insights on india mock preliminary exam - 2015 …

TEST – 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES – 2015)

http://www.insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 28 GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER-I Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT Write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015



1. Which of the following benefits/applications may be derived from the national project, India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO)? 1. Remote monitoring of nuclear

reactors 2. Detecting mineral and oil deposits

deep in the earth 3. Finding out early geological defects in

earth 4. Understanding dark matter

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above

2. Consider the following about Neutrinos. 1. They are one of the fundamental

particles. 2. They can be harmful when exposed to

bare human body. 3. They can be weaponised for mass

destruction (WMD). 4. They are the information bearers of

the universe.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 2 and 3 only

3. C N R Rao, became the first Indian to reach the h-index of 100. The h-index is a measure of

a) level of Scientific productivity b) level of International presence of a

scientist c) number of awards won at International

level d) number of patents in the name of the

scientist

4. Consider the following about GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) system. 1. It is India’s first indigenous

navigational guide system. 2. It is being used only for military

purposes in India. 3. It is supported by Polar satellites.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 only

5. The Union Government has recently launched NOWCAST weather alert system. It will serve a) flood and drought sensitive rural areas

in India for mitigation and rehabilitation purposes

b) farmers giving alerts on extreme weather conditions

c) Indian shipping industry by providing details on tides, wave height, tsunami and cyclones

d) coastal areas in the high risk zones of tsunamis, cyclones and hailstorms



6. In view of the farmer suicides in the country, the government has been running some insurance schemes. Which of the following crop insurance schemes are running till date? 1. Modified National Insurance Scheme

(MNAIS) 2. Farm Income Insurance Scheme

(FIIS) 3. Weather based Crop Insurance

Scheme (WBCIS) 4. Comprehensive Crop Insurance

Scheme (CCIS)



7. By government support, farmers in India can be insured against 1. Shortfall in crop yield 2. Crop loss due to adverse events 3. Crop loss due to pest attacks 4. Post-harvest crop losses within a

specified period


a) 1 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 4 only

8. A state political party can be de-recognized by the Election Commission of India when 1. It fails to submit its poll expenses

2. It does not reveal information under the RTI Act

3. It fails to win any seat in state elections.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 only d) 1 and 3 only

9. Researchers have recently created the world’s thinnest light bulb using graphene as filament. Graphene is a) a crystalline form of carbon allotrope b) a condensed form of silicon that is

used in making thin sheets c) an alloy of tungsten popularly used as

high melting points metals d) a mixed form of glass and carbon that

has greater agility and durability

10. Charles Correa played a pivotal role in the creation of architecture for post-Independence India. He was also 1. the first Chairman of the National

Commission on Urbanization 2. known for his use of traditional

methods and materials for construction

3. India’s first architect to have designed structures for other sovereign nations.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above



11. The Battle of Waterloo was a pivotal moment in modern History of Europe. In this battle a) Napolean was defeated by Anglo-

allied and Prussian army b) Prussia was defeated in Belgium by an

army led by Napolean Bonaparte c) British army took control of several

major provinces of Belgium and ruled thereafter alongwith Prussia

d) France became divided in several smaller provinces which then came to be ruled by imperial powers from Netherlands and Prussia

12. Haryana Government has recently launched a Village Mentoring Project (VMP) in a bid to improve healthcare and education of the villagers with a special emphasis on girl child. Under VMP, villages will be mentored by 1. MLAs 2. Corporate houses 3. Educational institutions 4. Eminent individuals



13. Lake Victoria pipeline project was recently in news because of an agreement between a) India and Kenya b) India and Tanzania c) USA and Russia d) USA and India

14. Jharkhand government has recently banned the sale of thermocol plates in the state because a) food consumption in thermocol plates

was found hazardous for human health

b) thermocol plate producing industries came under the ‘Red zone’ industries

c) it will promote leaf plates made by tribals in the state so as to uplift them economically

d) All of the above

15. The famous historical ‘Magna Carta’ had laid the first steps towards 1. Parliamentary Democracy 2. Rule of Law 3. Liberty and rights



16. Liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) is one of the criteria in the Basel III regulations. If it is high for a bank it means that a) the bank is lending less than its

potential assets b) the bank has a large amount of liquid

assets c) the bank has kept a large amount of

deposit with RBI d) the bank is unable of pay its debts



17. The Indian Nuclear Insurance Pool (INIP) as per the mandatory provision under the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act (CLND), 2010 setup by the Union government will insure a) only operators of nuclear reactors b) both operators and suppliers related

to nuclear projects c) people living nearby the nuclear

reactor in case of a nuclear accident d) operators, suppliers and people who

are affected in case of a nuclear accident

18. Bibek Debroy Committee has recently submitted its report on the restructuring of Indian Railways to the Union Government. Which of the following is/are major recommendations suggested by the committee? 1. Establishing an independent rail

regulator 2. Privatization of Indian railways 3. Scrapping of the Railways Board 4. State governments to have financial

equity in Railways


a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 only d) All of the above

19. One Rank One Pension (OROP) is one of

the widely debated issues in the country presently. It essentially means that a) all ex-servicemen with similar lengths

of service will get the same pension and similar ranks irrespective of their retirement rank

b) all ex-servicemen who held the same rank and similar lengths of service will

get the same pension irrespective of their retirement year

c) all ex-servicemen belonging to a particular rank will have their pensions revised upwards irrespective of their retirement year

d) all ex-servicemen who held the same rank will get the same pension irrespective of their retirement year and length of service

20. Which of the following is/are NOT forms of Yoga? 1. Laya Yoga 2. Raja Yoga 3. Jnana Yoga 4. Mantra Yoga


a) All are forms of Yoga. b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 and 4 only

21. Union Government has launched an

Augmented Reality technology based mobile application. Consider the following about augmented reality technology. 1. Artificial information about the

environment and its objects can be overlaid on the real world.

2. It makes information about the surrounding real world of the user interactive and digitally manipulable.

Which of the above is true?

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None



22. Consider the following about Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI). 1. It is a statutory body. 2. It is not under the control of

Government of India. 3. Advertising industries and media are

also included as its members. 4. It submits an annual report to the

Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.


a) 2, 3 and 4 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 3 only d) 3 and 4 only

23. The Source of authority of the Indian Constitution can be found in a) Directive Principles of State Policy b) Preamble of the Constitution c) Fundamental Rights d) Fundamental Duties

24. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses regarding a constitutional amendment bill, which of the following can be recourse(s) to resolve the deadlock? 1. A joint sitting of both the houses 2. Vote by majority of state legislatures 3. If the bill is passed again by the Lok

Sabha alone with a higher majority


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above

25. The Constitution establishes the ‘parliamentary system’ not only at the Centre but also in the states. This is evident by 1. Membership of the ministers in the

legislature 2. Collective responsibility of the

executive to the legislature 3. The provision of dissolution of the

lower House



26. Consider the following about the provisions for Citizenship in India. 1. Any person born in India will be

automatically deemed to be a citizen of India.

2. An illegal migrant cannot be accepted as Indian citizen only by virtue of him living in India for long.

3. Acquiring the citizenship of a foreign nation will terminate Indian citizenship.





27. Which of these constitutional provisions under 73rd amendment is/are compulsory for every Indian state to follow? 1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a

village or group of villages 2. Direct elections to all seats in

panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels

3. Granting financial powers to the panchayats



28. A federal government means a government in which a) all the powers are vested in the

national government and the regional governments derive their authority from the national government.

b) powers are divided between the national government and the regional governments by the Constitution and both operate in their respective jurisdictions independently

c) there is division of powers between the Central and state governments; and also between the federal and state judiciaries

d) a large number of powers are vested in the national government and the regional governments, with some independent powers, derive their authority from the national government

29. The Indian constitution is a written one unlike in some of the other democracies. What does it imply? 1. The form of government in India has

been codified in the constitution to reduce political and administrative conflicts.

2. All the laws made by Parliament are to be written down as a part of the constitution.

3. Only because of a written constitution, citizens are able to enjoy fundamental rights.



30. Elections to the Rajya Sabha from the State legislative assemblies are done on the basis of proportional representation. This means a) every district in the state is given due

representation in Rajya Sabha from that state

b) all the states are given representation in Rajya Sabha

c) that all the states irrespective of their size and population get due representation in Rajya Sabha

d) None of the above



31. Consider the following about Speaker Pro Tem. 1. The President can appoint anyone as

the Speaker Pro Tem of Lok Sabha. 2. The Speaker Pro Tem has all the

powers of the Speaker. 3. Office of the Speaker Pro Tem is

temporary in nature.



32. Consider the following statements. 1. Tax cannot be levied or collected

except by authority of law. 2. A new tax cannot be imposed unless

asked for by the executive government.

3. No expenditure can be sanctioned unless asked for by the executive government.



33. The principle of the rule of lapse leads to ‘rush of expenditure’ towards the end of a financial year because a) unspent money will be accounted as

insufficient and inefficient funding by the auditor

b) unspent voted expenditure would lapse by the end of the financial year

c) unspent money will be allocated to the next year’s financial budget

d) unspent money will increase the fiscal burden of the government

34. Which of the following limits the legislative sphere and authority of the State Legislatures? 1. A written constitution 2. Division of powers in the Seventh

Schedule 3. Judicial review of State enactments by

the High courts 4. Veto powers of the Governor and

President over state legislations


a) 2, 3 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 only d) All of the above

35. Without the prior approval of the President of India, which of the following can NOT be done? 1. Abolition of a certain tax by the

Parliament 2. Introduction of State reorganization

bill in the Parliament 3. Introduction of money bill in the

Parliament.





36. Consider the following about Western cyclonic disturbances in India. 1. They usually occur in winter months. 2. They are brought by westerly flow

from Central Asian region. 3. They influence the weather of the

north and north-western regions of India.

Choose the correct statements using the codes below.


37. The stars are localised lumps of gas within a nebula. Which of the following is/are considered as some of the stages in the development of a planet from stars? 1. A dust cloud develops around the core

gas particles. 2. Collision of large gas clouds 3. Bursting of condensed gas clouds



38. Which of the following correctly show the significance of weathering in rocks? 1. Helps in enrichment of minerals in

rocks 2. Leads to mass wasting and reduction

of relief 3. Aids the formation of soil and thus

biodiversity



39. Which of the following factors influence the evolution of landforms on earth? 1. Stability of sea level 2. Tectonic stability of landmasses 3. Climate 4. Groundwater 5. Volcanism


a) 1 and 4 only b) 2, 3 and 5 only c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only d) All of the above

40. Hari is dependent on a pendulum based clock for timing kept in a room much above ordinary summer temperatures. He is invited for a meeting by his friend (who stays at a relatively cooler place) at sharp 2’o clock. Considering Hari’s total dependence on the pendulum clock for time, it is likely that a) Hari will be late for the meeting b) Hari will on time for the meeting c) Hari will be arrive early for the

meeting d) The pendulum clock will show a

highly incorrect time and Hari will never arrive for the meeting



41. When a TV signal is broadcasted, why is its range confined to a limited distance? a) TV signal transmission uses long

waves which cannot be transmitted for long distances.

b) TV signal transmission uses short waves which are absorbed by the atmosphere

c) TV signal waves carry limited energy waves which get dissipated is short period of time

d) The spherical shape of earth does not allow for very long transmissions

42. When the soil is subjected to “Mulching” - a process – which of these is done? 1. Some loose material is laid on the

ground to prevent excessive evaporation or erosion of the soil

2. The field is irrigated at regular intervals

3. Seedlings are transplanted 4. Big pieces of soil are broken down into

smaller pieces



43. Why do tropical deciduous trees shed their leaves in summer? a) Because rainfall is inadequate to cover

up evaporation in summers b) So that they can prevent excessive loss

of water through evaporation c) So as to prevent excessive loss of

water through transpiration

d) Because tree leaves generally get dried up due to the excessive heat

44. Comets orbiting the Sun have glowing tails because? 1. A comet tail and coma having dust

particles are illuminated by the Sun 2. Gases in the comet’s tail glow

from ionization.

Which of the above is/are true?


45. In the practice of out-breeding, which of the following is/are possible? 1. Different breed of animals can be bred

together 2. Different species of animals can be

bred 3. Superior male of one breed is mated

with superior female from another breed



46. Bio-fortification leads to increase in the nutritional value of crops. This can be done through 1. Conventional breeding of crops 2. Genetic Engineering 3. Injecting crops with nutritive

components



4. Grafting crops with each other



47. Consider the following about Chandrayaan – 2, India’s second lunar exploration mission. 1. The mission’s primary objective is to

find possible sources of water and useful minerals on moon.

2. Exploration will not be done on the lunar surface and instead the lunar orbit will be used.

3. The mission is being undertaken in collaboration with Germany and Russia.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above

48. Which of these is the most appropriate evidence that shows Harappan civilization believed in evil forces? a) They worshipped Pasupati, which was

considered a powerful deity b) They used metal objects as seals and

in house entrances c) They used amulets as protection

against evil forces d) Animals were sacrificed at regular

intervals in Harappa

49. In the Early Vedic period, who was known as Vishayapati? a) One who had great knowledge of all

Vedas and was proficient in teaching them

b) Head of a group of villages c) local ruler who patronised vedic

worship and sacrifices d) The one who headed the military unit

in case of major incidents

50. As per Gautam Buddha 1. No entity in the Universe is as

omnipotent as soul. 2. Human suffering is caused because of

past karmas and there is a way to transcend it.

3. Transmigration of soul is affected by the consciousness a person carries in this birth.

4. God can be attained by living a balanced life.


a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above

51. Which of the following can said to be the immediate effects of the invasion of Alexander in India? 1. Stopped political unification of North

India under the Mauryas 2. Direct contact between India and

Greece 3. Annexation of North-western India by

Greece





52. Horizontal distribution of pressure is studied by drawing isobars which are lines connecting places having equal pressure. How is the effect of altitude in a region eliminated while studying isobars? a) by reducing the place being studied to

sea level for comparison b) by ignoring the nearby high grounds

and mountains and considering the ground level pressures

c) by measuring the sea level temperature and pressure of the nearby regions

d) None of the above

53. RBI uses the tool of sterilization to protect the economy when 1. Foreign funds and investments pump

in large amounts of money in the economy

2. Domestic investors lose confidence in the economy due to falling investment rate

3. There is a shortage of foreign exchange reserves of India



54. Consider the following examples related to the ‘opportunity costs’ between two options in each of the statements below. 1. An entrepreneur is making zero

profits on both production and non-production of goods

2. A labourer earns as much money in a given time as much he values leisure

In which of the above case(s) is the opportunity cost between the two options non-zero?


55. Which of the following is/are ‘redistributive’ tools of the government? 1. Progressive taxation 2. Welfare spending 3. Public employment programmes 4. Subsidies


a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) All of the above

56. Consider the following statements. 1. High public debt is always bad for an

economy. 2. Inflation can never be good for a

growing economy. 3. Only a nation that has a positive trade

balance can become a developed country.

Choose the INCORRECT statements using the codes below.




57. The issue of Black money has been in news frequently. Black money can be generated from which of the following activities? 1. Tax evasion 2. Tax avoidance 3. Illegal economic activities 4. Foreign investment


a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 2 and 3 only

58. Consider that a government has been struggling with high fiscal deficits and high inflation in the economy. Which of the following borrowing sources is the most favourable for it to stabilize the economy? a) Borrowing from the public via

treasuries b) Printing fresh currency by RBI c) Grants from foreign nations d) Borrowing from sovereign nations

59. Some of the species below have been in news. Which of these species is/are endemic to India? 1. Blue Mormon

2. Yellow-footed green pigeon 3. Indian darter 4. Southern birdwing


a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) All of the above

60. The Nathu la pass was recently in news. Consider the following about it. 1. It is a mountain pass in the Northern

Himalayas. 2. It is one of the open trading border

posts between China and India. 3. It was sealed by India after the

1962 Sino-Indian War.



61. The District and sessions Judge in a state works directly under the control of which of the following authorities? 1. District Collector 2. State Governor 3. State Law Minister


a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 only d) None of the above



62. Which of the following is NOT a teaching in Sufism? 1. Turning away heart from all else but

God 2. Purify one’s inner self 3. Practicing asceticism 4. Repeating the name of God


a) 3 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 4 only d) All are teachings in Sufism.

63. Destruction of Ozone layer can be caused by 1. All greenhouse gases 2. Supersonic jets 3. Missile launches 4. Heating of the stratosphere


a) 3 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 only d) All of the above

64. Consider the following statements about idols and idol worship in India. 1. Worship of idols in India started

during the Gupta period. 2. The sculpture with the three faces of

Brahma, Vishnu and Mahesh known as ‘Trimurti’ is found in Elephanta caves.

3. Mahayana Buddhism believes in idol worship.



65. You will observe that in cloudy nights less dew is formed. Why? a) when there are more clouds there is

less of particulate matter in the atmosphere

b) clouds allow the heat in the atmosphere to pass through and radiation takes place quickly

c) dew is not formed when the conditions in the environment are that of precipitation

d) clouds retain the heat in the atmosphere and radiation takes place slowly

66. Who among the following is/are the member(s) of NITI Ayog? 1. Chief Ministers of all States 2. Chief Minister of UTs (with

legislature) 3. Nominated Union Cabinet Ministers 4. Union Secretary of Defence, Finance,

Planning and Home 5. State Finance Ministers


a) 1, 2 and 5 only b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 only



67. Under the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled areas) - PESA, 1996 Act, Gram Sabhas are given the authority to stop land alienation by a) State Legislatures b) District Collector c) State Forest department d) Central government

68. It is possible for two different branches of a plant to yield two different fruits by 1. Hybridization 2. Grafting 3. Tissue Culture


a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 only d) None of the above

69. If light is entering through a small hole in a closed room through a closed door, the image of the opposite house appears as inverted on the opposite wall of the hole. This can be explained on the basis of a) the rectilinear propagation of light b) the shortest path of light property c) the hole acts as a lens and magnifies

the object in front of it d) the light taking turns at the hole and

splitting in N number of different rays

70. In Indian literature, Mucchangam is a) Buddhist literature patronized under

Satvahanas that emerged after the Buddhist councils

b) Three Sangams of Tamil poets in ancient Tamil Nadu

c) Compilation of all the work of the poet Kalidasa that describes the character of man

d) a collection of mantras and rituals (part of Vedas) that are to be performed on special occasions

71. Consider the following statements about the early Medieval period. 1. The first Muslim kingdom in India

was established at Ajmer. 2. The Battles of Tarain and Chandawar

contributed to the establishment of Turkish rule in India.

3. In the first century of the early medieval period, Rajputs and Mughals ruled India together.



72. ‘Population III’ stars were recently in news because of the discovery of COSMOS Redshift 7. These ‘Population III’ stars are the a) third generation of stars which are the

youngest and brightest in the Universe b) first generation of stars which are

born out of the primordial material of the Big Bang

c) third generation stars which are the brightest and nearest to the Solar system

d) stars belonging to the brightest distant galaxy known to mankind which were



born right after the formation of the gaseous universe

73. Tropical wet and dry climates are those where 1. There is abundance of Monsoon rain

showers 2. Temperature is high throughout the

year 3. Diurnal range of temperature is

almost nil.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 only d) 2 and 3 only

74. The idea of Satyagraha as propounded by Gandhi includes Satyagraha as 1. A passive resistance 2. Battle with a distance 3. Non-violence which is supreme

Dharma



75. The first Round table conference was announced by Lord Irwin to discuss 1. Dominion status for India 2. Future constitution of India 3. Rights of Princely states in India



76. Prarthana Samaj founded by Keshub Chandra Sen in Bombay worked on which of the following socio-religious reforms? 1. Disapproval of the caste system 2. Raising the age of marriage in both

males and females 3. Land reforms for poor landless

peasants 4. Revival of ancient Vedic practices to

educate the India society


a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1 and 2 only

77. The partition of Bengal was annulled in 1911 by the British because 1. They wanted to curb revolutionary

terrorism 2. Muslim leaders had protested sharply

against a division of Bengal. 3. A divided Bengal was becoming

difficult to administer.





78. Which of the following most appropriately shows the impact of the Russian revolution in India? a) Indian masses understood that

Imperials can be challenged with unity.

b) Indian leaders understood the exploitative nature of authoritarianism

c) Indian soldiers grasped how the British were able to use their vast military influence to rule India

d) Indian leaders understood that to start a political revolution, an economic revolution is a must

79. Consider the following about the Eka movement that surfaced in the Northern provinces at the end of 1921. 1. It was centred on tenant security and

high land rents. 2. The grassroot leadership of the

movement came from the middle class intellectuals also leading the Indian national movement.

3. Severe repression by British authorities brought an end to this movement.



80. The parent rock of soil controls which of the following properties of soils? 1. Mineral content 2. Permeability

3. Rate of Humus formation 4. Colour and texture



81. You are on a visit to a mining site. Out of a small heap of rocks, you can easily identify those rocks that contain copper because a) those rocks will be more lustrous than

the other non-copper containing rocks b) those rocks will appear blue in colour c) those rocks are very fine in texture

and have a glassy appearance d) those rocks will be highly reddish in

colour and can be scratched even with a nail

82. Consider the following geographical regions. 1. Western Cordilleras 2. Appalachians 3. Guiana Highlands 4. Kanin Peninsula

Which of the above belong to the North American region?




83. Millets and Maize are high nutrition crops and can be cultivated on a large scale. Which of these conditions are common for their cultivation? 1. Moderate temperature 2. Sandy soils 3. Low rainfall 4. Prolonged periods of sunshine


a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) All of the above

84. Kumaon Himalayas is that region of Himalayas that lies between a) Satlaj and Kali rivers b) the base of Shiwaliks and bangar

deposits c) Pir panjal and Zaskar Himalayas d) Brahmaputra river basin and Garo

mountains

85. Consider the following about Indian climate. 1. There is decrease in rainfall generally

from east to west in the Northern Plains.

2. In general, coastal areas experience less contrasts in temperature conditions.

3. Seasonal contrasts are more in the interior of the country.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

86. The Union Cabinet has recently approved the launch of the “Housing for All by 2022” programme. It aims at 1. Rehabilitation of slum-dwellers 2. Promotion of affordable housing for

the urban poor 3. Improving existing housing

infrastructure in the country



87. Consider the following about regulation in medical industry. 1. Government presently does not

regulate online sale of medicines. 2. Government regulates the price of all

drugs sold or imported in India.

Which of the above is/are true?


88. During the 1st millennium BCE, the Vaisheshika School of atomism was founded. As per the school of philosophy 1. All objects in the physical universe are

reducible to atoms. 2. Atoms are indivisible and eternal. 3. Each atom possesses its own distinct

individuality.



4. Knowledge and liberation is achievable by complete understanding of the world of experience.



89. Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): The Coriolis force is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.

Reason (R): Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude.

In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?

a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.

b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A.

c) A is incorrect, R is correct. d) A and R both are incorrect.

90. If the value of rupee starts depreciating in International market, it will benefit 1. Indian exporters 2. Foreign Institutional Investors (FII) 3. Domestic borrowers



91. Indian government has been attempting to diversify its oil imports portfolio. How will this benefit India? 1. It is a guard against oil related geo-

political risks. 2. It may reduce shipping time and cost

of crude oil. 3. India will be in a better bargaining

position with oil exporting nations.



92. National Disposable Income includes which of the following? 1. Net National Product at market prices 2. Current transfers from the rest of the

world 3. Current transfers from government



93. Consider the following statements about government bonds in the economy. 1. If the interest rates are high, people

would like to keep more money in the form of government bonds.

2. If there is reduced money supply in the economy, central bank issues more government bonds in the market.

Which of the above is/are correct?




94. Shilpa Shastras is an umbrella term for numerous Hindu texts that describe arts, crafts, and their design rules, principles and standards. They did NOT deal with 1. Painting 2. Metallurgy 3. Architecture 4. Medicine


a) 2, 3 and 4 only b) 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) They dealt with all of the above

95. ‘Take-out’ finance in India is being used for 1. Providing funding for long duration

projects 2. Providing bailout funds to sick and

underperforming companies 3. Reducing the Non-performing assets

of banks


a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above

96. ‘Quantitative easing’ has been in news for some time. What does it mean?

a) It is a type of monetary policy used by central banks to stimulate the economy when standard monetary policy has become ineffective.

b) It is a type of fiscal stimulus given by federal/central government when the economy is going through stagflation

c) It is a type of monetary policy when government securities are sold extensively in the market by the Central bank

d) It is a type of fiscal policy where growth is diverted from other nations by providing several sops and incentives to foreign investors

97. A nation which is rich in natural resources and skilled labourers is not economically very poor with a low GDP per capita. Which of these can be the most appropriate explanations for the same? a) the flow of production in the economy

is very weak b) the nation is not relying on

sustainable growth models c) the government’s intervention in the

economy is hampering the development of competitive markets

d) the nation has to rely on imports excessively for production process

98. Capital goods are those goods that are 1. Used for the production of

intermediate goods 2. Used for the production of consumer

goods 3. Used for generation of capital 4. a part of the nation’s fixed capital

formation




a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 1 only

99. One of the ways of measuring the income of a nation is to add all the factor payments made in the economy. Here factor payments mean a) payments made to resources used in

the production process b) payments used for deploying human

capital in the industries

c) payments made to the fixed asset and capital used in the production process in the economy

d) the collective income of all the firms in the economy

100. What is called Directive Principles in the present Indian constitution is merely another name for the instrument of instructions issued in a) Indian Independence Act, 1947 b) Government of India Act, 1935 c) 1858 Charter Act d) Morley-Minto reforms Act, 1919

insights on india mock preliminary exam - 2015 …

Documents