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TEST – 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES – 2015)
http://www.insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS Page 1
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 28 GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT Write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015
TEST – 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES – 2015)
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1. Which of the following benefits/applications may be derived from the national project, India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO)? 1. Remote monitoring of nuclear
reactors 2. Detecting mineral and oil deposits
deep in the earth 3. Finding out early geological defects in
earth 4. Understanding dark matter
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above
2. Consider the following about Neutrinos. 1. They are one of the fundamental
particles. 2. They can be harmful when exposed to
bare human body. 3. They can be weaponised for mass
destruction (WMD). 4. They are the information bearers of
the universe.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 2 and 3 only
3. C N R Rao, became the first Indian to reach the h-index of 100. The h-index is a measure of
a) level of Scientific productivity b) level of International presence of a
scientist c) number of awards won at International
level d) number of patents in the name of the
scientist
4. Consider the following about GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) system. 1. It is India’s first indigenous
navigational guide system. 2. It is being used only for military
purposes in India. 3. It is supported by Polar satellites.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 only
5. The Union Government has recently launched NOWCAST weather alert system. It will serve a) flood and drought sensitive rural areas
in India for mitigation and rehabilitation purposes
b) farmers giving alerts on extreme weather conditions
c) Indian shipping industry by providing details on tides, wave height, tsunami and cyclones
d) coastal areas in the high risk zones of tsunamis, cyclones and hailstorms
TEST – 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES – 2015)
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6. In view of the farmer suicides in the country, the government has been running some insurance schemes. Which of the following crop insurance schemes are running till date? 1. Modified National Insurance Scheme
(MNAIS) 2. Farm Income Insurance Scheme
(FIIS) 3. Weather based Crop Insurance
Scheme (WBCIS) 4. Comprehensive Crop Insurance
Scheme (CCIS)
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 1 and 3 only
7. By government support, farmers in India can be insured against 1. Shortfall in crop yield 2. Crop loss due to adverse events 3. Crop loss due to pest attacks 4. Post-harvest crop losses within a
specified period
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 4 only
8. A state political party can be de-recognized by the Election Commission of India when 1. It fails to submit its poll expenses
2. It does not reveal information under the RTI Act
3. It fails to win any seat in state elections.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 only d) 1 and 3 only
9. Researchers have recently created the world’s thinnest light bulb using graphene as filament. Graphene is a) a crystalline form of carbon allotrope b) a condensed form of silicon that is
used in making thin sheets c) an alloy of tungsten popularly used as
high melting points metals d) a mixed form of glass and carbon that
has greater agility and durability
10. Charles Correa played a pivotal role in the creation of architecture for post-Independence India. He was also 1. the first Chairman of the National
Commission on Urbanization 2. known for his use of traditional
methods and materials for construction
3. India’s first architect to have designed structures for other sovereign nations.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
TEST – 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES – 2015)
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11. The Battle of Waterloo was a pivotal moment in modern History of Europe. In this battle a) Napolean was defeated by Anglo-
allied and Prussian army b) Prussia was defeated in Belgium by an
army led by Napolean Bonaparte c) British army took control of several
major provinces of Belgium and ruled thereafter alongwith Prussia
d) France became divided in several smaller provinces which then came to be ruled by imperial powers from Netherlands and Prussia
12. Haryana Government has recently launched a Village Mentoring Project (VMP) in a bid to improve healthcare and education of the villagers with a special emphasis on girl child. Under VMP, villages will be mentored by 1. MLAs 2. Corporate houses 3. Educational institutions 4. Eminent individuals
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 2 and 3 only
13. Lake Victoria pipeline project was recently in news because of an agreement between a) India and Kenya b) India and Tanzania c) USA and Russia d) USA and India
14. Jharkhand government has recently banned the sale of thermocol plates in the state because a) food consumption in thermocol plates
was found hazardous for human health
b) thermocol plate producing industries came under the ‘Red zone’ industries
c) it will promote leaf plates made by tribals in the state so as to uplift them economically
d) All of the above
15. The famous historical ‘Magna Carta’ had laid the first steps towards 1. Parliamentary Democracy 2. Rule of Law 3. Liberty and rights
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
16. Liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) is one of the criteria in the Basel III regulations. If it is high for a bank it means that a) the bank is lending less than its
potential assets b) the bank has a large amount of liquid
assets c) the bank has kept a large amount of
deposit with RBI d) the bank is unable of pay its debts
TEST – 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES – 2015)
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17. The Indian Nuclear Insurance Pool (INIP) as per the mandatory provision under the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act (CLND), 2010 setup by the Union government will insure a) only operators of nuclear reactors b) both operators and suppliers related
to nuclear projects c) people living nearby the nuclear
reactor in case of a nuclear accident d) operators, suppliers and people who
are affected in case of a nuclear accident
18. Bibek Debroy Committee has recently submitted its report on the restructuring of Indian Railways to the Union Government. Which of the following is/are major recommendations suggested by the committee? 1. Establishing an independent rail
regulator 2. Privatization of Indian railways 3. Scrapping of the Railways Board 4. State governments to have financial
equity in Railways
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 only d) All of the above
19. One Rank One Pension (OROP) is one of
the widely debated issues in the country presently. It essentially means that a) all ex-servicemen with similar lengths
of service will get the same pension and similar ranks irrespective of their retirement rank
b) all ex-servicemen who held the same rank and similar lengths of service will
get the same pension irrespective of their retirement year
c) all ex-servicemen belonging to a particular rank will have their pensions revised upwards irrespective of their retirement year
d) all ex-servicemen who held the same rank will get the same pension irrespective of their retirement year and length of service
20. Which of the following is/are NOT forms of Yoga? 1. Laya Yoga 2. Raja Yoga 3. Jnana Yoga 4. Mantra Yoga
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) All are forms of Yoga. b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 and 4 only
21. Union Government has launched an
Augmented Reality technology based mobile application. Consider the following about augmented reality technology. 1. Artificial information about the
environment and its objects can be overlaid on the real world.
2. It makes information about the surrounding real world of the user interactive and digitally manipulable.
Which of the above is true?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
TEST – 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES – 2015)
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22. Consider the following about Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI). 1. It is a statutory body. 2. It is not under the control of
Government of India. 3. Advertising industries and media are
also included as its members. 4. It submits an annual report to the
Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 2, 3 and 4 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 3 only d) 3 and 4 only
23. The Source of authority of the Indian Constitution can be found in a) Directive Principles of State Policy b) Preamble of the Constitution c) Fundamental Rights d) Fundamental Duties
24. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses regarding a constitutional amendment bill, which of the following can be recourse(s) to resolve the deadlock? 1. A joint sitting of both the houses 2. Vote by majority of state legislatures 3. If the bill is passed again by the Lok
Sabha alone with a higher majority
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above
25. The Constitution establishes the ‘parliamentary system’ not only at the Centre but also in the states. This is evident by 1. Membership of the ministers in the
legislature 2. Collective responsibility of the
executive to the legislature 3. The provision of dissolution of the
lower House
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
26. Consider the following about the provisions for Citizenship in India. 1. Any person born in India will be
automatically deemed to be a citizen of India.
2. An illegal migrant cannot be accepted as Indian citizen only by virtue of him living in India for long.
3. Acquiring the citizenship of a foreign nation will terminate Indian citizenship.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
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27. Which of these constitutional provisions under 73rd amendment is/are compulsory for every Indian state to follow? 1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a
village or group of villages 2. Direct elections to all seats in
panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels
3. Granting financial powers to the panchayats
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
28. A federal government means a government in which a) all the powers are vested in the
national government and the regional governments derive their authority from the national government.
b) powers are divided between the national government and the regional governments by the Constitution and both operate in their respective jurisdictions independently
c) there is division of powers between the Central and state governments; and also between the federal and state judiciaries
d) a large number of powers are vested in the national government and the regional governments, with some independent powers, derive their authority from the national government
29. The Indian constitution is a written one unlike in some of the other democracies. What does it imply? 1. The form of government in India has
been codified in the constitution to reduce political and administrative conflicts.
2. All the laws made by Parliament are to be written down as a part of the constitution.
3. Only because of a written constitution, citizens are able to enjoy fundamental rights.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 only
30. Elections to the Rajya Sabha from the State legislative assemblies are done on the basis of proportional representation. This means a) every district in the state is given due
representation in Rajya Sabha from that state
b) all the states are given representation in Rajya Sabha
c) that all the states irrespective of their size and population get due representation in Rajya Sabha
d) None of the above
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31. Consider the following about Speaker Pro Tem. 1. The President can appoint anyone as
the Speaker Pro Tem of Lok Sabha. 2. The Speaker Pro Tem has all the
powers of the Speaker. 3. Office of the Speaker Pro Tem is
temporary in nature.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
32. Consider the following statements. 1. Tax cannot be levied or collected
except by authority of law. 2. A new tax cannot be imposed unless
asked for by the executive government.
3. No expenditure can be sanctioned unless asked for by the executive government.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
33. The principle of the rule of lapse leads to ‘rush of expenditure’ towards the end of a financial year because a) unspent money will be accounted as
insufficient and inefficient funding by the auditor
b) unspent voted expenditure would lapse by the end of the financial year
c) unspent money will be allocated to the next year’s financial budget
d) unspent money will increase the fiscal burden of the government
34. Which of the following limits the legislative sphere and authority of the State Legislatures? 1. A written constitution 2. Division of powers in the Seventh
Schedule 3. Judicial review of State enactments by
the High courts 4. Veto powers of the Governor and
President over state legislations
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 2, 3 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 only d) All of the above
35. Without the prior approval of the President of India, which of the following can NOT be done? 1. Abolition of a certain tax by the
Parliament 2. Introduction of State reorganization
bill in the Parliament 3. Introduction of money bill in the
Parliament.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
TEST – 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES – 2015)
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36. Consider the following about Western cyclonic disturbances in India. 1. They usually occur in winter months. 2. They are brought by westerly flow
from Central Asian region. 3. They influence the weather of the
north and north-western regions of India.
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
37. The stars are localised lumps of gas within a nebula. Which of the following is/are considered as some of the stages in the development of a planet from stars? 1. A dust cloud develops around the core
gas particles. 2. Collision of large gas clouds 3. Bursting of condensed gas clouds
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
38. Which of the following correctly show the significance of weathering in rocks? 1. Helps in enrichment of minerals in
rocks 2. Leads to mass wasting and reduction
of relief 3. Aids the formation of soil and thus
biodiversity
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
39. Which of the following factors influence the evolution of landforms on earth? 1. Stability of sea level 2. Tectonic stability of landmasses 3. Climate 4. Groundwater 5. Volcanism
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1 and 4 only b) 2, 3 and 5 only c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only d) All of the above
40. Hari is dependent on a pendulum based clock for timing kept in a room much above ordinary summer temperatures. He is invited for a meeting by his friend (who stays at a relatively cooler place) at sharp 2’o clock. Considering Hari’s total dependence on the pendulum clock for time, it is likely that a) Hari will be late for the meeting b) Hari will on time for the meeting c) Hari will be arrive early for the
meeting d) The pendulum clock will show a
highly incorrect time and Hari will never arrive for the meeting
TEST – 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES – 2015)
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41. When a TV signal is broadcasted, why is its range confined to a limited distance? a) TV signal transmission uses long
waves which cannot be transmitted for long distances.
b) TV signal transmission uses short waves which are absorbed by the atmosphere
c) TV signal waves carry limited energy waves which get dissipated is short period of time
d) The spherical shape of earth does not allow for very long transmissions
42. When the soil is subjected to “Mulching” - a process – which of these is done? 1. Some loose material is laid on the
ground to prevent excessive evaporation or erosion of the soil
2. The field is irrigated at regular intervals
3. Seedlings are transplanted 4. Big pieces of soil are broken down into
smaller pieces
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only
43. Why do tropical deciduous trees shed their leaves in summer? a) Because rainfall is inadequate to cover
up evaporation in summers b) So that they can prevent excessive loss
of water through evaporation c) So as to prevent excessive loss of
water through transpiration
d) Because tree leaves generally get dried up due to the excessive heat
44. Comets orbiting the Sun have glowing tails because? 1. A comet tail and coma having dust
particles are illuminated by the Sun 2. Gases in the comet’s tail glow
from ionization.
Which of the above is/are true?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
45. In the practice of out-breeding, which of the following is/are possible? 1. Different breed of animals can be bred
together 2. Different species of animals can be
bred 3. Superior male of one breed is mated
with superior female from another breed
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
46. Bio-fortification leads to increase in the nutritional value of crops. This can be done through 1. Conventional breeding of crops 2. Genetic Engineering 3. Injecting crops with nutritive
components
TEST – 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES – 2015)
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4. Grafting crops with each other
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 2 and 3 only
47. Consider the following about Chandrayaan – 2, India’s second lunar exploration mission. 1. The mission’s primary objective is to
find possible sources of water and useful minerals on moon.
2. Exploration will not be done on the lunar surface and instead the lunar orbit will be used.
3. The mission is being undertaken in collaboration with Germany and Russia.
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above
48. Which of these is the most appropriate evidence that shows Harappan civilization believed in evil forces? a) They worshipped Pasupati, which was
considered a powerful deity b) They used metal objects as seals and
in house entrances c) They used amulets as protection
against evil forces d) Animals were sacrificed at regular
intervals in Harappa
49. In the Early Vedic period, who was known as Vishayapati? a) One who had great knowledge of all
Vedas and was proficient in teaching them
b) Head of a group of villages c) local ruler who patronised vedic
worship and sacrifices d) The one who headed the military unit
in case of major incidents
50. As per Gautam Buddha 1. No entity in the Universe is as
omnipotent as soul. 2. Human suffering is caused because of
past karmas and there is a way to transcend it.
3. Transmigration of soul is affected by the consciousness a person carries in this birth.
4. God can be attained by living a balanced life.
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above
51. Which of the following can said to be the immediate effects of the invasion of Alexander in India? 1. Stopped political unification of North
India under the Mauryas 2. Direct contact between India and
Greece 3. Annexation of North-western India by
Greece
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
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a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 only
52. Horizontal distribution of pressure is studied by drawing isobars which are lines connecting places having equal pressure. How is the effect of altitude in a region eliminated while studying isobars? a) by reducing the place being studied to
sea level for comparison b) by ignoring the nearby high grounds
and mountains and considering the ground level pressures
c) by measuring the sea level temperature and pressure of the nearby regions
d) None of the above
53. RBI uses the tool of sterilization to protect the economy when 1. Foreign funds and investments pump
in large amounts of money in the economy
2. Domestic investors lose confidence in the economy due to falling investment rate
3. There is a shortage of foreign exchange reserves of India
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 only
54. Consider the following examples related to the ‘opportunity costs’ between two options in each of the statements below. 1. An entrepreneur is making zero
profits on both production and non-production of goods
2. A labourer earns as much money in a given time as much he values leisure
In which of the above case(s) is the opportunity cost between the two options non-zero?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
55. Which of the following is/are ‘redistributive’ tools of the government? 1. Progressive taxation 2. Welfare spending 3. Public employment programmes 4. Subsidies
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) All of the above
56. Consider the following statements. 1. High public debt is always bad for an
economy. 2. Inflation can never be good for a
growing economy. 3. Only a nation that has a positive trade
balance can become a developed country.
Choose the INCORRECT statements using the codes below.
TEST – 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES – 2015)
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a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
57. The issue of Black money has been in news frequently. Black money can be generated from which of the following activities? 1. Tax evasion 2. Tax avoidance 3. Illegal economic activities 4. Foreign investment
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 2 and 3 only
58. Consider that a government has been struggling with high fiscal deficits and high inflation in the economy. Which of the following borrowing sources is the most favourable for it to stabilize the economy? a) Borrowing from the public via
treasuries b) Printing fresh currency by RBI c) Grants from foreign nations d) Borrowing from sovereign nations
59. Some of the species below have been in news. Which of these species is/are endemic to India? 1. Blue Mormon
2. Yellow-footed green pigeon 3. Indian darter 4. Southern birdwing
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) All of the above
60. The Nathu la pass was recently in news. Consider the following about it. 1. It is a mountain pass in the Northern
Himalayas. 2. It is one of the open trading border
posts between China and India. 3. It was sealed by India after the
1962 Sino-Indian War.
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 only
61. The District and sessions Judge in a state works directly under the control of which of the following authorities? 1. District Collector 2. State Governor 3. State Law Minister
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 only d) None of the above
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62. Which of the following is NOT a teaching in Sufism? 1. Turning away heart from all else but
God 2. Purify one’s inner self 3. Practicing asceticism 4. Repeating the name of God
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 3 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 4 only d) All are teachings in Sufism.
63. Destruction of Ozone layer can be caused by 1. All greenhouse gases 2. Supersonic jets 3. Missile launches 4. Heating of the stratosphere
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 3 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 only d) All of the above
64. Consider the following statements about idols and idol worship in India. 1. Worship of idols in India started
during the Gupta period. 2. The sculpture with the three faces of
Brahma, Vishnu and Mahesh known as ‘Trimurti’ is found in Elephanta caves.
3. Mahayana Buddhism believes in idol worship.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
65. You will observe that in cloudy nights less dew is formed. Why? a) when there are more clouds there is
less of particulate matter in the atmosphere
b) clouds allow the heat in the atmosphere to pass through and radiation takes place quickly
c) dew is not formed when the conditions in the environment are that of precipitation
d) clouds retain the heat in the atmosphere and radiation takes place slowly
66. Who among the following is/are the member(s) of NITI Ayog? 1. Chief Ministers of all States 2. Chief Minister of UTs (with
legislature) 3. Nominated Union Cabinet Ministers 4. Union Secretary of Defence, Finance,
Planning and Home 5. State Finance Ministers
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1, 2 and 5 only b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 only
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67. Under the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled areas) - PESA, 1996 Act, Gram Sabhas are given the authority to stop land alienation by a) State Legislatures b) District Collector c) State Forest department d) Central government
68. It is possible for two different branches of a plant to yield two different fruits by 1. Hybridization 2. Grafting 3. Tissue Culture
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 only d) None of the above
69. If light is entering through a small hole in a closed room through a closed door, the image of the opposite house appears as inverted on the opposite wall of the hole. This can be explained on the basis of a) the rectilinear propagation of light b) the shortest path of light property c) the hole acts as a lens and magnifies
the object in front of it d) the light taking turns at the hole and
splitting in N number of different rays
70. In Indian literature, Mucchangam is a) Buddhist literature patronized under
Satvahanas that emerged after the Buddhist councils
b) Three Sangams of Tamil poets in ancient Tamil Nadu
c) Compilation of all the work of the poet Kalidasa that describes the character of man
d) a collection of mantras and rituals (part of Vedas) that are to be performed on special occasions
71. Consider the following statements about the early Medieval period. 1. The first Muslim kingdom in India
was established at Ajmer. 2. The Battles of Tarain and Chandawar
contributed to the establishment of Turkish rule in India.
3. In the first century of the early medieval period, Rajputs and Mughals ruled India together.
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
72. ‘Population III’ stars were recently in news because of the discovery of COSMOS Redshift 7. These ‘Population III’ stars are the a) third generation of stars which are the
youngest and brightest in the Universe b) first generation of stars which are
born out of the primordial material of the Big Bang
c) third generation stars which are the brightest and nearest to the Solar system
d) stars belonging to the brightest distant galaxy known to mankind which were
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born right after the formation of the gaseous universe
73. Tropical wet and dry climates are those where 1. There is abundance of Monsoon rain
showers 2. Temperature is high throughout the
year 3. Diurnal range of temperature is
almost nil.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 only d) 2 and 3 only
74. The idea of Satyagraha as propounded by Gandhi includes Satyagraha as 1. A passive resistance 2. Battle with a distance 3. Non-violence which is supreme
Dharma
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 3 only
75. The first Round table conference was announced by Lord Irwin to discuss 1. Dominion status for India 2. Future constitution of India 3. Rights of Princely states in India
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
76. Prarthana Samaj founded by Keshub Chandra Sen in Bombay worked on which of the following socio-religious reforms? 1. Disapproval of the caste system 2. Raising the age of marriage in both
males and females 3. Land reforms for poor landless
peasants 4. Revival of ancient Vedic practices to
educate the India society
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1 and 2 only
77. The partition of Bengal was annulled in 1911 by the British because 1. They wanted to curb revolutionary
terrorism 2. Muslim leaders had protested sharply
against a division of Bengal. 3. A divided Bengal was becoming
difficult to administer.
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 only
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78. Which of the following most appropriately shows the impact of the Russian revolution in India? a) Indian masses understood that
Imperials can be challenged with unity.
b) Indian leaders understood the exploitative nature of authoritarianism
c) Indian soldiers grasped how the British were able to use their vast military influence to rule India
d) Indian leaders understood that to start a political revolution, an economic revolution is a must
79. Consider the following about the Eka movement that surfaced in the Northern provinces at the end of 1921. 1. It was centred on tenant security and
high land rents. 2. The grassroot leadership of the
movement came from the middle class intellectuals also leading the Indian national movement.
3. Severe repression by British authorities brought an end to this movement.
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
80. The parent rock of soil controls which of the following properties of soils? 1. Mineral content 2. Permeability
3. Rate of Humus formation 4. Colour and texture
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) All of the above
81. You are on a visit to a mining site. Out of a small heap of rocks, you can easily identify those rocks that contain copper because a) those rocks will be more lustrous than
the other non-copper containing rocks b) those rocks will appear blue in colour c) those rocks are very fine in texture
and have a glassy appearance d) those rocks will be highly reddish in
colour and can be scratched even with a nail
82. Consider the following geographical regions. 1. Western Cordilleras 2. Appalachians 3. Guiana Highlands 4. Kanin Peninsula
Which of the above belong to the North American region?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
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83. Millets and Maize are high nutrition crops and can be cultivated on a large scale. Which of these conditions are common for their cultivation? 1. Moderate temperature 2. Sandy soils 3. Low rainfall 4. Prolonged periods of sunshine
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) All of the above
84. Kumaon Himalayas is that region of Himalayas that lies between a) Satlaj and Kali rivers b) the base of Shiwaliks and bangar
deposits c) Pir panjal and Zaskar Himalayas d) Brahmaputra river basin and Garo
mountains
85. Consider the following about Indian climate. 1. There is decrease in rainfall generally
from east to west in the Northern Plains.
2. In general, coastal areas experience less contrasts in temperature conditions.
3. Seasonal contrasts are more in the interior of the country.
Choose the correct statements using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
86. The Union Cabinet has recently approved the launch of the “Housing for All by 2022” programme. It aims at 1. Rehabilitation of slum-dwellers 2. Promotion of affordable housing for
the urban poor 3. Improving existing housing
infrastructure in the country
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
87. Consider the following about regulation in medical industry. 1. Government presently does not
regulate online sale of medicines. 2. Government regulates the price of all
drugs sold or imported in India.
Which of the above is/are true?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
88. During the 1st millennium BCE, the Vaisheshika School of atomism was founded. As per the school of philosophy 1. All objects in the physical universe are
reducible to atoms. 2. Atoms are indivisible and eternal. 3. Each atom possesses its own distinct
individuality.
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4. Knowledge and liberation is achievable by complete understanding of the world of experience.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 and 4 only d) All of the above
89. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): The Coriolis force is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.
Reason (R): Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude.
In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A.
c) A is incorrect, R is correct. d) A and R both are incorrect.
90. If the value of rupee starts depreciating in International market, it will benefit 1. Indian exporters 2. Foreign Institutional Investors (FII) 3. Domestic borrowers
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only
91. Indian government has been attempting to diversify its oil imports portfolio. How will this benefit India? 1. It is a guard against oil related geo-
political risks. 2. It may reduce shipping time and cost
of crude oil. 3. India will be in a better bargaining
position with oil exporting nations.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
92. National Disposable Income includes which of the following? 1. Net National Product at market prices 2. Current transfers from the rest of the
world 3. Current transfers from government
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above
93. Consider the following statements about government bonds in the economy. 1. If the interest rates are high, people
would like to keep more money in the form of government bonds.
2. If there is reduced money supply in the economy, central bank issues more government bonds in the market.
Which of the above is/are correct?
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a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
94. Shilpa Shastras is an umbrella term for numerous Hindu texts that describe arts, crafts, and their design rules, principles and standards. They did NOT deal with 1. Painting 2. Metallurgy 3. Architecture 4. Medicine
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 2, 3 and 4 only b) 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) They dealt with all of the above
95. ‘Take-out’ finance in India is being used for 1. Providing funding for long duration
projects 2. Providing bailout funds to sick and
underperforming companies 3. Reducing the Non-performing assets
of banks
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
96. ‘Quantitative easing’ has been in news for some time. What does it mean?
a) It is a type of monetary policy used by central banks to stimulate the economy when standard monetary policy has become ineffective.
b) It is a type of fiscal stimulus given by federal/central government when the economy is going through stagflation
c) It is a type of monetary policy when government securities are sold extensively in the market by the Central bank
d) It is a type of fiscal policy where growth is diverted from other nations by providing several sops and incentives to foreign investors
97. A nation which is rich in natural resources and skilled labourers is not economically very poor with a low GDP per capita. Which of these can be the most appropriate explanations for the same? a) the flow of production in the economy
is very weak b) the nation is not relying on
sustainable growth models c) the government’s intervention in the
economy is hampering the development of competitive markets
d) the nation has to rely on imports excessively for production process
98. Capital goods are those goods that are 1. Used for the production of
intermediate goods 2. Used for the production of consumer
goods 3. Used for generation of capital 4. a part of the nation’s fixed capital
formation
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
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a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 1 only
99. One of the ways of measuring the income of a nation is to add all the factor payments made in the economy. Here factor payments mean a) payments made to resources used in
the production process b) payments used for deploying human
capital in the industries
c) payments made to the fixed asset and capital used in the production process in the economy
d) the collective income of all the firms in the economy
100. What is called Directive Principles in the present Indian constitution is merely another name for the instrument of instructions issued in a) Indian Independence Act, 1947 b) Government of India Act, 1935 c) 1858 Charter Act d) Morley-Minto reforms Act, 1919
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