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The Next College Multan

THE NEXT COLLEGE MULTAN

Part-III (Annual System)

Bahauddin Zakariya University, Multan

New Pattern

5 Years Papers of LL.B (3 Years)



LLB Part-III 1st Annual Examination, 2013

Subject: Civil Procedure Code Paper: I

Maximum Marks: 80 Time Allowed: 2:30 Hours

Subjective Part

Note: Attempt THREE questions from Part-I, One question from Part-II. All questions carry

equal marks. All questions attempt in English. Bare Act will be provided.

Part-I

Q.No.1. Define “Decree” “judgment” and “Order” what is the difference between decree,

judgment and order?

Q.No.2. Explain the territorial and pecuniary jurisdiction of court?

Q.No.3. What are the limits for the amendments of the pleadings is there any time limit?

Q.No.4. Discuss in detail the grounds on which a plaint can be rejected?

Q.No.5. What is meant by the term “Cause of action? Explain fully?”

Part-II (Limitation Act)

Q.No.6. Under what circumstances the court is authorize to condone the delay?

Q.No.7. What is the effect of “Acknowledgment in writing” on period of limitation?





Maximum Marks: 20 Time Allowed: 30 Minutes

Objective Part

Note: This paper comprises 20 MCQs. Each MCQ carries 1 mark. Encircle the correct option. Any

other marking is liable to be cutting, overwriting and use of ink remover is not allowed.

Q.No.1 Tick the Correct Option

i. The written statement is filed under

a. Order 8 Rule 1 b. Order 7 Rule 1 c. Order 6 Rule 1 d. Order 9 Rule 1

ii. The grant of temporary injunction under

a. Order 41 Rule 1&2 b. Order 39 Rule 1&2 c. Order 38 Rule 1&2 d. Order 40 Rule 1&2

iii. The procedure for the summoning of the witnesses in C.P.C is governed

a. Order 15 Rule 1 b. Order 14 Rule 1 c. Order 16 Rule 1-2 d. Order 18 Rule 1

iv. How many kinds of issues are?

a. Issues on law b. Issues on facts c. both d. None of these

v. Whether a suit can be filed about a property.

a. Where the property lies b. Where plaintiff resides c. Where the

defendant resides d. plaintiff defendant resides

vi. Inherent powers of the court

a. Section 141 b. Section 151 c. Section 131 d. Section 152

vii. Under what provision of law a plaint can be rejected under what circumstances?


viii. Under what provision of law a local commission can be appointed


ix. Appeal can be filed against appellate decree?

a. 104 b. 96 c. 100 d. 115

x. Judgment follows decree or decree follows the judgment

a. Decree b. Order c. Grounds of decree d. Judgment decree

xi. Under what section resjudicata can be defined


xii. Revision can be filed under Section

a. 14 b. 116 c. 112 d. 115

xiii. Under what provision of law suit can be filed against minor

a. Order 51 b. Order 53 c. Order 32 d. Order 41

xiv. Order 40 relates to the appointment of receiver if so under what rule


xv. What order deals the appellate decrees


xvi. Under what provision of the court can close the evidence of the parties?


xvii. Under what provision of law the court can attach property before announcing the judgment


xviii. Whether the court is competent to dismiss the suit straight way under the law of limitation if found

time barred

a. Section 3 of Limitation Act b. Section 5 of Limitation Act

b. Section 14 of Limitation Act d. Section 13 of Limitation Act

xix. Under what provision of law a decree passed may be set aside under the grounds of fraud,

misrepresentation and lack of jurisdiction.

a. Section 2(12) b. Section 12(2) c. Section 148 d. Section 149

xx. Pecuniary jurisdiction of Civil Judge First Class

a. 20 lac b. unlimited c. 25 lac d. None of these




Subject: Criminal Procedure Code Paper: II


Subjective Part



Part-I (Criminal Procedure Code)

Q.No.2. Explain the following:

a. Bail able offence b. Charge

c. Police d. Public Prosecutor

Q.No.3. What is complaint? How is complaint proceeded?

Q.No.4. Write a detail note on pre arrest and after arrest Bail?

Q.No.5. Discuss appeal against Equital in detail?

Q.No.6. What is probation? Who has the power to release certain convided offender on

probation?

Q.No.7. Define bail and on what grounds bail is cancelled?

Q.No.8. Who can tender pardon to a compile? What procedure has been laid down for it?

Part-II (Medical Jurisprudence)

Q.No.9. What is Injury? What are its kinds?

Q.No.10. What is Medico Legal Report?




Subject: Criminal Procedure Code Paper: II


Objective Part




i. Statement before investigating officer is required to be

a. Signed b. Thumb marked c. No signature or thumb mark

ii. In case a person died under circumstances raising a reasonable suspicion office incharge of police

station shall immediately inform

a. Juridical Magistrate b. Executive Magistrate c. Nearest Magistrate

iii. Cognizance of complaint vests with

a. Session Judge b. Judicial Magistrate c. Both

iv. Sentence of death subject to confirmation by High court can be passed by

a. Magistrate b. Session Judge c. Special Executive Magistrate

v. Police arrest a suspect without warrant under section

a. 45 Cr. P. C. b. 154 Cr. P. C. c. 167 Cr. P. C.

vi. Police officer can release an accused when evidence is deficient under section


vii. Search warrant for a wrong fully confined person can be issued by

a. Magistrate b. Session Judge c. Special Executer Magistrate

viii. Cognizance on dispute concerning land etc likely to cause break of peace reported by police vests

with

a. Session Judge b. Magistrate 1st Class c. High Court

ix. Accused can be acquitted of case after hearing the prosecutor by

a. Judicial Magistrate b. Session Judge c. both

x. Magistrate specially empowered under section 30 can pass maximum sentence

a. Three years b. Seven years c. Ten years

xi. Offence of defamation could be compounded by defamed

a. Complainant b. Witness c. The person

xii. Judgment in any criminal court of original jurisdiction shall be pronounced

a. In open court b. Chamber c. both

xiii. A person aggrieved by the order of acquittal passed by any court other than High Court

a. Thirty days b. Sixty days c. Ninety days

xiv. Power to issue direction of the nature Habeas corpus vests with

a. High Court b. Session Court c. Both

xv. Inherent power to prevent abuse of the process of any court vests with

a. Supreme Court b. High Court c. Session Court

xvi. Section 497 Cr. P. C. deals with

a. Pre-arrest bail b. Post arrest bail c. both

xvii. Incised wound would be caused by

a. Blunt weapon b. Sharp edged weapon c. both

xviii. Stab wound injury is

a. Superficial b. Muscle deep c. going deep to the cavity

xix. Injury caused by pistol from five feet would give

a. Burn marks around entry wound b. Blocking around the entry c. both

xx. Report of police officer under section 173 Cr. P. C. relates to

a. Inquiry b. Investigation c. Complaint




Subject: Law of evidence & Legal Ethics Paper: III


Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Explain the term “Judicial Notice” state the facts of which the court can take Judicial

Notice?

Q.No.2. What do you mean by the expression “Burden of proof, explain the General principles

regarding the burden of proof”?

Q.No.3. Define and Distinguish the documentary evidence from the oral evidence?

Q.No.4. How will you explain “Admission” who are the persons by whom admission can be

made?

Q.No.5. What is Identification parade, how it is held? What is evidentiary value of such parade?

Part-II

Q.No.6. What are the ethical restriction upon a lawyer, with reference to the value of

professional conduct?

Q.No.7. Discuss the code of conduct and duties of a lawyer vis-à-vis to Judge.

i. Senior and Junior Lawyer Brother

ii. His opposing Lawyers / Counsel.




Subject: Law of evidence & Legal Ethics Paper: III


Objective Part




i. Identification parade can only be conducted under Article

a. Art 24 b. Art 22 c. Art 25 d. Art 20

ii. The term “Resgestae” has been explained under Article

a. 19 b. 15 c. 18 d. 17

iii. Under what article the court may for bid a question if a question in cross-examination is irrelevant

a. 142 b. 143 c. 145 d. 146

iv. A witness many while under examination refresh his memory under article

a. 157 b. 156 c. 155 d. 154

v. Birth during marriage conclusive proof of marriage has been enshrined in article

a. 127 b. 128 c. 129 d. 130

vi. Under what Article a judge has power to put a question or order of production of any documents

a. 157 b. 160 c. 161 d. 164

vii. Under what Article decision of case can become on the basis of oath.

a. 163 b. 168 c. 170

viii. Leading question has been defined under article

a. 136 b. 130 c. 135 d. 129

ix. Leading question may be asked in cross examination

a. Yes b. No c. None

x. A person who is deaf and dumb can also be compdent witness.


xi. The term “Estoppel” has been define in article

a. 112 b. 113 c. 114 d. 116

xii. Whether estoppel differs from presumption


xiii. A witness who is gained over by the opposite part is a hostile witness


xiv. Art 46 of Qanoon-e-Shahadat defines

a. Hearsay Evidence b. Dying Declaration c. Confession

xv. Can a lay man is competent to record dying declaration


xvi. Under what article an accomplice is a competent witness against accused person, expect in the case

of Hadd.

a. 17 b. 16 c. 15 d. 13

xvii. A retracted confession can become basis of conviction


xviii. Plea of Alibi has been enshrined in Article of Qanun-e-Shahadat order 1984

a. 24 b. 25 c. 22 d. 26

xix. Article 55 of Qanun-E-Shahadat order deals with “Judgments in Rem”


xx. Who is expert under relevant article of Qanun-e-Shahadat order 1984

a. 58 b. 59 c. 70 d. 71




Subject: Legal Drafting Paper: IV


Objective Part




i. Written Statement is not part of pleading?

a. Yes b. No

ii. Verification is not important in plaint.

a. True b. False

iii. Rectification deed is the part of original deed.

a. True b. False

iv. Is Suit for Jactitation can be filed in family court?

a. Yes b. No

v. Jurisdiction of the court is necessary.

a. True b. False

vi. Every legal deed needs two witnesses.

a. Yes b. No

vii. Mortgage deed is not necessary to be registered.

a. True b. False

viii. Set Off is not related with written statement.

a. True b. False

ix. Cause of action is necessary to file a civil suit.

a. True b. False

x. Special power of attorney is General power of Attorney.

a. True b. False

xi. Facts admitted need not to be proved.

a. Yes b. No

xii. Can a Plaint be rejected by the court?

a. Yes b. No

xiii. Replication is the part of pleadings.

a. True b. False

xiv. Suit for specific performance needs no evidence.

a. True b. False

xv. Affidavit has no value in the eyes of law.

a. True b. False

xvi. All documents must be attested by oath commissioner.

a. Yes b. No

xvii. Minimum two persons are necessary for any agreement.

a. True b. False

xviii. Civil Court cannot execute its decree.

a. True b. False

xix. Is a person? Bound to prove his claim in the court?

a. Yes b. No

xx. Law is equal for all.

a. True b. False






Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Define a Bond and draft a money bond with Surety?

Q.No.2. How can a document caused to be cancelled? And when it may be rectified? Describe

in detail?

Q.No.3. Draft a deed of “Partnership” between the parties?

Q.No.4. Draft a divorce deed?

Part-II

Q.No.5. Draft a suit for Dissolution of Marriage?

Q.No.6. Draft a Suit for declaration of right along with permanent injunction?

Q.No.7. What are the general defences that can be taken in a civil suit?




Subject: Interpretation of Statue Paper: V


Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. How can an ambiguity in Statue be solved?

Q.No.2. Write short notes on following?

i. Revival of Statute ii. Legal Fiction

iii. Repeal iv. Commencement

Q.No.3. What are General principles of construction of statute?

Q.No.4. What are different parts of statute? Explain in detail?

Q.No.5. Civil Court has inherent power to do justice in the absence of expressed provisions in a

statute? Discuss

Part-II

Q.No.6. Under what section of General Causes Act Power to appoint include power to remove

or suspend? Comments

Q.No.7. Write a short note on following:

i. Public Nuisance ii. Document

iii. Vessel iv. Good faith




Subject: Interpretation of Statue Paper: V


Objective Part




i. How court can resolved ambiguity in a statue?

a. By Logical Interpretation b. By Grammatical interpretation c. By History of

Legislation d. All of these

ii. Ambiguity means

a. Doubtfulness b. Double meaning c. both a & b

iii. Court must not challenge the wisdom of legislative authority while interpreting the statue

a. True b. False

iv. The cannon of statuary interpretation is

a. Literal Rule b. Mischief Rule c. Golden rule d. None of these

v. Historical perspective is only sufficient to interpretation of statue

a. True b. False

vi. Criminal courts can exercise their inherent power under section

a. 151 cpc b. 561 crpc c. Both a & b

vii. The parts which necessary constitute the frame work of a statute

a. Headings b. Definition c. Table of contents d. All of these

viii. Preamble cannot restrict or extended the scope of statue

a. True b. False

ix. Section 15 of general clauses act attracted only in case of appointment of a person by a competent

authority

a. True b. False

x. Section 26 of general clauses act provides no bar to trial or conviction for the same crime

a. True b. False

xi. Interpretation of the statue must be according to the context of a statue

a. True b. False

xii. Legal Fiction in a legislative device to achieve the object of a statue it created either

a. For the improvement of Law b. For the interest of justice c. both a & b

xiii. An invalid law which ha remain unchallenged for many years does not become valid

a. True b. False

xiv. A validity of an act depends upon

a. Legislative competency b. Conformity with the constitutional law c. both a & b

xv. An offender cannot be punished twice for the same offence

a. True b. false

xvi. In case of ambiguity in a penal statue, benefit goes to

a. Complainant b. Accused c. both a & b

xvii. Civil Court has inherent power to do justice

a. Under Section 115 cpc b. Under Section 151 cpc

xviii. A subsequent change in law not having retrospective effect, cannot effect the previous transaction

and litigation of parties

a. True b. False

xix. Function of the court is?

a. To make Law b. To interpret Law

xx. A part of law which regulates rights and duties of the parties is called

a. Substantive Law b. Administrative Law c. both a & b




Subject: Intellectual Property Paper: Optional VI-VII


Subjective Part

Note: Attempt four question in English. Question No 1 is compulsory. All questions carry equal

marks.

Q.No.1. Define 5 of the followings:

i. Convention Country ii. Exclusive Licence iii. Patentee

iv. Architectural work of Art v. Book vi. Design vii. Domain Name

viii. Comparative advertisement ix. Advertising x. Dramatic Work

Q.No.2. Write down the basic features of Patents Cooperation Treaty?

Q.No.3. How can a person register a trademark, discuss in detail?

Q.No.4. What do you know about procedure for obtaining a Design Protection its term and

renewal?

Q.No.5. What types of privileges are available after acquiring Patent rights?

Q.No.6. Under which law Dramatic work is Protected and how?

Q.No.7. What is infringement of registration of Trademark, discuss?




Subject: Intellectual Property Paper: Optional VI-VII


Objective Part




i. The Patents Ordinance was promulgated in

a. 2010 b. 2000 c. 2011

ii. The head office of PIPA is in

a. Lahore b. Karachi c. Islamabad

iii. The Patents Ordinance 2000 is applicable throughout

a. Pakistan b. Punjab c. KPK

iv. WTO is stand for

a. World Tariff Organization b. World Technical Organ c. World Trade Organization

v. Product means

a. Substance and article b. apparatus and machine c. both a & b

vi. Under the Copyright Ordinance, 1962, the world lecture includes

a. Address b. speech c. sermon d. all of these

vii. Musical work is registered under

a. Trademarks Laws b. Copyrights Law c. Patent Laws

viii. The copyright is protected for the period of

a. 15 years b. 25 years c. 50 years

ix. Assignment under the Copyright Ordinance may be given orally

a. Yes b. No

x. The artistic work is protected under

a. Copyrights Laws b. Design Laws c. both a & b

xi. The copyright of Govt. work is protected for

a. 20 years b. 25 years c. None a & b

xii. The application for registration of dramatic work is furnished to

a. Registrar of trademarks b. Registrar of copyright c. both a & b

xiii. The main purpose of Paris Convention was the protection of

a. Copyrights b. Patent rights c. Industrial Property

xiv. The Trademarks Ordinance was promulgated in

a. 2010 b. 2001 c. 2000

xv. A Collective mark is registered under

a. Copyrights Laws b. Patent Laws c. None a & b

xvi. Service may be registered under

a. Trademarks Laws b. Copyright Laws c. Patent Laws

xvii. Initially the Trade mark is registered for


xviii. The registration of trademark can be renewed

a. Yes b. No

xix. The Trademark is registered under section 35 of Trademarks Ordinance 2001

a. Yes b. No

xx. Trademark is a property

a. Yes b. No




Subject: Environmental Law Paper: Optional VI-VII (ii)


Subjective Part

Note: Attempt four question in English. All questions carry equal marks.

Q.No.1. Elucidate Islamic Perspective on Environmental Law?

Q.No.2. Write short note on the following:

i. Marine ii. Agriculture Waste

iii. Council iv. Factory

Q.No.3. Write the provisions regarding environmental protection in Constitution of Pakistan

1973?

Q.No.4. Write the role of following organization as per Environmental Law?

i. UNEP ii. SAARC

Q.No.5. Write multidisciplinary aspect in connection with human rights?

Q.No.6. Define the following:

i. Environmental Tribunal ii. Hazardous substance iii. Industrial Activity

iv. Municipal Waste v. Person

Q.No.7. Write in detail on:

i. Indus Basin Commission ii. Antiquities




Subject: Environmental Law Paper: Optional VI-VII (ii)


Objective Part




i. ________ means such limits of water adjacent to the land territory of Pakistan.

a. Historic Waters b. Water c. both a & b d. None of these

ii. Nuclear waste means waste from

a. Nuclear Reactor b. Nuclear Plant c. both a & b d. None of these

iii. Pakistan Environmental Protection Agency is called

a. Federal Agency b. Govt. Agency c. Provincial Agency d. Agency

iv. Hazardous waste means the waste includes

a. Hospital Waste b. Nuclear Waste c. both a & b d. None of these

v. Industrial waste means waste resulting from

a. Industrial Activity b. Local Activity c. both a & b d. None of these

vi. ________ Means standard establish by the Federal Agency.

a. National Environmental Quality Standard b. Noise c. both a & b

d. None of these

vii. Persons means

a. Natural Person b. Legal Person c. both a & b d. None of these

viii. ______ means any activity plan, scheme, proposal involving any change in environments

a. Project b. Pollution c. both a & b d. None of these

ix. Vessel includes anything made for conveyance by

a. Water of Human being b. Goods c. both a & b d. None of these

x. ______ means any substance that causes pollution of air

a. Air pollutant b. Pollution c. both a & b d. None of these

xi. Initial Environmental Examination means

a. Preliminary Environmental Review b. Final Decision c. both a & b d. None

xii. ______ means any person who proposes as project.

a. Proponent b. Person c. Director d. None of these

xiii. The power to make rules & regulations is with the

a. Federal Agency b. Provincial Agency c. both a & b d. None of these

xiv. An Environmental Magistrate will be

a. 1st Class Magistrate b. 2

nd Class Magistrate c. both a & b d. None of these

xv. The Chairman of Environmental Tribunal will be

a. A Judge of the High Court b. Technical Member c. both a & b d. None of these

xvi. The functions of the Federal Agency are

a. Administer and Implement the Act b. Prepare the annual National Environmental Report

c. Both a & b d. None of these

xvii. _______ means liquid or semi-solid wastes is called

a. Sewage b. Waste c. both a & b d. None of these

xviii. _______ means the intensity, duration and character of sounds from all sources is called

a. Noise b. Nuclear Waste c. both a & b d. None of these

xix. Discharge means

a. Spilling b. Leaking c. Pumping d. All of above

xx. Territorial waste means shall have the same meaning as

a. Territorial Waters b. Effluent c. both a & b d. None of these




Subject: Banking Laws Paper: VI-VII (III)


Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Describe and reconcile the function and responsibilities of the Central Selection Board

and the Policies Coordination Board of the State Bank of Pakistan?

Q.No.2. Briefly describe the salient features of the Banking Companies Ordinance 1962?

Q.No.3. A holder in due course enjoys certain privileges under the Negotiable Instrument Act,

1881, Discuss?

Q.No.4. What are the essential features of leave to defend as provided in Section 10 of the

Financial Institution (Recovery of Finances) Ordinance 2001?

Q.No.5. What are the essential features requirements for eligibility for registration of a Modarba

Company?


i. Banking Court ii. Ambiguous Instrument iii. Obligation

iv. Inchoate Instrument

Q.No.7. What administrative structure and operational powers does the law provide for Banking

Courts in Pakistan?






Objective Part




i. Customer includes __________.

a. A security b. an indemnifier c. both a & b d. None of above

ii. A judge of Banking Court, not being a District Judge, can be appointed for a term of _______ years

from the date on which he enter upon his office.

a. Three b. Four c. Five d. Six

iii. In granting leave to defend, Banking Court impose such conditions as __________.

a. To deposit of cash b. furnishing of security c. both a & b d. None of above

iv. In case where proceedings before Banking Courts continue beyond ninety days, defendant can be

required to ________.

a. Deposit cash b. furnish security c. furnished bond d. None of above

v. Mortgage means the transfer of an interest in specific _______ property for the purpose of securing

the payment of the mortgage money

a. Immoveable b. moveable c. incorporeal d. corporeal

vi. A Banking Court should not allow adjournments for more than __________ days.

a. Three b. Five c. Seven d. Fourteen

vii. In case of default in payment mortgage money by a customer, financial institution can send _____

notices on the mortgagor demanding payments of mortgage money.

a. Five b. Four c. Three d. Two

viii. After expiry of due date given in final notice, financial institution can sell the mortgaged property

or any of its part by ________.

a. Publication b. auction c. sale d. both b & c

ix. Before sale of mortgaged property through public auction, financial institution should publish a

_________ English and Urdu daily newspaper.

a. Publication b. notice c. letter d. memorandum

x. ________ is entitled, in its discretion, to participate in the public auction, and to purchase the

mortgaged property at the highest bid obtained in the public auction.

a. Financial institution b. Banking Court c. both b & c d. none of above

xi. A financial institution which has sold mortgaged property should file proper accounts of the sale

proceeds in a Banking Courts within _________ days of the sale.

a. Ten b. fifteen c. twenty d. thirty

xii. ________ cannot grant an injunction restraining the sale or proposed sale of mortgaged.

a. Banking Court b. High Court c. both b & c d. none of above

xiii. A financial institution can file a suit for recovery of amount through sale of any _______ property.

a. Mortgaged b. pledged c. hypothecated & assigned d. all above

xiv. Upon pronouncement of judgment and decree by Banking Court, the suit is automatically stand

converted into _________ proceedings.

a. Mediatory b. semi-judicial c. Rent Tribunal d. both a & c

xv. Upon pronouncement of judgment and decree by Banking Court, the suit is automatically stand

converted into ___________ proceedings.

a. Mediatory b. Semi-Judicial c. Judicial d. Execution

xvi. Term assets or properties, according to financial institution, ordinance, include any assets and

properties acquired benami in the name of an _______ owner.

a. Full b. Legal c. Conditional d. Ostensible

xvii. ________ Days‟ time should be given for submitting offers to sealed tenders.

a. Forty b. thirty c. twenty d. ten

xviii. Sealed tenders should be opened in the presence of __________.

a. Tenderers b. tenderer‟s c. both a & c d. none of above

xix. Appeal against any judgment, decree, sentence, or final order passed by Banking Court can be filed

a. District court b. High Court c. Supreme Court d. Baking Court

xx. Appellant should give ______ of filling of appeal to respondent

a. Notice b. copy c. memorandum d. none of above




Subject: Labour Law Paper: VI-VII (IV)


Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Explain termination of employment, charge sheet, its formation and procedure?

Q.No.2. What are the provisions for the protection of the health of workers under the act?

Q.No.3. What are the circumstances in which an appeal lies to the High Court from an order of

the Commissioner?

Q.No.4. Write short notes on:

i. Method of Calculating Wages ii. Commutation of Half-Monthly Payments

iii. Review

Q.No.5. Discuss the liability of the principle and contractor in the following cases?

Q.No.6. Will an employer be liable to pay compensation in the following cases?

Q.No.7. What is the purpose of enactment of IRO 2002 and its scope?






Objective Part




i. The period of limitation for appeal under section 30 of working compensation act 1923 shall be

a. Thirty days b. Sixty days c. Twenty days

ii. After the receipt of the registration application registrar shall register the trade union within

a. Thirteen days b. nine days c. fifteen days

iii. Strike means

a. Cessation of work by a body of persons employed b. Refusal under a common

understanding c. both

iv. A workman found guilty of misconduct shall be liable

a. Fine b. Reduction to a lower post c. both

v. Tribunal means a labour appellate tribunal constituted under Punjab industrial relations ordinance

2010 under section

a. 51 b. 42 c. 63

vi. If the employers fails to deposit the amount of the gratuity, the dependent of the deceased may

make an application for its recovery to the

a. Collector b. Tribunal c. Commissioner

vii. Every application for registration of trade union shall be made to

a. Provincial Government b. Registrar c. Governor

viii. A workman shall be entitled to receive the amount standing to his credit in the

a. Benevolent Fund b. Provident Fund c. Group Insurance Fund

ix. The prescribe period of probationer workman under this ordinance is

a. Four Months b. Six Months c. Three Months

x. The employer may in the event of fire stop any section of establishment for any period

a. With Notice of one day b. with notice of three days c. without notice

xi. Temporary workman or probationer or badly can be terminated

a. Without notice b. with notice of two months c. both

xii. “Inspector” means an inspector appointed under

a. Punjab Industrial Relation Ordinance 2010 b. Workman Compensation Act 1923

c. Workman Compensation Rules 1961

xiii. Habitual absence of a workman who absence without leave for more than

a. Three days b. Ten Days c. Five days

xiv. A steward shall hold office from the date of his selection or nomination for a period of

a. Six Months b. One year c. Three Months

xv. Under workman compensation act 1923 who can appoint commissioner

a. Provincial Government b. Federal Government c. Governor

xvi. The Governor may authorize the registrar to exercise the power of registration of

a. Industry wise trade union b. Private limited company c. welfare Societies

xvii. The commissioner who is appointed under workman compensation act 1923 shall have all powers

a. Criminal Court b. Civil Court c. Small Causes Court

xviii. Any Person aggrieved by order deterring a collective bargaining unit passed by tribunal may prefer

and appeal to the

a. Civil Court b. District Court c. High Court

xix. The commissioner shall follow the procedure for taking evidence under

a. Civil Procedure Court b. workman compensation Act 1923 c. both

xx. Registered trade union means any trade union Registered under

a. Punjab Industrial relations ordinance 2010 b. Standing order 1968 c. Registration Act




Subject: Taxation Law Paper: VI-VII (V)


Subjective Part


equal marks. All questions attempt in English.

Part-I

Q.No.1. Write short note on any four of the following:

i. Accumulated Profit ii. Approved Employment Pension

iii. Meaning of Assessment iv. Agricultural Income

Q.No.2. Define and Explain “Income from Property” Discuss the deduction in computing

income under this head?

Q.No.3. Discuss the law relating to disposal and acquisition of assets under Income Tax

Ordinance, 2001?

Q.No.4. What do you understand by the terms income from business? Also discuss the principal

relating to charge of income tax under income from business?

Q.No.5. What do you means by deduction at source and discuss the principal of deduction of tax

at source of Salary and profit on debt?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Write a detailed note on furnishing of Returns under sales tax and kind of Sales Tax

returns?

Q.No.7. Discuss the penalties under Sales Tax Act 1990?






Objective Part




i. Appellate Tribunal means the Appellate Tribunal established under

a. 135 b. 130 c. 162

ii. According to section _______ Approved employment pension or amenity scheme means and

employment related to retired scheme approved under the income tax ordinance 2001

a. Section 6(1) b. Section 2(3D) c. Section 115

iii. Under Section 2(5B) Asset management company means accompany registered under the rule 1965

a. Security & Exchange commission of Pakistan b. Assets Management

b. Registration of firm

iv. Section 11 of the Income Tax Ordinance 2001, provide the _______ is the forth source

a. Income from property b. Capital Gain c. Business Income

v. Under section 24 of Patent, Copy right, Trademark etc is considered as

a. Business assets b. capita assets c. business income

vi. The extension of date for furnishing of return can be allowed by

a. Member appellate Tribunal b. Commissioner c. Additional Commissioner

vii. Deduction of tax on prize bonds is _______ of liability.

a. Final discharge b. a adjustable against c. refundable

viii. Collection of tax by a stock exchange registered in Pakistan can be made under section

a. 231 b. 233A c. 147

ix. Under Income Tax Ordinance 2001, where tax year ends between 1st January and 30

th June. The

return of income must be furnished up to

a. 30th June b. 31

st December c. 30

th September

x. Wealth Statement is required to be filed under section

a. 120 b. 114 c. 116

xi. A person has loss carried forward under section 59(3) for more than year the loss of _______ tax

year shall be set of first.

a. Current year b. enlist year c. 3rd

year

xii. The commissioner inland Revenue is appointed by

a. Chief commissioner b. Federal Board or Revenue c. Appellate Tribunal

xiii. Rs. _________ is payable as penalty in case of 1st default of non-compliance of notice.

a. 1500/- b. 5000/- c. 10000/-

xiv. Equal to ______ or 1% of taxable for each day of default non furnishing of return.

a. 1/5th b. 1/10

th c. 100%

xv. Amount of penalty of Rs. 10000/- or 5% of tax is payable whichever is higher for failure to

maintain

a. Return of Income b. Records / Book Keeping c. Bank Account

xvi. Time period for filling of appeal before appellate tribunal from date of receipt of order is _____

a. 90 days b. 60 days c. 30 days

xvii. According to Plaid Law Dictionary assessment means

a. Process of Accounts b. Process of ascertain c. Power of Commissioner

xviii. Depreciation means_______ in value of assets.

a. Equality of Assets b. Decrease in value of assets

xix. Allowance is a sum granted as _________ or bounty of or for expanses.

a. Accruals b. reimbursement

xx. Section ______ and 103 of Income Tax Ordinance 2001 are relating to deductible allowances

a. 20 to 30 b. 60 to 65




Subject: Land Laws Paper: VI-VII (VI)


Subjective Part

Note: Attempt Four Question in all in English selecting Two for Part-I, One question each

from Part-II and Part-III. All question carry equal marks.

Part-I (Land Revenue Act 1967)

Q.No.1. Discuss the qualifications for appointment of Headman?

Q.No.2. What is the procedure for the attestation of mutation?

Q.No.3. Discuss the processes for the recovery of land revenue?

Part-II (Punjab Tenancy Act 1887)

Q.No.4. Can a rent be deposited with revenue officer, if so, what would be its effect?

Q.No.5. What are the grounds of ejectment of tenant for a fixed term?

Part-III (Punjab Pre-emption Act 1991

Q.No.6. Discuss the persons in whom right of pre-emption vest?

Q.No.7. What is period of limitation for filing of suit under pre-emption laws?






Objective Part




i. Inquiries under the Act deemed to be

a. Executive b. Judicial c. Non-Judicial

ii. Board of Revenue means of Revenue Established under the Board of Revenue Act.

a. 1975 b. 1957 c. 1965

iii. Landlord means a person

a. Under whom a tenant holds land b. To whom holding has been transferred

b. To whom board of revenue vests power

iv. Agricultural years commence on the

a. 1st day of July b. 15

th day of June c. 1

st day of August

v. Tenant means

a. To whom holding has been transferred b. a person who takes from government lease

c. A person who holds land under another person

vi. Rent means whatever is payable to

a. Government b. landowner c. Landlord

vii. Estate means an area

a. Which has been separately assessed b. for which an independent lumberdar is

appointed c. which consists of particular number of villages

viii. Limitation for filing revision before commission is


ix. Notice of demand is issued by

a. Collector b. Revenue Officer c. Lumberdar

x. Limitation for filing appeal to commissioner is


xi. Land means land which is

a. Occupied as site of any building b. Occupied for agricultural purpose

c. Occupied for industrial purpose

xii. Punjab Tenancy Act of

a. 1887 b. 1897 c. 1987

xiii. Scale of Mutation fees is fixed by

a. Collector b. Commissioner c. Board of Revenue

xiv. Any person acquiring any right in an estate shall report his acquisition of right to Patwari within

a. 3 months b. 1 month c. 6 months

xv. An ejectment notice U/S. 45 shall not be served to tenant after

a. 15th November b. 15

th April c. 30

th June

xvi. Limitation for Filing Pre-Emption suit is

a. 120 days b. 4 Months c. 3 Months

xvii. Punjab Pre-Emption Act 1991

a. X of 1991 b. IX of 1991 c. XI of 1991

xviii. Pre-Emption Act extends to whole the

a. Punjab b. Pakistan c. Only agricultural land

xix. After Talb-i-Muwathibat, Talb-i-Ishaq is made not later than

a. 2 weeks b. 15 days c. 3 weeks

xx. A decree or order for ejectment shall be executed between

a. 1st May to 15

th June b. 1

st June to 30

th June c. 1

st July to 15

th August




Subject: Minor Acts Paper: VI-VII (VII)


Subjective Part


Q.No.1. What are the powers of a Civil Court under Arbitration Act 1940 when arbitration is

with the intervention of the court? Discuss comprehensively?

Q.No.2. Explain the followings:

a) Application of Limitation Act 1908 (XI of 1908) on Arbitration

b) Powers of Arbitrators

Q.No.3. There are certain documents which are exempted from court fee under the Court Fees

Act 1870. Enlist those documents please. Explain?

Q.No.4. Discuss the method of Computation of Court fee in different cases under Section 7 of

the Court Fees Act 1870?

Q.No.5. Discuss the power of Provincial government to make rules determining the value of

land for jurisdictional purpose?

Q.No.6. Write a detailed note on Establishment of Rent Tribunal under the Punjab Rented

Premises Act 2009?

Q.No.7. Define Landlord and tenant. What are the obligations of landlord and tenant under the

Punjab Rented Premises Act 2009?






Objective Part




i. The Arbitration Act (X of 1940) shall come into force on __________.

a. 1st day of June b. 1

st day of July c. 1

st day of August

ii. Reference in Arbilrulon Act 1940 means a reference is __________.

a. Civil Court b. Criminal Court c. Arbitration

iii. An Arbitration agreement ________ be discharged by the of any party.

a. Shall be b. Shall not be c. can be

iv. Arbitrtors or Umpires ________ sign the award.

a. May b. Shall c. Can

v. All fees chargeable under The Court Fees Act 1870 shall be collected by __________.

a. Cash money b. Cheque c. Stamp

vi. “Appropriate Government” includes _______.

a. Federal Government b. Provincial Government c. both a & b

vii. Every Question relating to valuation for the purpose of determining the amount of any fee

chargeable under Chapter III of the Court Fees Act 1870 on a plaint or memorandum of appeal

shall be decided by __________.

a. The parties to the suit themselves b. Court c. Government

viii. When any difference arises between the officer whose duty is to see that any fee is paid under

Chapter III of the Court Fees Act 1870 and any suitor or attorney as to the necessity of paying a fee

or the amount thereof, the question shall be referred to the

a. High Court b. Taxing Officer c. None of the above

ix. The rules as to the costs of processes shall be made by ___________.

a. High Court b. Taxing Officer c. both of the above

x. The amount of fee payable under The Court Fees Act 1870 in the suits for declaratory decree must

be computed according to the ________.

a. Value of the property b. relief sought in the plaint c. market value of the property

xi. Computation of fee payable with reference to suits has been provided in the ________.

a. Court Fees Act 1870 b. Suit Valuation Act 1887 c. None of the above

xii. The Court Fees Act 1870 shall extends to the ________ of Pakistan.

a. Punjab and Sindh b. Khyber Pakhtoonkhaw and Balochistan c. Whole

xiii. The Provincial Government shall before, making rules determining value of land for jurisdictional

purposes consult ________.

a. Supreme Court b. High Court c. None of the above

xiv. The term “ad Valorem” means __________.

a. According to Subject Matter b. According to value c. both of the above

xv. “Ad Valorem” is a _________ term.

a. Latin b. Greek c. French

xvi. The Punjab Rented Premises Act 2009 is to regulate the relationship between _______.

a. Family members b. Landlord & tenant c. both of the above

xvii. A landlord shall not let out premises to a tenant except by a _________.

a. Contract b. Agreement c. tenancy agreement

xviii. The Government shall consult with the _______ in order to appoint one or more special judges in a

Rent Tribunal.

a. Lahore High Court b. Supreme Court c. All the high courts of respective provinces

xix. Rent Registrar shall maintain a ______ to enter particulars of lenancy agreement.

a. Book b. Register c. Note pad

xx. If an ex partee order is passed against a respondent, the respondent may with in ____ days apply to

the Rent Tribunal for setting aside the ex-partee order along with an application for leave to contest





Subject: Human Rights Paper: VI-VII (VIII)


Subjective Part


Q.No.1. What are different provisions contained in International Human Rights Law regarding

the prohibition of Torture?

Q.No.2. Is Death Penalty is justifiable under International Law, Comment?

Q.No.3. Define Terrorism. Discuss how it is affecting Human Rights in Pakistan?

Q.No.4. Discuss different types of Human Rights recognized by Islam?

Q.No.5. Explain the rights of Refugees in the eye of International Law?

Q.No.6. Write a detail note on the Historical development of International Law of Human

Rights?

Q.No.7. Terrorism is a menace to Human Rights and Society? Comments






Objective Part




i. All human being are born free and equal in dignity and rights. Describe in

a. Universal declaration of human rights b. The refugee convention, 1951

c. Constitution of Pakistan, 1956.

ii. Slavery and the slave trade shall be prohibited in all their forms defined in universal declaration of

human rights under articles

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6

iii. Every one changed with a penal offence has the right to be presumed

a. Guilty b. Accused c. Innocent

iv. The human Right Act, 1998 is an act of parliament of

a. UK b. UNO c. Turkey

v. Universal declaration of human rights is a common standard of achievement for

a. People of USA b. All people c. Only UK

vi. The Universal declaration of human right is passed by

a. UNO b. UK c. USA

vii. Refugees comprise a category of

a. Foreigners b. Citizen c. Local

viii. Equality cannot be assumed unless all human being belong to the same

a. Religion b. Origin c. Cast

ix. In Islam any person has a right to defend himself for fair

a. Trial b. Inquiry c. both

x. Death penalty in murder and rape cases is justifiable in

a. Christianity b. Islam c. Hinduism

xi. The fundamental right of any person recognized by UNO is

a. Primary Education b. Scientific Education c. Computer Education

xii. The great example of equality of humanity by Prophet (PBUM) related to

a. Hazrat Khadeja (R.A) b. Hazrat Fatima (R.A) c. Hazrat Aisha (R.A)

xiii. Invasion in Afghanistan and Iraq transpires double standard Regarding Human Rights of

a. USA b. Pakistan c. Brazail

xiv. The term “child” does not necessarily mean minor but can include

a. Adult Children b. Teenagers c. Both

xv. Children have the right in international law adequate standard of

a. Living, healthcare, education b. Having property c. both

xvi. International court of justice was established in

a. June 1945 b. June 1950 c. June 1955

xvii. International court of justice role is to settle legal disputes submitted to it by

a. Governor b. States c. Agencies

xviii. Women rights are the rights and entitlements claimed for women and girls of many societies.

a. Countrywide b. Citywide c. Worldwide

xix. The right of casting vote was firstly given to women by

a. USA b. UK c. France

xx. Refugees comprise a category of







Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Distinguish between JUDGEMENT and DECREE?

Q.No.2. On what grounds the remedy of revision is available to an aggrieved person?

Q.No.3. Define the power of Civil Courts?

Q.No.4. Explain the territorial and pecuniary jurisdiction of court?



Q.No.6. Under what circumstances court is authorized to condone the delay?

Q.No.7. What is the effect of “Acknowledgement in Writing” on period of limitation?






Objective Part




i. The grant of temporary injunction is under

a. Order 38 rule 1 & 2 b. Order 41 rule 1 & 2 c. Order 39 rule 1 & 2

d. Order 40 rule 1 & 2

ii. How many kinds of issues are

a. One b. Two c. Three d. None of these

iii. Where a suit can be filed about a property, where _________.

a. Property lies b. plaintiff resides c. defendant resides d. plaintiff and

defendant resides

iv. Under what provisions of law a decree passed away be set aside on the ground of fraud,


a. Section 2 (12) b. Section 12 (2) c. Section 148 d. Section 149

v. Under which section res-judicata is defined


vi. Revision can be filed under section ________.


vii. Under what section of Limitation Act, the court is competent to dismiss the suit straight away if

found time barred.


viii. Whether the court is competent to condone the period of limitation, if so under what provision


ix. Under what provision of law a new party can be added or deleted

a. Order 10 rule 1 b. Order 1 rule 10 c. Order 21 rule 38 d. Order 38 rule 21

x. Under what provision of law a review can be filed

a. Section 100 b. Section 96 c. Section 114 d. None of these

xi. Cause of action occurs at Lahore but parties reside at Multan, where the suit would be filed

a. Lahore b. Multan c. with Mutual understanding d. Other place

xii. Under what provision of law Local Commission can be appointed

a. Section 151 b. Order 26 rule 9 c. Order 43 rule 1 d. Order 26 rule 1

xiii. Pecuniary jurisdiction of Civil Judge 1st Class is

a. Rs. 2,000,000/- b. Rs. 2,500,000/- c. Unlimited d. None of these

xiv. Under what provision a plaint can be returned to a plaintiff


xv. Under what provision of law an ex-partee decree can be set aside


xvi. Inherent powers of the court are mentioned


xvii. The written statement is filed under


xviii. The procedure for he summoning of the witness in C.P.C is governed under

a. Order 15 rule 1 b. Order 14 rule 10 c. Order 16 rule 1 & 2 d. Order 18 rule 1

xix. Order 40 relates to the appointment of receiver, if so, under what rule


xx. Under what provision of law the court can attach property before announcing the judgment





Subject: Criminal Procedure Code and Medical Jurisprudence Paper: II


Subjective Part





a. Investigation b. Judicial Proceedings

c. Office Incharge of P.S d. Public Prosecutor

Q.No.2. Write a detailed note, when police may arrest without warrant?

Q.No.3. Describe the procedure where dispute concerning land? ect likely to cause breach of

peace?

Q.No.4. Describe trial before Courts of Session?

Q.No.5. Write a detailed note on appeal?


Q.No.6. Write a detailed note on postmortem examination?

Q.No.7. Write notes on:

a. Incised Wound b. Lacerated Wound

c. Stab Wound d. Amputation






Objective Part




i. Justice of Peace is appointed by

a. Chief Justice of High Court b. Federal Government c. Provincial Government

ii. Jurisdiction of case against Juveniles is defined under Section

a. 29 Cr. P. C b. 29-A Cr. P. C c. 29-B Cr. P. C

iii. Where imprisonment is awarded as part of the substantive sentence, imprisonment in default of fine

shall not exceed

a. 1/2 of total period of imprisonment b. 1/4 of total period of imprisonment

c. Total period of imprisonment

iv. A deserter from Armed Forces can be arrested by police without warrant U/S

a. 45 Cr. P. C b. 54 Cr. P. C c. 154 Cr. P. C.

v. Proclamation for person absconding is issued under Section


vi. During investigation, inquiry or trial, a document or other thing can be summoned U/S


vii. Any document or a thing can be impounded by the Court under Section


viii. Police can seek Military Force to disperse an unlawful assembly under Section


ix. Magistrate of 1st Class can order for removal of nuisance under Section


x. Where dispute concerning land, etc, is likely to cause breach of peace

a. Any Magistrate of 1st Class can proceed b. Magistrate 1

st Class of such area can

proceed c. Special Executive Magistrate can proceed.

xi. Information of cognizable offence, when reduced to writing is required to

a. Be read over to the informant and signed by the person giving it b. substance thereof

to enter in a book to be kept by such police officer c. both

xii. Statement of a witness recorded during investigation

a. Is required to be signed by the witness b. is required to be thumb marked by the

witness c. None above

xiii. If investigation is not completed in 24 hours, after the arrest of an accused, Magistrate can extend

the custody of the accused to the police, which shall not exceed.

a. 13 days in the whole b. 14 days in the whole c. 15 days in the whole

xiv. An inquiry under Section 176 Cr. P. C. into cause of death is held by

a. Magistrate b. Sessions Judge c. Both

xv. Copies of inspection notes and statements of witnesses are required to be given to an accused

a. After framing of charge b. before framing of charge c. at the time of framing of charge

xvi. A Magistrate can acquit an accused at any stage, after hearing the Prosecutor U/S

a. 265-K Cr. P. C. b. 256-K Cr. P. C. c. 249-A Cr. P. C

xvii. Appeal from the order of acquittal in case instituted on complaint is filed before High Court within


xviii. Irregularities which do not vitiate proceedings are given under Section


xix. Power to decide the language of the Court, except High Court, vests with

a. Federal Government b. Provincial Government c. Cabinet

xx. Incised wound is result of

a. Firearm b. Blunt Weapon c. Sharp edge




Subject: Law of Evidence & Legal Ethics Paper: III


Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. What is Leading Question? When may it be asked? Also state when it may not be

asked?

Q.No.2. Discuss the law relating to impeaching the credit of a witness?

Q.No.3. Who is an Accomplice? Is he a competent witness? State the value of an accomplice

witness?

Q.No.4. Define Document? What are the Methods of proving a document? Define and

distinguish between primary and secondary evidence?

Q.No.5. Explain Examination in chief cross examination and re-examination? Discuss their

scope and limit?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Discuss the required behavior of an advocate towards his client?

Q.No.7. Write short note on the rights of advocate?






Objective Part




i. Who is an Accomplice

a. Partner in crime b. Accused c. Police d. Witness

ii. A retracted confession is made by

a. Court b. Accused person c. Witness d. Police

iii. Judicial confession is made before

a. A Magistrate b. Police c. DCO d. Witness

iv. Under what Article Examination in Chief has been defined

a. 139 b. 24 c. 26 d. 132

v. Leading question may be asked in cross examination


vi. A person who is deaf and dumb can also be competent witness


vii. A witness who is won over by the opposite party is a hostile witness


viii. Under what Article confession before police is not admissible

a. 37 b. 38 c. 40 d. 41

ix. Plea of Alibi has been enshrined in Article of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984

a. 24 b. 25 c. 22 d. 26

x. Primary Evidence has been defined in article

a. 74 b. 73 c. 76 d. 79

xi. The term “Resgestae” has been explained under Article

a. 19 b. 15 c. 18 d. 17

xii. Under what article the court may for bid a question, if a question in cross-examination is irrelevant

a. 142 b. 143 c. 145 d. 146

xiii. A witness many while under examination refresh his memory under article

a. 157 b. 156 c. 155 d. 154

xiv. Birth during marriage conclusive proof of legitimacy has been enshrined in article

a. 127 b. 128 c. 129 d. 130

xv. Under what Article judge has power to put a question or order of production of any documents

a. 157 b. 160 c. 161 d. 164

xvi. Under what Article decision of case can become on the basis of oath

a. 163 b. 168 c. 170

xvii. The term “Estoppel” has been define in article

a. 112 b. 113 c. 114 d. 116

xviii. Identification parade can only be conducted under Article

a. Art. 124 b. Art. 22 c. Art. 25 d. Art. 20

xix. Article 46 of Qanoon-e-Shahadat defines


xx. Who is expert under relevant article of Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order 1984

a. 58 b. 59 c. 70 d. 71






Subjective Part

Note: Attempt any four questions in all. Selecting at least two questions from Part-I and Part-II

each both English and Urdu are the medium of Examination in this paper. Candidate

must attempt one question in Urdu from each part.

Part-I

Q.No.1. Define power of attorney. Draft a general power of attorney for transfer of Agricultural

land?

ر رک ںی۔ ر اےئ زریع ارایض رحتب اہم اعل ب

اہم یک رعت فی رکںی۔ اتخمر ن

اتخمر ن

Q.No.2. Define divorce and draft a divorce deed on behalf of a Muslim husband?

ر رک ںی۔ اہم رحتب

ےس الطق ن

ر یک اجن الطق یک رعتفی رک ںی۔ اور املسمم وش ہ

Q.No.3. Define exchange. Draft an exchange deed of Agricultural land?

ر رک ںی۔ اہم رحت ب

ابتدہل یک رعت فی رک ںی۔ زریع ارایض یک تبسن ابتدہل ن

Q.No.4. Define arbitration and also draft an agreement to arbitration between the parties?

ر رک ںی۔ ر نیقی رحتب

ایثل امنیب ف

ایثل یک رعت فی رک ںی اور اعم دہہ ن

ن

Part-II

Q.No.5. Draft a plaint for cancellation of a sale deed?

اہم رحت

خیسنت عیب ن

ت

ر رک ںی۔رع یض دوع ی ن ان ب

Q.No.6. Draft a plaint for recovery of maintenance allowance on behalf of a wife along with her

minor children?

ر رک ںی۔ ام و ہقفن رحت ب

وصح ك ن

ت

ا ن اغل وچب ں یک رط ف ےس دوع ی ن ا ن

ویب ی اور ن

Q.No.7. Draft a written statement in a suit for preemption?

ر رک ںی۔ فہ اک وجاب دوعی رحت ب

دوع ی قح ش






Objective Part




i. A plaint lacking cause of action shall be rejected

a. True b. False

ii. Amendment in the pleadings can be made at any stage of proceedings

a. True b. False

iii. A suit for dissolution of marriage (under Muslim Family Laws) can be filed in Civil Court

a. True b. False

iv. An oral gift is a valid gift

a. True b. False

v. A civil suit regarding an immovable property situated at Multan can be filed in Civil Court Lahore

a. True b. False

vi. A plaint can be rejected under Order 7 Rule 10 of CPC.

a. True b. False

vii. Who alleges a fact is duty bound to prove the same

a. True b. False

viii. A Civil Judge 1st Class has unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction

a. True b. False

ix. A written statement is not part of pleadings

a. True b. False

x. A gift can be revoked before delivery of possession

a. True b. False

xi. A defendant in suit for dissolution of marriage can pray for a degree for conjugal rights in his

written statement

a. True b. False

xii. An agreement to sell is not sale.

a. True b. False

xiii. A minor can file a civil suit himself.

a. True b. False

xiv. A suit under Order 37 CPC may be instituted in Civil Court

a. True b. False

xv. Talab-e-ishad is made within 30 days from making of talab-e-muwathibat.

a. True b. False

xvi. In a suit for partition a preliminary degree is passed firstly.

a. True b. False

xvii. A gift can be made in favour of a minor.

a. True b. False

xviii. An amendment can be allowed by which the cause of action and complexion of suit is changed.

a. True b. False

xix. Limitation for filing a suit for recovery of money is three years.

a. True b. False

xx. A general power of attorney can be cancelled at any time.

a. True b. False




Subject: Interpretation of Statute Paper: V


Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Write a short note on the following and explain their effect on the construction of a

statute.

i. Illustration ii. Explanation

Q.No.2. Describe the function of “Proviso” as an aid to the interpretation of a statute?

Q.No.3. What are the external aids to the constructions of statute?

Q.No.4. Explain the rule Ejusdem Genesis with reference to the interpretation of a statute?

Q.No.5. What is the difference between construction and interpretation of statute Explain in

detail?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Write a short note on following

i. Codicil ii. Oath iii. Sucessor

iv. Revival of Repealed Enactment

Q.No.7. Explain the official chief and subordinates with reference to the relevant section of

general causes?






Objective Part




i. The word “MAY” is used in sense being mandatory

a. True b. False

ii. A cheque upon a banker is a document

a. True b. False

iii. Person including not only a natural person but also a Jurassic person

a. True b. False

iv. A Decision given by the Supreme Court is not binding precedent to all subordinate courts

a. True b. False

v. Law which regulate right and duties of employer and employees is called

a. Substantive Law b. Administrative Law

vi. The Function of the court is not to make the law but to interpret the law

a. True b. False

vii. Interpretation of statute must be in consonance with the spirit of statute

a. True b. False

viii. Court should exercise its inherent power to do justice

a. True b. False

ix. When there is conflict between two provisions of statute which rule applied for its interpretation

a. Mischief Rule b. Golden Rule c. Literal Rule

x. All Statutes are properly referred

a. Law b. Legislation c. Code

xi. Construction of law in an express declaration is called

a. Direct Legislation b. Indirect Legislation

xii. Collection of laws on particular subject referred to

a. Codification b. Enactment c. Consolidation

xiii. Doctrine of stare decisis means

a. To consider a decision of superior courts b. To annul a decision of superior courts

xiv. The word “SHALL” is used in sense of being directory

a. True b. False

xv. A structure which fixed to land is called

a. Moveable Property b. Immoveable Property

xvi. A court can interpret a statute when

a. The Language of statute is ambiguous b. The Language of statute is clear

c. Using its discretion

xvii. Function of the court is


xviii. An invalid law which remained unchallenged for many years become valid

a. True b. False

xix. Preamble cannot restrict or extended the scope of statute

a. True b. False

xx. A subsequent change in law having not retrospective effect can affect the previous litigation

a. True b. False




Subject: Intellectual Property Laws Paper: VI-VII (I)


Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Discuss briefly the enforcement problems of ensuring intellectual property rights in

Pakistan?

Q.No.2. What the term Trips stands for and when this was come into force? What were the

reasons for adoption of the Trips agreements?

Q.No.3. What is meant by copyright? What works are eligible for copyright and what kind of

benefits an author might get through copyright protections?

Q.No.4. What kinds of works are protected under copyright laws in Pakistan? How do copyright

differ from patents?

Q.No.5. Discuss the conditions for patentability under Patents Ordinance, 2000?

Q.No.6. How can an undertaking protect its trademark in Pakistan? Discuss


a. Artistic work b. Industrial Design c. Design

d. Legal Representative






Objective Part




i. A suit for infringement of trade mark may be filed under _____ of the Trade Marks Ordinance 2001

a. 105 b. 106 c. 117 d. 188

ii. To get copyright protection, it is necessary to get license from a government institution.

a. True b. False

iii. A suit for infringement of trade mark is filed in _________.

a. Supreme Court b. High Court c. District Magistrate d. District Court

iv. Patent provide property right to the inventor

a. True b. False

v. Which one is copyright violation?

a. A student photocopying a chapter of a book for academic purpose only

b. Reading a book without permission of the author c. Referring a book a friend

d. Downloading a movie from the internet without permission of the owner.

vi. When the Berne Convention was first adopted?

a. 1880 b. 1883 c. 1886 d. 1986

vii. Berne is a city of

a. Swizerland b. Scotland c. Turkey d. Germany

viii. The head quarter of Intellectual Property Organization of Pakistan is located at ________.

a. Karachi b. Lahore c. Gujranwala d. Islamabad

ix. How a company can protect its product name with unique identity?

a. Copyright b. Trade Mark c. Pateot d. None of these

x. When Paris Convention was first signed?

a. 1880 b. 1883 c. 1886 d. 1987

xi. An application for registration of trade mark can be filed to Registrar under section _______ of the

Trademarks Ordinance, 2001

a. 4 b. 12 c. 18 d. 22

xii. Patents are protected for a definite period?

a. True b. False

xiii. Copyrights are only available for computer programming?

a. True b. False

xiv. Movies are protected under copyrights.

a. True b. False

xv. Design protection is unlimited under Pakistani Laws?

a. True b. False

xvi. Patent right is a saleable property.

a. True b. False

xvii. Pakistan became member of WTO in the year ________.

a. 1995 b. 1997 c. 1947 d. 1999

xviii. Pakistan is a leading country in protecting intellectual property rights?

a. True b. False

xix. A particular design which has its unique distinction due to its colors combinations etc may be

protected under

a. Patent Laws b. Copyright Laws c. Trademark d. Design Laws

xx. Design protection is a right which is generated the moment one creates it?

a. True b. False




Subject: Environmental Law Paper: VI-VII (II)


Subjective Part


Q.No.1. What are the Source of Environment Law?

Q.No.2. What are the Islamic Provision on Environment Law?

Q.No.3. Write in Detail the national Biodiversity action plan?

Q.No.4. What is SAARC Law about Environmental protection?

Q.No.5. Analyze the provisions of constitution of 1973 about environment?

Q.No.6. What are the causes and prevention of environmental degradation?

Q.No.7. Write in detail the green-house effect and global warming?




Subject: Environmental Law Paper: VI-VII (II)


Objective Part




i. All living things and non-living things surrounding an organism are collectively called its

a. Pollution b. Agriculture c. Environment d. Resources

ii. The addition of unwanted and harmful materials in the environment is called

a. Pollution b. Habitat c. Climate d. Population

iii. The weather condition in an area in general, e.g. temperature, humidity, wind, rain etc is

a. Environment b. Climate c. Habitat d. Population

iv. The parts of over environment is

a. Air b. water c. land d. all of these

v. We need fresh air

a. Oxygen b. Carbon Dioxide c. Nitrogen d. Carbon Monoxide

vi. When fuel is burned in industries

a. Oxygen is produced b. Carbon dioxide is produced c. Nitrogen is produced

d. Carbon monoxide is produced

vii. Our earth is becoming hotter day by day due to

a. Air pollution b. land pollution c. water pollution d. None of these

viii. Global warming is

a. Rise in room temperature b. rise in earth temperature c. burning of fuel in industries

d. Cutting of trees

ix. Land pollution causes by

a. Dumping factory, waste and sewage in soil b. Not properly disposing of plastics

bags c. over use of pesticides and other chemicals

x. It is a major cause of pollution

a. Burning of fuels b. cutting of trees c. Garbage d. pesticides

xi. _______________ means spilling, leaking and pumping.

xii. _______________ means Pakistan Environmental Protection Council.

xiii. _______________ means any premises in which industrial activity is being under taken.

xiv. _______________ means a local council established under a law relating to local government.

xv. _______________ includes sewage, refuse garbage etc.

xvi. _______________ means the intensity, duration and character from all sources and includes

vibration.

xvii. _______________ means the person who proposes or intends to under-take a project.

xviii. Chloroflouro carbons is harmful to

a. Earth b. Ozone c. Air d. None of these

xix. A primary cause of acid rain is

a. Sulfur Dioxide b. Carbon Dioxide c. CFCFCs d. VOCs

xx. Skin cancer is due to

a. Ultraviolet radiation b. Carbon dioxide c. air pollution d. water pollution




Subject: Banking Laws Paper: VI-VII (IV)


Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Discuss the role and functions of the State Bank of Pakistan under the State Bank of

Pakistan Act 1956?

Q.No.2. Discuss briefly the salient features of the Banking Companies Ordinance 1962?

Q.No.3. Define the term „Modaraba‟ and discuss the procedure for registration of Modaraba

Companies under the Modaraba Companies and Modaraba (Floatation and Control)

Ordinance 1980?

Q.No.4. Discuss briefly the appointment, powers and functions of Banking Mohtasib under the

Banking Companies Ordinance 1962?

Q.No.5. Define „Endorsement‟ and discuss different kinds of endorsement under the Negotiable

Instruments Act 1881?

Q.No.6. Discuss essential requirements of an application for leave to defend as provided in S.

10 of the Financial Institutions (Recovery of Finances) Ordinance 2001?


a. Promissory Note b. Cheque

c. Bill of Exchange d. Banking Court






Objective Part




i. A person who is ordered to pay the amount specified in bill of exchange is called ______.

a. Holder b. Drawer c. Drawee d. Payee

ii. A banking company must be a company limited by guarantee.

a. True b. False

iii. A person in whose favour a promissory note is issued is called

a. Issuer b. Payee c. drawer d. Drawee

iv. Modarabe means a business in which all partners participate in the management.

a. True b. False

v. Assets of a bank may include

a. Moveable b. Immoveable c. Both

vi. A person to whom finance is extended by a financial institution is called _________.

a. Customer b. Client c. Account holder d. None of them

vii. Banking Courts are established under section _________ of the financial Institutions (recovery of

Finances) Ordinance 2001

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5

viii. Annual meeting of the shareholders of a bank is called __________.

a. Statutory Meeting b. Extra-ordinary general meeting c. Annual general meeting

ix. A negotiable instrument is of ________ types.

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

x. _________ means a bank for the time being included in the list of banks maintained under sub-

section (1) and section 37 of the State Bank of Pakistan 1956.

a. State Bank of Pakistan b. Scheduled Bank

xi. Head office of the state bank of Pakistan is situated in __________.

a. Lahore b. Gujranwala c. Islamabad d. Karachi

xii. Public company means a company which is not a private company.

a. True b. False

xiii. A cheque is a kind of bill of exchange.

a. True b. False

xiv. Shares in private company are freely transferable.

a. True b. False

xv. Shareholder in a company can be elected director in a company.

a. True b. False

xvi. Directors in a company are agents of the company.

a. True b. False

xvii. State Bank of Pakistan was established in

a. 1948 b. 1946 c. 1947 d. 1956

xviii. A cheque is a negotiable instrument.

a. True b. False

xix. There is not limit on the paid up capital of a bank under the State Bank of Pakistan Act 1956

a. True b. False

xx. Promissory note is also called Bank Draft.

a. True b. False






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Write comprehensive note on any four of the following:

a. Termination of employment b. Settlement c. Return

d. Work Council e. Shift working

Q.No.2. What is the procedure for cancellation of Registration of Trade Union under IRO 2002?

Q.No.3. What do you know about collecting bargaining agent?

Q.No.4. Rights and obligations of workers and employers are reciprocal explain it?

Q.No.5. What is the mode of appointment of Labour Court?

Q.No.6. What do you know about payment of Bonus?

Q.No.7. Define workman and its kinds under the standing order 1968?






Objective Part




i. Which Court can appoint Receiver official in case of lock up can damage the industry?

a. Civil Court b. Labour Court c. Special Court

ii. What section can deal the Arbitration in case of industrial dispute?

a. 31 b. 24 c. 23-B

iii. Who can appoint the conciliator u/s 27?

a. Fed. Govt. b. Prov. Govt. c. High Court

iv. What is limitation of Trade Union Return filling?

a. 2 year b. End of the year c. 6 month

v. Any trade union may apply for registration of union under which section?

a. 4 of IRA 2012 b. 5 c. 3

vi. Generally a person who seeks to enforce a claim must establish that he is entitled to claim is called

a. Worker b. Workman c. Locus standi

vii. The Limitation Period for filing of grievance petition before labour courts?


viii. A temporary workman is a workman who has been engaged for work to be finished within a period

a. 9 months b. One month c. 3 months

ix. Dependent means any of the relative of the deceased workman?

a. Widow b. Minor Son c. All of above

x. Labour laws are made for the benefits of?

a. Workers b. Employers c. both of all

xi. An Order of appellate court admitting or rejecting additional evidence is

a. Not appealable b. appealable c. both a & b

xii. Reference under order 46 Rule 1 of CPC related to

a. Question of Law b. Question of jurisdiction of the Court c. None of these

xiii. Service of a permanent or temporary workman shall not be terminated on the ground of misconduct

otherwise than in the manner prescribed in?

a. Standing order 11 b. standing order 15 c. standing order 10

xiv. In lieu of notice of termination, one month‟s wages shall be paid to

a. Employer b. workman c. Registrar

xv. Legal disability is a disability, which can be enforced by law?

a. True b. False c. Not applicable

xvi. Strike or lock-out in public utility services quote the relevant section

a. 32 of IRO 2002 b. 41 of PIRA 2010 c. Both a & b

xvii. Lock-out is a right of employer?

a. Federal Govt. b. Provincial Govt. c. Employer

xviii. Effect of non-compliance of order of labour court or High Court with in one month or such period

as specified in such order or decision, the defaulter shall be punishable?

a. With five thousand and punishment of 6 month b. with five which may extend to ten

thousand rupees c. with five thousand rupees and punishment of 6 months

xix. The NIRC may initiate prosecution, trail or proceedings or take action with regard to any matter

a. Of its own notion b. on the application of a party c. both a & b

xx. Registrar has to maintain a register for the purpose of registration and register the trade in it

a. True b. False






Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Write short notes on any four of the following:

i. FBR ii. Chief Commissioner Inland Revenue iii. Set off (Off set)

iv. Transitional Advance Tax v. Group Taxation vi. Tax year

Q.No.2. What are different mod of recovery of income tax under income tax ordinance 2001?

Q.No.3. What is the difference between Capital Expenditure and business Expenditure?

Q.No.4. Discuss definition of appeal and procedure of appeal to the Commissioner of appeal?

Q.No.5. Enumerate different heads iof income and state the principles relating to charge of tax

under various heads of income in detail?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Explain the provision relating to suspension and black listing of registration?

Q.No.7. Explain in detail the terms “Adjudication” under Sales Tax Act 1990?






Objective Part




i. Any income derived as rent revenue or from sales of any produce which is grown on a Pakistan

Land is______________.

a. Dividend Income b. Agricultural Income c. Business Income

ii. A deduction as withdrawal from bank exceed ___________ thousand Rupees is called deduction on

cash withdrawal from Bank u/s 231 A (1).

a. Thirty b. Twenty five c. Fifty

iii. The _______ Income Tax has the power to extend the date for furnishing the return

a. Inland Revenue Officer b. Commissioner c. Judge High Court

iv. The rate of depreciation on all type of building is __________.

a. 20% b. 10% c. 15%

v. Nature of the form used for the Sales tax registration is ________.

a. STR-5 b. STR-1 c. STR-3

vi. Wealth Statement is required to be filed under section __________.

a. 114 b. 116 c. 120

vii. For the cases of Flour Mills the rate of minimum tax on the amount representing their annual

turnover under section 113 shall be ________.

a. 75% b. 20% c. 50%

viii. Deduction of tax on Prize on Prize bond is __________ of liability.

a. Adjustable against liability b. Final discharge

ix. Amounts earned by laborers and artisans normally payable or hourly, daily or piece work basis is

called ______________.

a. Pension b. wages c. Gratuity

x. According to section _________ is Deduction of tax from the income of property.

a. 221 b. 155 c. 153

xi. All expenditure benefiting business for along term period are called ____________.

a. Personal Expenditure b. Capital Expenditure

xii. __________ of a person for tax year be the total income of the person for the year as reduced by

any deductible allowances. However the taxable income should not be less than zero.

a. Family Income b. Taxable Income

xiii. Penalty for fallure of filing of return of income is 1/10 of one percent of the tax payable for each

day of default and minimum __________ of tax payable.

a. 50% b. 25% c. 70%

xiv. Appeal against the order of the commissioner or any other taxation office is filed before the

a. Civil Judge b. commissioner (Appeal) c. Judge of High Court

xv. Under section 234A the gas marketing companies shall deduct tax @ ___ of the amount of gas bill.

a. 15% b. 4% c. 10%

xvi. Period for filling of appeal before the appellate tribunal is __________ days.

a. 30 b. 60 c. 90

xvii. After 01-07-2007 the highest executive authority of income tax in Pakistan is called ______.

a. Chief Commissioner b. Federal Board of Revenue c. Chief Justice

xviii. The Commissioner or the assesse can file reference to the high court under section 133 against the

decision of __________.

a. Appeal Commissioner b. Appellate Tribunal c. Inland Revenue Officer

xix. Penalty for assesse who fail to maintain accounts, penalty can be imposed on such person Rs.

___________ or 5 % of the amount of tax on income whichever is higher.

a. 5000 b. 10000 c. 20000

xx. Commissioner means a person appointed as Commissioner of income Tax under section ______

a. 177 b. 208 c. 147






Subjective Part

Note: Attempt Four Question in all in English selecting Two form Part-I, One question each


Part-I (The Punjab Land Revenue Act 1967)

Q.No.1. Describe the procedure of announcement of assessment of land revenue by the Revenue

officer?

Q.No.2. How the arrear of land Revenue is recovered through sale of holding?

Q.No.3. Define and explain the following:

i. Rent ii. Tenant iii. Agriculture year

iv. Estate v. Irrigated land

Part-II (The Punjab Tenancy Act 1887)

Q.No.4. Write any four disputes triable by the Revenue Court?

Q.No.5. What is meant by tenant? Describe its various classes?

Part-III (The Punjab Pre-Emption Act 1991)

Q.No.6. What is meant by demands? How it is exercised before filing the suit?

Q.No.7. How joint right of pre-Emption may be exercised and what method would be adopted

for the distribution of property, where more than one persons are equally entitled?






Objective Part




i. Agriculture year commences on

a. 1st Jan b. 1

st July c. 1

st June

ii. Irrigated land means

a. Irrigated by rains b. Irrigated by flood c. Irrigated by Canal

iii. Power to partition land is exercised by

a. Assistant collector 1st grade b. Collector c. Commissioner

iv. Limitation for filing revision before Board of Revenue


v. All mines and minerals will be property of

a. Provincial government b. Local government c. central government

vi. The following land owner is exempted from payment of land revenue if he owns

a. Irrigated land not exceeding 12 Acres b. Irrigated land not exceeding 10 Acres

c. Irrigated land not exceeding 25 Acres

vii. Special assessment may be made in the following cases

a. When ownership is changed b. Proposal for change the form of assessment

c. When head man dies.

viii. Under what section mutation is sanctioned

a. 39 b. 42 c. 45

ix. Under what section tanant from year to year by notice is ejected.

a. 40 b. 45 c. 49

x. Limitation for appeal under Punjab tenancy act 1887 before the collector is


xi. Revenue court under Punjab tenancy act 1887 has power to try following disputes

a. Suits by land lord to eject tanant b. Application under section 31 by tanant to deposit

rent c. Application under section 17 with respect to the division or appraisement of produce

xii. The right of preemption exits in case of

a. Gift b. Exchange c. Sale

xiii. Method of distribution of property when more than one person are equally entitled

a. According to quantity of land owned by them b. Equally distributed

c. According to law of inheritance

xiv. With period talba-1-Ishhed is sent from the date of knowledge

a. 3 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 4 weeks

xv. Limitation for filing preemption suits is

a. 4 months b. 3 months c. 6 months

xvi. A estate means an area

a. Which has been separately accessed b. which has separate head man

c. Which has separate revenue officer

xvii. When question of title is decided by the revenue officer as Civil Court appeal lies to

a. Collector b. commissioner c. district judge

xviii. Under what provision preemption act 1991 market value of property is determined

a. 24 b. 8 c. 28

xix. Under what section holding is transfer for recovery of arrear of Land Revenue

a. 82 b. 84 c. 90

xx. Who can hear appeal against the mutation?

a. Commissioner b. District Collector c. Sub Divisional Collector






Subjective Part

Note: Attempt any four questions in English. Selecting One question from Part-I, Three

questions from Part-II. All questions carry equal marks. All questions attempt in English.

Part-I

Q.No.1. Once an Arbitrator has been appointed, his authority cannot be revoked except on

certain conditions? Discuss

Q.No.2. Define the followings

i. Legal Representative ii. Umpire

iii. Arbitrator iv. Reference

Part-II

Q.No.3. Under what provision of law, the value of certain suits can be determine by High

Court?

Q.No.4. Under what provision of law, valuation of relief in certain suits relating to land not to

exceed the valuation of land?

Q.No.5. Courts power with regard to decision of question as to valuation? Discuss

Q.No.6. Describe the refund of fee paid on memorandum of appeal?

Q.No.7. Describe the rights of tenant if a landlord fails to perform his obligations with regard

necessary repairs of the rented property?






Objective Part




i. An arbitration agreement __________ discharged by the death of any party.

a. Can be b. shall be c. shall not be

ii. Award means decision of __________.

a. Parties b. Arbitrator c. Court

iii. Umpire or arbitrator ___________ sign the award.

a. Shall b. may c. do not

iv. The Court deals with the powers to appoint the arbitrator or umpire under section ________.

a. 6 b. 8 c. 151

v. After making the award, it shall be signed by the ____________.

a. Suits b. Court c. parties

vi. Court fee value and jurisdictional value to be the same in certain ___________.

a. Suits b. Applications c. Appeals

vii. The suit valuation Act 1887 deals with __________.

a. Territorial jurisdiction b. Jurisdiction of Court c. Pecuniary Jurisdiction

viii. The law of court fee consist ___________ sections.

a. 30 b. 33 c. 36

ix. ____________ court has powers to determine the value of certain suits.

a. High b. District c. Civil

x. Computation of fee payable with regard suits has been given in the _____________.

a. Stamp Act b. Suit valuation c. Court Fee Act

xi. The term ad valorem means ___________.

a. According to subject b. according to value c. both of them

xii. When the court has reason to believe that the suit has not been properly valued then it must decide

_________________.

a. With his own discretion b. with the help of party c. with judicial inquiry

xiii. The suit for money is exempted for levy of court fee _____________.

a. Rs. 25000/- b. Rs. 50000/- c. Rs. 150000/-

xiv. The Punjab rent restriction ordinance is to regulate the relationship between __________.

a. Court and the litigant b. Family members c. Landlord and tenant

xv. A building being used solely for the purpose of business or trade is called _______ building

a. Residential b. Commercial c. Non-residential

xvi. “Ad valorem” is a _____________ term.

a. Latin b. French c. Greek

xvii. A landlord who seeks to evict his tenant shall apply to the _________ for direction in that behalf

a. District court b. Civil court c. Rent

xviii. The Court Fee Act 1870 shall extend to the ___________.

a. Khyber Pakhtoon Khan and Punjab b. Sindh and Balochistan c.

Whole of the Pakistan

xix. A tenant shall pay the rent to the landlord according to __________.

a. Monthly b. Yearly c. the tenancy agreement

xx. A tenant is bound to use the premises __________.

a. According to tenancy agreement b. according to trends c. according to his

own wishes.






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Comment on the rights of REFUGEES guaranteed by International Law?

Q.No.2. Define TERRORIMS. Discuss in detail its affect on society in Pakistan?

Q.No.3. Discuss the role of UN in solving International Problems?

Q.No.4. What are different steps taken by UN in order to eradicate discrimination against

women?

Q.No.5. Discuss different types of HUMAN RIGHTS recognized by Islam?

Q.No.6. What are the RIGHTS available to the individuals under the Universal Declaration of

HUMAN RIGHTS?

Q.No.7. What is Universal Declaration of Human Rights?






Objective Part




i. Death penalty in murder and rape cases is justifiable in


ii. The fundamental right of any person recognized by UNO is


iii. The great example of equality of humanity by Prophet (PBUH) related to


iv. Invasion in Afghanistan and Iraq transpires double standard Regarding Human Rights of

a. USA b. Pakistan c. Brazil

v. The term “child” does not necessarily mean minor but can include

a. Adult children b. Teenagers c. Both

vi. Children have the right in international law adequate standard of


vii. International court of justice was established in


viii. International court of justice role is to settle legal disputes submitted to it by


ix. Women rights are the rights and entitlements claimed for women and girls of many societies


x. The right of casting vote was firstly given to women by


xi. Refugees comprise a category of


xii. All human being are born free and equal in dignity and rights. Describe in



xiii. Slavery and the slave trade shall be prohibited in all their forms defined in universal declaration or

human rights under article.

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6

xiv. Every one changed with a penal offence has the right to be presumed

a. Guilty b. accused c. innocent

xv. The human rights Act, 1998 is an act of parliament of


xvi. Universal declaration of human rights is a common standard of achievement for


xvii. The universal declaration of human rights is passed by

a. UNO b. UK c. USA

xviii. Refugees comprise a category of


xix. Equality cannot be assumed unless all human being belong to the same


xx. In Islam any person has a right to defend himself for fair

a. Trial b. Inquiry c. Both



LLB Part-III Supplementary, 2014

Subject: Law of Civil Procedure Paper: I


Objective Part




i. Moveable property includes

a. Construction of a house b. Growing Crops

ii. Res judicata is provided by the CPC in

a. Section 10 b. Section 11 c. Section 12

iii. Suit regarding immovable property shall be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose

jurisdiction

a. The property is situate b. The party resides c. The plaintiff desire

iv. A civil suit can be transferred under

a. S. 24 b. S. 34 c. S. 44

v. A precept is issued for

a. Arrest of judgment debtor b. Attachment of property of Judgment debtor

vi. First appeal is filed against decree under

a. S. 96 b. S. 100 c. S. 104

vii. S. 114 CPC deals with

a. Appeal b. Review c. Revision

viii. Limitation for a revision filed by a party is


ix. The high court may make rules under

a. S. 111 b. S. 122 c. S. 133

x. Orders and notices to be

a. Oral b. in writing c. oral or in writing

xi. The court has discretion to enlarge time under

a. S. 48 b. S. 144 c. S. 148

xii. Parties may be added or struck at any time under

a. Order 1 Rule 10 b. Order 11 Rule 10 c. Order 21 Rule 10

xiii. A service on a defendant who cannot be found may be effected on

a. Wife b. Servant c. Brother

xiv. A pleading may be amended

a. Before written statement b. before judgment c. at any stage

xv. Rejection of plaint is provided in

a. O 7 R 11 b. O 8 R 10 c. O 13 R 10

xvi. Both parties are absent and suit is dismissed, a fresh suit

a. Can be filed b. cannot be filed

xvii. An ex parte decree may be set aside under

a. O 9 R 13 b. O 13 R 2 c. O 17 R 4

xviii. Agent for Government to receive process is

a. Government pleader b. SHO c. Tehsildar

xix. A person acting for minor plaintiff is called

a. Guardian for the suit b. next friend

xx. A person who has no means to pay court fees is called

a. Lunatic b. Poor Man c. A pauper






Subjective Part

Note: Attempt FOUR questions from Part-I, One question from Part-II. All questions carry


Part-I (Code of Civil Procedure)

Q.No.1. A court can issue commissions. What are conditions and limitations?

Q.No.2. What are the grounds for revision and which court is competent to hear revision?

Q.No.3. A second appeal can be preferred in High Court but on what grounds?

Q.No.4. What are the provisions for substituted service of summon?

Q.No.5. What particulars a plaint shall contain?

Q.No.6. In execution proceedings what are the provisions for arrest and detention of judgment

debtor in prison?

Q.No.7. Which are the suits called summary suits filed under Order 37 CPC?

Q.No.8. The parties to an appeal shall not be entitled to produce additional evidence in appellate

court but the appellate court may allow? In what circumstances?


Q.No.9. Prescribed period of limitation for a suit expires on a day when the court is closed.

What is the provision in this regard?

Q.No.10. What is the effect of acknowledgement in writing on period of limitation?






Objective Part




i. Complain means the allegation made orally or in writing to a _______.

a. Police Office b. Magistrate c. Revenue Officer

ii. Beside High Court how many classes of criminal courts are in Pakistan

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8

iii. Justice of Peace is appointed by

a. Provincial govt. b. Federal govt. c. F.P.S.C

iv. Magistrate of 3rd

class can pass sentence of

a. One month b. 2 months c. 4 months

v. The power of H.C under section 491 is

a. Compulsory b. Discretionary c. Limited d. Unlimited

vi. Who may transfer case U/S 526

a. High Court b. Provincial court c. Session Judge

vii. Who may file appeal U/S 417

a. Provincial Govt. b. Complainant c. Any aggrieved person d. all above

viii. What is the forum for ball before arrest?

a. High Court b. Session Court c. Both of above

ix. Confession to be

a. Points b. Full c. in parts d. all of above

x. Lunatic means

a. Minor b. Insane c. insolvent d. all

xi. Section 439 and 439A deals with

a. Appeal b. review c. revision d. none

xii. Attempt to commit suicide is

a. Bail able b. not bail able c. both

xiii. Total number of sections in Cr. P. C

a. 562 b. 563 c. 564 d. 565

xiv. 489-F is trial by

a. Court of session b. Magistrate 1st class c. Magistrate 2

nd Class d. Magistrate 3

rd class

xv. Section 155 deals with

a. Cognizable b. non cognizable c. both

xvi. In schedule II column 2 represent

a. Section b. offence c. bail able or non-bail able

xvii. What is mode of searching woman?

a. By man b. by woman c. by child d. all

xviii. Judicial Magistrate are appointed by govt. U/S

a. 12 b. 13 c. 14 d. 15

xix. The act was enforced on

a. 22 January 1898 b. 22 March 1898 c. 22 April 1898 d. 22 June 1898

xx. Every summon shall be in the forum of

a. Writing b. duplicate c. signed and sealed d. all of above






Subjective Part




Q.No.1. Write detail notes on the following:

i. Inquiry b. Investigation c. Trial d. Place

Q.No.2. How can an accused person be compelled to appear before the court?

Q.No.3. What is public Nuisance? What is the procedure for its removal?

Q.No.4. State power of Magistrate or a police officer in dispersing the unlawful assembly?

Q.No.5. What are essential elements of charge? How it is framed?


Q.No.6. What is D.N.A? Who can obtain sample for D.N.A?

Q.No.7. What is Medico Legal Report?






Objective Part




i. Identification parade can only be conducted under article


ii. The term “Resgestae” has been explained under article

a. 19 b. 15 c. 18 d. 17

iii. A retracted confession can become basis of conviction


iv. Can a lay main is competent to record dying declaration

a. Yes b. No

v. Leading question has been defined under article

a. 136 b. 130 c. 135 d. 129

vi. When plea of Alibi can be taken at any stage


vii. Under what article confession before police is not admissible

a. 37 b. 38 c. 40 d. 41

viii. Art 46 of Qanun-e-Shahadat defines

a. Hearsay evidence b. dying declaration c. confession

ix. Extra judicial confession is made under article

a. 40 b. 41 c. 37 d. 22

x. A child can be a competent witness under article

a. 3 b. 4 c. 7 d. 5

Write Before the question, True of False.

xi. The estoppels in article 114 of Qanon-e-Shahadat order 1984 is an estoppels by pais. T / F

xii. Statement of a party not cross examined by other party, such statement would be presumed to be

admitted by other party. T / F

xiii. Documents which are not covered under article 85 of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984 are called

semipublic doeumen. T / F

xiv. Contents of a document under article 70 Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984 cannot be proved oral

evidence. T / F

xv. Facts of which the judicial notice is to be taken are stated in article 111 of Qanoon-e-Shahadat

order 1984. T / F

xvi. Dying declaration has no evidentiary value. T / F

xvii. Alibi plea means admission. T / F

xviii. An admission is not conclusive proof. T / F

xix. The court can take judicial notice of any fact it likes. T / F

xx. Any party can re-examine its witness at its sweet will. T / F






Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. What do you understand by the term “Estoppels”? Discuss upon its kinds with detail?

Q.No.2. What is “a leading question” who can ask such a question?

Q.No.3. What is presumption, how many types it is, what are the sources?

Q.No.4. Write a short note:

a. Dying declaration b. Documentary evidence c. Primary evidence

Q.No.5. Explain the term “Judicial Notice” state the facts of which the court can take judicial

notice?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Discuss the required behavior of an advocate towards court?

Q.No.7. Explain and discuss upon “Legal Ethics” state the location between law and ethic?






Objective Part




i. Civil Court has Jurisdiction to hear case of criminal? Yes / No

ii. Document of “will” which registration is compulsory. Yes / No

iii. Void document is not enforceable by law. Yes / No

iv. A minor can file a suit without next friend. Yes / No

v. Pleading shall contain evidence. Yes / No

vi. Suit under O 37 may be file in court of Senior Civil Judge. Yes / No

vii. Facts admitted need not to be proved. Yes / No

viii. All suits can be filed before family court. Yes / No

ix. Gift can be revoked by doner in his life time. Yes / No

x. Decree mean the judgment of a foreign court. Yes / No

xi. There are 145 sections of civil procedure code. Yes / No

xii. Civil procedure code extends to Punjab only. Yes / No

xiii. Whether consent decree is appeal able. Yes / No

xiv. Second appeal can be filed before District Judge. Yes / No

xv. Revision come under the preview of section 115 CPC. Yes / No

xvi. Second appeal can be filed on question of law. Yes / No

xvii. Revision can be filed before High Court and District Court. Yes / No

xviii. Under O 7 R 11 CPC Court can reject the suit. Yes / No

xix. Documentary Evidence to be produced at later stage. Yes / No

xx. Against ex parte decree appeal cannot be filed. Yes / No






Subjective Part

Note: Attempt any FIVE questions in all. Selecting at least Two questions from Part-I and part-

II each. Both English and Urdu are the medium of Examination in this paper. Candidates

must attempt one question in Urdu from each part. All questions carry equal marks.

Part-I

Q.No.1. What is deed? Enumerate its essentials?

ر ایک ےہ؟ اس ےک ول از امت ایبم رک ںی؟ داتسوب

Q.No.2. A Contract of sale, house made? What are the duties and liabilities of parties?

ر اضئ اور ذہم دارن اں ایک ںیہ؟

ر نیقی ےک ف

ا ےہ؟ ف

ت

اعمدہہ عیب ےسیک لمع ںیم ان

Q.No.3. Write a detailed note on power of Attorney?

اہم رپ ای یلیضفت ون ٹ ںیھکل؟

اتخمر ن

Q.No.4. Draft a sale deed of Agricultural land?

ر رک ںی؟ ا ہم رحتب

عیب ن

ت

زریع ارایض یک ن ان

Q.No.5. Draft a divorce deed on the basis of “Khula”?

ر رک ںی؟ ا ہم رحت ب

ع یک انب رپ الط ق ن

ل

خ

Part-II

Q.No.6. Write notes on the Following:

i. Pleading ii. Legal Pleas iii. Material Facts iv. Cause of Action

ر رک ںی۔ در ج ذلی رپ ون ٹ رحت ب

۔ ابن ےئ دوع ی ۴ ۔ رضوری وااعقت ۳ ۔ اقون ین اقن ط ۲ ۔ ڈیلپ زگن۱

Q.No.7. Draft a suit for Jactitation of marriage?

ر رک ںی؟ دوع ی اکن ح رحت ب

ذکتن

Q.No.8. Draft a suit for declaration on the basis of Oral Gift of a house?

ر رک ںی؟دوع ی و اکم رحت ب

ت

ارقتسار قح رپ انب ھب ہ زن این ن ان

Q.No.9. What is Plaint? Describe its necessary contents with detail?

الزیم دنم راجت لیصفت ےس ایبم رک ںی؟ایک ےہ؟ اس ےک دوع ی

Q.No.10. Draft a suit for specific performance of contract for sale of commercial plot measuring

1 Marla?

ر رک ںی؟دوع ی ر ہبق ای رم ہل رحت ب رمک لش الپ ٹ ب

ت

لیمکت اعمدہہ صتخم عیب ن ان




Subject: Interpretation of Statutes Paper: V


Objective Part




i. A later statute may repeal can earlier one either expressly or by implication.

a. True b. False

ii. Repeal by implication is not favoured by the courts.

a. True b. False

iii. If two sections of the same statute are repugnant the known rule is that the first must prevail.

a. True b. False

iv. A foreign ambassador (as well as foreign sovereigns and public property) are not subject to the

jurisdiction of the Courts of other countries according to general international law:

a. True b. False

v. A civil court has inherent power to do justice under section 115 of CPC.

a. True b. False

vi. Function of court is

a. To make law b. to interpret law c. both a & b

vii. The key to open the minds of law makers is

a. Heading b. Preamble c. Title d. Rule

viii. 1st appeal cannot operate to prevent or hinder the performance of the statutory duty which is

intended to be performed for the benefit of the public.

a. True b. False

ix. Consent cannot give jurisdiction.

a. True b. False

x. It is said that the best exposition of statute or any other document is that which it has received from

contemporary authority.

a. True b. False

xi. Commission of crime some blame worthy state of mind on the part of the actor calls mens rea

a. True b. False

xii. Historical prospective is only sufficient to interpretation of statute.

a. True b. False

xiii. Criminal can excise their inherent powers under section 151 CPC.

a. True b. False

xiv. Section 15 of General Clauses Act attracted only a case of appointment of a person by competent

authority.

a. True b. False

xv. Interpretation of statute must be according to the context of statute.

a. True b. False

xvi. In case of ambiguity in a penal statute benefits.

a. Complainant b. Accused c. both a & b d. None

xvii. Exception 26 of General Clauses Act provides no bar to trial or conviction for the same trial

a. True b. False

xviii. The will of the legislature is called statute

a. True b. False

xix. Main objects of the act are called preamble.

a. True b. False

xx. The notes found printed at the site of the section in an act used as an aid to construction are ealled

marginal notes.

a. True b. False






Subjective Part

Note: Attempt FOUR questions from Part-I, One question from Part-II. All questions carry


Part-I

Q.No.1. Write short note on each of the following:

i. Title ii. Interpretation iii. Headings

iv. Preamble v. Marginal Notes

Q.No.2. What is

i. Doctrine of Pith and Substance

ii. Doctrine of Judicial Precedence

Q.No.3. What are general principles for construction of statutes?

Q.No.4. Explain term “proviso”, “explanation” and “repel”. Discuss in detail their scope and

effect?

Q.No.5. Define “literal construction” and “mischief rule”. Discuss in detail

Q.No.6. What is golden rule of interpretation of statures? Discuss in detail

Q.No.7. Write note on

i. Codifying the statutes

ii. Consolidating the statutes

Q.No.8. What are the component parts of the statutes?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Can an offender be punished twice for the same offence? And if not, discuss the rules

referring relevant provision of Law?

Q.No.7. Define the followings:

i. Affidavit ii. Rule iii. Oath iv. Will




Subject: Intellectual Property Laws Paper: VI-VII (i)


Objective Part




i. The certificate of Registration of copy right is issued from

a. Copyrights office b. Trademarks office c. Patent Office

ii. The application of registration of Trademarks shall be forwarded to

a. Copyrights office b. Patent office c. Trademarks Office

iii. The Chairman of copyright Board shall be a person who may qualify for judge of

a. Civil Court b. High Court c. Sessions Court

iv. Trademark is a property.

a. Yes b. No

v. The Trademark is registered under section 35 of Trademark ordinance 2001.

a. Yes b. No

vi. The registration of Trademark is registered for

a. Yes b. No

vii. Initially the Trademarks is registered for


viii. The trademark ordinance was promulgated in

a. 2010 b. 2001 c. 2000

ix. The copyright of Govt. is protected for

a. 20 years b. 25 years c. None a & b

x. The artistic work is protected under

a. Copyright Laws b. Design Laws c. both a & b

xi. Under the copyright ordinance, 1962 the word “Lecture” includes

a. Address b. Speech c. Samon d. all above

xii. Product means

a. Substance & article b. apparatus & machine c. both a & b

xiii. WTO stands for

a. World Tariff Organization b. World Technical Organ c. World Trade Organization

xiv. The head Office of PIPA is in


xv. The patent Ordinance 2000 is applicable throughout


xvi. Application for the registration of Trademark is moved under section

a. 22 b. 24 c. 42

xvii. Whether a foreigner can apply for registration of Trademarks in Pakistan?

a. Yes b. No

xviii. Person means

a. Natural person b. Juristic person c. both

xix. The copyright is protected for

a. 50 years b. 25 years c. Forever

xx. The main purpose of Paris convention was the protection of

a. Copyrights b. patent right c. Industrial property right






Subjective Part

Note: Attempt four question in English. Question No. 1 is compulsory. All questions carry equal

marks.

Q.No.1. Define Five of the following:

i. Convention country ii. Exclusive License iii. Patentee

iv. Architectural work of Art v. Design vi. Domain Name

vii. Comparative advertisement viii. Advertising ix. Dramatic Work

Q.No.2. Write down the basic features of patents cooperation Treaty?

Q.No.3. How can a person register trademark? Discuss

Q.No.4. What do you know about procedure for obtaining a design protections, its terms and

renewal?

Q.No.5. What type of privileges are available after acquiring patent rights?

Q.No.6. Under which Laws Dramatic work is protected and how?

Q.No.7. What is infringement of registration of Trade mark? Discuss




Subject: Environmental Law Paper: VI-VII (ii)


Objective Part




i. _______ means standard establish by the Federal Agency.

a. National Environmental Quality Standard b. Noise c. both a & b

d. None of above

ii. Persons means

a. Natural Person b. Legal Person c. both a & b d. None of above

iii. ______ means any activity plan, scheme, proposal involving any change in environments

a. Project b. Pollution c. both a & b d. None of above

iv. Vessel includes anything made for conveyance by

a. Water of Human being b. Goods c. both a & b d. None of above

v. _______ means any substance that causes pollution of air

a. Air pollutant b. Pollution c. both a & b d. None of above

vi. The functions of the Federal Agency are

a. Administer and Implement the Act b. Prepare the annual National Environmental

Report c. both a & b d. None of above

vii. _______ means liquid or semi-solid wastes is called

a. Sewage b. Waste c. both a & b d. None of above

viii. _______ means the intensity, duration and character of sounds from all sources is called

a. Noise b. Nuclear Waste c. both a & b d. None of above

ix. Discharge means


x. _________ means a dynamic complex of plant, animal and micro-organism

a. Ecosystem b. Effluent c. both a & b d. None of above

xi. ________ means waste from farm and agricultural activities.

a. Agriculture Waste b. Building c. Factory d. Municipal Waste

xii. _______ means the variability among living organisms from all sources.

a. Discharge b. Biodiversity c. Pollution d. Environment

xiii. Pakistan Environmental Protection Agency is called


xiv. Hazardous waste means the waste includes

a. Hospital Waste b. Nuclear Waste c. both a & b d. None of above

xv. Industrial waste means waste resulting from

a. Industrial Activity b. Local Activity c. both a & b d. None of above

xvi. Initial Environmental Examination means

a. Preliminary Environmental Review b. Final Decision c. both a & b d. None

xvii. __________ means any person who proposes a project.

a. Proponent b. Person c. Director d. None of above

xviii. The power to make rules & regulations is with the

a. Federal Agency b. Provincial Agency b. both a & b d. None of above

xix. An Environmental Magistrate will be


nd Class Magistrate c. both a & b d. None of above

xx. The Chairperson of Environmental Tribunal will be

a. A Judge of the High Court b. Technical Member c. both a & b d. None of above






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Write the provisions regarding Environmental Law as per Constitution of Pakistan

1973?

Q.No.2. Write in detail on the following:


Q.No.3. Write role of the following organization:

i. SACEP ii. UNEP

Q.No.4. What do you know about procedure for obtaining a design protections, its terms and

renewal?

Q.No.5. Define

i. Environment ii. Ecosystem iii. Biodiversity

iv. Agriculture Waste v. Factory

Q.No.6. Write note on Environmental Tribunals?

Q.No.7. Discuss the institutional infrastructure with reference to environmental protection?




Subject: Banking Law Paper: VI-VII (iii)


Objective Part




i. Under State Bank of Pakistan Act, 1956, “Central Board” means the central board of __of the Bank

a. Members b. Employees c. Directors

ii. A judge of banking court, not being a district judge can be appointed for a term of _____ years

from the date on which he enter upon his office

a. Three b. Four c. Five d. Six

iii. Reply to application for leave to defend should be in form of _________.

a. Written Statement b. Replication c. Petition d. Set off

iv. A person transacting the business for the purpose of lending or investment, of deposits of money

from the public repayable on demand.

a. Businessman b. Servant c. Banker d. All of them

v. The person named in the instrument, to whom or to whose order the money is by the instrument,

detected to be paid, is called __________.

a. Acceptor b. Drawer c. Payee

vi. Obligation includes ____________.

a. Any agreement for repayment b. Extension of time in repayment of finance

c. For restructuring or renewal or for payment of finance d. all of above

vii. ________ is bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not expressed to be payable

otherwise then on demand.

a. Promissory Note b. Cheque c. bill of exchange d. None of them

viii. Maker of a bill of exchanger or cheque is called _________.

a. Drawer b. Drawee c. Mortgagor

ix. Mortgage means transfer of an interest in specific ______ property for purpose of securing payment

of mortgage money.

a. Immoveable b. Moveable c. Incorporeal d. Corporeal

x. Promissory note is like a cheque.

a. Agree b. Disagree c. Often d. Note of them

xi. Bill of exchange is alternate of cheque.

a. Agree b. Disagree c. some times d. None of them

xii. After expiry of due date given in final notice, financial institution can _______ intervention of any

court, sell mortgaged property or any of its part.

a. With b. without c. both a & b d. None of them

xiii. Which type is called the asserts of bank.

a. Moveable b. Immovable c. Both d. None of them

xiv. Under State Bank of Pakistan Act, 1956, “Annual General Meeting” means the annual meeting of

the _______ of the Bank.

a. Share Holders b. Directors c. promoters

xv. Under State Bank of Pakistan Act, 1956, “Member” means a member for the time being of ____.

a. Central Board b. Boards of Directors c. Local Boards

xvi. In the business of floating and managing modarba.

a. Modarba Company b. Banking company c. Private Company

xvii. In the suit for recovery of amount through sale of any mortgaged or pledged or hypothecated or

assigned property, banking courts can ________ such property.

a. Attach b. Fix c. Mention d. Mark

xviii. Which company shares can freely transferable?

a. Public Company b. Private Company c. both a & b d. None of above

xix. Banking Montasib shall be appointed by five ___________.

a. Prime Minister b. President c. Governor State Bank

xx. Partners are ________ of the Firm.

a. Owners b. Employers c. Agents d. None of above






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Write a note on Provision relating to offences and penalties to unauthorized issue of

Bills and Bank Notes under State Bank of Pakistan Act 1956?

Q.No.2. Discuss the circumstances under which a Modaraba Company may be wound up

according to Modaraba Companies and Modarba (Floation and Control) Ordinance,

1980?

Q.No.3. Write a note on the procedure to file a suit in the Banking court under the Financial

Institution (Recovery of Finance) Ordinance, 2001?

Q.No.4. Write short notes on the following:

a. Liquid Asserts of Banking Company b. Promissory Note

Q.No.5. What are the prescribed Procedure and eligibility condition for registration as

Modaraba under the Modaraba Companies and Modarba (Floation and Control)

Ordinance, 1980?

Q.No.6. Write a note on Negotiable Instruments and their essential characteristics under the

Negotiable Instruments Acts, 1881?

Q.No.7. How appointment and procedure for making complaints to Banking Mohtasib is made

under the Banking Companies Ordinance, 1962?




Subject: Labour Law Paper: VI-VII (iv)


Objective Part




i. The period of a notice of lock out or strike given under sub section 3 of section 35 of Industrial

Relations Act 2012 shall be _________.


ii. Where in case of strike or lockout an application is made to the Commission, an award of the

commission shall not be more than _________.

a. One year b. Two years c. Six years

iii. According to section 53 of Industrial Relations Act, 2012 the Commission shall consist of not less

than _______ full time members including Chairman.

a. 2 full time members b. 10 full time members c. 5 full members

iv. A full bench of the commission shall consist of not less than _________ of the commission.

a. 2 members b. 3 members c. 10 members

v. Labor colonies will be established by the developing _______ houses for allotment to the workers.

a. 100,000 b. 200,000 c. 300,000

vi. Appeal against decision of registrar can be filed before the commissioner with in __________.


vii. Profit means the net profit as defined in ________.

a. Companies Ordinance, 1984 b. Workman Compensation Act, 1923 c. Lahore 2010

viii. According to Factories Act, 1934 week means period of ________.


ix. Appeal against the Order of Inspector may be filed to the Govt. within ________.


x. Different kinds of works men have been described in ________.

a. Standing Order, 1968 b. Standing Order, 1971 c. Standing 1975

xi. Application of ILO convention on equal remuneration _________.

a. 1951 b. 1961 c. 1971

xii. Work in factory for more than _______ in any day.

a. 9 hours b. 6 hours c. 12 hours

xiii. The payment of wages Act was enacted in ____________.

a. 1938 b. 1968 c. 1936

xiv. Women workers will benefit from the application of ILO Convention on Equal Remuneration, 1951

(No. 100), ratified by Pakistan in _________.

a. 2005 b. 2001 c. 1980

xv. Adult and minor means a person who is not and a person who is under the age of ________.


xvi. The registration of workers will be linked with _______ issued by NADRA.

a. Benazir cards b. Smart cards c. Nobel cards

xvii. Labor laws are made for the benefits of __________.

a. Workers b. Employers c. both workers & employers

xviii. To constitute a Works Council in a Factory there should be at least ________ or more workmen

employed or previously employed on any day in the preceding twelve months.

a. 50 b. 2 c. 15

xix. To form a Trade union an application is made to __________.

a. Registrar of trade union b. Commission for trade union c. Federal Government

xx. N.L.R.C is the abbreviation of ___________.

a. New Industrial Reforms Commission b. New International reforms Commission

c. National Industrial Relations Commission






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. What is dismissal? Briefly explain the procedure laid down in the standing order 1968?

Q.No.2. Write detail notes on any four of the followings:

i. Industrial Dispute ii. Go Slow iii. Payment of Wages

iv. Illegal Strike v. Shift Working vi. Stoppage of work

Q.No.3. Write detail notes on unfair labour practice by employers?

Q.No.4. Who is workman? Define its classifications?

Q.No.5. What is Power and Jurisdiction of Commissioner?

Q.No.6. What is meant by illegal strike or lock-out? Discuss the procedure in case of illegal

strike or lock-out?

Q.No.7. What is the Power and Duties of a Labour court and how a Labour Court is constituted

under Industrial Relations Ordinance 2002 and what is its procedure?




Subject: Taxation Law Paper: VI-VII (v)


Objective Part




i. Tax U/S 148 shall be collected at the rate of _______ on the import value of raw material imported

by an industrial undertaking for its own use.

a. 1% b. 2% c. 3%

ii. Tax payable by a full time teacher or research, employed in non-profit education or research

institution dully recognized by Higher Education Commission etc, shall be reduced by an amount

equal to __________.

a. 25% b. 50% c. 75%

iii. Where a taxable income in a tax year of a taxpayer aged 60 years or more on the first day of that

year does not exceed on million, his tax liability on such income shall be reduced by _______.

a. 25% b. 50% c. 75%

iv. For cases of flour mills the rate of minimum tax on the amount representing their annual turnover

under section 113 shall be _______.

a. 0.20% b. 0.60% c. 0.80%

v. Any income derived as rent, revenue of from sales of any produce which is grown on a Pakistan

land is _________.

a. Dividend Income b. Agriculture income c. Business income

vi. Appellate Tribunal means the Appellate Tribunal established under section _________.

a. 135 b. 130 c. 162

vii. The extension date for furnishing of return can be allowed by ________.

a. Member appellate tribunal b. Commissioner c. Additional Commissioner

viii. Deduction of tax on prize bonds is ___________ of liability.

a. Final Discharge b. Minimum tax c. refundable

ix. Under Income tax Ordinance 2001, where tax year ends between 1st January and 30

th June. The

return of income for persons other than company must be furnished up to __________.

a. 30th June b. 31

th December c. 30

th September

x. Wealth Statement is required to be filed under section ________.

a. 120 b. 114 c. 116

xi. The Commissioner Inland Revenue is appointed by _________.

a. Chief Commissioner b. Federal Board or Revenue c. Appellate Tribunal

xii. Time period for filling of appeal before appellate tribunal from the date of receipt of order is _____


xiii. Depreciation means _______ in value of assets.

a. Equity Assets b. Decrease in value of assets

xiv. Commissioner means a person appointed as Commissioner of Income Tax under section _______

a. 177 b. 208 c. 147

xv. A deduction as withdrawal from bank exceed __________ thousand rupees is called deduction on

cash withdrawal from bank U/S 231A.

a. Ten Thousand b. Fifty Thousand c. Seventy five thousand

xvi. Minimum tax U/S 113 shall be _________.

a. 1% b. 20% c. 3%

xvii. FBR has power to select the cases for Audit U/S ________.

a. 177 b. 122(S) c. 214C

xviii. The Commissioner has power to amend the assessment order U/S __________.

a. 122 b. 177 c. 114

xix. The rate of depreciation on all type of building is _________.

a. 10% b. 20% c. 15%

xx. Sales Tax is charged on taxable supplies of a person U/S __________ of sales tax Act 1990.

a. U/S 3 b. U/S 45B c. U/S 72






Subjective Part



Part-I (Income Tax Ordinance, 2001)

Q.No.1. Please describe the Income Tax Authorities with their functions under the income tax

Ordinance, 2001?

Q.No.2. What is “Assessment of Income” also discuss Deemed Assessment, Provisional

Assessment and Best Judgment Assessment under the Income tax Ordinance, 2001?

Q.No.3. Write short notes on followings:

i. Resident and Non Resident ii. Wealth Statement

iii. Tax Year and Income Year iv. Depreciation

Q.No.4. Please discuss the different heads of income under income tax Ordinance 2001?

Q.No.5. What is “Amendment of Assessment” under income tax Ordinance 2001 also discuss

the basic requirement for “Amendment of Assessment”?

Part-II (Sales Tax Act, 1990)

Q.No.6. Please discuss the procedure of suspension and blacklisting of sales tax registration

with reference to sales tax Act, 1990?

Q.No.7. Explaint in detail the term adjudication under sales tax Act 1990 with powers of

adjudicating authority and procedure for adjudication?




Subject: Land Laws Paper: VI-VII (vi)


Objective Part




i. Who can appoint Lumberar

a. Assistant Commissioner b. District Collector c. Commissioner

ii. How many classes of revenue officers stand mentioned in Section 7 of Land Revenue Act

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6

iii. Rule 18 of Punjab Land Rules deals with

a. Appointment of Lumberdar b. Dismissal of Lumberdar

b. Functions of Lumberdar

iv. Ejectment suit can be filed in the court of

a. Additional District Collector b. Tehsildar / Assistant Collector-I

c. Assistant Commissioner

v. Under what section of Land Revenue Act 1967 proceedings in respect of sanctioning of Mutation

are taken


vi. Rent means whatever is payable to

a. Government b. Tandowner c. Landlord

vii. Inquiries under the Act deemed to be

a. Executive b. Judicial c. Non-Judicial

viii. Notice of demand is issued by

a. Collector b. Revenue Officer c. Lumberdar

ix. Limitation for filing appeal to commissioner is


x. Limitation for filing revision before commissioner is


xi. Scale of Mutation fees is fixed by


xii. Any person acquiring any right in an estate shall report his acquisition of right to Patwari within

a. 3 Months b. 1 Month c. 6 Months

xiii. Punjab Tenancy Act of

a. 1887 b. 1897 c. 1987

xiv. Land means which is

a. Occupied as site of any building b. Occupied for agricultural purpose

c. Occupied for industrial purpose

xv. An ejectment notice U/S 45 shall not be served to tenant after

a. 15th Nov b. 15

th April c. 30

th June

xvi. A decree or order for ejectment shall be executed between

a. 1st May to 15

th June b. 1

st June to 30

th June c. 1

st July to 15

th August

xvii. Punjab Pre-Emption Act 1991

a. X of 1991 b. IX of 1991 c. XI of 1991

xviii. Limitation for Filing Pre-Emption suit is

a. 120 days b. 4 Months c. 3 Months

xix. After Talb-i-Muwathibat, Talb-i-Ishaq is made not later than

a. 2 weeks b. 15 days c. 3 weeks

xx. Pre-Emption Act extends to whole the

a. Punjab b. Pakistan c. Only Agricultural Land






Subjective Part



Part-I (Land Revenue Act, 1967)

Q.No.1. Define & Explain the following

a. Agricultural Year b. Landowner c. Estate

d. Un-irrigated land e. Board of Revenue

Q.No.2. Discuss the remedies open to a person denying his liability for an arrears?

Q.No.3. Write a comprehensive note on revision?

Part-II (Punjab Tenancy Act, 1887)

Q.No.4. What are the grounds of ejectment of occupancy tenants?

Q.No.5. What are the respective rights of landlord and tenants to produce?

Part-III (Punjab Pre-Emption Act, 1991)

Q.No.6. Discuss the persons in whom right of preemption vests?

Q.No.7. What type of notice is required by preemption law to be issued by registering officer?




Subject: Human Rights Paper: VI-VII (viii)


Objective Part




i. The charter of UNO was signed in

a. 1945 b. 1946 c. 1947 d. 1948

ii. The head office of UNO is located at

a. New York b. Heauge c. Andorra d. Japan

iii. The Security Council of UNO consists of

a. 10 Members b. 15 Members c. 20 Members d. 25 Members

iv. UNO came into existence

a. 1945 b. 1949 c. 1950 d. 1950

v. Human Rights include

a. Political Rights b. Religious Rights c. Economic Rights d. All above

vi. Where is the head office of IR Court of Justice?

a. Paris b. New York c. Hauge d. Moscow

vii. Megna Carta was signed in

a. 1012 b. 1215 c. 1318 d. 1321

viii. Megna Carta was signed by

a. King David of Italy b. King John of England c. King Franklin of Rome

ix. WHO was established at Geneva in

a. 1945 b. 1946 c. 1947 d. 1948

x. The right of casting vote was firstly given to women by

a. USA b. UK c. France d. Italy

xi. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights is passed by

a. UNO b. UK c. USA d. Japan

xii. Death penalty in murder and rape cases is justifiabla in


xiii. UNHR stands for

a. World Health Organization b. UN High Commissioner for Regugees

c. IR Court of Justice

xiv. CEDAW was established

a. To eliminate discrimination against women b. To help Multinational Corporations

c. To protect the rights of Refugees

xv. Which organ of UNO is considered as World Parliament?

a. General Assembly b. Security Council c. IR Court of Justice

xvi. In which organ of UNO, a Veto power is exercised?

a. IR Court of Justice b. Security Council c. Secretariat d. General Assembly

xvii. The UN Security Council has permanent members

a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 15

xviii. The UN day is officially celebrated on

a. 24 October b. 25 November c. 26 December d. 27 January

xix. How many official working languages are recognized by the UNO?

a. 8 b. 7 c. 6 d. 5

xx. How many Nations signed the UN charter when the organization was established?

a. 25 b. 33 c. 41 d. 50






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Discuss the meaning and different kinds of Human Rights under International Law?

Q.No.2. What is the role of UN to eliminate discrimination against women?

Q.No.3. Discuss Quranic view of Human Rights?

Q.No.4. Define Terrorism and its drawbacks on society?

Q.No.5. What is European Convention on Human rights?

Q.No.6. What is the composition of International Criminal Court? Elaborate its powers and

functions?

Q.No.7. Write a comprehensive note on the rights of Refugees recognized by International

Law?






Objective Part




i. Movable property includes


ii. Res Judicata is provided by the CPC in


iii. Suit regarding immovable property shall be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose

jurisdiction


iv. A civil suit can be transferred under

a. S. 24 b. S. 34 c. S. 44

v. A precept is issued for

a. Arrest of Judgment debtor b. Attachment of Property of Judgment debtor

vi. First appeal is filed against decree under

a. S. 96 b. S. 100 c. S. 104

vii. S. 114 CPC deals with




ix. The high court may make rules under

a. S. 111 b. S. 122 c. S. 133


a. Oral b. in Writing c. Oral or in Writing

xi. The court has discretion to eniarge time under

a. S. 48 b. S. 144 c. S. 148

xii. Parties may be added or struck at any time under


xiii. A service on a defendant who cannot be found may be effected on


xiv. A pleading may be amended

a. Before written statement b. Before Judgment c. At any stage

xv. Rejection of plaint is provided in

a. O 7 R 11 b. O 8 R 10 c. O 13 R 10

xvi. Both parties are absent and suit is dismissed, a fresh suit


xvii. An ex parte decree may be set aside under

a. O 9 R 13 b. O 13 R 2 c. O 17 R 4

xviii. Agent for Government to receive process is

a. Government Pleader b. SHO c. Tehsildar

xix. A person acting for minor plaintiff is called

a. Guardian for the suit b. next friend

xx. A person who has no means to pay court fees is called

a. Lunatic b. Poor Man c. A pauper




Subject: Cr.P.C Paper: II


Subjective Part




Q.No.1. Define the followings:

i. Bailable Offence ii. Public Prosecutor iii. Place

iv. Charge

Q.No.2. Describe Trial before courts of Session?

Q.No.3. What is the importance of Police report u/s 173 Cr.p.c called challan?

Q.No.4. What is probation? Who has the power to release certain convicted offender on

probation?

Q.No.5. Describe the procedure, where dispute concerning land, etc. is likely to cause breach of

peace?


Q.No.6. Write a detailed note on postmortem examination?

Q.No.7. Write notes on the followings:

a. Incised wound b. Lacerated wound c. Stab wound

d. Amputation




Subject: Cr.P.C Paper: II


Objective Part




i. Lunatic means

a. Minor b. Insane c. Insolvent d. all of above

ii. Complaint means the allegation made orally or in writing to a

a. Police officer b. magistrate c. revenue officer

iii. Confession to be

a. Points b. full c. in parts d. none of above

iv. Every summon shall be in the form of

a. Writing b. duplicate c. signed and sealed d. all of above

v. Section 155 deal with

a. Cognizable b. non-cognizable c. both

vi. Report of police officer u/s 173 Cr.p.c deal to

a. Inquiry b. investigation c. complaint

vii. Cognizance of complaint vest with

a. Session judge b. Judicial magistrate c. both

viii. Stab wound injury is

a. Superficial b. muscle deep c. going deep to the cavity

ix. Section 497 Cr.p.c deals with

a. Pre-arrest bail b. post arrest bail c. both

x. Offence of defamation could be compounded by defamed

a. Complaint b. witness c. the person

xi. Incised wound is result of

a. Firearm b. blunt weapon c. sharp edge

xii. Jurisdiction of case against juveniles is defined u/s

a. 29-Cr.p.c b. 29-A Cr.p.c c. 29-B Cr.p.c

xiii. Any document or a thing can be impounded by the court u/s

a. 114-Cr.p.c b. 411-Cr.p.c c. 104-Cr.p.c

xiv. An unlawful assembly is an assembly consisting at least ________ person.

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7

xv. Police may arrest a suspect without warrant u/s

a. 45-Cr.p.c b. 154-Cr.p.c c. 54-Cr.p.c

xvi. Injury caused a pistol from five feet would give

a. Burn marks around the entry wound b. blackening around entry wound c. both

xvii. Section 496 Cr.p.c deals with

a. Pre-arrest bail b. post arrest bail c. both

xviii. Magistrate of 3rd

class can pass sentence of

a. One month b. 2 months c. 4 months

xix. The power of High court u/s 491 of Cr.p.c is

a. Compulsory b. discretionary c. limited d. unlimited

xx. Judgment in any criminal court of original jurisdiction shall be pronounced.

a. In open court b. chamber c. both






Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Explain the Term “Judicial Notice” state the facts of which the court can take Judicial

Notice?

Q.No.2. In what Article of Qanon-e-Shahadat order 1984, Confession before police in

admissible in evidence?

Q.No.3. What is presumption, how many types it is, what are the sources?

Q.No.4. Who is an Accomplice? Is he a competent witness? State the value of an accomplice

witness?

Q.No.5. What is “a leading question” who can ask such a question?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Define classes of Advocate and their duty to court?

Q.No.7. Discuss the required behavior of Senior advocate towards the Junior Advocates in the

light of professional etiquettes and legal ethics?






Objective Part




i. A witness many while under examination refresh his memory under article

a. 157 b. 156 c. 155 d. 154

ii. Under what Article decision of case can become on the basis of oath.

a. 163 b. 168 c. 170

iii. Leading question may be asked in cross examination


iv. The term “Estoppel” has been define in article

a. 112 b. 113 c. 114 d. 116

v. A witness who is gained over by the opposite party is a hostile witness.


vi. Under what article an accomplice is a competent witness against accused except in the case of

Hadd.

a. 17 b. 16 c. 15 d. 13

vii. Plea of Alibi has been enshrined in Article of Qanun-e-Shahadat order 1984

a. 24 b. 25 c. 22 d. 26

viii. Who is expert under relevant article of Qanun-e-Shahadat order 1984

a. 58 b. 59 c. 70 d. 71

ix. Who is an Accomplice


x. Under what Article Examination in Chief has been defined

a. 139 b. 24 c. 26 d. 132

xi. A witness who is won over by the opposite party is a hostile witness.


xii. The term “Resgestae” has been explained under Article

a. 19 b. 15 c. 18 d. 17

xiii. Birth during marriage conclusive proof of legitimacy has been enshrined in article

a. 127 b. 128 c. 129 d. 130

xiv. Article 46 of Qanoon-e-Shahadat defines

a. Hearsay Evidence b. Dying declaration c. Confession

xv. Who is expert under relevant article of Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order 1984

a. 58 b. 59 c. 70 d. 71

xvi. A retracted confession can become basis of conviction


xvii. When plea of Alibi can be taken at any stage


xviii. Art 46 of Qanun-e-Shahadat defines

a. Hearsay evidence b. Dying declaration c. confession

xix. The res inter alia aeta is receivable?

a. U/A 59 Q.S.O 1984 b. U/S 60 Q.S.O 1984 c. U/S 62 Q.S.O 1984

xx. Under the law of evidence, the relevant fact?

a. Must be legally relevant b. Must be logically relevant c. Must be legally &

Logically relevant






Subjective Part

Note: Attempt any FOUR questions in all. Selecting at least 2 questions from Part-I and Part-

II. Both, English and Urdu are the medium of Examination in this paper. Candidate must

attempt one question in Urdu from each part. All questions carry equal marks.

Part-I

Q.No.1. Define a firm and write a partnership deed for its establishment?

ر رک ںی۔ اہم رحتب

رل ےس ایک رم اد ےہ؟ اس ےک ایقل ےئلیک رحتمک رش اتک ن

ف

Q.No.2. What is meant by an exchange? Draft an exchange deed of lands?


ابتدہل ن

ت

ابتدہل ےس ایک رم اد ےہ ؟ ابتدہل زنیم یک ن ا ن

Q.No.3. Draft a deed of “Dissolution of Partnership” between parties?

ر رک ںی۔ رنیقی رحت ب

ر ام نیب ف

اہم یک داتسوب

خیسنت رشاتک ن

Q.No.4. Draft a will with legacies, direction to continue business and trust for children?

ر ہک یک میسقت اک رو ن ا ر وک اج ر ی رےھک اور وچب

ت

ر رک ںی سج ںیم ب اہم رحت ب

دی یئگ وہ ں۔ ای وتیص ن

ت

ےک ایق ل یک دہ ا ن

ٹ

ں ےئلیک رٹ س

Part-II

Q.No.5. What are the defences that can be taken in a civil suit?

ںیہ۔

ت

وہ وک م وک م ےس داف یع ذعرات ںیہ وج ای دویاین دوع ی ںیم ااھٹےئ اج تکس

Q.No.6. Draft a suit for Recovery of money Rs: 50,000/-

ر رک ںی؟ رار رو ےپ رحت ب

دوع ی دال ن اےن غلبم اچپس ہ

Q.No.7. Write a short note on the following:

i. Evasive Denial ii. Verification of Action

iii. Verification of Pleadings iv. Replication

دنم ر ہج ذلی رپ رصتخم ون ٹ ںیھکل۔

۔ وج اب اوجل اب۴ ۔ ڈیلپ زگن یک دصت قی ۳ ےئ دوع یابن۔ ۲ ۔ مہم ااکن ر ۱






Objective Part




i. Written Statement is not part of pleading.

a. Yes b. No

ii. Verification is not important in plaint.

a. True b. False

iii. Rectification deed is the part of original deed.

a. True b. False

iv. Set Off is not related with written statement.

a. True b. False

v. Cause of action is necessary to file a civil suit.

a. True b. False

vi. Facts admitted need not to be proved.

a. Yes b. No

vii. Replication is the part of pleadings.

a. True b. False

viii. Affidavit has no value in the eyes of law.

a. True b. False

ix. Civil Court cannot execute its decree.

a. True b. False

x. Law is equal for all.

a. True b. False

xi. Pleadings mean plant or written statement?

a. True b. False

xii. No one is allowed to argue beyond the pleadings.

a. True b. False

xiii. Amendment in plaint cannot be allowed.

a. True b. False

xiv. Pleadings are to be verified on oath.

a. True b. False

xv. Pleadings must be signed by the parties.

a. True b. False

xvi. Agreement to sell is equal to sale deed.

a. True b. False

xvii. A person who announces will can revoke.

a. True b. False

xviii. All suits can be filed before family court.

a. True b. False

xix. Whether consent decree is appeal able.

a. Yes b. No

xx. Second appeal can be filed before the District Judge.

a. True b. False






Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Define the function of “Proviso” as an aid to the interpretation of a statute?

Q.No.2. What is an ambiguity and how can it be resolved in a statute?


i. Revival of Statute ii. Legal Fiction

iii. Repeal iv. Commencement

Q.No.4. Discuss imperative and directory enactments in detail with illustrations, also

differentiate these two?

Q.No.5. Explain the rule Ejusdem Gensis with reference to the interpretation of a statute?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Under what section of General Clauses Act power to appoint include power to remove

or suspend? Comments

Q.No.7. Discuss in detail the rule “Locus Ponetentia” with reference to the relevant provisions

of law?






Objective Part




i. Repeal by implication is not favoured by the courts

a. Yes b. No

ii. Criminal courts can exercise their inherent power under section

a. 151 CPC b. 561-A CPC c. both a & b d. None of these

iii. Interpretation of statute must be according to the context of statute

a. True b. False

iv. A structure which fixed to land is called


v. Interpretation of statute must be in consonance with the spirit of statute.

a. True b. False

vi. Person including not only a natural person but also a Jurassic person

a. True b. False

vii. A later statue may repeal an earlier one either expressly or by implication.

a. True b. False

viii. An invalid law which remain unchallenged for many years does not become valid

a. True b. False

ix. Court must not challenge the wisdom of legislative authority while interpreting the statute.

a. True b. False

x. Section 26 of General Clauses Act provides no bar to trial or conviction for the same crime.

a. True b. False

xi. Affirmation and declaration by a person instead of swearing is called.

a. Oath b. Declaration c. Affidavit d. Affirmation

xii. When the language of the statute is plain which rule of interpretation is applied?

a. Golden Rule b. Literal Rule c. Mischief Rule d. Cassusomissus

xiii. Legislation is

a. Constitutive b. Abrogative c. both a & b

xiv. All statute are properly referred to as

a. Code b. Enactments c. Law d. Legislation

xv. The word “MAY” is used in sense being mandatory.

a. True b. False

xvi. A validity of an act depends upon

a. Legislative Competency b. Conformity with the constitutional law c. both a & b

xvii. A cheque upon a banker is a document.

a. True b. False

xviii. Function of the court is


xix. Main objects of the act are called preamble.

a. True b. False

xx. A part of law which regulates rights and duties of the partee is called.

a. Substantive Law b. Administrative Law c. both a & b






Subjective Part



benefits an author get through copyright protections?

Q.No.2. What the Term TRIPS stand for and when this was come into force? What were the

reasons for adoption of the TRIPS agreements?


Pakistan?

Q.No.4. What kinds of works are protected under copyright laws in Pakistan? How do

copyrights differ from patents?

Q.No.5. Discuss the conditions to patentability under Patents Ordinance, 2000?

Q.No.6. Write note on the following:

i. Infringement proceeding in Trade Mark Rights

ii. Assignment of Registered and Un-registered Trade Marks

Q.No.7. Describe briefly the procedure for obtaining a design registration?






Objective Part




i. A suit for infringement of trade mark may be filed under ____ of the Trade Marks Ordinance, 2001.

a. 105 b. 106 c. 117 d. 118

ii. To get copyright protection, it is necessary to get license from a government institution

a. True b. False

iii. A suit for infringement of trade mark is filed in

a. Supreme Court b. High Court c. District Magistrate d. District Court


a. True b. False


a. A student photocopying a chapter of a book for academic purpose only b. Reading a

book without permission of the author c. Referring a book to a friend.

d. Downloading a movie from the internet without permissior of the owner.

vi. When the Brne Convention was first adopted?

a. 1880 b. 1883 c. 1888 d. 1986


a. Switzerland b. Scotland c. Turkey d. Germany

viii. The head quarter of Intellectual Property Organization of Pakistan is located at



a. Copyright b. Trade Mark c. Patent d. None of these

x. When Paris Convention was first signed?

a. 1880 b. 1883 c. 1886 d. 1987

xi. An application for registration of trade mark can be filed to Registrar under section ______ of the

Trademarks ordinance, 2001.

a. 4 b. 12 c. 18 d. 22

xii. Patents are protected for a definite period?

a. True b. False

xiii. Copyrights are only available for computer programming?

a. True b. False

xiv. Movies are protected under copy right.

a. True b. False

xv. Design protection is unlimited under Pakistani Laws?

a. True b. False

xvi. Patent right is a saleable property.

a. True b. False

xvii. Pakistan became member of WTO in the year____________.

a. 1995 b. 1997 c. 1947 d. 1999

xviii. Pakistan is a leading country in protecting intellectual property rights?

a. True b. False


protected under

a. Patent Laws b. Copyright Laws c. Trademark d. Design Laws


a. True b. False






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Define following terms:

a. Adverse environmental effects b. Environmental impact assessment

c. Hazardous Waste

Q.No.2. Describe functions of the Federal Environmental Agency (Pak-EPA)?

Q.No.3. Describe prohibition of certain discharges provided under section 11 of the PEPA

1997?

Q.No.4. Describe climate change and global warming?

Q.No.5. What mitigation measures would you suggest to control urban air pollution?

Q.No.6. How can an aggrieved person approach to environmental Tribunal for an environmental

issue? Give the procedure

Q.No.7. Explain comprehensively the evolution process of environmental laws in Pakistan?






Objective Part




i. Biotic environment includes

a. Producers b. Consumers c. Decomposers d. All the above

ii. Decomposers include

a. Bacteria b. Fungi c. Both a & b d. Animals

iii. A biotic environment does not include

a. Air b. Water c. Soil d. Plants

iv. Air pollution is caused by

a. Insecticides b. Sewage c. Smoke d. Loud speakers

v. Which of the following problems is not created by noise pollution?

a. Diarrhea b. Hypertension c. Deafness d. Irritation

vi. Air is composed of gases, water vapors and

a. Dust particles b. Rainfall c. Snowfall d. Light

vii. Chief source of energy in environment is

a. Fire b. Moon c. Stars d. Sun

viii. When trees are cut, amount of oxygen

a. Increases b. Decreases c. both a & b d. Remains same

ix. The purpose of recycling is to

a. Conserve raw material b. Conserve source c. Conserve energy d. All above

x. Most common recycled domestic materials are

a. Glass b. Plastic c. Paper d. All of these

xi. The largest recycled item is

a. Aluminum b. Glass c. Plastics d. Newspaper

xii. The addition of unwanted and harmful materials in the environment is called

a. Pollution b. Population c. Habitat d. Climate

xiii. The main pollutant of leather tanneries in the waste water is due to the salt of

a. Lead b. Copper c. Chromium VI d. Chromium iii

xiv. Ozone act as

a. Saver b. Oxidant c. Pollutant d. All of these

xv. The greenhouse gases which is present in very high quantity is

a. Propane b. Ethane c. Carbon dioxide d. Methane

xvi. The layer of atmosphere in which the ozone lies is

a. Exosphere b. Mesosphere c. Troposphere d. Stratosphere

xvii. The chemical released by chlorofluoro carbons that causes depletion of ozone layer in the

atmosphere is

a. Chlorine b. Nitrogen c. Sulphuric acid d. Sodium chloride

xviii. The name of the protocol signed to reduce the production of chlorofluoro carbons is

a. UVB Protocol b. Montreal Protocol c. UVA Protocol d. UVR Protocol

xix. The one which is not considered as naturally occurring greenhouse gas is

a. Carbon dioxide b. Methane c. Nitrous oxide d. Ethane

xx. The burning of fossil fucls

a. Decrease greenhouse gases b. Increase greenhouse gases c. Increase level of oxygen

d. Increased level of ethane






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Define endorsement? Discuss different kinds of endorsement under Negotiable

Instrument Act 1881?

Q.No.2. Discuss as to when attachment before judgment is allowed and receivers are appointed

under the financial Institutions (Recovery of Finance) Ordinance, 2001?

Q.No.3. Define and illustrate the following terms:

a. Cheque b. Bill of Exchange c. Anti-dating

d. Indorsement

Q.No.4. What is the procedure for sale of mortgaged property under The Financial Institution

(Recovery of Finance) Ordinance, 2001?

Q.No.5. Describe the following terms briefly:

a. Modarba b. Modarba Certificate c. Modarba Fund

d. Modarba Company

Q.No.6. Briefly describe the salient features of Banking Companies Ordinance, 1962?

Q.No.7. What are the essential features of leave to defend as provided in section 10 of the

Financial Institution (Recovery of Finance) 2001?






Objective Part




i. Maker of a Bill of Exchange or cheque is called _________.

a. Drawer b. Drawee c. Mortgagor

ii. A plaint submitted before a Banking Court by a Financial Institution shall be certified under _____

a. Notaries Ordinance, 1961 b. Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881

c. Bankers Book of Evidence Act, 1891

iii. “Promissory Note” relate to __________ sum of money.

a. Certain b. uncertain c. both a & b

iv. The Banking Court may pass an interim decree under section ________ of Financial Institution

(Recovery of Finance) Ordinance, 2001.

a. 10 b. 11 c. 12

v. The leave to defend the suit shall be in the form of ________.

a. Written statement b. written reply c. rejoinder

vi. In granting leave to defend, banking court impose such conditions as _______.

a. To deposit of cash b. furnishing of security c. both a & b d. None of above

vii. Mortgage means the transfer of an interest in specific _______ property for the purpose of securing

the payment of the mortgage money.

a. Immoveable b. Moveable c. Incorporeal d. corporeal

viii. After expiry of due date given in final notice, financial institution can sell the mortgage property or

any of its part by ___________.

a. Public auction b. auction c. sale d. both a & b

ix. _________ is entitled in its discretion, to participate in the public auction and to participate the

mortgage property at the highest bid obtained in the public auction.

a. Financial institution b. Banking Court c. both a & b d. None of above

x. A financial institution can file a suit for recovery of amount through sale of any

a. Mortgaged b. pledged c. hypothecated & assigned d. all

xi. No separate application of execution is needed to be filed for execution of decree passed by _____

a. Customer court b. Banking court c. both a & b d. None of above

xii. Upon pronouncement of judgment & decree by a banking court, the suit is automatically stand

converted into ________ proceeding.

a. Mediatory b. semi-judicial c. judicial d. Execution

xiii. Appeal against any judgment decree, sentence, or final order passed by a baking court can be filed

a. District court b. High court c. Supreme Court d. Banking court

xiv. A person against whom a decree has been passed is known as ________.

a. Decree holder b. judgment debtor c. respondent

xv. The property of the defendant can be attached __________.

a. Only after the decree is passed against him b. Any time after the suit is filed

xvi. Bill of exchange is alternate of a cheque.

a. Agree b. Disagree c. Sometimes d. None of these

xvii. Partners are _______ of the firm.

a. Owners b. employers c. agents d. None of these

xviii. Who draws the bill is called ______.

a. Payee b. drawer c. drawee d. Holder

xix. Modarba means a business in which , a person participates with his money and his effecting skills

a. True b. False

xx. Within now much days from the date of first service (by any of the modes laid down in section 9 of

the ordinance 2001) a defendant is entitled to file his leave to defend?

a. 30 b. 60 c. 90






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Explain termination of employment, charge sheet, its formation and procedure?

Q.No.2. Write a detailed note on any two of the following:

i. Shift Working ii. Settlement

iii. Industrial Dispute iv. Arbitration

Q.No.3. What is the purpose of Enactment of IRO 2002 and its scope?

Q.No.4. Define Workman and its kinds under the standing orders 1968?

Q.No.5. What is the mode of appointment of Labour Court?

Q.No.6. Rights and obligation of workers and employers are reciprocal, Explain it?

Q.No.7. Write detail Note on Unfair Labour Practice by employers?






Objective Part




i. A workman found guilty of misconduct shall be liable to

a. Fine b. Reduction to a lower Post c. Both

ii. The period of limitation for appeal under section 30 of workman compensation act 1923 shall be

a. Thirty days b. Sixty days c. Twenty days

iii. The employer may in the event of fire stop any section of establishment for an y period

a. With notice of one day b. with notice of three days c. without notice

iv. Temporary workman or probationer or badly can be terminated

a. Without notice b. with notice of two months c. both

v. A steward shall hold office from the date of his selection or nomination for a period of

a. Six months b. One year c. Three months

vi. Strike means

a. Cessation of work by a body of persons employed b. Refusal under a common

understanding c. both

vii. After the receipt of the Registration application registrar shall register the trade union within

a. Thirteen days b. Nine days c. Fifteen days

viii. Every application for registration of trade union shall be made to

a. Provisional Government b. Registrar c. Governor

ix. Any person aggrieved by order determining a collective bargaining unit passed by tribunal may

prefer an appeal to the

a. Civil court b. District court c. High court

x. Under workman compensation act 1923 who can appoint commissioner

a. Provincial Government b. Federal Government c. Governor

xi. If the employers falls to deposit the amount of the gratuity, the dependent of the decreased may take

an application for its recovery to the

a. Collector b. Tribunal c. Commissioner

xii. Registered trade union means any trade union Registered under

a. Punjab industrial relation ordinance 2010 b. Standing order 1968

c. Registration act

xiii. “Inspector” means an inspector appointed under

a. Punjab Industrial relations ordinance 2010 b. Workman compensation act 1923

c. Workman compensation rules 1961

xiv. Tribunal means a labour appellate tribunal constituted under Punjab Industrial relations ordinance

2010 under section

a. 51 b. 42 c. 63

xv. Habitual absence of a workman who absence without leave for more than

a. Three days b. Ten days c. Five days

xvi. A workman shall be entitled to receive the amount standing to his credit in the

a. Benevolent fund b. Group Insurance fund c. Provident fund

xvii. The prescribe period of probationer workman under this ordinance is

a. Four months b. Six months c. Three months

xviii. The commissioner shall follow the procedure for taking evidence under

a. Civil procedure code b. Workman compensation act 1923 c. both

xix. The Governor may authorizes the Registrar to exercise the power of registration of

a. Industry wise trade union b. Private limited company c. Welfare societies

xx. The commissioner who is appointed under workman compensation act 1923 shall have all powers

a. Criminal court b. small causes court c. civil court






Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Write short notes on any four of the following

i. Circular ii. Tax year iii. FBR

iv. Rent v. Chief Commissioner vi. Member Board of Revenue

Q.No.2. What is “Assessment of Income” also discuss deemed assessment, provisional

assessment and best judgment under the income tax ordinance 2001?


i. Resident & Non Resident ii. Wealth Statement

iii. Income year iv. Deprecation

Q.No.4. Write down the different heads of income under income tax ordinance 2001?

Q.No.5. Explain the following heads of income:

i. Salary ii. Income from property

iii. Income from Business iv. Capital Gain

Part-II

Q.No.6. Define any four of the following:

i. Arrears ii. Defaulter

iii. Document iv. Retail Price v. Importer

Q.No.7. Difference between exempt supply and zero rated supply?






Objective Part




i. A deduction as withdrawal from bank exceed _________ thousands rupees is called deduction on

cash withdrawal from U/S 231 A(1).


ii. Deduction of tax on prize bond is _______ of liability is

a. Adjustable against liability b. Final discharge

iii. According to section __________ is deduction of tax income from the property.

a. 221 b. 155 c. 153

iv. Appeal against the order of the commissioner or any other taxation officer is field before the ____

a. Civil Judge b. Commissioner appeal c. Judge of High Court

v. Tax U/S 148 shall be collected at the rate of _______ on the import value of raw material imported

by an Industrial undertaking for its own use.

a. 1% b. 2% c. 3%

vi. The tax payable by a full time teacher or researcher, employed in non-profit education or research

institution duly recognized by Higher Education Commission etc. shall be reduced by an amount

equal to _________.

a. 25% b. 50% c. 75%

vii. The ________ may select person or class of persons for audit of income tax affairs through

computer ballot which may be random ___________.

a. Commissioner b. FBR c. Regional Commissioner

viii. Circular shall be binding to ____________.

a. Taxpayer b. Income tax authorities c. both

ix. The rate of tax on payment of goods U/S 153 shall be ___________.

a. 2.5% b. 3.0% c. 3.5%

x. Name of the forms used for the sales tax registration is ___________.


xi. Sales tax return of electric companies is submitted upto _________ days.

a. 15 b. 20 c. 25

xii. The extension date for furnishing of income tax return can be allowed by __________.

a. Member appellate tribunal b. Commissioner c. Chairman FBR

xiii. Wealth statement is required to be filed under section ____________.

a. 114 b. 116 c. 120

xiv. Time period of filling of an appeal before the appellate tribunal from the date of receipt of order is

______________.

a. 30 b. 60 c. 90

xv. The commissioner Inland Revenue is appointed by

a. Chief Commissioner b. Federal Board of Revenue c. Chairman Appellate Tribunal

xvi. Depreciation means ____________ in value of

a. Equity assets b. Decrease in value of assets

xvii. Minimum tax U/S 113 shall be ___________.

a. 1% b. 20% c. 3%

xviii. The commissioner has power to amend the assessment order U/S __________.

a. 122 b. 177 c. 114

xix. The rate of depreciation on all types of building is ___________.

a. 10% b. 20% c. 15%

xx. Appellate tribunal means the appellate tribunal established under section _________.

a. 135 b. 162 c. 130






Subjective Part



Part-I (The Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1967)

Q.No.1. How the summons issued by the Revenue Officer is served?

Q.No.2. Who is owner of forests, quarries and waste land?

Q.No.3. Under what circumstances special assessment is levied?

Part-II (The Punjab Tenancy Act, 1887)

Q.No.4. How the Tenant from year to year is ejected by notice?

Q.No.5. Discuss any four dispute triable by Revenue Officer?

Part-III (The Punjab Pre-Emption Act, 1991)

Q.No.6. What is meant by right of pre-emption? Discuss its various aspects?

Q.No.7. What is meant by Demand of preemption? How it is exercised?






Objective Part




i. Estate means an area for which there is

a. Separate assessment b. Separate boundaries c. Separate name in the record

ii. Who has power to Summon a person to give evidence under the Land Revenue Act:

a. Revenue Officer b. Civil Court c. Criminal Court

iii. Land owner is not liable to pay land Revenue if he owns irrigated land not.

a. Exceeding 25 acres b Exceeding 20 acres c. Exceeding 40 acres

iv. Who has power to partition agricultural land

a. Assistant Controller 2nd

grade b. Assistant Controller 1st grade c. Controller

v. Period of limitation for filing appeal before collector is


vi. Period of revision before board of Revenue is

a. 60 b. 30 days c. 90 days

vii. Application under Section 17 for division of produce lies before

a. Revenue Officer b. Revenue Court c. Civil Court

viii. Who has power to decide the suit by land Lord to eject the tenant

a. Commissioner b. Revenue Court c. Revenue Officer

ix. Land means land which is

a. Occupied as a site of building b. Occupied for agricultural purposes c. occupied for

industrial purposes

x. Agricultural year commences on

a. 1st June b. 1

st July c. 1

st January

xi. Under what section mutation is attested

a. 39 b. 42 c. 70

xii. Limitation for filing preemption suit is


xiii. Who has right of preemption

a. Land Lord b. Co-Owner c. Tenant

xiv. No right of preemption shall exist in respect of sale of

a. Waqf property b. Agricultural land c. Rural property

xv. Under what provision assessment of holding is annulled


xvi. Under what provision of Law land Revenue is assessed


xvii. When special assessment is levied

a. When head man is removed b. When landowner sell his land c. When it is

proposed to change the form of assessment.

xviii. Within which period the sale is conducted from the date of proclamation


xix. To whom sale is reported by the Collector

a. Board of Revenue b. Commissioner c. Assistant Collector 1st grade

xx. By whom the partition proceeding is conducted

a. Assistant Collector 2nd

grade b. Assistant Collector 1st grade c. Commissioner




Subject: Minor Acts Paper: VI-VII (vii)


Subjective Part

Note: Attempt any four questions in English. Select one question from Part-I and three

questions from Part-II. All questions carry equal marks.

Part-I

Q.No.1. Discuss the powers of a court to appoint Arbitrator or Umpire? Also discuss the

grounds for setting aside Award?

Q.No.2. Attempt the following:

a. Define Arbitration b. Define Award c. Differentiate

between Award and Judgment d. Define Umpire e. Define Reference

Part-II

Q.No.3. Discuss the powers of Provincial government to make rules determining the value of

land for jurisdictional purpose?

Q.No.4. Discuss the method of computation of court fee in different cases under section 7 of the

Court Fees Act 1870?

Q.No.5. Certain documents are exempted from court fee under The Court fee Act 1870? Enlist

those documents. Explain briefly?

Q.No.6. Explain the Principles for increasing rent of residential buildings and non-residential

buildings?

Q.No.7. Define Landlord and Tenant? What are the obligations of landlord and tenant under

Punjab Rented Premises Act 2009?






Objective Part




i. Award means decision of __________.

a. Court b. Parties c. Arbitrator d. None of above

ii. After making the award it shall be signed by the ___________.

a. Court b. Parties c. Arbitrator d. None of above

iii. Reference in Arbitration Act 1940 means a reference to ___________.

a. Arbitration b. Civil Court c. Criminal court d. None of above

iv. The Arbitration Act 1940 shall come into force on __________.

a. 1st of June b. 1

st of July c. 1

st of August d. None of above

v. An arbitration agreement ________ be discharged by the death of the parties.

a. Shall b. shall not c. can d. None of above

vi. All fees chargeable under The Court Fee Act 1870 shall be collected by __________.

a. Stamp b. Cash money c. cheque d. None of above

vii. Computation of fee payable with reference to suits has been provided in ________.

a. Court Fee Act 1870 b. Suit Valuation Act 1887 c. None of above

viii. The term and valorem means ________.

a. According to subject b. According to value c. both of above d. None

ix. The Court deals with the powers to appoint the arbitrator or umpire under section ______.

a. 6 b. 8 c. 151 d. 9

x. The law of court fee consists of ___________ sections.

a. 30 b. 33 c. 36 d. None of above

xi. When the Court has reason to believe that the suit has not been property valued then it must decide

_________.

a. With judicial inquiry b. with the help of party c. with its own discretion

xii. The suit for money is exempted for levy of court fee __________.

a. 150000 b. 50000 c. 25000 d. None of above

xiii. The Provincial government shall before making rules determining value of land for jurisdictional

purpose consult __________.

a. High court b. Supreme court c. both of above d. None of above

xiv. The rules as to the cost of the processes shall be made by __________.

a. High court b. Supreme Court c. Taxing Officer d. None of above

xv. Ad Valorem is a ___________ term.

a. French b. Greek c. Latin d. None of above

xvi. Rent registrar shall maintain a ________ in order to appoint one or more special judges in a Rent

Tribunal.

a. Notepad b. Book c. Register d. None of above

xvii. A landlord shall not let out a premise to a tenant except by a ________.

a. Tenancy agreement b. negotiations c. oral agreement d. None of above

xviii. A building being solely used for the purpose of business or trade is called _______ building.

a. Commercial b. non-residential c. residential d. None of above

xix. The land lord who seeks to evict his tenant shall apply to the ________ for direction in that behalf.

a. Rent controller b. high court c. supreme court d. None of above

xx. A tenant shall pay the rent to the landlord according to ______.

a. Contract b. negotiations c. tenancy agreement d. None of above






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Discuss the status of Human Rights in Islam?

Q.No.2. What are the rights available to the individuals under the universal declaration of

Human Rights?

Q.No.3. What is Racism? Discuss its provisions, under UN convention on the elimination of

Racism?

Q.No.4. Terrorism and its effects on Human Rights in Pakistan?

Q.No.5. What is the role of international criminal court in international criminal justice system?

Q.No.6. Discuss the historical development of international Human Rights Law?

Q.No.7. Define Prohibition of “Torture” in international Law of Human Rights?






Objective Part




i. Refugees comprise a category of


ii. All human being are born free and equal in dignity and rights. Describe in



iii. Slavery and the slave trade shall be prohibited in all their forms defined in universal declaration of

human rights under article

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6

iv. Every one changed with a penal offence has the right to be presumed


v. The human rights Act, 1998 is an act of parliament of


vi. Universal declaration of human rights is a common standard of achievement for


vii. The universal declaration of human right is passed by

a. UNO b. UK c. USA

viii. Refugees comprise a category of


ix. Equality cannot be assumed unless all human being belong to the same


x. In Islam any person has a right to defend himself for fair


xi. Death penalty in murder and rape cases is justifiable in


xii. The fundamental right of any person recognized by UNO is


xiii. The great example of equality of humanity by Prophet (PBUM) related to


xiv. Invasion in Afghanistan and Iraq transpires double standard Regarding Human Rights of


xv. The term “child” does not necessarily mean minor but can include


xvi. Children have the right in international law adequate standard of


xvii. International Court of justice was established in


xviii. International court of justice role is to settle legal disputes submitted to it by


xix. Women rights are the rights and entitlements claimed for women and girls of many societies


xx. The right of casting vote was firstly given to women by




LLB Part-III 2nd

Annual Examination, 2015



Objective Part




i. The High Court may make rules under

a. S. 111 b. S. 122 c. S. 133

ii. Limitation for a revision filed by a party is


iii. S. 114 CPC deals with


iv. A precept is Issued for

a. Arrest of Judgment debtor b. Attachment of Property of Judgment debtor

v. A civil suit can be transferred under

a. S. 24 b. S. 34 c. S. 44

vi. Suit regarding immovable property shall be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose

jurisdiction


vii. Res judicate is provided by the CPC in


viii. Movable property includes


ix. Rejection of plaint is provided in

a. O 7 R 11 b. O 8 R 10 c. O 13 R 10


a. Oral b. in writing c. Oral or in writing

xi. Parties may be added or struck at any time under


xii. Pleading may be amended

a. Before written statement b. Before Judgment c. At any stage

xiii. Both parties are absent and suit is dismissed, a fresh suit


xiv. Agent for Government to receive process is

a. Government pleader b. SHO c. Tehsildar

xv. A person who does not possess the mean to pay court fees is called

a. Lunstic b. Poor man c. A pauper

xvi. A suit on Negotiable Instrument is filed under

a. O 17 b. O 27 c. O 37

xvii. In summary suit a defendant can file written statement

a. After obtaining leave to defend b. As a matter of right

xviii. Pleadings shall be verified

a. On oath b. without oath c. no need to verify

xix. Appeal lies against

a. Decree b. Consent Decree

xx. Court can amend issues

a. At any time b. Before according of evidence



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part




Q.No.1. In execution proceedings what are the provisions for arrest and detention of judgment

debtor in prison?

Q.No.2. A witness is summoned but he failed to comply with. What are the powers of the court

to enforce attendance?

Q.No.3. The court may frame the issues after close of pleadings. From what materials?

Q.No.4. A decree passed ex parte can be set aside by court under what provision and on what

grounds?

Q.No.5. A pleading is required to be signed and verified. Discuss?


Q.No.6. The time during which one of the party has been absent from Pakistan, such time shall

be excluded in computing limitation, Discuss?

Q.No.7. The time requisite for obtaining copy of decree is excluded. What is the time requisite?



LLB Part-III 2nd


Subject: Criminal Procedure Code & Medical Jurisprudence Paper: II


Objective Part




i. Who may appoint Special Judicial Magistrate?

a. High Court b. Federal Government c. Supreme Court d. Provincial

Government

ii. Who may be appointed as Justice of Peace?

a. Magistrate b. Any Citizen c. Additional Session Judge d. Sessions Judge

iii. Magistrate of 2nd

class can pass sentence of imprisonment of maximum?

a. One Month b. Three years c. One year d. Six months

iv. Every person is bound to assist the Magistrate on reasonable demand to prevent breach of peace

under section

a. 42 Cr. P. C b. 44 Cr. P. C c. 144 Cr. P. C. d. 524 Cr. P. C

v. Any person arrested may be discharged under Section 63 Cr. P. C on

a. His own bond b. Bail c. Special order of Magistrate d. All above

vi. Warrant may be directed to

a. Police Officer b. Any person c. Investigation Officer d. a & b

vii. The F.I.R, needs to be signed by

a. Accused b. Victim c. Informer d. Police Officer

viii. Investigation against a women accused in offence of Zina may be conducted

a. By S.H.O b. By Inspector c. By S.P d. By Sub-Inspector

ix. Petition of Habeas Corpus can be made

a. Section Court b. High Court c. Magistrate d. a & b

x. Section 439-A deals with Revisional power of

a. Session Court b. High Court c. Supreme Court d. Magistrate

xi. Bail has __________ kinds

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

xii. Section of Cr. P. C, empowers Provincial Government to transfer cases and appeals

a. 525 b. 511 c. 527 d. 512

xiii. Punishment of Imprisonment granted under Section 514 Cr. P. C, is of

a. Civil nature b. Criminal nature c. Family nature d. None of these

xiv. There is no Appeal in ________ cases.

a. Death b. Sedition c. Summary Trial d. a & b

xv. The report of Police Officer needs to be submitted before Magistrate through

a. Officer Incharge b. Court Officer c. Lawyer d. Prosecutor

xvi. Unlawful assembly consisting at least ________ persons.

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7

xvii. Stab wound injury is

a. Superficial b. Skin deep c. Muscle deep d. Deep to cavity

xviii. Incised wound is result of

a. Fireman b. Blunt weapon c. Sharp edge d. Deep to cavity

xix. A medical certificate must be signed by a

a. Medical Officer b. Magistrate c. Medical Practitioner d. Police Officer

xx. In an Adult, the spine consists of _______ bones.

a. 33 b. 26 c. 20 d. 21



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part





a. Complaint b. Public Station c. Public Prosecutor

d. Investigation

Q.No.2. What are various classes of Criminal Court? What sentence can be passed by Sessions

Judge and a Magistrate?

Q.No.3. What is the procedure to compel the surrender to Law of absconder? Can his Property

be attached?

Q.No.4. What is confession? Who can record it and under what condition?

Q.No.5. What is bail before arrest? Under what circumstances be allowed?


Q.No.6. What is DNA? Describe the purpose of DNA Test? Who can obtain sample for DNA?

Q.No.7. What is Rigor Mortis?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Who is expert under what relevant article of Qanun-e-Shahadat order 1984?

a. 58 b. 59 c. 70 d. 70

ii. Article 55 of Qanun-e-Shahadat order deals with “Judgments in Rem”.


iii. Plea of Alibi has been enshrined in Article of Qanun-e-Shahdat order 1984.

a. 24 b. 25 c. 22 d. 26

iv. A retracted confession can become basis of conviction.


v. Under what article an accomplice is a competent witness against accused person, except in the case

of Hadd.

a. 17 b. 16 c. 15 d. 13

vi. Can a law man is competent to record dying declaration.


vii. Article 46 of Qanun-e-Shahadat defines

a. Hearsay Evidence b. Dying declaration c. Confession

viii. A witness who is gained over by the opposite party is a hostile witness.


ix. Whether estoppel differs from presumption.


x. The term “Estoppel” has been define in article.

a. 112 b. 113 c. 114 d. 116

xi. Identification paradc can only be conducted under Article


xii. The term “Resgestae” has been explained under Article.

a. 19 b. 15 c. 18 d. 17

xiii. Under what article the court may for bid a question, if a question in cross examination in irrelevant.

a. 142 b. 143 c. 145 d. 146

xiv. A witness many while under examination refresh his memory under article.

a. 157 b. 156 c. 155 d. 154

xv. Birth during marriage conclusive proof of marriage has been enshrined in article.

a. 127 b. 128 c. 129 d. 128

xvi. Under what Article a judge has power to put a question or order of production of any documents

a. 157 b. 160 c. 161 d. 164

xvii. Under what Article decision of case can become on the basis of oath.

a. 163 b. 168 c. 170

xviii. Leading question has been defined under article.

a. 136 b. 130 c. 135 d. 129

xix. Leading question may be as led in cross examination.


xx. A person who is deaf and dumb can also be competent witness.




LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Who are the Third persons, the Opinion of whom constitutes a relevant fact? Discuss

with respect in their evidentiary value?

Q.No.2. What is evidentiary value of “Dying Declaration” can conviction be based on it?

Q.No.3. What is the conclusive proof? LEGITIMACY” Discuss in detail?


i. Alibi ii. Admissions iii. CROSS Examination

iv. Re-Examination

Q.No.5. Who is an “Accomplice” and what is the value of his testimony against an accused

person?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Discuss the code of conduct and duties of a Lawyer vis-à-vis to Judge?

i. Senior and Junior Lawyers ii. His opening Lawyers/ Counsel.

Q.No.7. Suggest some merits for a good and successful Lawyer?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Document of “will” which Registration is not compulsory.

a. Yes b. No

ii. A Minor cannot file a suit without next friend.

a. Yes b. No

iii. Suit under O 37 may not be files in the Court of District Judge.

a. Yes b. No

iv. Gift cannot be revoked by donor in his life time

a. Yes b. No

v. Amendment in the Pleadings can be made at any stage.

a. Yes b. No

vi. Under O 7 R 10 CPC Court can return the plant.

a. Yes b. No

vii. Limitation for filing Revision before High court is three years.

a. Yes b. No

viii. Second appeal cannot be filed on question of panel.

a. Yes b. No

ix. Authorized agent cannot verify the pleading.

a. Yes b. No

x. Court can pass preliminary decree in partition suit, firstly.

a. Yes b. No

xi. Pleadings must be signed by the parties.

a. Yes b. No

xii. Plaint can be rejected without causes of action.

a. Yes b. No

xiii. Agreement to sell does not confer any night titled.

a. Yes b. No

xiv. Facts admitted by the parties need to be proved.

a. Yes b. No

xv. Two witnesses are necessary of attestation of document.

a. Yes b. No

xvi. Verification of pleadings are not necessary.

a. Yes b. No

xvii. Valid documents are not enforceable by law.

a. Yes b. No

xviii. An oral Gift is a valid Gift under Muhammadian Law.

a. Yes b. No

xix. Replication is not the Part of Pleadings.

a. Yes b. No

xx. Rectification Deed is not a part of original Deed.

a. Yes b. No



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part




Part-I

Q.No.1. What is sale, explain? Write a sale deed of a mortgaged house?

ر رک ںی۔عیب ایک ےہ۔ ااہم رحت ب

عب رک ںی۔ رنہ دشہ اکمم اک ب ی

ت

واضح

Q.No.2. Draft a deed of partnership between two partners?

اہم امنیب دو )

ر رک ںی۔۲رشاتک ن ( ہصح دارام رحتب

Q.No.3. Draft a deed of divorce on behalf of Muslim husband to his wife?

ےس ا

ر یک اجن ر رک ںی۔ای ملسم وش ہ اہم رحت ب

س یک ویب ی وک الطق ن

Q.No.4. Draft a deed of will with legacies and to continue Trust for children?

اک اج ر ی راھک اجےئ۔

ٹ

ر ہک یک میسقت اور وچب ں ےک ےیل رٹ س

ت

ر رک ںی۔ سج ںیم ب اہم رحت ب

ای وتیص ن

Part-II

Q.No.5. Draft a suit for cancellation of sale deed?

ر رک ںی۔ ا ہم رحت ب

ر اےئ وسنم یخ ب رع یض دوع ی ب

Q.No.6. Draft a suit for restitution of conjugal right form husband against wife?

ر رک ںی۔ ر الخ ف زوہج رحت ب ر ب وش ہ

رع یض دوع ی ااعدہ وقح ق زم اوش یئ اجنمن

Q.No.7. Draft a plaint for dissolution of partnership?

ر رک ںی۔رع یض دوع ی خسن رک ےن رشا تک داری رحت ب



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. In case of ambiguity in a penal statute benefit goes to

a. Accused b. Complainant c. both a & b

ii. The only cannon of statutory interpretation are

a. The Literal Rule b. Mischief Rule c. Golden Rule d. All Above

iii. The part which constitute the frame work of a statute

a. Headings b. Preamble c. All of these d. None of these

iv. Preamble cannot restrict or extend the scope of a statute

a. True b. False

v. Only historical perspective in sufficient to interpretation of a statute

a. True b. False

vi. A part of law which regulates rights and duties of employer and employees is called

a. Substantive Law b. Administrative Law

vii. When two sections of same statute are repugnant the rule is that the first most prevail

a. True b. False

viii. A subsequent change in law not having retrospective effect can effect the previous litigation of

parties

a. True b. False

ix. Validity of an act depends upon

a. Legislative competency b. Conformity with the Constitutional Law c. both a & b

x. Invalid law which remained unchallenged for many years does not become valid

a. True b. False

xi. Stopple cannot operate to prevent to performed the statutory duty for the benefit of the public

a. True b. False

xii. A statutes may repeal either expressly or by implication

a. True b. False

xiii. A notes found printed at the site of the section is an act used as an aid to construction are called

marginal notes

a. True b. False

xiv. Consent cannot give Jurisdiction.

a. True b. False

xv. The word shall is taken in a mandatory sense

a. True b. False

xvi. A decision given in the supreme court is binding upon to all subordinate courts

a. True b. False

xvii. A cheque upon a banker is a document

a. True b. False

xviii. Criminal Courts can exercise their inherent power under section.

a. 151 CPC b. 561 A CrPc c. both a & b

xix. Ambiguity means

a. Doubtfulness b. Double meaning c. both a & b

xx. Section is general clauses acted attracted only in case of appointment of a person by a competent

authority

a. True b. False



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Define statute and describe the different parts of statute?


i. Construction of a statute ii. Interpretation of a statute

Q.No.3. Define directory and mandatory statutes and differentiate them in detail?

Q.No.4. Define and explain in detail the rules of Beneficial Construction of a statute?

Q.No.5. What is Literal Construction and Mischief Rule discuss in detail?

Part-II


i. May & Shall ii. Vessel iii. Successor

iv. Public nuisance

Q.No.7. An offender cannot be punished twice for the same offence discuss the rule in detail in

referring relevant provision of Law?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. A suit for infringement of trademark may be filed under ______ of the trade marks ordinance 2001

a. 105 b. 106 c. 117 d. 118

ii. To get copyright protection, it is necessary to get license from a government institution

a. True b. False

iii. A suit for infringement of trade mark is filed in ________.

a. Supreme Court b. High Court c. District Court d. District Magistrate


a. True b. False


a. A student photo copying a chapter of a book for academic purpose only

b. Reading a book without permission of the author c. Referring a book to a friend

d. Downloading a movie from the internet without permission of the owner

vi. When the Berne convention was first adopted

a. 1880 b. 1883 c. 1886 d. 1986

vii. Berne is the city of


viii. The headquarter of I.P.O of Pakistan is located at _______.


ix. How a company can protect its products name with unique identity

a. Copyright b. Trade mark c. Patent d. None of these

x. When Paris convention was signed

a. 1880 b. 1883 c. 1886 d. 1987

xi. Patents are protected for a definite period

a. True b. False

xii. Copyrights are only available for computer programming

a. True b. False

xiii. Movies are protected under copyright

a. True b. False

xiv. Design protection is unlimited under Pakistan laws

a. True b. False

xv. Patent right is a saleable property

a. True b. False

xvi. Pakistan became members of WTO in the year

a. 1995 b. 1997 c. 1947 d. 1999

xvii. Pakistan is a leading country in protecting intellectual property laws

a. True b. False

xviii. A particular design which has its unique distinction due to its colors combinations etc. may be

protected under

a. Patent laws b. Copyright laws c. Design laws d. None of these

xix. Person means

a. Natural person b. juristic person c. both

xx. Copyright is restricted to books only

a. True b. False



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Write down the basic features of Patents Cooperation Treaty in detail?

Q.No.2. Discuss briefly the enforcement problems of ensuing intellectual property rights in

Pakistan?

Q.No.3. What kinds of works are protected under copyrights laws in Pakistan? How do


Q.No.4. What type of privileges are available after acquiring patent rights?

Q.No.5. What defences can be taken by defendant accused of infringement of copyright?

Q.No.6. Mr. Mushtaq is a professor of Urdu in BZU, Multan who has authored a book unique in

Urdu prose. Mr. Mushtaq did not bother to get the book registered by protecting

copyright. Soon after the book is published, some unscrupulous elements pirate the

original work of Mr. Mushtaq and published it with their own name. Does efforts of

Mr. Mushtaq end in smoke. You are advisor of Mr. Mushtaq, advise him on the issue.




LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. I.E.E stand for

a. International environmental establishment b. Initial Environmental Examination

c. Integrated Environmental Examination d. Islamic Environmental Establishment

ii. Ozone Act as

a. Saver b. Oxidant c. Pollutant d. All of these

iii. Waste resulting from an industrial activity is

a. Hazardous waste b. industrial waste c. factory waste d. nuclear waste

iv. Intensity Duration and character of sound from all sources is

a. Pollution b. Noise c. Loud Speakers d. Eco system

v. Environment means

a. Air b. water c. eco system & Ecological relationship

vi. Any premises in which industrial activity is being undertaken is

a. Factory b. industry c. Estate d. None of these

vii. Anything made for the conveyance by water of human being or of goods is

a. Vessel b. Vehicle c. Tube d. Waste

viii. Pakistan Environmental Protection Act Received the assent of President on

a. 3rd

December 1997 b. 14th August, 1997 c. 25

th September, 1997 d. 12

th Jan

ix. NEQs stands for

a. National Environmental Quality standards b. National Examination of Qualities state

c. North East Quality standards d. New Quality Environmental strategy

x. The burning of fossil fuels

a. Decrease green Houses Gases b. Increase Green Houses Gases c. Increase

level of Oxygen d. Increase level of Ethane

xi. Which of the following problem is not caused by Noise pollution

a. Diarrhoea b. Hyper Tension c. Deafness d. Initation

xii. A court that is empowered to entertain environmental matters under PEPA, 1997 is named as

a. Environmental Tribunal b. Civil Court c. District Court

xiii. If an offence under PEPA, 1997 is committed by a company as defined under the companies

Ordinance, 1984, then who shall be liable.

a. Shareholders b. Chief Executive c. Creditor d. All of them

xiv. Any dues recoverable by the Federal Agency or provincial Agency under PEPA, 1997 shall be

recoverable as

a. Liquidated Damages b. Compensation c. Arrears of Land Revenue d. None

xv. The Limitation Period provided in PEPA, 1997 to file an appeal before High Court against order of

Environmental Tribunal is

a. 30 days b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 20 days

xvi. The court competent to bear appeal against conviction under PEPA, 1997 is

a. High Court b. Court of Session c. Environmental Magistrate d. Supreme Court

xvii. EIA means

a. European International Environmental Association b. Environmental Impact Assessment

c. Environmental initial Assessment d. None of these

xviii. The addition of unwanted and harmful materials in the environmental is called

a. Pollution b. Nabitat c. Climate d. Population

xix. Chief source of Energy in Environmental is

a. Fire b. Moon c. Stars d. Sun

xx. Biotic Environmental includes

a. Producer b. Consumers c. Decomposers d. All of above



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Under what provision of Law Appeal is to filed in environmental Tribunal and appeal

from orders of Environmental Tribunal? Briefly state the jurisdiction of Environmental

Magistrates?

Q.No.2. Write a detailed note on Environmental protection Order?

Q.No.3. Describe Initial Environmental Examination and Environmental Impact Assessment?

Q.No.4. What steps should be taken for effective implementation of Environmental Laws in

Pakistan?


a. National Environmental Quality Standards b. Person

c. Standards d. Waste e. Industrial Activity

Q.No.6. Write a note on common Law remedies against Environmental pollution?

Q.No.7. Describe prohibition of certain discharges provided Under Section 11 of PEPA, 1997?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. A person to whom the amount specified in a bill of exchange is to be paid is called

a. Holder b. Drawer c. Drawee d. Payee

ii. A banking company must be a company limited by guarantee

a. True b. False

iii. A person who issues a promissory note is called

a. Issuer b. Payee c. Drawer d. Drawee

iv. In Modaraba business all partners contribute finance.

a. True b. False


a. Moveable b. Immoveable c. both

vi. A person to who finance is extended by a financial institution is called

a. Customer b. Client c. Account holder d. None of them

vii. Banking Courts are established under section ______ of the Financial Institutions (Recovery of

Finance) Ordinance 2001.

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5

viii. Annual meeting of the shareholders of a bank is called

a. Statutory Meeting b. Extra-ordinary general meeting c. Annual general meeting

ix. A negotiable instrument is of ________ types.

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

x. There is no restriction as regards minimum paid up capital of a banking company

a. True b. False

xi. The State Bank may appoint any person to be a director of a banking company without any

qualification shares in his/her name.

a. True b. False

xii. A banking court in exercise of its criminal jurisdiction, trying offences punishable under the

Financial Institutions (Recovery of Finance) Ordinance 2001, shall have the same powers as are

vested in a ______ under the Codes of Criminal Procedure 1898.

a. Civil Judge b. District Judge c. Court of Session d. Judicial Magistrate

xiii. _______ may establish as many as banking courts as it deem necessary

a. Provincial Government b. Federal Government c. State Bank d. High Court

xiv. _______ means a bank for the time being included in the list of banks maintained under sub-section

(1) and section. 37 of the State Bank of Pakistan 1956.

a. State Bank of Pakistan b. Scheduled Bank

xv. Head office of the state bank of Pakistan is situated in ________.


xvi. There is no difference between a public company and a private company.

a. True b. False

xvii. Shares in a private company are freely transformable.

a. True b. False

xviii. Directors in a company are agents of the company.

a. True b. False

xix. State Bank of Pakistan was established in

a. 1948 b. 1948 c. 1947 d. 1955

xx. Promissory note is also called Bank Draft.

a. True b. False



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Discuss the role and function of the State Bank of Pakistan under the State Bank of

Pakistan Act 1956?

Q.No.2. Discuss briefly the sallent features of the Banking Companies Ordinance, 1962?

Q.No.3. Discuss the winding up of Modaraba Companies under the Modaraba Companies and

Modaraba (Floatation and Control) Ordinance 1980?



Q.No.5. Define the term, „Negotiable Instrument‟ and discuss essential characteristics of it

under the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881?

Q.No.6. Write a note on establishment and powers of Banking Courts under the Financial

Institution (Recovery of Finance) Ordinance 2001?


a. Draft b. Cheque c. Notary Public



LLB Part-III 2nd


Subject: Labor Law Paper: VI-VII (iv)


Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Define works man and explain its different kinds under Standing Order, 1968?

Q.No.2. Write short note on any of the following with reference of Standing Order 1968?

i. Special Provision for Construction Workers under Section 14-A and Punishment

under Section 15.

ii. Payment of Bonus iii. Closure of Establishment

iv. Compulsory Group of Insurance

Q.No.3. What is meant by illegal strike or lock out? Discuss the procedure in case of illegal

strikes?

Q.No.4. Define Redress of Individual Grievance and under what circumstances works takes the

matter to the Labor Court?

Q.No.5. What is meant by Unfair Labor Practices? Explain the Penalties for Unfair labor

practices in accordance with Industrial Relations Act, 2012?


i. Go slow ii. Industrial Dispute ii. Trader Union

iv. Unfair Labor Practices v. Collective Bargaining Agent

vi. Industrial Establishment

Q.No.7. What are the power and duties of a Labor Court and how a Labor Court is constituted

under Industrial Relations Ordinance, 2002 and what is its procedure?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Under section _______ if the source of income is not Pakistan it is called foreign source of Income

a. 116 b. 2(27) c. 87

ii. According to section ______ liquidation in relation to a company includes the termination of trust

a. 53 b. 2(3) c. 114

iii. The third source of income from a person may derive income is “Income from business” under

section ____________.

a. 54 b. 18 c. 170

iv. All expenditure benefiting business for a long terms are called _________.

a. Personal expenditure b. capital expenditure c. profit and loss expenditure

v. Pension or annuity paid by employer is included in __________.

a. Income from business b. Income from other source c. rental income

vi. The _______ of Income tax has the power to extend the date for furnishing the return provided that

an application in time is presented by du date of furnishing the return.

a. FBR b. Commissioner Income tax

vii. For the Cases of Flour Mills the rate of minimum tax on the amount representing their annual

turnover under section 113 shall be ________.

a. 75% b. 20% c. 50%

viii. The persons paying any profit on any debt should deduct tax out of such amount under section

a. 137 b. 151 c. 148

ix. Every person sell in petroleum products to a petrol pump operator to deduct tax from the amount of

commission at rate of _________.

a. 20% b. 10% c. 15%

x. In case the tribunal refuse or reject he reference application in that case the party can file a

reference directly in the High Court with _________ days.

a. 30 b. 120 c. 140

xi. Section 170 & 171 of income ordinance 2001 relate to ________.

a. Assessment b. refund c. rectification

xii. Appointing authority of income tax officer of various classes

a. Commissioner b. FBR c. Additional Commissioner

xiii. Under section _________ Advance Tax is collected at the time of sales by Auction

a. 231 b. 236A c. 170

xiv. Appeal against the order of the Commissioner (Appeal) is filled before the

a. Civil Judge b. Appellate Tribunal c. Judge of High Court

xv. Under section 234A the gas marketing companies shall deduct tax _____ of the amount of gas bill

a. 25% b. 4% c. 10%

xvi. No advance tax shall be collected on cars used for more than _________ years.

a. 5 b. 10 c. 8

xvii. After 01-07-2007 the highest executive authority of income tax in Pakistan is called ________

a. Chief Commissioner b. Federal Board of Revenue c. Chief Justice

xviii. Audit conducted under section 32A is called ___________.

a. Order in original b. special Audit c. Assessment

xix. Penalty for assesse who fail to file sales Tax Return or late filling, penalty can be imposed at

a. 1000 b. 5000 c. 20000

xx. _________ Additional initial deprecation, Normal depreciation are kinds of depreciation

a. Special Depreciation b. Initial depreciation



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part



Part-I


i. FBR ii. Chief Commissioner Inland Revenue iii. Set off (Off Set)

iv. Transitional Advance Tax v. Group Taxation vi. Tax year

Q.No.2. What do you meant by deduction at source? State the advantage if any, to the revenue

by the adoption of this method of tax collection?

Q.No.3. What is the difference between Capital Expenditure and business Expenditure?

Q.No.4. Discuss definition of appeal and procedure of appeal to the Commissioner of appeal?

Q.No.5. Discuss refund in detail under Income Tax Ordinance 2001?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Discuss the Registered Office, Registration Number and Registered person under Sale

Tax Act 1990?

Q.No.7. What is the procedure for claiming a refund and what supportive documents are

required for refund claim?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Limitation for filing appeal before Commissioner is


ii. Pre-emption Act extends to the whole

a. Only agricultural land b. Punjab c. Pakistan

iii. Punjab Tenancy Act of

a. 1975 b. 1847 c. 1887

iv. Appointment of Lumberdar is made by

a. Commissioner b. District Collector c. Assistant Collection I grade / Tehsildar

v. First appointment of Lumberdar is made under Punjab Land Revenue

a. 19 b. 22 c. 17

vi. Rule 18 of Punjab Land Revenue Rules of 1968 deals with

a. Functions of Lumberdar b. Appointment of Lumberdar c. Dismissal of Lumberdar

vii. Section 161 of Land Revenue Act 1967 deals with

a. Review b. Revision c. Appeal

viii. Partition of agricultural land can be made by

a. Additional District Collector b. Assistant Collector c. Assistant Collector

1 Grade / Tehsildar

ix. Period of limitation for filling Pre-emption suit is


x. Punjab Tenancy Act came into being in

a. 1827 b. 1925 c. 1887

xi. Under what provision of Pre-Emption Act 1991 market value of property is determined?

a. 24 b. 8 c. 28

xii. Rent means whatever is payable to

a. Land owner b. Government c. Landlord

xiii. Ejectment suit can be brought under S.45 of Tenancy Act on

a. 15 November b. 15 April c. 30 June

xiv. Decree order for ejectment shall be executed between

a. 1st July 30

th August b. 1

st May to 15

th June c. 1

st June to 30

th June

xv. Board of Revenue Punjab Lahore was established under the Board of Revenue Act

a. 1827 b. 1757 c. 1957

xvi. Under what provision of Punjab Tenancy Act 1887 reviewal powers can be exercised by the

Revenue Officer

a. S. 75 b. S. 49 c. S. 82

xvii. Which provision of Punjab Tenancy Act 1887 describes the ground of ejectment of occupancy

tenant

a. S. 15 b. S. 39 c. S. 18

xviii. Agricultural year commences on the

a. 15th day of June b. 1

st day of August c. 1

st day of July

xix. Under what provision of Land Revenue Act 1967 record of rights is drawn-up?

a. S. 39 b. S. 38 c. S. 50

xx. What is time for filing appeal against the sanction of mutation?




LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part



Part-I (West Pakistan Land Revenue Act, 1967)

Q.No.1. Define and explain the followings

i. Estate ii. Holding iii. Land Lord

iv. Land owner v. Land Revenue

Q.No.2. Under what grounds lumberdar is dismissed from his office?

Q.No.3. What is meant by record of rights and also enumerate the documents which are

appended therewith at the time of preparation thereof?


Q.No.4. What are respective rights of land lords and tenants to produce?

Q.No.5. Write a comprehensive note on the appointment of referee for the division or

appraisement of produce?


Q.No.6. What are priorities in the right of Pre-emption?

Q.No.7. What is method of distribution of property where more than one persons are equally

entitled?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. The court has power to remove an arbitrator or umpire who has _________ himself or proceeding.

a. Misused b. written c. misconduct

ii. The umpire shall make his award within ______ months of entering on the reference or within such

extended time as court may allow.

a. Two months b. four months c. six months

iii. Arbitrator or umpire _______ sign the award.

a. May b. shall c. can

iv. Reference means a reference to _________.

a. Civil court b. arbitration c. settlement

v. In certain cases when parties are failed to appoint arbitrator than ________.

a. A new agreement is executed b. court can appoint c. agreement becomes

defunct.

vi. The Arbitration Act (X of 1940) shall come into force on _______.

a. 1st day of June b. 1

st day of July c. 1

st day of August

vii. An arbitration agreement _____________ discharged by the death of any party.

a. Shall be b. shall not be c. can be

viii. A written agreement to submit present or future differences to arbitration whether an arbitrator is

named therein or not is called _____________.

a. Sale agreement b. arbitration agreement c. agreement between the parties

ix. Powers of courts for issuance of process for appearance before arbitrator is given in section ____

a. 41 b. 42 c. 43

x. The ______ Government has power to make rules determining value of land for jurisdiction.

a. District b. Provincial c. Central

xi. Section 11 deals with the procedure where objection is taken on appeal or revision that a suit or

appeal was not properly ________ for jurisdiction purpose.

a. Determined b. fixed c. valued

xii. The applicability of the Court Fee Act is up to _______.

a. High court b. The Supreme court c. whole of Pakistan

xiii. Computation of court fee payable with regard suits has been given in the

a. Stamp Act b. Suit Valuation Act c. Court Fee Act

xiv. The suit for moveable property of no market value for the purpose of court fee shall be computed in

section ______.

a. 7(i) b. 7(v) c. 7(iv)(a)

xv. To what extent the suit for money is exempted for levy of court fee _____.

a. Rs. 50000 b. Rs. 25000 c. Rs. 100000

xvi. When the court has reason to think that the suit has not property valued it must decide_________

a. With judicial enquiry b. with its own discretion c. with the help of opposite party

xvii. Premises means _______.

a. Rented land b. agricultural land c. land subservient to agriculture

xviii. The rent of a non-residential building shall stand automatically increased at the end of every

______ of its tenancy by twenty five percent of the rent already being paid by the tenant.

a. Five years b. three years c. one year

xix. Tenant is under obligation to use the premises in accordance with his _______

a. Own suitability b. prevailing trend c. for which it is let out

xx. A tenant shall pay the rent to the land lord according to _________.

a. Monthly b. yearly c. the tenancy agreement



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part


Q.No.1. After submission of award in the court, explain the procedure and one of the Court?

Q.No.2. What are the powers of a civil court under Arbitration Act 1940 when arbitration is

without the intervention of the court? Discuss comprehensively?


a. Application of limitation Act 1908 (X1 of 1908) on arbitration

b. Powers of arbitrators

Q.No.4. Explain the valuation of suits according to the Court Fee Act 1870?

i. Suit for injunction ii. Suit for declaration iii. Suit for partition

iv. Suit for money

Q.No.5. Under what provisions of law, the value of certain suits can be determined by High

Court?

Q.No.6. Write a detail note on establishment of Rent Tribunal under the Punjab Rented

Premises Act 2009?

Q.No.7. Discuss the principles for increasing rent of residential building and non-residential

buildings?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Who said that “Rights in an interest recognized and protected by a rule of right”.

a. Austin b. Salmond c. Holland d. A.K, Brohi

ii. Why “CEDAW” was established?

a. To eliminate discrimination against women b. to help multinational corporations

c. To protect the rights of refugees.

iii. Dejure and Defacto sovereignty means

a. Legal and Actual Sovereignty b. Titular and Political sovereignty

c. Popular and Nominal sovereignty

iv. “Megna Carta” was singed by


v. The documents of Rights “Megna Carta” was signed in

a. 1012 b. 1215 c. 1318

vi. Human Rights include

a. Political Rights b. Religious Rights c. Economic Rights d. All above

vii. UNO came into existence

a. 1945 b. 1949 c. 1950 d. 1952

viii. The Charter of UNO was signed in

a. 1945 b. 1946 c. 1947 d. 1948

ix. The head office of UNO is located in

a. New York b. Hague c. Andorra d. Japan

x. The rights of casting vote was firstly given to women by

a. USA b. UK c. France d. Italy

xi. Slavery and the slave trade shall be prohibited in all their forms defined in Universal Declaration of

human rights under article

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6

xii. The Human Rights Act, 1998 is an act of Parliament of


xiii. Universal, declaration of Human Rights is a common standard of achievement for

a. People of USA b. All People c. Only UK

xiv. Refugees comprise a category of

a. Foreigners b. Citizens c. Local

xv. The term “child” does not necessarily mean minor but can include


xvi. Invasion in Afganistan and Iraq transpires double standard regarding Human Rights of


xvii. How many official working languages are recognized by the UNO?

a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 15

xviii. Which organ of UNO is considered as World Parliament?

a. General Assembly b. Security Council c. IR Court of Justice

xix. The UN Security Council has permanent members

a. 5 b. 7 c. 15 d. 9

xx. UNHR stands for

a. World Health Organization b. UN High Commissioner for Refugee

b. IR Court of Justice



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Define Terrorism? Discuss in detail the motives and impacts of Terrorism on society?

Q.No.2. What is Right? Elaborate different kinds of Rights available to individual under

International Law?

Q.No.3. Define Racism? How Racism is eliminated by United Nation?

Q.No.4. Critically examine the role of United Nation in Political field?

Q.No.5. What does Islam says about Human Rights?

Q.No.6. What is the Universal Declaration of Human Rights?

Q.No.7. What are the contributions of United Nation to improve the standard of health?




Subject: Civil Procedure Paper: I


Objective Part




i. A precept is issued for

a. Arrest of Judgment debtor b. Attachment of property of judgment debtor

c. Executor d. Decree holder

ii. Suit regarding immoveable property shall be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose

jurisdiction.

a. The Property is situate b. The party resides c. The plaintiff desire d. None

iii. Res-Judicata is provided by the C.P.C in


iv. Pleading may be amended

a. Before written statement b. before judgment c. before framing of issue

v. A person who does not possess the mean to pay court fees is called

a. Lunatic b. poor man c. pauper d. none of these

vi. Appeal lies against

a. Decree b. Consent Decree c. Decree holder d. None of these

vii. Whether the court is competent to condone the period of limitation, if so under what provision


viii. Under what provisions of law local commission can be appointed.

a. 151 C.P.C b. Order 26 Rule 9 c. Order 41 Rule 1 d. Order 26 Rule 1

ix. How many kinds of issues are

a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

x. The grant of temporary injunction is under

a. O 38 R 1 & 2 b. O 41 R 1 & 2 c. O 39 R 1 & 2 d. O 40 R 1 & 2

xi. Under what provisions of law a decree passed away be set aside on the ground of fraud,


a. Section 12(2) b. Section 2(12) c. Section 148 d. Section 150

xii. Pecuniary jurisdiction of Civil Judge 1st Class is

a. Rs. 2,000,000/- b. Rs. 2,5000,000/- c. unlimited d. Rs. 50,000,000/-

xiii. Under what provision of law an ex-parte decree can be aside

a. O 13 R 9 b. O 9 R 13 c. O 26 R 10 d. O 10 R 26

xiv. The written statement is filed under

a. O 8 R 1 b. O 7 R 1 c. O 6 R 1 d. O 9 R 1

xv. The procedure for the summoning of the witness in C.P.C is governed under

a. O 15 R 1 b. O 14 R 10 c. O 16 R 1 & 2 d. O 18 R 10

xvi. Order 40 relates to the appointment of receiver, if so, under what rule

a. Rule 13 b. Rule 2 c. Rule 5 d. Rule 1

xvii. Under what provision of law the court can attach property before announcing the judgment.


xviii. Revision can be filed under Section


xix. Both parties are absent and suit is dismissed, a fresh suit

a. Can be filed b. cannot be filed c. filed another is provided in d. None

xx. Rejection of plaint is provided in

a. O 7 R 11 b. O 11 R 7 c. O 8 R 10 d. O 21 R 10




Subject: Civil Procedure Paper: I


Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. A decree passed exparte can be set aside by court if so under what provision and on

what grounds?


Q.No.3. On what grounds the remedy of revision is available to an aggrieved party?

Q.No.4. What are the provisions for substituted service of summons?

Q.No.5. What are the provisions for suits by or against the government?


Q.No.6. Under what circumstances court is authorized to condone the delay?

Q.No.7. What is the effect of acknowledge in writing “on period” of limitation?






Objective Part




i. Cr. P. C came into force on

a. 1st July, 1898 b. 1

st August, 1898 c. 1

st September, 1898 d. 1

st October, 1898

ii. Section 6 of Cr. P. C deals with

a. Classification of Courts b. Appointment of magistrate c. Appointment of

Sessions Judge d. None of above

iii. Who may be appointed as Justice of Peace?

a. Magistrate b. Any Citizen c. Additional Sessions Judge d. Sessions Judge

iv. Magistrate of 1st Class can pass sentence of imprisonment of maximum?

a. One year b. Two years c. Three years d. Five years

v. Any person arrested may be discharged under the Section 63 Cr. P. C on

a. His own bond b. Bail c. Special order of Magistrate d. All above

vi. Warrant may be directed to

a. Police officer b. Any person c. Investigation Officer d. a & b

vii. Police Officer may arrest without warrant?

a. 54 of Cr. P. C b. 64 of Cr. P. C c. 74 of Cr. P. C d. 84 of Cr. P. C

viii. The F. I. R needs to be signed by

a. Accused b. Victim c. Informer d. Police Officer

ix. Search Warrant may be issued U/S


x. Proclamation of person of absconding is issued U/S


xi. Maximum physical remand can be granted


xii. An inquiry U/S 176 Cr. P. C into cause of death is held by

a. Police Officer b. Magistrate c. Sessions Judge d. High Court

xiii. Complaint can be lodged U/S

a. 100 Cr. P. C b. 200 Cr. P. C c. 300 Cr. P. C d. 400 Cr. P. C

xiv. A Magistrate can acquit an accused at any stage, after hearing the Prosecutor U/S

a. 265-K Cr. P. C b. 256-K Cr. P. C c. 249-A Cr. P. C d. 349-A Cr. P. C

xv. Appeal against Acquittal lies to

a. Magistrate b. Sessions Judge c. High Court d. Supreme Court

xvi. Irregularities which do not vitiate proceedings are give U/S

a. 329 Cr. P. C b. 428 Cr. P. C c. 429 Cr. P. C d. 529 Cr. P. C

xvii. There is no appeal in ________ cases.

a. Death b. Sedition c. Summary Trial d. None of above

xviii. Section 439-A deals with Revisional Power of

a. Session Court b. High Court c. Supreme Court d. None of above

xix. The limits for disinterment of corpses in Pakistan is

a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. No limit

xx. Incised wound is result of

a. Firearm b. Blunt Weapon c. Sharp Edge d. None of above






Subjective Part




Q.No.1. Define the following

a. Complaint b. Charge c. Cognizable Offence

d. Investigation

Q.No.2. What are various classes of Criminal Court? What sentence can be passed by Sessions

Judge and a Magistrate?

Q.No.3. When Police Officer may arrest without a Warrant?

Q.No.4. What is Physical Remand? What are the grounds for granting Physical Remand?

Q.No.5. Define the procedure of trial before magistrate?


Q.No.6. Write a detail note on postmortem examination?

Q.No.7. What is Medico Legal Report Explain in detail?






Objective Part




i. The principle of the rule laid down in the Article 23 of Qanon-e-Shahadat is

a. Custom b. Murder c. Confession

ii. A child can be a competent witness under Article

a. 3 b. 9 c. 8 d. 7

iii. A retracted confession is made by

a. Court b. Accused person c. witness d. police

iv. Extra judicial confession is made under article

a. 40 b. 41 c. 37 d. 22

v. Under what Article Examination in chief has been defined

a. 139 b. 24 c. 26 d. 132

vi. Leading question has been defined under article

a. 136 b. 130 c. 135 d. 129

vii. A person who is deaf and dumb can also be competent witness


viii. Oral evidence is made before

a. Court b. witness c. police

ix. A witness who is gained over by the opposite party is a hostile witness


x. Can a lay man is competent to record dying declaration


xi. Under what article confession before police is not admission

a. 37 b. 38 c. 40 d. 41

xii. Plea of Alibi has been enshrined in article of Qanun-e-Shahadat order 1984

a. 24 b. 25 c. 22 d. 26

xiii. Primary evidence has been defined in article

a. 74 b. 73 c. 76 d. 79

xiv. Article 55 of Qanun-e-Shahadat order deals with “Judgments in him”


xv. Under what article an accomplice is a competent witness against accused person

a. 17 b. 16 c. 15 d. 13

xvi. Article 46 of Qanun-e-Shahadat defines

a. Hearsay evidence b. Confession c. Dying declaration

xvii. Whether estoppels differs from presumption


xviii. Identification parade can only be conducted under Article

a. 24 b. 22 c. 25 d. 20

xix. The term “Res-gestrae” has been explained under Article

a. 19 b. 15 c. 18 d. 17

xx. Leading question may be asked in cross examination







Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Write a comprehensive note on kinds of evidence by giving examples?

Q.No.2. Write a short notes on following

i. Document ii. Evidence iii. Evidence of a child

iv. Fact

Q.No.3. What do you mean by a hearsay evidence, and also write down its relevant article?

Q.No.4. What is presumption, how many types it is, what are tis sources?

Q.No.5. What is the conclusive proof? “LEGITIMACY” Discuss in detail.

Part-II

Q.No.6. Suggest some merits for a good and successful Lawyers?

Q.No.7. What are the ethical restriction upon a Lawyer with reference to the rule of professional

conduct?






Objective Part




i. Whether an amendment can be allowed at appellate stage.

a. Yes b. No

ii. Whether a suit against the minor defendant can proceed without impleading the minor through

guardian at litem.

a. Yes b. No

iii. Whether civil court has jurisdiction to hear case of criminal nature.

a. Yes b. No

iv. Whether consent decree is appealable.

a. Yes b. No

v. Whether pleading shall contain evidence.

a. Yes b. No

vi. Whether civil court has jurisdiction to hear criminal case.

a. Yes b. No

vii. Whether civil court under Order 7 Rule 10 C. P. C suit can reject the plaint.

a. Yes b. No

viii. Whether authorized agent can file civil suit.

a. Yes b. No

ix. Whether in absence of any prayer a civil court can grant relief.

a. Yes b. No

x. Whether the civil court in suit for partition can pass firstly final decree.

a. Yes b. No

xi. Whether an agreement not enforceable by law is said voidable.

a. Yes b. No

xii. Whether in pre-emption suit demand shall be made firstly Talab Ishhad.

a. Yes b. No

xiii. Is in civil suit verification of plaint is not important.

a. Yes b. No

xiv. Is the rectification deed needs is the part of original deed.

a. Yes b. No

xv. Is every legal deed needs two attesting witness.

a. Yes b. No

xvi. Is replication is not of pleading.

a. Yes b. No

xvii. An agreement to sell is a sale.

a. Yes b. No

xviii. A gift can be made in favour of minor.

a. Yes b. No

xix. Limitation for filing a suit for recovery of money is six years.

a. Yes b. No

xx. Is the consent decree is appealable.

a. Yes b. No






Subjective Part




Part-I

Q.No.1. Draft a deed of Waqf for public purposes?

ر ر اےئ وع ال اانل س رحت ب اہم ب

رک ںی؟ وفق ن

Q.No.2. Draft a special power of attorney for pursuing case in the court?

ر رک ںی؟ ر اےئ ریپ وی دقم ہم رحت ب اہم اخص ب

ایتخمر ن

Q.No.3. Draft an arbitration agreement entered into the pending case?

ر رحت ب

ت

ر دعال

ر وجت ب دقمہم زب

ت

ایثل ن ان

اہم ن

رار ن

ت

رک ںی؟اف

Q.No.4. Draft sale deed of mortgage property to the mortgagee?

ر رک ںی؟ رنہ دشہ اج دیئ ا د قحب رم نہت رحت ب

ت

اہم ن ا ن

عیب ن

Part-II

Q.No.5. Draft a plaint in respect of damages for malicious prosecution?

ر رک ںی؟ دوعی ادقم ہم رحت ب

ٹ

را راسیئ وب ہج دب ن ا نط وھج ن

دال ن ا ےن اعم و ہض اب

Q.No.6. Draft a suit for possession through partition of 1/3rd

share belonging to the plaintiff?

دا اگہن دقب ر ر انب ےئ میسقت ج ر رک ںی؟ 3 /1دوع ی دایلخیب اج دیئ اد ب ہصح دم یع رحت ب

Q.No.7. Draft an application for setting aside exparte decree passed in favour of plaintiff against

the petitioner?

ر رک ںی؟ ر الخف اسلئ رحت ب وسنم یخ ڈرگ ی رطکی ہف قحب دم یع ب

ت

در وخ ا س






Objective Part




i. A statute is a will of the legislature for the purpose of administration of justice.

a. True b. False

ii. A Preamble can show as to what the statute‟s intention is to achieve.

a. True b. False

iii. Marginal notes mean to show the contents of Sections.

a. True b. False

iv. Ordinary function of an explanation is to facilitate proper understanding of a Provision of Law

a. True b. False

v. The Legislature makes the laws and Judiciary declares what the law is

a. True b. False

vi. Each provision of a statute to be made operative

a. True b. False

vii. Beneficial construction is a tendency rather than a rule.

a. True b. False

viii. The word “May” is permissive while the word “Must” is imperative

a. True b. False

ix. Power to appoint includes power to suspend or dismiss

a. True b. False

x. In case of ambiguity in a penal stature benefit goes to

a. Accused b. 151 C. P. C c. both a & b

xi. Civil courts can exercise their inherent powers under section

a. 561 A Cr. P. C b. 151 C. P. C c. both a & b

xii. Landed Property is called

a. Moveable Property b. Immovable Property

xiii. Both the words “FORTHWITH” and “IMMEDIATELY” have the same meanings

a. True b. False

xiv. The words “WAVIER” and ESTOPPLE” do not show the same meaning

a. True b. False

xv. “A week” begins on Sunday and ends on Saturday.

a. True b. False

xvi. The duty of court is

a. To make law b. to interpret the law

xvii. A decision given by the Supreme Court is binding on all the subordinate courts in the country.

a. True b. False

xviii. A subsequent change in law having retrospective effect the previous litigation of parties.

a. True b. False

xix. The consent of the parties cannot give the jurisdiction to a court.

a. True b. False

xx. Main objects of Act are mentioned in the Preamble.

a. True b. False






Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Define the interpretation and discuss the importance of interpretation?

Q.No.2. Define construction and differentiate it from interpretation?

Q.No.3. Define statute and also discuss the Primary rules of interpretation?

Q.No.4. Write notes on the following:

a. Golden rule of construction b. Mischief rule of construction

Q.No.5. What are the external aids in the interpretation of statutes?

Part-II


a. Affidavit b. Commencement c. Oath

d. Offence e. Person

Q.No.7. Discuss in detail the general rules of construction?






Objective Part




i. Copyright is restricted to books only.

a. True b. False

ii. To get Copyright protection, it is necessary to get license from Government institution.

a. True b. False

iii. Copyright violations have certain protections as well available to defendant.

a. True b. False

iv. Patent provide property right to the inventor.

a. True b. False


a. Student copying a chapter in a book for academic purpose only b. Reading a

book without permission of author c. Referring a book to a fried d.

Downloading a movie from internet without permission of the owner


a. 1880 b. 1883 c. 1886 d. 1986

vii. Berne Convention is named after Switzerland‟s city Berne.

a. True b. False

viii. TRIPS stands for Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights.

a. True b. False



x. When Paris Convention was first signed.

a. 1880 b. 1883 c. 1886 d. 1987

xi. Trademarks are not enforceable.

a. True b. False

xii. Patents are protected for indefinite period.

a. True b. False

xiii. Copyrights are not available for computer programming.

a. True b. False

xiv. Copyrights are available for movies.

a. True b. False

xv. Design protection is unlimited under Pakistani Laws.

a. True b. False

xvi. Patent right is a non-saleable property.

a. True b. False

xvii. Pakistan is a member of WTO?

a. True b. False

xviii. Pakistan is a leading country in protecting intellectual property rights.

a. True b. False


protected under ___________.

a. Patent Laws b. Copyright laws c. Trademarks d. Design Laws


a. True b. False






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. What kinds of works are protected under copyright laws in Pakistan? How do




Pakistan?


benefits an author might get through copyright protections?

Q.No.5. What the term Trips stands for and when this was come into force? What were the

reasons for adoption of the Trips agreements?


a. Artistic work b. Industrial Design c. Design

d. Legal Representative

Q.No.7. Discuss the conditions for patentability under Patents Ordinance, 2000?






Objective Part




i. Initial Environmental Examination means

a. Preliminary Environmental Review b. Final Decision c. both a & b

ii. _________ means any person who proposes a project.


iii. The power to make rules & regulations is with the

a. Federal Agency b. Provincial Agency c. both a & b d. None of above

iv. An Environmental Magistrate will be


nd Class Magistrate c. a & b d. None of above

v. The Chairperson of Environmental Tribunal will be

a. A Judge of the High Court b. Technical Member c. a & b d. None of above

vi. The Functions of the Federal Agency are

a. Administer and Implement the Act b. Prepare the annual National Environmental

Report c. a & b d. None of above

vii. ________ means liquid or semi-solid wastes is called.

a. Sewage b. Waste c. a & b d. None of above

viii. ________ means the intensity, duration and character of sounds from all sources is called.

a. Noise b. Nuclear Waste c. a & b d. None of above

ix. Discharge means


x. _______ means a dynamic complex of plant, animal and micro-organism.

a. Ecosystem b. Effluent c. a & b d. None of above

xi. ________ means waste from farm and agricultural activities.

a. Agricultural Waste b. Building c. Factory d. Municipal Waste

xii. ________ means the variability among living organisms from all sources.


xiii. Pakistan Environmental Protection Agency is called

a. Federal Waste b. Govt. Agency c. Provincial Agency d. Agency

xiv. Hazardous waste means the waste includes

a. Hospital Waste b. Nuclear Waste c. a & b d. None of above

xv. Industrial waste means resulting from

a. Industrial Activity b. Local Activity c. a & b d. None of above

xvi. _______ means standard establish by the Federal Agency

a. National Environmental Quality Standard b. Noise c. a & b d. None

xvii. Persons means

a. Natural Person b. Legal person c. a & b d. None of above

xviii. Means any activity plan, scheme, proposal involving any change in environments.

a. Project b. Pollution c. a & b d. None of above

xix. Vessal includes anything made for conveyance by

a. Water of Human being b. Goods c. a & b d. None of above

xx. ________ means any substance that causes pollution of air.

a. Air pollution b. Pollution c. a & b d. None of above






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Write the provisions regarding environmental protection in Constitution of Pakistan?

Q.No.2. Write Short Note on

i. Marine ii. Agricultural Waste iii. Council

iv. Factory

Q.No.3. Elucidate Islamic Perspective on Environmental Law?

Q.No.4. Write the role of following organization as per Environmental Law

i. UNEP ii. SAARC


i. Environmental Tribunal ii. Hazardous Substance

iii. Industrial Activity iv. Municipal Waste

Q.No.6. Write multidisciplinary aspect in connect with human rights?

Q.No.7. Write on detail in







Objective Part




i. The “holder” of a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque means the _____ who is in

possession of it or the bearer thereof

a. Payee b. Drawer c. Endorsee d. a & b

ii. A banking company must be a company registered with Securities and Exchange Commission of

Pakistan.

a. True b. False

iii. A person who issues a promissory note is called _______.

a. Drawee b. Payee c. Drawer d. Issuer

iv. In Modaraba business all partners don‟t contribute finance

a. True b. False


a. Moveable b. Immoveable c. both

vi. A person to whom finance is extended by a financial institution is called _______.

a. Customer b. Client c. Account holder d. None of these

vii. Banking Courts are established under section _____ of the Financial Institutions (Recovery of

Finance) Ordinance 2001.

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5

viii. The maturity of a promissory note or bill of exchange is the date at which it falls due

a. True b. False

ix. A negotiable instrument is of _________ types.

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

x. There is no restriction as regards minimum paid up capital of a banking company.

a. True b. False

xi. The State Bank may appoint any person to be a director of a banking company without any

qualification shares in his/her name

a. True b. False

xii. A banking court in exercise of its criminal jurisdiction, typing offences punishable under the

Financial Institutions (Recovery of Finances) Ordinance 2001, shall have the same powers as are

vested in a _______ under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1898.

a. Civil Judge b. District Judge c. Court of Session d. Judicial Magistrate

xiii. ________ may establish as many as banking courts as it deem necessary.

a. Provincial Government b. Federal Government c. State Bank d. High Court

xiv. Governor State Bank is appointed by _________ under the State Bank of Pakistan 1956.

a. Federal Government b. President c. Directors d. Prime Minister

xv. The offices of the state bank of Pakistan are situated in _________.


xvi. A listed company must be a public company.

a. True b. False

xvii. Shares in a listed company are not freely transferable.

a. True b. False

xviii. Directors in a company are normally elected by the members.

a. True b. False

xix. Directors at Board of State Bank of Pakistan are appointed by the Federal Government for the term

of __________.

a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 10 years d. for life

xx. A cheque is also called bill of exchange.

a. True b. False






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Discuss appointment, qualification, functions and the role of Governor of the State

Bank of Pakistan under the State Bank of Pakistan Act 1956?

Q.No.2. Discuss the powers of the State Bank of Pakistan regarding monitoring and supervision

of the banking companies under the Banking Companies Ordinance 1962?

Q.No.3. Define the term Modaraba and also discuss the eligibility of a company to be registered

as Modaraba Company under section 5 of the Modaraba Companies and Modaraba

(Floatation and Control) Ordinance 1980?


Banking Companies Ordinance, 1962?

Q.No.5. Define the term „Negotiable Instrument‟ and discuss essential characteristics of it under

the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881?



Q.No.7. Define the following under the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881?

a. Holder in due course b. Payment in due course

c. Notary Public d. Endorsement




Subject: Labour Laws Paper: VI-VII (iv)


Objective Part




i. A Labour Courts consists of ________ presiding officer

a. One b. Two c. Three

ii. Presiding officer of labour court is appointed by __________ government.

a. Central b. Local c. Provincial

iii. After registering a trade union, registrar is to issue a _________.

a. Certificate b. Notice c. Memorandum

iv. Apple can be filed against order of Registrar to _________.

a. High Court b. District Court c. Labour Court

v. ___________ is that workman, who is appointed in post of that permanent workman or probationer,

who is temporarily absent?

a. Permanent workman b. Badll c. Temporary workman

vi. Work Council consists of representatives of ________.

a. Employer & workman b. workman & Government c. Employer & Government

vii. Registration of trade union can be cancelled by ___________.

a. District Court b. High Court c. Labour Court

viii. Appeal against decision of Registrar can be filed before the Commissioner within ________.


ix. The payment of wages Act was enacted in ________.

a. 1968 b. 1974 c. 1936

x. Labour Laws are made for the benefits of _________.

a. Employers b. Worker c. a & b

xi. N. I. R. C is the abbreviation of __________.

a. New industrial reforms commission b. New international reforms commission

c. National industrial relations commission

xii. A registered trade union cannot sue & cannot be sued

a. Yes b. No

xiii. Employers have right to form or join any association of their choice

a. Yes b. No

xiv. According to workman‟s compensation Act, parties disablement means a disablement of ___ nature

a. Temporary b. Permanent c. None of above

xv. A workman found guilty of misconduct shall be liable to __________.

a. Nature of Injury b. Amount of wages c. a & b

xvi. The Registration of workers will be linked with ________ issued by NADRA.

a. Nobel Card b. Benazir Card c. Smart cards

xvii. Trade Union or its office bearers have been provided immunity from ______ in certain cases

a. Civil suit b. Declaratory suit c. a & b

xviii. Application of ILO convention on equal remuneration _______.

a. 1951 b. 1961 c. 1971

xix. Work in factory more then _______ in a day.

a. 6 hours b. 9 hours c. 12 hours

xx. “Inspector” means an inspector appointed under

a. Workman compensation Act 1923 b. workman compensation rules 1961

c. Punjab Industrial Relations Ordinance 2010






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Write detail note on two of the following

i. Settlement ii. Shift working iii. Industry iv. Go Slow

Q.No.2. What is the purpose of enactment of IRO 2002 and its scope?

Q.No.3. Rights & Obligation of workers and employers are reciprocal explain it?

Q.No.4. Describe the mode of appointment of Labour Court under IRO 2002? Explain its

powers and duties.

Q.No.5. Define workman and its kinds under the standing under 1968?

Q.No.6. Define and illustrate the following under the relevant law:

i. Unfair Labour Practice by Employers

ii. Unfair Labour Practice by Workman.

Q.No.7. What is meant by illegal strike or lockout? Discuss the procedure in case of illegal

strikes or lockout?




Subject: Taxation Laws Paper: VI-VII (v)


Objective Part




i. Under _______ every registered person to furnish return.

a. Sales Tax Act b. Income Tax Ordinance c. a & b d. None of above

ii. Tax references should state determination of _______ tribunal.

a. Labour b. Appellant c. Single d. Provincial

iii. Section No ______ of Limitation Act is applicable for condonation of delay to file tax reference

a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 9

iv. Tax reference has been defined in __________.

a. Sales Tax Act b. Income Tax Ordinance c. Companies Act d. None

v. According to Income Tax Ordinance, mistake can be certified only when it is apparent from _____

a. Record b. Evidence c. Material d. b & c

vi. Under Income Tax Ordinance _________ can rectify mistake.

a. Commissioner b. Commissioner (appeals) c. Appellate Tribunal

d. All of above

vii. Relevant law under which depreciation is allowed is Section No. ______of Income Tax Ordinance

a. 12 b. 17 c. 22 d. 27

viii. Every company is to furnish a return of ________ for a tax year.

a. Income b. Sales c. Production d. Purchase

ix. Asset is ________ when a person beings to own it or when any right is granted about this asset.

a. Disposed b. Acquired c. removed d. Recovered

x. ________ is to take appropriate measures to combat corruption within organization under it.

a. National Industrial Relations Commission b. Federal board of Revenue

c. Appellate Tribunal d. None of above

xi. FBR is to meet at least once in ________ months.

a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1

xii. ________ of FBR is to appoint secretary of FBR.

a. Member b. Council c. Chairman d. all of above

xiii. ________ appoints chairman of Federal Board of Revenue.

a. President b. Prime Minister c. Finance Minister d. Federal Govt.

xiv. Modes of recovery of income tax have been provide in Section No. ____ of Income Tax Ordinance

a. 34 to 56 b. 65 to 67 c. 137 to 145 d. 146 to 151

xv. Federal board of Revenue appoints _______ inland Revenue.

a. Member b. Commissioner c. a & b d. None of above

xvi. Commissioner inland Revenue is subordinate to ___________.

a. Federal board of Revenue b. Chief Commissioner Inland Revenue c. a & b

d. None of above

xvii. ________ can appoint as many chief Commissioners inland Revenue as may be necessary

a. Federal Board of Revenue b. Federal Govt. c. Finance Minister d. None

xviii. Tax includes any ________ which is livable or payable under Income Tax Ordinance.

a. Penalty b. Fee or other charge c. Sum or amount d. all above

xix. Tax means any tax, which is imposed under Chapter ________ of Income Tax Ordinance.

a. I b. II c. III d. IV

xx. _______ of 100% owned group can opt to be taxed as one fiscal unit.

a. Holding companies b. Subsidiary Companies c. a & b d. None of above






Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Write short note on any four of the following:

i. Employment ii. Meaning of assessment iii. Member

iv. Electronic Record v. Tax vi. Accumulated Profits

Q.No.2. Describe Provisions of Income Tax Ordinance about Chief Commissioner Inland

Revenue?

Q.No.3. What are different modes of recovery of Income Tax under Income Tax Ordinance

2001?

Q.No.4. Discuss definition of appeal and Procedure of appeal to Commissioner of appeal?

Q.No.5. What is Federal Board of Revenue? Describe its powers and functions?

Part-II

Q.No.6. What is Input Tax? It is refundable? What process of its refund? Under what

circumstances the multiple registrations has been cancelled? Discuss in detail

Q.No.7. Discuss the Penalties under Sales Tax Act 1990?






Objective Part




i. Who has power to decide suits under the Punjab Tenancy Act

a. Revenue Officer b. Revenue Court c. Civil Court

ii. Who has power to decide partition application under the Punjab Revenue Act

a. Collector b. Assistant Collector 14th grade c. Commissioner

iii. What is the limitation for revision before the Commissioner


iv. Who has power to summon person to give evidence and produce documents

a. Revenue Officer b. Collector c. Civil Court

v. To whom report of transfer of holding is sent


vi. Who can issue proclamation of sale of any property

a. Commissioner b. Collector c. Assistant Collector 2nd

grade

vii. What is period of limitation for filing appeal before the Commissioner


viii. What is the limitation for filing the suit of pre-emption

a. 3 months b. 4 months c. 6 months

ix. How the property is divided between the pre-emptor who has equal right in equal share According

to property owned by each Pre-emptor

x. No right of pre-emption in the following properties

a. Property owned by local authority b. Shop c. Agricultural land

xi. Within which period person acquiring right in estate by inheritance is required to report to service

center official

a. 6 months b. 3 months c. 1 year

xii. What land is exempted from the payment of land revenue

a. Land included in village site b. Agriculture land c. land owned by private person

xiii. When special assessment is levied

a. When it is proposed to change the form of assessment b. When ownership in

changed c. When lambardar sells his entire property

xiv. The sale shell not take place

a. On Sunday b. before the expiry of 10 days from the date of proclamation

c. Before the expiry of 20 days from the date of proclamation

xv. Within which period application for setting aside sale can be made


xvi. When the order for ejectment is executed

a. From 1st Jan to 15

th June b. from 1

st day of May to 15

th June c. from 1

st Dec to 30

th Dec

xvii. Who has power to decide the Suit between Land Lord and tenant for enhancement of rent under

Section 24 Tenancy Act

a. Revenue Court b. Revenue Officer c. Civil Court

xviii. What is period of limitation for filing revision before the Board of Revenue


xix. Who is liable to payment of Land Revenue

a. Land Owner b. Lambardar c. Tenant

xx. When proclamation of sale is issued

a. After the sanction of Collector b. After the sanction of commissioner

c. After the sanction boar of Renenue






Subjective Part



Part-I (West Pakistan Land Revenue Act, 1967)

Q.No.1. What are the duties of Head men? Describe in detail

Q.No.2. Describe the rights of government in mines and minerals?

Q.No.3. What are the other sums recoverable as arrear of Land Revenue?


Q.No.4. Describe the rights of land lord and tenant regarding produce?

Q.No.5. When a tenant can deposit cash rent with Revenue Officer and what is effect?


Q.No.6. Explain in detail the persons in whom right of Pre-emption vests?

Q.No.7. What is meant by right of Pre-emption? Discuss in detail






Objective Part




i. An Arbitration Agreement ________ discharged by death of party of thereto

a. Can be b. Shall be c. Shall not be

ii. Award means decision of __________.

a. Parties b. Arbitrator c. Court

iii. Umpire or Arbitrator _________ sign the award

a. Shall b. May c. Do not

iv. The court deals with the powers to appoint the arbitrator or umpire under section ________

a. 6 b. 8 c. 10

v. Reference means a reference to ________

a. Civil Court b. Arbitration c. Settlement

vi. The court has power to remove an arbitrator or umpire who has ________

a. Misused b. Miscounducted c. Wrote

vii. The Power of court to modify award is given in section _______ of Arbitration Act

a. Sec. 15 b. Sec. 13 c. Sec. 10

viii. The section ___ deals with powers of court to appoint Arbitrator of Umpire

a. Sec. 6 b. Sec. 8 c. Sec. 10

ix. The ______ govt. has power to make rules determing value of land for purpose of jurisdiction

a. District b. Provincial c. Federal

x. Section 11 deals with the procedure where objection is taken in appeal or revision that a suit of

appeal was not properly _______ for jurisdiction purpose

a. Determined b. Fixed c. Valued

xi. Computation of court fee payable with regard to suits has been given in _________

a. Stamp Act b. Suits Valuation Act c. Court Fees Act

xii. To what extent the money suit is exempt from levy of court fee

a. Rs. 100,000 b. Rs. 50,000 c. Rs. 25, 000

xiii. A tenant shall pay the rent to the land lord according to

a. The tenancy agreement b. yearly c. Monthly

xiv. A tenant can sublet the premises __________ of the landlord

a. With written consent b. with oral consent c. without consent

xv. A tenant is bound to use the rented premises

a. According to tenancy agreement b. According to trends c. According to his

own wishes

xvi. A landlord who seeks to evict his tenant shall apply to

a. District Court b. Civil Court c. Rent Controller

xvii. Value for the purpose of court fee and jurisdiction shall be same in certain

a. Suits b. Applications c. Appeals

xviii. The Court Fees Act consists of __________ sections

a. 30 b. 33 c. 36

xix. The Term “ad veloren” means ______

a. According to subject b. According to value c. a & b

xx. The suits valuation Act 1887 deals with _________

a. Territorial Jurisdiction b. Jurisdiction of court c. Pecuniary Jurisdiction






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Discuss the powers of an arbitrator under what circumstances a court can modify or

correct award?

Q.No.2. What are the powers of a court under arbitration Act, 1940 when the arbitration is

without the intervention of court?

Q.No.3. Discuss the grounds for setting aside an award?

Q.No.4. Discuss the method of computation of court given in section 7 of the court fees act?

Q.No.5. Under what provision of Law valuation of relief in certain outs relating to land not to

exceed the value of land?

Q.No.6. Describe the rules of appeal in rent cases?

Q.No.7. Describe the courts power with regard to decided question of valuation?






Objective Part




i. UNHR stand for

a. World Health Organization b. IR Court of Justice c. Un High

commissioner for refugees

ii. In Islam any person has a right to defend himself for fair


iii. Refugees comprise a category of

a. Citizens b. Foreigners c. Local

iv. The Human Rights Act 1998 is an Act of parliament of

a. UNO b. Turkey c. UK

v. The fundamental rights of any person recognized by UNO is

a. Primary education b. Scientific education c. Computer education

vi. The rights of casting vote was firstly given to women by

a. France b. UK c. USA

vii. The term “child” does not necessarily mean minor but can include


viii. International court of justice was established in


ix. Which organ of UNO is considered as a World Parliament

a. General assembly b. Security Council c. IR court of justice

x. “Megna Carta” was signed by

a. King David of Italy b. King Johan of England c. King Franklin of Rome

xi. The head office of UNO is located in

a. New York b. Hague c. Andorra

xii. Dejure and Defacto sovereignty means

a. Legal and Actual Sovereignty b. Titular and political sovereignty

c. Popular and nominal sovereignty

xiii. How many official working languages are recognized by the UNO?

a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 15

xiv. The charter of UNO was signed in

a. 1945 b. 1946 c. 1947 d. 1948

xv. Human rights include

a. Political rights b. Religions rights c. Economic rights d. all of above

xvi. The documents of Rights “Megna Carta” was signed in

a. 1012 b. 1215 c. 1318

xvii. Children have the right in international law adequate standard of


xviii. How many members are regarded as permanent members of UNO


xix. Invasion in Afghanistan and Iraq transpires double standard regarding Human Rights of

a. 9 b. 7 c. 5

xx. The great example of equality of humanity by Prophet (PBUH) related to







Subjective Part


Q.No.1. What is Right? Elaborate different kinds of rights available to individual under

international law?

Q.No.2. Define terrorism? Discuss in detail its affects on society in Pakistan?

Q.No.3. What is Universal Declaration of Human Rights?

Q.No.4. Discuss different types of Human Rights recognized by Islam?

Q.No.5. Comment on the rights of REFUGEES guaranteed by UNO?

Q.No.6. Briefly discuss the role of UNO for the maintenance of peace throughout the world?

Q.No.7. Define Racism? How racism is eliminated by UNO?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Res judicata is provided by the CPC in


ii. Movable property includes


iii. A civil suit can be transferred under

a. S. 24 b. S. 34 c. S. 44

iv. Decree has been defined in

a. S. 2(2) b. S. 2(3) c. S. 2(4)

v. Judge means the presiding officer of a

a. Criminal Court b. Civil Court

vi. Appeal filed against preliminary decree is under

a. S. 96 b. S. 100 c. S. 104

vii. Second appeal shall lie under

a. S. 94 b. O 39 c. S. 100



ix. In summary suit a defendant can file written statement


x. Pleading includes

a. Plaint b. Written Statement c. Both

xi. Period for filing written statement is

a. 15 days b. 30 days

xii. For hearing of final arguments the court shall fix a date not exceeding


xiii. The judgment shall be dated and signed by the judge in

a. Open court b. Chamber

xiv. Pleadings shall be verified


xv. If plaint does not disclose a cause of action

a. Suit may be dismissed b. Plaint shall be rejected

xvi. Agent for Government to receive process is

a. Government pleader b. Laberdar c. Tehsildar

xvii. Appeal lies against


xviii. An ex parte decree may be set aside under

a. O 9 R 13 b. O 7 R 11 c. O 17 R 3

xix. Court can amend issues

a. At any time b. Before recording of evidence

xx. Before judgment the court can attach the property under

a. O 38 b. O 39 c. O 40



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part




Q.No.1. A witness was summoned but he failed to comply with. What are the powers of the

court to enforce attendance?

Q.No.2. The court may frame the issue after close of pleadings. From what materials?

Q.No.3. A decree passed ex parte can be set aside by court. Under what provision and on what

grounds?

Q.No.4. What particulars a plaint shall contain?

Q.No.5. A pleading is required to be signed and verified. Discuss?


Q.No.6. Discuss the provision of Limitation Act with reference to a minor plaintiff. Which suit

is not covered by his provision?

Q.No.7. The time requisite for obtaining copy of decree is excluded. What is the time requisite?



LLB Part-III 2nd


Subject: Cr. P. C and Medical Jurisprudence Paper: II


Objective Part




i. Bail is a ____________ remedy?

a. Statutory b. Discretionary c. Both d. No one

ii. A Justice of Peace appointed under section 22 Cr. P. C. by the Provincial Government enjoys ___

a. Administrative Power b. Judicial Powers c. No One

iii. A cognizable offence is an offence in which a police-officer may intercept an accused without ___

a. Warrant b. Notice c. Authority Letter d. No one

iv. Trial commences with/on ______

a. Framing of charge b. submission of challan c. Registration of case

d. Recording evidence

v. Doctrine of Double Jeopardy is a doctrine of __________?

a. Civil Law b. Evidence law c. Criminal law d. No one

vi. Revision is competent/lies against an order passed by ATC?

a. Yes b. No

vii. Order under section 249(A) Cr. P. C is revisable?

a. Yes b. No

viii. A Corporeal Property means a/an __________ property.

a. Tangible b. Intangible c. both d. No one

ix. In a complaint u/IDA 2005, accused was acquitted, what lies against acquittal order

a. Revision b. Appeal c. Writ d. No one

x. DNA, exist in ________.

a. White blood cells b. Red blood cells c. both d. None of these

xi. Cr. P. C comprises of schedules ________.

a. 02 b. 05 c. 08 d. No one

xii. Two copies are prepared by police, of all entries made in Daily Diary?

a. Yes b. No

xiii. Colum No 4 of FIR Comprises of

a. Name of case property b. name of accused c. name of complainant

xiv. Signature of complainant of the FIR is mandatory

a. Yes b. No

xv. Correction of name of accused is possible and permissible in criminal case

a. Yes b. No

xvi. In a murder case u/s 302 _______ is normal penalty?

a. Life imprisonment 25 year b. death sentence c. 14 year imprisonment d. No

xvii. Session judge is not competent to permit withdrawal of a private complaint in a case triabal by

Magistrate

a. Yes b. No

xviii. A judge or presiding officer of a court may add and delete sections, at the time of framing charge?

a. Yes b. No

xix. No difference between counter version and cross version?

a. Yes b. No

xx. Withholding of a star witness by the prosecution, may adversely affect and kill its case

a. Yes b. No c. None of these



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part





i. Inquiry ii. Investigation iii. Charge

iv. Offence v. Trial

Q.No.2. Describe the procedure where dispute concerning land, etc., is likely to cause breach of

peace?

Q.No.3. Discuss the law relating revisional Power of High Court?

Q.No.4. What is compounding of offences, describe the procedure?

Q.No.5. Describe the procedure of sentence passed u/s 376 Cr. P. C and when it could be

postponed?


Q.No.6. Define exhumation? Write down its objectives, rules and examination?

Q.No.7. Write a note on poison and its medico legal aspects?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Oral evidence must be

a. Direct b. Indirect c. Hearsay d. Hostile

ii. Under what article oral evidence is admissible in presence of documentary evidence

a. 102 b. 103 c. 101

iii. A witness who is not serious to tell the truth to the court is called

a. Partisan witness b. Hostile witness c. Expert witness d. Eye witness

iv. A statement made by a person as to cause of his death is called

a. Dying declaration b. confessional statement c. Admission of death

d. Evidence of death

v. Extra judicial confession for convicting accused is to be proved by

a. Independent evidence b. Circumstantial evidence c. Corroboratory evidence

d. Hearsay evidence

vi. Ocular account of evidence comes from

a. Eye witness b. Chance witness c. Hostile witness d. Hearsay witness

vii. While special provision is incorporated in the law of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order

a. Article 3 b. Article 17 c. Article 3 & 17 d. No special provision

viii. The question of good character or bad character of witness is applicable in

a. Civil suit b. Criminal case c. Family matter d. Rent matter

ix. Leading question can be asked in the

a. Examination in chief b. Cross examination c. Re-examination d. Nor in any of these

exception

x. The court considers it a weak type of evidence.

a. Judicial confession b. Extra judicial confession c. retracted confession

d. Dying declaration

xi. Ocular account of evidence comes from

a. Eye witness b. Chance witness c. Hostile witness d. Hearsay witness

xii. Is every legal deed relating to the financial matter can be prove by one attesting witness

a. True b. False

xiii. The credit of witness is to be seen who has to testify is the

a. Original provision of evidence act b. attended provision c.

Recommended provision d. Directory provision

xiv. Any person by his declaration, act or omissions permitted another person to believe a thing to be

true and to act upon such belief is defined as

a. Waiver b. Estoppel c. False evidence d. Not from these definitions

xv. Under what article a judge has power to put ot put a question or order of production of any

documents

a. 157 b. 160 c. 161 d. 164

xvi. The evidence of hostile witness is to be discredited as whole

a. True b. False

xvii. Secondary evidence is that evidence which is copies from the original

a. True b. False

xviii. In criminal case, is the burden of proof lies upon the accused to prove his innocence

a. True b. False

xix. Where murder is committed on a public road, passed by are natural witness

a. True b. False

xx. Contents of a document under Article 70 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Ordinance 1984 cannot be proved

by oral evidence

a. True b. False



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part




Q.No.1. What is an accomplice and what is the legal value of his statements?

Q.No.2. Discuss and explain privileges of a witness in the witness box?

Q.No.3. What is identification parade? Explain in detail?

Q.No.4. Under what circumstances court can interfere with cross-examination of witness?

Q.No.5. What is Burden of Proof? Does the burden of proof shift to the accused? If so, in what

way can the accused discharged the burden? Discuss in detail?


Q.No.6. What are the duties of opponent counsel being cross-examination in professional

ethics?

Q.No.7. Under which “Rules of Conduct” you may refuse to accept a brief as a lawyer?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Every pleading shall be signed by party and his pleader.

a. Yes b. No

ii. A minor can be suit through his next friend.

a. Yes b. No

iii. The verification on the pleading shall be signed by the person making it.

a. Yes b. No

iv. A negotiable instrument includes bills of exchange promissory notes and cheques.

a. Yes b. No

v. Promissory notes and bills of exchange can made payable to buyer on demand.

a. Yes b. No

vi. Instrument is not dully stamped inadmissible evidence.

a. Yes b. No

vii. The arbitration proceedings are governed by Contract Act.

a. Yes b. No

viii. The agreement to share profit of business is an essential of partnership.

a. Yes b. No

ix. A partnership can be created by oral evidence.

a. Yes b. No

x. An instrument empowering a person for a specified Act is called general power of attorney.

a. Yes b. No

xi. A person empowers another through a power of attorney is called agent.

a. Yes b. No

xii. Transfer of ownership for a consideration is called a sale.

a. Yes b. No

xiii. The purchaser of land is called vender.

a. Yes b. No

xiv. The property dedicated through Waqf must belong to Waqif.

a. Yes b. No

xv. Every Muslim of sound mind and not minor may dedicate his property by way of Waqf.

a. Yes b. No

xvi. Waqf property can be attached in a court decree.

a. Yes b. No

xvii. The maker of gift is called Donee.

a. Yes b. No

xviii. A valid gift is complete without transfer of immovable property.

a. Yes b. No

xix. Mortgage is transfer of an interest in specified immovable property as security for the re-payment

of money advanced.

a. Yes b. No

xx. Defer dower mean a dower payable on demand.

a. Yes b. No



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. A part of law which regulates rights and duties of parties is called

a. Administrative Law b. Substantive Law

ii. The orders of supreme court are only binding upon the district court

a. True b. False

iii. Repeal by implication is not favored by the court

a. True b. False

iv. Court must not challenge the wisdom of legislative authority while interpreting the statute

a. True b. False

v. Civil court has inherit power to do justice under section

a. 151 CPC b. 115 CPC c. 561-A Cr. P. C

vi. A structure which is fixed to the land is called

a. Movable property b. immovable property

vii. Interpretation of statute must be according to the context of statute

a. True b. False

viii. An offender can be punished twice for the same offence

a. True b. False

ix. Preamble cannot restrict or extend the scope of a statute

a. True b. False

x. Section 15 general clauses act attracted only in case of appointment of person by competent

authority

a. True b. False

xi. In case of ambiguity in a penal statute benefit goes to

a. Accused b. Complainant c. a & b

xii. The cannon of statutory interpretation is

a. Literal rules b. Mischief Rule c. Golden Rule

xiii. Function of the court is

a. To make law b. to interpret law c. a & b

xiv. How court can resolve ambiguity in statute

a. By logical interpretation b. by grammatical interpretation c. by history of

legislation d. all of these

xv. Interpretation must be in consonance with the spirit of a statute

a. True b. False

xvi. All statutes are property referred as to

a. Law b. Enactment c. code

xvii. Word “MAY” is used in mandatory sense

a. True b. False

xviii. When there is conflict between two provisions of laws which rule applies

a. Literal rule b. Mischief rule c. Golden rule

xix. Collection of law on particular subject referrer to


xx. The doctrine of stare decisis means

a. To consider the decisions of superior court b. To amount the decisions of superior court



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Describe the Cardinal Rules of interpretation of statute in detail?

Q.No.2. Explain the meaning of constitution. Describe the scope and nature of constitutional

law?

Q.No.3. Define statute & also explain the different parts of statute?

Q.No.4. Write explanatory note on the following:

i. The doctrine of Ultra Vires ii. The doctrine of Audi Alteram Partem

iii. Colorful Legislation iv. Pith & Substances

Q.No.5. Differentiate interpretation & construction of statute in detail?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Explain the term “WILL” & “CODICIL” in detail?

Q.No.7. Write short note on the following

i. Good Faith ii. Affidavit iii. Vessel iv. Public Nuisance



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Patent right is a saleable.

a. True b. False

ii. Copy right is restricted to written works.

a. True b. False

iii. Designs on clothes may be registered.

a. Yes b. No

iv. دك امےگن اور is a Trade Mark.

a. True b. False

v. Pepsi is registered under copyrights law.

a. True b. False

vi. Movies are protected under copyrights law.

a. True b. False

vii. Patent provides property right to inventor.

a. True b. False

viii. When Paris convention was signed?

a. 1880 b. 1883 c. 1987 d. 1886

ix. Pakistan is a member of TRIPS.

a. Yes b. No

x. Berne is the city of

a. Switzerland b. Scotland c. Germany

xi. Sadqain is registered under

a. Trademark b. Copyright c. Patent and design

xii. Patents are protected for a definite period

a. True b. False

xiii. PIPA is an authority of

a. Pakistan b. Poland

xiv. The head office of trademarks registration of Pakistan is situated in

a. Islamabad b. Karachi c. Lahore

xv. Pakistan became the member of WTO in

a. 1999 b. 1997 c. 1995

xvi. Computer programmes are registered under

a. Copyright b. Trademark c. None

xvii. Bata is a

a. Copyright b. Trademark

xviii. Songs are registered under copyright

a. True b. False

xix. Dance may be registered

a. True b. False

xx. The designs of auto mobiles are registered under

a. Trademark laws b. Patent laws c. Patents and designs laws d. None of

these



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part


Q.No.1. What do you know about world trade organization?

Q.No.2. Discuss merits and demerits of registration of trademarks?

Q.No.3. Write down the procedure of registration of copy right?

Q.No.4. Which types of remedies are available against infringement of designs?

Q.No.5. Write down the basic features of Berne Convention?

Q.No.6. Write note on the following

a. Copyright b. Copyright licensing c. Design

d. Invention e. Novelty

Q.No.7. Write a note on procedure of registration of design registration?

Q.No.8. What do you know about Patent cooperation treaty?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Any premises in which industrial activity is being undertaken is

a. Factory b. Industry c. Estate d. None of above

ii. The burning of fossil fuels

a. Decrease green House Gases b. Increase green House Gases c. Increase

level of Oxygen d. Increase level of Ethane

iii. Which of the following problem is not caused by Noise pollution

a. Diarrhea b. Hyper Tension c. Deafness d. Initation

iv. Any dues recoverable by the Federal Agency or provincial Agency under BEPA, 1997 shall be

recoverable as

a. Liquidated Damages b. Compensation c. Arrears of Land Revenue d. None

v. ELA means

a. European International Environmental Association b. Environmental Impact

Assessment c. Environmental Initial Assessment d. None of these

vi. Biotic Environmental includes

a. Producer b. Consumer c. Decomposers d. All of above

vii. I. E. E Stands for

a. International Environmental Establishment b. Initial Environmental Examination

c. Integrated Environmental Examination d. Islamic Environmental Establishment

viii. Waste resulting from an industrial activity is

a. Hazardous Waste b. Industrial Waste c. Factory Waste d. Nuclear Waste

ix. The parts of over environment is

a. Air b. Water c. Land d. All of these

x. When fuel is burned in industries

a. Oxygen is Produced b. Carbon dioxide is produced c. Nitrogen is produced

d. Carbon monoxide is produced

xi. Our earth is becoming hotter day by day due to

a. Air Pollution b. Land Pollution c. Water Pollution d. None of these

xii. Land Pollution causes by

a. Dumping factory, waste and sewage in soil b. Not properly disposing of plastics

bags c. Over use d. None of these

xiii. _________ means spiling, leaking and pumping.

xiv. _________ means Pakistan Environmental Protection Council.

xv. _________ means a local council established under a law relating to local government.

xvi. _________ means the intensity, duration and character from all sources and includes vibration.

xvii. Skin cancer is due to

a. Ultraviolet radiation b. Carbon dioxide c. air pollution d. water pollution

xviii. All living things and non-living things surrounding an organism are collectively called its

a. Pollution b. Agriculture c. Environment d. Resources

xix. The addition of unwanted and harmful materials in the environment is called

a. Pollution b. Habitat c. Climate d. Population

xx. It is major cause of pollution

a. Burning of fuels b. Cutting of trees c. Garbage d. Pesticides



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Describe initial Environmental Examination and Environmental Impact Assessment?

Q.No.2. Write in Detail the national Biodiversity action plan?

Q.No.3. Write a note on common Law remedies against Environmental pollution?

Q.No.4. What are Islamic Provision on Environmental Law?

Q.No.5. Write a detailed note on Environmental protection Order?

Q.No.6. What are causes and prevention of environmental degradation?

Q.No.7. Under what provision of Law Appeal is to filed in environmental Tribunal and appeal

from orders of Environmental Tribunal? Briefly state the jurisdiction of Environmental

Magistrates?



LLB Part-III 2nd


Subject: Banking Laws Paper: VI-VII (iii)


Objective Part




i. All documents, which are produced for the inspection of court, are called documentary evidence

a. True b. False

ii. Contents of a document under Article 70 of O 5 O 1984 cannot be proved by oral evidence

a. True b. False

iii. Real Evidence is called Material Evidence

a. True b. False

iv. Hearsay evidence is valuable in law

a. True b. False

v. Estoppel is a pure question of law, and is not a mixed question of facts and law

a. True b. False

vi. Facts of which the judicial notice is to be taken are stated in Article 111 of Qanoon-e-Shahadat

order 1984

a. True b. False

vii. Estoppel by record means nothing more than that the matter of res-judicata

a. True b. False

viii. Examination of a witness by party, who produces him in court, is called his Examination in chief

a. True b. False

ix. Oral evidence under Article 71 of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984 may be direct only

a. True b. False

x. Examination of a witness by adverse party is called his cross examination

a. True b. False

xi. Examination of witness subsequent to cross examination by party, who calls him is called his Re-

Examination

a. True b. False

xii. Contents of a document under Article 70 Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984 cannot be proved oral

evidence

a. True b. False

xiii. Leading questions are not allowed when adverse party raises objection

a. True b. False

xiv. The circumstances under which the secondary evidence is admissible have been enumerated in

Article 76 of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984

a. True b. False

xv. Question of admissibility of evidence, being question of law, should be decided by judge

a. True b. False

xvi. Dying declaration is important evidence

a. True b. False

xvii. Under Islamic law, it is duty of witnesses to come and not give testimony.

a. True b. False

xviii. Article 3 of OSO provides qualification and disqualification of witness

a. True b. False

xix. Article 17 of OSO, 1984 deals with number of witnesses required to prove a fact

a. True b. False

xx. Documents which are not covered under Articles 85 of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984 are called

sami-public document

a. True b. False



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Discuss the role and functions of the State Bank of Pakistan under the State Bank of

Pakistan Act 1956?

Q.No.2. Define the term “Negotiable Instrument” and discuss essential characteristic of it under

the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881?

Q.No.3. Write a note on the cancellation of registration of Modarba Company and appointment

of administrator under the Modarba Companies and Modarba (floatation and control)

Ordinance, 1980?

Q.No.4. What administrative structure and operational powers does the law provide for Banking

courts in Pakistan?

Q.No.5. Write short notes on the following

a. Liquidated Assets of Banking Company

b. Promissory Note



Q.No.7. Define & Illustrate the following terms

a. Bill of Exchange b. Banker‟s Draft c. Cheque

d. Notary Public



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Lock out means

a. Closing of employment b. suspension of work or refuse to continue to employ and

work c. both a & b

ii. The registrar registered the Trade Union in register and issue certificate under which section

a. 5 of IRA 2012 b. 9 of IRA 2012 c. 12 of IRA 2012

iii. An appeal can file against the order of the Labour court in High court within


iv. A person shall be qualified for appointment as presiding officer in Labour Court if he has been

a. Justice of the High Court b. Additional Judge of a High Court c. All of above

v. The limitation period for filing a grievance petition refer labour court is


vi. Commissioner means the industrial Relation Commission constituted under section

a. 22-A IRO 2002 b. 53-IRO 2002 c. both a & b

vii. Establishment means ay

a. Firm b. office c. factory d. All of above

viii. Wages for the purpose to gratuity includes

a. Medical Allowance b. House Rent Allowance c. Conveyance Allowance d. all

ix. In lieu of notice of termination, one month‟s wages shall be paid to

a. Employer b. Registrar c. Workman

x. Dependent means any of the relative of the deceased workman

a. A widow b. Minor legitimate son c. A widow mother d. all of above

xi. Legal disability is a disability, which can be enforced by law

a. True b. False

xii. Workman before expiry of ________ submits himself for medical examination


xiii. Intimidation include the elements of force or violence

a. True b. False

xiv. Badlis is a workman who is employed in the post of permanent workman or probationer who is

a. At permanent vacant post b. temporarily absent

xv. Lock out is a right of employer?


xvi. Lock-out is a right of employer


xvii. Effect of non-compliance of order of labour court or High Court with in one month or such period

as specified in such order or decision, the defaulter shall be punishable

a. With five thousand and punishment of month b. with five which may extend to ten

thousand rupees c. with five thousand rupees and punishment of 6 months

xviii. Atrade Union means a union comprised of

a. Workers of the same or of several allied trader b. Administrative employer of the

same or of several allied trader c. both a & b

xix. Generally a person who seeks to enforce a claim must establish that he is entitled to claim is called

a. Worker b. Locus standi c. workman

xx. Apprentices means a person under-going training through the system of apprenticeship

a. True b. False



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part


Q.No.1. What are the power and duties of a Labor Court and how functions, constituted under

IRO, 2002 and prescribed its procedure?

Q.No.2. What do you know about collecting bargaining agent?

Q.No.3. Rights and obligations of workers and employers are reciprocal explain it?

Q.No.4. Write comprehensive note on any four of the following:

a. Termination of employment b. Settlement

c. Return d. work council e. Shift working

Q.No.5. Define workman and its kinds under the standing order 1968?

Q.No.6. What is the procedure for cancellation of Registration of Trade Union under IRO 2002?

Q.No.7. What do you know about payment of Bonus?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. According to section ______ liquidation in relation to a company includes the termination of trust

a. 53 b. 2(3) c. 114

ii. Pension or annuity paid by employer is included in ________.

a. Income from business b. Income from other sources c. Rental Income

iii. The ______ of income tax has the power to extended the date for furnishing the return provided

that an application in time is presented by due date of furnishing the return

a. FBR b. Commissioner Income tax

iv. The persons paying any profits on any debt should deduct tax out of such amount under section

a. 137 b. 151 c. 148

v. In case the tribunal refuse or reject the reference application in that case the party can file a

reference directly in the high court within _______


vi. Section 170 and 171 of income tax ordinance 2001 related to _________

a. Assessment b. refund c. rectification

vii. Under section _______ Advance tax is collected at the time of sales by Auction

a. 231 b. 236A c. 170

viii. Appeal against the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) is filed before the _________

a. Civil Judge b. Appellate Tribunal c. Judge of High Court

ix. No advance tax shall be collected on cars used more than _________.


x. Audit conducted under section 32A is called ________.

a. Order in original b. special audit c. Assessment

xi. _________ Additional Initial depreciation, normal depreciation are kinds of deprecation

a. Special deprecation b. Initial deprecation c. deprecation by the order of court

xii. Any income derived as rent, revenue or from sales of any produce which is grown on a Pakistan

land is ___________.

a. Dividend Income b. Agricultural Income c. Business Income

xiii. The _________ Income Tax has the power to extend the date for furnishing the return

a. Inland revenue officer b. Commissioner c. High Court Judge

xiv. Name of the form used for the sales tax registration is __________


xv. For the cases of flours mills the rate of minimum tax on the amount representing their annual

turnover under section 113 shall be __________.

a. 75% b. 20% c. 50%

xvi. Amounts earned by laborers and artisans normally payable or hourly, daily or piece work basis is

called _________.

a. Pension b. wages c. Gratuity

xvii. All expenditure benefiting business for along term period are called __________

a. Personal expenditure b. Capital expenditure c. simple expenditure

xviii. Penalty for failure of filling of return of income is 1/10 of one percent of the tax payable for each

day of default and minimum _________ of tax payable.

a. 50% b. 25% c. 70%

xix. Under Section 234A the gas marketing companies shall deduct tax rate _______ of the amount of

gas bill

a. 15% b. 4% c. 10%

xx. The commissioner or the tax-payer can file reference to the high court under section 133 against the

decision of ___________.

a. Appeal Commissioner b. Appellate Tribunal c. Inland revenue officer



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part



Part-I


i. Appointment of Inspector ii. Depreciation

iii. FBR iv. Electronically Filing of Income Tax Return

Q.No.2. What is an appeal? Discuss the procedure of appeal to the Commissioner of Appeal?

Q.No.3. What are the different modes of recovery of income tax under Income Tax Ordinance,

2001?

Q.No.4. Enumerate different heads of income and state the rules relating to charge of tax under

various heads of income in detail?

Q.No.5. Discuss „Refund‟ in detail under income Tax Ordinance, 2001?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Explain the provisions relating to suspension and black listing of registration under

Sales Tax Act 1990?

Q.No.7. What is the procedure for claiming a refund and what supportive documents are

required for refund claim?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Punjab pre-emption Act is of year

a. 1990 b. 1999 c. 1991

ii. Demarcation is made by

a. Distt. Collector b. Patwari c. Revenue Officer

iii. Section 163 of Land revenue Act deals with

a. Revision b. Appeal c. Review

iv. What share of sale price is deposited in court in pre-emption suit

a. 1/4 b. 1/5 c. 1/3

v. Under which section of W.P. Land Revenue Act an appeal is filed

a. 164 b. 165 c. 161

vi. Limitation for filing appeal before Distt: Collector or Collector is


vii. Right of pre-exemption suit is abated after


viii. Limitation for Revision before Board of Revenue is


ix. Punjab pre-emption Act applies to

a. Sale b. Exchange c. Gift

x. Appointment of lambardar is made under

a. Tenancy Act b. Colony Act c. Land Revenue Act

xi. Partition of land is dealt under

a. Tenancy Act b. Colony Act c. Land Revenue Act

xii. Disputes between tenant and Land lord are dealt under

a. Pre-emption b. Tenancy Act c. Land Revenue Act

xiii. Talabe-mawasabat is made

a. Soon after knowing the sale . After getting the requisite documents

c. After collecting the sale price

xiv. Repat Roze Namcha waqiati is entered

a. After entry of Mutation b. After attestation of mutation c. Before entry of

mutation

xv. Demarcation of land is done under

a. Colony Act b. Tenancy Act c. Land Revenue Act

xvi. Register of rights is prepared under

a. CPc b. Tenancy Act c. Land Revenue Act

xvii. Who can correct mistake in register of rights

a. Civil court b. Distt: Collector c. Revenue Court

xviii. Pre-emption suit can be filed before

a. Civil Court b. Distt: Collector c. Revenue Court

xix. West Pakistan land Revenue Rules were made

a. 1968 b. 1969 c. 1967

xx. Section 164 of Land Revenue Act deals




LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part



Part-I (West Pakistan Land Revenue Act)

Q.No.1. Describe and explain the followings:

a. Register of haqdarawn b. Boundary Wall

c. Boundary Wall d. Revenue Officer d. Tenancy

Q.No.2. Define arrears of Land Revenue. How is it recovered? Explain the detail

Q.No.3. Define mutation. How is it entered and attested?

Part-II (The Punjab Tenancy Act)

Q.No.4. Which remedy has been provided to a tenant for protection of his right against land

lord?

Q.No.5. Define occupancy rights. What are its kinds? Discuss in detail

Part-III (The Punjab Pre-Emption Act)

Q.No.6. What is Talab-e-Ishad? How is it exercised and what are the consequences of is non-

exercising?

Q.No.7. What period of depositing? Zare Soim has prescribed & what is the effect of its non-

depositing?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Reference mean reference to

a. Court b. Arbitration c. Parties

ii. The section dealing with power of Court where Arbitrator is removed or his authority revoke in

Arbitrator Act is __________


iii. The section _______ dealing with power of Arbitrator to make an interim award


iv. Award mean an ________ award

a. Arbitration b. Arbitrator c. Court

v. The award can be modified by _________ after its submission

a. Arbitrator b. Court c. Parties

vi. _______ Court shall have not jurisdiction over any Arbitration proceedings

a. Small cause b. civil c. district

vii. The section 44 dealing with power of _____ court may make rules consistent with Arbitration Act

a. Civil b. High c. Supreme

viii. High Court ha power to _______ the value of certain suits

a. Increase b. Determine c. Modified

ix. Court fee value and jurisdiction value to be the same in certain

a. Appeals b. Applications c. Suits

x. Valuation of relief in certain suits relating to ________ not be exceed the value of the Land

a. Dower b. Land c. Buildings

xi. The Law of court fee consists of _________ section

a. 35 b. 36 c. 40

xii. The court fee Act 1870 shall extends to the _______

a. Punjab b. Sindh c. The whole of Pakistan

xiii. The ________ Government has power to make rules determining the value of land for jurisdictional

purposes

a. District b. Provincial c. central

xiv. To what extent the suit for money is exempted for levy of court fee.

a. 250,000 b. 100,000 c. 25000

xv. Provincial government is bound to consult the _______ before making rules

a. High Court b. Supreme Court c. Federal Govt.

xvi. A building being used solely for the purpose of business or trade is called ______ building

a. Commercial b. Residential c. Non Residential

xvii. A tenant shall pay the rent to the landlord according to _________

a. The tenancy Agreement b. Monthly c. Yearly

xviii. Any dispute between the Landlord and tenant regarding the rented property shall be decided by ___

a. Civil Court b. Rent Controller c. High Court

xix. ________ Aria means an are administrated by a Municipal Corporation, Municipal Committee, a

Town Committee

a. Rural b. Flood c. Urban

xx. Any person for the time being entitled to receive rent in respect of any building is called

a. Tenant b. Landlord c. Landowner



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part

Note: Attempt any FOUR questions in English selecting One Question from Part-I and any

three questions from Part-II. All questions carry equal marks. Uses of Bare Act is allowed but

write the answers in your own words.

Part-I

Q.No.1. Which order are appealable under Arbitration Act?

Q.No.2. Write note on the following

i. Ground for setting aside Award.

ii. Power of any Arbitrator, under the circumstances a Court can modify or correct an

Award.

Part-II

Q.No.3. Explain the determination of value of certain suits by High Court?

Q.No.4. Explain and discuss the objects of Section 8 of suit valuation Act?

Q.No.5. Which documents are exempted from payment of Court fee?

Q.No.6. Write note on refund of Court fee in certain situations?

Q.No.7. Define and illustrate the following terms:

i. Landlord ii. Tenant and sub Tenant

iii. Scheduled Building iv. Urban Area



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. The night of casting vote was firstly given to women by


ii. Death penalty in murder and rape cases is justifiable in

a. Islam b. Christianity c. Hinduism

iii. Permanent Members of the United Nations Security Council are

a. 5 b. 9 c. 15

iv. How many official working languages of International Court of Justice ICJ.

a. 1 b. 2 c. 6

v. How may official languages of International Criminal Court (ICC)

a. 1 b. 2 c. 6

vi. International Court of Justice is situated in

a. Paris b. Hague c. New York

vii. When the Rome Statute entered into force

a. July 1, 2002 b. July 1, 2003 c. August 1, 2001

viii. Magna Carta was signed by


ix. International Court of Justice was established in June 1945 and began work in

a. July 1945 b. April 1946 c. July 1946

x. The role of International Court of Justice is to settle legal dispute submitted by

a. UN Agencies b. States c. Every citizen of member state

xi. International Court of Justice is composed of

a. 9 Judges b. 15 Judges c. 17 Judges

xii. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by UNO General Assembly on

a. 10 December 1948 b. 10 December 1949 c. 10 October 1949

xiii. The fundamental right of any person recognized by UNO is


xiv. Equality cannot be assumed unless all human being belong to the same

a. Religion b. Origin c. Caste

xv. Refugee comprise a category of


xvi. In Islam any person has a right to defend himself for fair


xvii. The term child does not necessarily means minor but can include


xviii. The Human Right Act 1998 is an act of Parliament of


xix. Children have the right in International law adequate standard of

a. Living, Healthcare, education b. Having Property c. both

xx. Slavery and slave trade shall be prohibited in all its forms defined in the Universal Declaration of

Human Rights under article

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Discuss in detail the human rights recognized by Islam?

Q.No.2. Explain the role of United Nations for the enforcement of International Human Rights?

Q.No.3. What do you mean by terrorism? Explain its affects on human rights in a civilized

society?

Q.No.4. Explain in detail the composition, powers and role of International Court of Justice

(ICJ)?


i. The European Convention on Human Rights

ii. United Nations Security Council

Q.No.6. Define the term Refugee and explain the rights of refugees protected under the

International Law?

Q.No.7. What is discrimination? Explain the measures taken by the United Nations to eliminate

the discrimination against the women?






Objective Part




i. Court can amend issues

a. At any time b. Before recording of evidence

ii. Res judicata is provided by the CPC in


iii. A civil suit can be transferred under

a. S. 24 b. S. 34 c. S. 44

iv. First appeal is filed against decree U. S

a. S. 96 b. S. 100 c. S. 104

v. Limitation for a revision filed by a party is


vi. The high court may make rules under

a. S. 111 b. S. 122 c. S. 133

vii. The court has discretion to enlarge time under

a. S. 48 b. S. 144 c. S. 148

viii. A service on a defendant who cannot be found may be effected on


ix. Parties may be added or struck at any time under


x. Rejection of plaint is provided in

a. O 7 R 11 b. O 8 R 10 c. O 13 R 10

xi. An ex parte decree may be set aside under

a. O 9 R 13 b. O 13 R 2 c. O 17 R 1

xii. A person acting for minor plaintiff is called

a. Guardian for the suit b. Next friend

xiii. A suit on Negotiable instrument is filed under

a. O 4 b. O 27 c. O 37

xiv. The appellate court suspend execution of a decree under

a. S 94 b. O 39 c. O 41

xv. In summary suit a defendant can file written statement


xvi. In execution for decree for money a woman

a. Can be arrested b. cannot be arrested

xvii. Pleadings shall be verified


xviii. If plaint does not disclose a cause of action

a. Suit may be dismissed b. Plaint shall be rejected

xix. Appeal lies against







Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. What is Res Judicata?

Q.No.2. What are powers of the court to enforce execution?

Q.No.3. Appeal against an order is allowed but to which court?

Q.No.4. What are the provisions for substituted service of summon?

Q.No.5. The court may frame the issues after close of pleadings from what materials?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Appeal was preferred after the prescribed limitation but respondent took no objection.

Discuss the liability of the court?

Q.No.7. Discuss the provision of limitation act with reference to a minor plaintiff. Which suit is

not covered by this provision?




Subject: Criminal Procedure Code 1898 Paper: II


Objective Part




i. Criminal Procedure Code is _________ law

a. Substantive b. Procedural c. Religious

ii. In which schedule of Cr. P. C the word bailable offence and non bailable offence are shown

a. First b. Second c. Third

iii. Any Magistrate empowered under S. 190 has the power to direct the police to investigate into an

offence in PPC under

a. S. 154 Cr. P. C b. S. 155 Cr. P. C c. S. 156 Cr. P. C

iv. Under the scheme of Criminal Procedure Code non-cognizable offences are

a. Public wrongs b. Private wrongs c. both a & b

v. In bailable offence the bail is granted as matter of right

a. Yes b. No c. Discretion of Court

vi. Classification of compoundable and non-compoundable offences has been provided in

a. 1st Schedule b. 2

nd Schedule c. S. 561-A Cr. P. C

vii. Powers of Justice of peace are considered as

a. Administrative b. Judicial c. Qusai Judicial

viii. Application under section 249-A or 265-K if rejected the remedy is

a. Appeal b. Revision c. Writ

ix. Statement recorded by police under section 161 Cr. P. C cannot be used as

a. Challan b. Supplementary statement c. Evidence

x. The confession of an accused or the statement of a witness, under S. 164 of Cr. P. C

a. Inquiry b. Investigation c. Trial

xi. F. I. R can be quashed in the exercise of inherent powers by

a. The Magistrate‟s Court b. Sessions Court c. High Court

xii. If the police does not take action on complaint in respect of cognizable offence, the complainant

has right to remedy in shape of

a. 22-A Cr. P. C b. S. 190 Cr. P. C c. S. 439 Cr. P. C

xiii. Section 439 of Cr. P. C deals with revisional Jurisdiction of

a. Sessions Court b. High Court c. Supreme Court

xiv. Magistrate First class impose fine of

a. 15 thousands b. 30 thousands c. 45 thousands

xv. Magistrate Section 30 Cr. P. C can pass sentence of Maximum


xvi. Medical Jurisprudence, forensic Medicine and Legal medicine are considered

a. Different terms b. synonymous terms c. strange terms

xvii. An Officer appointed by the Government to hold an inquiry of death suspected as unnatural and

suspicious in his jurisdiction is called

a. Investigating Officer b. Corner c. Special Officer

xviii. Corner Court is court of

a. Inquiry b. Investigation c. Trial

xix. The examination of a dead body taken out of the grave for the suspicion of death because poisoning

or any other foul play is called

a. Exhumation b. Medical Examination c. Post Mortem

xx. After Post mortem parts of a dead body needs to sent to

a. Serologist b. ballistic expert c. Chemical examiner




Subject: Criminal Procedure Code 1898 Paper: II


Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Define the following terms:

a. Criminal Procedure Code b. Charge

c. Police Station d. Investigation e. Trial

Q.No.2. Define arrest and how a police officer arrest without warrant, illustrate your answer

with specific instances?

Q.No.3. Describe the process to compel the appearance of an accused person before a criminal

court. Can his property be attached?

Q.No.4. Discuss, how much powers of magistrate, police officer and armed forces to disperse

unlawful assembly, by code of criminal procedure?

Q.No.5. Explain the powers of High Court to confirm the death sentence awarded by the court

of first instance, and also described the powers of appellate court with this regard?

Part-II

Q.No.6. What is the medico legal aspects of death, discuss in detail?

Q.No.7. What is meant by injury? How it may be classified under the Medical Jurisprudence?






Objective Part




i. If a person making dying declaration happens to be alive, is dying declaration admissible in

evidence

a. Yes b. No

ii. Under what provision of Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984. How much information received from

accused? While in custody of police officer, may be proved against him.

a. Article 40 b. Article 39 c. Article 42

iii. Under what provision of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order, 1984 the facts which are not relevant became

relevant


iv. Information in reference to matter is dispute is admission?

a. Yes b. No

v. If the child was born after the expirations six lunar months from the date on which she had accepted

that the period of Iddat has come to an end is he?

a. Legitimate b. Illegitimate

vi. When the child is born within two years after its dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining

unmarried, is the child will be

a. Illegitimate b. Legitimate

vii. Under what provision of Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 opinion of third persons is relevant


viii. Under which provision of Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 a confession made by accused person

became irrelevant in criminal proceeding?


ix. Whether the joint confession of accused persons is admissible in criminal proceeding

a. Yes b. No

x. Under Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 confession is recorded on oath

a. Yes b. No

xi. Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 replaced

a. Law of Evidence, 1972 b. Law of Evidence, 1782 c. Law of Evidence, 1872

xii. Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 contains

a. 166 Articles b. 176 Articles c. 164 Articles

xiii. Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 does not apply to

a. Proceeding before tribunals b. Proceeding before special courts

c. Proceeding before an arbitrator

xiv. Under what provision of Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 who is authorize to determine

competency of witness

a. Prosecutor b. Court c. Accused

xv. Article 3 of the Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 describe qualification of

a. Judge b. witness

xvi. Principle of “Takzia Al Suhood” applicable to

a. Civil cases b. cases of high court c. Hudood & Qisas cases

xvii. Article 16 of the Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 deal with

a. Credibility of a witness b. Accomplice

xviii. Article 18 of the Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 provided that evidence may be given on fact in

issue and

a. Law b. Relevant facts c. None of above

xix. In criminal cases past character of a accused in

a. Countable b. Uncountable c. Depends upon the circumstances

xx. A dying declaration is ________ of evidence

a. Conclusive piece of b. Substantive piece of c. Corroborative






Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Under what circumstances is secondary evidence permissible in place of primary

evidence, state the Article of Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order, 1984?

Q.No.2. On whom burden of proof lies? Explain term onus probandi?

Q.No.3. Oral evidence cannot be substituted for written evidence of any contract which the

parties have put into writing. Explain and illustrate. State the exceptions if any, to the

above mentioned rule?

Q.No.4. When are admission relevant in civil cases? What do you mean by term “Without

Prejudice” When can document marked “Without Prejudice” be admissible in

evidence?

Q.No.5. What is privilege of a witness? Or what are privileged communication? Discuss under

what circumstances can a privilege be claimed?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Be respectful to the court, kind to your colleagues, but never sacrifice the slightest

principal of duty to an over weening difference towards either. Discuss with reference

to the duties of advocate?

Q.No.7. Cross examination is two edged sword and unskillful advocate may throw his own case

than his opponents. Discuss with reference to the preparation for cross examination by

an advocate?






Objective Part




i. An unsound mind can be sued through his next friend.

a. Yes b. No

ii. A cheque does not include negotiable instrument.

a. Yes b. No

iii. A promissory note is payable on demand.

a. Yes b. No

iv. A presumption of truth is attached with a negotiable instrument.

a. Yes b. No

v. A Waqaf can be revoked after the death of Waqif.

a. Yes b. No

vi. An instrument not duly stamped is admissible in evidence.

a. Yes b. No

vii. An agreement to sell is a titled deed.

a. Yes b. No

viii. A gift can be revoked before delivery of possession.

a. Yes b. No

ix. A person empowers another through a general power of attorney is called principle.

a. Yes b. No

x. Pleadings always contain the whole evidence.

a. Yes b. No

xi. Verification on oath is not necessary ingredient of plaint.

a. Yes b. No

xii. Waqaf property cannot be attached in a court decree.

a. Yes b. No

xiii. Offer, acceptance and delivery of possession of immovable property are necessary elements of

valid gift.

a. Yes b. No

xiv. Prompt dower is payable on determination of marriage.

a. Yes b. No

xv. Transfer of property without payment of consideration is a sale.

a. Yes b. No

xvi. Mortgage is transfer of an interest in specified immovable property as security for repayment of

money advanced.

a. Yes b. No

xvii. A suit for pre-emption can be filed without making requisite talabs.

a. Yes b. No

xviii. The m aker of gift is called downer.

a. Yes b. No

xix. A partnership cannot be created by oral evidence.

a. Yes b. No

xx. The arbitration proceedings governed by the arbitration act.

a. Yes b. No






Subjective Part




Part-I

Q.No.1. Define mortgage, Incumbrance, Rent, draft a mortgage deed?

ر رک ںی ؟رنہ ، ن ار ، رک اہی یک رعت فی رک ںی زین ای وسم دہ رنہ رحت ب

Q.No.2. Differentiate general power of attorney and special power of attorney, draft a general

power of attorney?

ر رک ںی؟ اہم اعل رحت ب

ر ق ایبم رک ںی زین اتخمر ن

اہم اخص ںیم ف

اہم اعل اور اتخمر ن

اتخمر ن

Q.No.3. Differentiate sale, agreement to sell, gift & exchange, draft an agreement to sell

regarding a house?

ر رک ںی اہم اعمدہہ عیب رحت ب

ر ار ن

ت

اف

ت

ر ق ایب م رک ںی زین ای اکمم یک ن ان

اہم اعمدہہ عیب ، ہبہ، ابتدہل ارایض ںیم ف

رار ن

ت

؟عیب ، اف

Q.No.4. Define lessee, lesser, draft a rent deed of commercial shop?

ر رک ںی؟ اہم رحت ب

رک ا ہی ن

ت

امکل اور رک اہی دار یک رعت فی رک ںی، زین ای رمک لش دواکم یک ن ا ن

Part-II

Q.No.5. Can a plaint be rejected on the basis of nonpayment of court fee without giving the

party a suitable time for the payment of court fee, Discuss with the relevant provision

of law?

ادایگیئ وک ر ٹ سیف دےی ریغب رتسم د ایک اج اتکس ےہ ، ہقلعتم اقون م ےک اطم

ت

رع یض دوع ی ن ا ر یٹ وک انم س وم اےعق ن ا ن

رک ںی؟ایک ای

ت

قب واضح

Q.No.6. Draft a suit for dissolution of marriage on the basis of Khulla does a husband dentitled

to get back the bridle gift in lieu of Khulla?

ادی ےک وم عق رپ دنہل ےک

ع یک اینب د رپ خیسنت اکن ح یک وصر ت ںیم ش

ل

خ

ر ر رک ںی، ایک وشہ ع رحت ب

ل

خ

ر انبےئ رع یض دوع ی خیسنت اکنح ب

وا س ےنی اک قح دار ےہ؟ دےی ےئ ئاحف

Q.No.7. Define prompt and deferred dower & draft a composite suit for dissolution of marriage,

recovery of dower and dowry articles?

رر و اسامہمل

ل اور وم لج قح رہم یک رعت فی رک ںی ، زین رتشم ہک دوع ی خیسنت اکنح ہعم دالن ا ےن قح اج مع

ر رک ںی؟ م زیہ رحت ب






Objective Part




i. The word “MAY” is used in sense being mandatory.

a. True b. False

ii. A cheque upon a banker is a document.

a. True b. False

iii. A law which regulates rights and duties of employer and employees is called


iv. A subsequent change in law having not retrospective effect can affect the previous litigation

a. True b. False

v. Construction of law in an express declaration is called

a. Direct Legislation b. Indirect Legislation

vi. A structure which fixed to the land is called

a. Moveable property b. Immovable property

vii. Interpretation of statute must be in consonance with the spirit of statute

a. True b. False

viii. Person including not only a natural person but also a Jurassic person

a. True b. False

ix. Collection of laws on particular subject referrer to


x. A decision given by the supreme court is not binding precedent to all subordinate courts

a. True b. False

xi. When there is conflict between two provisions of statute which rule applied for its interpretation

a. Mischief Rule b. Golden Rule c. Literal Rule

xii. Preamble cannot restrict or extend the scope of a statue

a. True b. False

xiii. Function of the court is

a. To make law b. To interpret law c. both a & b

xiv. Invalid law which remained unchallenged for many years does not become valid

a. True b. False

xv. Function of the court is not to make the law but to interpret the law

a. True b. False

xvi. A court can interpret a statute when

a. The language of statute is ambiguous b. the language of statute is clear

c. Using its discretion

xvii. Word “SHALL” is used in sense of being directory

a. True b. False

xviii. The doctrine of stare decisis means

a. To consider the decisions of superior court b. To annul the decisions of superior court

xix. All statutes are properly referred to

a. Law b. Legislation c. Code

xx. Court should exercise its inherent power to do justice

a. True b. False






Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Describe the function of “Proviso” as an aid to the interpretation of a statute?

Q.No.2. What are the external aids to the constructions of statute?

Q.No.3. Explain in detail about repeal and revival of a statute?

Q.No.4. Discuss the rule of harmonious statutory interpretation?

Q.No.5. Discuss the doctrine of “Stare Decisis” and its importance in interpretation of statutes?

Part-II


i. Codicil ii. Oath iii. Successor

iv. Revival of Repealed Enactment

Q.No.7. Explain the official chief and subordinates with reference to the relevant section of

general clauses Act?






Objective Part




i. Copyright is available for __________.

a. Research Papers b. Theses c. Books d. All of these

ii. Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan is the regulator for copyright protection.

a. True b. False

iii. A suit for infringement of trade mark is filed in

a. Supreme Court b. High Court c. District Magistrate d. None of these


a. True b. False

v. Which one is not a copyright violation?

a. Student copyright a chapter in a book for academic purpose only b. Reading a book

without permission of author c. referring a book to a fried d. All of above


a. 1880 b. 1883 c. 1886 d. 1986



viii. The head quarter of intellectual Property Organization of Pakistan is located at


ix. How a company can protect its protect is product name with unique identity?


x. When Paris Convention was first signed

a. 1880 b. 1883 c. 1886 d. 1987

xi. An application for registration of trade mark can be filed under section _______ of the Trademarks

Ordinance, 2001

a. 4 b. 12 c. 18 d. 22

xii. Patents are protected for a definite period

a. True b. False

xiii. Copyrights are only available for computer programming

a. True b. False

xiv. Movies are protected under copyrights

a. True b. False

xv. Design protection is unlimited under Pakistani laws

a. True b. False

xvi. Patent right is not s saleable property

a. True b. False

xvii. Pakistan is the member of WTO

a. True b. False

xviii. Pakistan is a leading country in protecting intellectual property rights

a. True b. False

xix. A particular design which has its unique distinction due to its colors combinations etc. may be

protected under

a. Patent Laws b. Copyright laws c. Trademarks d. None of these


a. True b. False






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. What are the conditions which must be there in order to receive copy right protection?

Q.No.2. What the Term TRIPS stand for and when this was come into force. What were the

reasons for adoption of the TRIPS agreements?


Pakistan?

Q.No.4. Differentiate between copyright, patent, trademark and design?

Q.No.5. What privileges are available after acquiring Patent rights?


Q.No.7. Describe briefly the procedure for obtaining a design registration?




Subject: Environmental Laws Paper: VI-VII (ii)


Objective Part




i. ________ means a dynamic complex of plant, animal and micro-organism

a. Ecosystem b. Effluent c. a & b d. None of above

ii. Discharge means


iii. ________ means the intensity, duration and character of sounds from all sources is called

a. Noise b. Nuclear Waste c. a & b d. None of above

iv. Hazardous waste means the waste includes

a. Hospital Waste b. Nuclear waste c. a & b d. None of above

v. Industrial waste means waste resulting from

a. Industrial Activity b. Local Activity c. a & b d. None of above

vi. __________ means standard establish by the Federal Agency

a. National Environmental Quality Standard b. Noise c. a & b

vii. Persons means

a. Natural Person b. Legal Person c. a & b c. None of above

viii. ________ means any activity plan, scheme, proposal involving any change in environments

a. Project b. Pollution c. a & b d. None of above

ix. Vessel includes anything made for conveyance by

a. Water of Human being b. Goods c. a & b d. None of above

x. Initial Environmental Examination means

a. Preliminary Environmental Review b. Final Decision c. a & b

xi. ________ means any substance that causes pollution of air

a. Air Pollutant b. Pollution c. a & b d. None of above

xii. ________ means any person who proposes a project


xiii. The power to make rules & regulations is with the

a. Federal Agency b. Provincial Agency c. a & b d. None of above

xiv. An Environmental Magistrate will be


nd Class Magistrate c. a & b d. None of above

xv. The chairperson of Environmental Tribunal will be

a. A Judge of the High Court b. Technical Member c. a & b d. None of above

xvi. The functions of the Federal Agency are

a. Administer and Implement the Act b. Prepare the annual national Environmental Report

c. A & b d. None of above

xvii. _______ means liquid or semi-solid wastes is called

a. Sewage b. Waste c. a & b d. None of above

xviii. Pakistan Environmental Protection agency is called


xix. ________ means the variability among living organisms from all sources


xx. ________ means waste from farm and agricultural activities

a. Agricultural Waste b. Building c. Factory d. Municipal Waste






Subjective Part



i. Environment ii. Ecosystem iii. Biodiversity

iv. Agriculture waste v. Factory

Q.No.2. Discuss the National Biodiversity Action Plan?

Q.No.3. Write note on Environmental Tribunals?

Q.No.4. Discuss the institutional infrastructure with reference to environmental protection?

Q.No.5. Briefly write the historical factors leading to development of Environmental Law?

Q.No.6. Explain the importance of Soft Law with reference to environment?

Q.No.7. What you know about the prevention and polluter pays?






Objective Part




i. A person transacting the business of accepting, for the purpose of lending or investment of or

deposits of more from the public, repayable on demand otherwise withdrawable by cheque, draft,

order or otherwise is called

a. Payee b. Drawer c. Endorsee d. Banker

ii. A person who by negotiable comes into possession of a negotiable instrument, which is payable to

bearer is called

a. Bearer b. Payee c. Endorser d. None of these

iii. The first delivery of a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque complete in form to a person

who takes it as holder is called

a. Endorsement b. Issue c. Delivery d. None of these

iv. In Modaraba business all partners contribute finance

a. True b. False

v. Rupee coin means _______ which is legal tender in Pakistan

a. One rupee note b. All coins of denomination of one rupee or less

c. One rupee coin

vi. A person to whom finance is extended by a financial institution is called

a. Customer b. Client c. Account holder d. None of these

vii. Banking Courts are established u/s _______ of the Financial Institutions (Recovery of Finance)

Ordinance 2001

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5

viii. The maturity of a promissory note or bill of exchange is the next day at which it falls due

a. True b. False

ix. The license to operate as banking company in Pakistan to a foreign banking company is issued by

a. President b. Ministry of Finance c. SECP d. State Bank

x. The State Bank cannot reduce its share capital under the State Bank of Pakistan Act 1956

a. True b. False

xi. The chairman of the board of directors of the State Bank of Pakistan is

a. President of Pakistan b. Prime Minister c. Governor State Bank d. None of these

xii. The ex officio member (s) of the board of directors of the State Bank includes

a. Governor b. Secretary Finance c. a & b d. only a

xiii. Banking Mohtasib is appointed by

a. President b. Governor c. Chief Justice of Pakistan d. Chief Justice High Court

xiv. Governor State Bank is appointed by ________ under the State Bank of Pakistan Act 1956

a. Federal Government b. President c. Board of Directors d. Prime Minister

xv. The offices of the State Bank of Pakistan are situated in

a. Lahore b. Gujranwala c. Sahiwal d. a & b

xvi. Modaraba is a legal person

a. True b. False

xvii. The transfer of an interest in specific immovable property for the purpose of securing the payment

of the mortgage money or the performance of an obligation which may give rise to a pecuniary

liability is called

a. Pledge b. Bailment c. Mortgage d. None of these

xviii. Shares of State Bank of Pakistan are traded on the stock exchange

a. True b. False

xix. Directors at Board of State Bank of Pakistan are appointed by the Federal Government for the term

of

a. 1 Year b. 3 years c. 10 years d. for life

xx. A negotiable instrument may be made payable to two or more payees jointly

a. True b. False






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Discuss the circumstances and procedure of removal and vacation of office of the

Governor, Deputy Governor, directors and members under section 15 of the State Bank

of Pakistan Act 1956?

Q.No.2. Discuss the powers of the State Bank of Pakistan regarding monitoring and supervision

of the banking companies under the Banking Companies Ordinance 1962?

Q.No.3. Define the term Modaraba and also discuss the eligibility of a company to be registered

as Modaraba Company under section 5 of the Modaraba Companies and Modaraba

(Floatation and Control) Ordinance 1980?

Q.No.4. Enumerate the form of businesses in which a banking company may engage itself under

the Banking Companies Ordinance 1962?

Q.No.5. What is meant by negotiable instrument? Discuss the essential characteristics of a

promissory note?




a. Multipurpose and specific purpose Modaraba b. Modaraba Fund

c. Notary Public d. Endorsement






Objective Part




i. An appeal can file against the order of the labour court in High Court within


ii. The limitation period for filing a grievance petition refer labour court is


iii. In lieu of notice of termination, one month‟s wages shall be paid to

a. Employer b. Registrar c. Workman

iv. Workman before expiry of _________ submits himself for medical examination.


v. A trade Union means a union comprised of

a. Workers of the same or of several allied trader b. Administrative employer of the

same or of several allied trader c. a & b

vi. A trade union means a union comprised of

a. Administrative employer of the same or of several trader b. workers of same or

of several allied trader c. None of these

vii. Conciliation means a person appointed as conciliator under section

a. 36 of PIRA 2012 b. 37 of PIRA 2010 c. 35 of PIRA 2010

viii. Effect of non-compliance of Order of Labour Court or High Court with in one month or such period

as specified in such order or decision, the defaulter shall be punishable

a. With five and punishment of six month b. with five which may extend to ten

thousand rupees c. with five and punishment of six month

ix. Service of a badil may be terminated when the permanent workmen in whose vacancy he is

appointed resume duty

a. True b. False

x. By virtue of section 3 of IRO 2002 or PIRA 2010 every workmen can join any trade union of their

choice within the establishment or industry

a. True b. False

xi. 6- Penalty under section 64(4) & (5) of PIRA 2010 to compel the employer shall be

a. Punishable with fine which may extend to thirty thousand rupees (but not less then ten

thousands rupees) b. Punishable with fine five thousands rupees c.

Punishable with fifty two thousand rupees.

xii. Under section 29 of PIRA 2010 described that in every establishment employing fifty persons or

more the management shall setup a workman management council consisting of

a. Not less then 6-members in which the workers participation shall be fifty percent.

b. Not less then 10-members in which the workers participation shall be thirty percent

c. Not less then 50-memebers in which the worker participation shall be twenty percent

xiii. Basic principle of retrenchment is

a. Last come last go b. Last come first go c. First come first go

xiv. Re-Employment of retrenched workman engaged in constructions industry under

a. Section 14-A b. Standing order 14-A c. Ordinance 14-A

xv. Service of the workman is less than six months, he shall

a. Not claim right of gratuity b. None of above c. Claim right of gratuity

xvi. It is only the employee who can dismiss the workman and not any officer subordinate to him

a. True b. False

xvii. Personal includes must have been caused

a. During the course of his employment b. by accident arising out of his employment

xviii. Gratuity is a lump sum amount given by the employer normally at the time of

a. Appointment b. Retirement c. During continues service

xix. Legal disability is a disability, which can be enforced by law

a. True b. False






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Explain which decisions of Labour court would be appeal able to High Court?

Q.No.2. Explain the mode of construction of the benches of the National industrial Relations

commission with emphasis on functions and powers of such bench?

Q.No.3. Explain classification of workman has been described under the order 1968?

Q.No.4. What is any modification in standing order, if so who is competent to do so and in what

manner, is the violation describe under the standing orders punishable if so what are the

penalties for various branches and the procedure therefore?

Q.No.5. What is the method of filling can appeal under the workmen?

Q.No.6. Write detail note on Group incentive scheme with illustration?

Q.No.7. What are the provisions for re-employment of retrenched workmen under w.p. standing

order 1968?






Objective Part




i. Any expenditure for a transaction paid or payable under a single account head which in aggregate

exceeds _____ made other than banking channel is not deductible from gross income from business

a. Fifty Thousand b. Thirty Thousand c. Twenty Thousand

ii. Any rent or revenue derived by a person from land which is situated in Pakistan is called income

a. Rental Income b. Agricultural Income c. Income from other source

iii. Any monetary award granted to a person by President of Pakistan shall be ___ under this Ordinance

a. Taxable b. Exempt c. Reduced rate

iv. Income Tax Registration from is made under section ______ of the Income Tax Ordinance, 2001

a. 155 b. 180 c. 181

v. Income tax return e filed become a ________ order u/s 120 of the ITO-2001

a. Deemed Order b. Assessment Order c. Amended Order

vi. An appeal order 122A by the Commissioner is appealable before the __________.

a. Civil Judge b. Commissioner (Appeals) c. Appellate Tribunal

vii. A revised order 122A by the Commissioner is appealable before the __________.

a. Appellate Tribunal IR b. High Court c. Commissioner (Appeals)

viii. A person shall be automatically selected for audit of its income tax attacks for a tax year, if the tax

payable under section ________ has not been paid.

a. 137 b. 148 c. 153

ix. Advance tax on purchase or transfer of immovable property has to be collected under section _____

of the ITO 2001

a. 236P b. 236K c. 236F

x. The commissioner shall within _______ days of receipts of a refund application served on the

person applying for the refund an order in writing of the decision to the taxpayer.


xi. A registered person may be selected for audit by _______ under section 25 of the STA-1990

a. FBR b. Commissioner c. Officer Inland Revenue

xii. The commissioner may authorize an officer of Inland Revenue not below the rank of _______ to

conduct an inquiry or investigation under section 38 of the STA-1990

a. Deputy Commissioner IR b. Assistant Commissioner c. Addl Commissioner

xiii. Any person who fails to issue an invoice when required under sales tax Act, 1990 shall may a

penalty of Rs. ___________.

a. 6000/- b. 5000/- c. 4000/-

xiv. No refund under sales tax Act, 1990 shall be allowed unless the claim is not made within _______

of the date of payment.

a. 50 days b. 60 days c. One year

xv. Advance Tax u/s 231 A has been deducted by ______ on withdrawal of cash from account

a. Banks b. Companies c. Registered Firms

xvi. Default of consecutive six sales tax returns empowers commissioner to initiate _____ proceedings

a. Blacklisting b. Audit c. Tax fraud

xvii. Notification u/s ________ of the ITO-1979 have been saved in sub-section 12 of the section 239 of

the ITO-2001

a. S. 50 b. S. 53 c. S. 52

xviii. A revised return may be furnished u/s _____ become an amended order u/s 122 of the ITO-2001

a. 116 b. 115 c. 114(6)

xix. Intimation for ________ of business has been made u/s 117 of the ITO 2001

a. Discontinuation b. Start c. Change

xx. Application for extension in filing of return has been filed under section _____ of the ITO-2001

a. S. 118 b. S. 119 c. S. 121






Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Write short notes on the followings:

i. Accumulated Profits ii. Commissioner (Appeals)

iii. Filer iv. Industrial Undertaking

Q.No.2. What is an income tax return? Who are exempt from filing of return?

Q.No.3. What are the allowable expenditures in computing income from property?

Q.No.4. What are different methods of accounting? Explain in detail

Q.No.5. What is Appellate Tribunal Inland Revenue? What is the procedure to file an appeal

before the Appellate Tribunal Inland Revenue?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Explain the procedure for selecting and conducting of Audit under sales Tax Act, 1990?

Q.No.7. How a black-listed person may be restored?






Objective Part




i. Period of appeal under the land Revenue Act before the Collector is


ii. Application of partition is decided by

a. Collector b. Assistant Collector c. 1st grade Commissioner

iii. Special assessment is levied under section ________ of the land revenue Act

a. 69 b. 79 c. 80

iv. Who is liable for payment of land Revenue _______.

a. Land owner b. Tenant c. Lease holder

v. Review can be filed within


vi. Who can postpone the sale

a. Commissioner b. Collector c. Board of Revenue

vii. To whom report of sale is sent

a. Collector b. Commissioner c. Distt: Judge

viii. Who can correct the entry in revenue record

a. Civil Court b. Revenue Officer c. Revenue Court

ix. When arrest of defaulter is effected after the notice of demand


x. Agriculture year commence on

a. 1st day of July b. 1

st day of January c. 1

st day of June

xi. When order of Ejectment is executed

a. Between 1st day of May and 15

th day of June b. 1

st December to 31

st December

c. 1st day of June to 30

th June

xii. Who can decide the suit between land lord and Tenant for enhancement of rent

a. Revenue Court b. Revenue Officer c. Civil Court

xiii. Who has power to decree the application in respect of division of produce

a. Collector b. Revenue Court c. Civil Court

xiv. Who has jurisdiction to decide the suit by land lord to eject tenant

a. Revenue Officer b. Revenue Officer c. Civil Court

xv. Right of preemption can be exercised within

a. One year b. 4 months c. One month

xvi. No right of pre-emption exist in case of

a. Property owned by local authority b. Agricultural land

c. Village immoveable property

xvii. Pre-emptor is required to deposit one of sale price within


xviii. Pre-emptor is required to deposit the remaining sale price after decree within


xix. When the pre-emptor and Vender has equal right of preemption Property will be divided into

a. Equal share b. According to property owned by them c. According to Law of inheritance

xx. Irrigated land means

a. Irrigated by canal b. by rains c. by flood






Subjective Part



Part-I (The Punjab Land Revenue Act-1967)

Q.No.1. Discuss the mode of service of Summons issued by Revenue officer?

Q.No.2. What is meant by assessment of Land Revenue? Which land is exempted from the

payment of Land Revenue?

Q.No.3. Under what circumstances special assessment is levied?

Part-II (The Punjab Tenancy Act-1887)

Q.No.4. Discuss the respective rights of Land Lord and tenant regarding produce?

Q.No.5. How the tenant from year to year is ejected?

Part-III (The Punjab pre-emption Act-1991)

Q.No.6. What is meant by right of pre-emption? Discuss in detail

Q.No.7. What methods of distribution of property is adopted, when more than one person are

equally entitled.

i. How the joint right of pre-emption is exercised.






Objective Part




i. Arbitration Act 1940 came into force on

a. 1st July, 1940 b. 1

st Aug, 1940 c. 1

st Sep, 1940 d. 1

st Oct, 1940

ii. Reference means reference to

a. Court b. Arbitration c. Referee d. Parties

iii. Power of court to appoint arbitrator is given in section

a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9

iv. Award means ________ award

a. Arbitration b. Court c. Parties d. None of these

v. Section 44 of Arbitration Act 1940 gives the power to make rules to

a. Civil Court b. District Court c. High Court d. Supreme Court

vi. Arbitration Act 1940 consists of ________ sections

a. 29 b. 39 c. 49 d. 59

vii. The Court Fee Act 1870 shall extends to the

a. Punjab b. Sindh c. KPK d. Whole of Pakistan

viii. Suit for money valuing ______ is exempted from levy of court fee

a. 25,000 b. 50,000 c. 75,000 d. 100,000

ix. Multifarious suits are defined in section of Court fee Act

a. 7 b. 17 c. 27 d. 37

x. Provincial Government is bound to consult the _________ before making rules

a. District Court b. High Court c. Supreme Court d. Federal Government

xi. The court fee value and jurisdiction value to be the same in certain _________

a. Suits b. Appeal c. Applications d. None of these

xii. ________ court shall have no jurisdiction over any arbitration proceedings

a. Small cause b. Civil c. District d. High

xiii. Rent includes

a. Monthly rent b. Arrears of rent c. Utility bill d. All of these

xiv. A tenant shall pay the rent to the landlord according to

a. The tenancy agreement b. Monthly c. Quarterly d. Yearly

xv. Grounds for eviction are given in section ______ of Punjab Rented Premises Act 2009

a. 14 b. 15 c. 16 d. 17

xvi. Leave to contest may be filed within _________ days

a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

xvii. The rent tribunal shall not grant more than ________ opportunities for production of evidence

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

xviii. The rent tribunal shall decide the application for leave to contest within a period of _______ days

from the date of its filling

a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25

xix. The Rent tribunal shall decide the application within _________ months from the date of its filling

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 9

xx. Punjab Rented Premises Act 2009 consists of _________ sections

a. 26 b. 36 c. 46 d. 56






Subjective Part

Note: Attempt any FOUR questions in English selecting One Question from Part-I and any

three questions from Part-II. All questions carry equal marks. Uses of Bare Act is allowed but

write the answers in your own words.

Part-I

Q.No.1. What are the powers of court to modify or remit the award in certain cases?

Q.No.2. Which orders are appealable under Arbitration Act 1940?

Part-II

Q.No.3. Explain and discuss the objects of Court Fee Act 1870?

Q.No.4. Explain the procedure of refund of Court Fee in certain cases?

Q.No.5. Which documents are exempted from payment of Court Fee?

Q.No.6. What are the grounds for eviction of tenant?

Q.No.7. What are the obligations of landlord and tenant under rent Law?




Subject: Minor Acts Paper: VI-VII (viii)


Objective Part




i. International Court of Justice was established in June 1945 and began work in

a. July 1945 b. April 1916 c. July 1946

ii. The role of International Court of Justice is to settle legal dispute submitted by

a. UN Agencies b. States c. Every citizen of member state

iii. International Court of Justice is composed of

a. 9-Judges b. 15-Judges c. 17 Judges

iv. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by UNO General Assembly on

a. 10 December 1948 b. 10 December 1949 c. 10 October 1949

v. The fundamental right of any person recognized by UNO is


vi. Equality cannot be assumed unless all human being belong to the same

a. Religion b. Origin c. Caste

vii. Slavery and slave trade shell be prohibited in all its forms defined in the Universal Declaration of

Human Rights under article

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6

viii. Children have the right in international law adequate standard of

a. Living, Healthcare, education b. Having Property c. both

ix. The Human Right Act, 1998 is an act of Parliament of


x. The term child does not necessarily means minor but can include

a. Adult children b. Teenagers c. both

xi. In Islam any person has a right to defend himself for fair

a. Trial b. Inquiry c. both

xii. Refugee comprise a category of


xiii. Magna Carta was signed by

a. King David of Italy b. Kind Joan of England c. King Franklin of Rome

xiv. The right of casting vote was firstly given to women by


xv. Death penalty in murder and rape cases is justifiable in

a. Islam b. Christianity c. Hinduism

xvi. Permanent Members of the United Nations Security Council are

a. 5 b. 9 c. 15

xvii. When the Rome Statute entered into force

a. July 1, 2002 b. July 1, 2003 c. August 1, 2001

xviii. International Court of Justice is situated in

a. Paris b. Hague c. New York

xix. How many official languages of International Court of Justice (ICJ)

a. 1 b. 2 c. 6

xx. How many official languages of International Criminal Court (ICC)

a. 1 b. 2 c. 6




Subject: Minor Acts Paper: VI-VII (viii)


Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Explain in detail the composition, powers and role of International Court of Justice

(ICJ)?


i. The European Convention on Human Rights

ii. United Nations Security Council

Q.No.3. Define the term Refugee and explain the rights of refugees protected under the

International Law?

Q.No.4. What do you mean by terrorism? Explain its effects on human rights in a civilized

society?

Q.No.5. What is discrimination? Explain the measures taken by the United Nations to eliminate

the discrimination against the women?

Q.No.6. Discuss in detail the human rights recognized by Islam?

Q.No.7. Explain the role of United Nations for the environment of International Human Rights?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Parties may be added or struck at any time under

a. O 1 R 10 b. O 11 R 11 c. O 2 R 10 d. O 12 R 10

ii. Section 115 deals with

a. Appeal b. Revision c. Review d. Precept

iii. Under, which section reference can be filed to High Court

a. S. 114 b. S. 115 c. S. 122 d. S. 113

iv. Res-Subjudice is provided in section

a. S. 1 b. S. 12 c. S. 111 d. S. 10

v. Under which order plaint can be returned

a. O 7 R 11 b. O 7 R 10 c. O 7 R 12 d. O 9 R 10

vi. A civil suit can be transferred under section

a. S. 24 b. S. 25 c. S. 14 d. S. 33

vii. Limitation of appeal can be filed


viii. A person who cannot pay court fee is called

a. Poor man b. Pauper c. Minor d. Lunatic

ix. The grant of temporary injunction is under

a. O 29 R 1,2 b. O 39 R 1,2 c. O 38 R 1,2 d. O 41 R 1,2

x. Under what provision of law a decree passed may be set aside on the ground of fraud,

misrepresentation and lack of jurisdiction

a. S. 12(2) b. S. 2(12) c. S. 3(12) d. S. 148

xi. Under what provision the court is competent to dismiss the suit if found time barred

a. S. 5 b. S. 14 c. S. 3 d. S. 13

xii. Whether the court is competent to condone the period of limitation if so under what provision

a. S. 5 b. S. 14 c. S. 3 d. S. 13

xiii. Pecuniary jurisdiction of Civil Judge 1st Class is

a. Rs. 10,00,000/- b. Rs. 2,00,000/- c. Unlimited d. Rs. 2,50,000/-

xiv. Under what provision a plaint can be amended

a. O 6 R 17 b. O 7 R 17 c. O 7 R 15 d. None of them

xv. Under what order appeal can be filed against interim order

a. O 41 b. O 43 c. O 39 d. O 38

xvi. Under what provision court can enlarge the time

a. S. 148 b. S. 149 c. S. 138 d. S. 151

xvii. Under what provision of C. P. C woman is exempted from personal appearance

a. 132 b. 133 c. 148 d. 144

xviii. Under what provision of ex-parte decree can be set aside

a. O 13 R 13 b. O 13 R 9 c. O 9 R 13 d. O 9 R 14

xix. Under what provision decree has been defined

a. S. 2(2) b. S. 2(3) c. S. 2(4) d. S. 3(2(

xx. How many kinds of issues are

a. One b. Two c. Three d. None of these



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Under what capacity suits by or against the government or public officers in their

official capacity brief?

Q.No.2. Under what provision suits by or against minors and persons of unsound mind? Brief

Q.No.3. Under what provision property can be attached before judgment?

Q.No.4. An aggrieved person may file appeal under what provision?

Q.No.5. What are the incidental proceedings? Explain briefly


Q.No.6. Under what provision the court is authorized to condone the delay?

Q.No.7. What is meant by legal disability under the Limitation Act?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Bail defined U/S __________.

a. 496 b. 497 c. 499 d. All of these

ii. A justice of Peace appointed under section 22 Cr. P. C by the Provincial Government enjoys

a. Administrative Power b. Judicial Powers c. No one

iii. First information Report is lodged ________.

a. U/S 173 Cr. Pc b. U/S 154 Cr. Pc c. U/S 156 Cr. Pc d. No one

iv. Trial commences with on ________.

a. Framing of charge b. Submission of challan c. Registration of case

d. Recording of evidence

v. Whether word Challan is mentioned in Cr. Pc ___________.

a. Yes b. No

vi. Revision is competent/ lies against an order passed by ATC

a. Yes b. No

vii. Order under section 249 (A) Cr. P. C is revisable

a. Yes b. No

viii. Power to postpone or adjourn the case is vested upon a criminal court u/s

a. 344 CrPc b. 342 CrPc c. 345 CrPc d. 346 CrPc

ix. In a complaint u/s IDA 2005, accused was acquitted, what remedy lies against acquittal order

a. Revision b. Appeal c. Writ d. No One

x. DNA exist in ________.

a. White blood cells b. Red blood cells c. both d. None of these

xi. Cr. P. C comprise of schedules _________.

a. 02 b. 05 c. 08 d. No one

xii. Two copies are prepared by police, of all entries made in Daily Diary.

a. Yes b. No

xiii. Colum No. 4 of FIR Comprises of

a. Name of case property b. Name of accused c. Name of complaint d. No One

xiv. A charge is framed during trial of criminal case in the presence of

a. Complaint b. Accused c. witness d. None of these

xv. Correction of name of accused is possible and permissible in criminal case

a. Yes b. No

xvi. In a murder case u/s 302 _________ is normal penalty

a. Life imprisonment b. death sentence c. 14 years imprisonment d. No one

xvii. Session judge is not competent to permit withdrawal of a private complaint in a case trial bal by

Magistrate

a. Yes b. No

xviii. A judge or presiding officer of a court may add and delete sections, at the time of framing change

a. Yes b. No

xix. Offences can be compounded _________.

a. u/s 344 CrPc b. u/s 345 CrPc c. u/s 346 CrPc d. u/s 347 CrPc

xx. High court can transfer case

a. 525 CrPc b. 526 CrPc c. 526 (A) CrPc



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part





i. Advocate General ii. Compoundable Offence iii. Magistrate

iv. Civil Armed Force v. Cognizable Offence

Q.No.2. What is Confession? How it should be recorded?

Q.No.3. Write a detailed note on Inherent Powers of High Court?

Q.No.4. Explain the term “First Information Report” What is its evidentiary value? What is its

effect if made by accused?

Q.No.5. State Powers of Magistrate or A Police Officer in dispersing an unlawful assembly?


Q.No.6. What is DNA? Describe the purpose of DNA test? Who can obtain sample of DNA?

Q.No.7. Write notes on:

a. Incised Wound b. Lacerated Wound c. Stab Wound

d. Amputation



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. The term “Estoppel” has been define in article

a. 112 b. 113 c. 114 d. 166

ii. Art 46 of Qanoon-e-Shahadat defines


iii. Plea of Alibi has been enshrined in Article of Qanun-e-Shahadat order 1984

a. 24 b. 25 c. 22 d. 26

iv. The principle of the rule laid down in the Article 23 of Qanun-e-Shahadat is

a. Custom b. Conspiracy c. Admission

v. Who is an Accomplice


vi. Judicial Confession is made before

a. A magistrate b. Police c. DC d. Witness

vii. A witness many while under examination refresh his memory under article

a. 157 b. 156 c. 155 d. 154

viii. Leading question may be asked in cross examination


ix. The term “Resgestae” has been explained under article

a. 19 b. 15 c. 18 d. 17

x. Birth during marriage conclusive proof of legitimacy has been enshrined in article

a. 127 b. 128 c. 129 d. 130

Write before the questions True or False

xi. Contents of a documents under Article 70 of Q. S. O 1984 cannot be proved by oral evidence

True / False

xii. Facts of which the judicial notice is to be taken are stated in Article III of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order

1984. True / False

xiii. Oral evidence under Article 71 of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984 may be direct only.

True / False

xiv. Contents of a document under Article 70 Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984 cannot be proved oral

evidence. True / False

xv. The circumstances under which the secondary evidence is admissible have been enumerated in

Article 76 of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984. True / False

xvi. Documents which are not covered under Article 85 of Qanoon-e-Shahadat Order 1984 are called

semi-public documents. True / False

xvii. Statement of a party not cross-examined by other party, such statement would be presumed to be

admitted by other party. True / False

xviii. That principle that possession is prima facie proof of ownership is contained in Article 125 of

Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984. True / False

xix. The estoppels in article 114 of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984 is an estoppel by pais.

True / False

xx. Can any party re-examine its witness at its sweet will. True / False



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part



Part-I


i. Identification parade ii. Extra-Judicial confession

iii. In Chief iv. Retracted Confession v. Facts in issue

Q.No.2. What do you mean by hearsay evidence? Explain in detail

Q.No.3. Who may testify discuss in detail?

Q.No.4. What is an ancient document? How does it prove?

Q.No.5. Write down a comprehensive note on “Dying Declaration”?


Q.No.6. Explain & discuss upon “Legal Ethics” state the relation between law & ethic?

Q.No.7. What do you understand by professional misconduct?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Is written statement is not part of pleading.

a. Yes b. No

ii. Amendment is written statement cannot be allowed.

a. Yes b. No

iii. An negotiable instrument does not include cheques, pronotes.

a. Yes b. No

iv. Minor persons can be sued directly.

a. Yes b. No

v. Agreement to sell is equal to sale deed.

a. Yes b. No

vi. Is suit for jactitation of marriage can be filed in civil court?

a. Yes b. No

vii. Replication is not part of pleading.

a. Yes b. No

viii. Jurisdiction of court is not necessary.

a. Yes b. No

ix. Can appellate court reject the plaint?

a. Yes b. No

x. Facts admitted are conclusive proof.

a. Yes b. No

xi. One man & one woman are sufficient for attestation of financial document.

a. Yes b. No

xii. Family court cannot execute its decree.

a. Yes b. No

xiii. Unsound person himself can file suit.

a. Yes b. No

xiv. Is plaintiff is legal bound to prove his claim in the court.

a. Yes b. No

xv. Legal notice is an integral part of legal proceedings.

a. Yes b. No

xvi. Three witnesses are mandatory to make a document legal.

a. Yes b. No

xvii. Cause of action is not necessary for suit.

a. Yes b. No

xviii. No party to the suit is allowed to give evidence beyond pleadings.

a. Yes b. No

xix. A person empowering another person through general power of attorney is called principal.

a. Yes b. No

xx. In suit for partition court can pass only final decree.

a. Yes b. No



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part




Part-I

Q.No.1. Draft a deed for cancellation of General Power of Attorney with reasoning for its

cancellation?

خیسنت ای

ت

ر ن ا ن

ررک ںی؟ /داتسوب و خ رک واےن یک ووج اہ ت رحتب سمف

ر رک ںی اور اہم اعل رحتب

اہم ایتخم ر ن

ااطبك ن

Q.No.2. Define legal notice, under what circumstances it is served upon the opposite party and

why, draft legal notice on behalf of your client to the defaulter tenant to vacate the

house and to pay the rent due?

ا ےہ اور ویک ں ای اقون ین

ت

ر قی وک اجیھب اج ن

اددنہ رک اقون ین ون سٹ یک رعت فی رک ںی۔ نک احالت ںیم اخمفل ف

ےس ن

ر رک ںی اےنپ وم لک یک اجن ا اہی ون سٹ رحت ب دار وک ہک وہ اکمم اخیل رک ے ۔ زین اقبن

اج ت رک اہی یھب ادا رک ے۔

Q.No.3. Define a firm and write partnership deed for its establishment?

ر ےئجیک ۔ اہم رحت ب

ر ل ےس ایک رم اد ےہ ۔ اس ےک ایق ل ےک ےیل ای رش اتک ن

ف

Q.No.4. Define Mortgage, Draft deed for mortgage by conditional sale?

ر ےئجیک۔ ۔رنہ یک رعتفی ےئجیک اہم عیب ن اول افرحت ب

رنہ ن

Part-II

Q.No.5. Draft a plaint in suit for possession through partition of residential property located

within urban area?

دااگہن درہعی میسقت ج

ر رک ںی۔رع یض دوع ی دایلخیب ب ینکس رہش اجدیئ اد رحت ب

ت

ن ان

Q.No.6. Draft plaint in a suit for specific performance of the sale of urban property?

ر رک ںی۔ ر اےئ رہش ی اج دیئ اد رحت ب لیمکت اعمدہہ صتخم عیب ب

ت

رع یض دوع ی ن ان

Q.No.7. Draft written statement in suit for possession through pre-emption of 1991 of urban

property?

ع رجم ہی اسك

ف

ش

درہعی قح

ر رک ںی۔1991دوع ی دایلخیب ب ء اک وج اب دوع ی رحتب



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Masculine gender means females.

a. True b. False

ii. Litera Legis means general interpretation is sufficient to interpretation of a statute.

a. True b. False

iii. Only historical perspective is sufficient to interpretation of a statute.

a. True b. False

iv. Section 26 of General Clause Act provides no bar to trial or conviction for the same crime.

a. True b. False

v. A cheque upon a banker is a document.

a. True b. False

vi. Consent cannot give jurisdiction.

a. True b. False

vii. Repeal by implication is not favoured by the courts.

a. True b. False

viii. Textual canons are rules of thumb for understanding words of text.

a. True b. False

ix. A particular section of statute can be divorced from rest of Act.

a. True b. False

x. A word omitted from language of a statue can be known as casus omissus.

a. True b. False

xi. There are ______ kinds of consolidating statutes.

a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five

xii. Beneficial construction is also known as _______ construction.

a. Internal b. External c. Hard d. Liberal

xiii. Mandatory enactment means ________ enactment.

a. Premature b. Preemptory c. Pre applied d. Pre-enacted

xiv. All statute are property referred to as

a. Code b. Law c. Legislation d. Enactment

xv. A part of law which regulates rights and duties of the parties is called.

a. Administrative law b. Substantive law c. both a & b

xvi. Task of consolidating statutes can be done by ________ all former statues.

a. Modifying b. Amending c. Repealing d. Altering

xvii. Construction of statue can be ________ construction.

a. Restrictive b. Beneficial c. a & b d. None of above

xviii. Function of court is

a. To make law b. to interpret law

xix. __________ means a condition or stipulation.

a. Provision b. Proviso c. Section d. Article

xx. ________ refers to legal authority to administer justice

a. Adjudication b. ouster of Jurisdiction c. Jurisdiction d. Justice



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. What is “Golden Rule of Interpretation of statutes”? Discuss in detail.

Q.No.2. What is

i. Doctrine of stare decisis.

ii. Doctrine of last antecendent.


Q.No.4. Define and explain in detail the rule of beneficial construction of a statute?

Q.No.5. Define construction and differentiate it from interpretation?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Under what section of general Clause Act power to appoint include power to remove or

suspend? Comments

Q.No.7. Write short note on following:

i. Act ii. Financial Year iii. Oath

iv. Will



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Sadqain is registered under

a. Trademark b. Copyright c. Patent and Design d. None of these

ii. Copyright is restricted to books only

a. True b. False

iii. TRIPS stands for Trade related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights

a. True b. False

iv. How a company can protect its product name with unique identity

a. Copyright b. Trade Mark c. patent

v. Patents are protected for an indefinite time period

a. True b. False

vi. Patent right is a non-saleable property

a. True b. False

vii. The Trade Mark Ordinance was promulgated in

a. 2010 b. 2001 c. 2000

viii. A suit for infringement of trade mark is filed in

a. Supreme Court b. High Court c. District Court

ix. Pakistan is a leading country in protecting intellectual property rights

a. True b. False

x. When the Bern Convention was first adopted

a. 1880 b. 1883 c. 1886

xi. The Paris convention was first signed

a. 1880 b. 1883 c. 1886

xii. The Trade mark is registered under section 35 of Trademark Ordinance 2001

a. True b. False

xiii. Design protection is a right which is generated the moment one creates it

a. True b. False

xiv. A particular design which has its unique distinction due to its color combinations etc. may be

protected under

a. Patent Laws b. Copyright laws c. Trademarks d. Deign Laws

xv. The copy right is protected for the period of


xvi. The artistic work is protected under

a. Copyright Laws b. Design Laws c. both a & b

xvii. Musical work is registered under

a. Trademark Laws b. Copy right Law c. Patent Laws

xviii. The application for registration of dramatic work is furnished to

a. Registrar of trademarks b. Registrar of Copyright c. both a & b

xix. The Patents Ordinance 2000 is applicable throughout


xx. The head office of PIPA is in




LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part


Q.No.1. What are Patentable Inventions, explain in detail? How can a person revoke the Patent

by the order of High Court, explain its procedure?

Q.No.2. Discuss the salient features of Patent Cooperation Treaty?

Q.No.3. Why does Trade Mark is to be registered? Discuss merits and demerits of registration

of trademark?

Q.No.4. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has played an important role in

development of multilateral intellectual property regime. Discuss?

Q.No.5. What do you know about TRIPS and its enforcement? What were the reasons for

adoption of the TRIPS agreements?

Q.No.6. What do you know about the procedure for obtaining a Design Protection, Its term and

renewal?

Q.No.7. What remedies are available against the infringement of design?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas

a. Methane b. Carbon dioxide c. Sulpher dioxide d. water

ii. The amount of which greenhouse gas you can reasonably control

a. Oxides of nitrogen b. water vapours c. methane d. carbon dioxide

iii. Indicate an air pollutant among the following

a. Oxygen b. nitrogen c. water d. carbon monoxide

iv. The phenomenon which does not lead to global warming

a. Greenhouse effect b. ozone depletion c. deforestation d. photosynthesis

v. Which air pollutant when attaches itself with haemoglbin reduces its oxygen carrying capacity

a. Carbon dioxide b. sulphur dioxide c. oxides of nitrogen d. carbon monoxide

vi. Air pollution is caused by

a. Insecticides b. sewage c. smoke d. loud speakers

vii. When trees are cut, amount of oxygen

a. Increase b. decreases c. a & b

viii. The purpose of recycling is to

a. Conserve raw material b. conserve source c. conserve energy

ix. The most common recycled domestic materials are

a. Glass b. plastic c. paper d. all of these

x. Any premises in which industrial activity is being undertaken is

a. Factory b. industry c. estate d. none of these

xi. Any dues recoverable by the Federal Agency under PEPA 1997 shall be recoverable as

a. Liquldated Damages b. compensation c. Arears of land revenue

xii. Skin cancer is due to

a. Ultraviolet radiation b. carbon dioxide c. air pollution d. water pollution

xiii. It is major cause of pollution

a. Burning of fuels b. cutting of trees c. garbage d. pesticides

xiv. All living and non-living things surrounding an organism are collectively called its

a. Pollution b. agriculture c. environment d. resources

xv. Land pollution is caused by

a. Waste and sewage in soil b. not properly disposing of plastics bags c. over use

xvi. Ozone depletion is caused by

a. CFCs b. carbon dioxide c. sulphur d. none of these

xvii. Leather causes of

a. Air pollution b. water pollution c. land pollution d. all of these

xviii. Ozone layer saves from

a. Ultraviolet radiation b. heat c. air pollution d. none of these

xix. Acid rain caused by

a. Sulpher b. smoke c. carbon dioxide d. none of these

xx. _________ means spilling, leaking and pumping



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Write the sources of Environmental law?

Q.No.2. Write a short note on the following

a. UNEP b. SAARC

Q.No.3. What is National Conservation Strategy?

Q.No.4. Elucidate Islamic Perspective on Environmental law?

Q.No.5. Write in detail Indus Basin Commission?

Q.No.6. Discuss comprehensively the climate change?

Q.No.7. Describe provisions under Constitution of 1973 regarding the Environmental Law?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. A plaint submitted before Banking Court shall be certified under Notaries Ordinance 1961?

a. True b. False

ii. Promissory Note relate to uncertain sum of money.

a. True b. False

iii. There is no restriction as regard to minimum paid up capital of Banking Company.

a. True b. False

iv. Modarba means a business in which all partners participate in the management

a. True b. False

v. Public company‟s shares can be freely transferable

a. True b. False

vi. Bill of exchange is alternate of a cheque

a. True b. False

vii. A statutory meeting can be held by a public company

a. True b. False

viii. No separate application for execution of judgment and decree is needed

a. True b. False

ix. Partners are owner of the firm

a. True b. False

x. Who draws the bill is called Drawee

a. True b. False

xi. A Modarba may be of four descriptions

a. True b. False

xii. Reply of application for leave to defend should be in the form of Replication

a. True b. False

xiii. Financial Institution is entitled, in its discretion, to participate in the public auction

a. True b. False

xiv. Appeal against judgment and decree passed by Banking Court can be filed in District Court

a. True b. False

xv. A person against whom judgment and decree is passed is known as decree holder

a. True b. False

xvi. A person who issues a promissory note is called drawer

a. True b. False

xvii. A stranger can endorse a negotiable instrument

a. True b. False

xviii. Annual meeting of the shareholders of a bank is called statutory meeting

a. True b. False

xix. Customer includes an indemnifier

a. True b. False

xx. Under state bank of Pakistan Act, 1956, Member means a member for the time being of Central

Board

a. True b. False



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Discuss qualifications and disqualifications of Directors and Members of the State

Bank of Pakistan?

Q.No.2. Discuss following under the Banking Companies Ordinance 1962

a. Reserve Fund b. Cash Reserve

c. Debtor d. Creditor

Q.No.3. Define and illustrate the following terms

a. Post dating b. Negotiation

c. Anti-dating d. Indorsement

Q.No.4. Write a note on Provision relating to offences and penalties to unauthorized issue of

bills and Bank notes under State Bank of Pakistan Act, 1956?

Q.No.5. Describe the following terms briefly

a. Modarba b. Modarba Certificate

c. Modarba Fund d. Modarba Company

Q.No.6. Discuss the winding up of Modarba Company under the Modarba companies and

Modarba (Floatation and Control) Ordinacne 1980?

Q.No.7. What are the essential features of leave to defend as provided in section 10 of the

Financial Institution (Recovery of finance) 2001?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Amounts earned by laborers and artisans normally payable hourly, daily or on piece of work basis

is called

a. Pension b. wages c. gratuity

ii. Audit conducted under section 32A is called

a. Original audit b. special audit c. assessment d. none of above

iii. The Commissioner of the tax payer can file reference to the High Court under section 133 against

the decision of _______.

a. Commissioner appeals b. Appellate Tribunal c. Inland Revenue Officer

iv. Form _______ is used for sales tax registration


v. According to section _______ liquidation in relation to a company includes the termination of trust

a. 2(3) b. 53 c. 114

vi. All expenditures benefits business for a long term period are called _____ expenditures

a. Capital b. Personal c. Simple

vii. Pension or annuity paid by the employer is included in income from _________

a. Other sources b. rent c. business

viii. If tribunal reject the reference application, the party can file a reference directly in the High Court

within ________ days

a. 30 b. 60 c. 120

ix. Under section _______ advance tax is collected at the time of sale by auction

a. 170 b. 231 c. 236A

x. Penalty for failure of filing of return is 1/10 of tax payable for each day of default and minimum

______ of tax payable.

a. 20% b. 50% c. 75%

xi. The ________ of income tax has the power to extend the date for furnishing the return after

submission of application for extension

a. FBR b. Commissioner c. None

xii. No advance tax shall be collected on cars used more than _______ years

a. 5 b. 8 c. 10

xiii. Any income derived as rent, sale of crop or any product grown on land is ________ income

a. Dividend b. agricultural c. business d. none of these

xiv. Under section 234A the gas marketing companies shall deduct tax at rate of ______ of the amount

of gas bill

a. 4% b. 10% c. 15%

xv. The person paying any profit on any debt should deduct tax out of such amount under section

a. 137 b. 148 c. 151

xvi. Section 170 and 171 of Income Tax Ordinance, 2001 are related to ______

a. Assessment b. Refund c. Rectification

xvii. ________ depreciation, initial depreciation are kinds of depreciation

a. Special b. specific c. both

xviii. In case of flour mills the rate of minimum tax on annual turnover u/s 113 shall be

a. Valid b. Voidable c. void

xix. Appeal against the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) is filed before the _______

a. Civil Judge b. High Court

xx. Appellate Tribunal is established under section _______ of Income Tax Ordinance, 2001

a. 130 b. 135 c. 140



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part



Part-I (Income Tax Ordinance, 2001)

Q.No.1. Write a note on “AUDIT” under section 177 of Income Tax Ordinance, 2001?

Q.No.2. Discuss the different heads of income to change income tax under various heads of

incomes?

Q.No.3. Discuss offences and Penalties under section 182 of income Tax Ordinance, 2001?

Q.No.4. Discuss the rules and requirements relating to appointment of Appellate Tribunal under

section of Income Tax Ordinance 2001?

Q.No.5. Discuss “Refund” in detail under Income Tax Ordinance, 2001?

Part-II (Sales Tax Act, 1990)

Q.No.6. What is Appeal? Discuss the procedure of appeal to the Commissioner Inland Revenue

(Appeals) and Appellate Tribunal?

Q.No.7. Explain the provisions relating to the Suspension and Black listing of Registration

under Sales Tax Act, 1990?



LLB Part-III 2nd




Objective Part




i. Person under whom a Tenant holds Land is

a. Land Lord b. Land owner c. Owner of Land

ii. Which property cannot be partitioned

a. Residential b. Agricultural c. Crazing Ground

iii. Appeal may be preferred against the order of partition within


iv. Appeal can be filed before commissioner within


v. Record of rights shall include

a. Rate b. Cases c. both

vi. Periodical Record is prepared by

a. Collector b. Commission c. Patwari

vii. Sale of holding of defaulter for recovery of arrear is laid down under Section

a. 80 b. 88 c. 86

viii. Who may transfer holding of defaulter for recovery of arrears

a. Patwari b. Collector c. Board of Revenue

ix. “Rate and Cases” are primarily payable by

a. Land owner b. Owner of land c. Tenant

x. Jamabandi revised after how many years

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6

xi. Limitation Period for Taib-i-Khusumat is

a. 1 month b. 3 month c. 4 month

xii. Market price of pre-empted property may be determined by

a. Revenue court b. Civil court c. District court

xiii. If pre-emptor dies before making any of the demands, his right of pre-emption shall transferred to

his

a. Legal Heirs b. legal representative c. None

xiv. Right of pre-emption shall arise in case of

a. Sale b. Exchange c. both

xv. The officer registering the sale deed give public notice within _______ of the registration

a. One week b. Two week c. One month

xvi. Limitation of review under Tenancy Act, before Revenue Officer is


xvii. Village officer means

a. Patwari b. Collector c. Commissioner

xviii. An ejectment Notice shall not be served to Tenant after

a. 1st July b. 15

th November c. 1

st June

xix. Enhancement of rent by Revenue Court is

a. Directory provision b. mandatory c. Discretionary provision

xx. Which provision deals with ejectment of tenant from year to year

a. 31 b. 41 c. 44



LLB Part-III 2nd




Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. What is an arrear of Land Revenue? Describe the procedure by which arrear of Land

Revenue may be recovered?

Q.No.2. What do you understand the term “Assessment”? Discuss he circumstances under

which special Assessment is made?

Q.No.3. Making of that part of periodical record which relates to Land owner. Elaborate

Part-II

Q.No.4. Define Tenant? What are grounds of ejectment of Tenant for a fix Term and year to

year?

Q.No.5. Explain the Law relating to limit of holding for personal cultivation?

Part-III

Q.No.6. Define the term “Right of Pre-emption”. Discuss the Procedure to exercise such right?

Q.No.7. How market price of pre-empted property to be determined? Which properties are not

pre-empted?




Subject: Code of Civil Procedure Paper: I


Objective Part




i. The term DECREE is defined in section _________

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

ii. A person in whose favor a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made

is called ________.

a. Decree defaulter b. Decree holder c. Decree debtor d. None of these

iii. A person against whom a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made is

called

a. Judgment debtor b. judgment holder c. judgment defaulter d. none

iv. The term jurisdiction has _________ kinds

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

v. Section 10 of CPC deals with

a. Res-judicate b. Res sub-judice c. res-gestae d. all

vi. The term res subjudice means

a. The case instituted earlier b. The case instituted later d. none

vii. There are ______ main ingredients for application of section 10

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7

viii. Section 11 of CPC desis with

a. Res-judicata b. Res sub-judice c. Res gestae d. all

ix. Section 22 of CPC deals with transfer of cases by ________

a. Session court b. High court c. Trial court d. None

x. According to section ______ of CPC, the court after the case has been heard shall pronounce

judgment and on such judgment decree shall follow

a. 31 b. 32 c. 33 d. 34

xi. Section 34 of CPC deals with

a. Interest b. Costs c. special cost d. none

xii. A decree may be executed either by __________

a. Court which passed it or by the court to which sent for execution b. Court which passed

it or by appellate court c. None

xiii. Section ______ to _______of CPC deals with execution of decree

a. 36 to 60 b. 36 to 74 c. 35 to 84

xiv. A judgment debtor can be imprisoned for a term not exceeding

a. Six months b. Nine months c. one year

xv. Appeal is a ______ of the suit.

a. End b. Continuation c. Finality d. None

xvi. An appeal to Supreme Court is dealt by ________

a. Sec 107 b. Sec 106 c. Sec 108 d. Sec 109

xvii. Scope of Review power is _________

a. Vast b. Limited c. Broad d. None

xviii. Power of review is provided in

a. Sec 116 b. Sec 114 c. Sec 115 d. Sec 118

xix. Section ________ of CPC deals with Revision

a. 115 b. 116 c. 117 d. 118

xx. Right of Review is called ________

a. Basic right b. substantive right c. Natural right d. none of these




Subject: Code of Civil Procedure Paper: I


Subjective Part



Part-I (Code of Civil Procedure, 1908)

Q.No.1. What is “ RESJUDICATA”?

Q.No.2. What is “REVIEW” and “REVISIONS” discuss in detail?

Q.No.3. What are “INCIDENTAL PROCEEDINGS”? Explain in detail.

Q.No.4. Discuss “Peuniary Jurisdiction of the Court” in detail?

Q.No.5. Write short notes on the following?

a. Judgment b. Decree c. Order

d. Pleader

Part-II (Limitation Act, 1908)

Q.No.6. What is the effect of acknowledge in writing, on period of limitation?

Q.No.7. Write a note on suits against “Express Trustees” and their representative?






Objective Part




i. Criminal Procedure Code consists of _________ sections

a. 268 b. 565 c. 264

ii. The object of Cr. PC is

a. To facilitates administration of justice b. To facilitate offender c. To

facilitate the prosecution

iii. According CrPc there are _______ of Magistrates working for Criminal matters.

a. Different b. Two c. Three

iv. Section 75, Cr. P. C deals with forms of

a. Summons b. Warrants c. Warrants of arrest

v. Proclamation for persons absconding is made under section __________ Cr. P. C.

a. 87 b. 88 c. 89

vi. Under section 156, Cr. P. C an officer incharge of a police station can investigate any cognizable

offence without order of

a. Assistant superintendent Police b. Inspector General c. Concerned Magistrate

vii. The statement recorded under section 161 can

a. Not be cross examined b. Be cross examined c. None of these

viii. During trial the statement of accused under oath recorded by section

a. 164 b. 340(2) c. 342

ix. Section _______ Cr. P. C empowers court with power of adjournment of proceedings

a. 343 b. 344 c. 345

x. The list of compoundable offences is provided in section ________ Cr. P. C.

a. 345 b. 446 c. 447

xi. If a women sentenced to death is found to be pregnant the High Court shall order the execution of

sentence to the postponed and may if thinks fit commute the sentence to

a. Acquittal b. Release c. Imprisonment for life

xii. ________ is not inherent right

a. Appeal b. Revision c. Acquittal

xiii. Section _________ Cr. P. C empower Provincial Government with power of suspension or

remission of sentence

a. 400 Cr. P. C b. 401 Cr. P. C c. None of above

xiv. No appeal shall lie from any judgment or order of criminal court except as provided by

a. Cr. P. C b. Any other law c. both a & b

xv. Appeal from sentence of High Court shall lie to __________

a. High court b. Supreme court c. both a & b

xvi. There is no appeal in ________

a. Death cases b. sedition cases c. summary trial

xvii. Appeal in case of acquittal can be made under section

a. 407, Cr. P. C b. 417, Cr. P. C c. 427, Cr. P. C

xviii. The power enjoyed by Court in revision is _________ in nature.

a. Obligatory power of the court b. Mandatory power c. Discretionary power

xix. No party has any right to be heard personally or be pleader before any Court when exercising its

power of

a. Appeal b. Revision c. Review

xx. Any public Prosecutor when with the consent of Court withdraw from prosecution of any person in

such condition if charge not framed, the accused will be

a. Discharged b. Convict c. Released on Bail






Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Define the following terms without un-necessary details?

i. Criminal Procedure Code ii. Complaint iii. Inquiry

iv. Investigation v. Station House Officer

Q.No.2. Define warrant and what the circumstances are in which a police officer may arrest

without warrant?

Q.No.3. What preventive measures can be taken by a magistrate, where dispute concerning

immoveable property is likely to cause the breach of peace?

Q.No.4. Discuss the law relating to Revision as explained in Criminal Procedure Code. Write

down point of differences between Appeal and Revision?

Q.No.5. What is charge? What persons may be charged jointly discuss in detail?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Define and elaborate injuries and wounds. How a medical practitioner determine the

age of injuries?

Q.No.7. What is medico legal report? How it is different from postmortem report?






Objective Part




i. Relevant law about refreshing memory is present in Article no _______ of Qanoon-e-Shahadat

order 1984.

a. 155 b. 175 c. 125 d. 105

ii. Relevant law about impeaching credit of witness is present in Article no ________ of Qanoon-e-

Shahadat order 1984

a. 111 b. 121 c. 141 d. 151

iii. Relevant law about member of witness is present in Article no _______ of Qanoon-e-Shahadat

order 1984

a. 7 b. 17 c. 27 d. 37

iv. Relevant law about burden of proof is present in Article no ____ of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984

a. 17 b. 77 c. 107 d. 117

v. Relevant law about burden of proof in civil and criminal litigation is present in Article no ______

of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984

a. 118 b. 128 c. 116 d. 117

vi. Confession has been defined in Article no _______ of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984.

a. 04 b. 02 c. 11

vii. Primary evidence has been defined under Article no ______ of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984

a. 45 b. 73 c. 89 d. 134

viii. Public document has been defined under Article no ________ of Qanon-e-Shahadat order 1984

a. 85 b. 24 c. 70 d. 101

ix. Estople has been discussed under article no ________ of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984

a. 111 b. 127 c. 114 d. 143

x. Burden of proof has been defined under Article ________ of Qanoon-e-Shahadat order 1984

a. 22 b. 117 c. 57 d. 88

xi. All facts including contents of documents can be provided by oral evidence. True / False

xii. Oral evidence should bedirect in all cases. True / False

xiii. Original evidence is not primary evidence. True / False

xiv. Original evidence relates to documents. True / False

xv. Direct evidence can be oral evidence. True / False

xvi. One purpose of hearsay evidence can be to prove of existence of some material object.

True / False

xvii. Admission is a matter of civil court where as confession is a matter of criminal case. True / False

xviii. Documentary evidence is considered as better evidence than oral evidence. True / False

xix. Primary evidence means document itself, which is produced for inspection of court. True / False

xx. Term “evidence” has been derived from French Term. True / False






Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. What is identification parade, discuss the circumstances and manner in which it should

be conducted?

Q.No.2. Write a note on dying declaration and discuss the law as to its admissibility and

evidentiary value in criminal cases?

Q.No.3. Discuss in detail examination in chief, cross-examination and re-examination?

Q.No.4. What is meant by admission, when an admission is allowed to be utilized in favour of

the party making it?

Q.No.5. Who is competent to testify and how many witnesses are required in various legal

proceedings for establishing rights and liabilities?

Part-II

Q.No.6. What are the duties of an advocate under the legal system prevalent in Pakistan?

Q.No.7. What is meant by professional misconduct? How a client can avail any remedy against

his counsel?






Objective Part




i. Legal notice is an integral part of legal proceedings.

a. Yes b. No

ii. Verification is important in plaint

a. Yes b. No

iii. Cause of action is necessary to file a civil suit.

a. Yes b. No

iv. Whether consent decree is necessary to file a civil suit.

a. Yes b. No

v. A minor cannot decree is appealable.

a. Yes b. No

vi. Court can pass preliminary decree in a partition suit.

a. Yes b. No

vii. Limitation for filing revision under Section 115 CPC is thirty days.

a. Yes b. No

viii. Whether pleadings shall contain evidence.

a. Yes b. No

ix. Every legal deed needs on male attesting witnesses.

a. Yes b. No

x. Agreement of sale creates no title in the subject matter.

a. Yes b. No

xi. Signature of party and his pleader are not necessary on pleading.

a. Yes b. No

xii. The arbitration proceedings are governed by Specific Relief Act 1877.

a. Yes b. No

xiii. Plaintiff a name is not necessary to be mentioned in the plaint.

a. Yes b. No

xiv. Party who filed an appeal in appellate court is called plaintiff.

a. Yes b. No

xv. A suit for pre-emption can be filed without making requisite talabs.

a. Yes b. No

xvi. Party to the suit is allowed to give evidence beyond pleadings.

a. Yes b. No

xvii. Void document is enforceable by law.

a. Yes b. No

xviii. Pleading means only plaint.

a. Yes b. No

xix. Can a civil court reject plaint under Order VII Rule 11 CPC.

a. Yes b. No

xx. Facts admitted need not to be proved.

a. Yes b. No






Subjective Part




Part-I

Q.No.1. What is partnership and draft a deed of partnership among partners?

ر رک ںی۔رشاتک داری ایک ےہ؟ رشاتک داری ےک اہم رحت ب

امنیب رشاتک ن

Q.No.2. Differentiate between “sale” and “agreement to sell”, draft a “sale deed” of a residential

house situated in an urban area?

ر رک ںی۔ رہشی راہیشئ اکمم رحتب

ت

اہم ن ان

ر ق ےہ۔ عیب ن

عیب اور اعمدہ ہ عیب ںیم ایک ف

Q.No.3. Draft a deed of “Waqf” for public purpose?

ر رکںی۔ راےئ وعال اانل س رحتب اہم ب

وفق ن

Q.No.4. What is meant by an exchange? Draft an exchange deed of lands?


ابتدہل ن

ت

ابتدہل ےس ایک رم اد ےہ ؟ زنیم یک ن ان

Part-II

Q.No.5. Draft a suit for dissolution of marriage on the basis of Khulla?

ر رک ںی۔رع یض دوع ی خیسنت ع رحتب

ل

خ

ر انبےئ اکن ح ب

Q.No.6. Draft a suit for declaration of right and permanent injunction regarding immovable

property?

اج دیئ اد

ت

ر رک ںی۔دوع ی ارقتس ار قح و مکح ااتمیع دام یع ن ان ریغ وقنمہل رحت ب

Q.No.7. Draft a written statement of a suit for specific performance of an agreement to sell

regarding agricultural land?

ر رک ںی۔ زرایع ارایض اک وج اب دوع ی رحتب

ت

دوع ی لیمکت اعمدہہ صتخم عیب ن ان






Objective Part




i. Object of a procedural provision is to cause delay in legal proceeding

a. True b. False

ii. The different intention is spelt out from the language of a statute means

a. Same Meaning b. Different Meaning

iii. Object of a any statute is to __________ a legal proceedings

a. Facilitate b. Frustrate

iv. Heading of a section of a statute cannot control the meaning of the statute

a. True b. False

v. Preamble is not a good key to the correct understanding of a statute

a. True b. False

vi. Court must not challenge the wisdom of legislative authority while interpreting the statute

a. True b. False

vii. An invalid law which remain unchallenged for many years does not become valid

a. True b. False

viii. Interpretation of statute must be in consonance with the spirit of statute

a. True b. False

ix. A structure which fixed to land is called


x. Repeal by implication is favoured by the courts

a. True b. False

xi. Criminal courts can exercise their inherent power under section

a. 151 CPC b. 561-A CrPC c. a & b d. None of these

xii. When the language of the statute is plain which rule of interpretation is applied

a. Golden Rule b. Literal Rule c. Mischief Rule d. Cause omissus

xiii. All statute are properly referred to as

a. Code b. enactment c. Law d. Legislation

xiv. A validity of an act depends upon

a. Legislative Competency b. Conformity with the constitutional law d. a & b

xv. Function of a court is

a. To make law b. to interpret law

xvi. The doctrine of stare decisis means

a. To consider the decision of superior court b. To annul the decision of superior court

xvii. Court should exercise its inherent power to do justice

a. True b. False

xviii. A law which regulates rights and duties of employer and employees is called


xix. Collection of laws on particular subject referred to


xx. A subsequent change in law having not retrospective effect can affect the previous litigation

a. True b. False






Subjective Part



Part-I

Q.No.1. Explain the effect of customs on interpretation of a statute?

Q.No.2. Discuss the role of beneficial construction in detail?


Q.No.4. Describe the function of proviso as an aid to the interpretation of a statute?

Q.No.5. To what extent precedent can be used as an aid to the interpretation of a statue, explain?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Define the official chief and subordinate with giving relevant section of general clauses

act?


i. Public Nuisance ii. Good Faith iii. Vessel

iv. May & Shall






Objective Part




i. Designs are protected under Trademarks law in Pakistan.

a. Yes b. No

ii. The time period of copy rights protection in Pakistan is

a. 20 years b. 25 years c. both a & b

iii. Pakistan is not member of Berne Convention.

a. Yes b. No

iv. The sign of Pepsi is protected under Trademark laws

a. Yes b. No

v. Boss is Trade name of a furniture company.

a. Yes b. No

vi. The word “Boss” is registered under Design laws in Pakistan.

a. Yes b. No

vii. Samsung mobile is registered under Patent Laws in Pakistan

a. Yes b. No

viii. Pakistan is the member of WTO.

a. Yes b. No

ix. The designs on clothes is registered under Patents and Designs laws in Pakistan.

a. Yes b. No

x. The portrays of Sadqaan are registered under Designs laws.

a. Yes b. No

xi. All the countries of World are members of WTO.

a. Yes b. No

xii. The names of doctor‟s clinics may be registered under Trademarks laws.

a. Yes b. No

xiii. Ahmed Foods is Trade name of Foods items company.

a. Yes b. No

xiv. Motorola is Trade name of Motorola cell phone company.

a. Yes b. No

xv. The name of “Pakistan” may be registered under Patents laws.

a. Yes b. No

xvi. The head office Trademarks registration in Pakistan is situated.

a. Karachi b. Islamabad

xvii. The head of “PIPA” is situated in a

a. Karachi b. Islamabad

xviii. PIPA stands for

a. Pakistan Intellectual Property Authority b. Punjab Intellectual Property Authority

xix. Haier is design name electronic producing company.

a. Yes b. No

xx. China is member of Berne Convention.

a. Yes b. No






Subjective Part


Q.No.2. How can we register Trademark under prevailing Pakistani laws? Discuss procedure

Q.No.3. How WTO (World Trade Organization) is playing an important in Developing

intellectual Property regime?

Q.No.4. Discuss the available remedies against infringement of design?

Q.No.5. How can a person register Copy rights? What are the basic requirements for its

registration? Discuss in detail.

Q.No.6. What do you know about PIPA (Pakistan Intellectual Property Authority) and its

powers in Pakistan?

Q.No.7. What do you know about the concept of Property? Discuss remedies available under

Patent and design laws in Pakistan.






Objective Part




i. Acid rain is caused by

a. Sulpher b. smoke c. carbon dioxide d. none of these

ii. Leather causes

a. Air pollution b. water pollution c. land pollution d. all of these

iii. Land pollution is caused by

a. Waste and sewage in soil b. not properly disposing of plastic bags c. over use

iv. It is major cause of pollution

a. Burning of fuels b. cutting of trees c. garbage d. pesticides

v. Any dues recoverable by the Federal Agency under PEPA 1997 shall be recoverable as

a. Liquidated damages b. compensation c. arrears of land revenue

vi. The most common recycled domestic material are

a. Glass b. plastic c. paper d. all of these

vii. When trees are cut, amount of oxygen

a. Increases b. decreases c. both a & b

viii. Which air pollutant when attaches itself with hemoglobin, reduces its oxygen carrying capacity

a. Carbon dioxide b. sulphur dioxide c. oxides of nitrogen d. carbon monoxide

ix. Indicate an air pollutant among the following

a. Oxygen b. nitrogen c. water d. carbon monoxide

x. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas

a. Methane b. carbon dioxide c. sulpher dioxide d. water

xi. The amount of which greenhouse gas you can reasonably control

a. Oxides of nitrogen b. water vapors c. methane d. carbon dioxide

xii. The phenomenon which does not lead to global warming

a. Greenhouse effect b. ozone depletion c. deforestation d. photosynthesis

xiii. Air pollution is caused by

a. Insecticides b. sewage c. smoke d. loud speakers

xiv. The purpose of recycling is to

a. Conserval raw material b. conserve source c. conserve energy

xv. Any premises in which industrial activity is being undertaken is

a. Factory b. industry c. estate d. none of these

xvi. Skin cancer is due to

a. Ultraviolet radiation b. carbon dioxide c. air pollution d. water pollution

xvii. All living and non-living things surrounding an organism are collectively called its

a. Pollution b. agriculture c. environment d. resources

xviii. Ozone depletion is caused by

a. CFCs b. Carbon dioxide c. Sulpher d. none of these

xix. Ozone layer saves from

a. Ultraviolet radiation b. heat c. air pollution d. none of these

xx. ________ means spilling, leaking and pumping.






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Describe provisions under Constitution of Pakistan, 1973 regarding the environmental

law?

Q.No.2. Write in detail Indus Basin Commission?


i. UNEP ii. SAARC

Q.No.4. Discuss in detail the Islamic perspective on environmental law?

Q.No.5. Write the sources of environmental law?

Q.No.6. What is National Conservation Strategy?

Q.No.7. Write multidisciplinary aspect in connection with human rights?






Objective Part




i. Governor State Bank is eligible for reappointment after expiry of his term

a. True b. False

ii. A Member of Parliament who is also minister may be appointed as Governor State Bank of

Pakistan

a. True b. False

iii. A banking company must be a company limited by guarantee.

a. True b. False

iv. A person is not eligible for being appointed director of State Bank who is

a. Office in any Bank b. Govt. Officer c. Lunatic d. All of these

v. A banking company must be a company registered with Securities and Exchange Commission of

Pakistan

a. True b. False

vi. The State Bank may appoint any person to be a director of a banking company without any

qualification shares in his/her name

a. True b. False

vii. In Modaraba business all partners contribute finance in business

a. True b. False

viii. Rupee coin means ______ which is legal tender in Pakistan

a. One rupee note b. All coins of domination one rupee or less c. one rupee coin

ix. A person who is ordered to pay the amount specified in bill of exchange is called

a. Holder b. Drawer c. Drawee d. payee

x. “Scheduled Bank” means a bank for the time being included in the list of banks maintained under

section ________ of State Bank of Pakistan Act 1956.

a. 35 b. 37 c. 41 d. None of these

xi. A Branch functioning outside Pakistan of banking company incorporated in Pakistan is also called

a. Banking Company b. Not a Banking Company c. Modaraba d. None of these

xii. A banking court while exercising its criminal jurisdiction has same powers as are vested to

_________ under Code of Criminal Procedure 1908.

a. High Court b. Judicial Magistrate First Class c. Court of Section

xiii. The license to operate as banking company in Pakistan to a foreign banking company is issued by

a. President b. Ministry of Finance c. SECP d. State Bank

xiv. The chairman of the board of directors of the State Bank of Pakistan under the State Bank of

Pakistan 1956 is

a. President of Pakistan b. Prime Minister c. Governor State Bank d. None

xv. The ex-officio member (s) of the board of directors of the State Bank includes

a. Governor b. Secretary Finance c. both a & b d. only a

xvi. The office of the state bank of Pakistan are situated in

a. Lahore b. Gujranwala c. Sahiwal d. a & b

xvii. Modaraba is not a legal person

a. True b. False

xviii. The transfer of an internet in specific immovable property for the purpose of security the payment

of the mortgage money or the performance of an obligation which may give rise to a pecuniary

liability is called

a. Pledge b. Bailment c. Mortgage d. None of these

xix. State Bank of Pakistan is a listed company whose shares are traded on the stock exchange

a. True b. False

xx. A negotiable instrument may be made payable to two or more payees jointly.

a. True b. False






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Discuss the functions and responsibilities of board of directors of the State Bank of

Pakistan under the State Bank of Pakistan Act 1956?

Q.No.2. Discuss removal from and vacation of office of the Governor, Deputy Governor,

directors and members as provided under section 15 of the State Bank of Pakistan

1956?

Q.No.3. Write a note on the cancellation of registration of Modaraba Company and appointment

of administrator under the Modaraba Companies and Modaraba (Floatation and

Control) Ordinance 1980?

Q.No.4. Discuss briefly disqualifications of certain persons for employment in the banking

companies under the Banking Companies Ordinance 1962?

Q.No.5. Define „Endorsement‟ and discuss different kinds of endorsement under the Negotiable

Instruments Act 1881?

Q.No.6. Discuss essential requirements of an application for leave to defend as provided in S.

10 of the Financial Institutions (Recovery of Finances) Ordinance 2001?


a. Bank Notes b. Creditor c. Debtor

d. Co-operative Bank






Objective Part




i. Registered trade union means any trade union Registered under

a. Punjab industrial Relation Ordinance 2010 b. Standing Order 1968

c. Registration Act

ii. Strike Means

a. Refusal under a common understanding b. cessation of work by a body of persons

employed c. both

iii. Tribunal means a labour appellate Tribunal constituted under Punjab Industrial relations ordinance

2010 u/s

a. 42 b. 63 c. 51

iv. Every application for registration of trade union shall be made to

a. Governor b. Provincial Government c. Registrar

v. The prescribed period of probationer workman under this ordinance is

a. 3 Months b. 4 Months c. 6 Months

vi. Temporary workman or probationary or badli can be terminated

a. With notice of 2 months b. without notice c. both

vii. Habitual absence of a workman who absence without leave for more than


viii. Under workman compensation act 1923 who can appoint commissioner

a. Governor b. Federal Government c. Provincial Government

ix. The commissioner who is appointed under workman compensation act 1923 shall have all powers

a. Civil Court b. Criminal Court c. Small causes court

x. The commissioner shall follow the procedure for taking evidence under

a. Workman compensation act 1923 b. Civil procedure code c. both

xi. The period of limitation for apple under section 30 of workman compensation act 1923 shall be


xii. Any person aggrieved by order determining a collective bargaining unit passed by a tribunal may

prefer an apple to the

a. High Court b. Civil Court c. District Courts

xiii. The Governor may authorize the registrar to exercise the powers of registration of

a. Welfare Societies b. Industry wise Trade Union c. Pvt. Limited Company

xiv. A steward shall hold office from the date of his selection or nomination for a period of

a. 3 Months b. 6 Months c. 1 year

xv. Inspector means an inspector appointed under

a. Workman compensation Rule 1961 b. workman Compensation Act 1923

c. Punjab Industrial Relations Ordinance 2010

xvi. The employer may in the event of fire stop any section of establishment for any period

a. Without notice b. with notice of 3 days c. with notice 1 day

xvii. A workman shall be entitle to receive the amount standing to his credit in the

a. Benevolent Fund b. Provident Fund c. Group Insurance Fund

xviii. If the employers fails to deposit the amount of the gratuity the dependent of the decreased may

make an application for its

a. Commissioner b. Collector c. Tribunal

xix. A workman found guilty of misconduct shall be liable to

a. Reduction to a lower Post b. Fine c. Both

xx. After the receipt of the registration application registrar shall register the trade union with in







Subjective Part


Q.No.1. Write a detail note on any two of the following:

i. Shift working ii. Arbitration iii. Settlement

iv. Industrial Dispute

Q.No.2. Explain termination of Employment, Charge Sheet, its formation and procedure?

Q.No.3. What is the purpose of Enactment of IRO 2002 and its scope?

Q.No.4. Write note on unfair Labor practice by Employers?

Q.No.5. Rights and Obligations of workers and employers are reciprocal, explain it?

Q.No.6. Define workman and its kinds under the standing orders 1968?

Q.No.7. What is the Mode of Appointment of Labor Court?






Objective Part




i. A deduction as withdrawal from bank exceed ________ thousand rupees is called deduction on

cash withdrawal from U/S 231 A (1)


ii. Deduction of tax on prize bond is __________ of liability is

a. Adjustable against liability b. final discharge

iii. According to section ________ is deduction of tax income from the property

a. 221 b. 155 c. 153

iv. Appeal against the order of the commissioner or any other taxation officer is filed before the _____

a. Civil Judge b. Commissioner appeal c. Judge of High Court

v. Tax U/S 148 shall be collected at the rate of _______ on the import value of raw material imported

by an Industrial undertaking for its own use

a. 1% b. 2% c. 3%

vi. The tax payable by a full time teacher or researcher, employed in non-profit education or research

institution duly recognized by Higher Education Commission etc. shall be reduced by an amount

equal to _________.

a. 25% b. 50% c. 75%

vii. The ________ may select person or class of persons for audit of income tax affairs through

computer ballot which may be random _____________.

a. Commissioner b. FBR c. Regional Commissioner

viii. Circular shall be binding to __________

a. Taxpayer b. income tax authorities c. both

ix. The rate of tax on payment of goods U/S 153 shall be _________.

a. 2.5 % b. 3.0 % c. 3.5 %

x. Name of the forms used for the sales tax registration is __________.


xi. Sales tax return of electric companies is submitted upto ________ days.

a. 15 b. 20 c. 25

xii. The extension date for furnishing of income tax return can be allowed by

a. Member appellate tribunal b. commissioner c. chairman FBR

xiii. Wealth statement is required to be filed under section _______.

a. 114 b. 116 c. 120

xiv. Time period of filling of an appeal before the appellate tribunal from the date of receipt of order is

a. 30 b. 60 c. 90

xv. The commissioner inland Revenue is appointed by

a. Chief Commissioner b. Federal Board of Revenue c. Chairman Appellate Tribunal

xvi. Depreciation means ________ in value of

a. Equity assets b. Decrease in value of assets

xvii. Minimum tax U/S 113 shall be __________.

a. 1% b. 20% c. 3%

xviii. The commissioner has power to amend the assessment order U/S _______

a. 122 b. 177 c. 114

xix. The rate of depreciation on all types of building is ___________.

a. 10% b. 20% c. 15%

xx. Appellate tribunal means the appellate tribunal established under section _________

a. 135 b. 162 c. 130






Subjective Part



Part-I


i. FBR ii. Chief Commissioner Inland Revenue

iii. Association of Persons iv. Tax year

Q.No.2. Explain the following heads of Income

i. Salary ii. Income from Property

iii. Capital Gain iv. Income from other Source


i. Resident & Non-Resident ii. Wealth Statement

iii. Assessment iv. Depreciation


i. Accumulated Profit ii. Approved Employment Pension

iii. Meaning of Assessment iv. Agricultural Income

Q.No.5. Define and Explain “Income from Property” Discuss the deduction in computing

Income under this head?

Part-II

Q.No.6. Write a detailed note on furnishing of Returns under sales tax and kind of Sales Tax

returns.

Q.No.7. Discuss the penalties under Sales Tax Act 1990?






Objective Part




i. Land Revenue Act 1967 came into force on

a. 7 Oct, 1967 b. 7 Nov, 1967 c. 7 Dec, 1967

ii. Total Sections of Land Revenue Act 1967 are

a. 164 b. 174 c. 184

iii. Which property cannot be partitioned

a. Residential b. Agricultural c. Grazing ground

iv. Appeal may be preferred against the order of partition within


v. Appeal can be filed before commissioner within


vi. Record of rights shall include

a. Rate b. Cases c. Both

vii. Periodical Record is prepared by

a. Collector b. Commission c. Patwari

viii. Sale of holding of defaulter for recovery of arrear is laid down under Section

a. 80 b. 88 c. 86

ix. Who may transfer holding of defaulter for recovery of arrears

a. Patwari b. Collector c. Board of Revenue

x. The Punjab Pre-Emption Act 1991 came into force on

a. 6 Feb, 1991 b. 6 Mar, 1991 c. 6 Apr, 1991

xi. Total Sections of the Punjab Pre-Emption Act 1991 are

a. 37 b. 47 c. 57

xii. “Rate and Cases” are primarily payable by

a. Land owner b. Owner of land c. Tenant

xiii. Jamabandi revised after how many years

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6

xiv. Limitation Period for Talb-i-Khusumat is

a. 1 Month b. 3 Months c. 4 Months

xv. Market price of pre-empted property may be determined by

a. Revenue Court b. Civil court c. District Court

xvi. If pre-emptor dies before making any of the demands, his right of preemption shall transferred to

his

a. Legal Heirs b. Legal representative c. None

xvii. Right of pre-emption shall arise in case of

a. Sale b. Exchange c. both

xviii. Village officer means

a. Patwari b. Collector c. Commissioner

xix. An ejectment Notice shall not be served to Tenant after

a. 1st July b. 15

th November c. 1

st June

xx. Which provision deals with ejectment of tenant from year to year

a. 31 b. 41 c. 44






Subjective Part

Note: Attempt Four Question in all in English selecting Two for Part-I, One question each


Part-I

Q.No.1. Explain the procedure of attestation of Mutation by Revenue Officer?

Q.No.2. What is Record of Rights? Discuss the documents which are included in it?

Q.No.3. Define the various processes of recovery of arrears of land revenue?

Part-II

Q.No.4. Define Tenant. On what grounds tenant can be ejected?

Q.No.5. Discuss the rights and duties of tenant and landlord towards produce of land?

Part-III

Q.No.6. What does the pre-emption means? Discuss the procedure to exercise the right of pre-

emption?

Q.No.7. What kinds of property are exempted from the right of pre-emption?






Objective Part




i. Arbitrator shall be appointed under the arbitration Act 1940 in such manner as may be agreed upon

a. By the court b. by provincial govt. c. by the parties

ii. Provisions of Arbitration Act are binding upon

a. Foreign Govt. b. Pakistan Govt. c. both of all

iii. Following is the power of a Court regarding an award

a. To modify b. To remit c. both of these

iv. Suit Valuation is necessary for the purpose of

a. Collecting Court fee b. Jurisdiction c. both of these

v. An Arbitrator can be removed due to following reason

a. He mis conducted himself b. he mis conducted the proceedings c. both a & b

vi. In which of following case court fee is not to be paid

a. In criminal case b. in civil cases of the value not evceeding Rs. 25000/- c. a & b

vii. What procedure shall be adopted when a party fail to pay court fee

a. Court may give he in concession b. Court fee shall be recovered as arrears of land

revenue c. both a & b

viii. In any of following case court fee shall be refunded

a. Withdrawal of appeal after its admission b. withdrawal of appeal its compromise

ix. Which suit is not treated as multifarious suit

a. When different relief dained on same cases of action b. when alternative relief dained on

same cause of action c. both a & b

x. Tenant shall pay the rent to the landlord according his

a. Own suitability b. for which it is let out c. prevailing

xi. If a landlord fails to fulfill an obligations the tenant may file application in

a. Rent registrar b. rent tribunal c. rent controller

xii. Pecuniary jurisdiction of court is determine under

a. The court fee act b. the suit valuation act c. arbitration act

xiii. Premises means

a. Rented land b. hotel c. agricultural land

xiv. Limitation act 1908 is on arbitration act 1940

a. Applicable b. not applicable c. both a & b

xv. Legal proceedings when there is an arbitration agreement

a. Can be staged b cannot be staged c. none a & b

xvi. Who may remove arbitrator or umpire

a. Court b. parties to proceedings c. none of these

xvii. Arbitration act 1940 extends to

a. The Punjab only b. the whole Pakistan c. FATA

xviii. Court can set aside an ward made under arbitration act 1940 by

a. Suo Motu b. on the application of either party c. both a & b

xix. An application for alteration of award can be filed within


xx. When an arbitrator is removed by court then remedy against such order is

a. Revision b. appeal c. both a & b






Subjective Part

Note: Attempt any FOUR questions in English from all one question to be attempted from

each part. All question carry equal marks. Bare acts in English are allowed to be used in

answering the question. Mere reproduction of various provisions is not an adequate

answer.

Part-I

Q.No.1. Is the court has power to enlarge the time after the award is made? What is the

condition in such cases?

Q.No.2. Discuss the circumstances under which an application can be removed for stay of

proceedings?

Part-II

Q.No.3. What are the ingredients of supplemental provisions of the suit valuation Act?

Q.No.4. What does it mean Court-Fee value and jurisdiction value to be the same in certain

suits? Explain in your words.

Part-III

Q.No.5. Discuss the object and scope of the Court Fee Act 1870?

Q.No.6. Write down a detail note on the levy of court fee in High court on their original

Jurisdiction?

Part-IV

Q.No.7. Default in payment of rent can be ignored? If it is so under what circumstances discuss

in detail






Objective Part




i. Civil and Political rights are considered as ____________ generation Rights.

a. First b. Second c. Third

ii. What is CRC?

a. Committee on the Rights of the Child b. Convention on the Rights of the Children

c. Convenant on Rights of the Children d. Child Recreation Center

iii. Who created the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)

a. Christopher Columbus b. Barack Obama c. Eleanor Roosevelt

iv. The ICC is an office of the United Nations

a. Yes b. No

v. The first International Conference Human Rights was held in 1968 in

a. New York b. Egypt c. Teheran

vi. The League of Arab States was founded in terms of the Pact of the League of Arab State of 1945

a. Messaging Veto b. Pocket Veto

vii. Commission on Human Rights established in

a. 1918 b. 1645 c. 1979

viii. UDHR is comprised of

a. 20 Articles b. 30 Articles c. 50 Articles

ix. When is Human Rights Day observed each year

a. 10 June b. 10 Step c. 10 Dec

x. Medina Pact was adopted by Holy Prophet (PBUH)

a. Before Islam b. After Islam

xi. What is the term of the High commissioner of Human Rights?

a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 yars

xii. When was the Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted

a. 10 Dec 1948 b. 12 Dec 1948 c. 22 Dec 1948

xiii. When International Criminal Court was established

a. 1949 b. 1957 c. 1998

xiv. The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) was adopted in

a. 1945 b. 1966 c. 1986

xv. The European Convention of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms is the treaty of

a. European Union b. Council of European

xvi. The United Nation is

a. A Supra-State Organization b. A creation of Member States

c. Has not link with states after its establishment d. None of these

xvii. The convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women was adopted by

a. General Assembly b. Security Council c. Commission of women rights

xviii. Are Human Rights Universal?

a. Yes b. No

xix. The UN Charter, commonly referred to as the international magna Carta

a. Yes b. No

xx. The African Charter on Human and Peoples Rights was adopted in

a. 1979 b. 1980 c. 1981






Subjective Part


Q.No.1. What are Human Rights? The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) is a

milestone document in the history of human rights? Comments of the statement.

Q.No.2. Explain the role of CEDAW to eliminate all forms of Discriminations against women?

Q.No.3. Pen down a comprehensive note upon the UN Convention on the Right of Child?

Q.No.4. Why do some groups require special human rights? Does his mean that they have more

rights than others?

Q.No.5. What is the legal status of death penalty under international human rights law?

Q.No.6. Elaborate the historical development in evolution of international human rights law?

Q.No.7. Define Terrorism and explain its causes and reasons?