insights on india mock preliminary exam - 2015 general

INSIGHTS MOCK TEST -‐ 31

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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 31 GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER-I Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT Write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 20



1. What is/are the similarities between phytoplankton in a pond ecosystem; and lichens in a terrestrial ecosystem? 1. They both can prepare their own

food. 2. They both are the pioneer species

forming the pioneer community. 3. They both are in a symbiotic

relationship with some species in their respective ecosystem.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 2 only

2. Consider the following about Sickle Cell Anaemia. 1. It is a hereditary disease 2. It spreads via air and water 3. It leads to leads to jaundice and

frequent ailments in children 4. It can be prevented by increasing

iron intake since childhood


a) 3 and 4 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 4 only

3. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently signed a currency swap agreement with the Central Bank of Sri Lanka. This would help both the countries in avoiding a) Balance of payment and liquidity

crisis b) Low Inflation in the economies c) Adverse trade balance between both

nations d) Low cross-border capital inflows

4. Which of these are methods of ex-site conservation? 1. Cryopreservation 2. Seed banks 3. Field Gene banks 4. Home gardens


a) 3 and 4 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above

5. A tiger reserve is generally zoned into core, buffer and transition areas. In the Core area, which of these activities are NOT permitted in India? 1. Tourism 2. Mining 3. Human habitation 4. Industries





6. Susceptibility to extinction will be highest in species which 1. have fixed migratory routes in fixed

seasons 2. have a narrow range of habitat 3. feed at lowest levels in the food web


a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above

7. Consider the following minerals and

their uses. 1. Mercury is used in making electric

switches. 2. Phosphorous is used in making

medicines. 3. Potassium and Silver can be used in

photography. 4. Manganese can be used in making

disinfectants.



8. Marine algae have been used as manure in many countries because a) they contain very high biomass as

compared to their weight b) they are rich in nutrients c) they help in decomposing the

detritus present in the farms d) they produce agar that is highly

fertile and keeps the soil moisture intact

9. How is social forestry different from agro-forestry? 1. In agro-forestry, trees are grown

instead of crops on farms. 2. In social forestry, NGOs take

responsibility for afforestation of arid and fallow lands.

3. While the community owns the resources in social forestry, agro-forestry produce is privately owned.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 only d) 3 only

10. Consider the following statements about

the water cycle.

Assertion (A): While evaporation is greater over the oceans, rainfall is greater over the land.

Reason (R): Trade winds carry moisture laden winds from the oceans to land.



In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?

a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.

b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A.

c) A is correct, R is incorrect. d) A is incorrect, R is correct.

11. Consider the following functions of forests. 1. Absorption of atmospheric gases 2. Storage of minerals and water 3. Storage and release of radiant energy

These functions fall under which of the following categories?

a) Protective functions b) Regulative functions c) Productive Functions d) Reproductive Functions

12. Which of these processes may lead to a loss of nutrients from the soil? 1. Nutrient Immobilization 2. Mineralization 3. Leaching 4. Nitrification


a) 1 and 4 only b) 2, 3, and 4 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 only

13. Which of the following is/are free-living nitrogen fixing bacteria present in the soil? 1. Rhizobium 2. Clostridium 3. Azotobacter 4. Pseduomonas


a) 1 and 4 only b) 2, 3, and 4 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 only

14. Consider the following about Mycorrhizae. 1. It is a symbiotic relation of fungi

with plant roots. 2. It helps in better absorption of

minerals from soil. 3. It can form mutualistic relation with

blue-green algae to improve water absorption in plants.



15. Certain plants use C4 pathway of photosynthesis instead of C3 generally used by plants. What difference does a C4 pathway make to the plants? 1. It is a more efficient way of

photosynthesis.



2. Plants can survive in low moisture conditions.

3. Nutrient need from soil is lowered. 4. They can survive in high temperature

conditions.



16. Main inputs of phosphorous as a nutrient in soil come from 1. Rainfall 2. Phosphorous fixing bacteria 3. Weathering of soil 4. Atmospheric gas exchanges with soil



17. Only 50 per cent of the energy of the total incident solar radiation is available to producers for absorption. Why is the other 50 per cent unavailable? 1. It is lost in respiration and

assimilation by first level organisms. 2. It is absorbed by gases or reflected by

clouds in the atmosphere.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None

18. Consider the following statements about critical link species in a forest ecosystem. 1. A forest ecosystem has only a few

critical link species. 2. Loss of critical link species has

disproportionate impact on the ecosystem.

3. Critical link species are always found at the edge of ecosystems.

4. Critical link species are also known as Keystone species.



19. During PM’s recent visit to Seoul, it was announced that India and Korea will strengthen their historic connection by enhancing linkages of Korean people with Ayodhya. What explains the linkages? a) Queen Suriratna, a princess from

Ayodhya had travelled to South Korea to marry King Kim Suro

b) The land of Ayodhya was donated to the then King of South Korea as a goodwill gesture who later returned the favour by gifting the land back



c) King Suro of South Korea helped the Ayodhyan army to deal with invaders from the North-western mountains

d) All of the above

20. Consider the following about the Amaravati, Andhra Pradesh. 1. It was ruled by Satavahanas. 2. Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism

have all flourished in the region. 3. All major rock-cut architectural

schools were born in this region.



21. Consider the following about Ken and

Betwa rivers. 1. Both are tributaries of Yamuna. 2. Both are major rivers of

Bundelkhand region. 3. Both will be interlinked together as

per a government decision.



22. Which of the functions relating to the

Parliament are performed by the President? 1. Summoning the Houses

2. Proroguing the Houses 3. Adjournment Sine dine 4. Dissolving lower house 5. Addressing both houses


a) 1, 4 and 5 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only d) All of the above

23. The representative of each Union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by a) Members of an electoral college

specially constituted for this purpose b) Members of Legislative assemblies c) Members of Local constitutional

bodies d) MPs, MLAs and ward councillors

jointly from a Union Territory

24. A Member of Parliament ceases to hold his seat if 1. He owns and runs a private

commercial firm 2. He holds any office of Profit under

the Union or State government 3. He is removed from the political

party on whose ticket he was elected 4. He is expelled from the house.


a) 2, 3 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 4 only d) All of the above



25. The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed on 1. A resolution passed by majority of

the membership of Lok Sabha 2. A resolution passed by special

majority in Lok Sabha 3. An enquiry by the Supreme Court 4. An order of the President


a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only

26. Apart from the Supreme Court of India, which of the following is/are authorities empowered to interpret the constitution? 1. Chief Justice, High Court 2. Speaker, Lok Sabha 3. Chairman, Rajya Sabha


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 only d) All of the above

27. The Institution of Speaker and Deputy Speaker in India originated under the provisions of a) Charter Act 1891 b) Morley-Minto Act, 1909

c) Montague Chelmsford Act, 1919 d) Independence of India Act, 1947

28. Rule of law in Article 14 of the Constitution implies that 1. The state cannot treat citizens

differently with respect to the same law.

2. The state cannot punish citizens except for violating the law.

3. The state cannot confer any special socio-economic privilege on any individual.



29. Consider the following about Estimates Committee. 1. It is exclusively a committee of the

lower house. 2. Chairman of this committee is

invariably from the ruling party. 3. The committee is guided by

Comptroller and Auditor General of India.





30. Administration is held accountable to the legislature by which of the following devices? 1. Financial Committees of the

Parliament 2. Committee on delegated legislation 3. Committee on Business advisory 4. Question hour and zero hour in the

Parliament


a) 1 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 2 and 4 only d) All of the above

31. For a no-confidence motion to be admitted in Lok Sabha 1. Speaker must give consent to it. 2. Support of at least 50 members is

necessary. 3. Leader of Opposition must lead the

motion. 4. Both houses of Parliament must be

in session. 5. Prior permission from the President

must be obtained.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 5 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 2 only

32. What is the meaning of “popular sovereignty”? a) Views and preferences of the

majority (popular) are considered sovereign.

b) A nation is sovereign in all respects by virtue of the sovereignty of its resident citizens.

c) An area can be declared sovereign by the wish of the people.

d) People are the ultimate source of the authority of their government.

33. The Source of power of “judicial review” in the constitution flows from a) The doctrine of separation of power

between legislature and judiciary b) The authority of the Supreme Court

and High courts to issue writs (Article 32 and 226)

c) Article 13 of the Constitution d) The Basic structure of the

Constitution

34. Consider the following about All-India services. 1. Service conditions are determined by

the President. 2. Services can be abolished only by a

constitutional amendment. 3. UPSC is responsible for

appointments to the posts in All-India services.

4. Members of All-India services cannot be removed from services by Prime Minister alone.




a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 3 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 2 and 4 only

35. In the Budgetary process, arrange the following in correct order. 1. Vote on account 2. Bill sent to Upper House. 3. General Discussion on the Bill. 4. Bill referred to select committee.


a) 3142 b) 1423 c) 3412 d) 3421

36. Consider the following about the Economic Survey. 1. It is published by the Ministry of

Finance. 2. It is presented along with the budget

to the Lok Sabha. 3. It is not presented to Rajya Sabha.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only

37. Consider a situation where the incumbent executive has been found guilty of financial irregularities based on a CAG report as examined by the Public Accounts Committee. The ultimate responsibility to take appropriate action on this report lies on? a) Prime Minister of India b) President of India c) Parliament d) Supreme Court

38. The International North–South Transport Corridor will directly connect India with which of these countries? 1. Russia 2. Europe 3. Central Asia 4. Iran 5. Azerbaijan


a) 2, 3 and 5 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) All of the above

39. Consider the following about the project SETI being led by Stephen Hawking? 1. It will be a human space mission to

search for extra terrestrial intelligence.

2. The project will rely on sending decrypted electromagnetic messages in space.

3. The project has been undertaken in joint collaboration with NASA.



4. It is financial backed by the UK Government.


a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 only d) None of the above

40. After the death of Aurangzeb in 1707, Delhi could no longer function as an effective centre. What can be the reason(s)? 1. Mughal governors (subedars)

asserted their authority over Mughal Kingdoms.

2. Zamindars started establishing regional kingdoms.

3. After his Death, British immediately adopted the policy of ‘Paramountcy’.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 1and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above

41. The reason(s) behind Battle of Plassey between the Nawab of Bengal and the British was/were 1. British denied stopping trade

relations with India 2. Bengal Nawab did not accept

‘subsidiary alliance’ enforced by the British.

3. East India Company had started interfering in the political matters of Bengal.

4. British did not pay appropriate revenue to Bengal Nawab.

5. East India Company did not stop fortification in Bengal even after the farman of Bengal Nawab.


a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 4 and 5 only c) 3, 4 and 5 only d) All of the above

42. Consider the following about Gandhian ideology? 1. Gandhi was opposed to the existing

state because it was forced and based on centralization of authority.

2. As Per Gandhi, an all powerful state impeded the progress of an individual in society.

3. Gandhi held that ‘State’ represents violence in organized and concentrated form.





43. Which of these is/are NOT principle(s) of United Nations? 1. Some sovereigns are more equal than

others. 2. Member nations have rights but no

obligations. 3. All members shall settle their

international disputes by peaceful means.

4. All members shall settle their national disputes by peaceful means.


a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 4 only

44. Which of the following concerning Wodeyar Dynasty is incorrect? a) After Tipu Sultan was killed in the

Battle of Seringapatam, Mysore was placed under Wodeyars – the former ruling dynasty.

b) The kingdom was incorporated into the Dominion of India after its independence from British rule.

c) Under British rule, Wodeyar Dynasty was exempted from Subsidiary Alliance.

d) None of the above

45. Consider the following statements about the teachings of Buddha.

Assertion (A): Every living being is in the state of suffering and none is exception to this.

Reason (R): Suffering is caused by Ignorance which is due to attachment, greed and delusion.





46. In Jainism, Abhayadana was related with a) Feeding the poor and homeless b) Imparting knowledge to the ignorant c) Giving protection to someone under

threat d) Selfless service given by the student

to the teacher

47. In the later Vedic period, Bhagadudha was a) a local priest who performed

sacrifices for Brahmin households b) an officer responsible for collection

of taxes c) the village guard appointed by the

monarchy d) a jurist who settled civil disputes in

the village



48. Gandhi suspended which of these movements calling it a ‘Himalayan Blunder’? a) Non-cooperation movement b) Satyagraha movement against

Rowlatt Act c) Quit India movement d) Civil Disobedience Movement

49. Consider the following statements about Vaishnavism.

Assertion (A): Its spread contributed to the growth of regional literature.

Reason (R): It was adopted and followed by all then contemporary regional poets and prose writers.





50. The book 'One Part Woman' or Madhurobhagan was recently in news. Why? a) Its writer has won the SAARC

Literary Award recently. b) The book was appreciated recently by

the President of India for its depth on the issues afflicting transgender in India.

c) It is the first Indian book written on the plight of transgender in ancient India.


51. NASA’s New Horizons spacecraft was in news recently because a) It is the first spacecraft to

successfully fly by Pluto. b) It is first spacecraft to land safely on

an asteroid orbiting the Sun. c) It recently escaped the solar system

to reach Kuiper belt. d) It spotted an extremely dwarf black

hole in the solar system.

52. The “rarest of the rare” principle in handing out the death penalty was given by the Supreme Court in which case? a) Shatrughan Chauhan vs Union of

India b) Bachan Singh vs State of Punjab c) Mithu vs State of Punjab d) Ladani vs Union of India

53. Consider the following about the BRICS New Development Bank. 1. Agreement for establishing NDB was

made at Fortaleza. 2. Bank will be headquartered in

Shanghai. 3. Bank’s first President will be

Kundapur Vaman Kamath from India.

4. All member nations will have an equal say in Bank’s management.

5. All member nations will contribute equally to Bank’s start-up capital.




a) 1 , 4 and 5 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above

54. According to a survey of trust in national governments for 2014 conducted by the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), India has secured second position amongst 40 countries. According to the survey change in trust levels can be affected by? 1. Economic outlook 2. Disasters 3. Major scandals 4. Election results



55. You are a District Magistrate. You denied allotting a huge tender to an influential local businessman. To seek revenge, he is posting defamatory and offensive speeches against you on the internet. Which legal recourse can you take against him? a) Approach the State high court

accusing the businessman of abusing freedom of speech given under Article 19

b) File a case in local police station under Section 66A of the Information Technology Act

c) File a case with the local police station under the IPC Section 499/500

d) Both (b) and (c)

56. The 12th International Symposium on Antarctic Earth Sciences (ISAES) was recently inaugurated at a function in Goa. The theme(s) of the symposium is/are 1. Conservation strategies for

Antarctica 2. Plate movements in Antarctica 3. Human habitation in Antarctica



57. As per the terms arrived at in the Iran Nuclear Deal 1. Iran will not enrich any Uranium. 2. Iran will be subject to oversight from

US Nuclear authorities. 3. All previous nuclear installations will

be shutdown in a period of time. 4. Iran will not be able to share nuclear

technology with any nation.


a) 1 and 4 only



b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above

58. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) that approves major defence related projects consist of 1. Minister of State for Defence 2. Cabinet Secretary 3. Chiefs of Army, Navy and Air Staff 4. Defence Secretary 5. Director, Intelligence Bureau 6. Director, RAW 7. National Security Advisor


a) 1, 2, 5, 6 and 7 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3, 4 and 7 only d) All of the above

59. While driving in an urban area, you find out that the Air Quality Index (AQI) for the area is “X” coloured. Air of this quality may cause respiratory impact even on healthy people, and serious health impacts on people with lung/heart disease. Which colour is “X” most likely to be? a) Light Pink b) Yellow c) Maroon d) Blue

60. The government has decided to set up a trade facilitation council. Consider the following with reference to it. 1. The council will be chaired by the

Union Commerce and Industry Minister.

2. It will be made a sub-organ of SAARC.

3. It will provide a single window mechanism for clearance of major exports and imports.

4. It will include Ministers from states also.


a) 1 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above

61. Ottapayam situated in Kerala was recently in news. Why? a) India’s first defence industrial park

will be situated here. b) India’s biggest disabled friendly IT

Park will be constructed here supported entirely by World Bank.

c) The first NIMZ in South India will be built here.

d) It will host the biggest International Environmental Conservation Conference held in India till date.



62. Consider the following with reference to the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Policy (NPPP). 1. Pharmaceutical companies cannot

revise the cost of drugs under the policy without permission from the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority.

2. It is applicable to all drugs on the national list on life-saving medicines.

3. Drug pricing in the policy is fixed based on a formula.



63. A geographical indication (GI) is a name or sign used on certain products which corresponds to a specific geographical location or origin. Which of these are GIs in India? 1. Mysore Silk 2. Darjeeling Tea 3. Kancheepuram Saree 4. Thanjavur Paintings


a) 1 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 4 only

64. Jansankhya Sthirata Kosh” (JSK) or the National Population Stabilisation Fund is under a) Ministry of Planning b) Ministry of Health and Family

welfare c) Ministry of Statistics and Program

implementation d) None of the above

65. As per the Antarctica treaty 1. No commercial activity is allowed in

Antarctica. 2. Each member nation will adopt one

of Antarctica’s endangered species. 3. All claims to the Antarctica territory

are void. 4. Any scientific study needs the

approval of Scientific Committee on Antarctic Research (SCAR).



66. As compared to the unamended principal land Acquisition act passed in 2013, the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (Amendment) Ordinance, 2015 relaxes provisions relating to which of the following categories? 1. Social Impact assessment



2. Restrictions on acquisition of multi-cropped land

3. Consent for public private partnerships (PPPs) projects



67. Consider the following about the Stone chariot at Vittala Temple, Hampi. 1. It is made of granite. 2. An image of Garuda was originally

enshrined within its sanctum. 3. It is a monolithic structure. 4. Its base platform is carved with

mythical battle scenes. 5. Two horses are positioned before the

chariot as if they are pulling it.


a) 2, 3 and 5 only b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 5 only

68. Consider the following about Sun Temple, Konark. 1. It is an example of Kalinga

architecture. 2. Temple was designed as a gigantic

chariot of Sun God. 3. The alignment of the Sun Temple is

on the east-west direction.

4. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. 5. The temple was originally built at the

mouth of the river Chandrabhaga.


a) 2, 3 and 5 only b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 4 and 5 only d) All of the above

69. The Basilica of Bom Jesus located in

Goa, India is an important cultural heritage because a) It is the oldest church in World. b) It contains the mortal remains of St.

Francis. c) It was constructed jointly by all

colonial powers that came to India. d) While the exterior is baroque

architecture, interior is highly contrastingly Hindu and Mughal architecture which is nowhere found in the world.

70. The famous Padmapani painting in the Ajanta Caves depicts a) a bodhisattva with a blue lotus flower

sitting among a crowd of devotees b) a feminine Buddhist Sangha being

ordained by Gautama Buddha c) Buddha’s Mahaparinirvana being

witnessed by his very close disciples d) Buddha conquering Mara of all

worldly passions

71. Cloudbursts can be caused by 1. Excess of electrostatic induction in

the clouds 2. High jet stream velocity in the upper

atmosphere



3. Mixing of warm air parcel with cooler air resulting in sudden condensation



72. The Karnataka High Court has asked the

Karnataka Forest department to consider banning eucalyptus plantations across the state. Why? a) It is not natural to the Karnataka

region and is affecting the biodiversity of the region.

b) Tall eucalyptus trees do not allow sufficient sunlight and nutrition to other forest trees.

c) Large area of forest was already replaced with monoculture eucalyptus and planting more trees would affect the species diversity of the region.

d) The eucalyptus tree consumes a lot of water for its growth depleting groundwater levels.

73. Consider the following about GSLV Mark III developed by ISRO. 1. It features an Indian cryogenic

technology. 2. It can launch communication

satellites in space. 3. It is presently being used for

commercial satellite launches by ISRO.



74. Presently space activities in India are

guided by 1. Satellite Communications Policy,

2000 2. International Agreements 3. Revised Remote Sensing Policy 2011



75. What is/are the benefit(s) of having a

separate and unified National Renewable Energy Act (NERA)? 1. The Ministry of New and renewable

energy need not depend on other ministries for necessary clearances.

2. The law will clarify institutional mechanisms related with financing, monitoring, planning and support for renewable energy generation.


a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None



76. The “collective self-defence” doctrine presently being pushed by the Japanese government means a) Japan is not in favour of independent

armies for all nations b) Japan may wish to send troops

abroad to rescue allies under attack c) Japan will intervene constructively in

all international negotiations that have significant geo-strategic implications

d) Japan will make military conscription compulsory for its citizens in larger national interest

77. Why fossils are generally found in low-lying areas? a) Faulting and folding of earth’s crust

puts low-lying areas under very high temperature and pressure

b) Low-lying areas are at a higher temperature than areas of higher altitude, hence more organic matter is converted to fossil fuels

c) Deposition of sediments is carried by rivers that also carry organic matter

d) Volcanic magma spreads only on low-lying areas which is a significant source of fossils

78. Consider two geo-morphological cases. 1. A continental plate colliding with an

oceanic plate and the latter subsiding below the former.

2. Two continental plates colliding.

Which of these outcomes is possible in both the cases?

a) Volcanic mountains may be created in both the cases.

b) Fold Mountains will be created in both the cases.

c) Fold Mountains may be created in case 1 and volcanic mountains in case 2.

d) Volcanic Mountains may be created in case 1 and Fold Mountains in case 2.

79. Most of the rivers in Africa cannot be navigated fully. Why? a) They follow highly tortuous and

narrow beds. b) A large number of rivers flow

through narrow rift valleys. c) They form waterfalls. d) River flow in most of the rivers is too

less to become navigable.

80. Atmosphere is heated mainly from 1. Solar insolation reflected back to

upper troposphere by clouds 2. Convection from heated surface of

the earth 3. Direct solar radiation



81. Consider the following about Katabatic winds. 1. They are generally experienced

during winter. 2. They blow adjacent to Highlands.



3. These winds may increase the temperature and pressure of an area.

4. The winds are very dry.



82. How are tides a great aid in shipping and navigation? 1. High tide increases the depth of

water near the coasts. 2. They take away the mud brought by

rivers preventing silting of harbours. 3. They make the coastline indented

which supports natural harbours.



83. Some ports of even Polar Regions remain ice-free during winter. This is because of the a) Influence of Warm currents across

the coasts b) Global warming and its effect on

albedo of earth c) High salt content in these oceans

that prevent freezing and thawing d) Dense fog and mist in these regions

that trap solar heat

84. Consider the following statements. 1. All the nine planets (including Pluto)

of the solar system revolve around the Sun in counter-clockwise direction.

2. All planets in the solar system rotate in the same direction in which they revolve.

Which of the above is/are true?


85. Why is it that we always see one side of the moon while the other side always remains away from us? a) Relative positions of Moon in Earth’s

orbit around the Sun form a circle. b) Moon takes the same time to revolve

around the earth and rotate on its own axis.

c) Frequent eclipsing of the Moon by the Sun and other planets


86. Consider the following about latitudes and longitudes. 1. Equator and Prime meridian are the

largest circles that can be drawn on earth.

2. All meridians are of equal length. 3. Time zone of a place is determined

both by longitude and latitude.





87. Vertical sun rays have a greater heating effect as compared to oblique rays because 1. They cover shorter distance in

atmosphere to reach earth. 2. They are spread over a larger area on

earth.



88. Who decides what images appear in the currency notes that are printed by Reserve Bank of India for money supply in the economy? a) Union Minister of Finance b) RBI Governor c) Director-General of Archaeological

Survey of India d) None of the above

89. Giffen goods are those goods that a) may show an inverse relationship of

quantity consumed with rising consumer income

b) may show an unclear relationship of quantity consumed with rising consumer income

c) are consumed in more quantity because they are in greater demand in public

d) are in greater demand because they are in scarcity

90. In Economic theory and policy making, ‘Consumer Welfare’ is deemed to be maximized when a) every individual is able to purchase

goods at the exact market price they were willing to pay

b) a large number of individuals are able to purchase goods at a much lower market price that what they were willing to pay

c) all individuals attain an ideal state of having no demand for any more goods and services

d) they are able to purchase goods beyond their means of earning

91. Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country will rise if 1. There is high inflation in the

economy but no growth in production

2. There is high growth in production but no inflation in the economy

3. There is very little growth in production but heavy deflation in the economy

4. There is very little deflation in the economy but no growth in production





92. How are employment and interest rates

related in an economy? a) Generally higher interest rates

impede a higher growth in employment numbers.

b) Generally lower interest rates impede a higher growth in employment numbers.

c) There is no relationship of interest rate and employment in an economy.

d) Depending on the type of economy, any of the statements (a), (b) or (c) can be true.

93. The Reserve Bank of India draws its authority from 1. Constitution of India 2. Parliamentary Law 3. Conventions and Customs 4. Executive Council of Ministers


a) 1 and 4 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 only

94. Sterilization operation is undertaken by the Central bank of a country to prevent a shock mainly to the a) Money supply in the economy

b) Foreign Exchange reserves c) Bank deposits of Public d) Revenues of Government

95. The situation of liquidity trap occurs in

the economy 1. When foreign exchange reserves dry

up. 2. When Bank deposits are low so as to

cause a Bank default on its customers

3. When interest rates are very low so that everyone anticipates a rise in interest rates

4. When people don’t wish to hold any bonds



96. The main objective(s) of the Public

Distribution System (PDS) was/were to 1. Ensure optimum export of

agricultural commodities 2. To prevent any import of agricultural

produce 3. To ensure food security 4. To ensure healthy meals are taken by

each and every family in India


a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 only d) 3 and 4 only



97. Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): Devaluation of currency may lead to improvement in trade balance.

Reason (R): Devaluation of currency leads to more competitive export prices.





98. In which of the following situations an expansion in the money supply may not lead to inflation? 1. When economy is operating at a

much lower level of production than its capacity

2. When supply of goods meets the demands posed by the extra money supply



99. A country will NOT develop economically if a) Increasingly larger share of the GDP

is coming from the Primary sector

b) GDP structure is changing to favour the Services sector more than the industrial sector

c) Foreign capital inflows in the economy are not as strong as domestic investment

d) Financial sector in the country is becoming increasingly globalized and risky

100. With reference to The Energy and Resources Institute, consider the following statements: 1. It was formerly known as Tata

Energy Research Institute 2. It is an autonomous research

institution which works under the Ministry of Renewable and Non-Renewable Energy Sources, Gvernment of India

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both d) None

insights on india mock preliminary exam - 2015 general

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