methodology sample test.pdf

METHODOLOGY SAMPLE TEST I

The following review questions were not taken from past

comp exams or review packets. They were created by the

reviewer (Lynn Vogel) and will not represent all of the

material that may be on the exam. This is intended to

serve as a review and not your sole means of studying for

the exam.

Research Design

1. A variable that is comprised of groups you are

comparing is a(n):

a. Covariate

b. Independent Variable

c. Dependent Variable

d. Confound

2. A measured variable that correlates with the

dependent variable but not with the independent

variable could be a confound and should be treated

as a(n):

a. Covariate



d. None of the above

3. Random selection is used to be reasonably sure that:

a. Any person from the population is equally

likely to be chosen to participate

b. All subjects are equally likely to be in any level

of the independent variable

c. All groups are equal (i.e. gender, age, ses)

d. Both b and c

4. Which of the following designs results in less error?

a. Between Group

b. Wait List Control

c. Yoked Control

d. Within Group

5. A control group that receives a “pseudo”

intervention instead of the experimental treatment is

called:

a. No Treatment Control

b. Wait List Control

c. Attention Placebo Control

d. Yoked Control

6. Which of the following techniques is used to control

for carryover effects?

a. Counterbalancing

b. Retrospective Ceiling

c. Cross-Section

d. All of the above

7. An individual has so little depression that they

decrease much less than those with higher levels of

depression. This is referred to as:

a. Floor Effect

b. Ceiling Effect

c. Crossover Effect


8. Studies that are used to collect preliminary data that

eventually leads to specific independent variables,

dependent variables, and hypotheses are considered:

a. Qualitative

b. Observational

c. Not Generalizable

d. All of the Above

9. Which observational design would be most

appropriate in studying characteristics of individuals

with antisocial personality disorder by comparing

them to those without the diagnosis?

a. Case Study

b. Case Control

c. Case Cohort

d. Case Sectional

10. All of the following are relevant for single subject

designs except:

a. Continuous Assessment

b. Moderate Generalizability

c. Strong Baseline

d. Assessment of Performance over Time

11. Elizabeth collects her dissertation sample by word of

mouth. This is an example of:

a. Stratified Random Sampling

b. Convenience Sampling

c. Cluster Sampling

d. Snowball Sampling

12. AIU is using GRE scores, undergraduate GPA, and

gender to predict achievement in a doctoral program.

What is the dependent variable?

a. GRE scores

b. Undergraduate GPA

c. Gender

d. All of the Above

13. Dr. Gevirtz tells you that your basic design is flawless,

however, you will not be able to generalize to a large

population. You must have good ______________ but

poor ___________.

a. Reliability, Validity

b. Internal Validity, External Validity

c. Validity, Reliability

d. External Validity, Internal Validity

14. All of the following are threats to external validity except:

a. Instrumentation

b. Sample Characteristics

c. Test Sensitization

d. Demand Characteristics

Statistical Inference and Other Concepts

15. I am studying depression among students in a statistics

course and have students from Dr. Gevirtz’s and Dr.

Dalenberg’s class each take the Beck Depression

Inventory. Students in each class then receive a

ranking of how depressed they are relative to each

other (1st, 2

nd, 3

rd). This depression data is:

a. Categorical

b. Nominal

c. Ordinal

d. Interval

16. Alice is the teaching assistant for statistics and tells

you the mode of the final exam was an 82%. This

value represents the:

a. Average of the scores

b. Middle point of the scores

c. Curve of the test

d. Most frequent score

17. Which of the following is not a measure of

dispersion?

a. Variance

b. Standard Deviation

c. Median

d. All of the above are measures of dispersion

18. The following distribution is:

VAR00003

40.035.030.025.020.015.010.05.00.0

10

8

6

4

2

0

Std. Dev = 9.82

Mean = 8.2

N = 25.00

a. Leptokurtotic

b. Positively Skewed

c. Significant

d. Bimodal

19. Power is an estimate of:

a. How sure we are that differences exist

b. Sensitivity of the experiment to find real

differences

c. How big the differences are

d. All of the above

20. In a normal distribution,

a. Mean = Median = Mode

b. Mode < Mean < Mode

c. Median < Mean < Mode


21. Population distributions are developed based on

what studies?

a. Repeated Measures

b. Monte Carlo

c. Box’s M

d. Hosmer and Lemeshow

Univariate Statistics

22. When comparing 2 groups on one dependent

variable (i.e. CBT vs. Control for treatment of

depression), the best analysis used is:

a. One Way Analysis of Variance

b. One Way Multivariate Analysis of Variance

c. Analysis of Covariance

d. Point Biserial

23. The larger the differences between the groups, the

___________ the F statistic:

a. More Accurate

b. Less Accurate

c. Larger

d. Smaller

24. If F is not significant, check your:

a. Power

b. Magnitude of Effect

c. Homogeneity of Variance

d. Independence of Observations

25. The sum of the squared deviations of individual

scores from the group mean is referred to as:

a. Sum of Squares within group

b. Error

c. Sum of Squares between groups

d. Both a and b

26. In a study of the effects of gender and treatment for

depression, Mary found that males’ depression levels

decreased with CBT while Females decreased in the

Meditation treatment. This is an example of:

a. Main Effect

b. Interaction

c. Planned Comparison

d. Post Hoc Analysis

27. A disadvantage of repeated measures designs is:

a. Practice Effects

b. Carryover Effects

c. Both a and b


28. Mike is doing research on healthy eating habits of

college students but he is concerned subjects will

deliberately disclose only healthy habits. As a result,

he measures their level of social desirability. In

preliminary analyses, he realizes that social

desirability is significantly affecting the healthy eating

measure. What should he do?

a. Nothing, social desirability is not significantly

related to the independent variable

b. Use a counterbalancing technique

c. Run a repeated measures design instead

d. Treat social desirability as a covariate

Correlational Techniques

29. Debbie is interested in the relationship between

gender and level of physical activity (exercise minutes

per week). Which correlation will be calculated?

a. Point Biserial

b. Spearman Rank

c. Pearson

d. Multiple R

Multivariate Statistics

30. Kate wants to predict the amount of pain within

individuals in a motor vehicle accident using the

variables of psychiatric history, gender, and anger.

What would be the most appropriate analysis?

a. Multivariate Analysis of Variance

b. Factor Analysis

c. Logistic Regression

d. Multiple Regression

31. Each predictor in the above study receives a “weight”

indicating how influential it is on the outcome of

amount of pain. Which statistic would Kate report as

the weight for each predictor?

a. b weight

b. Beta weight

c. Either a or b

d. None, these are loading statistics not weights

32. Dr. Gevirtz is trying to predict the amount of minutes

graduate students exercise based on how stress

relieving exercise is for them. However, he is unaware

that one student is training for a marathon. This

student could be a:

a. Influential outlier

b. Covariate

c. Central limit


33. _____ is the correlation between 2 variables while

_____ is the correlation between multiple variables.

a. r, r2

b. R, r2

c. r2, R

d. r, R

34. Kathryn wants to predict whether individuals in a

motor vehicle accident will use narcotics or not 6

months following the accident. Which analysis

would you recommend?

a. Analysis of Variance

b. Logistic Regression

c. Discriminant Analysis

d. Path Analysis

35. At the local crisis house you are asked to design a

method of assessing suicidality. Your supervisor wants

you to be able to detect all individuals who will attempt

suicide but doesn’t want you to be so particular that you

end up detecting some who will not attempt suicide. He

is looking for a measure that contains:

a. Low sensitivity and low specificity

b. Low sensitivity and high specificity

c. High sensitivity and low specificity

d. High sensitivity and high specificity

36. In the following path, the exogenous variable is:

Metabolism

Exercise Weight Loss

Caloric Intake

a. Metabolism

b. Weight Loss

c. Caloric Intake

d. Both a and c

37. In the above model, the endogenous variable is:

a. Metabolism

b. Weight Loss

c. Caloric Intake

d. Both a and c

38. A study has suggested that cell phone use causes

radiation which then causes cancerous tumors.

Radiation is considered a:

a. Moderator

b. Mediator

c. Confound

d. Semipartial

39. You are studying the DSM by taking an extensive

history (i.e. symptoms) of patients in a local mental

health agency to make sure the symptoms cluster

into the appropriate diagnoses. For instance,

symptoms of Bipolar Disorder should not be

correlating to Antisocial Personality Disorder.

Which subtype of factor analysis is most relevant?

a. Exploratory

b. Causal

c. Confirmatory

d. This is a principal components analysis

40. Which of the following are not used in factor

analysis/principal components analysis?

a. Box’s M test

b. Eigenvalues

c. Scree plot

d. Kaiser criteria

41. Bob wants to compare treatment modalities (group

therapy vs. individual therapy vs. control group) on

quality of life, beck depression inventory, and beck

anxiety inventory. Which analysis is most appropriate?

a. Analysis of Variance

b. Multivariate Analysis of Variance

c. Analysis of Covariance

d. Multivariate Analysis of Covariance

42. Which of the following assumptions is crucial to

Analyses of Covariance and Multivariate Analyses of

Covariance and requires that the covariate-dependent

variable relationship is the same across all levels of

the independent variables?

a. Homogeneity of Regression

b. Homogeneity of Variance

c. Homogeneity of Variance-Covariance


Interpretation of Measures

43. Comprehensive Exams are _____________ tests

whereas Symptom Inventories are _______________

tests.

a. Criterion References, Norm Referenced

b. Domain Referenced, Norm Referenced

c. Empirical Keyed, Norm Referenced

d. All of the above

44. On a measure assessing relationship satisfaction,

endorsing the item “I have filed for divorce” implies

that all other milder statements such as “I have

thought about divorce” would also be endorsed. This

is an example of what kind of scaling?

a. Thurstone

b. Guttman

c. Likert

d. Semantic Differential

45. Which theory states that observed scores are the

outcome of error added to ones’ true score.

a. Classical Measurement

b. Generalizability

c. Domain Sampling


46. Gary tells you that the range of IQ score for subject #1

is 90-110. The statistic he used was:

a. Confidence Interval

b. Standard Error

c. Both a and b


Reliability of Measurement

47. All of the following are true for reliability except:

a. Good reliability = Good consistency

b. Shorter tests have better reliability

c. Longer tests have better reliability

d. Restriction of range is a potential problem

48. What is the relationship between reliability and validity?

a. Reliability = Validity

b. Reliability < Validity

c. Reliability > Validity

d. Unpredictable

49. Ann administers her personality inventory to subjects

twice to tests its consistency. She is assessing:

a. Split Half reliability

b. Repeated measures reliability

c. Interrater reliability

d. Test retest reliability

50. Kevin reported a strong Cohen’s kappa during his

dissertation defense. This indicated:

a. Good interrater reliability

b. Good internal consistency

c. Poor interrater reliability

d. Poor internal consistency

51. Dr. Greenberg decides to prevent recent occurrences

of cheating on exams by making 2 versions. Which

of the following should she check before

administering?

a. Split Half reliability

b. Internal consistency

c. Alternate Form reliability

d. Test retest reliability

Validity of Measurement

52. Jason asks experts in the area of autism to review

items on his new measure assessing the spectrum of

autistic disorders in order to identify if the items are

appropriate. Jason is assessing:

a. Face Validity

b. Construct Validity

c. Content Validity

d. Criterion related Validity

53. Linda is correlating scores on the Beck Depression

Inventory to scores on an Antisocial Personality

Disorder measure to establish ___________ validity.

a. Construct

b. Divergent

c. Discriminant

d. All of the above

54. You are interested in predicting future success

(GPA) in graduate school based on GRE scores and

undergraduate GPA, however, professors have

knowledge of their students’ scores. What problem

might you have in calculating predictive validity of

GRE and GPA?

a. Criterion contamination

b. Crossover contamination

c. Predictor contamination

d. Construct contamination

55. Which of the following are not frequently used in

selecting personnel for employment?

a. Taylor Russell Model

b. Thurstone Model

c. Naylor Shine Model

d. Predictive Validity

Test Construction, Features, and Utility

56. Item Response Theory uses Item Characteristic

Curves to assess:

a. Difficulty

b. Discriminability

c. Mastery

d. Both a and b

57. Bret believes that GRE scores are better predictors of

grad school success for only US students not for

Foreign-born students. In response, Dr. Foster, states

that his results actually show that GRE scores are

systematically overpredicting US performance and

underpredicting foreign-born performance. This bias

is referred to as:

a. Item

b. Slope

c. Intercept


58. Dr. Gevirtz gives a pop quiz on the first day of

statistics to determine the ability/skill level of students

before beginning the course. What was Dr. Gevirtz

interested in?

a. Achievements

b. Criterion Keying

c. Latency

d. Aptitude

Answers Test I

1. b

2. a

3. a

4. d

5. c

6. a

7. a

8. d

9. b

10. b

11. d

12. d

13. b

14. a

15. c

16. d

17. c

18. b

19. b

20. a

21. b

22. a

23. c

24. a

25. d

26. b

27. c

28. d

29. a

30. d

31. c

32. a

33. d

34. b

35. d

36. d

37. b

38. b

39. c

40. a

41. b

42. a

43. d

44. b

45. a

46. c

47. b

48. c

49. d

50. a

51. c

52. c

53. d

54. a

55. b

56. d

57. c

58. d

METHODOLOGY SAMPLE TEST II The following review questions were not taken from past comp

exams or review packets. They were created by the reviewer

(Lynn Vogel) and will not represent all of the material that may

be on the exam. This is intended to serve as a review and not

your sole means of studying for the exam.

Research Design

1. A measured variable is called a(n):

a. Covariate



d. Confound

2. Random assignment is used to be reasonably sure that:

a. Any person from the population is equally

likely to be chosen to participate

b. All subjects are equally likely to be in any level

of the independent variable

c. All groups are equal (i.e. gender, age, ses)

d. Both b and c

3. An experimental design comparing 2 treatments for

depression controls for pretesting effects by

including a pretest and posttest for depression. This

design is called:

a. Pre-Post Control

b. Post Only Control

c. Time Series

d. Solomon 4 Group

4. A within subjects design in which the dependent

variable is administered at pretreatment,

posttreatment, and follow-up is called a ____ design.

a. Time Series

b. Factorial

c. Pre Post Control

d. Solomon 4 Group

5. Gender is a _______ independent variable while

Treatment Group is a ______ independent variable.

a. Patched, Manipulated

b. Static, Manipulated

c. Patched, Static

d. Gender cannot be an independent variable

6. Quasi-Experimental designs are unlike experimental

designs primarily due to:

a. Having at least one static independent variable

b. No true random assignment

c. Both a and b

d. Neither a nor b

7. Which observational design would be best to study the

risk factors associated with a particular outcome?

a. Cross Sectional

b. Retrospective Cross-Sectional

c. Cohort

d. Observational designs cannot be used

8. I am interested in assessing differences in IQ

between 15, 25, and 35 year olds. What design

would you use?

a. Cross Sectional

b. Retrospective Cross Sectional

c. Case Control

d. Cohort

9. In the above study, what may be your biggest concern

regarding internal validity?

a. Generalizability

b. Ceiling Effects

c. Floor Effects

d. Cohort Effects

10. ABAB, Multiple Baseline, and Changing Criterion are

designs used in which of the following types of

research?

a. Experimental

b. Quasi-Experimental

c. Observational

d. Single Subject

11. John is studying the differences between Ivy League,

Public, and Private Colleges. He randomly selects 5

Ivy League, 5 Public, and 5 Private schools and then

randomly selected students from only those schools.

This sampling technique is referred to as:



c. Cluster Sampling


12. Karen is conducting political poling in election year

2008. She divides the US into geographical locations

and then randomly selects subjects from each location

in order to fully represent the entire US population.

This type of sampling is referred to as:



c. Cluster Sampling


13. AIU is conducting a study comparing G1s to G4s on

their level of satisfaction with the psychology

program. What is the independent variable?

a. G1 versus G4

b. Level of Satisfaction

c. Psychology Program

d. There are only dependent variables

14. All of the following are threats to internal validity

except:

a. Maturation

b. Reactivity

c. Attrition

d. Regression to the Mean


15. Eric’s dissertation is based on comparing yoga versus

a control group on sleep quality. His ______

hypothesis states that the groups will exhibit no

significant differences on sleep quality whereas his

____ hypothesis states that the yoga group will exhibit

significantly better sleep quality than the control

group.

a. Alternative, Experimental

b. Experimental, Null

c. Alternative, Null

d. Null, Alternative

16. Maria is running so many tests that some could be

significant by chance alone and not due to real

differences. This is an example of:

a. Familywise Error

b. Experimentwise Error

c. Type I error

d. All of the above

17. Maria reruns her study and finds out that her power

is only .40 (low). What trouble will she encounter?

a. Type I error

b. Type II error

c. Confounds

d. Covariates

18. This theorem states that the more subjects we

randomly choose from the population, the better

representation we have.

a. Restriction of Range

b. Omnibus Selection

c. Central Limits

d. Factorial

19. The following distribution is:

VAR00004

10.08.06.04.02.0

50

40

30

20

10

0

Std. Dev = 1.63

Mean = 5.4

N = 95.00

a. Leptokurtotic

b. Skewed

c. Platykurtotic

d. Mesokurtotic

20. Which of the following does not measure the spread

of scores?

a. Variance

b. Sum of Squares

c. Degrees of Freedom

d. Mean Squares

Nonparametric Statistics

21. Which of the following is not a nonparametric

analysis for rank data?

a. Chi Square

b. Kruskal Wallis

c. Mann Whitney U Test

d. Wilcoxon Signed


22. The assumption of homogeneity of variance can be

tested by which of the following statistics?

a. Levene’s

b. Brown Forsythe

c. F-Max

d. All of the above

23. An F of 1 indicates:

a. Groups differ significantly

b. F values must be lower than 1

c. Groups are the same

d. F values must be greater than 1

24. If F is significant, the next step is to check:

a. Power

b. Magnitude of Effect

c. Homogeneity of Variance


25. Effect size is calculated as which of the following?

a. R2

b. Eta2

c. Omega2

d. All of the above

26. Ryan has 3 groups he is comparing and decides to run

4 additional planned comparisons. What is his next

step?

a. Evaluate familywise error rates

b. Use an alpha correction

c. Assess Type I Error

d. All of the above

27. A factorial analysis of variance is run when:

a. You have more than 1 dependent variables

b. You have more than 1 independent variables

c. You have a covariate

d. You do a factor analysis

28. In a study of the effects of year level (G1 vs G5) and

program (PhD vs. PsyD) at AIU on level of

satisfaction, Paul found that G1s rated satisfaction

lower than G5s in both PhD and PsyD programs. This

is an example of:

a. Main Effect

b. Interaction

c. Planned Comparison

d. Post Hoc Analysis

29. Which of the following is not an advantage of a

repeated measures design?

a. Can use a smaller sample size

b. Increase power

c. Reduce within group variance

d. Spherecity


30. As depression decreases, quality of life increases.

This is an example of a:

a. Positive correlation

b. Negative correlation

c. Causal Relationship

d. Indirect relationship


31. Which of the following is not a type of Multiple

Regression?

a. Simultaneous

b. Predictive

c. Stepwise

d. Hierarchical

32. Alice wants to be sure she has made an even amount

of errors in her prediction. She would most likely

assess the assumption of:

a. Homoscedasticity

b. Homogeneity of Regression

c. Linearity


33. To assess this student’s impact on Dr. Gevirtz’s

regression equation (model), which statistic would

you use?

a. Mahalanobi

b. Leverage

c. DfBeta

d. Cook’s

34. When applying the amount of variance explained by

your model (multiple regression) to other

populations, which statistic would be most

appropriate?

a. R2

b. Adjusted R2

c. Magnitude of Effect

d. Omega2

35. In order to compare the influence of predictors,

which statistic is best?

a. Beta weight

b. b weight

c. Tolerance

d. Durbin Watson

36. Beth states that metabolism uniquely accounts for

6% of the variance in weight loss with other

predictors held constant. Beth must have interpreted

which statistic?

a. Point Biserial

b. Semipartial

c. Chi-Square

d. Pearson

37. At Kayla’s yearly mammogram, her doctor

comments that detection results in many false

positives. Mammograms must therefore have:

a. High specificity

b. High sensitivity

c. Low specificity

d. High specificity

38. To determine the influence/contribution of

predictors in a Logistic Regression, one would

interpret the:

a. Significance level

b. Odds Ratio

c. b Weights


39. In Path Analysis/Structural Equation Modeling, a

variable that is measured by many other variables

(i.e. IQ) is referred to as:

a. Static

b. Manifest

c. Latent

d. Both a and c

40. A recent study has found that strong social support

may influence disease progression of breast cancer

patients. Social support is considered a:

a. Moderator

b. Mediator

c. Confound

d. Semipartial

41. You have an Anger Inventory with 100 items and

you want to see if those items can be reduced into

different subscales of anger. What statistical analysis

is most appropriate?

a. Repeated Measure

b. Multivariate Analysis of Variance

c. Structure Equation Modeling

d. Factor Analysis/Principal Components Analysis

42. The measures quality of life, beck depression

inventory, and the beck anxiety inventory are used in a

MANOVA. They are first tested as one dependent

variable called a:

a. Synthetic factor

b. Orthogonal factor

c. Familywise factor

d. Both a and c

43. Alan realizes that although he has randomly assigned

subjects to groups, they differ on the demographic

variable of socioeconomic status. In order to treat

socioeconomic status as a covariate, what is

necessary?

a. Relationship between the covariate and dependent

variable

b. Nonsignificant interaction between the covariate

and independent variable

c. Both a and b



44. The licensing exam would be described as:

a. Domain Referenced

b. Mastery

c. Criterion Referenced

d. All of the above

45. Which theory does not account for error but

recognizes that observed scores do vary by

circumstances.

a. Classical Measurement

b. Generalizability

c. Domain Sampling


46. Cathy tells you that her standard error is 4.27. This

value indicates:

a. Estimated band of error

b. Maximum amount of error

c. Range where true scores fall

d. Standard error is not a valid statistic


47. Difference scores (pre-post) are:

a. Notoriously unreliable

b. Highly recommended

c. Notoriously invalid


48. Ann calculates her test-retest reliability and tells you r

= .13. All of the following could be true except:

a. The construct is not stable

b. The interval was too long

c. Practice/carryover effects were not a problem

d. The interval was too short

49. Interrater reliability was calculated between Olympic

judges and was found to be low due to individual

interpretations of scoring that influenced their

observations over time. This problem is referred to as:

a. Individual Drift

b. Consensual Drift

c. Independent Drift

d. Subjective Drift

50. Which of the following would you recommend to

calculate internal consistency?

a. Cronbach Alpha

b. KR-20

c. Both a and b

d. Only pearson r’s are used for reliability


51. You are interested in comparing individuals who are

not clinically depressed to those who are on the

Beck Depression Inventory to establish its

__________ validity.

a. Divergent

b. Discriminative

c. Discriminant

d. Definitive

52. Multitrait Multimethod Matrices are used to explore:

a. Shared Method Variance

b. Convergent Constructs

c. Discriminant Variance

d. All of the above

53. Criterion related validity:

a. Ideally should be a perfect correlation

b. Addresses the utility of a measure

c. Can be concurrent or predictive

d. All of the above


54. Item discriminability refers to the extent to which the:

a. Subjects pass the item

b. Subjects fail the item

c. Item differentiates subjects

d. All of the above

55. Item test regression is used to:

a. Compare items on a test

b. Compare skill level of subjects

c. Assess hit rate percentages

d. Both a and c

56. Bret finds that GRE scores are better predictors of

grad school success for only US students not for

Foreign-born students. He is demonstrating what

kind of test bias?

a. Item

b. Slope

c. Intercept


57. Dr. Gevirtz then gives a final exam to assess:

a. Achievement

b. Criterion Keying

c. Latency

d. Aptitude

Answers Test II

1. c

2. d

3. d

4. a

5. b

6. c

7. b

8. a

9. d

10. d

11. c

12. a

13. a

14. b

15. d

16. d

17. b

18. c

19. a

20. c

21. a

22. d

23. c

24. b

25. d

26. d

27. b

28. a

29. d

30. b

31. b

32. a

33. d

34. b

35. a

36. b

37. c

38. b

39. c

40. a

41. d

42. a

43. c

44. d

45. b

46. a

47. a

48. d

49. a

50. c

51. b

52. a

53. d

54. c

55. a

56. b

57. a

METHODOLOGY SAMPLE TEST III The following review questions were not taken from past comp





Research Design

1. A psychologist wants to compare the effects of

behavior therapy, cognitive therapy, and

psychodynamic therapy on anxiety as measured by a

self-report level of anxiety, heart rate, and the Taylor

Manifest Anxiety Scale. Identify the independent

variable(s).

a. Therapy

b. Level of Anxiety

c. Heart Rate

d. Taylor Manifest Anxiety Scale

2. A psychologist wants to compare the effects of

behavior therapy, cognitive therapy, and

psychodynamic therapy on anxiety as measured by a

self-report level of anxiety, heart rate, and the Taylor

Manifest Anxiety Scale. Identify the dependent

variable(s).

a. Taylor Manifest Anxiety Scale

b. Level of Anxiety

c. Heart Rate

d. All of the above

3. To investigate the effects of television violence on

aggressive behavior, a social psychologist has male

and female children who have been identified as

either very aggressive, moderately aggressive,

mildly aggressive, or nonaggressive watch either a

violent or neutral film. Following the film, each

child is observed during a 60 minute free play period

and coded for the number of aggressive acts the

child exhibits. Identify the independent variable(s).

a. Gender of Child

b. Level of identified aggression

c. Number of aggressive acts

d. Both a and b

4. To investigate the effects of television violence on

aggressive behavior, a social psychologist has male

and female children who have been identified as

either very aggressive, moderately aggressive,

mildly aggressive, or nonaggressive watch either a

violent or neutral film. Following the film, each

child is observed during a 60 minute free play period

and coded for the number of aggressive acts the

child exhibits. Identify the dependent variable(s).

a. Gender of Child

b. Level of identified aggression

c. Number of aggressive acts

d. Both a and b

5. In a research study, what is being measured is

referred to as the:

a. Dependent Variable

b. Predictor Variable

c. Criterion Variable

d. All of the above

6. You would most likely conduct a case study in order to:

a. Determine the degree of association between

variables

b. Investigate variables over an extended period of

time

c. Identify variables to examine more systematically

later

d. There is no good reason to conduct case studies

7. Variability in the dependent variable due to

confounding variables is a source of:

a. Systematic error

b. Random error

c. Extraneous error

d. Both a and c

8. The presence of observers during the course of a

research study alters the way that subjects behave

during the course of the study. This is an example of

the threat to ________ validity known as _______.

a. External, Reactivity

b. Internal, Reactivity

c. External, Expectancy

d. Internal, Expectancy

9. The random assignment of subjects to treatment

groups is most useful for ensuring that the study has

adequate __________ validity.

a. Internal

b. Predictive

c. Discriminant

d. External

10. A high school teacher administers an achievement test

to high school freshmen at the beginning of the school

year, teaches the students test-taking strategies, and

then readministers the achievement test at the end of

the school year. Which of the following is not a threat

to this study’s internal validity.

a. Maturation

b. History

c. Selection


11. A researcher evaluates the effects of a 15-month

training program on the conversation skills of

preoperational children. At the end of the program, he

determines that a significantly greater number of

children converse after the program than before. The

greatest threat to this study’s internal validity is:

a. Maturation

b. Within Group History

c. Order Effects

d. Carryover

12. A factorial design:

a. Includes 3 or more levels of a single independent

variable

b. Includes 2 or more independent variables

c. Includes 2 or more dependent variables

d. Includes at least 1 covariate

13. To assess the effects of communicator credibility on

attitude change, an experimenter randomly assigns

60 males and 60 females to either the high, average,

or low communicator credibility condition. After the

communicator delivers a speech about a political

candidate, the experimenter asks each subject for

his/her opinion of the candidate. This study

illustrates which of the following research designs?

a. Between groups

b. Within Group

c. Mixed Design

d. Repeated Measures

14. The biggest threat to the study’s external validity in

a within subject (repeated measure design) is:

a. Statistical regression

b. Regression to the mean

c. Interaction between selection and treatment

d. Order effects

15. Which of the following studies would ALWAYS be

considered quasi-experimental?

a. An analogue study because its results would

have limited Generalizability

b. A study using a counterbalanced design because

subjects receive more than one treatment

c. A study using a repeated measures design

because the study may be confounded by

practice effects

d. An ex-post facto study because the researcher

cannot assign subjects to groups

16. Twenty children enrolled in Preschool A are

assigned to the experimental group of a research

study and twenty children enrolled in Preschool B

are assigned to the control group. Children in the

experimental group are given instruction on the

differences between squares and rectangles, while

children in the control group do not receive this

instruction. Several weeks later, a test is

administered to all children to reassess their ability

to distinguish between squares and rectangles.

Which of the following are MOST likely to threaten

the study’s internal validity?

a. Instrumentation and maturation

b. Selection and history

c. Regression and maturation

d. Diffusion and Selection

17. A researcher is using a repeated measures design to

assess the effectiveness of different behavioral

techniques for reducing transitory anxiety. To

control potential carryover effects, the researcher

should use which of the following?

a. A control group

b. Blocking

c. Counterbalancing

d. Cross-Sequential Design

18. An experimenter wants to investigate the short and

long term effects of four different smoking cessation

programs. She randomly assigns 80 smokers to one

of the four programs. After each program is

completed, the experimenter determines the number

of cigarettes smoked by each participant each day

immediately following the program, 3 months after

the program, and 6 months after the program. The

research design being used by the experimenter is best

described as:

a. Between Subjects

b. Within Subjects

c. Mixed Design

d. Counterbalanced

19. When conducting evaluation research, the first step is

ordinarily which of the following:

a. Conducting job analyses

b. Operationally defining the predictors

c. Clarifying the content domain

d. Defining the program’s objectives


20. Beta is the probability of:

a. Correctly rejecting the null hypothesis

b. Incorrectly rejecting the null hypotheses

c. Correctly retaining the null hypothesis

d. Incorrectly retaining the null hypothesis

21. A _______ test states that the null is false and whether

the sample will be greater than or less than the control.

a. One-tailed

b. Two-tailed

c. Either a or b


22. A biofeedback techniques gives temperature in

degrees F. This is an example of what scale?

a. Ordinal

b. Nominal

c. Ratio

d. Interval

23. Ranking of peers in terms of popularity is on what

type of scale?

a. Ordinal

b. Nominal

c. Ratio

d. Interval

24. Of the three measures of central tendency, which is

the least susceptible to sampling fluctuations?

a. Mean

b. Median

c. Mode

d. Variance

25. Of the three measures of central tendency, which is

the least susceptible to outliers?

a. Standard error

b. Median

c. Mode

d. Variance

26. In a normal distribution, approximately _________%

of observations fall between the scores that are plus

and minus 1 standard deviation from the mean?

a. 99

b. 95

c. 68

d. 50

27. The standard error of the mean is the:

a. Standard Error of the sampling distribution

b. Standard deviation of the sampling distribution

of the mean

c. Standard error of the sample population

d. Monte Carlo statistic


28. You have collected IQ scores from schizophrenic

and non-schizophrenic patients who have been

classified as either high, middle, or low in

socioeconomic status. Which test(s) will you use to

analyze the data?

a. Multi Sample Chi-Square

b. 1-way ANOVA

c. Factorial ANOVA

d. Either b or c

29. A psychologist obtains a statistically significant F

ratio for the interaction of Factor A x B. This means

that:

a. The effects of Factor A are the same across the

same levels of Factor B

b. The effects of Factor A are different across

different levels of Factor B

c. The effects of Factor A are the same across

different levels of Factor B

d. The effects of Factor A are different across the

same levels of Factor B

30. You have collected IQ scores from patients who

have and have not received a diagnosis of

Schizophrenia and whose families have been

classified as either high, moderate, or low in

“expressed emotion.” To analyze the data you have

collected, you will use the:

a. Multiple Sample Chi-Square test

b. One Way ANOVA

c. Two Way ANOVA

d. Regression

31. The numerator of the F ratio is a measured of the

variability due to:

a. Error + Treatment Effects

b. Treatment Effects Only

c. Error Only



32. A curvilinear relationship between achievement and

anxiety is likely to have what effect of the Pearson r?

a. Overestimates

b. No significant effect

c. Underestimates

d. Unpredictable effects

33. When data points are widely scattered in a scatter

plot matrix for variables X and Y, this indicates that

the correlation between X and Y is:

a. Very low

b. Moderate

c. Very High

d. Perfect

34. You are interested in correlating sex of respondent

with attitude toward abortion (measured on an interval

scale). Which of the following correlation techniques

would you use?

a. Pearson r

b. Point Biserial

c. Phi Coefficient

d. Contingency Coefficient


35. A researcher interested in determining the causal

relationship between several variables would be most

likely to use which of the following?

a. Discriminant Analysis

b. Canonical Correlation

c. Logistic Regression

d. Path Analysis

36. The “shrinkage” associated with the cross-validation

of multiple regression equations is ordinarily

attributable to which of the following?

a. High correlations between predictors

b. Low initial correlations between the predictors

and the criterion

c. Regression to the mean

d. The impact of chance factors in the original

sample

37. Which analysis would you use if you wanted to

predict a dichotomous outcome using few

assumptions?

a. Path Analysis


c. Multiple Regression


38. When data points are narrowly scattered around the

regression line in a scatter plot, this indicates that the

correlation between X and Y is:

a. Very low

b. Moderate

c. Very High

d. Zero

39. One of the assumptions of regression analysis is that:

a. There is a linear relationship between the variables

b. There is a casual relationship between the variables

c. Subjects were randomly assigned to groups

d. The predictors are dichotomous


40. On a 75-item test, a student obtains a score that is at

the 75th

percentile. This means that:

a. The student answered all questions correctly

b. The student answered 75% of the items correctly

c. The student’s score exceeded 25% of the scores

obtained by others

d. The student’s score exceeded 75% of the scores

obtained by others

41. If you are interested in assessing individual

differences, you would prefer test scores to be:

a. Criterion referenced

b. Normed

c. Standardized

d. Percentages


42. When a test’s reliability coefficient is equal to 1.0,

its standard error of measurement:

a. Is equal to 1.0

b. Is equal to 0.0

c. Is greater than 0 but less than 1

d. Is equal to the test’s standard deviation

43. To reduce consensual observer drift, you would:

a. Have observers check each others’ ratings

b. Have observers work independently

c. Use a single blind technique

d. Use a double blind technique


44. To determine the criterion-related validity of a test, a

psychologist administers the test to current

employees and correlates their test scores with

available supervisor ratings. This is an example of a

___________________ validation study.

a. Convergent

b. Predictive

c. Concurrent

d. Construct

45. In a multitrait multimethod matrix, a test’s validity

would be confirmed if the:

a. Monotrait monomethod coefficients are low and

the heterotrait heteromethod coefficients are high

b. Monotrait heteromethod coefficients are high and

the heterotrait monomethod coefficients are low

c. Monotrait monomethod coefficients are high and

the monotrait heteromethod coefficients are low

d. Heterotrait monomethod coefficients are high and

the heterotrait heteromethod coefficients are low

46. Criterion contamination tends to artificially _______

a predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient.

a. Invalidate

b. Prove

c. Inflate

d. Deflate


47. A screening test developed to identify children with

learning disabilities is administered to 100 children,

60 who have a learning disability and 40 who do

not. The test correctly identifies 50 of the 60

children with learning disabilities and 25 of the

children who do not have learning disabilities. The

number of false positives in this situation is:

a. 50

b. 25

c. 15

d. 10

Answers Test III

1. a

2. d

3. c

4. c

5. d

6. c

7. a

8. a

9. a

10. c

11. a

12. b

13. a

14. d

15. d

16. b

17. c

18. c

19. d

20. d

21. b

22. d

23. a

24. a

25. b

26. c

27. b

28. c

29. b

30. c

31. a

32. c

33. a

34. b

35. d

36. d

37. b

38. c

39. a

40. d

41. b

42. b

43. b

44. c

45. b

46. c

47. c

METHODOLOGY SAMPLE TEST IV The following review questions were not taken from past comp





Research Design

1. An educational psychologist wants to test the

hypothesis that the effectiveness of a mastery

learning method (versus a traditional method) for

learning college algebra is a function of both math

aptitude and math anxiety. Identify the independent

variable(s).

a. Math aptitude and anxiety

b. Learning method

c. College algebra achievement

d. Both a and b

2. An educational psychologist wants to test the

hypothesis that the effectiveness of a mastery

learning method (versus a traditional method) for

learning college algebra is a function of both math

aptitude and math anxiety. Identify the dependent

variable(s).

a. Math aptitude and anxiety

b. Learning method

c. College algebra achievement

d. Both a and b

3. A researcher asks a sample of male and female

mental health professionals to describe a “healthy

male adult” and a “healthy female adult”. Based on

his review of the literature, the researcher

hypothesizes that the adjectives used by both male

and female mental health professionals to describe a

healthy male adult will be more positive than the

adjectives used to describe the healthy female adult.

Identify the independent variable(s).

a. Gender of mental health professional

b. Gender of healthy adult

c. Descriptive adjectives

d. Both a and b

4. A researcher asks a sample of male and female

mental health professionals to describe a “healthy

male adult” and a “healthy female adult”. Based on

his review of the literature, the researcher

hypothesizes that the adjectives used by both male

and female mental health professionals to describe a

healthy male adult will be more positive than the

adjectives used to describe the healthy female adult.

Identify the dependent variable(s).

a. Gender of mental health professional

b. Gender of healthy adult

c. Descriptive adjectives

d. Both a and b

5. In a research study, different treatment groups that

are being compared represent the different levels of

the:



c. Static Variable

d. Control Variable

6. An investigator believes that job satisfaction and

motivation are related to level of self esteem. To test

this hypothesis, she will administer measures of self-

esteem, job satisfaction, and job motivation to a

sample of workers at a large manufacturing company.

The problem with this study is that any relationship

that the investigator finds between variables may be

due to ____ variables rather than the ____ variable.

a. Extraneous, Independent

b. Confounding, Independent

c. Both a and b


7. Due to the unreliability of a test, many subjects who

receive extremely high scores on the first

administration of a test receive scores closer to the

mean on the second administration. This is referred to

as:

a. Multiple Regression

b. Reactivity

c. Regression to the mean

d. Logistic regression

8. Demand characteristics are a threat to a study’s

______ validity when cues suggest the behavior that is

expected by the experimenters.

a. Internal

b. Predictive

c. Discriminant

d. External

9. Counterbalancing is used to control for:

a. Order effects

b. Practice effects

c. Maturation

d. Selection

10. Pretesting is a threat to a study’s internal validity when:

a. Different tests are used as the pretest and posttest

b. Exposure to the pretest alters subjects’ reactions

to the treatment

c. Exposure to the pretest alters subjects’

performance on the posttest

d. Pretesting is never a threat to validity

11. Attrition is most likely to be a threat to a study’s

internal validity when:

a. A significant number of subjects drop out of a

study before completion

b. A larger number of subjects drop out of one group

more than the other groups

c. The type of subjects that drop out of one group

differ from the type of subjects that drop out of

another group

d. Attrition is always a problem

12. An experimenter compares the effects of 3 different

diets on weight loss by assigning overweight subjects

to either Diet A, Diet B, or Diet C and then

determining each subject’s weight one week, 6 weeks,

and 3 months after beginning the diet. This study is an

example of which of the following research?

a. Between Groups

b. Within Groups

c. Mixed Design

d. ABAB Design

13. A behavioral psychologist interested in the

effectiveness of self-reinforcement procedure on the

caloric intake of overweight adolescents would most

likely use a “reversal” single-subject design in order

to control which of the following?

a. History effects

b. Reactivity effects

c. Order effects

d. Placebo effects

14. Which of the following would be most useful for

helping the investigator above control the threat to

internal validity of his study?

a. An unobtrusive measure

b. A control group

c. A Solomon 4-Group Design

d. Random Selection

15. Ethical considerations often dictate which research

design an investigator should use. Thus, when

investigating the effectiveness of aversion therapy

for reducing violent and aggressive behaviors, a

researcher would MOST likely use which of the

following single-subject designs?

a. Time series

b. Multiple Baseline

c. Posttest only

d. Reversal

16. When conducting a research study, a psychologist

would use matching in order to:

a. Ensure that variability in the dependent variable

is not due to random error

b. Maximize the effects of an extraneous variable

on the dependent variable

c. Maximize the effects of the independent

variable on the dependent variable

d. Ensure that groups are initially equivalent with

regard to an extraneous variable

17. An investigator would use blocking to control an

extraneous variable when:

a. The study includes a small number of subjects

b. The variable does not correlate with the

dependent variable

c. The investigator wants to statistically remove

the effects of that variable

d. The investigator wants to statistically analyze

the effects of that variable

18. Dr. I Que conducts a cross-sectional study to assess

the effects of increasing age on certain cognitive

abilities. The results of her study suggest that these

abilities begin to deteriorate during the early 20s.

When interpreting the results of her study, Dr. Que

should be aware that the study may have been

contaminated by:

a. Demand characteristics

b. Halo effects

c. Cohort effects

d. Carryover effects

19. Which of the following is an example of demand

characteristics?

a. An experimenter double checks his data whenever

it doesn’t conform to the research

b. Subjects alter their behaviors in ways that help

them avoid negative evaluations by the

experiment

c. Subtle cues in the environment communicate to

subjects what behaviors are expected of them

d. Research assistants change they way they code

data after speaking to each other

20. Threats to internal validity reduce an investigator’s

ability to determine:

a. Relationships

b. Causality

c. Generalizability



21. If a researcher compares the difference between 2

means to assess the effectiveness of an independent

variable on the dependent variable, she will have most

confidence in that they are found to be statistically

significant at the _________ level of significance?

a. .01

b. .5

c. .001

d. .05

22. A psychologist administers an achievement test to a

group of 75 hyperactive 6th

graders. The mean of the

distribution of scores is 40 and the standard deviation

is 8. In this distribution, a raw score of 50 would be

equivalent to a z score of:

a. +1.25

b. +1.00

c. +5.00

d. +10.0

23. In a negatively skewed distribution:

a. The median is greater than the mean

b. The median is less than the mean

c. The mean is greater than the mode

d. The median is greater than the mode

24. If one or two extreme scores are added to a

distribution of 50 scores:

a. The value of the mean will be affected more than

the value of the median

b. The value of the median will be affected more

than the value of the mean

c. The value of the mode will be affected more than

the median or mean

d. The mean, median, and mode are affected equally

25. A ______ test states that the null hypothesis is false

and does not predict a direction.

a. One-tailed

b. Two-tailed

c. Either a or b


26. Scores obtained on the Beck Depression Inventory

are on which scale?

a. Ordinal

b. Nominal

c. Ratio

d. Interval

27. College major is measured on what kind of scale?

a. Ordinal

b. Nominal

c. Ratio

d. Interval

28. As alpha increases, the probability of making a Type

II error ____________ and power _____________.

a. Increases, Decreases

b. Decreases, Increases

c. Increases, Increases

d. Decreases, Decreases

29. Power refers to the:

a. Sensitivity of finding real differences

b. How big a difference there is between groups

c. Probability of correctly rejecting the null

d. Both a and c



30. A researcher wants to assess the effectiveness of a

training course for improving SAT scores by

comparing pretest and posttest scores for a group of

high school seniors. To analyze the data obtained in

this study, the researcher should use which statistical

test?

a. 2-Way ANOVA

b. Repeated Measures Chi-Square

c. Kolmogorov

d. Paired Samples T-test

31. Two variables indicate that the effects of different

levels of one variable are not the same at the levels

of another variable. This is referred to as a(n):

a. Interaction

b. Main Effect

c. Post Hoc

d. Confound

32. Post Hoc comparisons are conducted when:

a. The F ratio is insignificant

b. The F ratio is significant

c. The F ratio indicates an interaction

d. The F ration indicates a main effect

33. To assess “interaction effects” you must be using:

a. A true experimental design

b. A multivariate design

c. A factorial design


34. An increase in experimentwise error refers to an

increase in:

a. Type I error

b. Type II error

c. Familywise error

d. Both a and b


35. Which of the following correlation coefficients is

most appropriate for the relationship between gender

and SAT score?

a. Spearman

b. Point Biserial

c. Biserial

d. Chi Square

36. A ____ correlation indicates that people scoring low

on one variable tend to obtain high scores on another.

a. Positive

b. Zero

c. Perfect

d. Negative

37. If the correlation between X and Y is .70, this means

that _____% of the variability in Y is explained by X.

a. 49

b. 30

c. 70

d. 7


38. The sum of the deviations of data points from a

regression line:

a. Is always positive

b. Is always negative

c. Always equals 0

d. Is equal to the variance explained

39. A researcher is likely to conduct a _______ rotation in a

factor analysis if he believes that the factors underlying

the tests included in the analysis are correlated.

a. Oblique

b. Orthogonal

c. Varimax

d. Both b and c

40. Which analysis would you use if you were to test

theories about relationships between variables?

a. Path Analysis


c. Multiple Regression


41. If the relationship between two variables disappears

when you take away another variable, you have a:

a. Mediator

b. Confound

c. Moderator

d. Covariate

42. Multicollinearity:

a. Increases the probability that a correlation will be

statistically significant

b. Refers to high correlations between predictors and

is a problem for multiple regression

c. Refers to high correlations between the predictor

and outcome and is not a problem

d. Provides semi-partial correlations for each

predictor


43. The test taken to qualify for a driver’s license is an

example of a:

a. Criterion referenced test

b. Normed test

c. Validation test

d. Construct validity


44. To maximize a test’s reliability coefficient, you

would:

a. Make sure the test is homogenous with regard

to content domain

b. Include in the tryout sample individual who are

homogenous with regard to the attribute

measured by the test

c. Use a true-false item format

d. Make sure the test is valid

45. Which of the following would be the least

appropriate for assessing the reliability of a 20 item

arithmetic test?

a. Test Retest

b. Coefficient Alpha

c. Split-Half

d. All of the above are appropriate


46. Convergent and Discriminant validity are both

methods for assessing ___________ validity.

a. Predictive

b. Construct

c. Criterion Related

d. Discriminative

47. A test developed would you multitrait multimethod

matrices in order to assess a test’s:

a. Differential validity

b. Incremental validity

c. Concurrent and predictive validity

d. Convergent and discriminant validity

48. The difference between predictive and concurrent

validity is most related to:

a. The time interval between administration of the

predictor and the criterion

b. The type of statistic used to analyze data

collected on the predictor and the criterion

c. The nature of the construct measured by the

predictor

d. The sources of measurement error


49. A 25-item test is administered to a group of

examinees and the resulting distribution of scores is

negatively skewed. Adding a few items to the test

that have difficult index between .00 and .50 will

most likely:

a. Increase the negative skewness of the

distribution

b. Cause the distribution to become positively

skewed

c. Change shape of the distribution so that it is

closer to normal

d. Change the shape of the distribution so that it is

less than normal

Answers Test IV

1. d

2. c

3. d

4. c

5. b

6. c

7. c

8. d

9. a

10. c

11. c

12. c

13. a

14. b

15. b

16. d

17. d

18. c

19. c

20. b

21. c

22. a

23. a

24. a

25. a

26. d

27. b

28. b

29. d

30. d

31. a

32. b

33. c

34. d

35. b

36. d

37. a

38. c

39. a

40. a

41. a

42. b

43. a

44. a

45. a

46. b

47. d

48. a

49. c

METHODOLOGY SAMPLE TEST V The following review questions were not taken from past comp





Research Design

1. An educational psychologist believes that children

will be better spellers if they are provided with

“spaced” rather than “massed” practice. Identify the

independent variable(s).

a. Spaced Practice

b. Massed Practice

c. Type of Practice

d. Spelling ability

2. An educational psychologist believes that children

will be better spellers if they are provided with

“spaced” rather than “massed” practice. Identify the

dependent variable(s).

a. Spaced Practice

b. Massed Practice

c. Type of Practice

d. Spelling ability

3. A psychologist suspects that a teacher’s expectations

about a student’s academic performance will have a

“self-fulfilling prophecy” effect on the student’s

actual academic achievement but that the magnitude

of effect will depend on the student’s level of self-

esteem. Identify the independent variable(s).

a. Self Esteem

b. Academic performance

c. Teacher’s Expectations

d. Both a and c

4. A psychologist suspects that a teacher’s expectations

about a student’s academic performance will have a

“self-fulfilling prophecy” effect on the student’s

actual academic achievement but that the magnitude

of effect will depend on the student’s level of self-

esteem. Identify the dependent variable(s).

a. Self Esteem

b. Academic performance

c. Teacher’s Expectations

d. Both a and c

5. In a true experiment, the variable that subjects are

randomly assigned to is referred to as the:



c. Static Variable

d. Control Variable

6. A researcher divides the population into subgroups

according to certain characteristics (i.e. age,

ethnicity, etc) and then randomly selects subjects

from each subgroup. This sampling technique is

known as:

a. Stratified Random

b. Cluster Sampling

c. Quota Sampling

d. Stratified Clusters

7. The primary difference between the true experimental

research and quasi-experimental research is that in the

former:

a. Subjects are randomly assigned to groups

b. Subjects are randomly selected from the

population

c. Subjects are both randomly assigned and selected

d. Subjects are unaware of which group they were

selected for

8. Variability in the dependent variable due to the

unreliability of the measuring instruments is source of:

a. Systematic error

b. Random error

c. Extraneous error

d. Both a and c

9. The random selection of subjects for a research study is

most useful for maximizing a study’s _____ validity.

a. Internal

b. Predictive

c. Discriminant

d. External

10. The double blind technique is most useful for

controlling.

a. Carryover effects

b. Reactivity

c. Practice effects

d. Differential selection

11. The Solomon Four-Group Design is used to control

which of the following?

a. Instrumentation

b. Pretesting

c. Order Effects

d. Selection

12. Subjects for a research study at a university are

volunteers from the subject pool. Most of the subjects

are psychology undergraduates. In this situation,

“selection” is a threat to the study’s:

a. External validity

b. Internal Validity

c. Incremental Validity

d. Both a and b

13. Which of the following single subject designs would

you be LEAST likely to use when assessing the

effectiveness of a behavioral treatment for reducing

head-banging in autistic children?

a. AB

b. ABAB

c. Multiple Baseline

d. Either a or b

14. An advantage of the ABA design over the AB design

is that the former better controls which of the

following threats to internal validity?

a. Instrumentation

b. Regression

c. History

d. Experimenter Expectancy

15. An investigator, using one group time series design

to assess the effects of a new safety campaign on a

number of work –related accidents at a large

manufacturing company, measures the number of

accidents at regular intervals 6 months before and 6

months after instituting the safety campaign. The

investigator can probably consider which of the

following to be the biggest threat to the internal

validity of his study?

a. Regression

b. Maturation

c. History

d. Attrition

16. Dr. CP Anderson, an industrial psychologist, is

conducting a research study to assess the effects of a

special training course on the job performance of

accountants. In addition, Dr. Anderson wants to

determine if the effectiveness of the course is

affected by the administration of a pretest.

Therefore, she is most likely to use which of the

following research designs?

a. Solomon 4-Group

b. Latin Square

c. Time Series

d. Multivariate

17. The independent variable(s) in the above study is (are):

a. Training Course

b. Training Course and Pretesting

c. Job Satisfaction and Job Motivation

d. Course effectiveness

18. An educational psychologist believes that the use of

reinforcers to improve the academic achievement of

primary school children will be more effective for

slow learners. She administers an academic

achievement test to all first grade children in a large

public school and then includes in her study only

those children who received the lowest scores on the

test. After eight weeks of reinforcement, the

psychologist readministers the academic

achievement test to the students to determine if the

reinforcement has had a positive effect. The major

threat to the internal validity of this study is:

a. Restriction of range

b. Attrition

c. Selection

d. Carryover effects

19. When conducting an analogue study, you would be

most concerned about:

a. Limited ecological validity

b. Limited population validity

c. Limited internal validity

d. Limited construct validity


20. The scale of measurement that is characterized by

equal intervals and an arbitrary 0 point is which of

the following?

a. Ordinal

b. Ratio

c. Nominal

d. Interval

21. The shape of a distribution on z scores is:

a. Always flat

b. Always bimodal

c. Identical to the distribution of raw scores

d. Always bell-shaped (normal)

22. Alpha is the probability of:

a. Correctly rejecting the null hypothesis

b. Incorrectly rejecting the null hypotheses

c. Correctly retaining the null hypothesis

d. Incorrectly retaining the null hypothesis

23. A psychologist obtains IQ scores for a group of 250

junior high school students. Assuming that the scores

are normally distributed, the psychologist can

conclude that approximately _______ % of the scores

fall within 2 standard deviations above and below the

mean of the distribution?

a. 99

b. 95

c. 68

d. 50

24. The number of times a rat presses a lever for a reward

demonstrates what kind of data?

a. Ordinal

b. Nominal

c. Ratio

d. Interval

25. Birth order is measured on what scale?

a. Ordinal

b. Nominal

c. Ratio

d. Interval

26. Which of the following describes the relationship

between the variance and the standard deviation?

a. Variance is 2x the size of standard deviation

b. Variance is the square root of standard deviation

c. Variance is the square of standard deviation



27. Nonparametric techniques are also known as:

a. Small sample inferential statistics

b. Distribution free tests

c. Multivariate tests

d. Descriptive techniques


28. A psychologist would use the analysis of covariance

when analyzing the data collected in a research study

in order to:

a. Maximize true score variability

b. Statistically remove the effects of extraneous

variables

c. Statistically analyze the effects of

confounding variables

d. Minimize the effects of random error

29. In order to assess interaction effects, a research study

must include at least:

a. 2 levels of one independent variable

b. More than 2 levels of one independent

variable

c. 2 levels each of 2 independent variables

d. 2 levels each of 2 dependent variables

30. You are interested in analyzing the difference in IQ

scores of two samples. Each sample consists of 25

students. The appropriate statistical technique is:

a. Multiple sample chi-square

b. Kolmogorov test

c. T test for independent samples

d. Regression

31. Which of the following is used to compare means?

a. 1-Way ANOVA

b. T-test

c. Both a and b


32. The relationship between main effects and

interactions is described as:

a. You can only have an interaction if both main

effects are significant

b. You can only have main effects if the

interaction is significant

c. You can only have either a main effect or an

interaction



33. Individuals scoring low on a quality of life scale

tend to score highly on a depression scale. This

relationship is an example of a:

a. Positive Correlation

b. Negative Correlation

c. Multiple Correlation

d. Point Biserial Correlation

34. Which of the following correlation coefficients is most

appropriate when data on both variables is rank ordered?

a. Biserial

b. Phi

c. Spearman


35. A researcher obtains IQ scores and psychology exam

scores from a group of students. He correlated the 2

sets of scores and obtains an r of -.42. This means

approximately ___% of the variance in IQ scores is

shared in common with psychology exam scores.

a. 32

b. 58

c. 17

d. 42


36. A researcher uses scores on several measures to

predict scores on a criterion. The researcher is using

the multivariate technique known as:

a. Logistic Regression

b. Predictive Regression

c. Discriminant Regression

d. Multiple Regression

37. The least squares criterion is used to:

a. Determine the location of the regression line in

a scatter plot

b. Statistically remove the effects of a confounding

variable

c. Identify the criterion group that an examinee

most closely resembles

d. Determine if the model fits the data

38. In factor analysis, a factor loading expresses the

correlation between:

a. Communality and Component

b. Item and Component

c. Eigenvalue and Item

d. Synthetic factors are used instead of loadings

39. When a correlation coefficient is significantly higher

for males than for females, gender is acting as a:

a. Blocking variable

b. Suppressor variable

c. Dichotomous variable

d. Moderator variable

40. Dr. Locke wants to investigate his theory that past

performance determines one’s feelings of self-efficacy

which in turn affect one’s goals and goal attainment.

Which of the following techniques will be most useful

for this investigation?

a. Cannonical

b. Path Analysis

c. Discriminant Analysis

d. Both a and b


41. Mastery tests are ____________.

a. Criterion Referenced

b. Normed

c. Both a and b


42. According to classical test theory, measurement error is:

a. Unsystematic

b. Systematic

c. Both a and b

d. Due to invalidity


43. KR-20 is a variation of coefficient alpha that can be

used to test items that are:

a. Dichotomous

b. Polychotomous

c. Thurstone scaled

d. All of the above

44. The major problem when using percent agreement as a

measure of interrater reliability is that this method:

a. Tends to underestimate the level of agreement

b. Cannot be used when the variability of one

scorer’s scores differs substantially from another

c. Doesn’t take into account chance agreement

d. There are no major problems with percent

agreement statistics

45. The same test is readministered to the same examinee

six times over a 12 month period and the examinee

gets six different scores. This suggests the test has:

a. Low reliability

b. Low predictive validity

c. Low convergent validity

d. High differential validity


46. Tenured professors would be asked to review items

for an observational scale used to rate the

performance of 1st year instructors in order to

establish the scale’s ___________ validity.

a. Construct

b. Face

c. Criterion

d. Content

47. A school psychologist develops a test for high

school freshmen to identify students who are likely

to quit school prior to graduation. The psychologist

will be most interested in establishing which type of

validity for this test?

a. Content

b. Construct

c. Convergent

d. Criterion-Related

48. Which of the following is a measure of construct

validity?

a. Convergent

b. Divergent

c. Discriminative

d. All of the above


49. Which item difficulty level is associated with the

greatest differentiation of examinees:

a. +1

b. .5

c. .01

d. -1

50. When using an objective test:

a. An examinee will obtain the same score

regardless of who scores the test

b. Items included in the test have been found to

correlate highly with an objective criterion

c. The test must be administered in accord with

clearly defined guidelines

d. Both a and c

51. A “D” index refers to an item’s:

a. Discriminability

b. Difficulty

c. Distractibility

d. Both a and b

52. Mortality in a study refers to:

a. The death of subjects

b. The death of researchers

c. Loss of respondents to a treatment group

d. Both a and b

Answers Test V

1. c

2. d

3. d

4. b

5. b

6. a

7. a

8. b

9. d

10. b

11. b

12. a

13. b

14. c

15. c

16. a

17. b

18. a

19. a

20. d

21. c

22. b

23. b

24. c

25. a

26. c

27. b

28. b

29. c

30. c

31. c

32. d

33. b

34. c

35. c

36. d

37. a

38. b

39. d

40. b

41. a

42. a

43. a

44. c

45. a

46. d

47. d

48. d

49. b

50. a

51. a

52. c

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