quiz compilations -jan

QUIZ COMPILATIONS -JAN PART 2

goaltide ias academy 1/1/21 www.goaltideias.com

GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 1


Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Commission.

1. It is an intergovernmental organization led by UN in the Indian Ocean to promote

trade, co-operation and culture among members. 2. India is a founding member of the Commission.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Expalantion:

Members:

The Indian Ocean Commission is an intergovernmental organization made up of five

member states. Madagascar, Mauritius and Seychelles signed the Victoria Agreement in

1984, institutionalizing the IOC. France, in respect of Reunion, and the Comoros joined the

IOC in 1986.



So, India has any business here:

India has been approved as an observer of this commission.

Till now, IOC had four observers – China, Malta, European Union and International

Organisation of La Francophonie (OIF). Now India also.

Ok, two days before we have done quiz on Indian Ocean Rim Association, this is

different for Indian Ocean Commission. Don’t get confuse.

Q2. ‘Gucchi Mushrooms’ recently sought for GI tag. It is considered as world's most expensive mushrooms growing in which part of India?

a. Western Ghats



b. Arunachal Pradesh

c. Coral regions of Lakshadweep d. Himalayas.

Solution: d

Explanation:

For one of the world's most expensive mushrooms growing in Jammu and Kashmir's Doda

district, a Geographical Indication (GI) tag has been sought. The mushroom, locally known

as Gucchi, or Morel, valued at over rupees 20,000 for every kilo, is a forest commodity

gathered by provincial farmers and tribals living in the region. Last June, the state saffron

was given a GI tag.

Gucchi mushroom is a species of fungus belonging to the family Morchellaceae. They are

pale yellow in colour with large ridges and pits on their cap

In the temperate forests of the Doda district, a spongy, edible fungus is found which

is said to have medicinal and anti-inflammatory properties. The applicants hope that

for this unique heirloom crop, a GI tag will generate branding and commercial

attention, thereby assisting the tribal population dependent on it for their

livelihoods.

Link: https://krishijagran.com/agriculture-world/geographical-indication-gi-tag-sought-for-jk-s-costliest-mushrooms-know-all-details/

Q3. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. G-20 was formed earlier than G-7.

2. SAARC was formed before BIMSTEC.

3. BRICS was formed earlier than SAARC.

Select the correct code.

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

First statement is incorrect.

The members of the G7 are Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States. The group started out as the G6 at the first summit in (France) in

1975, before becoming the G7 when Canada joined the following year.

https://krishijagran.com/agriculture-world/geographical-indication-gi-tag-sought-for-jk-s-costliest-mushrooms-know-all-details/

https://krishijagran.com/agriculture-world/geographical-indication-gi-tag-sought-for-jk-s-costliest-mushrooms-know-all-details/



The European Union was gradually involved in the G7 starting from 1977. It now takes part in all discussions and is represented jointly by the President of the European Council and the President of the European Commission.

Third statement is incorrect.

The South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was created in 1985 as an expression of the region's collective decision to evolve a regional cooperative framework. Presently, there are eight member countries in SAARC namely Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. It also has nine Observers, namely China, EU, Iran, Republic of Korea, Australia, Japan, Mauritius, Myanmar and USA.

The BRIC [Brazil, Russia, India and China] idea was first conceived in 2001 by Goldman Sachs as part of an economic modeling exercise to forecast global economic trends over the next half century. As a formal grouping, acknowledging the leadership role played by each of the BRIC countries and their growing contribution to the global economy, the 1st meeting of BRIC Foreign Ministers was held on the margins of United Nations General Assembly in New York in 2006. The 1st BRIC Summit was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia, in 2009.

Second statement is correct.

The South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was created in 1985 as an expression of the region's collective decision to evolve a regional cooperative framework. Presently, there are eight member countries in SAARC namely Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. It also has nine



Observers, namely China, EU, Iran, Republic of Korea, Australia, Japan, Mauritius, Myanmar and USA. The BIMSTEC region brings together 1.67 billion people and a combined GDP of around US $ 2.88 trillion. The organisation came into being on 6 June 1997 through the 'Bangkok Declaration'.

Q4. Which of the following states/UTs share maximum International boundaries?

a. Jammu and Kashmir

b. Mizoram

c. Ladakh

d. Assam

Solution: c

Explanation:

Jammu and Kashmir shares boundary only with Pakistan.

Mizoram shares boundary with Bangladesh and Myanmar.

Assam shares boundary with Bangladesh and Bhutan.

Ladakh shares boundary with Pakistan, China and Afghanistan.



Q5. In the context of Indian banks, consider the following statements regarding Provisioning Coverage Ratio (PCR).

1. As the asset quality of banks deteriorates, The PCR increases.

2. Increase in PCR reduces the banks’ ability to provide loans.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

Read this all. Beautifully explained.



Q6. The Income Tax was introduced on 24th July 1860, for the first time in India by whom

among the following to compensate for the losses incurred by the British regime during the

first war of independence against British Rule?

a. Lord Auckland

b. Lord Dalhousie

c. Sir James Wilson

d. Lord Amherst

Solution: c

Explanation:

The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is celebrating the 159th Income Tax Day on July

24, 2019.

It was on 24th July 1860 that Income Tax was introduced for the first time in India by

Sir James Wilson to compensate for the losses incurred by the British regime during

the first war of independence against British Rule.

This is why 24th July is observed as the Income Tax Day.



Q7. Consider the following Pairs.

Sculptures Location

1. Ravana shaking mount Kailash Elephanta

2. Trimurti, also known as Maheshmurti, three heads emanating from one and the same body represent three different aspects of Lord Shiva.

Ellora

3. carving of Siva as Gajsurasamaharamurti, engaged in a vigorous dance of fierce ecstasy after having killed the elephant-demon, who has given so much trouble to the rishis and his devotees

Tamil Nadu

Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 3 only

Solution: d

Explanations:

One magnificent sculpture at Ellora is a panel depicting Ravana shaking mount Kailash.

In this remarkable scene the quivering of the mountain can be felt, and Parvati is shown

greatly agitated, turning to Siva, grasping his hand in fear but the Great God is unmoved

and holds on fast, pressing down the mountain with his foot.

The cave-shrine at Elephanta is great monument of the Rashtrakutas, which contains the

famous Mahishamurti. The three heads emanating from one and the same body represent

three different aspects of Lord Shiva.

A good example of Chola craftsmanship in the 11th century is the relief carving of Siva as

Gajsura samaharamurti. The irate god is engaged in a vigorous dance of fierce ecstasy

after having killed the elephant-demon, who has given so much trouble to the rishis and his

devotees. It is in Valuvur, Tamil Nadu.

Link: http://ccrtindia.gov.in/mediievalschoolofsculp.php

http://ccrtindia.gov.in/mediievalschoolofsculp.php



Q8. Which of the following statement is/are correct about Earth’s Internal structure?

1. The crust accounts for largest volume of Earth’s surface.

2. Earth’s Lithosphere includes crust and upper liquid part of mantle.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanations:

Crust accounts for only 1.14% of earth’s volume. Mantle occupies 82.54% of earth’s

volume. Core accounts for 16.32% of earth’s volume.

So correct order is: Mantle> Core> Crust

Earth’s Lithosphere includes crust and upper solid(rigid) part of mantle.

Q9. Consider the following statements:



1. The Chief Election Commission has been given power by Constitution to fix the

composition of Election Commission.

2. President publishes the notification for the general election to the House of People.

3. Election Commission is empowered to allot symbols to Political Parties under RPA

Act, 1951.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 3 only

Solution: a

Explanation:

First Statement is wrong. President has been given power for that.

Second Statement is correct.

Third statement is wrong. Not RPA Act, 1951.

Q10. Consider the following statements:



1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a

bill in the Lok Sabha only.

2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the

Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of one-

third of the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:

An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by introduction of a bill in either

house of the Parliament.

If the bill seeks to amends the Federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified

by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority.

Q11. Why Compressed Biogas (CBG) has an edge over CNG?

1. CBG doesn’t involve compressing of methane while CNG is a compressed methane.

2. The solid by-products of CBG can be used as bio-manure which has a high-water

retention capacity that helps reduce irrigation requirement.



3. The calorific value of CNG is double than of CBG.

Select The correct code.

a. 1 and 2 only’

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

This question is taken from an article from Down To Earth magazine.

Thus chemically, CBG is the same as CNG — both are compressed methane — and has the same calorific value.

The difference is that while CNG is a by-product of petroleum, CBG can be produced from

any biomass, be it crop residue, cattle dung, sugarcane press mud, municipal wet waste or effluents from a sewage treatment plant.

Irrespective of technology, producing CBG from biomass involves a two-pronged

approach. First, biogas is produced through anaerobic decomposition of biomass. Since

biogas contains 55 to 60 per cent methane, 40 to 45 per cent carbon dioxide (CO2) and

trace amounts of hydrogen sulphides, the second process involves purifying the gas to

remove carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulphides gases to prepare CBG.

This makes CBG a commercially viable option as it can be directly used to replace CNG in

transportation fuel. Just like CNG, CBG too can be transported through cylinders or

pipelines to retail outlets.

Other advantages.

The advantages of CBG do not end here. Its solid by-products can be used as bio-

manure. Estimates under SATAT show the 5,000 planned CBG plants will generate 50 million tonnes of bio-manure a year.

It is a rich source of silica that not only aids in the growth and yield of crops but also

bestows immunity against many diseases and prevents toxic material uptake by

plants such as arsenic, cadmium, lead and other heavy metals. It can thus help reduce the

requirement of chemical fertilisers.

Bio-manure produced from paddy straw also has a high-water retention capacity that helps

reduce irrigation requirement. The other by-product is CO2. It can be tapped while

purifying the biogas and used to produce liquid or solid CO2, which have high demand for

food preservation or to be used in fire extinguishers.



CBG and its by-products hold the chance for a circular economic growth. Let’s make it work

this time.

Link: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/energy/clean-push-why-compressed-biogas-has-an-edge-over-cng-74874

Q12. Consider the following statements.

1. In India, among all edible oils, palm oil consumption is highest.

2. 90 percent of Palm oil is produced in India, rest 10 percent are imported from other

countries.

3. China is the largest producer of Palm oil in world.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only d. 1 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

First statement is correct.

Palm oil forms a major share of the edible oil consumed by Indians, with second most

consumed oil being Soyabean Oil. Together both sum up to ~65 % to 75 % of our

consumption.

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/energy/clean-push-why-compressed-biogas-has-an-edge-over-cng-74874

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/energy/clean-push-why-compressed-biogas-has-an-edge-over-cng-74874



Second statement is incorrect:

Imports contribute to 90 percent of India’s consumption of palm oil used in cooking

oils. Indonesia contributes 65 percent and Malaysia 27 percent to the world’s biggest palm

oil market. Domestic production is less than 10 percent in India.


It Indonesia, followed by Malaysia. NOT CHINA.

Q13. India Innovation Index released recently in India by:



a. Ministry of Urban Affairs

b. Ministry of Commerce

c. NITI Aayog

d. Reserve Bank of India

Solution: c

Explanation:

Read the introduction. It will help you in Mains also.

NITI Aayog today released the second edition of the India Innovation Index-2020.

The index demonstrates the government's continued commitment towards transforming the country into an innovation-driven economy.

In the India Innovation Index-2020, the States and Union Territories have been

divided into 17 Major States, 10 North-East and Hill States and nine Union Territories and Small States for effectively comparing their performance.

In the 2020 ranking, Karnataka retained its first position in the Major States category.

Maharashtra moved one position higher and stood at 2nd spot while Tamil Nadu slid to 3rd position.

In the North East and Hill States category, Himachal Pradesh stands at first position

followed by Uttarakhand and Manipur. Delhi stands at the first position while Chandigarh

retained its second spot in the Union Territories and small States category.

Q14. Consider the following capitals of ASEAN

1. Bangkok (Thailand)

2. Vientiane (Laos)

3. Bandar Seri Begawan (Brunei)



4. Kuala Lumpur (Malaysia)

Arrange them above South to North.

a. 4-3-2-1

b. 3-4-1-2

c. 3-4-2-1

d. 4-3-1-2

Solution: d

ASEAN and RCEP are very important for exam for 2020 Prelims Exam. We have covered

ASEAN map in previous quizzes also. Draw a map in the mind of ASEAN nations. If you

won’t draw, we will draw for you, but then practice regularly.

The correct sequence is:

Kuala Lumpur- Bandar Seri Begawan- Bangkok- Vientiane


1. A person elected to fill the vacancy occurred due to death of President is entitled to

hold office for full term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his

office.

2. The proposal to impeach the President shall be preferred in House only after it is

signed by not less than one-fourth of total member of the House.




a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

We will refer here article number 61 and 62. Read the articles below before proceeding to

next question. Both the statements are correct.



Q16. Consider the following statements regarding Preamble of India.

1. In the Berubari Union case (1960), it was decided that Preamble is a part of the

Constitution.

2. The Preamble of India reveals the date of adoption of the Constitution.

3. So far, it has been amended once by 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only



c. 2 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the

general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution and is thus a key to the

minds of the makers of the Constitution.


Further, where the terms used in any article are ambiguous or capable of more than one

meaning, some assistance at interpretation may be taken from the objectives enshrined in

the Preamble. Despite this recognition of the significance of the Preamble, the Supreme

Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. Supreme

Court held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. But, In the Kesavananda

Bharati case (1973), the Supreme court rejected the earlier opinion and held that

Preamble is a part of the Constitution.


So, when Supreme court of India held that preamble is an integral part of the Constitution

of India it automatically classified as amendable. It has been amended only once so far, in

1976, by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words-

Socialist, Secular and Integrity to the preamble.


It stipulates 26th November 1949, as the date for the adoption of the Constitution. See

below.




1. The Supreme Court should mandatorily report to President if President has asked

for an opinion related to public importance.

2. The Constitution has given power to Parliament to increase the number of judges of

High Court.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:

It is not mandatory for Supreme Court to respond for such opinion. See article 143

below. The Constitution has given power to President to increase the number of judges of

High Court. Refer article 216 below.




1. International Criminal Court is an agency of United Nations established to

investigate individuals accused of crimes of genocide, war crimes, etc.

2. India has neither signed nor ratified the Rome Statute of the International Criminal

Court (ICC).


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanations:

THE FIRST STATEMENT WILL CREATE PROBLEM ONLY IF YOU DON’T KNOW IT IS UN

AGENCY OR NOT.

The International Criminal Court (ICC) investigates and, where warranted, tries

individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community:

genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity and the crime of aggression.



India has neither signed nor ratified the Rome Statute on the International Criminal

Court (ICC). Why India has not signed?? Read below don’t think now.

India considers the inherent jurisdiction of the ICC as a violation of a nation’s

sovereignty. Therefore, India has insisted on having an ‘opt-in’ provision whereby a

country could accept the jurisdiction of the ICC by declaration, specified to an issue and

time period. India is resistant to accepting the inherent jurisdiction of the ICC as it would be

seen as being superior to Indian judicial system.

India remains hesitant towards the ICC as it can be used with political motives against India

with regard to Kashmir and in other matters of India’s internal affairs.

Q19. In context of Indian National Movement, Consider the following pairs.

Personality Leading Salt Satyagraha in

1. C. Rajagopalachari Tamil Nadu

2. Gopabandhu Choudhury Odisha

3. Ambika Kant Sinha West Bengal

Which of the above options is/are correct?

a. 1 only



b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Person Leading Salt Satyagraha in

C. Rajagopalachari Tamil Nadu

Gopabandhu

Choudhury

Odisha

Ambika Kant Sinha Bihar

Q20. Which of the following is the fastest way to decrease money supply in economy?

a. Increase in SLR

b. Increase in CRR

c. Increase in MSF

d. None of these

Solution: b

Explanations:



You have already studied these terms several times. Just try to recall the definitions and

current value of SLR, CRR and MSF.

Coming back to questions.

MSF (Marginal Standing Facility) is a demand driven tool.

Suppose there is mismatch between asset and liability of bank. Then bank can borrow

money from RBI for overnight (MSF). So, it is a tool to help banks to balance their asset and

liability not to decrease money supply in economy.

SLR (Statutory Liquid Ratio): It means that banks have to maintain certain percentage of

deposits with themselves in form of cash, government securities, gold, excess reserves, etc.

So here RBI cannot dictate the banks in which form (cash, gold, Securities) you can

maintain SLR. Therefore, this is not the fastest way to decrease money supply (as banks can

maintain SLR in form of gold or Securities).

CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio): Under CRR a certain percentage of the total bank deposits has

to be kept in the current account with RBI which means banks do not have access to that

much amount for any economic activity or commercial activity. Here cash is deposited with

RBI. So, if RBI increases the CRR, it means more amount of money to be deposited with RBI

and thus can be used as a fastest means to decrease money supply in economy.

Q21. Consider the following statements regarding Vertical Farming.

1. 90% less or no soil is needed in vertical farming and thereby no pest and disease

2. This farming is mainly practiced in mountain regions and high elevated slopes.

3. Major advantage of vertical farming is producing extremely high yields per available

land or area.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

In 1915, Gilbert Ellis Bailey coined the term “vertical farming” and wrote a book titled

“Vertical Farming”. His concept was to grow the food in urban areas itself utilizing less

distance and saving the time in bringing the food produced in rural areas to the cities. He

intended in growing food within urban environments and thus have fresher foods available faster and at lower costs.



Today, the context of vertical farming has completely changed and is confined to the aim of

utilizing each and every inch of land and space, no matter whether it is urban or rural for

growing maximum possible food for the hungry population. It has now emerged as a new

farming technology all over the world.

Vertical farming can be implemented in buildings, warehouses, rooftops and balconies.

Vertical farming is cultivating and producing crops/ plants in vertically stacked

layers and vertically inclined surfaces



From all above given explanation, it is clarified now that it is not meant for

mountains, higher elevated slopes.

Q22. In context of economics, K-shaped recovery refers to:

a. Recovery after long prolonged slowdown

b. Recovery after economic depression and then again fall back due to various

obstacles

c. When recovery of economic looks very difficult.

d. different sections of an economy recover at different rates.

Solution: d

Explanation:

A K-shaped recovery happens when different sections of an economy recover at starkly different rates.

Others:




1. Forest Rights Act, 2006 defines the procedure by which a state government can

declare an area a Reserved Forest.

2. The total forest cover in India is less than 30 percent of the total geographical area.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

First statement is incorrect:

Under Indian Forest Act, 1927, State Government is empowered to declare forests.

Indian Forest Act, 1927 defines the procedure by which a state government can

declare an area a Reserved Forest, a Protected Forest or a Village Forest. It also defines

what is a forest offence, what are the acts prohibited inside a Reserved Forest, and what penalties occur on violation of the provisions of the Act.



See below procedure: Just have basic reading.




As of 2019, the total forest cover in India is 712,249 Sq km (71.22 million hectares),

which is 21.67 percent of the total geographical area. Whereas, the total forest and tree

cover in India is 807,276 Sq km (80.73 million hectors), which is 24.56 percent of the total geographical area of the country.

Q24. Consider the following regarding Special Drawing Right (SDR).

1. The value of the SDR is directly determined by supply and demand in the market. 2. The weightage of currencies in SDR is same for every country.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:



The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an interest-bearing international reserve asset created

by the IMF in 1969 to supplement other reserve assets of member countries.

The value of the SDR is not directly determined by supply and demand in the market,

but is set daily by the IMF on the basis of market exchange rates between the

currencies included in the SDR basket.

It can be held and used by member countries, the IMF, and certain designated official

entities called “prescribed holders”—but it cannot be held, for example, by private

entities or individuals. Its status as a reserve asset derives from the commitments of

members to hold, accept, and honor obligations denominated in SDR. The SDR also serves

as the unit of account of the IMF and some other international organizations.

Q25. Which of the places given below is closest to Sri Lanka?

a. Puducherry

b. Chennai

c. Vishakhapatnam

d. Bangalore

Solution: a

Explanation:

Vishakhapatnam is in Andhra Pradesh.



Among Puducherry and Chennai, Puducherry is near to Sri Lanka. Bangalore is between

Puducherry and Chennai.

Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India:

1. He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the High Court as well as

the Supreme Court.

2. In the performance of his duties, he has the right of audience take part and right to

vote in all Courts.

3. He receives salary as provided in second schedule of Indian Constitution. Which of the Statements given above is/are incorrect?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

First Statement is incorrect.



Second statement is incorrect. They are not entitled to vote.

Third statement is incorrect:

First of all, he doesn’t receive salary, he receives remuneration. Second is, no

mention of Attorney General in Second Schedule.

Q27. Consider the following statements regarding Comptroller and Auditor-General of

India.

1. CAG shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a

Judge of the Supreme Court.

2. The duties and Powers are CAG are mentioned in the Constitution.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a



Explanation:

Article 148 states there shall be a Comptroller and Auditor-General of India who shall

be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and shall only be

removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme

Court.

The Constitution has given authority to Parliament to frame power and duties of CAG.

So, Parliament enacted the comptroller and auditor general's (Duties, Powers and

Conditions of Service) Amendment ACT, 1971.

Q28. Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Development Goals.

1. They were adopted at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development

in Rio de Janeiro in 2012 (Rio+20).

2. The SDG Goals are universal and apply to all countries, whereas the Millennium

Development Goals (MDGs) were intended for action in developing countries only.

3. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are not legally binding. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B



Explanation:

The Invest India and the United Nations Development Programme has recently

launched the sustainable development goal investor map for India.


The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were born at the United Nations

Conference on Sustainable Development in Rio de Janeiro in 2012. The objective was to

produce a set of universal goals that meet the urgent environmental, political and economic

challenges facing our world. BUT NOT ADOPTED.

So, when adopted?

In January 2015, the General Assembly began the negotiation process on the post-2015

development agenda. The process culminated in the subsequent adoption of the 2030

Agenda for Sustainable Development, with 17 SDGs at its core, at the UN Sustainable

Development Summit in September 2015.

The SDGs coincided with another historic agreement reached in 2015 at the COP21 Paris

Climate Conference. Together with the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction,

signed in Japan in March 2015, these agreements provide a set of common standards and

achievable targets to reduce carbon emissions, manage the risks of climate change and

natural disasters, and to build back better after a crisis.




Third statement is correct,



Q29. Which among the following are the outcomes of Earth Summit, 1992 (The United

Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED)?

1. REDD+

2. CBD

3. UNFCCC

4. Green Climate Fund

Choose the correct answer using codes given below.

a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1 and 4 only

Solution: c

Explanation:



Green Climate Fund was set up in 2010.

Q30. The Orang National Park is in:

a. West Bengal

b. Assam

c. Odisha

d. Manipur

Solution: b



Explanation:

The Orang National Park is in Assam.

Q31. Consider the following Pairs.

Tribes in news Belongs to 1. Malayali Tribes Tamil Nadu 2. Changpas Western ghats 3. Patelia tribe North East India

Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only d. 1 only

Solution: D

Explanation:

Malayali is a tribal group from the Eastern Ghats in North Tamil Nadu. With a

population of around 3,58,000 people, they are the largest Scheduled tribes in that region.

The tribals are usually hill farmers and they cultivate different types of millet.

The Patelia is a scheduled tribe. They are found in the Indian states of Gujarat,

Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and some parts of Maharashtra and Karnataka.

The Changpas reside on this high-altitude plateau that sprawls in the western and

northern parts of Tibet, and further extends to Ladakh in India. Most of the regions

that the Changpas reside in is quite inhospitable and unsuitable for farming. Thus, the primary occupation for the tribe is rearing of yaks, horses and sheep.

Link: http://www.businessworld.in/article/Giant-Rock-Bee-Honey-added-to-Tribes-India-

Collection/28-12-2020-358982/


1. Protein folding is a process, if it takes place, it disrupts the function of protein and it

won’t be able to perform its job inside the body.

2. Recently, Artificial Intelligence Programme, supported by Google makes huge

progress predicting how proteins fold – one of biology’s greatest challenges.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

http://www.businessworld.in/article/Giant-Rock-Bee-Honey-added-to-Tribes-India-Collection/28-12-2020-358982/

http://www.businessworld.in/article/Giant-Rock-Bee-Honey-added-to-Tribes-India-Collection/28-12-2020-358982/



c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

News is of December, but the term “Protein Folding” is important. So, we took this

question from last month’s CA. It doesn’t matter for us. We will ask any question from anywhere. Our purpose is to give you all important questions relevant for exams.

After this daily Quiz, you must attempt paper of our Test Series, you will become very

Strong (mentally). Questions are not very difficult in exam, just you need to be perfect in approach. We are trying our best!!! Enough now. Back to explanations.

Proteins are the workhorses of cells and are present in all living organisms. They are

made up of long chains of amino acids and are vital for the structure of cells and

communication between them as well as regulating all of the chemistry in the body.

The Google-owned artificial intelligence company DeepMind demonstrated a deep-

learning programme which experts are calling a breakthrough toward solving the grand

challenge of protein folding.

Proteins are long chains of amino acids linked together like beads on a string. But for a

protein to do its job in the cell, it must “fold” — a process of twisting and bending that

transforms the molecule into a complex three-dimensional structure that can interact with

its target in the cell.

If the folding is disrupted, then the protein won’t form the correct shape — and it

won’t be able to perform its job inside the body. This can lead to disease — as is the case in

a common disease like Alzheimer’s and rare ones like cystic fibrosis.



Link: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/health/ai-makes-huge-progress-predicting-

how-proteins-fold-one-of-biology-s-greatest-challenges-promising-rapid-drug-development-74509


1. When a urea molecule hydrolyses in soil, it releases a gas into the stratosphere called

nitrous oxide (N2O).

2. The pricing and distribution being controlled statutorily by the Government, no one can sell urea above the MRP declared by the Govt.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/health/ai-makes-huge-progress-predicting-how-proteins-fold-one-of-biology-s-greatest-challenges-promising-rapid-drug-development-74509





Explanation:

When a urea molecule hydrolyses in soil, it releases a gas into the stratosphere

called nitrous oxide (N2O). It lingers in the atmosphere for as long as 350 years and contributes approximately 35 per cent to global warming.

Urea is the only fertilizer at present with pricing and distribution being controlled

statutorily by the Government. Thus, no one can sell urea above the MRP declared by the Govt. This information is taken from Ministry of Fertilizer website. Click here to see.

Q34. Global Risk Report 20201, is a publication of:

a. World Economic Forum

b. UNCTAD

c. World Trade Organization

d. World BANK

Solution: a

Explanation:

https://fert.nic.in/faq



Q35. In the context of Medieval History, the term ziyarat refers to:

a. a form of pilgrimage associate with Sufi saints

b. land tax associated to non-Muslims

c. purdah system adopted during Aurangzeb and other Mughal rulers

d. tax associated to non-Muslims to visit mosques

Solution: a

Explanation:

Now I will get calls, sir where to study such questions. Dear Sir/Ma’am, its NCERT.


1. The Karkota period of Kashmir is the most significant in terms of architecture.



2. One of the most important temples during this period is Pandrethan, which was a

Hindu Temple, dedicated to Shiva.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

Q37. Consider the following.

1. North Sea

2. Baltic Sea

3. Atlantic Ocean

4. Black Sea

Arrange the above seas from West to East.

a. 3-2-1-4

b. 3-1-2-4

c. 3-1-4-2

d. 1-3-2-4

Solution: b

Explanation:



Q38. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle

underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

a. An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose

responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.

b. A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose

responsibilities are increasing day by day.

c. A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of

the Government to the people.

d. A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold

over the people is in a state of decline.

Solution: c

Explanation:

No explanation needed. It’s a straightforward question.

But we can’t leave it like this. Read a small Paragraph below.




1. Appointment and Promotion of district judge in any state is made by Governor in

consultation with High Court of that State.

2. President has been authorized to extend and exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court

from any Union Territory.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Explanation:



We will see here two articles: 230 and 233.



1. Registration of political parties is governed by the provisions of the Representation

of the People Act, 1950.

2. Right to form association is not a Fundamental Right under article 21.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

If mistake in this question means you guys are still not reading questions properly. Please

don’t run.

Registration of political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the

Representation of the People Act, 1951. See below image.



Right to Form Association is a fundamental Right given in the Constitution of India

under Article 19(1)(c). It Proclaims that all citizens shall have the freedom to form

associations or unions for a lawful purpose.


1. Constitution of India, states that a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for a financial year needs to be laid before both the houses of the Parliament.

2. Department of Economic Affairs of the Ministry of Finance prepares the budget. 3. As per the Constitution, Union Finance Minister is made responsible to prepare the

budget/annual financial statement.


a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:


Article 112, of the Constitution of India, states that a statement of estimated receipts

and expenditure of the Government of India for a financial year needs to be laid before

both the houses of the Parliament. Here the Union Budget is referred to as ‘Annual Financial Statement’.



Second statement is correct:

Budget is prepared by the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) of the Ministry of

Finance. Earlier, there were two budgets presented – the Railway Budget and the General

Budget. However, based on the recommendation by NITI Aayog, the Railway budget has

been merged into General Budget and a single Annual Budget is being presented since

2017-18.


As per Article 77(3), a Union Minister is made responsible by the President of India to

conduct transactions of the Government. Accordingly, Union Finance Minister is made

responsible to prepare the budget/annual financial statement, present it and pilot it

through the parliament.

Q42. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 3.0.

1. Unlike previous two edition, PMKVY 3.0 has been conceptualized with the larger engagement of district authority through District Skill Committees (DSCs).

2. Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component has been removed because it didn’t

show positive results in previous two edition.


a. 1 only b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2



Solution: a

Explanation:

Such questions are very important. But you can only correct, if you read schemes in

details. Give time to schemes and Acts. Now, questions coming from these schemes and Acts are not easy at all.

One life, one important task (clear UPSC), PUT YOUR ENTIRE ENERGY TO IT. Just a couple of years, you will be at peak.

Under the Skill India Mission, the Government of India is implementing Pradhan Mantri

Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) to promote skill development in the country by providing

grant-based placement linked short duration skill training since 2015-16. This

programme was successfully implemented under two editions: PMKVY (1 .0) (FY2015-16) and PMKVY (2 0) (FY2016-20).

With each newer version of PMKW scheme, major changes were instituted to meet the

aspiration of youth, increase the overall reach and improve the outcomes. PMKVY 2.0

(2016-20) provided a larger role to the State Governments by introducing Centrally

Sponsored State Managed (CSSM) known as the State Component under the Scheme.

Placement linked short term training program was also introduced along with Training of

Trainers and Aadhaar based attendance system for Trainees and Trainers. Based on the

learnings of PMKVY 2.0 and to reorient the scheme lo be in sync with the present scenario

of policy changes and changing priority in different sectors, demand-driven PMKW 3.0

(2020-21], has been conceptualized with the larger engagement of district authority through District Skill Committees (DSCs). First statement is incorrect.

Second statement is incorrect.

The new upgraded scheme PIVIKVY (3.0) (FY 2020-21) has been approved and shall be

implemented during FY 20-21 to train 8 lakh candidates with an outlay of Rs. 948.90 Cr.

Under the scheme, approximately 8 lakh candidates would be trained as follows:

RPL is a platform to provide recognition to the informal learning or learning through

work to get equal acceptance as the formal levels of education.


1. Agriculture leads to 70 per cent of nitrous oxide emissions in India.

2. Of this, more than 60 percent is contributed by fertilisers, mostly urea.

3. Global warming Potential of Nitrous oxide is lower than carbon dioxide.




a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

Believe, every year such direct questions appear in exam. Get used to such questions. They

are not tough. Abhi pehli baar exam main hi dekhoge toh pareshan hoge hi (English version:

Get used to such questions. If you see questions first time in exam hall only, then big

problem).

Goaltide is doing its job. Aap log bhi equal effort daalo, then only miracle.

All statements are taken from this article:

Link: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/agriculture/indian-research-can-help-cut-nitrogen-fertiliser-waste-75165


1. Procedure for the election of President is provided in RPA Act, 1951.

2. The notification calling the election to the office of the President can be issued by the Election Commission within the period of sixty days before the expiry of the

term of office of the outgoing President.

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/agriculture/indian-research-can-help-cut-nitrogen-fertiliser-waste-75165

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/agriculture/indian-research-can-help-cut-nitrogen-fertiliser-waste-75165



3. One of the qualifications for the election of President is that he must have completed 30 years of age.


a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 2 only d. None

Solution: c

Explanation:



Q45. Consider the following statements regarding Asian Development Bank.

1. ADB was created as a result of oil crisis in 1973.

2. Asian Development fund was created by the ADB to provide low-interest loans to

ADB's poorest members.

3. More than 50 percent of the members of ADB are from Asia.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 2 only

Solution: b

Explanation:



From 31 members at its establishment in 1966, ADB has grown to encompass 68

members—of which 49 are from within Asia and the Pacific and 19 outside. Third

statement is correct.

Q46. Which one of the following countries is closest to the Equator?

a. Taiwan

b. Sri Lanka

c. Oman

d. Libya

Solution: b

Explanation:

See map below.



Q47. Which of the following are the criteria for a Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) to

be accorded the status of a Maharatna?

1. It should be listed on the Indian Stock Exchange

2. It should have Navratna status

3. Average annual turnover of more than Rs. 20,000 crores, during the last 3 years.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

We will learn here two things: Eligibility and Procedure.



Q48. Maktubat, in the context of Medieval History means:

a. conversations of Sufi saints

b. biographical accounts of saints

c. Letters written by Sufi masters, addressed to their disciples and associates

d. None

Solution: c

Explanation:




1. Governing Council of National Skill Development Mission.

2. Mission Steering Group (MSG) of National Health Mission

3. Governing Council of NITI Aayog.

Which of the above is/are chaired by Prime Minister?

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1 and 2 only

Solution: a

Explanation:



National Skill Development Mission has been divided into three tier structure.

The Mission will consist of a Governing Council at apex level, a Steering Committee and

a Mission Directorate (along with an Executive Committee) as the executive arm of the

Mission.



Q50. Which among the following can declare an election void if disqualified candidate is

elected to the Parliament?

a. President

b. Election Commission of India

c. High Court

d. Speaker

Solution: c

Explanation:

Very important. Please remember.

If a disqualified person is elected to the Parliament, the Constitution lays down no

procedure to declare the election void. This matter is dealt with Representation of

People Act 1951, which enables the High Court to declare an election void if a



disqualified candidate is elected. The aggrieved party can appeal to the Supreme Court

against the order of the High Court in this regard.

Q51. Consider the following statements about Republic day.

1. It is the day when India declared Purna Swaraj from the British rule in 1930 at

Lahore session.

2. The National Anthem of India Jana-gana-mana was first sung on 26th January, 1950.

3. Republic Day is celebrated in India on 26 January every year to commemorate the

adoption of the Constitution of India.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 only d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c


The Indian National Congress, on 19 December 1929, passed the historic ‘Purna

Swaraj’ – (total independence) resolution – at its Lahore session. A public declaration

was made on 26 January 1930 – a day which the Congress Party urged Indians to celebrate as ‘Independence Day’.

It was on the same day, 26 January, in 1930 that the Indian Tricolour Flag was first

unfurled in Lahore by Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru, and the declaration of an independent

(Purna Swaraj) Indian National Congress was made. Hindi was declared an official language of the Union Government on 26 January 1965

Second statement is incorrect:

Understand the small difference between Constitution Day and Republic Day.

While Independence Day marks the nation's independence from British rule on August 15,

1947, Republic Day - which is celebrated on January 26 every year - marks the day the

Constitution of India came into effect in 1950.

Whereas, Constitution Day is celebrated in India on 26 November every year to

commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. On 26 November 1949, the

Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India which came into

effect on 26 January 1950.




The National Anthem of India Jana-gana-mana, composed originally in Bengali by

Rabindranath Tagore, was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly as the

National Anthem of India on 24 January 1950. It was first sung on 27 December 1911 at

the Kolkata Session of the Indian National Congress.


1. Every year, budget is presented twice – an interim budget to secure a vote-on-

account for the next few months, and later the complete budget.

2. As per the trend for a decade now, passing of Demand for Grants through Guillotine

forms a majority.

3. The procedures for cut motions is provided in the Constitution.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

First statement is incorrect:

In the year of a general election, the budget is presented twice – an interim budget to

secure a vote-on-account for the next few months, and later the complete budget after a

new government is formed. NOT EVERY YEAR.


Due to the paucity of time, there is the option for passing Demand for Grants without

discussion. This is generally done on the last day of the parliamentary session and is

referred to as ‘Guillotine”. Data from the past budgetary sessions indicate that passing

through Guillotine forms a majority.




Article 113(2) of the Constitution of India lays down that the estimates of expenditure

not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India are submitted in the form of Demands for

Grants to the Lok Sabha, which has the power to assent, or to refuse to assent, to any

‘demand’, or to assent to any ‘demand’ subject to a reduction of the amount specified

therein.

During discussions on demands for grants, a motion can be moved to reduce the amount

of a demand. Such a motion is called a ‘Cut Motion’.

Rules 209, 210, 211 and 212 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in

Lok Sabha and Direction 43 of the Directions by the Speaker, Lok Sabha lay down in

detail the formalities relating to raising of Cut Motions in the House. Not constitution.

Q53. Global Climate Risk Index 2021 was recently published by:

a. Germanwatch



b. World Economic Forum

c. United Nation Environment Programme d. Food and Agricultural Organization and UNDP

Solution: a

Explanation:

The Global Climate Risk Index was recently released by Germanwatch-a NGO based

in Bonn, Germany. In the index, India has been ranked at seventh position among the

countries that are most effected by climate change in 2019.

The Global Climate Risk Index 2021 analyses to what extent countries and regions have

been affected by impacts of weather-related loss events (storms, floods, heat waves etc.).

Human impacts (fatalities) and direct economic losses were analyzed. The most recent data

available — for 2019 and from 2000 to 2019 — were taken into account.

Link: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-seventh-on-index-of-countries-impacted-by-climate-change-in-2019-7161722/


1. More than 60 percent of Oilseeds cultivation in India is confined to rainfed farming.

2. Oil Seeds demands in India is largely met by Imports, i.e., more than 50 percent.

3. To increase domestic availability and reduce import dependency, a National Mission

on Edible Oils (NMEO) is proposed for next five years (2020-21 to 2024-25).


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

Country needs 25 million tonnes of edible oils to meet its requirement at current

consumption level of 19 kg per person per year. Out of the total requirement, 10.50

million tonnes is produced domestically from primary (Soybean, Rapeseed &

Mustard, Groundnut, Sunflower, Safflower & Niger) and secondary sources (Oil palm,

Coconut, Rice Bran, Cotton seeds & Tree Borne Oilseeds) and remaining 60%, is met

through import. The oilseed production of the country has been growing impressively.

Despite this, there exists a gap between the demand and supply of oilseeds, which has

necessitated sizeable quantities of imports.

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-seventh-on-index-of-countries-impacted-by-climate-change-in-2019-7161722/

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-seventh-on-index-of-countries-impacted-by-climate-change-in-2019-7161722/



The major challenges in oilseed production are largely rain-fed conditions (70%

area), high seed cost (Groundnut and Soybean), small holding with limited resources, low seed replacement rate and low productivity.

Q55. Consider the following Arab nations.

1. Saudi Arabia

2. Yemen

3. Oman

4. UAE

Which of the above nations does Tropic of Cancer Passes?

a. 1, 2 and 4 only

b. 1 and 4 only

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: D

Explanation:

Suppose you don’t know this, but you need to attempt this. See how close we can reach.

You know very well UAE and Yemen are far from each other (many times we have covered

in our daily quiz). So, a thin line of Tropic of Cancer won’t pass both the countries. So, a and

c option will be eliminated easily.

Now, you can attempt. Now, you can blame luck but after eliminating two options, if

wrong.

Tropic of Cancer passes through Saudi Arabia, UAE and Oman (for middle east nations).



Q56. Consider the followings.

1. Zero Hour

2. Vote of Credit

3. Supplementary Grants (if amount needed more than passed by Appropriation Bills)

Which of the above provisions is/are part of Indian Constitution?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

First is incorrect.

The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as Zero Hour.

Zero Hour doesn’t find a mention in the Rules of Procedure and in Constitution and

hence it’s considered an informal procedure for the members of Parliament to raise

matters of serious importance.

Members wishing to raise matters during the Zero Hour need to give notice to the Speaker

prior to the start of the daily session. The notice should clearly state the subjects they want

to raise. The Speaker is the final authority who can either reject or accept such request.

Second and third are correct options.



Q57. With reference to the Election Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications of its members.

2. The Constitution has not specified the term of its members. Select the correct code.

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:



The Election Commission is a permanent and an independent body established by the

Constitution of India directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country. Article 324 of

the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of

elections to the Parliament, State legislatures, the office of President of India and the office of Vice-President of India shall be vested in the Election Commission.

Though the Constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and

impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws can be noted, viz.,

1. The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational,

administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission. So,

statement 1 is correct.

2. The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election

Commission. So, statement 2 is correct. But sir, we have studied, his term is 6 years.

Yes, its term is 6 years but it’s not in Constitution. Election Commission

(Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of

Business)] Act, 1991 provides that.

Q58. Which of the following is not a part of the Tripitakas?

a. Therigatha

b. Dhammapada

c. Suttavibhaga

d. Acharanga Sutra

Solution: d

Explanation:

From where we should prepare such questions. Don’t prepare from anywhere. Just skip if you

don’t know.

Tripitaka is the Buddhist canon written in Pali. It contains three parts - Vinaya Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka and Abhidhamma Pitaka. It contains various books.

Therigatha, a part of Sutta Pitaka, consists of 73 poems — in which the early nuns (bhikkhunis) recount their struggles and accomplishments along the road to arahantship.

Dhammapada is a collection of sayings of the Buddha in verse form. It is also a part of

Sutta Pitaka.



Suttavibhaga is the book in Vinaya Pitaka and contains rules for the behaviour of monks.

They are called as Patimokkha rules. It is divided into two parts, covering the rules for monks and nuns, respectively.

Acharanga Sutra is the first of the twelve Angas, part of the agamas (religious texts) which

were compiled based on the teachings of Mahavira. Thus, it belongs to Jainism.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).


1. The Indian Constitution has prescribed the maximum age to be eligible to become

judge of both Supreme Court and High Court.

2. The ground for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge, in the Indian Constitution, is

‘incapacity’ and ‘proved misbehavior’ only.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

For SC judge:

Article 124 (2): Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President by

warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with such of the Judges of the Supreme

Court and of the High Courts in the States as the President may deem necessary for the

purpose and shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty-five years.

For High Court:

Through a constitutional amendment. Section 4 of the Constitution (Fifteenth

Amendment) Act, 1963, amended the retirement age of a high court judge from the

earlier 60 years to 62 years.



As of now, Article 217 of the Constitution reads as:

Every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his

hand and seal after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, ......... and in any other case,

until he attains the age of sixty-two years.

Article 124 (4) states that: A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his

office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of

Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a

majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has

been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of

proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Q60. Consider the following regions.

1. Hemis Monastery

2. Zoji La Pass

3. Tso Moriri Lake

Which of the above sites is/are present in Ladakh?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3



Solution: d

Explanation:

Tso Moriri or Lake Moriri or "Mountain Lake", is a lake in the Changthang Plateau in

Ladakh in Northern India.

Zoji La is a high mountain pass in the Himalayas in the Indian union territory of Ladakh

Hemis Monastery is a Himalayan Buddhist monastery (gompa) of the Drukpa Lineage, in

Hemis, Ladakh, India.

Q61. Which of the following is/are the applications of Plasmonics?

1. Superfast Optical Computers

2. Tumour Killing Cancer therapies

3. High Resolution Imaging devices

4. Lasers for self-driving cars


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d

Explanation:

Bit technical topic. We will try our best to explain. You need to know basics.

Plasmonics deals with the interaction of electromagnetic fields (i.e., light) with

metallic structures. Typically, these metallic structures possess sub-wavelength

dimensions and support the so-called surface plasmon resonances (SPR). These resonances occur due to the collective coherent oscillations of the free electrons present in the metal.



One of the most successful applications of Plasmonics is biosensing, wherein researchers try to detect the presence (or absence) of biologically relevant molecules.

Link: https://science.thewire.in/the-sciences/plasmonics-how-researchers-are-using-

metals-to-create-powerful-biosensors/

Q62. Why Arctic region is import to India?

1. Arctic region contains undiscovered oil and natural gas resources.

2. China’s influence in the Arctic region is expanding 3. There are climate-related linkages between the Arctic and the Indian monsoons.

Which of the above statement sis/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

https://science.thewire.in/the-sciences/plasmonics-how-researchers-are-using-metals-to-create-powerful-biosensors/

https://science.thewire.in/the-sciences/plasmonics-how-researchers-are-using-metals-to-create-powerful-biosensors/



Explanation:

The below given all information is taken from Arctic Policy of India published

recently.

This will help you in Mains also. Go through solution well.


First see whether Arctic has resources or not:

Delhi must take part in Arctic governance matters in pursuit of providing energy safety and

reaching national prosperity. The key argument in favor is huge Arctic resources. The

main fuel for Indian thermal power plants is coal. It is available in abundance and meets

70% of the total power sector demand. The problem is that the fossil cannot be of

predominantly used because of its low calorific value and high ash generation. India

need to diversity its energy sources.


The second argument for India active participating in arctic issues is about geopolitics.



To date Delhi has a leverage for constrain Chinese hegemony in the Asia-Pacific

region. In any case of aggression from China India can block Malacca Strait and thus cut

off energy supply routes to China. Malacca Strait with 80% of China imported oil going

through it has great strategic importance for Beijing.

However, with the melting of the polar ice caps, Beijing gets access to the vast energy

resources of the North, as well as the ability to use the Northern sea route for

transporting them. China's dependence on the Malacca route is consequently decreasing.

The factor accelerating Beijing expansion on the Northern Sea Route is a possibility to use

it in Sino-European trade. The way from East Asia to Northern Europe by NSR is about 3,9

thousand miles shorter than through the Suez Canal. Under these circumstances, it

becomes clear that it will be a fatal mistake for India to let China be the only Asian

player in the circumpolar North.

Third statement is correct.

Though none of India’s territory directly falls in the Arctic region, it is a crucial area as the

Arctic influences atmospheric, oceanographic and biogeochemical cycles of the earth’s

ecosystem. Due to climate change, the region faces the loss of sea ice, ice caps, and warming

of the ocean which in turn impacts the global climate.

It is better to understand the scientific and climate-related linkages between the

Arctic and the Indian monsoons; to harmonize polar research with the third pole

(the Himalayas) and to advance the study and understanding of the Arctic within India.

Link: https://iopscience.iop.org/article/10.1088/1755-1315/539/1/012047/pdf


1. China is the largest producer of Copra in world.

2. One of the reasons for low Copra production in India is, MSP is not provided on

copra production.

https://iopscience.iop.org/article/10.1088/1755-1315/539/1/012047/pdf




a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:

Hope, everyone knows, what copra is:

This information is taken from “Price Policy for Copra: 2021 Season”.

During 2018, India had the largest share (34.1%) in world production, followed by

Indonesia (21%) and Philippines (20.8%). However, Philippines had the largest area under

coconut with a share of 30 percent, followed by Indonesia (29.3%) and India (17.4%) in TE2018.




MSP is provided on COPRA Production.

Link:

https://cacp.dacnet.nic.in/ViewQuestionare.aspx?Input=2&DocId=1&PageId=42&KeyId=7

45





Q64. World Economic Outlook, 2021 is a publication of:

a. International Monetary Fund

b. World Bank

c. World Economic Forum

d. LANCET

Solution: a

Explanation:

Link: https://www.livemint.com/news/india/imf-projects-impressive-11-5-growth-rate-for-india-in-2021-11611666436325.html

Q65. Five African countries were among the global top 10 to suffer extreme weather in

2019, the Climate Risk Index 2021, released by environmental think tank Germanwatch

said January 25, 2021. So, we will see in this question where all these 5 places are located.

Consider the following countries.

1. Malawi

2. Zimbabwe

3. Mozambique

4. South Sudan 5. Niger

Which of the above countries are land-locked?

a. 1, 4 and 5 only

b. 2, 4 and 5 only

c. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Solution: c

https://www.livemint.com/news/india/imf-projects-impressive-11-5-growth-rate-for-india-in-2021-11611666436325.html

https://www.livemint.com/news/india/imf-projects-impressive-11-5-growth-rate-for-india-in-2021-11611666436325.html



Explanation:

Link: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/five-african-countries-

among-top-10-affected-by-extreme-weather-in-2019-germanwatch-75207

Q66. In the context of Indian Constitution, consider the following provisions.

1. The national Language of India shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.

2. There shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the

President.

3. It shall be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the

safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under this Constitution and report to

the Governor of state concerned.


https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/five-african-countries-among-top-10-affected-by-extreme-weather-in-2019-germanwatch-75207

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/five-african-countries-among-top-10-affected-by-extreme-weather-in-2019-germanwatch-75207



a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

The Constitution has said Hindi is official language, not national language.

There shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the

President.

It shall be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the

safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under this Constitution and report to the

President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct, and the

President shall cause all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament, and sent

to the Governments of the States concerned. See below:

Q67. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

a. the executive and legislature work independently.

b. it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

c. the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

d. the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Solution: C



Explanation:

Straightforward question based on the core Parliamentary democracy principles. No

explanation needed.

Q68. Consider the following Sculptures.

1. Figurine of Chulakoka Devta standing gracefully on an elephant with her arms and

one leg entwined around a flowering tree, as she is a tree goddess.

2. Dwarfish Yaksha from the Pithalkhora caves in Central India, carrying a bowl of

abundance on his head.

The above sculptures belong to:

a. Sunga Art

b. Pallava Art

c. Satavahana Art

d. Gupta Art

Solution: a

Explanation:

Don’t dare to touch such questions, if you are scoring more than 6 out if 10 questions. If you

are scoring below 5, take risk.

The figure of Chulakoka Devta is a notable specimen of Sunga art representing its

indigenous character and folk quality. She stands gracefully on an elephant with her

arms and one leg entwined around a flowering tree, as she is a tree goddess. The profuse

jewellery and the mode of wearing the under garment and the head-dress demonstrate the

feminine fashion of the period. The figure suggests a certain elegance which we find with

greater exuberance in the later Kushan sculpture. The inscribed label at her right side,

gives us the names of the Yakshi.



Another good example of Sunga art of the second century B.C. is the jovial figures, the

dwarfish Yaksha from the Pithalkhora caves in Central India, carrying a bowl of

abundance on his head. The care-free broad smile on his face and his rotund belly

indicate that he is fully satisfied in all respects.



Link: http://ccrtindia.gov.in/buddhistsculp.php

Q69. Right to form political party in India is a:

a. Fundamental Right

b. Legal Right

c. Natural Right

d. Constitutional Right

Solution: a

Explanation:

Article 19(1) (c) of the Constitution of India guarantees to all its citizens the right ―to form

associations, or unions or Co-operative Societies'.

The right to form association includes the right to form companies, societies, partnerships,

trade union and political parties.

Q70. Cheriyal Scroll Paintings belongs to:

http://ccrtindia.gov.in/buddhistsculp.php



a. Telangana

b. Kerala

c. Maharashtra

d. West Bengal

Solution: a

Explanation:

It belongs to Telangana.

Q71. Budget for 2021-22, will contain:

1. Revised Estimates for 2020-21

2. Macro-Economic Framework Statement

3. Output Outcome Framework 2021-22

4. Actuals for 2019-20


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 1, 2 and 4 only

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d

Explanation:

As part of the Union Budget presentation, various documents are presented by the

government on the floor of the house. Here is a look at few such key documents.



Ok, here we will take an example of 2020-21 Budget and explain.

Budget Estimate: This is the estimate for next year. In the upcoming Budget to be

presented (1 February, 2021), it would be Budget Estimates for 2021-22. In the above

screenshot, taken from the Receipt Budget of 2020-21, the Budget Estimates are provided

as BE 2020-21. In few documents, you can also find the BE for last year, which is for

reference as you compare the last year’s estimates with revised Estimates (in the example

it is provided as BE 2019-20).

Revised Estimate: The Revised Estimate (RE) is for the current year i.e., in the budget to

be presented on 01 February, 2021, this would be for 2020-21. In the above example from

the last year’s budget, the RE is for 2019-20.



Actuals: These are the actual figures for the completed year. When the 2021-22 budget is

presented, the completed year would 2019-20 (note that we are still in 2020-21 by the

time the budget is presented). In the above example of last year’s budget, the Actuals

belong to the year 2018-19.

From above discussion, 1 and 4 are correct.

Third statement is also correct.

Since 2017-18, in addition to the financial outlays of schemes of the Ministries being

indicated in the Budget document, the expected outputs and outcomes of the schemes

are also being presented in a consolidated Outcome Budget document, along with the

Budget.

These Outlays, Outputs and Outcomes are being presented to the Parliament in measurable

terms, bringing-in greater accountability for the agencies involved in the execution of

government schemes and projects. Outlay is the amount that is provided for a given

scheme or project in the Budget; while Output refers to the direct and measurable product

of program activities, often expressed in physical terms or units. Outcomes are the

collective results or qualitative improvements brought about in the delivery of these

services.

Second statement is also correct.

The Macro-Economic Framework Statement, presented to Parliament as per the

Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003. The FRBM instructs the

government to make an assessment of the growth prospects of the economy with specific

underlying assumptions. The Framework Statement contains assessment regarding the

GDP growth rate, fiscal balance of the Central Government and the external sector balance

of the economy.

Q72. Consider the following statements regarding International Energy Agency.

1. It was born with the 1973-1974 oil crisis with a broad mandate on energy security

and energy policy co-operation.

2. Crude oil and/or product reserves equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net

imports is an important criterion to become member of IEA. 3. India is a member of IEA.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only d. 1 only

Solution: a



Explanation:

India has signed a Framework for strategic partnership agreement with the International

Energy Agency (IEA).

We will go to IEA website and learn.


Second statement is correct:



Third statement is incorrect:

India is an associate member.

Link: https://www.iea.org/news/india-and-the-iea-enter-new-phase-of-closer-

collaboration-with-signing-of-strategic-partnership-framework

https://www.iea.org/news/india-and-the-iea-enter-new-phase-of-closer-collaboration-with-signing-of-strategic-partnership-framework

https://www.iea.org/news/india-and-the-iea-enter-new-phase-of-closer-collaboration-with-signing-of-strategic-partnership-framework



Q73. Which of the following correctly defines the term Social Forestry?

a. land-use systems and technologies where woody perennials (trees, shrubs, palms,

bamboos, etc.) are deliberately used on the same land-management units as

agricultural crops and/or animals

b. Forestry outside the conventional forests which primarily aim at providing

continuous flow of goods and services for the benefit of people

c. It is an applied science that studies ecological processes applied to agricultural

production systems.

d. It is the science and technology of producing and using plants in agriculture for food,

fuel, fiber, and land restoration.

Solution: b

Explanation:

Every question asked here is as per UPSC standard. Do solve all our quizzes and join

Test Series for comprehensive preparation of Prelims exam. Link given in the end of

this quiz. You must enroll it.

Q74. Consider The following Pairs.

Most Active Volcanoes in news Location



1. Mt Merapi Indonesia 2. Mount Etna North America 3. Stromboli Volcano Malaysia

Select the correct Pairs.

a. 1 and 2 inly

b. 3 only

c. 2 only d. 1 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

Mount Etna, or Etna, is an active stratovolcano on the east coast of Sicily, Italy.


1. A bill introduced to alter the boundaries of the state.

2. Introduction of Money Bills

3. A bill introduced by States to impose restrictions on the goods imported from

other states

Which of the above Bills need prior sanctions/recommendations of the President

before introduction into Parliament?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 only



d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

All given Bills need prior sanctions/recommendations of the President.

First option is correct.

Third option is correct.

Second option is correct. Article 110 mentioned below is Money Bill.



Q76. The Vice President of India can be removed by a resolution passed in Rajya Sabha by an

absolute majority. According to constitution on what grounds can he be removed.

a. Violation of Constitution

b. Discharged insolvent and misbehavior

c. If he loses majority in Rajya Sabha

d. None of the above

Solution: d

Explanations:

Notably, no ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his removal.

The Vice-President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the President. He can also be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority (i.e., a majority of the total members of the House) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. But no such resolution can be moved unless at least 14 days’ advance notice has been given.

Q77. Which of the following organisms can be considered as decomposer organisms?

1. Virus

2. Bacteria

3. Fungi

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 only



d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

Fungi and Bacteria are decomposers. They breakdown organic matter into simple

inorganic substances.

Virus represents dormant life. They are metabolically inactive as long as they are

outside a host body. They are not decomposers. Viruses can only replicate themselves

by infecting a host cell and therefore cannot reproduce on their own.

Extra information:

Examples of familiar human diseases include:

Bacteria: salmonella, tetanus, typhoid, cholera, gangrene, bacterial dysentery, diphtheria,

tuberculosis, bubonic plague, meningococcal meningitis, pneumococcal pneumonia

Viruses: rabies, influenza (flu), measles, mumps, polio, rubella, chicken pox, colds, warts,

cold sores

Fungi: athlete's foot, ringworm

Q78. Consider the following lake.

1. Wular Lake

2. Sambhar Lake

3. Sasthamkotta Lake

Which of the above is/are freshwater lakes?

a. 1 only

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: d

Expalantion:



Q79. Bosporus Strait connects which two seas?

a. Black Sea and Sea of Marmara.

b. Sea of Marmara and Mediterranean Sea.

c. Black Sea and Caspian Sea.

d. Black Sea and Adriatic Sea.

Solution: a

Explanation:

A strait is a naturally formed, narrow, typically navigable waterway that connects two

larger bodies of water.

Bosporus Strait connects Black Sea and Sea of Marmara.



Q80. In the context of Vijayanagar Empire, the terms amara, bhandaravada and nianya,

are related to:

a. Distribution of village income

b. Temple Structures

c. Secular and ritual groups of Vijayanagar Empire

d. Urban local structures where different grains were stored

Solution: a

Explanation:

These indicate the way in which the village income was distributed.

The bhandarvada was a crown village comprising the smallest category. Some part of its

income was utilized to maintain the Vijayanagar forts.

Income from the manya (tax-free) villages was used to maintain the Brahmans, temples,

and mathas.

The largest category was of the amara villages given by the Vijayanagar rulers to the

amaranayakas. Their holders did not possess proprietary rights in land but enjoyed

privileges. The amara tenure was primarily residual in the sense that its income was

distributed after deductions had been made for support of the Brahmans and forts. Three

quarters of all the villages came under this category.

Q81. Consider the following statements regarding neglected tropical diseases (NTDs).

1. World Health Organization (WHO) has no roadmap for this disease till now as it is

less harmful.

2. India has the highest cases of Leprosy in the world which is categorizes as neglected tropical diseases (NTDs).


a. 1 only



b. 2 only


Solution: b

Explanation:


The overarching 2030 global targets are:

NTDs are found in several countries in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. NTDs are especially

common in tropical areas where people do not have access to clean water or safe ways to dispose of human waste.


Leprosy is one of 20 diseases formally recognised as Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs). Click here.

India has the largest cases of Leprosy. See below report of WHO of 2019.

https://www.leprosymission.org/our-work/ntds#:~:text=Leprosy%20is%20one%20of%2020,billion%20people%20in%20149%20countries.&text=Research-,Leprosy%20is%20one%20of%2020%20diseases%20formally,Neglected%20Tropical%20Diseases%20(NTDs).



WHO’s South East Asia Region reported 71% of all global cases: 2 countries – India

(120 334 cases) and Indonesia (17 017 cases) contributed 92% of the cases in this Region.

Link: https://www.who.int/news/item/28-01-2021-who-issues-new-10-year-plan-

to-end-suffering-from-neglected-tropical-diseases

Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the President’s address in the Parliament.

1. The Constitution mandates only one occasion, i.e., at beginning of the first session of

each year, when the President specially addresses both Houses of Parliament.

2. The assembly of members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha to hear the President’s Address is deemed to be neither a joint sitting of both the Houses.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only


Solution: d

Explanation:


Article 87 of the constitution provides two instances when the President specially

addresses both Houses of Parliament. The President of India addresses both the Rajya

Sabha and the Lok Sabha at the beginning of the first Session after each general election

when the reconstituted lower house meets for the first time. The President also

addresses both the houses at beginning of the first session of each year.

https://www.who.int/news/item/28-01-2021-who-issues-new-10-year-plan-to-end-suffering-from-neglected-tropical-diseases

https://www.who.int/news/item/28-01-2021-who-issues-new-10-year-plan-to-end-suffering-from-neglected-tropical-diseases



The President’s speech essentially highlights the government’s policy priorities and plans

for the upcoming year. The address provides a broad framework of the government’s agenda and direction.


The assembly of members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha to hear the President’s

Address under article 87(1) is deemed to be neither a joint sitting of both the Houses nor a sitting of Lok Sabha nor of Rajya Sabha.

When the President addresses the Houses under the said article, he functions as a limb of

Parliament. When he discharges the constitutional function of addressing the two Houses,

he is in charge of the proceedings of the Houses until his Address is completed. For

the purpose, he may conduct the proceedings in an appropriate manner, consistent with his

position and dignity as well as the dignity and status of the Houses.

Although the President is in charge of the proceedings, neither he nor the Chairman

of Rajya Sabha nor the Speaker nor any other person can be said to preside at the

meeting of the members of the two Houses assembled together for his Address under the said article.

Q83. Jarosite is a mineral from mars which is scarcely seen on earth, recently has been

discovered in:

a. Kolar Mines in India

b. Antarctica



c. Australian Coast

d. Africa

Solution: b

Explanation:

Link: https://www.sciencemag.org/news/2021/01/substance-found-antarctic-ice-may-solve-martian-mystery

Q84. Consider the following statements regarding OPEC.

1. It is a permanent, intergovernmental Organization, more than half of the members

belong to middle east countries.

2. OPEC countries contribute more than 60 percent of World’s crude oil reserves.

3. Its headquarters is in Austria, Vienna.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

https://www.sciencemag.org/news/2021/01/substance-found-antarctic-ice-may-solve-martian-mystery

https://www.sciencemag.org/news/2021/01/substance-found-antarctic-ice-may-solve-martian-mystery



The OPEC Secretariat is the executive organ of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting

Countries (OPEC). Located in Vienna, it also functions as the Headquarters of the

Organization, in accordance with the provisions of the OPEC Statute. Third statement is

correct.


Qatar terminated its membership on 1 January 2019, currently, the Organization has a total

of 13 Member Countries.

See below how many countries are from middle east.




Q85. Consider the following statements regarding Central Adoption Resource Authority

(CARA).



1. It is a statutory body of Ministry of Women and Children Development under

Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.

2. It is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions of

Indian Children.

3. Government of India has ratified Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption,

1993.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of Women

& Child Development, Government of India. Read below:



It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to

monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions.

CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in

accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption,

1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003.

http://cara.nic.in/about/about_cara.html

http://cara.nic.in/about/about_cara.html



CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children

through its associated /recognised adoption agencies.

Q86. Which the following took place under the governor-generalship of Dalhousie?

1. Doctrine of Lapse

2. Charles Wood Dispatch

3. Second Anglo-Burmese War (1852)

4. Treaty of Lahore which concluded first Anglo-Sikh War

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. All the above

Solution: a

Expalantion:

He served as Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856.



Charles Wood Despatch

In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a Despatch on an educational system for India. This

document is considered as the "Magna Carta of English Education in India". It’s main

aim was to:

a. To impart Western knowledge, information about the western culture to the

Indians.

b. To educate the natives of India so that a class of public servants could be created.

c. To promote intellectual development and also raise the moral character of the

young generation.

d. To develop practical and vocational skills of the Indians people so that more and

more articles could be produced and also to create a good market for consumption

of those goods.

Other important contents of Wood’s Despatch: It is important. Do read.

a. The Wood's Despatch of 1854, for the first time, recommended the creation of a

Department of Public Instruction in each of the five provinces of Bengal, Bombay,

Madras, the Punjab and the North Western provinces.

b. Elementary education was considered to be the foundation of the education

system.



c. The Wood's Despatch of 1854 recommended the establishment of universities at

Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.

d. The Wood's Despatch of 1854 recommended the sanction of a grant-in-aid system

in the Indian educational system. To educate the large number of people of India

was a difficult task and so the grant-in-aid system was adopted by the government.

e. The Wood's Despatch of 1854 gave importance to teaching of English, but at the

same time, it also stressed on the teaching of Indian languages.

f. The Despatch clearly stated that Indian languages as well as English should be

used as media of instruction. Therefore, statement 2 is wrong.

g. The Wood's Despatch of 1854 stressed on female education. The Wood s Despatch

stated, the importance of female education in India cannot be over- rated.

If you remember in Prelims 2018, a question on Woods’s Despatch: See if you can attempt

that now.

Second Burmese War



Lord Hardinge (1844-48) fought the first Anglo-Sikh War (1845-46) and concluded

the Treaty of Lahore.

Q87. As per the provisions mentioned in the Constitution, consider the following

statements.

1. An election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of

President shall be completed before the expiration of the term.

2. The person elected to fill the vacancy of the President shall be entitled to hold office

for the full term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Expalantion:



Q88. As per the provisions mentioned in the Constitution, consider the following

statements.

1. An election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of Vice-

President shall be completed before the expiration of the term.

2. The person elected to fill the vacancy of Vice President shall be entitled to hold

office for the full term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

Q89. Consider the following statements regarding Prorogation of Lok Sabha:

1. Lok Sabha is prorogued by the Speaker.

2. House cannot be prorogued while it is in session.

3. Only Lok Sabha can be prorogued.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. None of the above

Solution: d

Expalantion:

The presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares the House adjourned sine die, when

the business of a session is completed. Within the next few days, the President issues a



notification for prorogation of the session. However, the President can also prorogue

the House while in session.

Q90. A horizontal line drawn across Delhi will cross which of the following states?

1. Punjab

2. Haryana

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Bihar 5. Arunachal Pradesh


a. 1, 2, 3, 4 only

b. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

c. 1 and 3 only d. 2, 3, and 5 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

quiz compilations -jan

Documents