quiz compilations- november,part one, 2020 · 2020. 12. 2. · goaltide ias academy 3 quiz...

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QUIZ COMPILATIONS- NOVEMBER,PART ONE, 2020

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QUIZ

COMPILATIONS-

NOVEMBER,PART

ONE, 2020

GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY

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Q1. With reference to the Dam projects in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Ministry of Water Resources, with assistance from the World Bank, took up the

DRIP Project to improve safety and operational performance of selected dam.

2. India has largest number of large dams in the world, which are operational.

3. Maharashtra has largest number of dams in India.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

You need to have a basic idea about this topic.

The Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) undertaken with funding

assistance from the World Bank in the year 2012 covered comprehensive rehabilitation

and improvement of 223 dam projects coupled with institutional capacity building for safe

and sustainable dam operations.

Now, Cabinet has approved Phase-2 and Phase-3.

The project development objectives of DRIP are: (i) to improve the safety and

performance of selected existing dams and associated appurtenances in a



sustainable manner, and (ii) to strengthen the dam safety institutional set-up in

participating states as well as at central level.

Second statement is incorrect.

India ranks third globally after China and US, with 5,334 large dams in operation. In

addition, about 411 dams are under construction. There are also several thousand

smaller dams.

Third Statement is correct:

The programme complements provisions in the Dam Safety Bill 2019, by ensuring

capacity building of the dam owners as well as the proposed regulators, and also create

necessary protocols for dam safety. The Bill has not been passed in Rajya Sabha still:



Q2. Consider the following statement regarding Quality Council of India.

1. It is a National Standard Body under Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion

responsible for formulating National Standards, certification, etc.

2. It is government dominated body, with 90 percent members of members belong to

government.

3. The activities of QCI are limited to industrial activities, such as formulating

standards for exports, imports, incentives to MSMEs.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a. 1 only

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

All statement are incorrect.

There is difference between Bureau of Indian Standard and Quality Council of India.

So, we will go to original website and learn the difference.

How QCI is different from BIS? First Statement is incorrect.

The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), the National Standards Body of India, is a

statutory body set up under the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986. The Bureau is a

body corporate and responsible for formulating National Standards. It comprises of

members representing the Industry, Consumer Organizations, Scientific & Research

Institutes and Professional Bodies, Technical Institutions, Central ministries, State

Governments and Members of Parliament.

Its main activities are: Standards Formulation, Certification, Laboratory Testing,

Calibration and Management, Standards Promotion and Training, International

Cooperation in the field of Standards.

Quality Council of India (QCI) is National Accreditation body. It is an autonomous body

under Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP). Its main activities are

development and implement accreditation schemes through its constituent boards,

promotion of quality, both national and international levels.

What is Accreditation?

Accreditation is the formal recognition by an accreditation authority to the technical and

organizational competence of a conformity assessment body to carry out a specific service

https://www.qcin.org/faq.php



in accordance with the standards and technical regulations as described in their scope of

accreditation. QCI is the accreditation authority in India.

Second Statement is incorrect:

Third statement is incorrect: It is not limited to industry.

What are the activities of QCI?

QCI operations are carried out by its constituent boards namely, National Accreditation

Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB), National Accreditation Board for Education and

Training (NABET), National Accreditation Board for Hospitals Healthcare Providers

(NABH), National Board for Quality Promotion (NBQP) and National Accreditation Board

for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL). For details of activities of various boards,

please logon to the links of respective boards on our website.

Read this also:



Q3. National Program and Project Management Policy Framework’ (NPMPF) was recently

launched in India to:

a. to bring reforms in the way infrastructure projects are executed in India.

b. To bring infrastructure improvements in MSME sector to increase their efficiency

c. To bring changes in Special Economic Zones in framing their export policy post

COVID Pandemic

d. To execute New Education Policy in India through zone mapping and development

Solution: a

Explanation:

NITI Aayog and Quality Council of India launched the ‘National Program and Project

Management Policy Framework’ (NPMPF), envisaged to bring radical reforms in the way infrastructure projects are executed in India. Lauding the initiative, Union Minister Nitin Gadkari said, ‘NPMPF will help in realizing the Prime Minister’s vision of an Aatmanirbhar Bharat by building a stronger India, in which we would need good quality infrastructure; we would need to reduce costs and waste

material, without compromising on the environment and ecology. We also need to ensure

time-bound and result-oriented delivery of projects.’ India will require an investment of around $4.5 trillion by 2040 to develop the

infrastructure for sustaining its economic growth. However, the challenges in

infrastructure development that often obstruct the smooth execution of projects can

be a detriment. So, we need such projects.

Link: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1668249

Q4. With reference to an organization known as ‘Birdlife International’ which of the

following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations which believes in local-to-

global approach for conservation.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1668249



2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization. 3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

Very important question. Such questions often comes in exam. Well prepared with it.

We will try to cover such questions. Just be consistent here.

First statement is also correct.

BirdLife International is a global partnership of conservation organizations (NGOs)

that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity, working with people

towards sustainability in the use of natural resources. Together we are over 100 BirdLife

Partners worldwide – one per country or territory – and growing.

They are driven by our belief that local people, working for nature in their own places but

connected nationally and internationally through our global Partnership, are the key to

sustaining all life on this planet. This unique local-to-global approach delivers high

impact and long-term conservation for the benefit of nature and people.

Second statement is wrong.

From where concept came is different story:

Third statement is also correct.



BirdLife’s Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) concept initially identified only

for terrestrial and freshwater environments, but over the past decade, the IBA process and

method has been adapted and applied in the marine realm.

Q5. Which of the following countries form border with both Atlantic Ocean and

Mediterranean Sea?

1. Portugal

2. France

3. Germany

4. Spain

Select the correct code.

a. 1, 2 and 4 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 1, 2 and 3 only

d. 3 and 4 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

Q6. Consider the following statements:

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a

bill in the Lok Sabha only.



2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the

Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of one-

third of the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:

An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by introduction of a bill in either

house of the Parliament.

If the bill seeks to amends the Federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified

by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority.

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding Financial Emergency mentioned in Indian

Constitution.

1. The Financial Emergency drew inspiration from the National Recovery Act of the

United States, passed in the year 1933 to combat the aftereffects of the great

depression

2. During Financial Emergency, President may issue directions for the reduction of

salaries and allowances of Judges of the Supreme Court and the high court.



3. Financial Emergency (FM) has been imposed in our country once when the worst

financial crises hit our country in 1991.


a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

Very easy questions, if you know last two statements.

Article 360 titled 'Provisions as to financial emergency' enables:

a. The President to proclaim financial emergency, if he is satisfied that the financial

stability or credit of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened

b. The executive authority of the Union to direct any State to observe such canons of

financial propriety as may be specified in the directions

c. The executive authority of the Union to give "such other directions" to the States "as

the President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose"; and

d. The President to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all

or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union including

the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

Financial Emergency (FM) has never been imposed in our country even when the

worst financial crises hit our country in 1991. Third statement is wrong. So, now you

are left with options 1 and 2. 1 is in both options, so you should know second statement.

One of the debates of BR Ambedkar:

Dr. Ambedkar explained that draft Article 360 drew inspiration from the National

Recovery Act of the United States, passed in the year 1933 to combat the aftereffects of

the great depression. The National Recovery Act could never be effectively used, since it was

struck down by the United States Supreme Court, soon after its enactment. To prevent such a

situation from befalling upon any prospective Indian legislation, the framers of the

Constitution deemed it fit to introduce financial emergency provisions in the

Constitution itself.

Q8. Which of the following factors will give the strongest upwards push to inflation?

a. An increase in the salary of government employees financed from domestic

borrowing

b. An increase in the salary of government employees financed from printing new

currency



c. An increase in the salary of government employees financed from revenue

resources without causing a fiscal deficit

d. An increase in the salary of government employees financed from cutting

government expenditure in other sectors

Solution: b

Explanation:

An increase in salary pumps more money in the economy which creates more demand for

goods and services and leads to inflation in the short-term.

However, this money supply will NOT increase if resources were shifted from one part of the economy (let’s say maintaining roads) to the other (increasing salary of employees). This is the case in Option C and Option D.

In option A, there is a high chance of inflation because money is being borrowed

(which may have lied dormant) to finance this salary increase. But the chance is the

highest in option B because there is a fresh stock of money coming in which was non-

existent before. In option A, the existing money was being recycled from one pocket to

another pocket, which is not the case with option B.

Q9. The calculation of Nominal GDP will be unaffected by:

1. Inflation levels in the economy

2. Level of employment in the country given constant output

3. Net Factor income from abroad

4. Volume of import of final goods

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a. 2, 3 and 4 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 and 4 only

Solution: d

EXPLANATION:

Agar basics ni pta h toh, exam ke alawa, life main bhi kuch ni ho paayga (English version: If you don’t know basics, forget exam, in life also in future, you won’t succeed). Have clarity with definitions.



Statement 1: The level of inflation will have a bearing on nominal GDP, but not real

GDP. Nominal GDP takes into account price rise.

Statement 2: GDP calculations do not consider employment level.

Statement 3: GDP is concerned with what is produced within the country’s territory whether it is produced by the citizens or foreigners working in the country. Within

NFIA, the component of production happening within a country will be considered as a part

of GDP.

Statement 4: Imports will not be considered a part of GDP because they are not produced within the country’s territory. Therefore, 2 and 4 doesn’t affect Nominal GDP.

Q10. Panna Tiger Reserve is:

1. Situated at Aravalli mountain range

2. River Ken flows through it


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

Situated in the Vindhyan mountain range in the northern part of Madhya Pradesh, Panna

Tiger Reserve is spread over the Panna and Chhatarpur districts. The terrain here consists

of extensive plateaus and gorges. This reserve contains the last remaining tiger habitat of

North Madhya Pradesh.

River Ken flows through it.



Q11. Consider the following statements regarding Code on Social Security 2020.

1. Under this code, Gig workers and unorganized workers made eligible for welfare

measures.

2. Aadhaar number is made mandatory for availing benefits and services under the

Code.

3. The Code empowers the Central Government to defer the provisions of the Code in

the event of a national disaster or pandemic.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

The Code on Social Security, 2020 consolidates nine different central laws:

a. The Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952

b. The Employees State Insurance Act, 1948

c. The Maternity Benefit Act,1961



d. The Building and other Construction Workers Cess Act

e. The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972

f. The Employees Exchange (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959

g. The Cine Workers Welfare Fund Act, 1981

h. The Unorganized Workers' Social Security Act, 2008

i. Employees Compensation Act, 1923

j. The Code repeals the above enactments.

The Code repeals the above enactments.

A striking feature of this code is: Gig workers, Platform workers, unorganized workers

made eligible for welfare measures. First Statement is correct.

No, we will define all three:

The Code defines "gig worker" as a person who performs work or participates in a work

arrangement and earns from such activities outside of traditional employer-employee

relationship (Section 2(35). This will cover those who work as delivery persons for online

food delivery platforms, e-commerce sites etc.

'Platform worker' is a person who has a work arrangement outside of a traditional

employer-employee relationship in which organisations or individuals use an online

platform to access other organisations or individuals to solve specific problems or to

provide specific services or any such other activities which may be notified by the Central

Government, in exchange for payment(Section 2(60)).

"Unorganised worker" means a home-based worker, self-employed worker or a wage

worker in the Unorganised sector and includes a worker in the organised sector who is not



covered by the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 or Chapters III to VII of the Code(Section

2(86)).

Second statement is correct:

Application of Aadhaar:

Aadhaar number is made mandatory for availing benefits and services under the Code.

Third statement is correct:

Power to defer application of the Code in the event of disaster, pandemic:

The Code empowers the Central Government to defer the application of the provisions of

the Code for a period of three months in the event of a national disaster, pandemic or

endemic.

No one will explain you like this. It helps you to remember topics and you will never

forget. Just follow us regularly.



Q12. Consider the following statements regarding Panchayati raj Extension to Scheduled

Areas Act, (PESA).

1. It ensures self-governance through traditional Gram Sabhas for people living in the

Scheduled Areas, identified by the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. The Gram Sabha shall be consulted before making the acquisition of land in the

Scheduled Areas for development projects but the implementation of the projects in

the Scheduled Areas shall be coordinated at the State level.

3. Criteria for declaring Scheduled Area is not spelt in the Constitution.


a. 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

Have clear understanding of such topics. Very minute things are hidden under such

topics.

Village level democracy became a real prospect for India in 1992 with the 73rd amendment

to the Constitution, which mandated that resources, responsibility and decision making be

passed on from central government to the lowest unit of the governance, the Gram Sabha

or the Village Assembly. A three-tier structure of local self-government was envisaged

under this amendment.

Since the laws do not automatically cover the scheduled areas, the PESA Act was in acted

on 24 December 1996 to enable Tribal Self Rule in these areas. The Act extended the

provisions of Panchayats to the tribal areas of nine states that have Fifth Schedule Areas.

Most of the North eastern states under Sixth Schedule Areas (where autonomous councils

exist) are not covered by PESA, as these states have their own Autonomous councils for

governance.

The Panchayati raj Extension to Scheduled Areas Act, 1996 (PESA) has made it

mandatory for states having scheduled areas to make specific provisions for giving

wide-ranging powers to tribals on matters relating to decision making and development of

their community.



First Statement is incorrect:

PESA is a law enacted by the Government of India for ensuring self-governance through

traditional Gram Sabhas for people living in the Scheduled Areas of India. Scheduled Areas

are areas identified by the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India. NOT SIXTH.

Declaration of 5th Schedule

a. As per the Constitutional provision under Article 244 (1) of the Constitution of India, the ‘Scheduled Areas’ are defined as ‘such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas’ – as per paragraph 6(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the

Constitution of India.

b. The specification of “Scheduled Areas” in relation to a State is by a notified order of

the President, after consultation with the Governor of that State.

c. In accordance with the provisions of paragraph 6(2) of the Fifth Schedule of the

Constitution of India, the President may increase the area of any Scheduled Area

in a State after consultation with the Governor of that State; and make fresh

orders redefining the areas which are to be Scheduled Areas in relation to any State.

d. At present, Scheduled Areas have been declared in the States of Andhra Pradesh

(including Telangana), Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya

Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan.

Criteria for declaring Scheduled Area The criteria for declaring any area as a “Scheduled Area” under the Fifth Schedule are: a. Preponderance of tribal population,

b. Compactness and reasonable size of the area,

c. A viable administrative entity such as a district, block or taluk, and

d. Economic backwardness of the area as compared to the neighbouring areas.

https://tribal.nic.in/declarationof5thSchedule.aspx



These criteria are not spelt out in the Constitution of India but have become well

established. Accordingly, since the year 1950 to 2007 Constitutional Order relating to

Scheduled Areas have been notified. Third statement is correct.


This statement comes into picture when we talk of ineffectiveness of PESA.

What PESA states:

But this has been violated. How?

a. As the situation stands at present, no gram sabha can hope to function without going

through revenue officers at various levels, and in a majority of cases, required

sanctions are denied by inordinate delays or outright refusals.

b. No stretch of common property can in anyway be rightfully owned and controlled by any village, communities, groups, or people. And the gram sabha’s power to accord such ownership is never recognised.

We will give few examples to substantiate this:

Under section 4 (i) of the Act, the authority of both the gram sabha and other panchayat

bodies have been whittled down by saying that actual planning and implementation

shall be coordinated at the state level. Second statement is correct.

PESA has also provided for an “either-or option” between the gram sabha or the panchayat while deciding certain matters. Though the gram sabha remains the common

forum of reference, consultation with the gram sabha can be substituted with an

appropriate panchayat body prior to land acquisition or, settlement and rehabilitation

of displaced people in scheduled areas.


QUIZ COMPILATIONS- NOVEMBER,PART ONE, 2020 Such an ‘either-or’ approach in these respects has legitimized the centralizing drives of most of the state legislatures for divesting the gram sabha of control and authority over

certain crucial issues. For example:

For quiz, I think we should stop here. Don’t sleep, move to next question.

Q13. “Green Windows” recently seen in news is:

a. public entities created to work with the private sector to increase investment in

green energy

b. open window to facilitate credit availability to MSMEs sector

c. to create awareness among students in all public and private schools about

Environment

d. An alternative fuel for Aeroplanes in India.

Solution: a

Explanation:

Green windows, like green banks, are public entities created to work with the

private sector to increase investment in green energy and bring clean energy financing

into the mainstream. They are innovative and new tools that have been successful in the

United Kingdom, Australia, Japan, Malaysia and the United States.

It is an initiative of Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA).

Q14. Consider the following countries.

1. West Bank

2. Jordan

3. Gaza Strip

4. Lebanon

Which of the above share/s boundary with Mediterranean Sea?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 3 and 4 only

Solution: d

Explanation:



Q15. With respect to the members of Legislative Council, consider the following

statements.

1. If a person elected as a member of Legislative Council declared as of unsound mind,

the final decision to disqualify him remains with Governor.

2. Every member of the Legislative Council of a State shall, before taking his seat, make

and subscribe before the Governor or person appointed by him.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

Both statements are correct. Read three articles given below:




First statement is correct.,

Q16. In the context of India, consider the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha.

1. Government of India Act, 1919 provided that the Indian Legislature shall consist of

two chambers, namely the Council of State and the House of Assembly.

2. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was the first Vice-President of India and the first Chairman of

the Rajya Sabha.

3. One-third of the members of Rajya Sabha shall retire on the expiration of every year.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3



Solution: a

Explanation:

In India, a Second Chamber was envisaged for the first time under the Montague

Chelmsford Reforms proposals. The Government of India Act, 1919 accordingly,

provided that the Indian Legislature shall consist of the Governor-General and the two

chambers, namely the Council of State and the House of Assembly.

Third statement is incorrect.



Q17. Which among the following are the work areas of IUCN (International Union for

Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources)?

1. Biodiversity Conservation

2. Poverty Alleviation

3. Gender Equality

Choose the correct answer using codes given below.

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1,2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

You have always read IUCN maintains Red list, so Biodiversity Conservation is good but what about other?? All are included. Don’t get confused. If you don’t read topics from original websites problem will come. We are trying to reduce your problem in all

possible ways. Just be consistent. Always try to read topics from original website.

Since its establishment in 1948, IUCN has become the global authority on the status of the

natural world and the measures needed to safeguard it. The knowledge and the tools IUCN

provide are critical for ensuring that human progress, economic development and nature

conservation take place together. IUCN is a membership Union composed of both

government and civil society organisations.

In the early 2000s, IUCN developed its business engagement strategy. Prioritising sectors

with a significant impact on nature and livelihoods, such as mining and oil and gas, its aim

is to ensure that any use of natural resources is equitable and ecologically sustainable.

Later in the 2000s, IUCN pioneered ‘nature-based solutions’ – actions to conserve nature

which also address global challenges, such as food and water security, climate change

and poverty reduction.

Q18. Consider the following:

1. Photosynthesis

2. Respiration

3. Decay of organic matter

4. Volcanic action

Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth?

a. 1 and 4 only

b. 2 and 3 only

https://www.iucn.org/about/iucn-a-brief-history



c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: c

Explanation:

Photosynthesis takes out CO2 from carbon cycle. Rest all ads CO2. Its like you can

understand easily, no need to explain all factors.

Every volcanic eruption that occurs on planet Earth is full of pollutants. Not just ash and

dust, mind you, but also carbon dioxide: one of the strongest greenhouse gases on our

planet.

Q19.A nation can be economically wealthy if one of the following is present despite the

relative scarcity of the other three options:

a. Bounty of natural resources

b. Technological prowess with a very limited supply of labour

c. Large availability of land

d. Efficient transformation of resources through an organized production process

Solution: d

Options A and C: It is not that countries which are endowed with a bounty of natural

wealth – minerals or forests or the most fertile lands – are naturally the richest countries.

In fact, the resource rich Africa and Latin America have some of the poorest countries in the

world, whereas many prosperous countries have scarcely any natural wealth.



Option B: If you do not have labour and only have technology, you cannot produce more

because there are not many people to consumer more (considering labourers are the

consumers).

Option D: There was a time when possession of natural resources was the most important

consideration but even then, the resource had to be transformed through a production

process. The economic wealth, or well-being, of a country thus does not necessarily depend

on the mere possession of resources; the point is how these resources are used in

generating a flow of production and how, as a consequence, income and wealth are

generated from that process.

Q20. River that flows through Jim Corbett National Park is:

1. Kosi

2. Ramganga

3. Yamuna

4. Kali River

Select the correct code:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 and 4 only

d. 1 only

Solution: a

Explanation:

The Ramganga river (West) along with its significant tributaries Sonanadi, Palain and

Mandal forms the prominent hydrological resource for the Corbett. The river Kosi also

flows by national park and serves as the significant water resources for the nearby area.

The major portion of the Corbett wild is situated on the bank of River Kosi.

Q21. Consider the following statements.

1. There is no legal statute that regulates Extradition in India.

2. Ministry of Home Affairs is the Nodal Authority that administers the Extradition Act.

3. India has not signed any Extradition treaty with UK, which is major reason for

delaying in the process of extradition of fugitives.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only



c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

First Statement is incorrect:

Second Statement is incorrect:

Third Statement is incorrect:

The Extradition Treaty between the UK and India was signed on 22 September 1992

and was ratified on 15 November 1993.



Ok see something more:

India has extradition treaties with 50 countries and extradition arrangements with 11

countries. Extradition treaties are bilateral treaties which provide a defined legal

framework and obligates the contracting states to extradite to each other, individuals that

are accused, charged with or convicted of extraditable offences. On the other hand,

extradition arrangements are non-binding and do not carry legal obligations on the

party states.

So, if question appears something, more than 100 countries, India has treaty with,

you shout and say NO… (these out of syllabus statements will help you to remember things).

Q22. Consider the following Places.

1. Saudi Arabia

2. Oman

3. UAE

4. Yemen

5. Kuwait

Which of the following is/are members of Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) and Tropic of

Cancer Passes through it?


a. 4 and 5 only

b. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

Members of Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) are Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi

Arabia and the United Arab Emirate.



Tropic of Cancer passes through Saudi Arabia, Oman, UAE.

Q23. In context of total installed capacity in India, consider the following statements.

1. Total installed capacity from Renewable Energy Sources is more than Hydropower.

2. Share of Nuclear Energy is less than 5 percent in total installed capacity.

3. Among renewables, more than 80 percent is contributed by Solar Energy.


a. 2 only



b. 1 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

Clearly see the data given below: Data is dated as: 30.06.2020. Now, any question

comes, you can answer them.

First Statement is correct.

Second statement is correct. If you calculate Nuclear Energy contribution, it is less

than 2 percent.

Third statement is incorrect. Wind and Solar are almost equal.

Q24. Consider the following statement regarding National Monsoon Mission.

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

2. It aims to improve the forecasting skills by setting up a state-of-the-art dynamic

prediction system for monsoon rainfall different time scales.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

News was:



Just have basic idea about the mission. Mission is under Ministry of Earth Sciences.

Q25. Consider the following statements regarding National Greene Tribunal.

1. It provides relief and compensation to the victims of pollution and other

environmental damage.



2. Any person aggrieved by the decision of Tribunal can file an appeal to Supreme

Court.

3. The Tribunal shall be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil

Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.

4. The Chairperson of the tribunal is appointed by the Government who has been

expert in the field of environment and public affairs.


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1 and 4 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

First statement is correct.

Section 15 and 16 of the Act states that:

Provide relief and compensation to the victims of pollution and other environmental

damage arising under the environmental acts, and

Hear appeal from any person aggrieved by any order or decision related to environmental

matters.

Statement 2 is correct:

Statement 3 is incorrect:



Statement 4 is incorrect:

Q26. Consider the following regarding National Productivity Council.

1. It is a statutory body under Ministry of Commerce.

2. It is an autonomous, non-profit organization with equal representation from employer’s & worker’s organizations and Government

3. NPC is a constituent of the Tokyo-based Asian Productivity Organization (APO), of

which the Government of India is a founder member.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

National Productivity Council (NPC) is a national level autonomous organization under the

administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce to promote productivity culture in

India. It is not a statutory body. First Statement is incorrect.

Established as a registered society in 1958 by the Government of India, it is a tri-

partite non-profit organization with equal representation from the government,

employers and workers’ organizations, apart from technical and professional

institutions including members from local productivity councils and chamber of commerce

on its Governing Body. Second statement is correct.



Also see organizational set up of NPC:

Besides providing training, consultancy and undertaking research in the area of

productivity, NPC also implements the productivity promotion schemes of the

Government and carry out the programmes of the Tokyo based Asian Productivity

Organization (APO), an inter-governmental body of which the Government of India is a

founder member.



What is this Tokyo based Asian Productivity Organization (APO)?

Established in 1961 as an intergovernmental organization, the APO contributes to

sustainable socioeconomic development in Asia and the Pacific through policy advisory

and capacity building. Its member countries:

Q27. Consider the following.

1. The Constitution provides for the term of Rajya Sabha Member is 6 years.

2. It is mandatory to nominate 12 persons in Rajya Sabha having special knowledge or

practical experience in Literature, science, art and social service.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:



The constitution has not fixed the term of Rajya Sabha members and left it to the

Parliament. Therefore, Parliament enacted Representation of the people Act (1951). So,

according to Representation of the people Act (1951), term of office of a member

shall be six years. It is not mentioned in the Constitution.

Second statement is correct. As per the Article 80, it is mandatory to nominate 12

persons in Rajya Sabha having special knowledge or practical experience in Literature,

science, art and social service.

Q28. Who published the first English translation of the Bhagavad Gita in 1785 with the

patronage of the then Governor-General of India, Warren Hasting?

a. Charles Wilkins

b. William jones

c. William Hawkins

d. Charles Hawkins

Solution: a

Explanation:

Charles Wilkins who published the first English translation of the Bhagavad Gita in

1785 with the patronage of the then Governor-General of India, Warren Hastings.


1. Increase in inflation will results in drop in Bond Prices.

2. Bonds Prices falls when there is increase in Interest Rate.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c



Explanation:

No theory. You can understand this only with an example.

Suppose you bought a bond for Rs. 100. It pays 10 percent interest per year. So, at the end

of year you will receive 110 Rs. Now, suppose after 6 months, there is increase in

inflation.

Understand here, that inflation has increased but you will still get 10 percent interest only.

It means, there will not be any increase in the sum of money you will get. But now what will

happen is that due to increase in inflation, you can buy less products than before (when inflation didn’t increase). When investors find that a bond’s yield (interest rate) won’t keep up with the rising costs of inflation, the price of the bond drops because there is less investor demand for it.

For second statement,

Suppose you purchased a bond for Rs, 100 at 10 percent per year. So, at the end of year you

will get 110 Rs.

Now after six months, suppose interest rate increased from 10 percent to 12 percent. You

will try to sell your previous bond (which you purchased at 10 percent) and purchase new

bond which will give you 12 percent.

But when you will go to sell your bond, the interest rate of that bond is still 10 percent (at

what rate you have purchased). Why someone will buy your bond with 10 percent interest

if they are getting 12 percent on new bonds?

So, they will ask to decrease the Bond Price (from 100 to 80, 70 or whatever), so that they

can compensate for loss. This will result in decrease in bond price.

Q30. If a candidate demands for the recount of votes polled in the Lok Sabha election, the

order for the recount can be given by

a. Returning Officer of any constituency

b. Chief Electoral Officer of any State

c. President

d. Chief Election Commissioner

Solution: d

Explanation:

Chief Election Commission can order a recount of votes when it feels that the counting

process has not been fully fair and just based on the report of Chief Electoral Officer of that



constituency (CEO will act on the report of Returning Officer of that constituency). When a

candidate files an election petition in court, then court also can order a recount. So, Option

d is correct.

Q31. Consider the following statements regarding Mahatma Gandhi National Rural

Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.

1. It empowers the Centre to fix wages for the employees without being bound by any

provision of the Minimum Wages Act 1948.

2. The Gram Panchayat shall be responsible for identification of the projects in the Gram

Panchayat area to be taken up under a Scheme

3. There was seen an increasing trend in the demand of work under MGNREGA post

COVID-lockdown.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

We have already seen basics of MGNREGA many times. We will see some different

statements today relevant for your exam.

In March 2020, the Madras High Court held that Section 6 of the Mahatma Gandhi National

Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 is not violative of Articles 14 (State shall not deny

any person equal protection of laws), 16 (equality of opportunity in matters of public

employment) and 23 (prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor) of the

Constitution.

Section 6 of the MGNREGA 2005 empowers the Centre to fix wages for the employees

without being bound by any provision of the Minimum Wages Act 1948.

Second statement is correct.

If you see solution now, you will feel it is easy. But in exam, dimag kharab ho jayga.

After exam you will say, sir I was able to eliminate two options, confused between other

two. We are working this time in such problem, you too put equal effort.




Increase of work demand under MGNREGA

a. As per Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE)’s data, there has been a sharp

increase in the unemployment during April-May 2020 i.e. during the lock down

period.

b. The unemployment rate was back to pre-lockdown levels post lockdown i.e. with a

gradual improvement during the different unlock phases.

c. MGNREGA data shows an increase in the demand for employment during May-

June’2020 compared to same period in previous years. This clearly means loss of

current employment and therefore the reliance on government to provide

employment.


1. CBI to obtain the consent of the state government before conducting investigation in

a particular state thereby limiting its jurisdiction.

2. CBI is a statutory body.

3. Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha and CJI are the members of appointment

committee to appoint a director of CBI.


a. 1 and 2 only



b. 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Section 6 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act 1946 requires the CBI to

obtain the consent of the state government before conducting investigation in a

particular state thereby limiting its jurisdiction.

What is the concept of “General Consent”?

In case of 'general consent' the CBI does not have to obtain the prior permission of the

state government before investigation. When a state withdraws general consent, CBI

officers lose the powers to conduct investigation in the concerned state. In order to register

a new case, the agency has to seek specific consent from the State government. As a result,

it stalls registration of new cases. And over the years, general consent has been used as a

tool of political rivalry between the centre and state.

Second Statements is incorrect:

Origins of CBI can be traced back to the Special Police Establishment (SPE) set up in

1941 in order to cases of bribery and corruption in War & Supply Department of India

during World War II.

The need of a Central Government agency to investigate cases of bribery and corruption

was felt even after the end of World War II. So, DSPE (Delhi Special Police Establishment)

Act, 1946 was brought that gave legal power of investigating cases to CBI.

CBI is not a statutory body as it is not established by an Act of the Parliament.

Third Statement is incorrect:

Members are:

a. Prime Minister of India

b. Leader of Opposition

c. CJI.

Q33. What is common in Madhav National Park, Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve and Gandhi

Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in news?



1. All belongs to Madhya Pradesh.

2. They are new sites identified for possible lion relocation after Kuno-Palpur Wildlife

Sanctuary.


1. 1 only

2. 2 only

3. Both 1 and 2

4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

First is incorrect. Second statements is correct.

Six new sites apart from the Kuno-Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary have been identified

under Project Lion that was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi August 15, 2020,

on the lines of Project Tiger and Project Elephant.

Link: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/project-lion-proposal-

identifies-6-relocation-sites-apart-from-kuno-palpur-73922


1. Coal contributes more than 50 percent of the total thermal installed capacity in

India.

2. Chhattisgarh has the highest coal reserves among all the states in India.

3. Total import of coal has consistently increased from last three years (2017-18 to

2019-20).


a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/project-lion-proposal-identifies-6-relocation-sites-apart-from-kuno-palpur-73922

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/project-lion-proposal-identifies-6-relocation-sites-apart-from-kuno-palpur-73922



Explanation:

Three beautiful images and explanations. Do note them or mark in compilations

section. Nobody will give these images. Keep learning with Goaltide.

First Statement is correct.

Second Statement is incorrect.

Third Statement is correct.



Q35. Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary is in:

a. Arunachal Pradesh

b. Assam

c. Odisha

d. Manipur

Solution: b

Explanation: One of India’s most important rainforests, the Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary in

Assam has become a battleground for communities and cheap coal mined from the region.

The foothills of Dehing Patkai in the eastern end of Assam is home to the Khamti, Singpho,

Sema Nagas, Tangsa, Tai-Phake, Syam, Aitom, Nocte and other communities who have been

impacted by mining and deforestation that displaced them from lands that traditionally

belonged to them.

Link: https://india.mongabay.com/2020/11/assams-tribal-communities-lost-land-and-

forest-to-mining/

Q36. Consider the following.

1. Iran

2. Strait of Hormuz

3. Oman

4. UAE

Arrange the above from North to South.

a. 1-2-4-3

https://india.mongabay.com/2020/11/assams-tribal-communities-lost-land-and-forest-to-mining/

https://india.mongabay.com/2020/11/assams-tribal-communities-lost-land-and-forest-to-mining/



b. 2-3-1-4

c. 1-2-3-4

d. 1-3-2-4

Solution: C

Explanation:

Here also, you need to look map very carefully. If we recall map, UAE comes north to Oman,

but this is not correct.

Q37. Consider the following statements regarding Competition Commission of India.

1. In accordance with the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, Act, the

Competition Commission of India has been established.

2. Chief Justice of India is the chairperson of the selection committee to appoint

members of CCI.

3. Appellate against the decision of CCI go before National Company Law Appellate

Tribunal.




a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 2 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

First Statement: It’s Competition Act, 2002, NOT COMPANIES ACT.

Union Minister is not the Chairman.



The Chairperson and other Members of the Commission shall be appointed by the Central

Government from a panel of names recommended by a Selection Committee consisting of –

National Company Law Tribunal is the Appellate Body.


1. He was elected as the president of Indian National Congress four times in 1909,

1918, 1932 and 1933.

2. He started the 'Abhyudaya' as a Hindi weekly in 1907.

3. He was appointed a member of the Indian Industrial Commission in 1916.

Above statements are about which among the following Personalities?



a. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

b. Lala Lajpat Rai

c. Bipin Chandra Pal

d. Madan Mohan Malaviya

Solution: d

Explanation:

December 25 was the birth anniversary of Madan Mohan Malaviya, the famed Indian

educationist and freedom fighter who is also called ‘Mahamana’. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya (1861 – 1946) was an Indian educationist and a Freedom Fighter. He was

conferred the title of ‘Mahamana’ by Mahatma Gandhi.

He was a moderate leader. He was elected as the president of Indian National

Congress four times in 1909, 1918, 1932 and 1933, but owing to his arrest by the

Government of India, he could not preside over the 1932 and 1933 sessions which had

been banned.

He took a keen interest in the industrial development of the country and was therefore

appointed a member of the Indian Industrial Commission in 1916.


1. Parliament can impose restrictions on the freedom of trade and commerce between

states in public interest.



2. State can introduce bill for reasonable restrictions on trade and commerce within

state only after previous sanction of the President.

Which of the following statement is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanations: So, let’s see the article. Best way to go for solutions in Polity is go through required article.

Article 302

Power of Parliament to impose restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse:

Parliament may by law impose such restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or

intercourse between one State and another or within any part of the territory of India as

may be required in the public interest. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Article 304:

State Legislature impose such reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce

or intercourse with or within that State as may be required in the public interest,

Provided, that no Bill or amendment for the purposes of clause shall be introduced

or moved in the Legislature of a State without the previous sanction of the President.

Therefore, statement 2 is also correct.



Note: you can also observe minute difference in both the article. Article 302 takes about

restrictions but article 304 talks about reasonable restrictions. So, State needs to be more

cautious in putting restrictions.

Q40. Consider the following statements regarding Delimitation Commission.

1. The Constitution provides for setting up of Delimitation Commission after every

census.

2. The Judge of Supreme Court is the chairman of Delimitation Commission.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

Whether Constitution provides for setting up of Delimitation Commission or not, we can

refer to the provision given in article 82 of the Constitution.

Article 82 of Indian Constitution provides for delimitation and it says:

Upon the completion of each census, the allocation of seats in the House of the people to

the States and the division of each State into territorial constituencies shall be

readjusted by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law determine.

It clearly reads that Parliament will decide (not Constitution) to set up such authority

after every census. Therefore, statement one is incorrect.

As per Article 82, Parliament by law enacted four times a Delimitation Act after every

census.



• In 1952 under Delimitation Commission Act, 1952




Once the Act comes into force, the Central Government constitutes a Delimitation

Commission.

As you can clearly see from the image given below, Supreme Court Judge is the

chairperson of the Commission. Therefore, second statement is correct. Do refer

other points also given in image. It’s important.

Q41. With reference to the data localization norms in India, consider the following

statements:

1. The payment data of the Indian customers should only be stored in India.

2. The data can only be shared with the foreign regulators after the approval of the

RBI.

3. No payment system can be operated in India except in accordance with an

authorisation by the Reserve Bank of India.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

Almost two years after its experimental run, the Facebook-owned messaging service

WhatsApp has received regulatory approval for its WhatsApp Pay platform in India.



The Reserve Bank of India issued a directive on ‘Storage of Payment System Data’ advising all system providers to ensure that, within a period of six months, the entire data

relating to payment systems operated by them is stored in a system only in India.


Can the payment system data be shared with overseas regulators?

The data may be shared with the overseas regulator, if so required, depending upon the

nature / origin of transaction with due approval of RBI.

Third Statement is correct:

If you look at the Payments and Settlements Act, 2007, it says:

National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) gives approval only after RBI

authorization.

So, what is National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)?

National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organisation for operating

retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India

(RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure

in India.

RBI has power to give direction for regulation of electronic payment, etc. under

Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007:

https://m.rbi.org.in/Scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=130#:~:text=The%20entire%20payment%20data%20shall,except%20in%20cases%20clarified%20herein.&text=The%20data%20should%20include%20end,of%20a%20payment%20message%20%2F%20instruction.



Considering the utility nature of the objects of NPCI, it has been incorporated as a “Not for

Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now

Section 8 of Companies Act 2013), with an intention to provide infrastructure to the entire

Banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems.

Some extra information:

Many companies are now shifted under section 3 of Companies Act, 2013 from

Section 25 of Companies Act 1956. You know why?

Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 [earlier Section 25 of the Companies, Act 1956]

provides for formation of companies with charitable, objects. Under this provision, the

commercial aspect of a business entity and its growth is completely prohibited.

In comparison for a Section 3 company the object is not limited, and is mainly for

commercial activities which will facilitate growth of the company. It therefore, means

that a Section 25 company can only engage in activities of promotion of commerce, art,

science, sports, education, research, social welfare, religion, charity etc., but not

commercial activity leading to trade, buying and selling etc. resulting in profit and

distribution of dividend.

Q42. Recently, a Data Maturity Assessment Framework was launched in the country, to

evaluate the data ecosystems of

a. Urban areas

b. GST Revenue during COVID Lockdown

c. Teachers in rural areas

d. Island Territories in the Arabian Sea

Solution: a

Explanation:

Read introduction:



Link: https://www.livemint.com/news/india/centre-launches-initiative-to-nurture-family-

friendly-cities-11604546086520.html

Q43. Consider the following statements regarding Saffron Production in India.

1. It requires large amount of water to grow, that’s why we can see huge saffron production in rainy season.

2. After launch of National Saffron Mission, production of saffron has increased to

tenfold in Kashmir.

3. India produces more than 90% of the world’s total production of saffron Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

https://www.livemint.com/news/india/centre-launches-initiative-to-nurture-family-friendly-cities-11604546086520.html

https://www.livemint.com/news/india/centre-launches-initiative-to-nurture-family-friendly-cities-11604546086520.html



c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

As per the news, the saffron bowl, which was so far confined to Kashmir, may soon

expand to the North East of India.

First Statement is incorrect.

Second statement is incorrect.

National Saffron Mission started almost a decade ago in 2011 to boost the production

of the prized product in Kashmir valley, has failed to achieve the desired results with the

growers claiming that the Mission instead of doing any good to them has harmed their

interests.

You can see from below data: Production and yield has decreased.



The annual production of saffron in the years 2017 and 2018 was 16.45 and 5.2 tonnes

respectively and for 2019 the agricultural department estimates it to be 5.91 tonnes.

Third statement is incorrect:

Iran produces more than 90% of the world’s total production of saffron. After the

Islamic Republic of Iran, India ranks as the second-largest producer of saffron, with the

spice cultivated primarily in the Kashmir region.



No one will explain you in such a way. Do follow us regularly. And do join the most effective

Test Series for 2021. Click here to see details and enroll.

Link: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1671408

https://www.goaltideias.com/test-series-detail

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1671408



Q44. In the context of National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) program, consider the

following statements.

1. NHAI has developed the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) program to meet

the electronic tolling requirements of the Indian market.

2. FASTag is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology

for making toll payments directly while the vehicle is in motion.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b



Explanation:

We will go to original website.

National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has developed the National Electronic

Toll Collection (NETC) program to meet the electronic tolling requirements of the Indian

market. It offers an interoperable nationwide toll payment solution including clearing

house services for settlement and dispute management. Interoperability, as it applies to

National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) system, encompasses a common set of

processes, business rules and technical specifications which enable a customer to use their

FASTag as payment mode on any of the toll plazas irrespective of who has acquired the toll

plaza.

FASTag is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology

for making toll payments directly while the vehicle is in motion. FASTag (RFID Tag) is

affixed on the windscreen of the vehicle and enables a customer to make the toll payments

directly from the account which is linked to FASTag.

FASTag offers the convenience of cashless payment along with benefits like - savings on

fuel and time as the customer does not has to stop at the toll plaza.

Q45. Consider the following Seas.

1. Aral Sea.

2. Red Sea

3. Caspian Sea.

Arrange the above seas from west to east.

a. 3-2-1

b. 2-3-1

c. 2-1-3

d. 3-1-2

Solution: b

https://www.npci.org.in/what-we-do/netc-fastag/product-overview



Explanation:

Q46. What happens to human life after death” is a theme used in: a. Warli Paintings

b. Madhubani Paintings.



c. Paitkar Paintings

d. Manjusha Paintings

Solution: c

Explanations:

Practiced by the tribal people of Jharkhand, Paitkar paintings are considered one of the

ancient paintings in the country.

The common theme of this painting is “What happens to human life after death”.

Q47. Consider the following statements regarding North Eastern Council (NEC).

1. The North Eastern Council (NEC) is a constitutional body.

2. Governors and Chief Ministers of constituent States, both are the members of the

Council.

3. The Union Home Minister is ex-officio Chairman of NEC.


a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1 and 2 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by North Eastern Council Act, 1971 for

securing balanced and coordinated development and facilitating effective co-ordination

amongst seven States of North Eastern Region.

Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in December 2002 (Notified on 23rd June 2003)

Sikkim was added as 8th Member State, and NEC was mandated to function as a

statutory Regional Planning Body for the North Eastern Region.

Second statement is correct: “Both” doesn’t mean always wrong.

The Council comprises of Governors and Chief Ministers of constituent States and

three members to be nominated by the President as per Clause (iii) of Section 3 of the

North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 1971.



Union Home Minister is ex-officio Chairman of NEC.

Q48. Consider the following pairs.

Curves Measures/inflation

1. Lorentz Curve Poverty Estimation

2. J-Curve Downfall of economy after devaluation

3. Phillips curve Taxation and Government revenue

Which of the following pairs is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

In economics, the Lorenz curve is a graphical representation of the distribution of income

or of wealth. It was developed by Max O. Lorenz in 1905 for representing inequality of

the wealth distribution (not poverty).

The J-curve effect is seen in economics when a country's trade balance initially worsens

following a devaluation or depreciation of its currency.

The Phillips curve represents the relationship between the rate of inflation and the

unemployment rate.

In economics, the Laffer curve is a representation of the relationship between rates of

taxation and the resulting levels of government revenue.



1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts

from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.

2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:

No explanation here. Just understand the pattern.

How many students have left this question, please mention in the comment section? Now, this

question was asked in Prelims 2019.

Why we took this question? Understand here.

First two statements nobody have any idea. What students know is only third option. You

can easily eliminate third option. After eliminating third option, you are left with only one

option that is 1. So, even if you don’t know first two statements, you can solve question. This is what we are

teaching you through daily quiz.



One more thing here, what you can observe here, UPSC has asked these eliminated two

statements in beginning. Easy statement is last statement. They know after reading first two

statements, students will skip this question. So please……. Believe yourself and be confident you are practicing the best daily quiz. You are now in position to hit the target. Little left fire

we will ignite through Test Series.

Q50. Mollem National park is in:

a. Odisha

b. Maharashtra

c. Goa

d. Kerala

Solution: c

Explanation:

It is in Goa.

New Projects are affecting Bhagwan Mahaveer Wildlife Sanctuary and Mollem National

Park in Goa.

Link: https://thewire.in/environment/india-needs-to-notice-how-3-development-

projects-could-alter-goas-forests

Q51. Consider the following statements regarding National Food Security Act, 2013.

1. The Act legally entitles up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban

population to receive subsidized food grains.

2. In case of non-supply of entitled food grains or meals, there is a provision for food

security allowance to entitled beneficiaries.

3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers will also be receiving maternity benefit of

Rs. 6,000.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:


https://thewire.in/environment/india-needs-to-notice-how-3-development-projects-could-alter-goas-forests

https://thewire.in/environment/india-needs-to-notice-how-3-development-projects-could-alter-goas-forests




Third statement is correct.

Q52. In context of India, consider the following statements.

1. Unlike air and water pollution, there is no legal regulations for noise pollution.

2. Noise standards for motor vehicles, air-conditioners, refrigerators, diesel generators

are prescribed under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

3. The human ear can tolerate noise levels up to 75 Db.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

We are too busy in air and water pollution; we forget that there also exists Noise Pollution.

Severe noise can result in severe health issues among people such as noise induced hearing

impairment, high blood pressure, heart disease, stress, and sleep disturbances, to name a

few. In addition to this, noise pollution adversely affects the wildlife.



For instance, elephants make use of seismic and infrasound signals using their feet

and trunk for communication. Sound disturbances from humans hinder their

communication. Hence noise pollution poses a risk to both humans as well as animals.

So, first you tell me do we have any regulations aimed at stipulating noise limits and

controlling noise above the set standards? Yes, we have.

First statement is incorrect.

Laws regulating noise pollution.

a. Earlier, noise pollution and its sources were addressed under the Air (Prevention and

Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

b. They are now, however, regulated separately under the Noise Pollution (Regulation

and Control) Rules, 2000.

c. Additionally, noise standards for motor vehicles, air-conditioners, refrigerators,

diesel generators and certain types of construction equipment are prescribed

under the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986. Second statement is incorrect.

d. Noise emanating from industry is regulated by State Pollution Control Boards /

Pollution Control Committees (SPCBs / PCCs) for states / Union territories under the

Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

What is noise level?

a. Any unwanted sound that causes annoyance, irritation and pain to the human ear is

termed noise. It is measured in A-weighted decibels (dB (A)) that indicate the

loudness of the sound.

b. Noise level refers to the decibel levels of noise produced by any appliance or machine.

In general, the human ear can tolerate noise levels up to 85 dB. Anything beyond that

can affect their productivity and quality of life.

c. The decibel levels of common sounds above 80 dB are considered ‘loud’, while the decibel levels of common sounds between 100-125 dB are termed ‘uncomfortable’.


1. Pakistan and China both holds the status of Most Favoured Nation (MFN) with India.

2. India’s export to Pakistan is greater than Import in last two fiscal years (2018-19 to

2019-20).


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

https://cpcb.nic.in/noise-pollution/



Solution: c

Explanation:


India has accorded 'Most Favoured Nation' status to all WTO members, including

Pakistan and China, in accordance with provisions of Article 1 of General Agreement on

Tariffs and Trade, 1994 in 1996.


If you want anytime to see data of export and import of India with any country, you

will go this this link. Click here.

2018-2019 2019-2020

Export to Pakistan 1,442,651.41 Lakhs 571,773.47 Lakhs

Import from Pakistan 347,648.12 Lakhs 9,764.83 Lakhs

Q54. The correct representation of Net National Product (NNP) at factor cost will be

a. GDP + Net Factor Income from abroad (NFIA) – Indirect Taxes + Subsidies

b. GDP + Net Factor Income from abroad (NFIA) + Indirect Taxes – Subsidies

c. GDP - Net Factor Income from abroad (NFIA) - Indirect Taxes + Subsidies

d. None of the above

Solution: d

Explanation:

None of the options take depreciation into account, so all are wrong.

The correct answer will be GDP + Net Factor Income from abroad (NFIA) –

Depreciation – Indirect Taxes + Subsidies. Gross National Product (GNP) is defined as GNP ≡ GDP + Factor income earned by the domestic factors of production employed in the rest of the world – Factor income earned

https://tradestat.commerce.gov.in/eidb/default.asp



by the factors of production of the rest of the world employed in the domestic economy. In

short, the component after GDP in the equation is NFIA.

We have already noted that a part of the capital gets consumed during the year due to wear

and tear. This wear and tear is called depreciation. Naturally, depreciation does not become part of anybody’s income. If we deduct depreciation from GNP the measure of aggregate income that we obtain is called Net National Product (NNP). Thus NNP ≡ GNP –

Depreciation

It is to be noted that all these variables are evaluated at market prices. When indirect taxes

are imposed on goods and services, their prices go up. Indirect taxes accrue to the

government. We have to deduct them from NNP evaluated at market prices in order to

calculate that part of NNP which actually accrues to the factors of production. Similarly,

there may be subsidies granted by the government on the prices. When we adjust all that,

we get NNP at FC.

Q55. Which of the following could be potential sources of income to a Central Bank?

1. Printing of currency notes

2. Interest on its holdings of local rupee-denominated government securities

3. Short term lending to commercial banks

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: d

Explanations:

Statement 1: This is actually an expenditure of the Central bank. The currency it prints is

not its property, but its liability, because it promises the holder of that currency to pay

an equivalent amount.

Its expenditure is mainly on the printing of currency notes and on staff, besides the

commission it gives to banks for undertaking transactions on behalf of the government

across the country, and to primary dealers, including banks, for underwriting some of these

borrowings.

Statement 2 and 3: Typically, the central bank’s income comes from the returns it earns on its foreign currency assets — which could be in the form of bonds and treasury bills of

other central banks or top-rated securities, and deposits with other central banks.



It also earns interest on its holdings of local rupee-denominated government bonds or

securities, and while lending to banks for very short tenures, such as overnight. It claims a

management commission on handling the borrowings of state governments and the central

government.

Q56. Lichen is a pioneer species. What do you understand by this statement?

a. It has the ability to form symbiotic relation with a large number of species.

b. It can live in inhospitable climatic conditions.

c. It contributes substantially to nutrient recycling in the ecosystem.

d. It is generally one of the first species to colonize an ecosystem.

Solution: d

Explanation:

Lichens are typically the first organisms to colonize bare rock. They are therefore

the pioneer species in primary succession.

Many organisms require soil before they can colonize an area. Lichens that colonize bare

rock secrete acids that break down the rock and start the soil-production process. Also, as

lichens die, they provide some organic matter that also contributes to soil. Mosses can then

colonize the thin soil; as mosses die, the soil thickens more allowing other hardy species to

colonize. The process continues until a mature forest form, sometimes centuries later.

Q57. Which of these is the final authority to approve a merger of the State bank of India

with its subsidiaries?

a. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

b. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

c. Union Cabinet

d. Parliament of India

Solution: d

Explanation:

Learning: Option B: The RBI provides Guidelines for merger /amalgamation of private

sector banks.

Option A: SEBI does not regulate banks, but security markets in India.

Option C and D: The Union Cabinet approves the merger of SBI and its associate/subsidiary

banks. However, this will have to be approved by the Parliament. Yes, it is correct

answer.



Q58. Which of the following provisions is/are present in Finance Commission

(Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951?

1. The President shall lay down recommendation made by the Finance Commission

before each House of Parliament.

2. The Commission shall have all the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil

Procedure, 1908.

3. Qualification of the members of the Commission are provided in the said Act.

4. Members of Finance Commission are eligible for reappointment.


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: b

Explanation:

First statement is a part of Indian Constitution.

All others are part of the Act. See below.



Q59. Which of the following statements are true regarding the concept of Justice?

1. Absence of privileges to any particular section of the society.

2. Absence of discrimination on the basis of economic factors and elimination of

inequalities.

3. Provision of equal political rights and equal access to political offices.

4. The Preamble of Indian constitution has the provision for social economic and

political justice.

Select the correct answer from the code given below

a. 1, 2 and 4 only



b. 1, 2 and 3 only

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d

Explanation:

The Preamble of the constitution provides for Justice- Social, Economic, and Political.

Social Justice means absence of privileges to a particular section of the society, and equal

treatment of all citizens without any distinction of caste, religion, gender etc.

Economic justice denotes the non-discrimination between people on the basis of economic

factors, and elimination of glaring inequalities in wealth, income and property.

Political justice is based on the idea that all citizens should have equal political

rights, equal access to political offices and equal voice in the government.

Q60. As we move away from Tropic of Cancer to Himalayas, which of the following places

will be the southernmost place?

a. Raipur

b. Gandhinagar

c. New Delhi

d. Bhopal

Solution: c

Explanation:

Bhopal, Raipur and Gandhinagar are south to the Tropic of Cancer. So, we are left with

Delhi.

The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states in India: Gujarat (Jasdan), Rajasthan

(Kalinjarh), Madhya Pradesh (Shajapur), Chhattisgarh (Sonhat), Jharkhand (Lohardaga),

West Bengal (Krishnanagar), Tripura (Udaipur) and Mizoram (Champhai).



Q61. In the context of India’s trade with neighbouring countries (Bangladesh, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Bhutan, Myanmar) in 2019-20, consider the following statements.

1. Bangladesh is largest trading Partner of India.

2. India has trade surplus with all its neighbouring countries mentioned.




a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanations:

All the data we have mentioned below has been taken from original website.

India’s Exports to Imports from (in Rupees, Lakhs)

1. Bangladesh 5,817,660.89 897,514.07

2. Nepal 5,071,276.32

504,496.71

3. Sri Lanka 2,693,454.09 640,663.40

4. Pakistan 571,773.47 9,764.83

5. Bhutan 523,528.64 287,076.86

6. Myanmar 691,047.58 391,051.69

Lowest import was seen from Pakistan in 2019-20. A big difference in import from

Pakistan in observed in 2019-20 compared to 2018-19.

Q62. Consider the following statements regarding IBSA Forum.

1. The Forum aims to enhance co-operation with countries in India-Pacific Region.

2. Brasilia Declaration forms the basis of formation of IBSA Forum

3. All members of IBSA are member of BRICS.

Which of the above statement sis/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

https://tradestat.commerce.gov.in/eidb/default.asp



c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

First statement is incorrect: Objective was different.

Established in June 2003, IBSA is a coordinating mechanism amongst three emerging

countries, three multiethnic and multicultural democracies, which are determined to:

a. contribute to the construction of a new international architecture

b. bring their voice together on global issues

c. deepen their ties in various areas

IBSA also opens itself to concrete projects of cooperation and partnership with less

developed countries.


The establishment of IBSA was formalized by the Brasilia Declaration of 6 June 2003,

which mentions India, Brazil and South Africa's democratic credentials, their condition as

developing nations and their capacity of acting on a global scale as the main reasons for the

three countries to come together.

Their status as middle powers, their common need to address social inequalities within

their borders and the existence of consolidated industrial areas in the three countries are

often mentioned as additional elements that bring convergence among the members of the

Forum.

The principles, norms and values underpinning the IBSA Dialogue Forum are participatory

democracy, respect for human rights and the Rule of Law. The strength of IBSA is the

shared vision of the three countries that democracy and development are mutually

reinforcing and key to sustainable peace and stability.

Third statement is correct.

BRICS members are: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.



Link: https://www.aninews.in/news/world/asia/mea-secretary-rahul-chhabra-

launches-ibsa-report20201111024517/

Q63. Consider the following statements regarding PM KUSUM Scheme.

1. Under this, solar Agriculture pumps will replace existing diesel Agriculture pumps.

2. The scheme comes under aegis of Ministry of New and Renewable energy.

3. The Government of India aims to reach a solar energy capacity of

175 GW by 2022.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:

There is very high probability of doing mistake in third statement.

Just try to understand the logic behind the scheme.

At present, over 30 million agricultural pumps are installed in India out of which nearly 10

million pumps are diesel based. Discoms are not in a position to energize these pumps

through grid connection. Also, over 20 million grid-connected agriculture water pumps

installed in the country consume more than 17 percent of the total annual electricity

consumption of the country.

Solarization of these pumps can reduce the dependence of them on conventional sources of

energy supplied by Discoms and thus reducing their burden of subsidy on agriculture

consumption of electricity.

This will also provide an additional source of income to farmers who will be in a

position to sell the surplus power to Discoms.

When it was announced?

It was announced in 2018 budget speech by then Finance Minister Arun Jaitley.

This scheme was formulated by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.

The proposal on KUSUM Scheme provides for 3 components:

https://www.aninews.in/news/world/asia/mea-secretary-rahul-chhabra-launches-ibsa-report20201111024517/

https://www.aninews.in/news/world/asia/mea-secretary-rahul-chhabra-launches-ibsa-report20201111024517/



a. installation of grid-connected solar power plants each of Capacity up to 2 MW in the

rural areas

b. individual farmers will be supported to install standalone solar Agriculture pumps

of capacity up to 7.5 HP for replacement of existing diesel Agriculture pumps /

irrigation systems in off-grid areas, where grid supply is not available. First

statement is correct.

c. solarization of existing grid-connected agriculture pumps to make farmers

independent of grid supply and also enable them to sell surplus solar power

generated to DISCOM and get extra income.

Government has approved Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan

(PM-KUSUM) Scheme with an objective of increasing farmers’ income, provide reliable source for irrigation and de-dieselize the farm sector.

Whenever any news comes about solar energy, first and most important thing that

should come up in your mind is India’s Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDCs), i.e. To achieve about 40 per cent cumulative electric power installed capacity

from non-fossil fuel-based energy and Solar energy is part of non-fossil fuel-based energy.

Keeping this in mind, A target of installing 175 GW of renewable energy capacity by the

year 2022 has been set which includes:

100 GW from solar (40GW rooftop solar electricity generation and 60GW large and

medium-scale grid-connected solar projects), 60 GW from wind, 10 GW from bio-power

and 5 GW from small hydropower.

This scheme is under ministry of New and Renewable Energy.



Q64. Consider the following statements

1. More than 90 percent of crude oil reserves belongs to OPEC countries.

2. 90 percent of OPEC members belong to middle East region.

3. Petroleum products continued to be the largest exported commodity in value terms

in India.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a permanent,

intergovernmental Organization, created at the Baghdad Conference on September 10–14,

1960.

OPEC's objective is to co-ordinate and unify petroleum policies among Member Countries,

in order to secure fair and stable prices for petroleum producers; an efficient, economic

and regular supply of petroleum to consuming nations; and a fair return on capital to those

investing in the industry.

Currently, there are 13 memebers: Second statement is incorrect.



The OPEC Secretariat is the executive organ of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting

Countries (OPEC). Located in Vienna, it also functions as the Headquarters of the

Organization, in accordance with the provisions of the OPEC Statute.

According to current estimates, 79.4% of the world's proven oil reserves are located in

OPEC Member Countries, with the bulk of OPEC oil reserves in the Middle East, amounting

to 64.5% of the OPEC total. First statement is incorrect.




Q65. Tropic of Capricorn passes through:

a. Kalahari Desert

b. Rocky Mountain

c. Sahara Desert

d. Gobi Desert

Solution: a

Explanation:

You should know:

a. Where are these deserts?

b. Tropic of CAPRICORN

Answer is Kalahari Desert. Rocky is in US, Sahara in North Africa, Gobi in China.

Tropic of Capricorn passes through southern part of Africa, you can easily eliminate

all.



Q66. Consider the followings.

1. The increasing rate of interest on borrowings for commercial banks.

2. Central Bank selling government Securities under Open Market Operations.

3. Increasing indirect tax.

Which of the following steps can be taken to check inflation in economy?



1. 1 only

2. 1 and 2 only

3. 1 and 3 only

4. 2 and 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

Increasing rate of interest on borrowing for commercial banks will decrease the lending

capacity of banks. Hence, will help in controlling inflation.

Open Market Operations refer to sale and purchase of government securities and bonds by

the central bank. To control inflation, central bank sells the government securities to the

public through banks. This results in transfer of a part of bank deposit to central bank

account and reduces credit creation capacity of commercial banks.

Increase in indirect tax will increase the prices of goods and services and therefore, will

increase inflation. Third option is incorrect.

Q67. With reference to Indian Constitution, consider the following amendments.

1. Legislative Assembly while passing an ordinary bill cannot override the

amendments made by the Legislative Council.

2. The Governor may call for a joint sitting of both the houses of state legislature in

case of deadlock in passing of an Ordinary Bill.

3. Till now, no bill has been passed in the Parliament at joint sitting.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only

d. None.

Solution: d

Explanation:

The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the

second time. When the bill is passed by the assembly for the second time and transmitted

to the legislative council, if the legislative council rejects the bill again, or proposes

amendments that are not acceptable to the legislative assembly, or does not pass the bill

within one month, then the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the houses in the

form in which it was passed by the legislative assembly for the second time.



There is no provision of joint sitting in the state legislature. There is a provision of

joint sitting of both houses of Parliament (article 108).

In case of a deadlock between the two houses (Parliament) or in a case where more than

six months lapse in the other house, the President may summon a joint session of the two

houses which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the deadlock is resolved

by simple majority. Until now, only three bills: The Dowry Prohibition Act (1961), the

Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill (1978) and the Prevention of Terrorism Bill

(2002) have been passed at joint sessions.

Q68. A grand image of Buddhist’s Mahapariniravana with numerous celestial musicians

above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below. One can find this famous work of

Sculpture at:

a. Ajanta

b. Ellora

c. Mahabalipuram

d. Hampi

Solution: a

Explanation:

You can find this sculpture at Ajanta.




1. The Election to the office of President is conducted through secret ballot.

2. A president is eligible for re-election.

3. The President can resign by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice

president.

Which of the above statements is/are correct as per the provisions mentioned in the

Constitution?

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

All the three above statements are correct. Three statements, three articles. Read all

of them.



Q70. Consider the following Harrapan sites.

1. Mehrgarh

2. Kot Diji

3. Chanhudaro

4. Dholavira

5. Surkotada

6. Alamgirpur

Which of the above sites are located in today’s India?

a. 4, 5 and 6 only

b. 1, 2 and 4 only

c. 1, 3, 4 and 6 only

d. 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

Solution: a

Explanation:

VeRy important topic for UPSC. At least remember sites. Today, you will learn that.

Below is the list of all sites. Please look at all sites at once carefully. Just have a look.

You will remember in exam.

From the below given image, we can say only Dholavira, Alamgirpur and Surkotada are

located in India.



Q71. Consider the following Pairs.

Places in news Location

1. Puerto Rico East Pacific Ocean

2. Tristan da Cunha West Pacific Ocean

3. Tigray Region Ethiopia

Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 3 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

The United States territory of Puerto Rico for the third time in ten years has voted in favour of

statehood.



The isolated UK overseas territory of Tristan da Cunha was declared the largest fully protected

Marine reserve of Atlantic Ocean.

A large number of civilians have been brutally killed in Ethiopia’s Tigray region amid fighting

between the local and federal governments.




1. Over-the-top platforms are audio and video hosting and streaming services offered directly to

viewers via the Internet.

2. In India, OTT platforms are currently regulated by Telecom regulatory Authority of India.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:



Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/netflix-amazon-prime-other-ott-platforms-now-

under-govt-regulation/article33072710.ece?homepage=true

Q73. Which of the following ingredients are used in firecrackers?

1. Aluminium

2. Mercury

3. Sulfur Dioxide

4. Potassium Nitrate

5. Lithium


a. 1, 4 and 5 only

b. 2, ,3, 4 and 5 only

c. 1, 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Solution: d

Explanation:

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/netflix-amazon-prime-other-ott-platforms-now-under-govt-regulation/article33072710.ece?homepage=true

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/netflix-amazon-prime-other-ott-platforms-now-under-govt-regulation/article33072710.ece?homepage=true



Some rules regarding firecrackers:



Q74. Consider the following statements regarding East Asia Summit.

1. EAS is an initiative of ASEAN for strategic dialogue and cooperation on key challenges facing

the East Asian region.

2. India is not a member of ASEAN, RCEP, but is a member of East Asia Summit.

Which of the above statement sis/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

News:



Just read once, how EAS came into existence:

The East Asia Summit is a unique Leaders-led forum of 18 countries of the Asia-Pacific region

formed to further the objectives of regional peace, security and prosperity.

Established in 2005, EAS allows the principal players in the Asia-Pacific region to discuss issues of

common interest and concern, in an open and transparent manner, at the highest level. The

membership of EAS consists of ten ASEAN Member States (i.e. Brunei Darussalam, Cambodia,

Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Myanmar, Singapore, Thailand, the Philippines and Vietnam),

Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, Republic of Korea, Russian Federation and the

USA.

EAS is an initiative of ASEAN and is based on the premise of the centrality of ASEAN.

India is not a member of ASEAN and RCEP.



Q75. Which of the following parameters have been used by the 15th Finance Commission

for the vertical devolution of taxes?

1. 1971 Population Census

2. Demographic Performance

3. The geographical area of a State

4. Forest Cover

5. Tax Effort

6. Income Distance

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 2, 3, 5 and 6 only

d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Solution: c

Explanation:



The forest cover and population census of 1971 were used in the devolution done by

the 14th Finance Commission while the 15th Finance commission has relied on income

distance, the population of census 2011, area of the state, forest and ecology, demographic

performance, and tax effort.


1. All States have to mandatorily constitute all the three tiers of Panchayats

irrespective of their size and population.

2. There is no provision for reservations for the OBCs in Panchayats as per the

Constitution.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

First statement is incorrect as the intermediary level body need not be constituted in

smaller States (with a population less than 20 lakhs). See below.



OBC reservation in Panchayats have been a policy step from states and not provided in

the constitution as such. This is a step taken by each state based on their requirement on

the upliftment of the backward class. The Constitution only mentions about reservation

for SC and ST.

Q77. Consider the following statements with reference to Office of Profit:

1. It is neither defined in the Constitution of India nor Representation of the People

Act, 1951.

2. The power of disqualification for holding it is conferred upon the Election

Commission of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation: The word ‘office of profit’ has not been defined in the Constitution or the Representation of the People Act of 1951.

The President, in consultation with the Election Commission, disqualifies a member who is

holding an office of profit. Second statement is incorrect.



Q78. Consider the following statements with reference to Grants:

1. Supplementary Grant is when the amount authorized by the Parliament is found to

be insufficient for that year.

2. Exceptional Grant is when a need has arisen during the current financial year not

contemplated in the Budget.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

In addition to the budget that contains the ordinary estimates of income and expenditure

for one financial year; various other grants are made by the Parliament under

extraordinary or special circumstances:

Supplementary Grant: It is granted when the amount authorized by the Parliament

through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found

to be insufficient for that year. So, statement 1 is correct.

Additional Grant: It is granted when a need has arisen during the current financial year for

additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the budget for that

year.

Exceptional Grant: It is granted for a special purpose and forms no part of the current

service of any financial year. So, statement 2 is not correct.



Excess Grant: It is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial

year in excess of the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year. It is voted

by the Lok Sabha after the financial year. Before the demands for excess grants are

submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting, they must be approved by the Public Accounts

Committee of Parliament.

Q79. In the context of Tamil Bhakti Movement, Consider the following statements.

1. Nammalwar, Madhur, Aantal were greatest Alwar poets.

2. The Alvars and the Nayanmars were against Buddhism and Jainism.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:



Q80. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Transgender Persons

(Protection of Rights) Act, 2019?

1. A ‘transgender person’ is the one whose gender does not match with the gender assigned at birth.



2. The District Magistrate will issue the certificate of identity, indicating the gender as ‘transgender’. 3. The Act provides for the National Council for Transgender Persons chaired by Union

Minister to advise the Central Government on the formulation of policies and

programmes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

First Statement:

Second Statement:



Third Statement:

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