quiz compilations – may part 2

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QUIZ COMPILATIONS – MAY PART 2

GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 1


Q1. Consider the following statements.

1. While the Montreal Protocol was established to phase out substances that deplete

ozone, the Kyoto Protocol was set in place to reduce the emissions of greenhouse

gases, with the exception to ozone depleting substances.

2. Both were adopted at Rio Earth Summit in 1992.

3. The Kigali agreement to Montreal Protocol has entered into force, while Doha

amendment to Kyoto yet to entered into force.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Abhi, they are trying to combine two similar things and asking question. So, we will practice

such questions too.

They asked in 2019,

First statement is correct:

While the Montreal Protocol was established to phase out substances that deplete ozone,

the Kyoto Protocol was set in place to reduce the emissions of greenhouse gases, with the

exception to ozone depleting substances.

Second statement is incorrect:

The Kyoto Protocol was adopted on 11 December 1997. Owing to a complex ratification

process, it entered into force on 16 February 2005. Currently, there are 192 Parties to the

Kyoto Protocol.



The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is the landmark

multilateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption of

nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone depleting substances (ODS). Adopted

on 15 September 1987, the Protocol is to date the only UN treaty ever that has been ratified

every country on Earth - all 198 UN Member States.

Third statement is incorrect:

The Doha amendment enters into force for those Parties having accepted it by at least three

fourths of the Parties to the Kyoto Protocol. This means that a total of 144 instruments of

acceptance (excluding the European Union) are required for the entry into force of the

amendment.

As of 28 October 2020, 147 Parties deposited their instrument of acceptance, therefore

the threshold for entry into force of the Doha Amendment was achieved. The amendment

entered into force on 31 December 2020.

The Parties to the Montreal Protocol reached agreement at their 28th Meeting of the

Parties on 15 October 2016 in Kigali, Rwanda to phase-down HFCs. The Kigali Amendment

entered into force on 1 January 2019 for those countries that have ratified the

amendment.

You can combine same way, Daily Quiz and Goaltide Test Series, and ready for Prelims

Q2. The number of deaths due to lighting have increased recently. Which of the following

regions is the hottest lightning rod zone of India?

a. Himalayan Region

b. East and North East region

c. Western region

d. Western coastal

Solution: b

Explanation:

The solution has been taken from Mid- Monsoon 2019 LIGHTNING REPORT.



Q3. Consider the following statements regarding 1951 Refugee Convention.

1. The core principle of Convention is non-refoulement, which asserts that a refugee

should not be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or

freedom.

2. India is a signatory to it.

3. Nor does India have a refugee policy or a refugee law of its own.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:





India Did Not Sign the 1951 Refugee Convention.

Third statement is correct:

Nor does India have a refugee policy or a refugee law of its own. This has allowed India to

keep its options open on the question of refugees. The government can declare any set of

refugees as illegal immigrants.

Q4. Consider the following Pairs.

Places in news location

1. Kinshasa Malaysia

2. Maros-Pangkep region in Sulawesi

Indonesia



Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

Places in news location

Kinshasa Democratic Republic of Congo

Maros-Pangkep region in Sulawesi

Indonesia

Link: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-how-climate-change-is-

destroying-the-worlds-oldest-cave-art-7318720/

Q5. Consider the following.

1. Jerusalem

2. Tel Aviv

3. Beirut

4. Gaza

Arrange the above from North to South.

a. 3-1-2-4

b. 3-2-1-4

c. 3-2-4-1

d. 2-1-3-4

Solution: b

Explanation:

Beirut is capital of Lebanon.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-how-climate-change-is-destroying-the-worlds-oldest-cave-art-7318720/

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-how-climate-change-is-destroying-the-worlds-oldest-cave-art-7318720/



Q6. Emperor Harsha was the contemporary of which of the following kings?

1. Pulkeshin II

2. Rajaraja Chola

3. Amoghavarsha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

Pulakeshin II was the most famous ruler of the Chalukya dynasty of Vatapi. During his reign,

the Chalukya kingdom expanded to cover most of the Deccan region in peninsular India. He

defeated Harsha on the banks of Narmada and thwarted his southward march.



Rajaraja Chola I was a renowned king who ruled over the Chola kingdom of southern India

between 985 and 1014 CE. During his reign, the Cholas expanded beyond South India with

their domains stretching from Sri Lanka in the south to Kalinga in the north. Raja Raja Chola

also launched several naval campaigns that resulted in the capture of the Malabar Coast as

well as the Maldives and Sri Lanka. Raja Raja built the Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur,

one of the largest Hindu temples. He was not a contemporary of Harsha.

Amoghavarsha I was a Rashtrakuta emperor, the greatest ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty,

and one of the great emperors of India. His reign of 64 years is one of the longest precisely

dated monarchical reigns on record. He reigned in the 9th century Deccan and was not a

contemporary of Harsha.

Q7. Consider the following terms:

1. The term Bharat is mentioned in the Constitution.

2. ‘Citizenship by incorporation of territory’ is one of the provisions mentioned in the

Constitution for acquiring Citizenship.

3. There is a provision of Supplementary Grants both at State and Central Level in the

Constitution.

Select the correct code.

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

Very easy question but chances of doing minor mistakes is more. Be careful. GoalTide

students, mistake is not allowed in this question.



Second statement is wrong: (NOT MENTIONED IN CONSTITUION). Article 11 of the

constitution confers power on the parliament to make laws regarding citizenship. The Indian

Citizenship Act, 1955 was enacted in exercise of this provision.




1. The constitution has bestowed power in Supreme Court to see matters related to

election of Vice President.

2. The oath/affirmations of Vice President in the Constitution mention to preserve,

protect and defend the Constitution.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:

As per the Article 71, all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the

election of a president or vice President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme

court whose decision shall be final.

The oath/affirmations of only two bodies, President and Governor, mentions to preserve,

protect and defend the Constitution, Therefore, statement 2 is wrong. The oath of

Governor reads as:



Q9. Which among the following represents the effective monetary policy transmission?

a. Banks increasing the lending rate, when RBI reduces the Repo rate.

b. Banks reducing the lending rate, when RBI reduces the Repo rate.

c. Banks increasing lending rate, when RBI reduces the Reverse Repo rate.

d. Banks increasing the lending rate and deposit rates, when RBI reduces both Repo

and Reverse Repo rate

Solution: b

Explanation:

Effective or complete monetary policy transmission implies banks passing on the benefits

of RBI’s policy to the borrowers/public.

It means that if RBI reduces the Repo rate, this will increase the money supply or banks can

borrow from the RBI at lesser rates. This benefit of reduced Repo rate is transmitted to

public by reducing the lending rates to borrowers. Hence, only statement b is correct.

Q10. The appointment of District judges in a State are made by

a. The governor in consultation with the High Court of the State

b. Chief Minister in consultation with the High Court of the State

c. Chief Minister in consultation with the Chief Justice of India

d. Governor in consultation with the President

Solution: a



Explanation:

Article 233 of the Constitution states that:

Appointments and promotion of district judges in any state shall be made by the Governor of

the state in consultation with the high court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such state.

So, option (a) is correct.

Q11. Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for which of the

following?

1. Automotive Tyres

2. Cement

3. Cylinder, Valves and Regulator

4. Kitchen appliances


a. 2 and 3 only

b. 1 and 4 only

c. 1, 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d

Explanation:

All are correct.

In 2018, they asked:



You will go to below link and see the list. There are so many products, but you can just read

headings. It will take bit time, but just do once.

Link: https://bis.gov.in/index.php/product-certification/products-under-compulsory-

certification/


1. The United Nations has declared the years 2021 to 2030 as the new Decade of Action

for Road Safety.

2. Stockholm Declaration is related to Road Safety.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

As a part of 2021 Global Road Safety Week, the Decade Plan of Action for Road Safety

2021-2030 was launched by the United Nations. It is a global plan on road safety. The plan

is in line with the Stockholm Declaration. The plan calls for improving laws, designing rods

https://bis.gov.in/index.php/product-certification/products-under-compulsory-certification/

https://bis.gov.in/index.php/product-certification/products-under-compulsory-certification/



and vehicles and law enforcement on behavioural risks such as alcohol, speeding and

driving.

Q13. Consider the following statements regarding National Super Computing Mission

(NSM).

1. The mission is implemented by Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In).

2. Param Siddhi is the latest supercomputers released by India.

3. India’s latest supercomputer is with more than 10 petaflops high performance.


a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Iran recently launched its supercomputer called Simorgh. This supercomputer is hundred

times more powerful than the previous Iranian supercomputers.

About Mission:

The Mission envisages empowering our national academic and R&D institutions spread over

the country by installing a vast supercomputing grid comprising of more than 70 high-

performance computing facilities. These supercomputers will also be networked on the

National Supercomputing grid over the National Knowledge Network (NKN). The NKN is

another programme of the government which connects academic institutions and R&D labs

over a high-speed network.

First statement is incorrect:



NSM is jointly steered by the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) and Department of

Science and Technology (DST) and implemented by the Centre for Development of

Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru.

Second statement is correct.

Param Siddhi, the high-performance computing-artificial intelligence (HPC-AI)

supercomputer established under National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) at C-DAC has

achieved global ranking of 63 in TOP 500 most powerful non-distributed computer systems

in the world released on 16th November 2020.


The latest Supercomputer is with Rpeak of 5.267 Petaflops and 4.6 Petaflops Rmax

(Sustained).

In high-performance computing, Rmax and Rpeak are scores used to rank supercomputers

based on their performance using the LINPACK Benchmark.

The LINPACK Benchmarks are a measure of a system's floating point computing power.

Q14. Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) will:

1. impart quality education to ST children in remote areas

2. be established in every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000

tribal persons

3. administered by Ministry of HRD.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:

On May 17, 2021, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Microsoft signed a Memorandum of

Understanding on joint initiative for Digital Transformation of Tribal Schools which includes

introduction of Ashram Schools and Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) in tribal

areas.

First and second statement is correct:

EMRS started in the year 1997-98 to impart quality education to ST children in remote

areas in order to enable them to avail of opportunities in high and professional

educational courses and get employment in various sectors.



The schools focus not only on academic education but on the all-round development of the

students. Each school has a capacity of 480 students, catering to students from Class VI to

XII. Hitherto, grants were given for construction of schools and recurring expenses to the

State Governments under Grants under Article 275 (1) of the Constitution.

In order to give further impetus to EMRS, it has been decided that by the year 2022, every

block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons, will have an

EMRS. Eklavya schools will be on par with Navodaya Vidyalaya and will have special facilities

for preserving local art and culture besides providing training in sports and skill

development.

Third statement is incorrect.

It is under ministry of Tribal Affairs.


1. Mt Toubkal: Africa region

2. Lake Victoria: Between Brazil and Chile

3. Altas Mountains: North-Western Africa


a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: d

Explanation:




1. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) was created under Disaster

Management Act, 2005.

2. Prime Minister is the chairman of National Disaster Management Authority.

3. National Executive Committee under chairmanship of Union Home Ministry is set

up to assist National Disaster Management Authority.




a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:

Before explanation, please see below the definition of Disaster defined by National Disaster

Management Act, 2005. You will use this definition only to write answer on Disasters

taking place in India on daily basis.

As per the Disaster Management Act, 2005, “disaster” means a catastrophe, mishap,

calamity or grave occurrence in any area, arising from natural or man-made causes, or by

accident or negligence which results in substantial loss of life or human suffering or damage

to, and destruction of, property, or damage to, or degradation of, environment, and is of

such a nature or magnitude as to be beyond the coping capacity of the community of the

affected area.

A natural disaster includes earthquake, flood, landslide, cyclone, tsunami, urban flood,

heatwave; a man-made disaster can be nuclear, biological and chemical.

Coming back to question:

Prime Minister is the chairperson of National Disaster Management Authority.

National Disaster Response Fund was constituted under this Act only.

Union Home Minister is not the chairperson of National Executive Committee.



Q17. Arrange the following events of National Freedom Movement in their order of

sequence.

1. Formation of Independence of India League

2. Dandi March

3. Nehru Report

4. Lahore Congress session


a. 3-1-4-2

b. 3-4-1-2

c. 1-3-4-2

d. 3-1-2-4

Solution: a

Explanation:

• Nehru Report came in 1928.

• It was rejected by Jawahar Lal Nehru and other leaders which led to formation of

Independence of India League.

• Then in 1929 Lahore session was held where complete Independence was adopted

as a goal.

• Dandi March started from March 21, 1930.

Q18. Consider the following pairs.

Paintings Belongs to

1. Angika Paintings Bihar

2. Thangka Paintings Manipur

3. Paitkar Paintings Odisha

Which of the above is/are correctly matched?

a. 1 only

b. 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1 and 2 only



Solution: a

Explanation:

Paintings Belongs to

Angika (Manjusha)

Paintings

Bihar

Thangka Paintings Sikkim

Paitkar (scroll) Paintings Jharkhand


1. Capital output ratio is a measure of how much additional capital is needed to produce

each extra unit of the output.

2. A capital- output ratio of 4:1 is better than that of 3:1 for efficient economy.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:

A frequently used tool that explain the relationship between the level of investment made

in the economy and the consequent increase in GDP is capital output ratio. The concept of

capital output ratio expresses the relationship between the value of capital invested and the

value of output.

Capital output ratio is the amount of capital needed to produce one unit of output. For

example, suppose that investment in an economy, investment is 32% (of GDP), and the

economic growth corresponding to this level of investment is 8%.

Here, a Rs 32 investment produces an output of Rs 8. Capital output ratio is 32/8 or 4. In

other words, to produce one unit of output, 4 unit of capital is needed.

A capital output ratio of 4: 1 means that four units of extra capital is needed to produce one

extra unit of output. So, it is not good for the economy as compared to 3:1.

Q20. Which of the following provisions of the process of removal of SC judge is mentioned

in the Constitution?

1. The notice for the motion of removal of judges shall be signed by at least 100

members in case of Lok Sabha and 50 members of Rajya Sabha.



2. It is the discretion of Speaker whether she will accept or reject the motion.

3. The motion has to passed by both the Houses by special majority.

4. Violation of Constitution is the only ground mentioned for the removal of judges of

SC.


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: c

Explanation:

If you see question carefully, it is asked which of the following provisions are mentioned in

the Constitution.

In Constitution, it is written two things:

Now we will see clause (4):

From here, we can get say statement 3 is correct and statement 4 is wrong. Constitutional

mentions- “Proved misbehaviour and incapacity” as grounds for removal of SC judge.

Now, it’s time for First and Second Statement:

Here, both statements are correct, BUT THEY ARE NOT MENTIONED IN CONSTITUTION. So,

we have to eliminate them.

So, where they are mentioned and why?

If you see clause 5, it is written Parliament by law will decide the procedure.



So, Parliament enacted Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. In this Act, first two statements are

mentioned, NOT IN CONSTITUTION.

Q21. Consider the following statements regarding Electoral Bonds.

1. All political parties registered under Representation of the People Act, 1951 are

eligible under this scheme.

2. No interest shall be payable on the bond.

3. The bonds shall not be eligible for trading.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:



Only the political parties registered under section 29A of the Representation of the People

Act, 1951 and

secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last general election to the

House of the People or the Legislative Assembly, as the case may be, shall be eligible to

receive the bond. NOT ALL.

Interest. ––No interest shall be payable on the bond.

Trading of bonds. ––The bonds shall not be eligible for trading.

Link:

https://www.incometaxindia.gov.in/Communications/Notification/NotificationSO29_201

8.pdf

Q22. Which of the following body is responsible of naming of cyclones in India?

a. National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting

b. Regional Specialized Meteorological Centre

c. Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology

d. National Institute of Ocean Technology.

Solution: b

Explanation:

The Regional Specialized Meteorological Centre (RSMC) of Tropical Cyclones in New Delhi is

assigned the responsibility of issuing weather outlooks and tropical cyclone advisories for

the countries in the WMO/ESCAP Panel region bordering the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian

Sea. This is also the agency responsible for naming the cyclones in this region.

https://www.incometaxindia.gov.in/Communications/Notification/NotificationSO29_2018.pdf

https://www.incometaxindia.gov.in/Communications/Notification/NotificationSO29_2018.pdf




1. National Archives of India is the custodian of all `Public` records of Government of

India.

2. At present National Archives of India is an attached office under the Ministry of

Culture.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

National Archives of India is the custodian of all `Public` records of Government of India and

are available for use of `bonafide`research. Access to the records in National Archives of

India is governed by the provisions of Public Records Rules, 1997.

Access to public records is given to research scholars/users as per sub-section (2) of Section 11 of the Public Records Rules, 1997, which lays down the following guidelines: A person who intends to consult the public records shall apply to the Director General or Head of the Archives, as the case may be, in Form-8 (Link for Form 8 ) In addition to Form-8, foreign nationals intending to consult the public records may be permitted only on the production of letters of introduction from their sponsoring institution and diplomatic Mission. {sub-section (3) of Section 11 of the Public Records Rules, 1997}




1. The president has power to pardon the punishment or sentence of an individual by a

Court Martial.

2. If election of a President is declared void by Supreme Court, all acts of President before

this decision of Supreme Court is declared as invalidated.

Which of the above statements is correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:

We will see here article 71 and 72.

Q25. Consider the following pairs.

Mountains/Seas location

1. Pyrenees Mountains France and Spain



2. Kamchatka peninsula

Sea of Okhotsk and Bering Sea

3. Dead Sea Israel and Syria

Which of the above locations is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 2 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Mountains/Seas location

Pyrenees Mountains

France and Spain

Kamchatka peninsula

Sea of Okhotsk and Bering Sea

Dead Sea Israel and Jordan




1. Gandhiji became present of Indian National Congress in Belgaum session.

2. Formation of Swaraj Party

3. Passage of Poorna Swaraj Resolution

4. Nehru Report

Arrange the above events of Indian National movement in sequence.

a. 2-1-4-3

b. 1-2-4-3

c. 2-1-3-4

d. 2-4-1-3

Solution: a

The Swaraj Party was established as the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party. It was a political

party formed in India in January 1923 after the Gaya annual conference in December 1922

of the National Congress after Gandhi called off Non-cooperation Movement following

Chauri-Chaura incident.

Mahatma Gandhi became President of Indian National Congress at Belgaum session in

1924.



Nehru Report came in 1928.

The Indian National Congress, on 19 December 1929, passed the historic 'Poorna Swaraj'

(total independence) resolution at its Lahore session.

Q27. If there is rise in unemployment due to the adoption of Artificial Intelligence and

Industrial Revolution 4.0, it will be best described as:

a. Seasonal Unemployment

b. Structural Unemployment

c. Frictional Unemployment

d. Cyclical Unemployment

Solution: b

Explanation:

Structural unemployment results from mismatches between the skills required for

available jobs and the skills held by the unemployed. Even when there is plenty of job

availability, this mismatch means the unemployed cannot access jobs that fit their skill sets.

It is caused by fundamental shift in an economy and due to major changes in technology,

competition and government policy.

Q28. Consider the followings.

1. The increasing rate of interest on borrowings for commercial banks.

2. Central Bank selling government Securities under Open Market Operations.

3. Increasing indirect tax.

Which of the following steps can be taken to check inflation in economy?

1. 1 only

2. 1 and 2 only

3. 1 and 3 only

4. 2 and 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

Increasing rate of interest on borrowing for commercial banks will decrease the lending

capacity of banks. Hence, will help in controlling inflation.

Open Market Operations refer to sale and purchase of government securities and bonds by

the central bank. To control inflation, central bank sells the government securities to the

public through banks. This results in transfer of a part of bank deposit to central bank

account and reduces credit creation capacity of commercial banks.



Increase in indirect tax will increase the prices of goods and services and therefore, will

increase inflation. Third option is incorrect.


1. To be recognize as Ancient monuments, the structure should be in existence for not

less than 100 years.

2. The Constitution provides for the protection of monuments and places of national

importance.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

Ancient Monuments are defined by Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and

Remains Act, 1958.

Article 49 of DPSP provides for the Protection of monuments and places and objects of

national importance.



Q30. Farzad-B Gas Field is located in:

a. Persian Gulf

b. Indian Ocean

c. Iran-Iraq border

d. below Gwadar Port

Solution: a

Explanation:

It is in Persian Gulf.




1. India’s spending on health is not more than 2 percent of the GDP in last decade.

2. More than 50 per cent of deaths in India are caused by non-communicable diseases

(NCDs) in last decade.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:


This is much more evident when the total spending on health is measured in proportion to

GDP. In 2010-11, the overall spending on health formed 1.3% of the GDP. Since then, the

overall spending on health hovered between 1.2% & 1.3% in the ensuing years until 2016-

17. The spending increased to 1.4 % of the GDP in 2016-17 and remained the same for the

next few years. The RE for 2019-20 and BE for 2020-21 peg the share of overall spending on

health at 1.5% and 1.8% of the GDP respectively. The increase in 2020-21 is due to the extra

spending because of the pandemic.



Second statement is correct:

71 per cent of global deaths and about 65 per cent of deaths in India are caused by non-

communicable diseases (NCDs). Between 1990 and 2016, the contribution of NCDs

increased 37 per cent to 61 per cent of all deaths. Further, preventing communicable

diseases requires focus on better sanitation and drinking water, which the Swachh Bharat

and the Har Ghar Jal Abhiyan campaigns are focusing on.


1. India largely depends on imports for use of fertilizers in India.

2. Due to its over use, government has consistently reduced the subsidy on Fertilizers.

3. Government also give subsidy on city compost, a different category of fertilizers.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

Very general statements. You will know this question if you are consistently following daily

news thin from anywhere.

On May 19, 2021, the Government of India increased fertilizer subsidies to Rs 1,200 per bag.

Earlier, it was Rs 500 per bag. Thus, the subsidies have been increased by 140%. The prices



of fertilizers in the country are increasing at a faster rate. This is because prices of ammonia,

phosphoric acid, etc. are increasing internationally. They have increased by 60% to 70%

internationally.






City compost is a new category of fertilizers introduced in 2016

A third category of fertilizers, known as City Compost is given a fixed subsidy of ₹ 1500 per

tonne. This scheme was notified in 2016 to promote the use of city compost made from

garbage in cities, that would provide carbon and other primary and secondary nutrients to

the soil, in addition to keeping cities clean. And you see result of it:


Important sites location

1. Bhedaghat-Lametaghat Narmada Valley

2. Hire Benkal Megalithic Site

Karnataka


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

The following six places have successfully entered the tentative list of UNESCO World

Heritage sites.



• Ganga Ghats of Varanasi

• Temples of Kancheepuram in Tamil Nadu

• Satpura Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh

• Maharashtra Military Architecture

• Hire Benkal Megalithic site, Karnataka

• Bhedaghat Lametaghat of Narmada Valley in Madhya Pradesh

Link: https://whc.unesco.org/en/tentativelists/state=in

Q34. Which of the following countries have made successful landing on Mars?

1. India

2. China

3. Russia

4. US


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 3 and 4 only

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: c

Explanation:

China successfully landed the Zhurong rover on Mars Saturday, making it the country’s first

landing on another planet and the third country to perform a successful soft landing

successfully on Mars, after the former Soviet Union and the USA.

Isro's first Mars mission MOM-1 had successfully entered the Mars orbit on September 24,

2014, making India the first Asian country to reach the Martian orbit and the first nation in

the world to do so in its maiden attempt. Not landed.

Q35. Which of the following form border with Caspian and Black Sea both?

1. Russia

2. Iran

3. Azerbaijan

4. Georgia

5. Armenia


a. 1 and 5 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 4 only

d. 1 only

Solution: d

https://whc.unesco.org/en/tentativelists/state=in



Explanation:

Six countries border with the Black Sea, including Ukraine to the north, Russia and Georgia

to the east, Turkey to the south, and Bulgaria and Romania to the west.

Russia, Iran, Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan - all bordering the Caspian Sea




3. The constitution has bestowed power in Supreme Court to see matters related to

election of Vice President.

4. The oath/affirmations of Vice President in the Constitution mention to preserve,

protect and defend the Constitution.




e. 1 only

f. 2 only

g. Both 1 and 2

h. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:

As per the Article 71, all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the

election of a president or vice President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme

court whose decision shall be final.

The oath/affirmations of only two bodies, President and Governor, mentions to preserve,

protect and defend the Constitution, Therefore, statement 2 is wrong. The oath of

Governor reads as:



Q37. In the context of Indian Constitution, consider the following statements.

1. The discretion has been given to President to extend the jurisdiction of High Court to

Union Territories.

2. Parliament by law can establish a common High Court for two or more states.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

The discretion has been given to Parliament to extend the jurisdiction to Union Territories.

According to Article 231, Parliament may by law establish a common High Court for two or

more States or for two or more States and a Union territory.

Q38. Which of the following are the advantages of 'Genetically Modified (GM)' crops?



1. Increased efficacy of mineral usage in plants.

2. Increase the shelf life of the crops

3. Enhance Nutritional Value


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanations:

Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation are

called Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO).

GM plants have been useful in many ways. Genetic modifications have:

a. made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat).

b. reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops).

c. helped to reduce post-harvest losses.

d. increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants (this prevents early exhaustion of

fertility of soil).

e. enhanced nutritional value of food

f. increased the shelf life of food. Because GMO crops have a prolonged shelf life, it is

easier to transport them greater distances. This improvement makes it possible to

take excess food products from one community and deliver it to another that may be

experiencing a food shortage.

Q39. In the context of Ancient History, consider the following statements regarding

Harshavardhana.

1. He was given the title of ‘Sakolottarapathanath’ or the Lord of entire North India.

2. Pulkeshin-II was the contemporary South Indian ruler of Harshavardhana.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:



Harshavardhana was the sixth and last ruler of the Pushyabhuti dynasty of Thaneswar. With

immense military power, and strategic diplomatic moves, Harsha came to occupy a supreme

position in Northern India with Kanauj as his capital. Harshavardhana built up a large empire

which he ruled for forty-one years.

He was given the epithet of ‘Sakolottarapathanath’ or the Lord of entire North India, by

his Chalukya rival Pulkeshin II.

Few important things about Harshavardhana:

He was himself an erudite scholar and composed three plays, the Rantavalli, the

Priyadarshika and the Nagananda. He probably also composed the text of the two copper

plate inscriptions – Banskhera and Madhuban which bear his signature. Nalanda, the great

centre of learning, was located in his empire, and he is said to have given large grants to this

university.

When Pulkeshin II emerged as the undisputed master of the entire South, Emperor

Harshavardhana was seen as the sovereign monarch of the entire North. Having

established his supremacy on northern India, Harsha turned his attention towards the land

beyond the Vindhyas.

Q40. Consider the following National Parks.

1. Nokrek National Park

2. Murlen National Park

3. Namdapha National Park

Arrange the above National Parks from North to South.

a. 2-1-3

b. 3-1-2

c. 3-2-1

d. 1-3-2

Solution: b

Explanation:

If you know the name of states, it belongs to, you can easily correct this question.

Nokrek National Park (Meghalaya)

Murlen National Park (Mizoram)

Namdapha National Park (Arunachal Pradesh)

Now see the map of all above three states:




1. The setting up of a second chamber is not exclusively in the hands of the state

government.

2. Like Rajya Sabha, Legislative Council cannot be abolished.

3. Creation of Legislative Council needs an amendment to Constitution under Article

368.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 1 only

d. None.

Solution: c

Explanation:


The setting up of a second chamber is not exclusively in the hands of the state

government.

Second statement is incorrect: You can clear see in above mentioned Article, we can

abolish Legislative Council.




Q42. Consider the following statements regarding Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016.

1. The Ministry of Urban Affairs shall be responsible for overall monitoring the

implementation of these rules in the country.

2. The rules are applicable beyond municipal areas and have included special economic

zones, places of pilgrimage, religious and historical importance

3. This was the first category of waste management rules brought out by the ministry.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:



The new rules are now applicable beyond municipal areas and have included urban

agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, areas under the control of

Indian Railways, airports, special economic zones, places of pilgrimage, religious and

historical importance, and State and Central Government organizations in their ambit.




The Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change recently notified the new

Solid Waste Management Rules (SWM), 2016. These will replace the Municipal Solid Wastes

(Management and Handling) Rules, 2000, which have been in place for the past 16 years.

These rules are the sixth category of waste management rules brought out by the ministry,

as it has earlier notified plastic, e-waste, biomedical, hazardous and construction and

demolition waste management rules.

Pehle aaya, baad main aaya, such questions we have seen before in UPSC. So, thoda

practice kr lete h (English version: just practice)

Q43. Which of the following commodities listed as Essential Commodities under Essential

Commodities Act, 1955?



1. Fertilizers

2. seeds of food-crops and seeds of fruits and vegetables

3. edible oilseeds

4. hank yarn made wholly from cotton


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d

Explanation:

Seven commodities listed as Essential Commodities in the act

The Act defines an essential commodity as that which is specified in the Schedule. The

commodities specified in the Schedule are drugs (medicines used for diagnosis, treatment,

mitigation, or prevention of any disease or disorder in human beings or animals, as defined

under Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940), fertilizers, foodstuffs such as potato, onions, cereals,

edible oilseeds and oils, hank yarn made wholly from cotton, petroleum and petroleum

products, raw jute, jute textiles, and seeds of food-crops and seeds of fruits and vegetables.

Face masks and sanitizers were included in the list of essential commodities in the wake of

the COVID-19 outbreak, to enhance their production, avoid over-pricing, and make them

more accessible. It was later removed from the list once the purpose was served.

Section 3 of the Act states that ‘if the Central Government is of opinion that it is necessary or

expedient so to do for maintaining or increasing supplies of any essential commodity or for



securing their equitable distribution and availability at fair prices, it may, by order, provide

for regulating or prohibiting the production, supply and distribution thereof and trade and

commerce therein.’

Q44. Recently black fungus or Mucormycosis has been declared as a notifiable disease

under the epidemic act. What is this epidemic Act?

1. It was enacted recently to fight COVID Pandemic.

2. It gives power only to Central Government to put regulations on dangerous epidemic

disease.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:


HISTORY AND NEED OF THE EPIDEMIC ACT

Around September 1896, one case of Bubonic Plague was detected in Mandvi (then in

Bombay Presidency) now in Gujarat. Bombay Presidency was even then one of the most

densely populated areas due to rapid growth of commerce there. The plague epidemic

spread rapidly due to constant inflow of population; legend has it that there were almost

1900 reported deaths per week during the spread of epidemic. India, then under the rule of

Queen and British Parliament, had to act swiftly to prevent the plague from spreading to

rest of India. It was then that the Epidemic Act 1897, was enacted by the British

Parliament to curb in the spread of plague.

Second statement is incorrect.

SPECIAL PROVISIONS OF THE EPIDEMIC ACT

Section 2 of the Act provides with the special provisions for regulations to be imposed by

the government at the time of any dangerous epidemic disease. This provision gives

powers to the State Government if it is satisfied that any part of the state is affected by or

threatened to be affected by outbreak of any dangerous epidemic disease and if the

government feels that there are no measures in the ordinary provisions of law to deal with

the said epidemic, the State Government may take following measures for the safeguard of

the public at large which shall be temporary in nature in order to prevent the outbreak of

such a disease:

• To inspect the person travelling.



• Segregation of people suspected of being diagnosed with the disease in hospital, or

temporary accommodations or otherwise.

Q45. Consider the following Arab nations.

1. Saudi Arabia

2. Yemen

3. Oman

4. UAE

Which of the above nations does Tropic of Cancer Passes?

a. 1, 2 and 4 only

b. 1 and 4 only

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: D

Explanation:

Many students will leave this question without attempting. Please don’t be stupid to do

that. You know very well UAE and Yemen are far from each other (many times we have

covered in our daily quiz). So, a thin line of Tropic of Cancer won’t pass both the countries.

So, a and c option will be eliminated easily. Now, you can attempt. Now, you can blame luck

but after eliminating two options, if wrong.

Tropic of Cancer passes through Saudi Arabia, UAE and Oman (for middle east nations).




1. He was elected President of the Indian National Congress in 1909, 1918, 1932 and

1933.

2. He was the Founder of Hindu Mahasabha.

3. He was the Member of the Industrial Commission (1916-18).

Name the Person.

a. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar.

b. Lala Lajpat Rai

c. Madan Mohan Malaviya

d. Bipin Chandra Pal

Solution: c

Explanation:

See here, all statements will not be known to you. In UPSC also, one or sometimes two

statements will be completely out of your reach. Don’t get upset then. Here also, third

statement, you have no idea. Second statement, its compulsory to know.

Here the person is Madan Mohan Malaviya.

Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya, the founder of Banaras Hindu University (BHU), has been

conferred the Bharat Ratna along with former prime minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.

However, unlike Vajpayee, whose life and work are widely known and admired, not much is

known about Malaviya, who died in 1946, a year before India's Independence.

Malaviya was born on December 25, 1861, in Allahabad and studied in Calcutta University.

Malaviya is credited with popularising the term 'Satyameva Jayate' (Truth alone triumphs) -

India's national motto.

He was president of the party four times - in 1909, 1918, 1932 and 1933.

Malaviya is often described as a Hindu nationalist, but he always strived for Hindu-Muslim

unity. He gave two famous speeches on communal harmony- one in Lahore in 1922 and in

Kanpur 1931. Here is another one, an excerpt from his presidential address at the INC's

Calcutta session in 1933.

"I implore all Hindus and Mussalmans, Sikhs, Christians and Parsees and all other

countrymen to sink all communal differences and to establish political unity among all

sections of the people. In the midst of much darkness, I see a clear vision that the clouds

which have long been hanging over our heads are lifting. Let every son and daughter do his

or her duty to expedite the advent of dawn of the day of freedom and happiness. Truth is on

our side. Justice is with us. God will help us. We are sure to win. Vande Mataram."



The Hindu Mahasabha was formed to protect the rights of the Hindu community in British

India, after the formation of the All India Muslim League in 1906 and the British India

government's creation of separate Muslim electorate under the Morley-Minto reforms of

1909. Its Founders are :

a. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar.

b. Lala Lajpat Rai

c. Madan Mohan Malaviya

A Member of the Industrial Commission (1916-18). In 1932 Pt. Malaviya launched the All

India Swadeshi Sangh and issued a manifesto for "Buy Indian” as a means of easing India's

economic suffering and reducing the poverty of the masses.


1. Cabinet Committees are set up under Government of India (Transaction of Business)

Rules, 1961.

2. Under Article 77(3), the Constitution empowers the Parliament to make rules for the

more convenient transaction of the business of the Government.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanations:

Cabinet Committees are set up under Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules,

1961.

Under Article 77(3), the Constitution empowers the President to make rules for the more

convenient transaction of the business of the Government. See image below:

Q48. Consider the following bodies.

1. President

2. Vice- President

3. Speaker of Lok Sabha

https://cabsec.gov.in/writereaddata/transactionofbusinessrulescomplete/completeaobrules/english/1_Upload_30.pdf

https://cabsec.gov.in/writereaddata/transactionofbusinessrulescomplete/completeaobrules/english/1_Upload_30.pdf



4. Deputy Chairman of Legislative Council

5. Governor

Second schedule of Indian Constitution lists the emoluments of which of the following

Bodies?

a. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

b. 1, 3 and 4 only

c. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

d. All of the above

Solution: c

Explanation:

This question needs your bit attention. If you look at second schedule. It lists emoluments

for the:

President, Governors of States, Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People

and the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and

the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly and the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman

of the Legislative Council of a State, the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts

and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

It doesn’t contain for Vice President. This body is already covered under Chairman of

Rajya Sabha (Vice-President is ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha).

Q49. In the context of Ancient India, Bhoga-bhaga, kara, hiranya, dhanya are:

a. Revenue terms.

b. Administrative system of Guptas

c. Traders

d. Land grants to Brahmans

Solution: a

Explanations:

They are revenue terms.

In the inscriptions of eastern India belonging to C.E 400-700 we do not find any reference to

revenue terms. In central India, however, the charters of the Parivrajakas, the Uccakalpas,

the Vakatakas and the Sarabhapuriyas mention several important revenue terms such as

udranga, uparikara, bhogabhaga, kara, hiranya, dhanya, klipta and upaklipta.

Q50. Consider the following National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries.

1. Dalma Wildlife Sanctuary

2. Neora Valley National Park



3. Indravati National park

Which of the above National Parks belong to states through which River Ganga Passes?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: a

Explanation:

To solve this question, you need to first find the states through which river Ganga flows.

River Ganga flows through five states: Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and

West Bengal.

Dalma Wildlife Sanctuary is in Jharkhand

Neora National Park in West Bengal

Indravati National Park is in Chhattisgarh. Therefore option 4 is incorrect as river Ganga

doesn’t passes through Chhattisgarh.


1. Nominations to the World Heritage List will not be considered unless the nominated

property has already been included on the Tentative List.

2. World Heritage Committee has the final say on whether a property is inscribed on

the World Heritage List.

3. At present, India has 47 World Heritage Properties.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:

First statement is correct.

At present, India has 42 sites listed under Tentative List which is a pre-requisite condition

for inscription as World Heritage Site.




The World Heritage Committee meets once a year, and consists of representatives from 21

of the States Parties to the Convention elected by their General Assembly (Ye UN waala

General Assembly ni h).

As per Article 8(1) of the World Heritage Convention (or Rule 49 of the Rules of Procedure of the World Heritage Committee), the General Assembly of States Parties to the Convention meets during the sessions of the General Conference of UNESCO.



The Committee is responsible for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention,

defines the use of the World Heritage Fund and allocates financial assistance upon requests

from States Parties. It has the final say on whether a property is inscribed on the World

Heritage List. It examines reports on the state of conservation of inscribed properties and

asks States Parties to take action when properties are not being properly managed. It also

decides on the inscription or deletion of properties on the List of World Heritage in Danger.


At present, India has 38 World Heritage Properties. All the sites under the Ministry are

conserved as per ASI’s Conservation Policy and are in good shape.

Go to link given below and read all sites once.

Link: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1703267

Q52. Consider the following statements regarding Kyasanur forest disease (KFD).

1. It is highly contagious as person-to-person transmission takes place at very high

scale.

2. There is no specific treatment for KFD, but early hospitalization and supportive

therapy is important.

3. In India, KFD was first reported in Karnataka.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

News: Recently, researchers found a new point-of-care test to be highly sensitive for rapid diagnosis of Kyasanur forest disease (KFD) which is emerging as a new public health problem & challenge in India.


Kyasanur Forest disease (KFD) is caused by Kyasanur Forest disease virus (KFDV), a

member of the virus family Flaviviridae. KFDV was identified in 1957 when it was isolated

from a sick monkey from the Kyasanur Forest in Karnataka (formerly Mysore) State, India.

Since then, between 400-500 humans’ cases per year have been reported.

No person-to-person transmission has been described.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1703267



Hard ticks are the reservoir of KFD virus and once infected, remain so for life. Rodents,

shrews, and monkeys are common hosts for KFDV after being bitten by an infected tick.

KFDV can cause epizootics with high fatality in primates.


Treatment

There is no specific treatment for KFD, but early hospitalization and supportive therapy is

important. Supportive therapy includes the maintenance of hydration and the usual

precautions for patients with bleeding disorders.

Link: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/icmr-niv-develops-new-point-of-care-testing-

for-kyasanur-forest-disease-7324818/


1. Currently, US has the largest number of International Migrants in the world.

2. Currently, India has been the largest recipient of remittances in world.

3. Gulf region (Middle-East) alone contributes more than 50% of the total remittances

to India.


a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/icmr-niv-develops-new-point-of-care-testing-for-kyasanur-forest-disease-7324818/

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/icmr-niv-develops-new-point-of-care-testing-for-kyasanur-forest-disease-7324818/



Solution: d

Explanation:

First statement is correct.

Second and third statements are correct.

In 2020, in current US dollar terms, the top five remittance recipient countries were India,

China, Mexico, the Philippines, and Egypt (figure B1.1.1). India has been the largest recipient

of remittances since 2008. As a share of gross domestic product, by contrast, the top five

recipients in 2020 were smaller economies: Tonga, Lebanon, Kyrgyz Republic, Tajikistan and

El Salvador.



Q54. Banni Grasslands mostly observed in:

a. Gujarat

b. Western Ghats

c. North East Region

d. Eastern Coastal Plains



Solution: a

Explanation:


1. Black Sea borders 6 countries.

2. Caspian Sea borders 4 countries.

3. Aral Sea is between Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan.


a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Six countries border with the Black Sea, including Ukraine to the north, Russia and Georgia

to the east, Turkey to the south, and Bulgaria and Romania to the west.



Caspian Sea bounded by Kazakhstan from mid-north to mid-east, Russia from mid-north to

mid-west, Azerbaijan to the southwest, Iran to the south and adjacent corners, and

Turkmenistan along southern parts of its eastern coast.



Aral Sea, boundary between Kazakhstan to the north and Uzbekistan to the south.



Q56. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the

Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

2. Abolition of untouchability

3. Protection of the interests of minorities

4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines


a. 1, 2 and 4 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 1 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: c

Explanation:



Abolition of untouchability comes under Right to Equality. Easily eliminate. So, left with

only option c.

Protection of the interests of minorities comes under Cultural and Educational Rights.

Q57. Which among the following are the possible outcomes of printing more money to

monetize government debt?

1. Increase in inflation

2. Increase in economic output

3. Devaluation of currency

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

Printing more money does not increase economic output – it only increases the amount of

cash circulating in the economy. If more money is printed, consumers can demand more

goods, but if firms have still the same amount of goods, they will respond by putting up

prices. In such a scenario, printing money just causes inflation. So, statement 1 is correct

while statement 2 is not correct.

By printing money, they devalue the currency in three ways.

a. Firstly, printing money tends to be inflationary. Higher inflation makes a country less

competitive, leading to relatively lower demand for the country’s exports and hence

its currency.

b. Secondly, increasing the money supply enables the Central Bank to buy more foreign

currency, which drives down the value of the domestic currency.

c. Thirdly, by promising to print money and keep currency low, it discourages

speculators from buying that currency as it is less likely to be a good bet. So,

statement 3 is correct.



Q58. Consider the following statements:

1. The residuary power of legislation is vested with the Parliament of India.

2. In case of any conflict between the Union Law and the State Law (on a concurrent

subject), the decision of the Supreme Court of India is final regarding which law

among the two prevails.

3. The division of subjects between the Union and the States under the Seventh

Schedule can be altered by the Parliament through an amendment to the

Constitution of India.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct.

The residuary power of legislation is vested with the Parliament of India. Residuary subjects

are the matters which are not enumerated in any of the three lists.

Statement 2 is wrong. No role of Supreme Court.

In case of any conflict between the Union Law and the State Law (on a concurrent subject),

the former prevails. However, the State Law will prevail if it has been reserved for the

consideration of the President and has received her/his assent.

Statement 3 is correct:

The division of subjects between the Union and the States under the Seventh Schedule can

be altered by the Parliament with an amendment to the Constitution. Certain subjects like

Forests, Education have been moved from State List to Concurrent List via an amendment to

the Constitution.



Part XX of the Constitution deals with its amendment. Under Article 368(2), Parliament can

amend the Constitution by passing a Bill in “each House by a majority of the total

membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of

that House present and voting”. Thereafter, the Bill “shall be presented to the President

who shall give his assent… and thereupon the Constitution shall stand amended”.

However, if the amendment seeks to make a change in certain specific provisions, including

Articles 54, 55, 73, “Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI, or Chapter I of Part XI, or any

of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule, or the representation of States in Parliament,” etc.,

“the amendment shall also require to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one-half

of the States…”.

Q59. There is a growing concern about arsenic pollution in the Indian rivers. Which of the

following is/are the source(s) of arsenic pollution?

1. Pesticides

2. Metal smelting

3. preservation of timber


a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

All statements are correct here. Third statement seems something new but it is correct.

Copper and arsenic in the preservative protect the wood from insect and fungal attack.



Q60. Which of the above harappan sites located near the coast?

a. Chanhudaro

b. Balakot

c. Banawali

d. Rakhigarhi

Solution: b

Explanation:



Q61. Consider the following statements regarding National Green Tribunal.

1. NGT was established during priministership of Rajiv Gandhi.

2. The Chairperson has to a Judge of the Supreme Court of India or Chief Justice of a High

Court.

3. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down by the Code of Civil Procedure,

1908 but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice.

4. Any person aggrieved by order of the Tribunal can file an appeal to the Supreme Court.


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 3 and 4 only

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 2 and 4 only

Solution: c



Explanation:

Read this before proceeding to explanation: Purpose of setting up of NGT.

First statement is wrong, as you can see it was established in 2010.


Third statement is correct.

Fourth statement is correct:




1. Malayan giant squirrel is predominantly found in western Ghats region.

2. Predominantly arboreal, they live in the tropical and subtropical montane evergreen and dry

deciduous forests.

3. They aid in seed dispersal and play an important role in the local ecosystems.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

First statement is incorrect. Second statement is correct.

The Malayan giant squirrel is predominantly arboreal and lives in the tropical and subtropical

montane evergreen and dry deciduous forests of Sikkim, north Bengal and northeast India.

In India, is found in the forests of Northeast and is currently found in parts of West Bengal, Sikkim,

Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, and Nagaland.

India is home to three giant squirrel species and the other two are Indian Giant Squirrel and

Grizzled Giant Squirrel which are found in peninsular India.


Conservation Status:

1. IUCN Red List: Near Threatened.

2. CITES: Appendix II.

3. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I.

Link: https://india.mongabay.com/2021/05/common-yet-threatened-the-case-of-northeast-indias-

malayan-giant-squirrels/

Q63. Consider the following statements regarding World Health Assembly.

https://india.mongabay.com/2021/05/common-yet-threatened-the-case-of-northeast-indias-malayan-giant-squirrels/

https://india.mongabay.com/2021/05/common-yet-threatened-the-case-of-northeast-indias-malayan-giant-squirrels/



1. The World Health Assembly is the supreme decision-making body of WHO which determine

the policies of the Organization.

2. If a Member fails to meet its financial obligations to the Organization, the Health Assembly

may suspend the Member’s voting privileges.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

The World Health Assembly is the decision-making body of WHO. It is attended by delegations

from all WHO Member States and focuses on a specific health agenda prepared by the Executive

Board. The main functions of the World Health Assembly are to determine the policies of the

Organization, appoint the Director-General, supervise financial policies, and review and approve

the proposed programme budget. The Health Assembly is held annually in Geneva, Switzerland.

Governance takes place through the World Health Assembly, which is the supreme decision-making

body; and the Executive Board (currently chaired by Indian Health Minister), which gives effect to

the decisions and policies of the Health Assembly. The Organization is headed by the Director-

General, who is appointed by the Health Assembly on the nomination of the Executive Board.

Q64. Consider the following statements regarding Biomass co-firing.

1. It will help in reducing stubble burning and combat pollution.

2. It is effective process as raw Agro residue biomass can be directly used in coal thermal

plants.

3. Recently, it has been proposed to increase the level of co-firing from present 5% to higher

levels under National Mission on use of Biomass in coal based thermal power plants.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only



d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

First and third statements are correct.

In order to address the issue of air pollution due to farm stubble burning and to reduce carbon

footprints of thermal power generation, Ministry of Power has decided to set up a National Mission

on use of Biomass in coal based thermal power plants. This would further support the energy

transition in the country and our targets to move towards cleaner energy sources.

The "National Mission on use of biomass in thermal power plants" will have the following objectives;

(a) To increase the level of co-firing from present 5% to higher levels to have a larger share of

carbon neutral power generation from the thermal power plants.

(b) To take up R&D activity in boiler design to handle the higher amount of silica, alkalis in the

biomass pellets.

(c) To facilitate overcoming the constraints in supply chain of bio mass pellets and agro- residue and

its transport up to to the power plants.

(d) To consider regulatory issues in biomass co-firing.


Link: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1721473


1. Little Andaman

2. South Andaman

3. Port Blair

4. Duncan Passage

Arrange the above places from North to South.

a. 1-3-4-2

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1721473



b. 1-4-3-2

c. 3-1-2-4

d. 2-3-4-1

Solution: d

Explanation:

Q66. Consider the following statements with reference to the Forest Conservation Act,

1980:

1. It put restriction on state government for de-reservation of forests or use of forest

land for non-forest purpose.

2. FAC is chaired by Union Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b



Explanation:

The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 an Act of the Parliament of India to provide for the

conservation of forests and for matters connected therewith or ancillary or incidental

thereto. This law extends to the whole of India. It was enacted by the Parliament of India to

control further deforestation of Forest Areas in India and to regulate diversion of forest

lands for non-forestry purposes.

Section 2 of the Act is about the restriction on the State Government for de-reservation of

forests or use of forest land for non-forest purpose. As per the Act, prior

permission/approval of the Central Government is essential for De-reservation/ Diversion of

forest land for non-forestry purposes. So, statement 1 is correct.


1. Right to form Co-operative society is a fundamental Right.

2. Lord Curzon Passed Co-operative Society Act in British India.




a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave constitutional status and protection to

co-operative societies.

In this context, it made three changes in the constitution:

a. It made Right to form co-operatives a Fundamental Right (article19)

b. It introduced a new DPSP on promotion of co-operatives (Article 43-B)

c. It added a new part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled “The Co-operatives

Societies” (Article 243ZH TO 243ZT).

Taking cognizance of developments and to provide a legal basis for cooperative societies,

Government of India under leadership of Lord Curzon appointed Sir Edward Law Committee

with Mr. Nicholson as one of the members in 1901 to examine and recommend a course of

action. The Cooperative Societies Bill, based on the recommendations of this Committee,

was enacted on 25th March 1904.



Q68. Which of the following groups is most likely to benefit from an appreciation of the

Rupee?

1. Importers in India

2. Exporters in India

3. Borrowers through ECB

4. Exporters to India


a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 1 only

d. 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

Currency appreciation is an increase in the value of one currency in relation to another

currency.



Currencies appreciate against each other for a variety of reasons, including the government

policy, interest rates, trade balances and business cycles. A Rupee appreciation takes place

when its value increases in relation to other currency, say US Dollar. For instance, there

would be an appreciation in the Rupee if the dollar/rupee exchange rate moves from

₹70/$ to ₹65/$.

Importers in India would be benefitted as they would have to pay less in Rupee terms for

the same amount of (say dollar) imports in case of Rupee appreciation. So, statement 1 is

correct.

Exporters in India would stand to lose as they would receive less in Rupee terms for the

same amount of (say dollar) exports in case of Rupee appreciation. So, statement 2 is not

correct.

In the case of Rupee appreciation, entities in India borrowing under the ECB route would

have their borrowing costs reduced as they would have to pay less in Rupee terms. They

would benefit from the Rupee appreciation. So, statement 3 is correct.

Exporters to India would gain in case of the Rupee appreciation. For instance, a person

exporting Rs. 10,000 worth of goods to India from, say, the US will receive more in terms of

the US dollar if the Rupee appreciates from Rs. 70/$ to Rs. 65/$. So, statement 4 is correct.

Q69. Razmnama was the Persian version of which of the following Indian book?

a. Ramayana

b. Buddhacharita

c. Mahabharata

d. Bhagavad Gita

Solution: c

Explanation:

Translations of Sanskrit texts such as the Mahabharata and the Ramayana into Persian were

commissioned by the Mughal emperors. The Mahabharata was translated as the Razmnama

(Book of Wars). Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q70. With reference to the Election Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications of its members.

2. The Constitution has not specified the term of its members.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c



Explanation:

The Election Commission is a permanent and an independent body established by the

Constitution of India directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country. Article 324 of

the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of

elections to the Parliament, State legislatures, the office of President of India and the office

of Vice-President of India shall be vested in the Election Commission.

Though the Constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and

impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws can be noted, viz.,

1. The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational,

administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission. So,

statement 1 is correct.

2. The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election

Commission. So, statement 2 is correct. But sir, we have studied, his term is 6 years.

Yes, its term is 6 years but it’s not in Constitution.

Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of

Business)] Act, 1991 provides that.

Q71. As per the recent reports on Biodiversity, consider the following statements.

1. Area of land under protected areas has decreased drastically in last decade.

2. Aichi Targets adopted at Earth Summit called for protecting 17% of Earth’s land and

10% its marine environments by 2020.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:




The area of protected land on Earth has increased to seven times the size of India since

2010, according to a report released May 19 by the United Nations Environmental

Programme (UNEP) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Since 2010, an additional 2.1 million km2 of land and inland water ecosystems, and 18.8

million km2 of coastal waters and the ocean, has been placed within protected areas. At

the national level, 82% of countries and territories have succeeded in increasing their

protected area and OECM coverage.

You don’t have to answer according to report only. As this fact can’t be change that

protected areas have increased. So, this is more important to know that protected areas

have increased.

Second statement is also incorrect: numbers ni bhi yaad rehte toh ye ho jaata.

The 'Aichi Targets' were adopted by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) at its

Nagoya conference. It is a short-term plan provides a set of 20ambitious yet achievable

targets, collectively known as the Aichi Targets.



Targets have not been achieved fully as per Aichi, but we have done well.

Little more about Aichi:

In the COP-10 (CBD) meeting, the parties agreed that previous biodiversity protection

targets are not achieved, so we need to do come up with new plans and targets.

Plan Timeframe

Mid/Long term By 2050

Short term By 2020

This short-term plan is officially known as “Strategic Plan for Biodiversity 2011-2020”. It is a

ten-year framework for action by all countries to save biodiversity. This short-term plan

provides a set of 20 ambitious yet achievable targets, collectively known as the Aichi

Targets.

Aichi Targets= 20 targets, divided into 5 sections (A to E). Enough now. Read further

yourself.

Link: https://science.thewire.in/environment/protected-areas-now-cover-nearly-a-fifth-of-

earths-surface-un-says/

Q72. Consider the above pairs.

Active Volcanoes Location

1. Mauna Loa Island of Hawaii

2. Mount Nyiragongo Indonesia


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Active Volcanoes Location

1. Mauna Loa Island of Hawaii

2. Mount Nyiragongo Democratic Republic of the Congo

https://science.thewire.in/environment/protected-areas-now-cover-nearly-a-fifth-of-earths-surface-un-says/

https://science.thewire.in/environment/protected-areas-now-cover-nearly-a-fifth-of-earths-surface-un-says/



Q73. Consider the following statements regarding CITES (the Convention on International

Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora).

1. It is an agreement between governments to ensure that international trade in

specimens does not threaten the survival of the species.

2. Once a member country ratifies the Convention, county has to integrate national

laws with CITES framework.

3. Currently, only animal species are covered under the provisions of the CITES

convention.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:


CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and

Flora) is an international agreement between governments. Its aim is to ensure that

international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of

the species.

CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of IUCN (The World Conservation Union). The text of the Convention was finally agreed at a meeting of representatives of 80 countries in Washington, D.C., United States of America, on 3 March 1973, and on 1 July 1975 CITES entered in force.

The CITES Secretariat is administered by UNEP and is located at Geneva, Switzerland.


CITES is an international agreement to which States and regional economic integration

organizations adhere voluntarily. States that have agreed to be bound by the Convention

('joined' CITES) are known as Parties. Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in

other words they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of



national laws. Rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to

adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level.


How many species are listed in the CITES Appendices?

Around 25,000 plant species and 5,000 animal species are covered by the provisions of the

Convention, in the following proportions:

1) Appendix I: about 600 animal species and 300 plant species;

2) Appendix II: about 1,400 animal species and 25,000 plant species; and

3) Appendix III: about 270 animal species and 30 plant species.

India has ratified Convention:

Q74. The new species of African violet plant was recently discovered in:

a. Mizoram

b. Manipur

c. Meghalaya

d. Tripura

Solution: a

Explanation:

Researchers from the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Bhopal

have recently discovered a new species of plant belonging to the African Violets family in

Mizoram.

Didymocarpus is a genus belonging to the plant family Gesneriaceae (commonly known as

African Violets) and its members are distributed from Western Himalayas to Sumatra. Most

of these species are narrow endemics and require specialized habitats to survive, thus acting

as an indicator of pristine habitats. There are 106 currently known species of this genus, of

which 26 are present in the Northeastern states of India.

The newly described species is currently known from only three locations in Mizoram and

considered as an endangered species. It is an epiphyte (plants that grow on trees) and

produces light pink flowers during the monsoons.

Link: https://www.eastmojo.com/mizoram/2021/05/25/new-species-of-african-violet-

discovered-in-mizoram/

https://www.eastmojo.com/mizoram/2021/05/25/new-species-of-african-violet-discovered-in-mizoram/

https://www.eastmojo.com/mizoram/2021/05/25/new-species-of-african-violet-discovered-in-mizoram/




1. The composition and qualification of the Finance Commission is mentioned in the

Constitution.

2. The Constitution has given power to Governor to set up State Finance

Commission.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

So, to find correct explanations, lets first see below what is mentioned in Constitution.

Article 280 talks about Finance Commission

The President shall, within two years from the commencement of this Constitution and

thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year or at such earlier time as the President

considers necessary, by order constitute a Finance Commission which shall consist of a

Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President.

As per the provisions, we can see that Constitution only talks about Composition. The

Qualifications of Finance Commission is provided by the law enacted by the Parliament, i.e.,

THE FINANCE COMMISSION (MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS) ACT, 1951. Therefore

statement 1 is incorrect.

Article 243-I talks about State Finance Commission

The Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement

of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration



of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the

Panchayats and to make recommendations.

Q76. Consider the following statements regarding Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules,

2016.

1. These rules shall not apply to radioactive and hazardous wastes.

2. The operator of a common bio-medical waste treatment facility shall be liable for all

the damages caused to the environment.

3. Untreated soiled waste and, biotechnology waste shall not be stored beyond a

period of forty –eight hours.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

A similar question was asked in UPSC Prelims 2019. See below:



Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016 shall apply to all persons who generate,

collect, receive, store, transport, treat, dispose, or handle bio-medical waste in any form

and shall not apply to:

• radioactive wastes,

• wastes covered under the MSW Rules, 2000,

• lead acid batteries,

• hazardous wastes,

• E-waste,

• hazardous microorganisms



The occupier or an operator of a common bio-medical waste treatment facility shall be

liable for all the damages caused to the environment or the public due to improper handling

of bio- medical wastes.

Untreated human anatomical waste, animal anatomical waste, soiled waste and,

biotechnology waste shall not be stored beyond a period of forty –eight hours.

Q77. Pratisarga is one of the five subjects of Mahapuranas. Which of the following is

defined by Pratisarga?



a. the periodical process of destruction and re-creation

b. the original creation of the universe

c. the histories of the solar and lunar dynasties of Gods and sages

d. the genealogies of kings

Solution: a

Explanation:

The Mahapuranas have five subjects. These are:

1. Saga, the original creation of Universe

2. Pratisarga, the periodical process of destruction and re-creation

3. Manvantara, the different eras or cosmic cycles

4. Surya Vamsha and Chandra Vamsa, the histories of the solar and lunar dynasties of

Gods and sages and Vamshanucharita, the genealogies of king

Q78. In context of Indian history, who among the following represents Future Buddha?

a. Shakyamuni b. Rishabhdeva c. Maitreya d. Dipankara Solution: c Explanation:


1. High albedo results in increase in sea level due to faster melting of ice.



2. Deposition of Aerosols, particularly black carbon on arctic ice will decrease the

albedo of ice.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

If you know the concept of albedo, this question is not difficult. If you are solving this

question after attempting 5 questions of ancient History , then problem will definitely come.

Because that 5 questions from different planet will give you feeling that you won’t be able

to clear this exam anymore.

Please don’t get trapped. Everyone will face same situations in that 5 questions. But if you do

6th question (albedo) wrong, you are out of race. Now understand the small concept.

The amount of energy that is reflected by a surface is determined by the reflectivity of that

surface, called the albedo.

A high albedo means the surface reflects the majority of the radiation that hits it and

absorbs the rest.

A low albedo means a surface reflects a small amount of the incoming radiation and

absorbs the rest.

For instance, fresh snow reflects up to 95% of the incoming radiation. Therefore, fresh

snow has a high albedo of .95. By contrast, water reflects about 10% of the incoming

radiation, resulting in a low albedo of 10.



Low albedo means ice will absorb more heat, it will then melt and sea level increases.

Therefore, statement one is wrong.

Deposition of black carbon means, more heat will be absorbed, it will decrease the albedo

of ice. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Q80. Which of the following states/UTs share maximum International boundaries?

a. Jammu and Kashmir

b. Mizoram

c. Ladakh

d. Assam

Solution: c

Explanation:

Jammu and Kashmir shares boundary only with Pakistan.

Mizoram shares boundary with Bangladesh and Myanmar.

Assam shares boundary with Bangladesh and Bhutan

Ladakh shares boundary with Pakistan, China and Afghanistan.




1. India has enacted law, Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984' (PDPP), to

prevent damage to public property.

2. In India, right to strike is a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Constitution of

India.

3. To safeguard public property is one of the directives mentioned in DPSP od Indian

Constitution.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:





Right to Strike is not recognized as a Fundamental Right under our constitution. Strikes

gained recognition as a statutory right when the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 came into

force. It recognized the right to strike as well as the right to lock-outs of the workmen.

A strike is a modified form of Protest but still, Article 19(1) does not include the

fundamental right to strike but includes the fundamental right to protest, right to form

associations and trade unions.


It is Fundamental Duties.

Q82. Development and Welfare Board for Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic

Communities (DWBDNCs) for Development and Welfare was constituted by:

a. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

b. Ministry of Tribal Affairs.



c. National Commission of SC and STs.

d. NITI Aayog.

Solution: a

Explanation:

Ok, first of all why suddenly this question:

Recently, Uttarakhand high court has criticized state government for neglecting and forcing

families of Van Gujjars nomadic tribe to survive in conditions below animal’s existence.

Then we searched for: “Challenges Faced by Nomadic Tribes”. And we got very recent

news from PIB. And we framed question from this.

Ministry/Department of Social Justice and Empowerment vide Gazette Notification dated

21.02.2019 has constituted Development and Welfare Board for Denotified, Nomadic and

Semi-Nomadic Communities (DWBDNCs) for Development and Welfare of Denotified,

Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Communities for a period of three years extendable up to 5

years with following responsibilities:

1. To formulate and implement Welfare and Development programmes, as required, for

Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Communities.

2. To identify the locations/areas where these communities are densely populated.

3. To assess and identify gaps in accessing existing programmes and entitlements and to

collaborate with Ministries/implementing agencies to ensure that ongoing

programmes meet the special requirements of De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-

Nomadic Communities.

4. To monitor and evaluate the progress of the schemes of Government of India and the

States/UTs with reference to Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Communities.

The Department is implementing the Centrally Sponsored Scheme for educational

upliftment of De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNTs) namely Dr. Ambedkar

Pre & Post Matric Scholarship for students through Implementing Agencies (States/UTs).

The scheme of Pre-matric Scholarship for DNT students is helpful in spreading education

amongst DNT children especially the girl child.

Link: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1703752


Places in news Location

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1703752



1. Sichuan Province Japan

2. Tigray region Nigeria


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:

Places in news Location

Sichuan Province China

Tigray region Ethiopia

Q84. What would happen to the “money multiplier” in an economy, if the cash reserve ratio

(CRR) is reduced?



a. The money multiplier would increase.

b. The money multiplier would decrease.

c. The money multiplier would remain constant.

d. There is no relationship between the money multiplier and the cash reserve ratio

(CRR).

Solution: a

Explanation:

The money multiplier describes how an initial deposit leads to a greater final increase in

the total money supply.

When an initial deposit is made in the banks, the banks can further lend loans by keeping a

certain percentage as Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). For instance, if a deposit of Rs. 100 is made

into the banks, then the banks would have to keep Rs. 10 as reserve (considering CRR as

10%) and they may lend Rs. 90 in the form of loans.

Now, when this Rs. 90 is deposited into the bank again, the bank would keep Rs. 9 as

reserves and lend remaining Rs. 81 in the form of loans.

Thus, the initial deposit of Rs. 100 with the banks has led to the creation of money by the

banks in the form of new loans. This is referred to as “Money Multiplier”.

It is calculated as (1/R) where R is the “Reserve” requirement. Hence, the money multiplier

is inversely proportional to the reserve requirement, i.e., as the CRR is reduced, the money

multiplier would increase.


1. Zonal Councils were set up during prime ministership of Jawahar Lal Nehru.

2. Chief Minister and Governors of each zone are the members of the Zonal Council.

3. It is an advisory body which takes up issues of common interest of different states.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit

Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956. If you remember, something similar was asked in Prelims 2019:



Zonal Councils were set up under States Re-organisation Act, 1956. There are total five Zonal

Councils- North, South, West, East and Central.

Don’t include North-Eastern Zonal Councils in it. North Eastern Council is a statutory advisory body

constituted under the NEC Act 1971.




1. UAE

2. Strait of Hormuz

3. Oman

Arrange the above from North to South.

a. 2-1-3

b. 2-3-1

c. 1-2-3

d. 1-3-2

Solution: b

Explanation:

Here also, you need to look map very carefully. If we image map, UAE comes north to

Oman, but this is not correct.


1. Under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 the states have been

given responsibility to identify wetlands in their territories.



2. As per the recent Forest survey report 2019, Gujarat has the largest area of the wetlands.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

The new rules, Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017, notified by the environment

ministry, decentralize wetlands management by giving states powers to not only identify and notify

wetlands within their jurisdictions but also keep a watch on prohibited activities.

Gujarat has the largest area of the wetlands within RFA in the country followed by West Bengal.

Among the smaller States/UTs Puducherry followed by A&N Islands have large areas of wetlands

within Recorded Forest Area. In the country as a whole there are 62,466 wetlands covering 3.83% of

the area within the recorded forest areas/green wash areas of the country and 8.13% of the total

number of wetlands are located within the RFA.




1. The Constitution of India mentions no ground for removal of the Vice President.

2. The Indian Constitution has provisions of Proportional Representation (PR)

System for election of the Vice-President.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c



Explanation:

The Indian Constitution provides for Proportional Representation (PR) system for election of the

President, the Vice President, and for the elections to the Rajya Sabha and Vidhan

Parishads/Legislative Councils.

He can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority (i.e. a majority

of the total members of the House) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. But no such resolution can be

moved unless at least 14 days’ advance notice has been given. Notably, no ground has been

mentioned in the Constitution for his removal. See below:

Q89. In the context of Indian Constitution, consider the following statements.

1. The maximum number of representatives of the States in the Rajya Sabha has been fixed at

250.

2. The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha is done in accordance with a Statutory law enacted

by the Parliament of India.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:



The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250, out of which, only 238 are to be the

representatives of the States and Union Territories (elected indirectly) and 12 are nominated by

the President. Question asked is about representatives of States and UTs. So, read carefully.

The fourth schedule of the Constitution deals with allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the

States and Union Territories. It is not in the accordance with the law made by the Parliament.

So, both are incorrect. Option c is right answer.

Q90. Population momentum relates to which of the following?

a. It is the increase in the population, due to the increase in the birth rates.

b. It is the increase in the population, due to the decline in the death rates.

c. It is the increase in the population, due to access to better health services.

d. It is the increase in the population even after there is a decline in the birth rates, due to

large existing youthful population.

Solution: d

Explanation:

Population Momentum:

The phenomenon whereby population continues to increase even after a fall in the birth rates,

because the large existing youthful population expands the population’s base of potential parents.

Population momentum relates to the age structure of many developing countries’ populations. As

share of population, young people greatly outnumber their parents.

When their generation reaches adulthood, the number of potential parents will inevitably be much

larger than at present. It follows that even if these new parents have only enough children to replace

themselves (two per couple, as compared with their parents, who may have had four or more

children), the fact that the total number of couples having two children is much greater than the

number of couples who previously had more children means that the total population will still

increase substantially before levelling off.



Q91. Consider the following statements regarding Public Financial Management System

(PFMS).

1. It is implemented by the Controller General of Accounts (CGA) under Ministry of

Finance.

2. PFMS is integrated with the Core Banking system and has the unique capability to

first validate the account before pushing online payments to beneficiary.

3. Direct Benefit Transfer is kept out of the purview of PMFS.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 only

Solution: a

Explanation:

When you read such topics, don’t simply read one line, that it manages accounts and

finance of government. You need to read more.

We go to PFMS website and try to read all important things.


The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a web-based online software application

developed and implemented by the Controller General of Accounts (CGA), Department of

Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

The primary function of PFMS today is to facilitate sound Public Financial Management

System for Government of India by establishing an efficient fund flow system as well as a

payment cum accounting network. PFMS provides various stakeholders with a real time,

reliable and meaningful management information system and an effective decision support

system, as part of the Digital India initiative of Government of India.


As the backbone of the payment system of the Government of India, PFMS is integrated

with the Core Banking system in the Country, and hence, has the unique capability to first

validate the account before pushing online payments to almost every beneficiary/vendor.




PFMS started during 2009 with the objective of tracking funds released under all Plan

schemes of Government of India, and real time reporting of expenditure at all levels of

Programme implementation. Subsequently, the scope was enlarged to cover direct payment

to beneficiaries under all Schemes.

PFMS is also the channel for payment, accounting and reporting under Direct Benefit

Transfer. As such, every Department/Ministry of Government of India transfers funds

electronically to beneficiary (individual or institution) through PFMS. Further, State

Governments and the Implementing Agencies transfer the cash components to beneficiaries

through PFMS.

Link:

https://pfms.nic.in/static/NewLayoutCommonContent.aspx?RequestPagename=Static/Impl

ementation.aspx

Q92. Consider the following statements regarding Mid-Day Meal Scheme (MDMS).

1. One of the objectives is to increase the enrolment of the children belonging to

disadvantaged sections in the schools.

2. The Scheme is limited to government, government-aided and local body schools.

3. The School Management Committee (SMCs) mandated under NFS Act, 2013 play a vital

role in the monitoring of MDMS.


a. 1 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:


The main objectives of the MDM scheme are:

1. To increase the enrolment of the children belonging to disadvantaged sections in the

schools.

2. Leading enrolment to increased attendance in the schools.

3. To retain children studying in classes 1-8.

4. To provide nutritional support to the children of the elementary stage in drought-

affected areas.

Second statement is incorrect.

Till 2002, the scheme was only designed for government, government-aided and local

body schools. Later, children studying in Education Guarantee Scheme (EGS) and Alternative

& Innovative Education (AIE) centres too were included under the scheme.

https://pfms.nic.in/static/NewLayoutCommonContent.aspx?RequestPagename=Static/Implementation.aspx

https://pfms.nic.in/static/NewLayoutCommonContent.aspx?RequestPagename=Static/Implementation.aspx



In 2007, class 6-8 children studying in 3,479 Educationally Backwards Blocks (EBBs) were

included in the scheme.

SSA-supported madrasas and maktabs were included in this scheme in 2008.


The School Management Committee (SMCs) play a vital role in the monitoring of MDMS.

SMCs are mandated under the right to free and compulsory education act, 2009 or Right to

Education Act.



Also see,

Q93. Consider the following statements regarding Goods & Services Tax Council.

1. Secretary (Revenue) as the Ex-Officio Secretary to the GST Council.

2. One-half of the total number of Members of the Goods and Services Tax Council

shall constitute the quorum at its meetings.

3. It is joint forum of the Centre and the States, having equal voting rights of Centre

and all states together.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:


The Union Cabinet in its meeting held on 12th September, 2016 approved setting-up of GST

Council and setting up its Secretariat. The Cabinet inter alia took decisions for the following:

a. Creation of the GST Council as per Article 279A of the amended Constitution;

b. Creation of the GST Council Secretariat, with its office at New Delhi;

c. Appointment of the Secretary (Revenue) as the Ex-Officio Secretary to the GST

Council;

d. Inclusion of the Chairperson, Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC), as a

permanent invitee (non-voting) to all proceedings of the GST Council;

e. Create one post of Additional Secretary to the GST Council in the GST Council

Secretariat (at the level of Additional Secretary to the Government of India), and four



posts of Commissioner in the GST Council Secretariat (at the level of Joint Secretary to

the Government of India).


One-half of the total number of Members of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall

constitute the quorum at its meetings.


Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall be taken at a meeting, by a

majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and

voting, in accordance with the following principles, namely: —

the vote of the Central Government shall have a weightage of one third of the total votes

cast, and

the votes of all the State Governments taken together shall have a weightage of two-

thirds of the total votes cast, in that meeting.

Q94. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) scheme is administered by:

a. Department of Expenditure

b. Department of Revenue

c. Cabinet Secretariat

d. Ministry of Commerce

Solution: c

Explanation:

With the aim of reforming Government delivery system by re-engineering the existing

process in welfare schemes for simpler and faster flow of information/funds and to ensure

accurate targeting of the beneficiaries, de-duplication and reduction of fraud Direct Benefit

Transfer (DBT) was started on 1st January, 2013.

DBT Mission was created in the Planning Commission to act as the nodal point for the

implementation of the DBT programmes. The Mission was transferred to the Department

of Expenditure in July, 2013 and continue to function till 14.9.2015. To give more impetus,

DBT Mission and matters related thereto has been placed in Cabinet Secretariat under

Secretary (Co-ordination & PG) w.e.f. 14.9.2015.



Q95. Consider the following countries of South America.

1. Bolivia

2. Ecuador

3. Paraguay

4. Uruguay

Which of the above countries doesn’t share boundaries with Ocean?

a. 1, 3 and 4 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 4 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Except Bolivia and Paraguay, all other countries share boundaries with Oceans.




1. All States have to mandatorily constitute all the three tiers of Panchayats

irrespective of their size and population.

2. There is no provision for reservations for the OBCs in Panchayats as per the

Constitution.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

First statement is incorrect as the intermediary level body need not be constituted in

smaller States (with a population less than 20 lakhs). See below.

OBC reservation in Panchayats have been a policy step from states and not provided in the

constitution as such. This is a step taken by each state based on their requirement on the

upliftment of the backward class. The Constitution only mentions about reservation for SC

and ST.




1. Lok Sabha can make laws on matters included in the State List.

2. Lok Sabha controls the Executive by asking supplementary questions and through

No-confidence Motion.

3. Lok Sabha can alone initiate the procedure for the removal of Vice President.

Which among the above is not the power/s of the Lok Sabha?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

Under Article 249, Rajya Sabha gives the Union parliament power to make laws on

matters included in the State list.

Similarly, Statement 3 is the power of the Rajya Sabha. The Vice-President can be removed

from office by a resolution of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), passed by a majority of its

members at that time and agreed to by the House of the People (Lok Sabha). A resolution

for this purpose may be moved only after a notice of at least a minimum of 14 days has

been given of such an intention.

Statement 2 is the power of Lok Sabha as no-confidence motion is the exclusive concern of

Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha does not participate in it.


1. Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is defined by Indian Forest Act 1927.

2. Panchayat Raj (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act of 1996 endows power over

ownership of minor forest produce to the Gram Sabha.




a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

Those who are practicing daily this quiz and have marked this question wrong should feel

very proud today. We have asked first statement in previous quizzes. If you can’ revise after

giving weekly compilations, stop practicing. It won’t help. Please revise. Don’t worry. We will

work more harder together. We will clear Prelims.

Forests Act and Minor Forest Produce will be very important for 2020 Prelims Exam. We

will try to cover most the questions from this part.

Section 2(4) of the Indian Forest Act 1927 defines only "forest-produce" and this term

connotes to those products whether found in or brought from a forest.

Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is a subset of forest produce and got a definition only in 2007

when the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest

Rights) Act, 2006. Therefore, first statement is wrong.

Section 2(i) of the said Act defines a Minor Forest Produce (MFP) as all non-timber forest

produce of plant origin and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, Tusser, cocoon,

honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tuber and the

like.

PESA endows power over ownership of minor forest produce to the Gram Sabha.



Q99. Consider the following statements regarding Mediterranean Climate.

1. Hot, dry summers and cool, wet winters are the features of this climate,

2. It is found only in areas surrounding Mediterranean Sea only.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:



Entirely confined to the western portion of continental masses, between 30° and 45° north

and south of the equator. The basic cause of this type of climate is the shifting of the wind

belts.

Mediterranean Sea has the greatest extent of this type of ‘winter rain climate’ and gives

rise to the name Mediterranean Climate.

Clear skies and high temperatures; hot, dry summers and cool, wet winters are the

features of the Climate.

You can see from the above graph; it is not only limited to Mediterranean seas. The best

developed form of this climatic type is found in central Chile. Other Mediterranean regions

include California (around San Francisco), the south-western tip of Africa (around Cape

Town), southern Australia, and south-west Australia.

Q100.Consider the following saints.

1. Guru Nanak

2. Kabir

3. Tulsidas

Which of the above saints believed in “Nirakar” form of God?

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 3 only

Solution: c



Explanation:

Sakar is what we can see our naked eye. i.e. we need picture to believe in supreme power.

“Nirakar” is what we cannot see with our naked eyes. There is no shape in which we can fix

it. We don’t need picture to worship.

Few important saints you need to know.

a. Kabir, Namdev and Guru Nanak preached towards Nirakar form of God.

b. Surdas, Tulsidas, Mirabai, Chaitanya, belongs to Sakar form of God.

Q101. Which of the following is/are eligible categories under priority sector?

1. Loans to farmers for installation of solar power plants on barren/fallow land

2. Housing loans to banks’ own employees

3. Bank loans for power generators, biomass-based power generators

4. Loans to Minority communities as may be notified by Government of India


a. 2 and 3 only

b. 1 and 4 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Solution: c

Explanation:



Bank loans to Housing sector as per limits prescribed below are eligible for priority sector

classification:

a. Loans to individuals up to ₹35 lakh in metropolitan centres (with population of ten lakh

and above) and up to ₹25 lakh in other centres for purchase/construction of a dwelling



unit per family provided the overall cost of the dwelling unit in the metropolitan centre

and at other centres does not exceed ₹45 lakh and ₹30 lakh respectively.

b. Housing loans to banks’ own employees will not be eligible for classification under

the priority sector.


Renewable Energy

Bank loans up to a limit of ₹30 crore to borrowers for purposes like solar based power

generators, biomass-based power generators, wind mills, micro-hydel plants and for non-

conventional energy based public utilities, viz., street lighting systems and remote village

electrification etc., will be eligible for Priority Sector classification. For individual households,

the loan limit will be ₹10 lakh per borrower.

Fourth statement is correct:

Q102. Consider the following statements regarding Artemis Accords.

1. The Artemis Accords are a mechanism by which countries can participate in NASA’s

Artemis Programme.

2. India has recently signed Artemis Accord.

3. Artemis is a lunar exploration programme.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1 only

Solution: d

Explanation:




The purpose of these Accords is to establish a common vision via a practical set of

principles, guidelines, and best practices to enhance the governance of the civil exploration

and use of outer space with the intention of advancing the Artemis Program.

The principles set out in these Accords are intended to apply to civil space activities

conducted by the civil space agencies of each Signatory.

These activities may take place on the Moon, Mars, comets, and asteroids, including their

surfaces and sub surfaces, as well as in orbit of the Moon or Mars, in the Lagrangian

points for the Earth-Moon system, and in transit between these celestial bodies and

locations.

The Signatories intend to implement the principles set out in these Accords through their

own activities by taking, as appropriate, measures such as mission planning and contractual

mechanisms with entities acting on their behalf.


The Accords were signed by the directors of the national space agencies of countries: the

United States, Australia, Canada, Japan, Luxembourg, Italy, the United Kingdom, and the

United Arab Emirates and South Korea became the tenth signatory in May 2021.

Third statement is also correct:

NASA is committed to landing American astronauts, including the first woman and the next

man, on the Moon by 2024. Through the agency’s Artemis lunar exploration program, we

will use innovative new technologies and systems to explore more of the Moon than ever

before. We will collaborate with our commercial and international partners to establish

sustainable missions by 2028. And then we will use what we learn on and around the Moon

to take the next giant leap – sending astronauts to Mars.

Link: https://science.thewire.in/spaceflight/should-india-sign-the-artemis-accords/

Q103. Consider the following statements regarding Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTD).

1. NTDs are a group of infections that are most common among marginalized

communities in the developing regions.

2. Dengue, trachoma, Leishmaniasis are few examples of NTDs.

3. India has so far eliminated all kinds of NTDs recognized by WHO.


https://science.thewire.in/spaceflight/should-india-sign-the-artemis-accords/



a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:


Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs) can be defined as a diverse group of communicable

diseases that prevail in tropical and subtropical conditions. NTDs are a group of infections

that are most common among marginalized communities in the developing regions of

Africa, Asia and the Americas. They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as viruses,

bacteria, protozoa and parasitic worms.

Second statement is correct. Third is incorrect:



Of the 17 neglected tropical diseases which the World Health Organization recognized in

2017, six are common in India. Those 6 diseases are Lymphatic filariasis, kala-azar (Visceral

leishmaniasis), Leptospirosis, Rabies, Soil-transmitted helminthiasis, and Dengue fever.

In Test Series, we will ask whether National Health policy talks about it or not. So, those who

have enrolled, check it now itself.

Link: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/january-30-now-world-neglected-

tropical-diseases-day-wha-77157

Q104. Island Development Agency (IDA) in India is administered by:

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/january-30-now-world-neglected-tropical-diseases-day-wha-77157

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/january-30-now-world-neglected-tropical-diseases-day-wha-77157



a. Ministry of Home Affairs.

b. Ministry of Urban Affairs

c. Ministry of Shipping

d. Cabinet Secretariat

Solution: a

Explanation:

The IDA was constituted under the aegis of Ministry of Home Affairs to look into the

holistic development of islands.


1. Among its all-neighbor nations, India shares maximum land boundary with China.

2. Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh share same number of international boundaries.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

From the document of Ministry of Home Affairs,

Sikkim shares boundary with Nepal, Bhutan and China

Arunachal Pradesh shares boundary with China, Myanmar and Bhutan




1. The Constitution fixed the maximum and minimum number of members in

Legislative Councils.

2. One-third of members in Legislative Councils are nominated by Governor.

3. There is total 5 states with Legislative Councils.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:



Therefore, second statement is wrong.

Total 6 states have Legislative councils: Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh,

Karnataka, and Maharashtra.

Therefore, third statement is also wrong.

Q107. In the wake of COVID-19, consider the following statements regarding Epidemic

Diseases Act.

1. The Act gives power to both Central and State government to take action if there is

outbreak of any dangerous epidemic disease.

2. It is a pre-Independence Act.

3. The Act was introduced for the first time in India in last 3 decades.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1 only

Solution: a



Explanation:



Q108. Consider the following features of Indo-Islamic architecture:

1. Sloping walls

2. Combination of arch, lintel and beam

3. A profusion of red sandstones

Which of the features given above are the characteristics of Tughlaq era buildings?

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

The Tughlaq period had seen great building activity which marked the climax of the Delhi

Sultanate. The striking feature of the Tughlaq architecture was sloping wall, also known as

salami/bater. It gives the effect of strength and solidity to the building. So, the statement

(1) is correct.

Tughlaqs deliberately attempted to combine the principles of the arch, lintel and beam in

their buildings. This can be found in the buildings of Firoz Shah Tughlaq. Hauz Khas, which

was a pleasure resort and had a huge lake around it, alternate stories have arches and the

lintel and beam. So, the statement (2) is also correct.



The Tughlaqs did not generally use the red sandstone in their buildings but the cheaper

and more easily available Greystone. Since it was not easy to carve this type of stone, the

Tughlaq buildings have minimum decoration. So, the statement (3) is not correct.


1. The Election to the office of President is conducted through secret ballot.

2. A president is eligible for re-election.

3. The President can resign by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice president.

Which of the above statements is/are correct as per the provisions mentioned in the

Constitution?

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

All the three above statements are correct.



Q110. Tamasha Paintings are related to:

a. Mewar School of Paintings

b. Kishangarh School of Paintings

c. Marwar school of Paintings

d. Kangra Paintings

Solution: a

Explanation:

Tamasha Paintings are related to Mewar School of Paintings.

Mewar is a region in the south-central part of Rajasthan state of India. It includes the

present-day districts of Bhilwara, Chittorgarh, Rajsamand, Udaipur, Pirawa Tehsil of

Jhalawar District of Rajasthan, Neemuch and Mandsaur of Madhya Pradesh and some parts

of Gujarat.

quiz compilations – may part 2

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