in the nasal sinuses


655. Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect?

Pain in the sinuses

656. Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the human body?

Judgment and decision making can be affected even by a small amount of alcohol


1. Smokers have a greater chance of suffering from coronary heart disease

2. Smoking tobacco will raise the individuals physiological altitude during flight

3. Smokers have a greater chance for lung cancer


658. Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood to carry oxygen. This is because:

Hemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than it has for oxygen

659. CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of cigarettes can lead to:

1. reduction of time of usefull consciousness

2. hypoxia at a much lower altitude than normal


660. Carbon monoxide in the human body can lead to:

1. loss of muscular power

2. headache

3. impaired judgement

4. pain in the joints

5. loss of consciousness

1, 2 , 3 and 5 are correct

661. Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as:

Altitude increases

662. What is meant by the term "Incapacitation"?

The gradual or sudden loss of a crew member’s ability to function

663. When flying with a cold you might primarily experience problems with:

Pain around the forehead

664. Noise Induced Hearing Loss (NIHL) is:

Governed by intensity and duration of noise in excess of 90 dB

HPL - P a g e | 52

665. A pilot has caught a cold. What may happen to his susceptibility to hypoxia?

It will increase due to the need to generate more oxygen which leads to a greater demand for

oxygen

666. How can a person be infected by yellow fever?

From a contaminated mosquito

667. What is (are) typical diseases caused by contaminated water?

Typhoid, Dysentery, Cholera

668. How is dengue fever transmitted?

By several species of mosquitoes during daytime

669. The body obtains its energy from:

Carbohydrates, protein and fats

670. To avoid incapacity due to gastro-intestinal problems, it is recommended that a simple, easily

digested meal before boarding the aircraft should be accompanied by:

Non-carbonated water

671. Caffeine may cause an increase in cardiac rate, restlessness/nervousness, insomnia, anxiety and

intestinal irritability. Excessive consumption is considered to be in excess of:

250 mg/day

672. Physical exercise in high temperatures (tropical climates) may:

Cause painful muscle and abdominal cramps

673. Medical conditions such as high blood pressure, coronary problems and diabetes are associated

with:

Obesity

674. Hepatitis "A" is transmitted through?

Food or water which has been contaminated

675. A pilot, height 1.7m and weighing 57kg. She is?

Normal

676. When using the Body Mass Index (BMI) formula, when is a pilot considered to be obese?

Over 30 for males, over 29 for females

677. The main purpose of lumbar support is to:

Produce an even pressure on the discs by allowing the lower spine to curve naturally

678. Which of the following statements is true concerning regular physical exercise?

1) It increases pulse rate and stroke volume in the short term

2) It reduces blood pressure and heart rate in the long term

3) It reduces human tolerance to hypoxia

1, 2, 3

679. How is yellow fever contracted?

A virus transmitted by infected mosquito

HPL - P a g e | 53

680. Among the measures that a pilot should take when in an area where gastro-intestinal upsets are

endemic is?

Avoidance of ice in cold drinks

681. Cholera can be transmitted by?

Food or water which has been contaminated

682. Tetanus is transmitted through?

Bacteria in the form of spores via puncture in the skin

683. Hypoclycaemia can be caused by:

Not eating regularly and fasting

684. In the event of a fuel spillage onto the body it is advisable that the affected area is?

Initially washed with copious water and without the use of soap

685. Tattooing and immunisation with the use of improperly sterilised needles or syringes may expose

the receiver to which of the following?

Hepatitis B or C

686. In tropical zones, it is recommended that:

Cold drinks be taken from sealed containers

687. In-flight incapacitation of a pilot is most frequently caused by:

Acute gastrointestinal disorders

688. When considering the eating habits of pilots:

Breakfast should bring about 25% of the daily calorie intake

689. Trace elements should be obtained through:

A balanced diet

690. The organ which metabolises alcohol from the body is the:

Liver

691. Approximately how long will a blood/alcohol level of 60 mgm/100 ml take to return to normal?

4 hours

692. Phobic states or obsessional disorders will:

May require successful treatment before flying may be permitted

693. Excessive intake of aspirin can cause:

Gastric bleeding

694. Alcohol degrades:

Paradoxical sleep

695. The most dangerous type of incapacitation in flight in one that:

Develops slowly and gradually (insidious)

696. What diseases can be associated with contaminated water?

Typhoid, Cholera, Dysentery

HPL - P a g e | 54

697. Smoking 3 cigarettes in 1 hour at sea level will:

Cause a lower degree of hypoxic tolerance

698. Flying while suffering from a cold may expose a pilot to:

Otic and sinus barotrauma

699. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to alcohol?

It is absorbed directly from the stomach and intestines into the bloodstream

700. When travelling in developing and tropical areas of the world, aircrew should avoid:

1) ice cubes in drinks

2) swimming in local lakes or rivers

3) eating unpeeled fruit

4) local ice cream and salads

5) wearing short clothing in the evenings

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

701. Is it possible to suffer from Aerodontalgia in the descent?

No

702. Hypertension:

Increases the risk of a heart attack and stroke

703. Heart attack (myocardial infarction):

Is the commonest cause of death in men over the age of 40

704. Heart attack (myocardial infarction):

Is a total blockage of a coronary artery leading to the death of a piece of heart muscle

705. Otic Barotrauma is worse during the descent than climb because:

The air in the middle ear is at a lower pressure than the cabin, this closes the eustation tube so that

the pressure cannot be equalised

HPL - P a g e | 55

706. The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working memory is:

About 7 items

707. Concentration is essential for pilots.

However, capacity of concentration is limited

708. The quality of learning:

Is promoted by feedback on the value of one's own performance

709. Long-term memory is an essential component of the pilot's knowledge and expertise.

It is desirable to pre-activate knowledge stored in long-term memory to have it available when

required

710. Less experienced pilots differ from experienced pilots in the following way:

Inexperienced pilots refer to information more than experts when carrying out the same task

711. The first stage in the information process is

Sensory stimulation

712. The capacity of the short-term memory is

About 7 items

713. Information stays in the short-term memory

About 20 seconds

714. The ability of detecting relevant information which is not presented in an actively monitored input

channel is known as

Attention

715. The human information processing system is highly efficient compared to computers because of its

Flexibility

716. Motor programmes are:

Stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed without continuous conscious

control

717. Working memory enables us, for example,

To remember a clearance long enough to write it down

718. In the short-term-memory, information is stored for approximately

20 seconds

719. The Cocktail Party Effect is:

The ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally

720. Once we have constructed a mental model we tend

To give undue weight to information that confirms the model

721. Our mental model of the world is based

On both our past experiences and the sensory information we receive

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722. Which of the following tasks are possible to do simultaneously without mutual interference?

Maintain manual straight and level flight and solve a problem

723. Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive pretraining is called the inner, ideomotor simulation of

actions.

It is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skills

724. How can the process of learning be enhanced?

By reinforcing successful performance

725. Learning is called each lasting change of behaviour due to

Practice and experience

726. Mental rehearsal is helpful to improve flying skills

At all levels of flying proficiency

727. A selective attentional mechanism is required

Because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory

728. Working memory:

Is sensitive to interruptions which may erase all or some of its content

729. Motivation is an important attribute which contributes to flight safety.

Which of the following statements is correct with regards to motivation?

Excessive motivation leads to stress which adversely affects performance

730. In order to provide optimum human performance it is advisable to

Establish strategies for planning, automating and managing resources (in real time)

731. The planning and anticipation of future actions and situations makes it possible to:

-1 : create a precise reference framework.

-2 : avoid saturation of the cognitive system.

-3 : automate planned actions.

-4 : activate knowledge which is considered necessary for the period to come.

The correct statement(s) is (are):


732. Pre-thought action plans may be said to:

-1 : ease access to information which may be necessary.

-2 : sensitize and prepare for a possible situation to come.

-3 : be readily interchangeable and can therefore be reformulated at any time during the flight.

-4 : define a framework and a probable strategy for the encountered situation.

The combination of correct statements is:


HPL - P a g e | 57

733. The workload may be said to:

-1 : be acceptable if it requires more than 90 % of the crew resources

-2 : be acceptable if it requires about 60 % of the crew resources.

-3 : depend on the pilot's expertise.

-4 : correspond to the amount of resources available



734. According to Wicken's theory, the human brain has:

Different reservoirs of resources depending on whether one is in the information-gathering,

information-processing or action phase

735. The available cognitive resources of the human brain:

Are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same time

736. Mental schemes correspond to:

Memorised representations of the various procedures and situations which can be reactivated by

the pilot at will

737. The acquisition of skill comprises three stages (Anderson model):

Cognitive, associative and autonomous

738. A pilot can be described as being proficient, when he/she:

Has automated a large part of the necessary flight deck routine operations in order to free his/her

cognitive resources

739. Conscious perception

Is a mental process involving experience and expectations

740. Which of the following provides the basis of all perceptions?

The intensity of the stimuli

741. The "gestalt laws "formulates:

Basic principles governing how objects are mentally organized and perceived

742. The effect of experience and repetition on performance

Can both be beneficial and negative

743. Murphy's law states:

If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly, then sooner or later, it will

be

744. In the absence of external reference points, the sensation that the vehicle in which you are sitting is

moving when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is moving is called:

Illusion of relative movement

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745. Which of the following are the most favourable solutions to manage phases of reduced or low

vigilance (hypovigilance)?

1. Healthy living

2. Use of amphetamines

3. Reducing the intensity of the light

4. Organising periods of rest during the flight

1,4

746. What are main signs indicating the loss of vigilance?

1. Decrease in sensory perception

2. Increase in selective attention

3. Sensation of muscular heaviness

4. Decrease in complacency

1,3

747. What is "divided attention"?

The management of several matters of interest dealt with individually one after the other

748. Which of the following statements concerning hypovigilance is correct?

Hypovigilance:

May occur at any moment of the flight

749. What are the main factors which bring about reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance)?

1. The monotony of the task

2. Tiredness, the need for sleep

3. A lack of stimulation

4. Excessive stress

1,2,3

750. Which of the following are primary sources of motivation in day-to-day professional life?

1. Being in control of one's own situation

2. Fear of punishment

3. Success (achievement of goals)

4. Social promotion, money

1,3,4

751. Which of the following statements summarises the impact that motivation may have on attention?

It increases the mobilisation of energy and thus facilitates the quality of alertness and attention

752. What is the main adverse effect of expectation with regards to perception?

Expectation often guides the focus of attention towards a particular aspect, while possible

alternates are neglected

753. With regard to the level of automation of behaviours in the attention mechanism, we know that:

The more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and thus the more it

frees mental resources

HPL - P a g e | 59

754. What are the various factors which guide attention?

1. The level of automation of behaviour

2. Response time

3. The salience of the information

4. Expectations

1,3,4

755. The needs of an individual lead to:

A change in the individuals motivation and consequently to an adaptation of the behaviour

756. The main limit(s) of long-term memory is (are):

Data retrieval as a result from a loss of access to the stored information

757. What are the main limits of short-term memory?

It is :

-1 : very sensitive to interruptions and interference

-2 : difficult to access

-3 : limited in size

-4 : subject to a biochemical burn-in of information

1,3 ,4

758. If a pilot has to perform two tasks requiring the allocation of cognitive resources:

The sharing of resources causes performance on each task to be reduced

759. Which of the following characteristics apply to short-term memory?

- 1 : It is limited in time and size

- 2 : It is unlimited in time and limited in size

- 3 : It is stable and insensitive to disturbances

- 4 : It is limited in time and unlimited in size

1

760. With regard to short-term memory, we can say that:

It is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in its capacity for storing

and retaining data

761. Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are:

Associated with the task of mental construction of the environment

762. To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access information in long-term memory, it is helpful to:

Mentally rehearse information before it is needed

763. Concerning the capacity of the human long-term memory

Its storage capacity is unlimited

HPL - P a g e | 60

764. Which of the following statements about long-term memory are correct?

-1: Information is stored there in the form of descriptive, rule-based and schematic knowledge.

-2: The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the frequency with which this same

information is used.

-3: It processes information quickly and has an effective mode of access in real time.

-4: Pre-activation of necessary knowledge will allow for a reduction in access time.

1 and 4 are correct

765. Whilst flying a coordinated turn, most of your activity is


766. If you approach an airfield VFR at a prescribed altitude, exactly following the approach procedure,

and you encounter no unexpected or new problems you show:


767. The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and conditions of the landing is:


768. The ability to monitor information which could indicate the development of a critical situation:

Is necessary to maintain good situational awareness


1. The first information received determines how subsequent information will be evaluated

2. If one has made up one's mind, contradictory information may not get the attention it really needs

3. With increasing stress, channelizing attention is limiting the flow of information to the central decision

maker (CNS)


770. In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently correct explanation for the problem. The chance

that he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is:

Increasing

771. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1) Interesting information is easier to take into consideration for creating a mental picture than boring

information

2) The sequence in which information is offered is also important for the use the pilot makes of it


772. Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they don't have to think up every time what they

have to do.

This has to be positively appreciated for it increases consistency in action

773. The development of procedures makes pilots more effective and more reliable in their actions. This

is called:

Procedural consistency

774. The common illusion created by linear acceleration or deceleration is:

A pitch up feeling when the aircraft accelerates

HPL - P a g e | 61

775. If the pilot of an aircraft approaches a runway that is wider than normal, one of the possible

consequences could be that:

The aircraft would touch down after he expects to

776. An ideal professional pilot is in his behaviour:

Both person and goal oriented

777. What effect does haze have on the abilities to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

Haze creates the illusion of being at a greater distance than actual from the runway and causes

pilots to fly a lower approach

778. You are carrying out a visual approach to a runway which slopes upwards away from the touchdown

end.

What is the main risk in this case?

Landing short due to over-correcting for an apparent height increase

779. Vertigo can be brought on by:

Disease, accelerations, pressure changes and flashing lights

780. As a pilot's workload is increased, what happens to his performance level?

The standard of performance increases until an optimum level of workload and performance is

achieved

781. What are the best visual cues for height during the round out?

Apparent speed and texture of ground objects

782. Which of the following statements about alcohol is true?

Alcohol will lower the tolerance for hypoxia

783. If runway slopes downwards, what is a pilot is likely to do:

Land long

784. What is the relationship between performance and arousal?

Performance is degraded by both high and low arousal

785. A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon and a dark scene spread with ground lights and

stars can create an illusion known as:

False horizon

786. Suppose you make an IMC go-around in a high-speed. Which of the following illusions are you likely

to experience?

Nose up attitude

787. Suppose you make an approach to a runway which is narrower than standard. Which of the

following errors are you likely to commit?

Initiate a flare too late

HPL - P a g e | 62

788. Regarding arousal, which of the following statements is wrong?

A medium level of arousal can be dangerous, since you have little spare mental capacity in this

situation

789. Illusions can often be experienced during flight. One such illusion is created by strong forward linear

acceleration. This phenomenon is called:

Somatogravic or oculogravic

790. The errors of a motor programme are:

Action slip and environmental capture (habituation)

791. A pilot experiences difficulties in the control of his aircraft and consequently omits to monitor the fuel

level. This is caused by:

A lack of attention due to distraction

792. The phases of learning a motor programme are:

Cognitive, associative and automatic phases

793. The main limitation of the long-term memory is:

Unless information is accessed from time to time, retrieval of information can be difficult

794. The acquisition of a motor programme (skill) will mean that:

The more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and thus the more it

frees mental resources

795. What are two types of attention?

Selective and divided

796. Select the correct definition of vigilance:

A vigilant task is one that requires consistent monitoring without lapses in attention. Vigilance is

simply defined as sustained attention

797. The long term memory is influenced by:

Experience, repetition, suggestion, desires and expectations

798. One of the major protective measures against illusions is:

Comprehensive briefing and de-briefing

799. The Cocktail Party Effect is associated with:

Attention mechanisms

800. Stimuli must be of certain strength for the receptors to pick them up. This is called:

Sensory threshold

HPL - P a g e | 63

801. We generate mental models on:

Past experience and learning

802. Name the commonest problem of the long term memory and how would you counteract it?

Unless an item is recalled regularly, it becomes more and more difficult to retrieve from the LTM

store

803. Which of the following is correct?

70% - 80% of information processed by man enters the visual channel

804. Information received from the senses is lost:

Within 10-20 seconds unless it is rehearsed and deliberately placed in the long term memory

805. Incorrect perception:

Can be highly persuasive

806. Perception is based upon:

Information received as well as past experience and knowledge

807. Which of the following answers are correct concerning the long term memory?

1) Long term memory can be affected by expectation and suggestion

2) Long term memory is also known as the working memory

3) Long term memory is limited to plus or minus 7 pieces of disassociated pieces of information

4) Long term memory is where motor programmes (skills) are kept

1


Short-term memory is affected by interruptions

809. Which of the following is the best definition of episodic memory?

It is the memory of events which are held in the long-term memory and can be influenced by

suggestion

810. Which of the following is true with reference to semantic memory?

It is the meaning of words and general knowledge of the world; it lasts for a longer period of time

and tends to be more accurate than episodic memory

811. Why are Mnemonics used in aviation?

Because they help to increase retention of information

HPL - P a g e | 64

812. Human errors are frequent and may take several forms:

An error can be described as the mismatch between the pilots intention and the result of his/her

actions

813. Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in aviation shows that:

There is hardly ever a single cause responsible

814. An excessive need for safety

Hampers severely the way of pilot decision making

815. What is meant by the term 'complacency'?

Careless negligence or unjustified self-confidence

816. What does the 'End Deterioration Effect'('Home-itis') mean?

The tendency to sudden, imperceptible errors shortly before the end of a flight

817. 'Environmental capture' is a term used to describe which of the following statements?

1.The tendency for a skill to be executed in an environment in which it is frequently exercised, even if it is

inappropriate to do so

2.The tendency for a skill acquired in one aircraft type to be executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is

inappropriate to do so

3. The tendency for people to behave in different ways in different social situations

4. The gaining of environmental skills

1 and 2 are correct

818. It is desirable to standardize as many patterns of behaviour (operating procedures) as possible in

commercial aviation mainly because

Such behaviour reduces errors even under adverse circumstances

819. According to Rasmussen's model, errors in rule-based control mode are of the following type(s) :

Errors of technical knowledge

820. According to Rasmussen's model, errors are of the following type(s) in skill-based behaviour:

Routine errors

821. Which of the following statements best fits the definition of an active error?

Active error is:

Produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected via the effects and consequences which it

induces on the overall action

822. What are the main consequences of latent errors? They:

-1 : remain undetected in the system for a certain length of time.

-2 : may only manifest themselves under certain conditions.

-3 : are quickly detectable by the front-line operator whose mental schemas on the instantaneous situation

filter out formal errors.

-4 : lull the pilots into a false sense of security.


1,2 and 4

HPL - P a g e | 65

823. Which of the following statements fits best the concept of latent error?

Have been present in the system for a certain length of time and are difficult to understand as a

result of the time lag between the generation and the occurrence of the error

824. A system is all the more reliable if it offers good delectability. The latter is the result of:

-1 : tolerance of the various systems to errors.

-2 : the sum of the automatic monitoring, detection and warning facilities.

-3 : the reliability of the Man-Man and Man-Machine links.

-4 : the alerting capability of the Man-Machine interface.


2 and 4

825. To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft system should at least be able to

Report its malfunction

826. When can a system be said to be tolerant to error? When:

The consequences of an error will not seriously jeopardize safety

827. Once detected, an error will result in cognitive consequences which:

Make it possible to modify behaviour with a view to adaptation

828. Why must flight safety considerations consider the human error mechanism?

-1 : It is analysis of an incident or accident which will make it possible to identify what error has been

committed and by whom. It is the process whereby the perpetrator is made responsible which may lead to

elimination of the error.

-2 : If we have a better understanding of the cognitive error mechanism, it will be possible to adapt

procedures, aircraft interfaces, etc.

-3 : It is error management procedure which enables us to continuously adjust our actions. The better we

understand the underlying mechanism of an error, the better will be our means for detecting and adapting

future errors.

-4 : Since error is essentially human, once it has been identified by the use of procedures, a person will be

able to anticipate and deal with it automatically in the future.


2 and 3

829. Improvement of human reliability should entail:

An effort to understand the causes and find means of recovery for errors committed

830. How can man cope with low error tolerant situations?

By constantly complying with cross-over verification procedures (cross monitoring)

831. What are the various means which allow for better error detection?

-1 : Improvement of the man-machine interface.

-2 : Development of systems for checking the consistency of situations.

-3 : Compliance with cross-over redundant procedures by the crew.

-4 : Adaptation of visual alarms to all systems.


1, 2 and 3

HPL - P a g e | 66

832. What means can be used to combat human error?

-1 : Reducing error-prone mechanisms.

-2 : Improving the way in which error is taken into account in training.

-3 : Sanctions against the initiators of error.

-4 : Improving recovery from errors and its consequences.


1, 2 and 4

833. Human behaviour is determined by:

Biological characteristics, social environment and cultural influences

834. Studies of human error rates during the performance of simple repetitive task have shown, that

errors can normally be expected to occur about

1 in 100 times

835. Which of the following human error rates can be described as both realistic and pretty good, after

methodical training?

1 in 1000 times

836. Situations particularly vulnerable to "reversion to an earlier behaviour pattern" are:

1. when concentration on a particular task is relaxed

2. when situations are characterised by medium workload

3. when situations are characterised by stress

1. and 3.

837. The most dangerous characteristic of perception is, that it

Is extremely resistant to correction

838. The level of automation helps to conserve resources. On the other hand, it may result in:

Routine errors (slips)

839. What would be the priority aim in the design of man-machine interfaces and in the creation of their

application procedures for combating problems associated with human error?

To reduce the risks of the appearance or non-detection of errors entailing serious consequences

840. What may be the origins of representation errors?

1. Perception errors

2. The catering for all available information

3. Incorrect information from the observed world

4. The receipt of a bad piece of information

1,3,4

841. What happens in problem-solving when the application of a rule allows for the situation to be

resolved?

Actions return to an automatic mode

HPL - P a g e | 67

842. In problem-solving, what determines the transition from rules-based activities to a knowledge-based

activity?

The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed

843. Under what circumstances will a pilot change from automated level to rule-based level?

When detecting, that an automated behaviour will no longer lead to the intended outcome

844. Which of the following errors occur at rules-based level?

1.Omission

2.The application of a poor rule

3. Attentional capture

4. The poor application of a good rule

2,4

845. Errors which occur during highly automated actions may result from:

1. the capture of a poor action subprogram

2. a mistake in the decision making process

3. the application of a poor rule

4. an action mode error

1,4

846. The descriptive aspect of errors according to Hollnagel's model describes various directly

observable types of erroneous actions which are:

1. Repetition and omission

2. The forward leap and the backward leap

3. Intrusion and anticipation

4. Intrusion

1,2,4

847. What are the main characteristics of active errors? They :

1. are detectable only with difficulty by first-line operators

2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in progress

3. are down to first-line operators

4. have an impact on the overall action whose timing may be affected significantly

2,3

848. The relationship which exists between crew error and flight safety:

Is dependent on the social and technical system and also on the operational context created by the

system

849. The effects of sleep deprivation on performance:

1. increase with altitude

2. decrease with altitude

3. increase with higher workload

4. decrease with higher workload

1 and 3 are correct

HPL - P a g e | 68

850. Which of the following is a typical "error of commission"?

Taxiing out to a wrong runway

851. The lowest level of Maslow's Model of the Hierarchy of Human Needs is:

Physiological needs

852. Which of the following statements is correct regarding personality?

Your personality develops during the first few years of your life

853. What is the current approach to human error?

Realization that humans are fallible and that systems and procedures should be designed to

minimise human error

854. Anxiety can affect:

1) Judgment

2) Attention

3) Memory

4) Concentration

All are correct

855. Mode error is associated with:

Automation

856. Which of the following concepts relating to human reliability is true?

If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly, then sooner or later, it will

be

857. The causes of human error can be abundant and complex. Which of the following factors could

contribute to human error?

1) Personality

2) Motivation and attitudes

3) Emotional state

4) External environmental factors

Which of the following lists all the correct answers?

1, 2, 3, 4

858. Organizational factors which affect or may have some influence on human error are:

1) malfunction of technical systems

2) fuel-saving policies

3) rostering

4) weather phenomena


2, 3

859. An unnoticed waypoint error entered in an aircraft data base is an example of:

Latent failure/error

HPL - P a g e | 69

860. If one error is allowed to affect a whole system, the system is described as:

Vulnerable

861. Active errors/failures are committed at:

The human/system interfaces and has an immediate effect

862. Which of the following are included in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?

1) Freedom from pain and danger

2) Expressions of capacities and talents

3) Self-esteem needs

4) Self-fulfillment needs

5) Physiological needs


1, 2, 3, 4, 5

HPL - P a g e | 70

863. Which of the following statements is correct regarding decision making?

Deciding means choosing between alternatives

864. Most accidents are mainly caused by lack of:

Good judgment

865. Judgment is based upon:

A process involving a pilot´s attitude to take and to evaluate risks by assessing the situation and

making decisions based upon knowledge, skill and experience

866. Which of the following is most likely to be overlooked should a pilot make a rushed decision?

Analysis of the actual situation and applying a prepared decision instead

867. In terms of decision-making, the intention to become integrated into the team, to be recognised as

the leader or to avoid conflicts may lead to:

The attempt to agree on decisions made by other crew members

868. What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of stress?

A strategy of preparing decisions

869. Which biases relate to human decision making?

1. Personal experience tends to alter the perception of the risk of an event occurring

2. There is a natural tendency to want to confirm our decision even in the face of facts which contradict it

3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to influence the particular decision

4. There is natural tending to select only objective facts for decision-making purposes

1,2,3

870. Habits and routine can influence decision-making in a way that:

A tendency to select the most familiar solution first and foremost, sometimes to the detriment of

achieving the best possible result

871. Decision-making can be influenced by the following factors:

1. people tend to conform to opinions expressed by a majority within the group they belong to

2. people always tend to keep the future decisions in line with those their superiors have made in the past

3. people more easily tend to select data which meet the expectations

4. people hardly base decisions on their personal preferences but rather on rational information

1,3

872. The DECIDE model is based on:

A prescriptive generic model, taking into account the method which seems most likely to come up

with the solution

873. Decision-making is a concept which represents:

A voluntary and conscious process of selection, from among possible solutions, for a given

problem

874. Which of the following characteristics form part of decision-making on the flight deck?

A good decision depends on analysis of the situation

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875. In decision-making, the selection of a solution depends:

1. on objective and subjective criteria

2. on the objective to be achieved

3. on the risks associated with each solution

4. above all on the personality of the decision-maker

1,2,3,4

876. Decision-making results in:

A choice between different solutions for achieving a goal

877. The confirmation bias of decision making is

A tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a decision is poor

878. The best method to avoid confirmation bias is to:

Search for information that will falsify the hypothesis

879. Which of the following are either cumulative or tend to escalate?

1) Stress factors (stressors)

2) Errors

3) The effects of carbon monoxide poisoning

4) Human conflict

5) Colour blindness

1, 2, 3, 4

880. Motivation, crew-climate and confirmation bias are factors that:

Can influence the situational awareness

881. A pilot meets the ground engineer in charge on the apron. Although the pilot has not been through

flight preparation yet, he nevertheless instructs the engineer as to the amount of fuel to be loaded, since he

is used to flying this route. This behaviour results from:

A decision bias due to habits (frequency basis)

882. In the decision making process, confirmation bias results in:

A tendency to look for information which confirms the validity of the decision

883. Decisions made by pilots in a cockpit:

Remain valid for a limited time only

884. What are the main advantages that the human possesses over those of a machine in the decision

making process?

Creativity, innovation and adaptability

885. Select from the following list the advantages of teamwork:

1) workload is lessened

2) conformity to group norm

3) flight safety enhanced

4) risky shift

5) work stress is reduced

6) improved decision making

1, 3, 5, 6

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886. In order to make sound decisions it is important to:

Understand why and how we make decisions

887. During the decision making process in the cockpit:

The amount of time available has a large influence on the analysis of the situation

888. The "ideal professional pilot" is, in his behaviour,

"person" and "goal" oriented

889. Which of the following statements concerning communication is valid?

Professional communication means: using a restricted and specific language, tailored to minimize

misunderstandings

890. Within communication, what element suggests that a message has been received and understood?

Feedback

891. The process of responding to a sender by confirming the reception of a message is called

Feedback

892. When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should

Take as much time as he needs and is available to make up his mind

893. The decision making in emergency situations requires firstly:

Distribution of tasks and crew coordination

894. Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient decision making in the cockpit?

Ability to persuade others to follow the own point of view

895. The assessment of risk in a particular situation will be based on

Subjective perception and evaluation of situational factors

896. Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem he will probably

Find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to try a different interpretation of the

data

897. To maintain good situational awareness you should:

(1) believe only in your own interpretation of the data

(2) gather as much data as possible from every possible source before making inferences

(3) question whether your hypothesis still fits the situation as events progress and try to make time to

review the situation

(4) consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis to see whether it is correct


HPL - P a g e | 73

898. Doing a general briefing in the preflight phase the captain should emphasize

Particular requirements in the field of crew coordination due to specific circumstances

899. During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain notices that his copilot on the one hand is

rather unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand highly motivated. Which kind of leadership

behaviour most likely is inappropriate?

The captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour without any comments

900. A leader who demonstrates a democratic and co-operative style will deal with conflict by:

Trying to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved

901. Which of the following sentences concerning crew-performance is correct?

The quality of crew-performance depends on the social-competence of individual team members

902. Informal roles within a crew

Evolve as a result of the interactions that take place among crew members

903. Which statement is correct? Crew decision making is generally most efficient, if all crew members

concerned

Adapt their management style to meet the situational demands

904. Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of interpersonal conflicts?

Active listening

905. The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends on both pilots:

Respecting each other and striving for the same goals

906. During the cruising phase of a short-haul flight the captain starts to smoke a cigarette in the cockpit.

The flying copilot asks him to stop smoking because he is a non-smoker. The captain tells him: 'This is your

problem', and continues smoking. What should the copilot do?

He should not further discuss this issue but should come back to this conflict during the debriefing

907. How would you describe the leadership style of a captain who primarily is interested in a friendly

atmosphere within his crew, who is always constructive and encouraging, who usually compromises in

interpersonal conflicts, who trusts in the capabilities of his crew-members, and who leaves the crew

freedom for own decisions, even if this makes the process more difficult?

Low task-orientation and high relationship-orientation

908. If the copilot continuously feels unfairly treated by the captain in an unjustified way, then he should

Duly point out the problem, reconcentrate on his duties and clear the matter in a more appropriate

occasion

909. What does not apply to a constructive and helpful feedback?

Feedback should always state bluntly the personal failings of the receiver


Problems in the personal relationships between crew members are likely to hamper their

communication process

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911. What is the sender's frequent reason to communicate implicitly ('between the lines')?

Afterwards he/she always can claim to have been misunderstood

912. Metacommunication is defined as

Communicating about the communication

913. Mark the two most important attributes for a positive leadership style:

(1) dominant behaviour

(2) exemplary role-behaviour

(3) mastery of communication skills

(4) "Laissez-faire" behaviour

2 and 3

914. An individually given feedback improves communication. Which of the following rules should a

feedback comply with?

The feedback should always relate to a specific situation

915. Nonverbal communication

Supports verbal communication

916. How do you understand the statement 'one cannot not communicate'?

Being silent as well as inactive are nonverbal behaviour patterns which express a meaning

917. Which elements of communication are prone to malfunctioning?

The sender and the receiver as well as coding and decoding

918. Discussing private matters in the cockpit

Can improve team spirit

919. Of the following statements, which apply to coordinated cooperation?

-1 : It allows for synergy in the actions between the captain and the pilot.

-2 : It represents the simultaneous execution of a single action by the various members of the crew.

-3 : Communication in this mode has the function of synchronizing actions and distributing responsibilities.

-4 : Communication must be essentially focused on temporal and cognitive synchronization.


1 and 3

920. What are the advantages of coordination?

Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility

921. Of the following statements, select those which apply to "information".

-1 : It is said to be random when it is not intended for receivers.

-2 : It is intended to reduce uncertainty for the receiver.

-3 : It is measured in bits.

-4 : Each bit of information reduces uncertainty by a quarter.


2 and 3 are correct

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922. Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:

Working parallel to achieve one common objective

923. Success in achieving the objectives of a message requires:

The matching of verbal, non-verbal and contextual meanings

924. In order to make communication effective, it is necessary to:

-1 : avoid the synchronization of verbal and non-verbal channels.

-2 : send information in line with the receiver's decoding abilities

-3 : always concentrate on the informational aspects of the message only

-4 : avoid increasing the number of communication channels, in order to simplify communication


Only 2 is correct

925. Which of the following statements regarding interpersonal interactions are correct?

1) If the sender perceives that the receiver is incompetent, he/she will simplify the message

2) If the receiver is of non-native tongue, the sender will reinforce what he is saying by using more

complicated words so as to optimize understanding

3) If the sender considers there is doubt that the message has been correctly understood, he/she must

seek clarification

4) It is much safer to fly with a crew who know each other well because communication will always be

excellent


1, 3

926. Professional languages have certain characteristics, for example:

-1 : They use a limited vocabulary

-2 : They are rich and adapted to the context, which sometimes lead to ambiguities

-3 : Their grammar is rather complicated and complex

-4 : Context provides meaning, therefore reduces the risk of ambiguities


1 and 4 are correct

927. A study by NASA has examined the relationships between incidents linked with ground-to-crew

communication. Which of the following factors is the main reason for disturbances in the correct reception

of a message?

Listening errors

928. An increase in workload usually leads to:

A shorter and less frequent exchange of information

929. With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say that:

Communication uses up resources, thus limiting the resources allocated to work in progress

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930. The intended recipient of a message must:

-1 : give priority and adapt to the sender's situation.

-2 : acknowledge the receipt only in case of doubt.

-3 : be able to reject or postpone a communication attempt if the pilot is too busy.

-4 : stabilize or finish a challenging manoeuvre before starting a discussion.


3 and 4 are correct

931. What are typical consequences of conflicts between crew members?

-1 The quality of work performance decreases as a result of the impoverishment of communications

-2 A decrease in the quality of communications

-3 In the case of a crew made up of experts, conflicts only result in deterioration in relations between the

individuals

-4 A decrease in the usage of available resources on the flight deck



932. Different non-technical related opinions between pilots from different cultural backgrounds might be

seen in connection with:

-1 : the variations of technical training and skills.

-2 : communication problems.

-3 : conflicting ways of management.

-4 : interpersonal problems.



933. The use of modern technology applied to glass-cockpit aircraft has:

Facilitated feedback from the machine via more concise data for communication on the flight deck

934. In a glass-cockpit aircraft, communication between the members of the crew:

Does not lose its importance

935. What are the communication qualities of a good briefing? A good briefing must:

-1 : contain as much information and be as comprehensive as possible

-2 : be of a standard type so that it can be reused for another flight of the same type

-3 : be short and precise

-4 : be understandable to the other crew member(s).



936. Which of the following statements concerning check list is correct?

The most important items should be placed at the beginning of a check list since attention is

usually focused here

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937. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the design of a check list?

-1 : The longer a check list, the more it must be subdivided into logical parts

-2 : The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of the check list

-3 : Check lists must be designed in such a way that they can be lumped together with other tasks

-4 : Whenever possible, a panel scan sequence should be applied

-5 : Use should be made of upper case/bold/italics/colour with care to emphasize critical items or points



938. The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way that:

Their execution must not be done simultaneously with other actions

939. The purpose of action plans which are implemented during briefings is to:

Initiate procedures and reactions for situations that are most likely, risky or difficult during the

flight

940. In order to overcome an overload of work during the flight, it is necessary to:

-1 : know how to use one's own reserve of resources in order to ease the burden on the crew

-2 : divide up tasks among the crew

-3 : ensure that the long term memory is used as much as possible as short term memory will add to the

stress

-4 : drop certain tasks and stick to high-level priorities.



941. With regard to the practice of English, which of the following statements is correct?

All pilots should master it because the aeronautical world needs one common language

942. Pilots are more easily inclined to take greater risks when:

They are part of a group of pilots and they feel that they are being observed and admired (e.g. air

shows)

943. The relevance of check procedures during flight becomes even more important when:

Flying an unfamiliar type of aircraft and experiencing mental pressure

944. Which of the following responses is an example of "habit reversion" (negative habit transfer):

A pilot who has flown many hours in an aircraft in which the fuel lever points forward for the ON

position, may unintentionally turn the fuel lever into the false position, when flying a different

aircraft, where the fuel lever has to point aft to be in the ON position

945. Although the anticipation of possible events is a good attitude for pilots to acquire, it can sometimes

lead to hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, select the response below which could lead to

such a hazard:

Mishearing the contents of a reply from an air traffic controller when a non-standard procedure was

given but a standard procedure was anticipated

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946. The person with overall responsibility for the flight is the

-1 Pilot in Command

-2 Co-pilot

-3 Navigator

-4 Air traffic controller


1

947. The trend in aeroplane loss rate over the last three decades seems to be related to:

The crew

948. The following course of action must be taken if gastrointestinal complaints in flight crew occur before

take-off:

-1 : take the standard medicines and advise the doctor on returning from the flight

-2 : assess your own ability to fly, if necessary with the help of a doctor

-3 : if in doubt about fitness to fly - do not fly!

-4 : reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you are thirsty so as to avoid dehydration

2,3

949. Which of the following are strategies for resolving conflict?

1. Seeking arbitration

2. Actively listening to other people

3. Recognise the early signs of conflict and address them

4. Becoming aware of cultural influences

1,2,4

950. Which of the following statements concerning synergy within a crew is most correct?

Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be maintained until it comes to

an end (debriefing)

951. Which of the following statements best characterise a synergetic cockpit?

1. Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by the crew

2. There is little delegating of tasks

3. Communications are few in number but precise and geared purely to the flight

4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist in regard to leadership-style

1,4

952. Which of the following statements best characterise a self-centered cockpit?

Without taking note of what the other members are doing, each one does his own thing while at the

same time assuming that everyone is aware of what is being done or what is going on

953. What may become the main risk of a "laissez-faire" cockpit?

Inversion of authority

954. What is characterized by a "laissez-faire" cockpit?

A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other crew members

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955. What are the most frequent and the least appropriate reactions on the part of a co-pilot when faced

with a highly authoritarian captain?

1. Self-assertion

2. A scapegoat feeling

3. Delayed reactions to observed discrepancies

4. Disengagement

2,3,4

956. What are the most frequent results of an self-centred captain on the flight deck?

In a two-pilot flight deck, the co-pilot is ignored and may react by disengaging, showing delayed

responses or demonstrate the scapegoat effect

957. Which of the following describes an autocratic cockpit?

The captain's excessive authority considerably reduces communications and consequently the

synergy and cohesion of the crew

958. What optimises crew co-operation?

1. Sharing and common task

2. Confidence in each other’s capability

3. Precise definition of functions associated with each crew member’s role

1,2,3

959. What distinguishes status from role?

While role defines- via behaviour- the functions that must be performed by individuals, status

defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its recognition by the group

960. What characterises the notion of role?

The function and behaviour associated with the particular role

961. What is synergy in a crew?

The coordinated action of all members towards a common objective, in which collective

performance is proving to be more than the sum of the individual performances

962. Which of the following statements concerning conflicts is correct?

Conflict management involves the participation of all involved parties in finding an acceptable

collective solution

963. Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must:

Be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each modification in order to maintain

maximum synergy

964. Safety is often improved by applying the principles of CRM, e.g.:

Expression of one's doubts or different opinion for as long as this doubt cannot be rejected on the

base of evidence

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965. An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be observed when:

Decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and participation of the other crew members

966. A non-synergetic cockpit:

Is characterised by withdrawn crewmembers and unclear communication

967. CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is:

Intended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by improving attitudes towards flight safety

and human relationship management

968. You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a certain destination for a meeting. The weather

forecast at destination tends to be much worse than expected, so you consider diverting. The businessman

offers you money if you manage to land there at any case.

What is your appropriate way of action? You will

Decide to divert if you think it is necessary

969. What is meant by the term CRM today?

Crew resource management

970. Synergy is a commonly used term. What does it mean?

The output from the group is better than the sum of the output from each individual in the group

971. What is meant by "groupthink"?

More or less unconscious support of a solution from group member(s)

972. What is meant by "risky shift"?

The tendency for a group to accept a higher degree of risk then any individual in the group

973. Which of the following statements is correct regarding roles and norms within a group?

An airline captain must conform to a role as a leader in the aircraft, but can act as a follower in the

yacht club

974. Being a copilot implies:

a) Assertiveness

b) Inquiry

c) Advocacy

All of the above mentioned alternatives

975. What characterises a good leader?

The situation, the goals and composition of the group

976. Which one of the following is a typical "primary group"?

A family, gathered to celebrate mother's 40th birthday

977. Which one of these represents the steepest trans-cockpit authority gradient?

The captain makes a decision, orders the copilot, but does not give any explanation to his decision

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978. What is meant by "feedback" in communication?

The effect of a message is measured and corrected against the original meaning

979. Which of the following is true for "non verbal communication"?

It often dominates verbal communication

980. An airline captain is extremely focused on getting things done, but shows very little interest in

making the crew work as a team. Where is this captain likely to be on the Blake and Mouton diagram?

High on task orientation, low on relationship orientation, a "Rambo" type

981. An airline captain in Safe Airlines Inc scores very high both on task orientation and on relationship

orientation (ref. Blake and Mouton model). Which of the following will probably best describe his

communication in cockpit?

The captain discusses the situation with his copilot, makes a decision based upon this discussion.

The copilot is asked to evaluate the decision

982. Cockpit automation is traditionally intended to:

Relieve the pilots from certain routine tasks

983. Before take-off, a briefing:

Must be done systematically in order to refresh the memory of the crew members and to co-

ordinate actions

984. Planning:

Allows crew members to anticipate potential risky situations and decide on possible responses

985. An experienced pilot:

Prepares thoroughly for a flight and is able to anticipate the majority of possible problems

986. Having interrupted the captain for a sound reason, the co-pilot should:

Remind him/her of his/her last action before the interruption

987. An important aspect of Situational Awareness is:

When a pilot's perception equals reality

988. The expression "when perception matches reality" describes:

Situational awareness

989. The autocratic leadership style is synonymous with:

An authoritarian style

990. With too much cohesion, Groupthink can be:

Negative

991. Cohesion is a major advantage in times of:

Difficulty

992. Differences of opinion should be regarded as:

Helpful

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993. CRM and MCC training are designed to improve:

The quality of crew performance

994. Having made an important decision, a commander of an aircraft should:

Always try to make time to explain the reasons for the decision even if it is after landing

995. The three types of Authority Gradient Cockpits are:

Autocratic, laissez-faire and synergistic

996. A Captain running an autocratic cockpit is normally:

Over-loaded

997. A Captain running a "laissez-faire" cockpit will:

Make few suggestions or decisions

998. The "ideal" cockpit can be termed as:

Synergistic

999. Communication efficiency is most sensitive to:

Workload and interruptions

1000. The use of professional languages offers:

Quick comprehension and simplified grammar

1001. Approximately what percentage of all communication is achieved by factors other than words

(Metacommunication)?

80%

1002. Expressed as a simple mathematical statement when considering a crew of two, good synergy is:

1 + 1 = > 2

1003. The first cockpit tool that tends to suffer as a result of stress is:

Cockpit communications

1004. An example of potential conflict between status and role is:

A junior ranked captain flying with a senior ranked co-pilot

1005. Non-verbal communication:

Constitutes approximately 70% of human communication

1006. Feedback in communication implies that:

A message is measured and corrected against the original meaning

1007. "Stereotypes" are preconceptions or prejudices which can lead us to:

Mis-judge individuals even if we have contact with them

1008. Group norms:

Regulate the interaction and the behaviour between the members of a group

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1009. Non-verbal communication:

Can serve as a substitute for oral speech

1010. During the conflict resolution process it is important to:

1) realize and to accept the conflict

2) verbalize mutual expectations

3) search for common agreements

4) express one's own viewpoint


1, 2, 3, 4

1011. Attitudes are defined as:

Tendencies to respond to people, institutions or events either positively or negatively

1012. Very high ambition and need for achievement

Disturb the climate of cooperation

1013. Which of the following personality characteristics makes crew decision making most effective?

Assertiveness

1014. Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to teamwork under high workload conditions in

the cockpit?

Mentally absent

1015. A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a captain. Which psychological consequence

is most likely?

His/her self-concept is going to change because of new roles and tasks which have to be

incorporated

1016. With regard to the average influence of age on pilot performance, it may be said that age:

Has little impact when the pilot is able to compensate for it by his/her flight experience

1017. Which of the following responses lists most of the common hazardous thought patterns (attitudes)

for pilots to develop?

Anti-authority, impulsiveness, invulnerability, resignation, machismo complex

1018. Which of the following is NOT a hazardous attitude?

Domination

1019. Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is:

Insinuating

1020. Contrary to a person's personality, attitudes:

Are the product of personal disposition and past experience with reference to an object or a

situation

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1021. Personality is based on:

1. Heredity

2. Childhood environment

3. Upbringing

4. Past experience


1,2,3,4

1022. The effectiveness of the individual depends on:

The ability to balance the dictates of the individual's needs and the demands of reality

1023. Internal conflict within oneself is termed as:

Intra-personal conflict

1024. The behaviour of a leader depends on:

The situation, the goals and composition of the group

1025. The unique organisation of characteristics which determine the typical or standard behaviour of an

individual is known as:

Personality

1026. A person's attitudes define a set of learned dispositions (likes and dislikes) which:

Influence a person's reaction and response to people, situations, etc

1027. For a normal and healthy person, personality traits are:

Stable

1028. Which of the following answers is correct?

Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude and is adaptable

1029. What is self-concept?

How you see yourself

1030. An under-confident and self-effacing co-pilot is promoted to captain. It is not uncommon for such

people have a behavioral pattern which is:

Aggressive if challenged by another member of the crew

1031. The individual's personality:

Refers to unique psychological characteristics

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1032. Flying from Frankfurt to Moscow you will have a lay-over of 4 days. What time measure is relevant

for your circadian rhythm on the 3 day?

LT (local time)

1033. Signs of stress include:

Perspiration, dilated pupils, fast breathing

1034. Stress management programmes usually involve:

The prevention and/or the removal of stress

1035. In order to completely resynchronize with local time after zone crossing, circadian rhythms require

Less time when flying from east to west

1036. Using a checklist prior start is a contribution to

Safety, because the concentration on the check list items will draw the pilot´s attention to flight

related tasks, reducing distraction from personal stress

1037. The human performance is generally

Better when relaxed, independent of the period of day

1038. Which of the following statements is true?

Stressors accumulate thus increasing the likelihood to exhaustion

1039. How should a pilot react, when suffering from chronic stress?

Attempt to reduce the stress by using a concept which approaches the entire body and improves

wellness

1040. In case of in-flight stress, one should:

Use all available resources of the crew

1041. The behavioral effects of stress may include:

1) manifestation of aggressiveness

2) a willingness to improve communication

3) a willingness for group cohesion

4) a tendency to withdrawal


1, 4

1042. The cognitive effects of stress may include:

-1 : excessive haste.

-2 : an improvement in memory.

-3 : a complete block: action is impossible.

-4 : a risk of focusing on a particular aspect.

-5 : ease of decision-making.

-6 : an increase in the rate of mistakes.

The combination which brings together all correct statements is:

1,3,4,6

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1043. What is the effect of stress on performance?

-1 : It always reduces performance.

-2 : Optimum performance is obtained with optimum arousal.

-3 : Excessive stress weakens performance.

-4 : Insufficient stress weakens performance.


2,3,4

1044. What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the stress reactions?

-1 : increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline secretion.

-2 : an increase in heart rate, respiration and release of glucose.

-3 : a decrease in stress resistance.

-4 : activation of the digestive system.

-5 : secretion of cortisol to mobilize attention.


1,2,3

1045. The phases of General Adaptation Syndrome are:

Alarm, resistance, exhaustion

1046. The organism is mobilized by a process known as:

GAS: General Adaptation Syndrome

1047. What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very demanding stress situation?

The subjective evaluation of the situation by the individual

1048. Stress occurs:

-1 : only in a situation of imminent danger.

-2 : only when faced with real, existing and palpable phenomenon.

-3 : sometimes via imagination, the anticipation of a situation or its outcome.

-4 : because of the similarity with a formerly experienced stressful situation


3,4

1049. Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on:

The evaluation of the situation and the evaluation of capabilities to cope with it

1050. Which of the following physical stimuli may cause stress reactions?

-1 : noise.

-2 : interpersonal conflict.

-3 : temperature.

-4 : administrative problem.

-5 : hunger.


1,3,5

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1051. Which of the following statements concerning stress is correct?

Stress will be evaluated differently depending on whether it improves or reduces performance

1052. Acute stress quickly leads to

The mobilization of resources required to cope with the stressor

1053. The resistance phase of stress reaction is characterized by:

-1 : activation of the autonomic nervous system (ANS).

-2 : testosterone secretion which enables fats to be converted into sugar.

-3 : a sudden fall in stress resistance.

-4 : the appearance of psychosomatic disorders when lasting over a prolonged time.


1 and 4 are correct

1054. The readjustment of the biological rhythms after a time shift is normally more difficult

With flights towards the East

1055. During paradoxical sleep

Rapid eye movements can be observed

1056. A fatigued pilot

Will show signs of increased irritability

1057. The relationship between arousal and flying performance is

Approximately the form of an inverted U

1058. In a complex task high levels of arousal

Narrow the span of attention

1059. A high level of motivation is related

To high levels of arousal

1060. The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone will resynchronize to this new time zone at a

rate of about

1 - 1.5 hours a day

1061. The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily by

The point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to sleep

1062. Stress may be defined as:

A normal phenomenon which enables an individual to adapt to encountered situations

1063. What is a stressor?

An external or internal stimulus which is interpreted by an individual as being stressful

1064. What may trigger stress in humans?

The subjective interpretation an individual gives to a situation experienced

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1065. With regards to stress, as it affects human beings, which of the following responses is correct?

´Stress’ is a term used to describe how a person reacts to demands placed upon him/her

1066. If during flight a pilot is in a mental condition of "optimum arousal" he/she will be:

Prepared best to cope with a difficult task

1067. Pilot stress reactions:

Differ from pilot to pilot, depending on how a person manages the particular stressors

1068. Fixation or tunnel vision is primarily to be expected when:

Stress is high

1069. Stress is:

A mechanism by which an individual can respond to situations which he/she may have to face

1070. Experiencing stress depends on:

The individual interpretation of the situation

1071. Stress is a reaction to adapt a specific situation.

This reaction

May include various psychological and physiological elements which one can learn to manage

1072. The individual's perception of stress depends on:

The subjective evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it

1073. Physiological stressors include:

Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivation

1074. General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the following phases:

-1 : alarm

-2 : alert phase

-3 : resistance phase

-4 : exhaustion phase

-5 : vigilance phase

1,3,4

1075. Which of the following statements in regard to motivation is correct?

Extremely high motivation in combination with excessive stress will limit attention management

capabilities

1076. What are the effects of stress?

It increases vigilance and may focus attention

1077. Of the following statements concerning the effects of circadian rhythms on performance, we know

that:

Sensory motor performance is better in the evening whereas intellectual performance is better in

the morning

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1078. In order to minimize the effects of crossing more than 3-4 time zones with a layover more than 24

hrs, it is advisable to:

1. Adapt as quickly as possible to the rhythm of the arrival country

2. Keep in swing with the rhythm of the departure country for as long as possible

3. Maintain regular living patterns (waking ,sleeping alternation and regular meal pattern )

4. Try to sleep as much as possible to overcome negative arousal effects

1,3

1079. Concerning circadian rhythm disruption (jet lag), the effects of adjustment to destination time:

1. are longer for western rather than eastern flights

2. are longer for eastern rather than western flights

3. vary little between individuals

4. may vary greatly between individuals

2,4

1080. What seem to be the main roles of Orthodox sleep?

It essentially allows for physical recovery and the reconstitution of neuron energy reserves

1081. What are the main effects of a lack of sleep on performance?

It increases fatigue, concentration and attention difficulties, the risk of sensory illusions and mood

disorders

1082. What is the effect of tiredness on attention?

It reduces the ability to manage multiple matters

1083. Which of the following statements concerning tiredness is correct?

Tiredness is a subjective sensation which is reflected in hypovigilance or in poor management of

intellectual capabilities

1084. What are the main strategies for adapting to time constraints?

The preparation of action and the prioritization of tasks

1085. The maintenance of man's internal equilibrium is called:

Homeostasis

1086. Workload essentially depends on:

The current situation, the pilot's expertise and the ergonomics of the system

1087. The human circadian rhythm is based on a cycle of about:

24 hours

1088. Disturbance of the biological clock appears after a:

1. bad night's sleep

2. day flight Amsterdam - New York

3. day flight Amsterdam - Johannesburg

4. night flight New York - Amsterdam

2 and 4 are correct

HPL - P a g e | 90

1089. Sleeplessness or the disruption of sleeping patterns

1. can lead to symptoms of drowsiness, irritability and lack of concentration

2. will make an individual more prone to make errors



1. A person experiencing sleep loss is unlikely to be aware of personal performance degradation

2. Performance loss may be present up to 20 minutes after awaking from a short sleep (nap)


1091. The sleep cycles repeat during the course of a night's sleep.

1. Each succeeding cycle contains a greater amount of REM-sleep.

2. Frequent interruption of the REM-sleep can harm a human being in the long run.



1. REM-sleep becomes shorter with any repeated sleep cycle during the night.

2. REM-sleep is more important for the regeneration of mental functions than all the other sleep stages are.

1 is not correct 2 is correct

1093. A stress reaction is:

The non-specific response of the body to every demand placed on a person

1094. A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive:

Distress

1095. Getting uneasy will affect:

1. attention

2. concentration

3. memory

4. prudence


1096. The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless of the cause of stress. This mechanism

occurs in three phases and is referred to, by Selye, as the "General Adaptation Syndrome".

The sequence is:

Alarm phase - resistance phase - exhaustion phase

1097. According to the different phases of the "General Adaptation Syndrome" check the following

statements:

1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (i.e. adrenalin) will cause a massive release of glucose into the

blood, an acceleration of pulse and blood pressure as well as an increase in the rate and depth of breathing

2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic system uses a different type of hormone (cortisol)

assisting to convert fat into sugar thus providing sufficient energy supply to the brain and body cells for

sustained operation.

3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given time to eliminate the waste products which have

been generated excessively during the two preceding phases


HPL - P a g e | 91

1098. If coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will remain in the state of:

Distress

1099. Please check the following statements:

1. Adaptation is a new state of equilibrium after having coped with a stressful situation.

2. An individual's prospect of the situation and his/her abilities to cope with it will determine the type and

strength of stress.


1100. Learning to fly naturally induces stress in a student pilot because he is lacking experience.

Manifestations of this type of stress are:

1. nervousness and channelized attention

2. being rough at the controls

3. smoke and drink much more alcohol than usual

4. airsickness, lack of sleep


1101. The level at which a pilot will experience a situation as stressful

Depends on the individual's perception of available abilities in comparison to the situational

demands

1102. An identical situation can be experienced by one pilot as exciting in a positive sense and by another

pilot as threatening. In both cases:

The arousal level of both pilots will be raised


1. Psychosomatic means that mental and/or emotional stressors can be manifested in organic stress

reactions

2. Psychosomatic means that a physical problem is always followed by psychological stress

1 is correct, 2 is false


1. Psychosomatic means that a physiological problem is followed by psychological stress

2. Psychosomatic complaints hardly occur in professional aviation because of the strict selection for this

particular profession

1 and 2 are both not correct


1. A stressor causes activation

2. Activation stimulates a person to cope with it


1106. Circadian cycles cause body temperature to change. At approximately what time of day is our

temperature at its lowest value?

0500

1107. For what reason is it important to be familiar with the circadian rhythm of body temperature?

Peak performance occurs at the time of rising or high body temperature

HPL - P a g e | 92

1108. Following a flight that crosses numerous time zones, the associated shifting of Zeitgebers helps

body clock re-synchronization to the new local time at the rate of:

1.5 hours per day

1109. Which of the following routes will cause the worst Jet lag?

Flight from Oslo to Tokyo

1110. What does stress management involve?

Recognizing stress, accepting it and developing a coping strategy

1111. A person can be expected to carry out the following pairs of tasks simultaneously:

Fly straight and level and talk to ATC

1112. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding REM sleep?

REM sleep re-vitalizes your brain after strenuous mental activity

1113. Which of the following can be called a "stressor"?

Increased cockpit noise

1114. Which of the following is correct regarding the five stages in the sleep patterns?

About 50% of sleep is stage 2

1115. On the inverted U-curve, also called the Yerkes-Dodson curve, being on the extreme left side

indicates:

Sleep

1116. With reference to the sleep/wake cycle of "credit" and "debit" system, 6 hours sleep will put the body

in credit by:

12 hours

1117. When is your body temperature at its lowest?

Early in the morning


Stress is cumulative

1119. How can optimum arousal and vigilance be obtained?

Experts believe that arousal and performance are related by an inverted V-shaped curve. Deep

sleep is at one end, extreme panic the other. Both result in poor performance. Optimum arousal and

vigilance are obtained at the mid-point between the two

1120. Where on the arousal/performance graph is a pilot best placed to cope with a difficult task without

performance degrading?

Below the "breakpoint"

1121. Which is correct:

1) Paradoxic (REM) sleep refreshes the brain, memory and body.

2) Paradoxic (REM) sleep decreases during the night.

Neither

HPL - P a g e | 93

1122. In the case of changes to circadian rhythms, the readjustment to a new time zone:

Is most rapid when flying westbound

1123. If a stop-over is more than 24 hours, the correct action is?

Move to the new time zone as soon as possible

1124. The sleep pattern is closely associated with?

Body temperature

1125. On average most human adults require approximately how many hours of sleep per night?

8 hours

1126. If a crew is having a stop-over of less than 24 hours before returning to their home base, what

coping strategy should be used for jet-lag?

Maintain eating and sleeping cycle based on home time

1127. Which of the following statements is true regarding sleep?

1) Metabolic rate falls

2) Arterial blood pressure falls

3) The pulse rate decreases

4) The sensitivity level of the senses is increased

1, 2, 3

1128. Free running circadian rhythms normally have a cycle of approximately:

25 hours

1129. The normal sleep cycle is approximately every.... minutes

90

1130. Including REM, how many stages of sleep are there?

Five

1131. Among the external factors that may contribute to an error, cockpit noise and the restriction of the

field of view due to windscreen design correspond to:

Ergonomic factors

1132. Ergonomics are associated with:

The human/workplace interface

1133. With reference to the relationship between arousal and performance, the highest level of

performance is achieved when the arousal level is:

Optimum

1134. What is the relationship between the perceived level of arousal and the difficulty of a task to be

completed?

At the outset, the level of arousal should be within the optimum range and therefore at a level where

performance does not suffer

HPL - P a g e | 94

1135. High arousal leads to:

Faster but less accurate responses

1136. Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal equilibrium in the face of variations brought

about by external stimulations. This internal equilibrium is called:

Homeostasis

1137. Of the following statements, regarding stress, which is correct?

Stress may be positive, fatigue is always negative

1138. Environmental sources of stress in the cockpit could be:

1) noise and vibration

2) acceleration

3) radiation

4) extreme temperature

The combination that regroups all of the correct answers is:

1, 2, 3, 4

1139. The resistance phase of stress:

Allows fats to be transformed into sugars, thereby prolonging the mobilization of energy in the

body

1140. In order to limit stress when flying, a pilot should:

Maintain his competence by practicing his professional skills and learning from past experiences

1141. A pilot successfully completes a difficult and stressful landing at an aerodrome. The next time a

landing is attempted under the same conditions and at the same aerodrome, is the pilot likely to experience:

A lower level of stress

1142. Which of the following statement is false?

Stress has essentially negative effects and the human will operate efficiently with an absence of

stress

1143. Physical stress takes place:

When outside conditions put a strain upon the homeostatic mechanisms of the body

1144. Among the physiological responses to stress are:

Sweating, dry mouth and breathing difficulties

1145. The General Adaptation Syndrome is associated with the:

ANS (Autonomic Nervous System)

1146. When can the General Adaptation Syndrome activate?

Responding to an imaginary threat

1147. Does noise (above 90 dbs) improve performance?

Never

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1148. It is generally considered that the most serious non-professional stressor is:

Death of a spouse or partner

1149. The "Break Point" is that point after which, if stress continues to rise:

Performance is degraded

1150. Stress may cause regression which can lead to:

Correct actions being forgotten and substituted for procedures learnt in the past

1151. Cognitive Coping is associated with:

Ignoring or rationalizing the stress factor

1152. Select from the following list environmental stressors:

1) heat

2) humidity

3) divorce

4) lack of rest

5) loss of job

6) noise

1, 2, 6

1153. Stress can be defined as:

The unresolved pressure, strain or force acting upon an individual's physical or mental systems

and the human response

1154. What physical symptoms can be attributed to stress?

Insomnia, loss of appetite and a dry mouth

1155. What is a physiological stressor?

A stimulus that produces a change in any of the homeostatic mechanisms of the body

1156. In the alarm stage of response to stress what does the body do?

Recognizes the stressor and prepares the body for action

1157. Which is correct?

1) Stress is an inevitable part of human life and in small amounts is necessary to achieve optimum

performance

2) Each individual has a stress limit which, if exceeded, could result in inability to handle even a moderate

workload

3) Anxiety creates worry which may lead to stress

4) Stress is often perceived by the brain as some form of threat which may cause adrenaline to be released

into the blood stream


1, 2, 3, 4

1158. How will the successful completion of a stressful task affect a pilot's performance when a similar

situation is experienced in the future?

The amount of stress experienced will be less

HPL - P a g e | 96

1159. Which of the following is an example of human under load?

An unexpectedly poor landing at an airfield with which the pilot is familiar, in perfect weather

conditions

1160. From the following list of stressors, which are psychological?

1) noise

2) loss of spouse or partner

3) heat

4) loss of job

5) vibrations

6) credit card debt

2, 4, 6

1161. What are the two inputs to a simple model of stress?

The perceived demand of the task to the pilot and the pilot's perceived ability to complete the task

1162. Which statement about acute or chronic fatigue is incorrect?

Acute fatigue generally has psychological roots

1163. The two types of fatigue are:

Chronic short-term and acute

1164. Which of the following list are symptoms of fatigue?

1) Diminished accommodation

2) Slowed reactions

3) Long-term memory access problems

4) Being over-talkative

5) Diminished motor skills

1, 2, 3, 5

1165. Which of the following list can cause fatigue?

1) Sleep loss

2) Jet lag

3) Boredom

4) Low levels of external stimulation

1, 2, 3, 4

1166. Which of the following list are symptoms of fatigue?

1) Tiredness

2) Faster reactions

3) Diminished motor skills

4) Tunneled concentration

5) Increased long term memory capacity

1, 3, 4

HPL - P a g e | 97

1167. How can a pilot avoid automation complacency?

Regard the automatic system as additional crew members that needs to be crosschecked as well

1168. A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the traditional tasks of the pilots in a way, that

The attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the consequence of 'being out of the

loop'

1169. One negative aspect of the highly automated cockpit results in:

Complacency among the crewmembers

1170. If man is compared with a computer, it can be said that man:

Has more effective means of action (output) and is above all capable of considerable synergy

1171. Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by people than by automatic

systems?

1. Qualitative decision-making

2. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon

3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded

4. Detections of unusual conditions (smell, noise, etc.)

1,4

1172. Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by automatic systems than by

people?

1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon

2. Long term controlling of a set value (e.g. holding of trajectory)

3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded (e.g. holding of flight path)

4. Qualitative decision-making

1,2,3

1173. As a result of automation in cockpits,

Communication and coordination call for an even greater effort on the part of the crew members

1174. The performance of the man machine system is above all:

A combination which is based on decreasing the pilot's workload and increasing his time for

supervision

1175. Which of the following drawbacks are associated with automation?

1. Reduced competence in manually controlling the aircraft

2. Increased likelihood of slips while programming automatic systems

3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a side stick

4. General decrease in technical reliability

1,2

1176. Which of the following persons can be referred to as being complacent?

A car driver driving on green light, but he is not looking neither to the left nor to the right as he

passes the light. It is quite safe to drive on green light

1177. List advantages of automation:

Reduced workload, more time to monitor systems, and, when managed properly, better situational

awareness

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1178. Define automation complacency:

Boredom and automation complacency may occur because some portions of flight are so

completely automated that pilots are lulled into inattention and are either bored or complacent

1179. The level of automation helps to conserve resources. On the other hand, it may result in:

Routine errors (slips)

1180. What is automation mode awareness?

Being aware of the active mode(s) and understanding the corresponding actions and responses is

necessary for proper use of the automated system

1181. What is automation complacency?

The circumstance where monitoring and cross-checking is reduced because of the belief in the

infallibility of the automatic system

1182. What are the main advantages of the human over the machine?

Creativity, innovation and aptitude to deal with novel situations

1183. What is meant by "passive monitoring" in terms of automation complacency?

A pilot watching what is going on rather than analyzing and constantly checking

1184. What role should automation play with respect to flight safety?

Automation should be used as an aid to the pilot and not as an end itself

1185. An authoritative leader of a group will:

End to become over-loaded in times of high stress or in an emergency

1186. Having a cold or an infection of the upper respiratory tract you:

Should not fly because the congestion of the frontal sinuses may cause great pain which can

seriously affect your ability to control yourself and the aircraft

1187. What is a motor programme with respect to completing a task?

A behavioural sub-routine which once running does not require conscious thought

1188. Safety culture is relatively enduring, stable and resistant to change. This statement:

Is true

1189. How does motivation affect an individual completing a task?

Motivation reflects the difference between what an individual can do and what the individual will do

1190. According to the different phases of the "General Adaptation Syndrom" check the following

statements:

1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (i.e. adrenalin) will cause a massiv release of glucose into the

blood, an acceleration of pulse and blood pressure as well as an increase in the rate and depth of breathing

2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic system uses a different type of hormone (cortisol)

assisting to convert fat into sugar thus providing sufficient energy supply to the brain and body cells for

sustained operation.

3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given time to eliminate the waste products which have

been generated excessively during the two preceding phases


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1191. After a decompression at 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately:

5-15 seconds

1192. In an organisation where good safety culture is predominant, the accountability rests largely with:

Management

Civil aviation is generally recognized for being:

An open culture activity

1193. Confrontation in high power distance cultures is:

Generally avoided

1194. Which combination of the following statements are true?

1) Total gas volume of the lungs is not usable

2) Total gas volume of the lungs is fully usable

3) The average lung volume is 5-6 litres

4) The process of gas exchange in the lungs is carried out by passive diffusion

1, 3 and 4

1195. Which of the statements below concerning blood pressure is correct?

It needs to be high enough to guarantee an adequate blood flow to the brain

1196. What is the time limit between a pilot going snorkeling and the beginning of his flight duty?

There is no time limit

1197. Is it possible to survive depressurized flight at 40000 feet for more than 10 minutes?

Yes- provided 100 % oxygen under pressure is immediately available from masks

1198. A pilot can prevent hypoxia by:

Using additional oxygen when flying above 10000 ft

1199. Which gas most readily combines with hemoglobin?

Carbon monoxide

1200. The average annual amount of cosmic radiation received by crew members:

Is about the same as the amount of background radiation

1201. Cosmic radiation:

Is at its strongest at very high altitudes

1202. Adaptation to light

Is done in both eyes separately

1203. The human vestibular system performs spatial orientation by:

Measuring linear and radial acceleration within the inner ear

1204. An illusion of obtaining greater height above ground can occur when:

Suddenly flying over small trees after prolonged flying over tall trees

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1205. A 'Graveyard Spin' is:

A spin in which the pilot, on recovery, tends to re-enter the spin due to the somatogyral illusion

where the vestibular system no longer senses radial acceleration

1206. In a multi-crew aircraft taking a nap in the cockpit:

Should last between 15 to 40 minutes

1207. Reasons for lower back pain are:

1) Body mass index (BMI) between 20-25 m2/kg

2) Different lenght of lower extremities

3) Slipped intervertebral disk

4) Muscular tension and fatigue of the back muscles


2, 3, 4

1208. Back problems are common amongst pilots. Effective ways of preventing back pain are:

1) Physiotherapy

2) Loosing weight if person is overweight

3) Good physical condition

4) Hypnosis


1, 2, 3

1209. Dengue fever:

Is spread by mosquitoes that are active during day time

1210. Type 2 diabetes may be prevented by:

Avoiding being overweight

1211. The incidence of type 2 diabetes is increasing worldwide. Risk factors for diabetes type 2 are:

1) Obesity

2) Genetic background

3) Physical activity

4) Low calorie intake


1, 2

1212. In the tropcis gastroenteritis is a common disease among travelers. Which of the following

statements are correct?

1) Gastroenteritis is often caused by bacteria

2) Washing your hands is one of the most effective ways of preventing infection

3) The need for liquids is greater than normal when suffering from gastroenteritis

4) Gastroenteritis is the most common cause of pilot incapacitation

1, 2, 3, 4

1213. In cumulative fatigue:

Even in a normal flight duty period the fatigue may increase up to an unacceptable level

1214. What action should a pilot take when he is suffering from a common cold, has no fever, but his nose

is running and he is unable to clear his ears?

He should not fly, because there is a risk of not succeeding to equalize the pressure between

middle ear and ambient air

HPL - P a g e | 101

1215. Hepatitis A infection:

Can be prevented by gamma globulin or vaccination

1216. Having a cold or an infection of the upper respiratory tract you:

Should not fly because the congestion of the frontal sinuses may cause great pain which can

seriously affect your ability to control yourself and the aircraft

1217. To prevent gastro-intestinal problems in tropical climates you should:

1) Not eat salad or raw vegetables

2) Always peel fruit

3) Only eat food that has been properly cooked

4) Avoid ice cream


1, 2, 3, 4

1218. Can the consumption of alcohol affect sleep?

Yes, it affects the sleep patterns

1219. Which of the following beverages or food stuffs are most likely to contain caffeine?

1) Coca Cola

2) Tea

3) Carrots

4) Chocolate


1, 2, 4

1220. Select the correct statement from the ones below:

The harmful effects of smoking are also detected in parts of the body other than the lungs (e.g.

bladder, kidneys and blood vessels)

1221. Select the correct statement from the ones below:

Smoking reduces the oxygen transport capacity of the cardiovascular system

1222. If the flying pilot becomes incapacitated, the most important action for the non-flying pilot is:

To take control of the aeroplane

1223. Pilots should not take antihistamines because they may cause:

1) Drowsiness and dizziness

2) Hypoglycaemia

3) Hyperventilation

4) Flatulence


1

1224. Which of the following list are factors necessary for the promotion of good quality training?

1) Quality of instruction

2) Motivation

3) Knowledge of results (feedback)

4) A large amount of reference material

5) No time restrictions

1, 2, 3

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1225. How does motivation affect an individual completing a task?

Motivation reflects the difference between what an individual can do and what the individual will do

1226. What is a skill?

The capacity to accomplish successfully something requiring special knowledge or ability

1227. What is a motor programme with respect to completing a task?

A behavioural sub-routine which once running does not require conscious thought

1228. Regarding forms of learning what is understood by modelling?

Completing a task by imitation

1229. What is learning?

Gaining knowledge through study and past experience

1230. With which risk is skill based behaviour associated?

Action slip

1231. One of the main positive capabilities in an individual's decision making process is:

Creativity

1232. One of the ways human error in aviation currently being addressed is by 'error tolerance'. What is

error tolerance?

The understanding of human limitations by determining how to live with errors

1233. An important contributor to human error is a false hypothesis or mistaken assumption. What should

a pilot be aware of once he has made a decision?

The pilot should monitor carefully evidence which contradicts his decision

1234. Which of the following list are advantages of teamwork?

1) Personality clashes

2) Workload is reduced by sharing

3) Work stress should be reduced

4) Conformity

5) A decision arrived at by a group is likely to be better quality than that derived by an individual

2, 3, 5

1235. What is meant by the term 'followership'?

The ability of an individual to effectively support a recognised leader by being a good team player

1236. The behaviour of a group can be affected by a number of factors including:

Persuasion, conformity, compliance and obedience

1237. What is the main purpose of a checklist?

To enable the crew to carry out a procedure in a well-defined and orderly manner

1238. A non synergistic cockpit:

Is characterised by withdrawn crewmembers and unclear communication

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1239. Symptoms of stress may include:

1) Depression or anxiety

2) Low blood pressure

3) Sleep disturbances

4) Abuse of psychoactive substances


1, 3, 4

1240. Select the correct statement from below:

Stressors at home can add to the effects of the stressors in the cockpit

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