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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 15

GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER-I Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT Write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015


1. The “Directive Principles of State Policy”

denote the ideals that the State should keep in

mind while formulating policies and enacting

laws. These principles are applicable to which

of the following organs?

1. Legislative

2. Executive

3. Local authorities

4. Public Sector enterprises (PSUs)

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below.

a) All of the above

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 1 only

d) 2 and 3 only

2. In the colonial legacy of government in India,

the Directive Principles in the present Indian

Constitution resemble which of the following

colonial enactments?

a) „Codes‟ enacted under Act of 1919

b) „Instrument of Instructions‟ enacted under

Independence Act, 1947

c) „Instrument of Instructions‟ enumerated in

the Government of India Act of 1935

d) „Duties of State‟ enumerated in the

Morley-Minto Act of 1909

3. As per the Supreme Court of India, if a law

may transgress certain fundamental rights,

but seeks to give effect to a Directive

Principle, the law may be saved from

unconstitutionality. Which of the

fundamental rights may be transgressed by

law this way?

1. Article 14

2. Article 19

3. Article 21

4. Article 30


below.

a) All of the above

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 3 and 4 only

4. Which of the following is NOT a „Directive

Principle of State Policy‟?

1. Free legal aid to poor

2. Public assistance in cases of

unemployment

3. Secure the participation of workers in the

management of industries

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 only

d) All are Directive Principles

5. In the constitution, the ideal of „Economic

Equity‟ is implied in

1. Fundamental Rights

2. Universal Adult franchise

3. Directive Principles of State Policy

4. Part IX and X of the Constitution


below.

a) All of the above

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 3 only


6. “To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code

throughout the country” is one of the

Directive Principles. It means that

a) All citizens will be under the same laws

irrespective of their caste

b) All citizens will be under the same laws

irrespective of their religion

c) All citizens will be under the same laws

irrespective of their political authority and

status

d) All citizens will be under the same laws

irrespective of them residing or not

residing in India

7. The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a

new Directive Principle relating to co-

operative societies in the Constitution. The

amendment is concerned with which of the

following aspects of cooperative societies?

1. Autonomous functioning

2. Democratic control

3. Professional management


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

8. As per the Constitution, which of the

following is/are „fundamental in the

governance‟ of the country?

1. Fundamental Rights

2. Fundamental Duties

3. Directive Principles of State Policy

4. Preamble


below.

a) All of the above

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 3 only

9. Directive Principles of State Policy help in

1. Amplifying the Preamble

2. Guiding courts in Judicial review of

legislative and executive acts

3. Supplementing fundamental rights of

citizens


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

10. Consider the following statements.

1. Fundamental Rights are subordinate to

Directive Principles of State Policy

(DPSP).

2. DPSP is not enforced automatically by

merely being a part of the Constitution; it

requires a legislation to enforce it.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

11. For a citizen of India, the duty to pay taxes is

a:

a) Fundamental Duty

b) Legal obligation

c) Constitutional obligation

d) Moral obligation


12. Which of the following is a fundamental duty

mentioned in Article 51-A of the Constitution?

1. To develop a spirit of inquiry

2. To respect the National Flag and National

Anthem

3. To safeguard Public property

4. To do charitable activities which promote

social and economic equity


below.

a) All of the above

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 3 and 4 only

13. Consider the following statements about

Fundamental duties.

1. They are enforceable by law.

2. They can be used by the courts for

determining the constitutionality of any

law that transgresses certain

fundamental rights.

Which of the above is/are true?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

14. As per Article 368 of the Constitution, the

amendment of the Indian constitution can be

initiated in

1. Lok Sabha

2. Rajya Sabha

3. The office of The President

4. State Legislatures

5. Council of Ministers


a) 1, 3 and 5 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2 and 5 only


Constitutional amendment in India.

1. A private member of the Parliament

cannot introduce a constitutional

amendment bill

2. The prior permission of the President is

required for the introduction of every

constitutional amendment bill

3. Special days are reserved for introducing

constitutional amendment bills

Choose the correct answer using the codes below

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) None of the above

16. A constitutional amendment bill must be

passed in each house by a combination of

which of these conditions

1. Two-thirds of total membership of each

house

2. Majority of those present and voting in

each house

3. Two-thirds of those present and voting in

each house

4. Majority of total membership of each

house


a) 1 and 2

b) 3 and 4

c) 1 only

d) Either option (b) OR (c)


17. When a constitutional amendment bill is

produced before the President, what are the

options available to him?

1. Withhold the bill

2. Return the bill for reconsideration of the

Parliament

3. End the bill


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only


18. A number of provisions in the Constitution

can be amended by a simple majority of the

two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of

Article 368. These provisions include, inter

alia

1. Citizenship clauses

2. Abolition or creation of legislative

councils in states

3. Election of the President and its manner


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only


19. As per a ruling of the Supreme Court, the

„basic structure‟ of the constitution can not be

amended by the Parliament. Which of the

following come under the „basic structure‟?

1. Power of Supreme Court to issue writs in

case of violation of Fundamental Rights

2. Effective access to justice

3. Parliamentary system


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

20. Collective Responsibility of the council of

ministers to the Parliament is the bedrock

principle of parliamentary government. It

implies that

a) The Parliament can remove the council of

ministers from office by passing a vote of

no confidence

b) The council of Ministers is appointed and

dismissed by the Parliament

c) All important decisions of the council of

Ministers have to be approved by the

Parliament


21. If there is frequent disagreement on major

decisions in the Council of Ministers due to

just a few ministers, what option(s) does the

Prime Minister has/have?

1. Dismiss the Ministers who are causing

disagreement

2. Enforce his decision irrespective of the

view of the Council of Ministers

3. Convene a Parliamentary session to take

final view on the decision


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

22. In which of the following cases, the Lok Sabha

may be dissolved?

1. Prime Ministers recommending

dissolution of Lok Saha to the President


2. No-confidence motion passed against the

incumbent government

3. Resignation of majority of cabinet

ministers


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

23. With reference to India‟s physical setting,

consider the following statements:

1. India lies entirely in the northern

hemisphere

2. Distance between India‟s two extreme

longitudes is larger than distance

between its two extreme latitudes

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) None

c) 2 Only

d) Both

24. Which of the following states does NOT

share their borders with Mynamar?

1. Mizoram

2. Nagaland

3. Assam

4. Arunachal Pradesh

5. Tripura

6. Manipur


a) 1,3 and 4

b) 2, 3 and 6

c) 3 and 5

d) 1 and 6

25. With reference to India‟s perennial rivers,

consider the following statements

1. The rivers Ramganga and Mahananda

are important tributaries of Yamuna

2. The rivers Manas and Dhansiri are

principal tributaries of river

Brahmaputra


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

26. The entire India is divided into twenty river

basins. With reference to these river basins,


1. Rivers with drainage area of 2000 sq.

km to 20000 sq. km are considered as

Major river basins

2. Narmada and Tapti river basins are

considered as Medium river basins


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

27. With reference to the Himalayan flora,

consider the following statemnets

1. The oaks, laurels, maples,

rhododendrons and birch are found in

the temperate regions of Eastern

Himalayas

2. Silver fir, juniper and silver birch are

found at altitudes higher than 4500

metres in the Western Himalyan

region and are known as alpine trees


a) 1 Only


b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

28. With reference to Census – 2011 and its

findings, consider the following statements

1. Census 2011 was the fourteenth census

since 1872

2. Overall sex ratio decreased by seven

points since 2001 census

3. The population of India since 1901 has

grown steadily with each passing

census without exception

4. According to 2011 census, West Bengal

is the thickly populated state in India

Which of the above statements is/are

INCORRECT?

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1,2 and 4 Only

d) All

29. Consider the following statements

1. The design of the national flag was

adopted by the Constituent Assembly

of India after India became republic

2. The display of the National Flag is

solely governed by the non-statutory

instructions issued by the government

time to time


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None


1. The words Satyameva Jayate inscribed on

national emblem are taken from Mundaka

Upanishad

2. India‟s state emblem is an adaptation of

sculpture from Ashoka‟s Sanchi pillar


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

31. Consider the following statements:

1. The national song Vande Mataram

was composed by Bankimchandra

Chatterji in Bengali language

2. Vande Mataram was first sung on 27th

December 1911, at the Kolkata session

of the Indian National Congress


a) 1 Only

b) None

c) 2 Only

d) Both


1. The national calendar is based on Saka

Era with Chaitra as its first month

2. According to India‟s national calendar, 1

magha starts on 21st January of Gregorian

calendar


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None



1. The President of India is the

constitutional head of executive of the

Union

2. The Council of Ministers are

collectively responsible to both the

houses of the Parliament


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

34. With reference to some of the provisions of

the Constitution of India related to the

Fundamental rights and Directive principles

of state policy(DPSPs) , consider the following

statements

1. Prohibiting all forms of forced labour,

child labour and human trafficking is

enshrined in Directive Principles of

State Policy

2. The equal pay for equal work for men

and women is a fundamental right in

India

3. According to the Constitution of India,

the DPSPs are fundamental to the

governance of the country


INCORRECT?

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 Only

c) 3 Only

d) 2 and 3 Only

35. During an emergency, our political structure

undergoes a transformation from being

„Federal‟ to

a) Military

b) Quasi-federal

c) Unitary

d) Being only a Single Government

36. Consider the following statements.

1. National emergency can be declared even

if security of India is not in threat, but

there is a case of imminent danger.

2. The operation of National Emergency

always applies to the whole of Indian

Territory.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

37. The President of India can declare a National

emergency only after the

1. Approval of the Cabinet

2. Approval by the Parliament

3. Approval by the State legislatures

involved


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1 only

38. The concept of „Indicative Planning‟ means

that

a) The private sector is involved directly in

the planning process for the nation

b) The state fixes long-term growth targets

for various sectors of the economy and

facilitates the private sector to achieve it


c) The planning is decentralised with the

state and local governments being made

an integral part of the planning process

d) Allowing the market forces to work with

little regulation and no direction by the

state so that it results in optimum resource

utilization

39. Constitutional provisions which have a

bearing on planning in the country can be

found in

1. Seventh Schedule

2. Part IX

3. Sixth Schedule


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

40. Which of the following is/are NOT the

functions of the recently established NITI

Ayog?

1. Giving technical advice to the state

governments

2. Supervise the Implementation of various

social sector schemes

3. Allocating funds for the economic

projects approved by the Government


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 only

d) None mentioned above are the functions

of NITI Aayog.

41. Which of the following are monitorable

targets set to be achieved at the end of the 12th

Five Year Plan?

1. Generating 50 million new work

opportunities in the non-farm sector

2. Completing Eastern and Western

Dedicated Freight Corridors

3. 50 per cent gram panchayats achieve

Nirmal Gram Status


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

42. Which of the following is/are NOT a

Fundamental Duty as enshrined in the

Constitution of India?

1. To value and preserve the rich

heritage of our composite culture

2. To safeguard public property and to

abjure violence

3. Who is a parent or guardian to

provide opportunities for education to

his child or ward, as the case may be,

between the age of six and fourteen

years

4. To uphold and protect the

sovereignty, unity and integrity of

India

5. To respect women and uphold India‟s

rich culture


a) 3 and 5 Only

b) 3 Only

c) 5 Only

d) 1 and 5


43. The President of India is elected by members

of an electoral college consisting of

1. Elected members of Lok Sabha

2. Elected members of Legislative

Assemblies of states

3. Elected members of Rajya Sabha

4. Elected members of Legislative

Councils of states


a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 1,2 and 3 Only

c) 1,2 and 4 Only

d) All the four

44. With reference to the office of Vice President

of India, consider the following statements:

1. When he is acting as President, he still

performs the function of the Chairman

of the Rajya Sabha

2. The Vice-President is elected

indirectly by members of an electoral

college consisting of the members of

both Houses of Parliament


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

45. With reference to the Rajya Sabha, consider

the following statements

1. It is not subject to dissolution

2. One –third of its members retire every

second year

3. All the elected members of the Rajya

Sabha are indirectly elected


INCORRECT?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) 3 Only

d) None

46. With reference to various Parliamentary

committees in India, consider the following

statements

1. Standing committee is permanent in

nature

2. Standing committees are formed only

by Lok Sabha

3. Ad hoc committees are temporary in

nature

4. The Committee on Petitions is an

example of ad hoc committee


a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 1,2 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1 and 3 Only

47. Which of the following best describes the

function of committee on public

undertakings?

a) to examine the reports, if any, of the

Comptroller and Auditor General on the

Public Undertakings

b) to suggest alternative policies in order to

bring about efficiency and economy in

administration

c) to ascertain whether the money granted

by Parliament has been spent by

Government "within the scope of the

Demand"



48. Which of the following is NOT a function of

the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs?

a) Planning and Coordination of legislative

and other official business in both Houses

b) Organisation of Youth Parliament

Competitions in Schools/Colleges

throughout the country

c) Appointment of Members of Parliament

on Committees and other bodies set up

by Government


49. Which of the following features given in the

Constitution show that the division of powers

in the Constitution is in favour of the Centre?

1. Centre has overriding authority over the

Concurrent List

2. States in India have no right to territorial

integrity.

3. Veto of Parliament over State bills

4. Financial emergency


below.

a) All of the above

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 3 and 4 only

50. The legislative matters on which uniformity

of legislation throughout the country is

desirable but not essential are enumerated in

the (Constitution)

a) Residuary List

b) Concurrent List

c) Fifth and Sixth Schedule

d) Directive Principles of State Policy

51. In case of a conflict between the Central law

and the state law on a subject enumerated in

the Concurrent List, which of the following is

possible?

1. Central law prevails over the state law.

2. State law prevails if it has received

Presidential assent

3. State law prevails of Governors of two

or more states have approved the

same legislation


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

52. The Constitution empowers the Parliament to

make laws on any matter enumerated in the

State List under which of the following

extraordinary circumstances?

1. When states make a request

2. To implement International agreements

3. When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to

that effect

4. President‟s order in the Extraordinary

gazette of India


below.

a) All of the above

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 3 and 4 only


53. In which of the following cases can the

Governor reserve a State bill for the approval

of the President?

1. During a financial emergency

2. If the bill restricts inter-state free trade

and commerce

3. If the Central Cabinet specifies in a

written order so.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

54. Which of the following duties have been

constitutionally prescribed for the Centre to

exercise control over the state administration?

1. To protect every state against external

aggression and internal disturbance

2. To ensure that corruption and

maladministration do not affect state

governments

Which of the above is/are true?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

55. There are extra-constitutional devices to

promote cooperation and coordination

between the Centre and the states. These

include

1. Inter-state Councils

2. NITI Ayog

3. North-Eastern Council

4. Governors‟ conference


below.

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 3 and 4 only

56. The Constitution provides for a division of

taxation powers between Centre and States.

Among the several taxes, service tax is

a) Levied by the Centre but Collected and

Appropriated by the States

b) Levied by the Centre but Collected and

Appropriated by the Centre and the States

c) Levied, collected and retained by the

Centre

d) Levied, collected and retained by the

States

57. The receipts from which of the following form

the major sources of non-tax revenues of the

Centre?

1. Broadcasting

2. Banking

3. Irrigation


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

58. The Constitution provides for specific grants

for promoting the welfare of the scheduled

tribes in a state or for raising the level of

administration of the scheduled areas. It

comes under

a) Statutory grants

b) Discretionary Grants

c) Backward area development grant

d) Grants-in-aid


59. A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty

in which states are interested can be

introduced

a) Only on the recommendation of the

President

b) Only with the consent of two or more

states

c) Only after Rajya Sabha passes a resolution

to that effect

d) Only on the recommendation of the

Finance Commission

60. Article 262 of the Constitution provides for

the adjudication of inter-state water disputes

by a separate tribunal. The need for an extra

judicial machinery to settle inter-state water

disputes is because

a) The courts being overburdened with

litigations and adjudicating slowly are

incapable of adjudicating sensitive water

disputes

b) water resources are not private property

and so rule of law is applied by ordinary

courts is not appropriate to deal with its

distribution

c) Division and distribution of any natural

resources is out of judicial scrutiny in

India

d) The courts cannot employ technical

committees to ascertain the distribution of

water resources

61. The festival „Vanaj‟ was organised for the first

time by the Union Government. It is related

with

a) Countering Wildlife extinction

b) Increasing green cover of India

c) Bridge the gaps of social divide and

promote tribal culture in India

d) Generating awareness about conserving

the ecosystem services humanity received

from forests

62. The Union Government has recently imposed

an anti-dumping duty on imports of graphite

electrodes used in steel plants for five years.

Consider the following statements about anti-

dumping duty

1. It is imposed by Ministry of Commerce.

2. It is imposed on products which are sold

in domestic markets at much higher

prices than international prices.

3. It is used to counter trade imbalance.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only


63. India and Sri Lanka have a Memorandum of

Understanding in which of the following?

1. On establishment of Nalanda University

2. On cooperation in peaceful uses of

Nuclear energy

3. On cooperation in Cultural

documentation

Choose the correct answer using the codes

below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

64. The Government of India announces

Minimum Support Prices (MSP) from time to

time. Which of the following factors are taken

into account while calculating MSP?

1. Inter-crop parity

2. International Prices

3. Subsidy levels

4. Inflation levels



a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

65. As per government norms, the Buffer stock of

grains with FCI can be used for which of the

following purposes?

1. Countering food inflation

2. Meeting grain shortages across

geographical regions

3. Disaster relief


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

66. Import of Edible oils in India has increased in

the last few decades. What factors are

responsible for it?

1. Competitive International Prices of Edible

oils

2. Very low import duty on Edible oil

3. India does not produce quality edible oil.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

67. Presently the Agricultural Produce Marketing

Committees (APMC) do NOT offer which of

the following facilities to farmers?

1. Regulation of remunerative prices to

farmers

2. Grading and standardization of

agricultural produce

3. Direct sale of agricultural produce to

markets


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 3 only

68. National Horticulture Mission (NHM) does

NOT include which of the following?

1. Aromatic plants

2. Medicinal plants

3. Spices

4. Plantation crops


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of these are included.

69. Consider the following statements about the

government interventions in Agricultural

insurance.

1. Private sector insurers have not been

allowed in agricultural insurance till date.

2. Not only post-harvest losses, but pre-

harvest risks have also been covered.

3. Insurance has been restricted to incidents

of adverse weather situations in farms.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 2 only


70. Which of the following would come under

macro-stabilization measures?

1. Fiscal stimulus

2. Cutting Inflation levels

3. Reducing Current Account Deficit


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

71. In the context of economic reforms,

„Privatization‟ may mean

1. Facilitating expansion of the Private

sector by the state

2. Disinvestment in State owned enterprises

3. Increasing economic integration with

other State economies


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

72. „Factor Market Reforms‟ are considered to be

an important component of Second

Generation Economic Reforms in India. Factor

market reforms may include

1. Cutting down level of subsidies

2. Dismantling the Administered price

Mechanism

3. Rationalizing the taxation system


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

73. Which of the following are instruments of

„Deflation‟ in the economy?

1. Increase in tax rates

2. Increase in interest rates

3. Restricting from printing money


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

74. Cutting the Repo rate, cutting the Cash

Reserve Ratio (CRR) and tweaking other

monetary policy tools will NOT help fight

price rise in which of the following goods?

1. Salt

2. Wheat

3. Oil

4. Automobiles


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 4 only

75. Core inflation shows price rise in all goods

and services excluding

a) Energy and food articles

b) Manufacturing goods

c) Unorganized sector services

d) Energy commodities


76. Inflationary spiral is a situation in an

economy which results out of a process of

interaction between

a) Wages and prices

b) Interest rates and prices

c) Taxes and prices

d) Employment levels and prices

77. Stagflation is a situation in the economy when

high „X‟ and low „Y‟ occur simultaneously. „X‟

and „Y‟ respectively are

1. Inflation

2. Economic growth

3. Unemployment

4. Development

Choose the correct combination of „X‟ and „Y‟.

a) 1 and 2

b) 3 and 2

c) 2 and 4

d) 3 and 1


„Skewflation‟.

1. It denotes a highly irregular trend of

inflation in the economy.

2. Food articles in India have shown

Skewflation in India in the last 4-5 years.

3. Skewflation cannot be countered using

conventional monetary policy tools.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 2 only

79. If the GDP deflator in an economy is greater

than 1, it implies that

a) The economy has seen price rise over the

last year

b) The economy has seen lowering of prices

over the last year

c) The purchasing power parity of masses

has increased over last year

d) The purchasing power parity of masses

has reduced over last year

80. Consider the following effects of inflation in

the economy.

1. Lenders suffer and borrowers benefit.

2. With the same wages purchasing power

of people get reduced

3. Savings rate may increase


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

81. Wholesale Price Index (WPI) does NOT

calculate for price rise in which of the

following categories?

1. Services

2. Energy commodities

3. Intermediary goods


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above


82. With few exceptional years, India has been

facing the typical problem of structural

inflation. The factors responsible for this can

be

1. Shortfall in supply of goods

2. Infrastructure deficit

3. High fiscal deficit


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

83. The economy might face structural problems

like shortage of investible capital, lower

savings, falling standard of living, creation of

a sellers‟ market in which of the following

phases of business cycle?

a) Recession and Boom

b) Recession only

c) Recovery and Recession

d) Depression and Recovery

84. Which of the following sectors of the Indian

economy accounts for the largest share of the

unorganised sector?

a) Agriculture

b) Construction sector

c) Services sector

d) Mining sector

85. Tenancy reforms is an important component

of Land reforms in India. It includes

1. Regulation of rent

2. Abolition of Intermediaries

3. Ownership rights to tenants

4. Security of tenure


a) 3 and 4 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2 and 4 only

86. Swine flu is NOT transmitted among humans

by

1. Touch

2. Vectors

3. Food


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

87. Department of Border Management of

government of India is part of which of the

following ministry?

a) Ministry of Defence

b) Ministry of Home Affairs

c) Ministry of Planning

d) Ministry of Earth Sciences

88. With reference to the Comptroller and

Auditor General of India, consider the

following statements

1. The reports of the Comptroller and

Auditor-General of India relating to the

accounts of the States shall be submitted

to the president, who shall cause them to

be laid before concerned Legislative

Assemblies

2. He shall only be removed from office in

like manner and on like grounds as a

Judge of the Supreme Court


a) 1 Only


b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

89. The bhoochetana project in Karnataka is

related to

a) Enhancing availability of credit to

farmers

b) Enhancing productivity of rainfed

areas

c) Enhancing marketing facilities for

farmers



1. The formation of tribunals in India

owes their origin to Constitutional

provisions

2. The administrative tribunals exercise

original jurisdiction in respect of

service matters of employees covered

by them


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

91. With reference to the Inter State Councils,


1. A provision in the Constitution of

India governing formation of Inter

State Councils was added later

through an amendment

2. The genesis of the article can be traced

directly to Section 135 of the Govt. of

India Act, 1935 provided for

establishment of Inter-Provincial

Council with duties identical with

those of the Inter-State Council


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

92. With reference to electoral rolls, consider the

following statements

1. The electoral roll is a list of all people

in the constituency who are registered

to vote in Indian Elections

2. Only those people with their names on

the electoral roll are allowed to vote

3. The electoral roll is revised once every

five years


a) 1 and 3 Only

b) 1 and 2 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) All

93. The Parliament exercises control over the

Government using which of the following

devices?

1. Question Hour

2. Adjournment motion

3. Discussions

4. Parliamentary committees


below.

a) All of the above

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 3 and 4 only



Parliamentary system in India.

1. Parliament is the supreme authority in

India.

2. In India, the Prime Minister can be from

either house of the Parliament.

3. A person who is not a Member of

Parliament is also eligible to become a

Minister.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

95. In a federal system of Government, there

must be

1. A Written Constitution

2. Independent Judiciary

3. Bicameral legislature

4. Local governments


below.

a) All of the above

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 3 and 4 only

96. The objective of Indian Neutrino Observatory

(INO) is to conduct basic research on the

elementary particle called neutrino. The

observatory will be located underground so

as to

a) Safeguard the observatory from the

electro-magenetic waves travelling on

Earth‟s surface

b) Provide adequate shielding to the

neutrino detector from cosmic

background radiation.

c) Protect the observatory from any damages

from earthquake and other disasters

d) Save the observatory from the influence of

primordial gravitational waves


„Soil Health Card‟ scheme for farmers.

1. The card will carry crop wise

recommendations of nutrients/fertilizers

required for farms.

2. The card can be assessed without the aid

of technical or laboratory equipment.

3. Cards will be distributed by the State

governments.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

98. As per World Bank‟s recently released

report „Building Resilience for Sustainable

Development of the Sundarbans‟, which of

the following factors have been blamed for

the decline of Sundarbans ecosystem?

1. Mangrove destruction

2. Coral reefs destruction

3. Destructive impact of cyclones

4. Unsustainable fishing


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 2, 3 and 4 only


99. The Union Government has recently launched

a Grievances Monitoring portal

named „MADAD‟ (Help) to register

grievances from

a) General public

b) Litigants stuck in court cases

c) Indians living abroad

d) Indian students

100. Which of the following Institutes/bodies

have a bearing on skill development in India?

1. Khadi and Village Industries Commission

(KVIC)

2. Rural Self Employment Training Institute

(RSETI)

3. National Skill Commission


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 2 only

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