methodology of training and development chapter-1...

Methodology of Training and Development

Chapter-1: Introduction to Employee learning and Development

Self Assessment Questions

1. In learning theory, the naturally occurring response is called the:

a. unconditioned response.

b. conditioned response.

c. conditioned stimulus.

d. None of these

2. Who is described as being a radical behaviorist?

a. Pavlov.

b. Bandura.

c. Watson.

d. Skinner.

3. Consequences that discourage repetition of a particular behavior are called:

a. operant conditioning.

b. extinction.

c. negative reinforcement.

d. positive reinforcement.

4. The model of personality as learned habits was developed by:

a. Dollard and Miller.

b. Watson.

c. Skinner.

d. Bandura.

5. Dollard and Miller classify the situation where we have to choose between two equally attractive

goals as:

a. double approach-avoidance conflict.

b. approach-approach conflict.

c. approach-avoidance conflict.

d. avoidance-avoidance conflict.

6. The processes that drive behavior in Bandura's model are called:

a. motivational forces.

b. internal self-regulatory processes.

c. reciprocal determinism.

d. principle of opposites.

7. In Bandura's model, the situation where an individual enlists someone else to help change some

aspect of their life is called:

a. collective agency.

b. personal agency.

c. proxy agency.

d. interpersonal agency.

8. Which of the following are NOT important in modelling behavior, as described by Bandura?

a. Attributes of the observer.

b. Consequences of imitating behavior.

c. Classical conditioning.

d. Characteristics of the model.

9. Which of these is NOT a procedure for improving self-efficacy?

a. Avoidance behavior.

b. Vicarious experience.

c. Participant modeling.

d. Performance of the task.

10. Which of these processes is NOT in Rotter's equation to predict how an individual behaves in a

particular situation?

a. Reinforcement value.

b. Expectancy.

c. Social acceptability.

d. Personality coefficient.

11. Which personality theorist questioned the stability of personality traits across situations?

a. Mischel.

b. Bandura.

c. Rotter.

d. Skinner.

12. In one line of research, aggression has been measured in terms of whether an inflated plastic doll

was punched or not. Such a measure is referred to as .....................____.

a. a releaser

b. a catharsis

c. machismo

d. an analogue

13. Which view argued that aggression was a healthy release for primitive survival instincts?

a. The neo-Freudians.

b. Classical Freudian theory.

c. Evolutionary social psychology.

d. The ethological approach.

14. According to the excitation-transfer model, which is NOT a prerequisite for expressed

aggression?

a. A learned aggressive behavior.

b. A defenceless target.

c. Arousal from another source.

d. The person's interpretation of an arousal state.

15. How have hate crimes been defined in the literature?

a. As lynching’s carried out in the 1930s.

b. As crimes against an aggressive subculture.

c. As criminal violence committed by the economically deprived.

d. As crimes committed against members of a minority group.

16. According to social learning theory, which of the following is NOT a feature relevant to

explaining aggression?

a. Success for behaving aggressively in the past.

b. A person's previous experience of aggressive behaviour.

c. The person's level of testosterone.

d. The likelihood of an aggressive being punished or rewarded.

17. What did Strauss and colleagues (1997) find in their two-year longitudinal study of the effects of

spanking children?

a. An inverse relationship between the rate of spanking and a child's level of antisocial

behavior.

b. A nearly linear relationship between the rate of spanking and a child's level of antisocial

behavior.

c. That children who are never spanked grow into undisciplined and selfish people.

d. That parents who had been spanked as children hardly ever resorted to spanking.

18. Is any evidence linking the level of testosterone to being aggressive?

a. No. There is a total absence of any relevant evidence.

b. Yes. Being aggressive causes an increase in the level of the male hormone.

c. Yes. Gay men are less aggressive than heterosexual men.

d. Yes. Males show higher levels of overt aggression than females.

19. What kind of graph, or graph line best represents the relationship between temperature and

aggression?

a. As an inverted U.

b. As a sine curve.

c. As random dots.

d. As a straight rising line.

20. There is strong evidence of cultural variation in attitudes towards aggression. What can we

deduce from this?

a. That there is a clear learning component in expressing one's aggression.

b. Those attitudes are inborn.

c. That the levels of aggression depend on the level of a culture's technology.

d. That aggression is inextricably bound with temperature.

Answers for Self Assessment Questions

1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6. (c) 7.(c)

8. (c) 9.(a) 10.(d) 11.(a) 12.(d) 13.(a) 14.(b)

15. (d) 16.(c) 17.(b) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20. (a)

Chapter-2: Training


1.…………..are organized efforts are being made through individuals and organizational

appraisals to identify the training needs.

a. Training

b. Development programmes

c. Data collection

d. Evaluations

2. The major competencies that are not required to be present in a trainer are..............

a. presentation skills

b. business skills

c. content development

d. knowledge skills

3. Training is a systematic development of the ........................ and attitudes required by

employees to perform adequately on a given task or job.

a. presentation skills

b. business skills

c. knowledge skills

d. content development

4. The .............is a major stakeholder in a training program.

a. trainee

b. training

c. trainer

d. None of these.

5. Every organizations use different verities of ……………and managers.

a. trainee

b. training

c. trainer

d. None of these.

6. Some ....................could be more relevant for specific occupations; however they are

applied horizontally across the Organization.

a. Job/Role competencies

b. Organizational competencies

c. Personal competencies

d. managerial competencies

7. The trainer and the organization can only try to remove the mental blocks of the trainee,

rest depends on trainee itself.

a. True

b. False

8. A function struggling to find organizational forms that cannot help it meet these

business challenges.

a. True

b. False

9. Key decisions on individual pay are not determined by these procedures and the

judgment of managers.

a. True

b. False

10. Respondents may not be accustomed to or willing to take the time to tell (or write) a

complete story when describing a critical incident.

a. True

b. False

11. Interoperability is the ………issue for standardization.

a. local key

b. basic key

c. super key

d. None of these.

12. The Listserv is a means of electronic communication similar to an E-mail distribution list.

a. True

b. False

13. The ………..approach to instruction has tremendous potential for training county Extension

agents.

a. Local

b. network

c. Internet

d. None of these.

14. Agents can ……….to the computer as their schedules permits.

a. log-on

b. log-off

c. log-in

d. None of these.

15.…………….is a multimedia tool to enhance communication worldwide.

a. Film

b. Video conferencing

c. Video

d. None of these.

16. Role play is a training method that can be used to reinforce training concepts in a group setting.

a. True

b. False

17. The ………………aspects of the equipment and system components involved in video

conferencing.

a. technical

b. technical and practical

c. practical

d. None of these.

18. Cognitive methods are more of giving …………..training to the trainees.

a. practical

b. theoretical and practical

c. theoretical

d. None of these.

19. Behavioral methods are more of giving ………training to the trainees.

a. theoretical and practical

b. practical

c. theoretical

d. None of these.

20. Trainees are given with some information related to description of the role, concerns,

objectives, responsibilities, emotions, etc.

a. True

b. False


1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (c)

6 (d) 7(a) 8(b) 9 (b) 10 (a)

11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b)

16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a)

Chapter-3: Training Methods


1. Organizations develop through training and development which bring benefits to employees as

well as the organizations. Which of the following would not be regarded as a common feature that

would result from training in today's modern workplace?

a. Same job for life

b. Be able to move more easily between jobs and other organizations

c. Improve chances of promotion

d. Develop a range of transferable skills

2. Training needs analysis can take place at organizational, task, and person levels. At the

organizational level, it broadly examines what are the organization’s strategic plans and where is

training and development needed to fit into the planning. Organizational training needs generally

occur when:

a. government provides additional funding.

b. other competing organizations are conducting extensive training programmers.

c. there is some kind of barrier hindering the achievement of organizational aims and

objectives which is best removed by training.

d. information technology systems need upgrading.

3. The first phase of a training program is a training needs analysis. What does this aim to do?

a. Identify the training objectives

b. Establish the training resources required

c. Produce selection criteria

d. All of the above

4. In his contribution to understanding learning and learning outcomes, Gagne produced six types

of learning related to human performance which he called capabilities, but which of the following is

correct?

a. All of the below

b. Basic learning

c. Cognitive strategies

d. Motor Skills

5. There is no one theory of learning that can be applied to any training programme. The social

learning theory has been used successfully in many settings and can be broken down into

component parts involving observation, practise, and feedback. Bandura found that various factors

also enhanced training such as:

a. all of the below.

b. models perceived to be friendly and helpful.

c. high status models.

d. models being the same race and gender as the trainee.

6. Anderson's theory of skill development distinguishes between declarative and procedural

knowledge. Procedural knowledge refers to knowing how to do something, but what is declarative

knowledge?

a. Factual knowledge about a task

b. Muscle memory

c. Automatic task processing

d. Associative knowledge of the task

7. One of the major changes in recent years has been the advance of technology and this is evident in

training. A CIPD (2008) survey reported nearly 60% of surveyed organizations were already using e-

learning which could be described as learning supported by the use of computing technology. The

survey also found:

a. it is not as effective as traditional training methods.

b. it is most often used to complement other forms of learning and development.

c. it cannot usefully be blended with other training methods.

d. none of the above.

8. Evaluation forms the final stage of the training program and various models of evaluation have

been produced to meet this aspect. Whose model has the four levels of Reaction, Learning, Behavior,

and Results?

a. Alliger and Janak

b. Goldstein

c. Kirkpatrick

d. Cooper and Robertson

9. When evaluating interventions, organizations often resort to the lowest level of Kirkpatrick’s

model and only gather reaction level data. However, reaction level data can be improved by asking

trainees:

a. how difficult and useful they found the training.

b. how difficult they found the training.

c. how useful and enjoyable they found the training.

d. how much they enjoyed the training.

10. Transfer of learning to the workplace needs to be made for the training program to have been

successful. Which of the following can hinder this process?

a. All of the below

b. Low self-efficacy

c. Lack of managerial support

d. Ridicule from colleagues

11. In an economic downturn, training budgets are likely to be cut and the case for training needs to

be strongly made. Recent research by Anderson (2007) has confirmed previous findings that

relatively few organizations perform thorough evaluations. Why could this be?

a. A threat of union action

b. Training success is obvious and no detailed assessment is required

c. Managers do not want to be associated with a training programmed that could be assessed

as a waste of resources

d. None of the above

12. The concept of communities of practice (CoP) has grown in the past decade and can evolve

formally or informally using communication and information technology. What is an appropriate

description of a CoP?

a. A workplace based group willing to communicate with others using the internet and

intranet

b. An individual who is willing to disseminate relevant information to interested parties

c. Groups of people who interact regularly on issues important to them and share best practice

for their mutual benefit

d. A gathering of experts in a particular field who allow their work to be disseminated over the

internet

13. A Learning Organization is most accurately described as which of the following?

a. A company in which Human Resource Development is aligned to the business strategy

b. A company that facilitates the learning of all its members and consciously transforms itself

and its context

c. A company where a lot of training takes place

d. None of these

14. The most appropriate definition of Training is which of the following?

a. A planned process to modify attitude, knowledge or skill behavior through learning

experience to achieve effective performance in an activity or range of activities

b. Imparting knowledge and skills to a learner by an expert in a subject area

c. Putting people on courses to improve their knowledge and skills

d. None of these

15. Which of these methods can be used for training needs analysis for the organization?

a. An analysis of longer term objectives and the skills and knowledge required to meet them

b. Assessment centres and job interviews

c. Considering key events and the learning needs associated with them

d. Appraisal, training programs

16. Granularisation' in E-learning courses enables the student to do which of the following?

a. Learn by dividing their time over weekends and holiday breaks

b. Learn by attempting different parts of the course at one module at a time

c. Learn in manageable bite size chunks which he/she can fit into his/her own time

d. None of these

17. Blended Learning can best be described as which of the following?

a. A mix of approaches that enables the student to learn at home and at college

b. A mix of approaches that is partly 'on the job' and 'off the job' training

c. A mix of approaches that suit the individual's learning style, work-life situation and short

term and long term skill and knowledge requirements

d. None of these

18. Which of these would most accurately be a problem of evaluating training?

a. On the job training can be difficult to assess sometimes due to an often informal approach

b. It takes too much time

c. Off the job training can be difficult to assess because it is only measured by narrow and non-

practical criteria

d. It costs too much money

19. Which of these statements is not a disadvantage of the Learning Organization?

a. The Learning Organization concept lacks an explanation of how systems are integrated

b. The Learning Organization concept needs further investigation of the link between HR

strategy and change

c. The Learning Organization concept lacks clarity and has a multiplicity of definitions

d. The Learning Organization concept lays too much stress on explicit forms of learning

20. The German Dual system of training is which of the following?

a. When part of the apprentice's time is taken up in attending vocational college, and part in

receiving individual training from a lecturer in a tutorial situation

b. When part of the apprentice's time is taken up in attending vocational college, and part in

receiving structured training from a meisterwerker (skilled craftsman) in the workplace

c. When part of the apprentice's time is taken up in attending local government meetings, and

part in receiving structured training from a meisterwerker (skilled craftsman) in the

workplace

d. None of these


1. (a) 2.(c) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(a) 6. (a) 7.(b)

8. (c) 9.(a) 10.(a) 11.(c) 12.(c) 13.(b) 14.(a)

15. (a) 16.(c) 17.(c) 18.(a) 19.(d) 20. (c)

Chapter-4 Traditional Training Methods


1. Training needs should be identified by........................

a. participants

b. managers

c. (c)Both (a) and (b)

d. None of these

2. The learner's skills and knowledge are .............before the training program.

a. assessed

b. decreased

c. average

d. null

3. The process of examining a training program is called ...............

a. training expertise

b. training method

c. training evaluation

d. training timing

4. One of the simplest and most common approaches to training evaluation………..

a. reactions

b. timing

c. actions

d. None of these

5. ……… involves assessing the benefit of training to the work in the real world

a. Reactions

b. Business results

c. Learning

d. Transfer

6. …………. is the phase at which instruction is started.

a. After Training

b. During Training

c. Before Training

d. None of these

7. Training and development needs may be identified through ……………….

a. evaluation effort

b. training evaluations

c. performance evaluations

d. performance

8. Jobs must be analyzed to identify the knowledge.

a. True

b. False

9. Training does not mean of communicating new knowledge and skills and changing attitudes

a. True

b. False

10. Training can play an important role in improving health workers’ effectiveness.

a. True

b. False

11. In the Traditional Approach, which one of the following remains constant?

(a) Cost of Equity

(b) Cost of Debt

(c) WACC

(d) None of the above.

12. In MM-Model, irrelevance of capital structure is based on:

(a) Cost of Debt and Equity

(b) Arbitrage Process

(c) Decreasing k0

(d) All of the above.

13.'That there is no corporate tax' is assumed by:

(a) Net Income Approach

(b) Net Operating Income Approach

(c) Traditional Approach

(d) All of these.

14. 'That personal leverage can replace corporate leverage' is assumed by:

(a) Traditional Approach

(b) MM Model

(c) Net Income Approach

(d) Net Operating Income Approach.

15. Which of the following argues that the value of levered firm is higher than that of the unlevered

firm?



(c) MM Model with taxes

(d) Both (a) and (c).

16. In Traditional Approach, which one is correct?

(a) ke rises constantly

(b) kd decreases constantly

(c) k0 decreases constantly


17. Which of the following assumes constant kd and ke?



(c) Traditional Approach

(d) MM Model.

18. Which of the following is true?

(a) Under Traditional Approach, overall cost of capital remains same

(b) Under NI Approach, overall cost of capital remains same

(c) Under NOI Approach, overall cost of capital remains same


19. The Traditional Approach to Value of the firm m that:

(a) There is no optimal capital structure

(b) Value can be increased by judicious use of leverage

(c) Cost of Capital and Capital structure are m dent

(d) Risk of the firm is independent of capital structure

20. A firm has EBIT of Rs. 50,000. Market value of debt is Rs. 80,000 and overall capitalization rate is

20%. Market value of firm under NOI Approach is:

(a) Rs. 2,50,000

(b) Rs. 1,70,000

(c) Rs. 30,000

(d) Rs. 1,30,000.

Answers of Self Assessment Questions

1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (d)

6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (a)

11.(d) 12.(b) 13.(d) 14.(b) 15. (d)

16.(d) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20. (b)

Chapter-5 Management Development


1. Which of the following is not a goal of a management development programme?

a. To make certain that the managers are aware of the latest and best managerial

practices, measurement methods and work techniques

b. To ensure that the attitudes, values and beliefs of the managers match the core

values and strategy of the organization

c. To assist the managers to build on their strengths and work on their weaknesses

d. To ensure that there is no delay in the settlement of retirement benefits of the

managers

2. Teaching by a wise and trusted superior on a one-to-one basis is called

a. In-basket training

b. Behavior modeling

c. Mentoring

d. Action Learning

3. Role-playing can be defined as an educational or therapeutic technique in which some problems

involving human interaction, real or imaginary is presented and then spontaneously acted out.

a. True

b. False

4. The development technique which educates the trainees about the need for and the techniques of

prioritizing the situations for decision-making is called

a. In-basket training

b. Action learning

c. Mentoring

d. Executive coaching

5. Trainees forming teams and assuming managerial roles in two or more imaginary but rival

companies is part of the .....................__ development technique.

a. university-based programmers

b. external coaching

c. in-house development centers

d. None of these

6. A programmed of one-to-one collaboration between a certified external expert and a manager for

developing the leadership skills of the latter is called

a. Executive Orientation

b. Executive coaching

c. Mentoring

d. None of these

7. The initial training effort to inform the new managers about the company, the job, and the work

group is known as

a. Action learning

b. Behavior modeling

c. Executive coaches

d. Executive orientation

8. Which of the following is not a hurdle for an effective succession management plan?

a. Lack of criteria for successor identification

b. Improper diagnosis of development requirements

c. Absence of managerial initiative and support

d. Absence of strike or lock-out

9. Which of the following is the most objective method of identifying the potential successor in

succession management?

a. Performance evaluation

b. Peer group suggestion

c. Superior’s recommendation

d. Management’s preference

10. Management development refers to the process of training and developing managerial talent

within a company or organization.

a. True

b. False

11. The constant need for ………………. and demonstration of added value as pressures grow for

justification of all non-core organizational activities in the face of increasing competition.

a. High-cost solution

b. low-cost solutions

c. Both a and b

d. None of these

12. ……………………. individuals can gain a massive amount of learning and other benefits for their

organization by implementing an aggressive management development programme.

a. Highly motivated

b. self-directed False

c. Both a and b

d. None of these

13. The process of ……….. feedback seeks views from a range of relevant viewpoints - peers,

superiors and subordinates, and sometimes even outsiders like customers and suppliers - based on a

framework of competencies.

a. 160 degree

b. 260 degree

c. 360 degree

d. None of these

14. Appraisals and even performance and development reviews can be perceived as subjective and

over-dependent on the views of the person doing the reviewing.

a. True

b. False

15. A significant part of decision making skills is not in knowing and practicing good decision

making techniques.

a. True

b. False

16. Listening is not the same as hearing. Take time to listen carefully to what others are saying

through both their verbal and non-verbal communication.

a. Learn to Listen

b. Relax

c. Be Positive

d. None of these

17. Human resource management may be unaware that a drifting of defined responsibilities and

tasks has taken place.

a. True

b. False

18. Politicians may use the term to state that the level of general knowledge is declining under the

current education policy.

a. True

b. False

19. General knowledge then could not mean knowledge that is very well known or known by nearly

everyone.

a. True

b. False

20. Interpersonal skills include not only how we communicate with others, but also our confidence

and our ability to listen and understand.

a. True

b. False


1. (d) 2.(c) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6. (b) 7.(d)

8. (d) 9.(a) 10.(a) 11.(b) 12.(c) 13.(c) 14.(a)

15. (b) 16.(a) 17.(a) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20. (a)

Chapter-6 Evaluation of Training


1. ………. is an integral part of most instructional design (ID) models.

a. Evaluation

b. Training

c. Selection

d. None of these.

2. ………..is the act of increasing the specific knowledge and skill of an employee for doing a

particular job.

a. Training

b. Management

c. Quality

d. Development.

3. A good way to tell the effectiveness of training……..is the reduction in service calls.

a. sale

b. price

c. customers

d. None of these.

4. The greatest factor in measuring the return-on-investment for training is the definition of what the

training is to achieve.

a. True

b. False.

5. Classes must also be set up to train……….

a. customers

b. suppliers

c. both of these

d. None of these.

6. ………..must often take time off from work to attend training classes.

a. Workers

b. Managers

c. both (a) and (b)

d. None of these.

7. These considerations make a case for the convenience and cost-effectiveness of………

a. internal evaluations

b. external

c. training evaluation

d. None of these.

8. The second study was conducted under the Advanced Design Approaches for Personalized

Training-Interactive Tools (ADAPTIT) project.

a. True

b. False.

9. ………..is directly associated with the content of the program whether the employees learned the

facts and guidelines covered in the program.

a. Internal criteria

b. External criteria

c. Logical

d. None of these.

10. Evaluation has to be accepted as a process than an end product of training.

a. True

b. False.

11. How important is personnel selection, assessment and development? The answer is 'very' and it

is little wonder that psychology has contributed much to this area. One underlying principle is that

there are individual differences between people so the conclusion must be that some are better

suited for jobs than others. What is a second main principle for selection and assessment within

organizational settings?

a. That the person can be fitted to the job

b. That selection procedures are fully standardized, reliable and valid

c. Selection decisions must be made without bias

d. That future job performance can be predicted

12. Designing and validating selection processes involves a thorough comprehensive job analysis,

person and job specifications, choice of selection and assessment tools required. This should be

completed by a validation study to monitor and refine the recruitment process. Which stages in the

process tend not to be completed well?

a. Job analysis and validation

b. Choice of selection tool for selection and assessment

c. Person and job specifications

d. All of the above

13. There is a logical approach to designing a selection process. Which is the correct order of stages

in which a personnel selection and validation process should occur?

a. Job analysis, identification of selection criteria, choice of selection method, implementation

of selection method, evaluation

b. Evaluate application forms and references, choice of selection method, implementation of

selection method, review responses of successful and non-successful applicants

c. Evaluation, choice of selection method, evaluation of selection criteria, implementation of

selection method, job analysis

d. Job analysis, identification of selection criteria, implementation of selection method

14. Job analyses are prerequisites for many decisions and activities but in what areas of work?

a. All of the below

b. Training and career development schemes

c. Job (re)design and person specification for the job role

d. Design and validation of selection procedures

15. Traditional job analysis approaches were aimed at fitting the person to the job but over the past

decade there has been another development. Competency analysis is used to produce a competency

model which is:

a. a model of work performance that focuses on positive work performance.

b. a model of work performance that focuses on negative task performance.

c. a comprehensive list of all the relevant competencies required for task performance.

d. all of the above.

16. Competency analysis can define behavioral indicators for successful performance. Which of the

following would be positive behavioral indicators for a retail assistant, which the job analysis

indicates needs a collaborative style?

a. Demonstrates a competitive interaction style

b. Treats group members differently according to success

c. Focuses on individual successes


17. It is recommended that job analysis should be quite comprehensive to gather a detailed account

of the job requirements. Which of the following is not a typical source of job analysis data?

a. Repertory grid technique

b. Participant observation where the researchers become involved in the job role themselves

c. Functional job analysis

d. Position analysis questionnaire

18. Different techniques are used to elicit job analysis information, although not all are as easy to

access as others. Various sources exist, so which of the following techniques is more applicable here?

a. Existing documentation

b. Job incumbent interviews

c. Critical incident technique

d. All of the above

19. The selection process is over and a candidate has been successful. The job analysis indicated that

certain characteristics were suited for the position and successful candidates displayed these

characteristics better than other candidates. However, a validation process is required to see if the

selection process was successful. The evaluation of the accuracy of the selection process is obtained

by assessing the:

a. Criterion-related validity of the predictors.

b. Test-retest validity.

c. convincing organizations to combine several predictors rather than solely relying on one.

d. accessing an adequate sample size in order to perform certain statistical analyses on the data.

20. A concurrent validity design is an alternative to the criterion-related, but where does the

predictor data come from?

a. From similar validation studies that have been conducted

b. By assessing the performance of new candidates at some time in the future

c. From existing employees on whom the criterion data already exists



1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c)

6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)

11.(d) 12.(a) 13.(a) 14.(a) 15. (c)

16.(d) 17.(b) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20. (c)

Chapter-7 Designing the Training Program


1.................is often accomplished in a passive manner by having instructors or content transmitted to

the learners for them to absorb.

a. Training

b. Learning

c. Designing

d. None of these.

2.................analyze his technical, interpersonal, judgmental skills in order to deliver quality content

to trainers.

a. Training climate

b. The trainees

c. Training strategies

d. The trainer

3. A good ...............comprises of ambience, tone, feelings, positive perception for training program

a. training climate

b. trainees

c. training strategies

d. trainer

4. In general, those with .....................dominance are characterized as being spatially oriented,

creative, intuitive, and emotional.

a. Holistic

b. Dependent

c. right-brain

d. left brain

5. In contrast, the ......................student focuses more narrowly and needs well-defined, sequential

steps where the overall picture is developed slowly, thoroughly, and logically.

a. impulsive

b. dependent

c. independent

d. serialist

6................... is the strategies, techniques, and approaches that teachers/trainers can use to facilitate

learning.

a. Teacher

b. Trainer

c. Pedagogy

d. Climate

7. Good teachers/trainers are not very good at diagnosis and the customization of instruction.

a. True

b. False

8. The more senses are brought into use, the more effective is the learning; 97% of learning is

achieved through simultaneous appeal to the eye and ear.

a. True

b. False

9. Proper use of instructional aides saves time, adds interest, helps trainees learn and makes your job

easier.

a. True

b. False

10. The computer pallet is not a device that replaces the computer screen.

a. True

b. False

11. One potential benefit of employee discharges is the development of improved performance

management and disciplinary skills.

a. True

b. False

12. Downsizing costs are concentrated in separation costs for permanent reductions in force.

a. True

b. False

13. Exit interviews can be used to explain ..................... to departing employees.

a. rehiring rights

b. benefits

c. confidentiality agreements

d. all of the above

14. Which of the following is a suggestion for conducting an appropriate exit interview?

a. The interviewer should be the employee's immediate supervisor.

b. There should be an unstructured interview format.

c. The interviewer should prepare for each interview by reviewing the interview format and

the interviewee's personnel file.


15. Which of the following is a common tool to assess employee reasons for leaving?

a. Position analysis

b. Job rotation

c. Exit interview

d. Discharge notification

16. Economic separation costs associated with voluntary turnover include .....................

a. hiring inducements

b. rehiring costs

c. manager's time

d. more than one of the above

17. Replacement costs associated with voluntary turnover include ....................._.

a. HR staff induction costs

b. mentoring

c. severance pay

d. contagion

18. Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with voluntary employee turnover?

a. lowered replacement costs

b. savings from not replacing an employee

c. vacancy creates an open job that must be staffed

d. all of the above

19. Which of the following makes involuntary turnover potentially more costly than a similar level

of voluntary turnover?

a. Accrued paid time off

b. Possibility of a lawsuit

c. Staffing costs for a new hire

d. Formal training

20. Economic costs associated with downsizing include .....................__.

a. threat to harmonious labor-management relations

b. decreased employee morale

c. higher unemployment insurance premiums

d. difficulty in attracting new employees


1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (d)

6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (b)

11.(a) 12.(a) 13.(d) 14.(c) 15. (c)

16.(c) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(c) 20. (b)

Chapter-8 Performance Appraisal


1. All of the following are phases of career development except

a. Performance Phase

b. Direction Phase

c. Assessment Phase

d. Development Phase

2. Performance Appraisal is a primary HRM process that links employees and organizations and

provides input for other processes through these means

a. Identification, Measurement, Management

b. Assessment, Direction, Development

c. Recruitment, Selection, Onboarding

d. Skill, Effort, Responsibility

3. Which of the following is not a type of performance appraisal?

a. Customer appraisals.

b. Appraisal of managers.

c. Team based appraisal.

d. 45 degree appraisal.

4. Why might an organization use multiple systems of appraisal? Select all that apply.

a. Different systems for different part of the organization.

b. To separate reward and non-reward aspects of appraisal.

c. Different systems for different organizational groups.

d. To provide employees with a choice of methods.

5. Which of the following is not a reason why performance appraisal is used by organizations?

a. To determine promotion.

b. To motivate employees.

c. Because it is a legal requirement.

d. To clarify and define performance expectations.

6. A good potential appraisal system provides opportunities continuously for the employee to know

his strengths and weaknesses.

a) True

b) False

7. Which of the following statements about performance management systems is not true?

a. They cause stress for employees.

b. Performance management systems are ineffective.

c. Commitment from line managers is questionable.

d. They improve organizational performance in the long-term.

8. Performance management in government is the managerial activity necessary to promote well-

performing policy management and service delivery.

a) True

b) False

9. Which of the following statements about performance appraisal is not true?

a. Companies use appraisal to encourage employee loyalty and commitment.

b. Performance appraisal has become a tool to motivate and control workers.

c. Performance appraisal reduces managerial control.

d. Employees may be appraised on both objective and subjective measures.

10. What is the meaning of upward appraisal?

a. Line managers rate the performance of employees.

b. Employees rate the performance of their peers.

c. Senior managers rate the performance of line managers.

d. Employees rate the performance of their manager.

11. What is meant by 360 degree appraisal?

a. A system where every employee rates another employee chosen at random.

b. A system where the line manager rates subordinates simultaneously.

c. A system where feedback is obtained from peers subordinates and supervisors.

d. A system where a senior manager rates all line managers simultaneously.

12. Performance planning is not the first crucial component of any performance management

process which forms the basis of performance appraisals.

a) True

b) False

13. The process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his or her

performance standards is called .....................

a. recruitment

b. employee selection

c. performance appraisal

d. organizational development

14. When goal setting, performance appraisal, and development are consolidated into a single,

common system designed to ensure that employee

performance supports a company’s strategy, it is called .....................

a. strategic organizational development

b. performance management

c. performance appraisal

d. human resource management

15. Performance management combines performance appraisal with ..................... to ensure that

employee performance is supportive of corporate goals.

a. goal setting

b. training

c. incentive systems

d. all of the above

16. Managers following a performance management approach to appraisals will usually meet with

employees on a ..................... basis.

a. weekly

b. monthly

c. bi-annual

d. yearly

17. Managers following a traditional performance appraisal system will typically

meet with employees on a ..................... basis.

a. daily

b. weekly

c. monthly

d. yearly

18. The component of an effective performance management process that communicates the

organization’s higher level goals throughout the organization and then translates these goals into

departmental goals is called .....................

a. role clarification

b. goal alignment

c. developmental goal setting

d. direction sharing

19. Performance Appraisal helps in chalking out compensation packages for employees.

a) True

b) False

20. A good potential appraisal system provides opportunities continuously for the employee to

know his strengths and weaknesses.

a) True

b) False


1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(c) 5.(c) 6. (a) 7.(d)

8. (a) 9.(c) 10.(d) 11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(b)

15. (d) 16.(a) 17.(d) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20. (a)

Chapter-9 Employee Development


1. Managers are exposed to learning opportunities whilst doing their jobs, if this informal learning is

used as a formal process then it is regarded as ……………….

a. organization development

b. management development

c. training

d. None of these.

2. An organization’s managers are its direct link to employees—they have a strong influential role

and impact on performance and morale.

a. True

b. False.

3........... defines organization development as a “complex educational strategy intended to change

the beliefs, attitudes values and structure of organizations, so that they can better adapt to new

technologies, markets and challenges”.

a. Prof. TX Rao

b. Nadler and Nadler

c. Bennis

d. None of these.

4. According to…………, MD is a long-range effort to increase an organization’s problem-solving

and renewal capabilities through an improvement of its culture with the assistance of an outside

expert in behavioural sciences, called a change agent.

a. French and Bell

b. Nadler and Nadler

c. Bennis

d. None of these.

5. The organization has only few employees, communication among whom is frequent

and……………...

a. formal

b. informal

c. relational database

d. None of these.

6. The behavioral change attempts to change man himself by training and developing him.

a. True

b. False.

7. Management development includes ………………of skills such as planning, organizing, leading

and developing resources.

a. development

b. management

c. Training

d. None of these.

8. Technological developments are only vital to the concerned organization but also to the entire

nation and even to the whole world.

a. True

b. False.

9. Job Instruction Technique (JIT) uses a strategy with focus on knowledge (factual and procedural),

skills and ………….

a. origination development

b. management development

c. attitudes development

d. None of these.

10. Human Resources Development (HRD) as a theory is a framework for the expansion of human

capital within an organization through the development of both the organization and the individual

to achieve performance improvement.

a. True

b. False.

11. Research in the styles of leadership preferred by different generations was completed by

Arsenault (2004). What was the style of leadership that Generation X was found to prefer?

a. Directive

b. Authoritarian

c. Participative

d. Egalitarian

12. Which of the four theorists added a Chinese dimension to Hofsted's cultural dimensions?

a. Schein

b. Bond

c. Trompenaars

d. Adler

13. Earley and Mosakowsk developed the concept of cultural intelligence in the context of attitudes

and skills. Which of the following did they identify which related to learning strategies whereby

people acquire and develop coping strategies?

a. Mind

b. Knowledge

c. Heart

d. Body

14. Which of the following aspects do not have an impact on Employment Law?

a. Recruitment and selection.

b. Dismissal

c. Education qualifications

d. Finance

15. Whilst there is no consensus as to what global leadership competencies are there is agreement as

to what according to Neary and O'Grady?

a. Lead change

b. Internal and external networking

c. Management style

d. The need to develop managers through such an approach

16. Which of Mabey and Salaman's four management agendas assumed an unproblematic link

between management development and performance?

a. Political reinforcement

b. Functional performance

c. Compensation

d. Psychic defence

17. Planning to learn from experience is in keeping with which of Mumford's four approaches to

learning?

a. Prospective approach

b. Intuitive approach

c. Incidental approach

d. Retrospective approach

18. Which of the following is an advantage of informal learning opportunities?

a. Idealisation: whereby past experiences are valued to the exclusion of other learning

opportunities.

b. Narrowness: where a manager's work experience is specific and blinkers the desire to widen

the managerial perspective.

c. Obsolescence: previously acquired experience may have become out of date. This may be

exemplified by a manager from the public sector moving into the private sector.

d. Job change within the same function.

19. Which of Carnall's (2003) four core managerial components essential for the effective

management of change involves team building?

a. Decision making

b. Coalition building

c. Achieving action

d. Maintaining momentum

20. International management development involves the CEO and the senior team and other key

elements. Which of the following is not one of the key elements?

a. The global strategy

b. Human resource and line capabilities

c. Senior Management involvement

d. Performance management

Answers of Self Assessment Questions

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b)

6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a)

11.(d) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(d) 15. (d)

16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(d) 19.(d) 20. (d)

Chapter-10 Careers and Career Management


1. A person's career includes many significant events and experiences but in which areas has work

psychology been able to make a contribution?

a. Mentoring

b. Career choice

c. Career counseling

d. All of the above

2. Examining the context of careers, research has shown that labor markets have changed in many

ways since 1990. Careers literature tends have a consensus on these changes compared with a

generation ago with the implication that careers are more difficult to manage. Examples of such

changes include:

a. all of the below.

b. increasingly frequent changes in the skills required in the workforce.

c. increasing workloads for individuals.

d. working at, or from, home.

3. Kanter identified three different career forms, bureaucratic, professional and entrepreneurial.

Which one of these could be described as career growth occurring through developing competence

allowing a person to take on more complex tasks rather than through promotion to another job and

their status among peers and clients becoming significantly important?

a. Bureaucratic

b. Entrepreneurial

c. Linear

d. Professional

4. The boundary less career concept has generated much discussion including the notion that it

could be threatening and confusing. Why might this be?

a. People have less control over their future career without a more defined career development

path

b. It might appear to be liberating but it favors the strong who could prosper and the weak

could be disadvantaged further

c. People like to think they can cope well with difficult circumstances


5. The protean career concept is based on the idea that people should have a coherent sense of

identity but be ready and able to adapt to changing market conditions. When was this concept first

introduced into careers literature?

a. 1976

b. 2006

c. 1999

d. 2002

6. A different way to look at career types is to consider the subjective experience of an employee.

Schein outlined eight different career anchors that people can hold, what mixture do they consist of?

a. Pride, status, salary and abilities

b. Abilities, motives, needs and values

c. Motives, needs, status and salary

d. Status, salary, pride and perks

7. It is difficult to come to a consensus on how to measure career success. Status, salary, and job

satisfaction could all come to mind. Subjective measures have been used and a recent approach has

been to place people within one of four domains based on two dimensions. What are the two

dimensions that Dries and colleagues (2008) developed?

a. Accomplishment-achievement, recognition-anonymity

b. Conscientiousness-laissez-faire, influencer-realiser

c. Interpersonal-intrapersonal, affect-achievement

d. Job satisfaction-dissatisfaction, work-life balance-imbalance

8. Work psychologists are involved in helping people choose a line of work and Holland's is a well-

known influential theory used in career choice. The theory is based around six types of vocational

personality. Which of the following statements about Holland's theory of career choice is false?

a. It has produced a lot of practical tools to help people choose occupations

b. It proposes six 'pure types' of vocational personality

c. It takes no account of processes of adjustment after a person enters an occupation

d. It involves the matching of individual personality types with occupations

9. There have been influential stage theories of career development; Super's and Levinson's

stage/phase theories are the most prominent. It is argued that these are not so applicable in the 21st

century. Why would that be?

a. All of the below

b. The stage developmental theories are simply reflective of middle-class males whereas the

traditional roles of men and women have changed a great deal

c. They were formulated in very different eras and cultural contexts

d. The workplace has changed so much that it is not as predictable as it was when the stage

theories were developed

10. It is difficult to get fully accurate figures but which of the following appears to be the most

commonly used career management technique in organizations?

a. Individual counseling

b. Mentoring

c. Career planning workshops

d. Internal vacancy notification

11. A stage theory approach has been used in analyzing career development across a lifetime.

Models have been produced which have proved to be influential in literature and practice. That said,

the stage developmental approach is not without its critics, why?

a. The approach is reflective of middle class males in the mid to late 20th century in

westernized societies

b. The approaches are gender biased even with changes evident in the last two decades

c. Working opportunities have become far less predictable undermining the stage approach

d. All of the above

12. Work psychologists specialize in many different areas and are actively involved in career

planning. From the literature on organization career planning interventions, what is now associated

with better salaries and promotion rates, plus greater career satisfaction?

a. Development centres

b. Mentoring

c. Personal development plans

d. Career action centres

13. Careers are often said to be more difficult to manage now than in the past because:

a. People are not taught how to do it

b. Retirement age is increasing

c. Definitions of career are changing

d. The nature of jobs and organizations is changing rapidly

14. The career-related consequences of the delayering of organizations include:

a. A higher proportion of job moves being demotion

b. Promotion being a bigger step when it happens

c. Lateral moves becoming scarcer

d. All of the above

15. According to Jacoby (1999), one reason why many people think careers have changed more than

they really have is:

a. They like to think they are coping well with difficult circumstances

b. They like change

c. They tend to mistake cyclical economic changes for lasting ones

d. All of the above

16. Which of Kanter's career forms is least similar to Michael Arthur's notion of the boundaryless

career?

a. Linear

b. Bureaucratic

c. Entrepreneurial

d. Professional

17. 'An area of the self-concept that is so central that a person will not give it up even if forced to

make a difficult choice' is a definition of:

a. Matching theories of career choice

b. Career development

c. Career anchor

d. The subjective career

18. Which of the following is sometimes used as an indicator of subjective career success?

a. A person's values

b. Career satisfaction

c. Working hard

d. Income growth over a period of years

19. In an era of delayered organizations, outsourced work, and changing skill requirements, which

of the following is likely to become more important for individuals to do?

a. Performance appraisal

b. Deciding on one's preferred occupation and sticking with it

c. Checking newspaper 'situations vacant' adverts

d. Networking

20. Which of the following distinguishes the notion of the psychological contract from other related

concepts?

a. The attention given to the terms of a person's legal contract of employment

b. The idea that organization and individual employee make promises about what they will

give each other

c. The idea that people may be disappointed when they join an organization and find out what

it's really like

d. All of the above


1. (d) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(b) 5.(a) 6. (b) 7.(c)

8. (c) 9.(a) 10.(a) 11.(d) 12.(b) 13.(d) 14.(b)

15. (c) 16.(b) 17.(c) 18.(b) 19.(d) 20. (b)

methodology of training and development chapter-1...

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