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Chapter-1

English Language Skills

Self Assessment Questions

1. What are the words Strength and Weakness related as?

(a) Antonyms

(b) Synonyms

(c) Homonyms

(d) Other

2. What are the words Bad and Horrible related as?

a. Synonyms

b. Homonyms

c. Antonyms

d. Other

3. What are the words Four and Question related as?

(a) Other

(b) Synonyms

(c) Antonyms

(d) Homonyms

4. What are the words Two and Too related as?

(a) Other

(b) Synonyms

(c) Homonyms

(d) Antonyms

5. What are the words Death and Life related as?

(a) Other

(b) Homonyms

(c) Antonyms

(d) Synonyms

6. What are the words Time and Thyme related as?

(a) Antonyms

(b) Homonyms

(c) Synonyms

(d) Other

7. What are the words Same and Different related as?

(a) Other

(b) Homonyms

(c) Antonyms

(d) Synonyms

8. What are the words See and Sea related as?

(a) Other

(b) Synonyms

(c) Homonyms

(d) Antonyms

9. What are the words Sick and Ill related as?

(a) Synonyms

(b) Homonyms

(c) Antonyms

(d) Other

10. What are the words Kid and Child related as?

(a) Synonyms

(b) Homonym

(c) Antonym

(d) Other

11. He was all alone when I saw him.

(a) Adjective

(b) Noun

(c) Adverb

(d) Pronoun

12: It was all profit and no loss.

(a) Noun

(b) Adjective

(c) Adverb

(d) Preposition

13: Does any of You know anything about it.

(a) Adjective

(b) Noun

(c) Pronoun

(d) Verb

14: Randy walked as fast as he could.

(a) Verb

(b) Adjective

(c) Pronoun

(d) Adverb

15: I have not seen you Before.

(a) Verb

(b) Pronoun

(c) Adverb

(d) Adjective

16: Give place to your betters.

(a) Noun

(b) Verb

(c) Pronoun

(d) Adjective

17: The boxes with which he provided me bettered the sample.

(a) Adverb

(b) Noun

(c) Pronoun

(d) Verb

18: The porter was killed by the down train.

Adjective

Adverb

Noun

Verb

19: I have some thing else for you.

(a) Adjective

(b) Adverb

(c) Noun

(d) Verb

20: Does he even suspect the danger.

(a) Noun

(b) Adverb

(c) Adjective

(d) Preposition

Answers of Self Assessment Questions

1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(c) 5.(c)

6.(b) 7.(c) 8.(c) 9.(a) 10.(a)

11(c) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(d) 15.(c)

16.(a) 17.(d) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20.(b)

Chapter-2

Communication


1. Interpersonal communication occurs only when

(a) an individual interacts with another person as a unique individual.

(b) an individual converses with people they have no interest in knowing.

(c) three or more people are communicating with each other at the same time.

(d) intimate conversation takes place.

2. What is "context"?

(a) Verbal and nonverbal responses to messages

(b) An interference with message reception

(c) Effective communication

(d) A physical and psychological environment for conversation

3. Interpersonal communication helps one

(a) communicate with the general public.

(b) to become a talented public speaker.

(c) to know what others are thinking.

(d) learn about oneself.

4. In the communication process, to encode means to

(a) translate ideas into a code.

(b) speak to large groups of people.

(c) block a pathway between the sender and receiver of a message.

(d) interpret a code.

5. Feedback is a listener's

(a) aversion to a message.

(b) acceptance of a message.

(c) verbal or nonverbal responses to a message.

(d) verbal critique of your message.

6. To decode a message is to

(a) evaluate a message.

(b) reject a message.

(c) interpret a message.

(d) translate ideas into code.

7. A message is a signal that serves as

(a) noise reduction.

(b) stimuli for a speaker.

(c) stimuli for a receiver.

(d) stimuli for a mass audience.

8. Feedback can come in the form of

(a) environmental noise.

(b) verbal and nonverbal listener responses.

(c) nonverbal communication only.

(d) verbal communication only.

9. In the communication process, a receiver is

(a) a message pathway.

(b) the person who decodes a message.

(c) message interference.

(d) the person who encodes an idea.

10. Noise does the following:

(a) enhances a message.

(b) distorts or interferes with a message.

(c) focuses wandering thoughts.

(d) causes listeners to listen to messages more carefully.

11. An example of physiological noise is

(a) a speaker using complex terms.

(b) a humming air conditioner unit.

(c) a listener reviewing weekend plans in his or her head.

(d) a lawn mower.

12. An example of a communication channel is

(a) feedback.

(b) face-to-face conversation.

(c) context.

(d) noise.

13. Which of the three components are part of the human communication process?

(a) Feedback, message, critiquing

(b) Message, noise, feedback

(c) Message, recording, feedback

(d) Noise, feedback, jargon

14. In interpersonal communication, ethics

(a) are important.

(b) are not a consideration.

(c) increase barriers to understanding.

(d) stand in the way of honesty.

15. Which of the following is an example of a nonverbal message?

(a) Yelling

(b) Jargon

(c) Eye contact

(d) Mumbling

16. The ability to communicate effectively

(a) depends on not using technology to send messages.

(b) can be learned.

(c) is a natural talent that cannot be learned.

(d) depends on the education level of those around you.

17. If something is said in error, it must be understood that interpersonal communication is

(a) reversible.

(b) forgettable.

(c) forgivable.

(d) irreversible.

18. A message can only be deemed effective when it is

(a) delivered with confidence.

(b) communicated face-to-face.

(c) repeated back as proof of understanding.

(d) understood by others and produces the intended results.

19. Learning to communicate with others is key to

(a) establishing rewarding relationships.

(b) eliminating all of your listeners' physiological noise.

(c) winning the approval of everyone around you.

(d) never being misunderstood.

20. Encoding is important because it

(a) encourages listener feedback.

(b) guarantees that one's message will be decoded.

(c) Produces messages.

(d) eliminates noise.


1. (a) 2.(d) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(c)

6.(c) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(b) 10.(b)

11(c) 12.(b) 13.(b) 14.(a) 15.(c)

16.(b) 17.(d) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20.(c)

Chapter-3

Types of Communication


1. Statistics cited by your authors suggest that the mode of learning (hearing, reading, seeing, and

speaking) affects our degree of learning. Which of the following correctly ranks learning

effectiveness, from most helpful to least helpful?

(a) speaking, seeing, hearing, reading

(b) speaking, hearing, seeing, reading

(c) hearing, speaking, seeing, reading

(d) seeing, reading, hearing, speaking

2 .A scientist presenting her findings to a small group of peers is engaged in what type of

communication?

(a) mass communication

(b) group communication

(c) public communication

(d) interpersonal Communication

3. When listeners receive your symbols they attach meanings to the words, gestures, and voice

inflections through a process called

(a) encoding.

(b) receiving.

(c) decoding.

(d) interpreting.

4 .Approximately how much of what we say do we remember?

(a) 30%

(b) 50%

(c) 70%

(d) 10%

5 .Which of the following is defined as "anything to which people attach meaning?"

(a) message

(b) noise

(c) symbol

(d) referent

6 .Five students from your public speaking class get together to study for the next exam. This

gathering is most likely an example of which of the following types of communication?

(a) group communication

(b) interpersonal communication

(c) mass communication

(d) public communication

7 .When you are thinking about a problem you're having with a friend, and it bothers you so you

wake up in the night worrying about it, you are engaging in which type of communication?

(a) intrapersonal communication

(b) personal communication

(c) interpersonal communication

(d) self communication

8 .Which of the following types of communication is most likely to have a more one-directional flow

of information and a more formal feeling?

(a) group communication

(b) interpersonal communication

(c) intrapersonal communication

(d) public communication

9 .A speech about effective group communication, when printed in a newspaper, is an example of

which type of communication?

(a) public communication

(b) public communication

(c) group communication

(d) mass communication

10 .In the communication elements model, the process of putting ideas into symbols is called what?

(a) decoding

(b) recording

(c) encoding

(d) symbolizing

11. In the communication elements model, the ideas that are actually communicated are called what?

(a) feedback

(b) psychological noises

(c) channels

(d) messages

12 .Your teacher is giving a lecture on how to organize a speech, but you're having trouble hearing

because of a lawnmower cutting the grass outside the window. This is an example of which of the

following?

(a) verbal noise

(b) physiological noise

(c) psychological noise

(d) physical noise

13 .Which one of the following is NOT one of the types of noise covered in your textbook? [Hint]

(a) psychological

(b) physiological

(c) environmental

(d) physical

14 .In the triangle of meaning, which element is the object or idea for which a symbol stands? [Hint]

(a) the message

(b) the interpreter

(c) the reference

(d) the referent

15 .Which critical thinking skill are you exercising when you decide to speak about Paula

Poundstone as a stand-up comic and as a writer rather than about her life in general?

(a) focusing

(b) remembering

(c) integrating

(d) organizing

16 .Dyadic communication is a form of which of the following levels of communication?

(a) intrapersonal

(b) public

(c) group

(d) interpersonal

17 .Which of the following is an example of mass communication?

(a) 25 people talking about a football game in a chat room

(b) a conference call with 8 people planning a marketing strategy for their new newsmagazine

(c) a magazine article about interpersonal communication

(d) a speech delivered in a stadium of 85,000 people

18 .The type of messages sent by listeners to speakers is called [Hint]

(a) encoding.

(b) feedback.

(c) a channel.

(d) decoding.

19 .The physical setting and occasion for communication is called

(a) the message.

(b) feedback.

(c) the channel.

(d) the environment.

20 .The three elements of the Triangle of Meaning are the

(a) the symbol, the interpreter, and the referent.

(b) the sender, the receiver, and the message.

(c) the noise, the channel, and feedback.

(d) the encoder, the decoder, and the channel.


1. (a) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(c) 5.(c)

6.(a) 7.(a) 8.(d) 9.(d) 10.(c)

11(d) 12.(d) 13.(c) 14.(d) 15.(a)

16.(d) 17.(c) 18.(b) 19.(d) 20.(a)

Chapter-4

Office Management


1. People that hold ………….positions conduct special studies and based on the results of these

special studies.

a. office management

b. file management

c. system management

d. None of these

2. The office manager is the coordinator of the work system.

a. True

b. False

3. An office manager is responsible for……….., and controlling the clerical aspect of the

organization.

a. planning,

b. organization

c. Both a and b

d. None of these

4. Positions allocated to usual classification perform a combination of the following office

management functions:

a. Purchasing

b. Book Keeping

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of these

5. In the beginning people thought that computers will not eliminate paper.

c. True

d. False

6. The types of business correspondence we use nowadays are:

a. Business letters

b. Memos

c. Faxes and

d. All of these

7. More and more we try to write business letters using …………language, natural style and

conversational tone.

a. clear and voice

b. clear and concise

c. clear

d. None of these

8. Every business uses lots of business memos.

a. True

b. False

9…………….: The most recent and the most common type of business correspondence in

today’s office.

a. File system

b. Business memo

c. Business E-mail

d. None of these

10. Business Faxes are become common during the ………………

a. 1970s.

b. 1980s.

c. 1960s.

d. 1985s.

11. ………..is the blessing and the curse of modern life, modern businesses included.

a. fax

b. memo

c. Email

d. File system

12. Email is still in its infancy though we all know it is here to stay and it will be used more and

more if nothing better comes up, of course.

a. True

b. False

13. Procedures for handling ………………………………mail in individual activities.

a. incoming and outgoing

b. incoming

c. outgoing

d. None of these

14. The volume of mail that is received by naval activities makes it desirable to eliminate

necessary operations whenever possible.

a. True

b. False

15. Personally addressed official ………….and correspondence are hard to route and control.

a. memo

b. mail

c. fax

d. None of these

16. Mail control is defined as any procedure that is used to make a record of the receipt,

location, or dispatch of mail.

a. True

b. False

17. The File Management system is the Computer based system for maintenance of the

……….in an office.

a. Binary Register

b. Parallel Register

c. Personal Registers

d. Register

18. The File Management System (FMS) has been implemented in the following offices.

a. Directorate of School Education

b. At all District Treasury offices

c. Department of Prohibition and Excise

d. All of these

19. Individual User can login and access their data only.

a. True

b. False

20. Master Entries are …………..that are created once and it will be accessed while working in

the system.

a. list of key

b. list of records

c. list of file

d. None of these


1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(c) 4.(c) 5.(d)

6.(d) 7.(b) 8.(a) 9.(c) 10.(b)

11(c) 12.(a) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(b)

16.(a) 17.(c) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20.(b)

Chapter-5

Effective Communication


1. The essence of effective communication is that:

(a) sender and receiver both attribute the same meaning to a message.

(b) sender and receiver both exchange information.

(c) the receiver gives feedback to the sender.

(d) none of these

2. Information richness is:

(a) whether a message conveys the ‘facts’.

(b) elimination of noise.

(c) the potential information carrying capacity of a communication medium.

(d) all of these

3. Feedback is:

(a) a situation in which sender and receiver exchange information.

(b) confined to the verbal form of communication.

(c) confined to the written from of communication.

(d) None of these

4. Which of the following is described in your text as a contextual factor that can impact on the

effectiveness of communication in an organisation?

(a) Organisational structure.

(b) Organisational culture.

(c) Technology.

(d) All of these.

5. Which of the following is NOT a barrier to effective communication associated with the media

and channel?

(a) Noise.

(b) Information overload.

(c) Space proxemics.

(d) Inappropriateness of media and/or channel.

6. Which of the following is NOT a reason given for the sharpening or leveling of messages as they

travel downward through an organisation’s hierarchy?

(a) Expectations about the content of a message.

(b) Condensation of messages.

(c) Noise.

(d) Closure, e.g. filling-in gaps in messages.

7. Which of the following is NOT true about the grapevine?

(a) It is faster at conveying information than an organisation’s formal communication system.

(b) It is somewhere between 75 and 95 percent as accurate as the formal communication system.

(c) It is found in almost all organisations.

(d) Managers usually welcome its existence.

8. Which of the following is NOT identified in the Johari Window as a situation that can occur as a

result of interpersonal communication styles?

(a) The conflict situation.

(b) The blind spot situation.

(c) The unknown situation.

(d) The façade situation.

9. A benefit claimed for team briefing as a method of organisational communication is that it:

(a) results in people working harder.

(b) helps control the grapevine.

(c) establishes a useful forum for making decisions.

(d) reduces the effects of hierarchy and differences in authority.

10. An advantage of the virtual organisation is said to be that it:

(a) gives a strong competitive advantage.

(b) permits rapid reaction to environmental change.

(c) gives economy in the use of resources.

(d) All of these

11. Listening is a

(a) reflex.

(b) physiological process that occurs without effort.

(c) complex process that involves steps.

(d) natural habit.

12. The responding step of listening

(a) is verbal.

(b) is the result of remembering.

(c) can be verbal or nonverbal.

(d) is nonverbal.

13. Responding occurs in two phases:

(a) Responses you make while the speaker is talking and responses you make when you are talking

(b) Receiving responses and sending responses.

(c) Responses one makes while the speaker is talking and responses one makes after the speaker has

stopped talking.

(d) Responses one makes and responses one's listener makes.

14. One of the most important communication skills

(a) objective listening.

(b) active listening.

(c) empathic listening.

(d) inactive listening.

15. A technique that might be used by an active listener is to

(a) offer a point of view often when in conversation.

(b) paraphrase the speaker's meaning.

(c) explain the speaker's meaning.

(d) express concern.

16. One example of the differences between men and women in the ways they listen is that

(a) men listen more to women than women listen to men.

(b) women tend to give more feedback; men listen more quietly.

(c) men are more interested in being liked; women seek respect.

(d) women tend to ask questions that are more argumentative.

17. Effective listening includes

(a) confirming one's understanding of a message.

(b) detailed criticism.

(c) filtering out points of disagreement.

(d) bias.

18. Two skills associated with being a good listener are the ability

(a) to listen to more than one message at a time and to provide constructive criticism.

(b) to pay attention and to provide a strong point of view in response to a given message.

(c) to pay attention and to mask your disinterest when necessary.

(d) to pay attention and to provide feedback.

19. When listening to someone similar to in background, beliefs and ideas,

(a) there is less speaker credibility than when listening to someone with whom you have greater

differences.

(b) it is easier to understand the message than when listening to someone with whom you have

greater differences.

(c) more bias gets in the way of understanding than when listening to someone with whom you

have greater differences.

(d) it is more difficult to understand the message than when listening to someone with whom

you have greater differences.

20. When someone in conversation spends more time trying to figure out what they are going to say

next than they do listening, he or she could be called

(a) wise.

(b) self-absorbed.

(c) an experienced listener.

(d) a proactive listener.


1. (a) 2.(c) 3.(a) 4.(d) 5.(b)

6.(c) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(b) 10.(d)

11(c) 12.(c) 13.(c) 14.(b) 15.(b)

16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(d) 19.(b) 20.(b)

Chapter-6

Letter and Resume Writing


1. A resume is...

(a) An autobiography of one's career life and professional experiences in order to secure

employment.

(b) A detailed listing of a job candidate's skills, experiences, responsibilities and achievements as

these relate to the position and company being targeted.

(c) A complete listing of an individual's education, work experience and professional training.

(d) None of these

2. The purpose of a resume is to...

(a) Establish a candidate's qualifications for a position in order to secure an interview.

(b) Establish a candidate's qualifications for a position in order to secure employment.

(c) Establish a candidate's qualifications for a position in order to eliminate the competition.

(d) None of these

3. The length of a resume must be...

(a) One page, no longer.

(b) Two pages, no longer.

(c) Whatever number of pages is necessary to qualify the candidate.

(d) All of these

4. The most important information on my resume is...

(a) Job experience and education.

(b) Contact information.

(c) Achievements.

(d) None of these

5. It's okay to exaggerate information on my resume when...

(a) I'm writing about older, less important positions and need to make my career path more

logical.

(b) I was shy of completing a degree by only a few credits - and a degree is a requirement of the

position.

(c) It's never okay to exaggerate information in a resume.

(d) None of these

6. When writing my resume, my main focus should be on...

(a) Who will be reading my resume.

(b) Presenting my best skills, experiences and achievements in priority.

(c) The readability and visual presentation of my document.

(d) None of these

7. When submitting my resume to a job advertisement, I need to make certain that...

(a) I provide as many options for retrieving my resume as possible (ASCII, PDF, Word

processed document, etc.).

(b) I follow the directions of the ad explicitly.

(c) I secure the name of the hiring manager or decision maker.

(d) None of these

8. When salary history is required in an ad, I should...

(a) Ignore the request. This information may damage my ability to compete for the position.

(b) Include this information in its own document and submit it with my resume.

(c) Include this information in the cover letter.

(d) None of these

9. When salary requirements are requested in an ad, I should...

(a) Address this in my resume and provide a specific salary amount.

(b) Ignore the request. Salary requirements are best discussed at the interview stage.

(c) Address this in my cover letter by providing a salary range or by indicating that salary is

negotiable.

(d) None of these

10. Certain personal information needs to be included in the resume, such as...

(a) My name and contact information.

(b) My name, contact information and date of birth.

(c) My name, contact information, date of birth and number of dependents.

(d) None of these

11. A potential employer is permitted to ask me the date(s) of my __________________ graduation,

and, therefore, I should include this/these date(s) on my resume.

(a) high school

(b) high school and college

(c) college

(d) None of these

12. Posting my resume on a job search database online will make my resume available to:

(a) Potential employers.

(b) Only those ads to which I respond.

(c) Almost anyone, including my current employer.

(d) None of these

13. Which of the following is not a guideline for writing a business letter?

(a) state your purpose at the end of your document

(b) write so that your letter is clear, concise, professional, and friendly

(c) remember that you are often writing for multiple audiences

(d) proofread for grammar all documents you send out

14. Which of the following is the correct form of a business letter?

(a) single-spaced, with double-spaces between paragraphs

(b) single-spaced, with single-spaces between paragraphs

(c) double-spaced with single-spaces between paragraphs

(d) double-spaced throughout

15. Which of the following is not part of a business letter?

(a) references

(b) salutation

(c) return address

(d) close

16. Which of the following is correct about full block-style business letters?

(a) signature appears on the right half of the page

(b) return address appears on the right half of the page

(c) all parts start at the left margin

(d) paragraph indentations

17. Which of the following is not part of a memo?

(a) salutation

(b) closing

(c) heading

(d) discussion section

18. Which of the following is a correct aspect of a public e-mail?

(a) close the message with your e-mail address only

(b) close the message with your name and e-mail address

(c) close the message with your name only

(d) never use a signature file

19. Which of the following is correct about a newsletter?

(a) margin size for newsletters should be the same on all sides

(b) pages should not contain any contrasting elements

(c) do not include a banner on the front page

(d) everything on every page should align with something else on the page

20. Which of the following is not part of a newsletter?

(a) notices of upcoming events

(b) short news articles

(c) contributions from readers

(d) salutation


1. (b) 2.(a) 3.(c) 4.(b) 5.(c)

6.(a) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(c) 10.(a)

11(c) 12.(c) 13.(a) 14.(a) 15.(a)

16.(c) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(d) 20.(d)

Chapter-7

Presentation Skills


1. Presentation is a form of oral communication in which a person shares factual information with an

audience that is:

(a) large

(b) mixed

(c) specific

(d) small

2. The presenter acts as the:

(a) medium of the information

(b) supporter of the information

(c) advocate of the information

(d) deliverer of the information

3. The three major elements of presentation do not include:

(a) a presenter

(b) specific content

(c) visual aids

(d) an audience

4. The audience for a presentation consists of people who:

(a) vary in their level of information and purpose

(b) are uniform in their level of information and purpose

(c) are confused in their purpose

(d) are uninformed and lack a purpose

5. To be able to give a good presentation, a full rehearsal is:

(a) necessary

(b) audience based

(c) optional

(d) useless

6. Reading out a presentation is:

(a) helpful

(b) not allowed

(c) allowed

(d) dull

7. To make a presentation effective and impressive, you should use:

(a) passive sentences

(b) a simple and active form of sentences

(c) jargon

(d) complex sentences

8. To select the content of your presentation, you should know:

(a) the audience’s needs

(b) your purpose

(c) the available material

(d) the time limit

9. In presentation design, maximum time is given to the:

(a) question–answer session

(b) introduction

(c) main body

(d) conclusion

10. Initially, a presentation is a form of:

(a) intrapersonal communication

(b) two-way communication

(c) one-way communication

(d) group communication

11.Effective presentations require:

(a) Good presentation skills and especially the ability to present material dramatically.

(b) A pleasant smile, good eye contact, suitable clothes and a well-modulated voice.

(c) Planning, practice and presentation skills.

(d) Planning, a logical order of presentation and asking the class lots of questions.

12. What are the features of an introduction for a presentation?

(a) The use of questions, quotations, statistics or humour as a means of gaining audience

involvement

(b) Statement of purpose, background, overview or outline of the argument, and the gaining of

audience interest

(c) There are two features: using a question as a means of gaining audience involvement right

from the start, and providing a summary of the argument within the presentation.

(d) Statement of purpose, background, and overview or outline of the argument in the

presentation.

13. Audience engagement is used:

(a) To help the audience to understand the information.

(b) So that the audience may be part of the experience.

(c) To show the assessor how good you are at giving presentations.

(d) To keep the audience awake during the presentation.

14. What is important to consider when asking questions in a presentation?

(a) Cultural differences are important, as direct questions may be offensive to some class

members.

(b) It is important to consider how you can answer the question fully as a means of showing the

lecturer your depth of knowledge on the topic.

(c) It is important to consider the use of a rhetorical question as it allows the audience the

opportunity to provide a specific answer.

(d) All of these

15. What type of written format should be taken into the presentation?

(a) A formal essay

(b) Note form using short simple sentences or bullet points

(c) A 'scripted' form to be read aloud

(d) Do not take in anything at all as it is an oral presentation

16. Which of the following should NOT be done in a team or group presentation?

(a) Referring to your team members by name

(b) Planning so the whole presentation is consistent and complete

(c) Using 'I' when presenting ideas and information in your own section of the presentation

(d) Using 'we' when presenting the ideas and information in your own section of the

presentation

17. How should you practice your oral presentation?

(a) While practising, use as many of your senses as possible.

(b) Always record your presentation so that you can listen to it over and over again.

(c) Memorise it word for word.

(d) Always have someone to listen to it so that they may give you feedback.

18. What 'body' aspect of the presentation is the most important to consider?

(a) The whole body

(b) The voice

(c) The eyes

(d) Gestures

19. Presentation Skills in any profession is an …………. of getting the attention of the audience and

enthralling them with ideas or performance.

(a) Art

(b) Science

(c) Mathematics

(d) None of these

20. Presentation ……………. offers a motivating and comprehensive way for students to

demonstrate their learning by creating a slideshow.

(a) Software

(b) Hardware

(c) Soft skill

(d) All of these


1. (c) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(a)

6.(b) 7.(b) 8.(a) 9.(c) 10.(c)

11(c) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(a) 15.(b)

16.(c) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(a) 20.(a)

Chapter-8

Interview Preparation


1. Qualitative Interviews are normally...

(a) A quick and easy way to collect data

(b) Unstructured

(c) Structured

(d) Semi-structured

2. Structured interviews typically ...

(a) Offer participants a chance to talk at length about issues that affect them

(b) Provide a framework around which interviewees can elaborate

(c) Offer participants a choice from a list of possible answers

(d) Involve more than one participant at the same time

3. Which of the following statements apply to qualitative interviews? Select all that apply

(a) They are largely steered by the responses of the interviewee to which the interviewer may

explore further with the use of careful questioning

(b) They are not normally recorded

(c) Although the researcher usually has a list of areas to explore through questioning, there is no

rigid structure and flexibility is vital

(d) They are driven by the researcher's agenda and are based on prior knowledge and theory

4. Which of the following statements apply to structured interviews? Select all that apply

(a) The interview facilitates reliability, validity, and similar assessments

(b) It is difficult to predict how long the interview will last

(c) Repeat interviewing of the same is a useful tool on many occasions

(d) The interview seeks to explore the thinking of the interviewee

5. Discourse analysts would tend to generate interviews that ...

(a) Have long sections of talk by the interviewee to allow for in depth analysis of their talk

(b) Have a very conversational feel to them

(c) Are about how people talk

(d) Are designed to reveal as much about the interviewer as the interviewee

6. When and what was the first journalistic interview?

(a) Charles Booth interviewed Londoners in 1886

(b) Gerald Mazely interviewed street children in York in 1842

(c) Thucydides (460 - 395 BC) interviewed Greek warriors about the Peloponnesian War

(d) Horace Greeley interviewed Brigham Young the leader of the Mormon religion in 1859

7. What was Charles Booth's work on Londoners in the 1880's and early instance of?

(a) Narrative analysis

(b) Triangulation

(c) Politically motivated research

(d) Structured interviews

8. Many of the earlier advocates of qualitative interviewing were ...

(a) American

(b) European

(c) Asian

(d) Female

9. What was a critical factor in the increased popularity of qualitative interviews after the Second

World War?

(a) Increased ease of travel making fieldwork more accessible to many researchers

(b) A war fuelled desire to understand how people thought and reasoned about atrocities

(c) Sound recording became readily available

(d) An increase in the funding available for social sciences research

10. Qualitative interviews ...

(a) Should be carried out by someone other than the researcher to help avoid bias

(b) Should be conducted by interviewers of the same gender and ethnicity as the interviewee

(c) Should be conducted by a mix of interviewers to ensure a cross-section of different

interviewing styles

(d) Should be carried out by the researcher to help familiarize them with the data

11. How long should a typical qualitative interview last?

(a) At least an hour and a half

(b) Not more than 2 hours

(c) 30 -45 mins

(d) Around 15 mins

12. What is piloting?

(a) Watching a more experienced interviewer conduct an interview on the same topic before

you run your own interviews

(b) Role playing the interview before you do it for real

(c) The process of guiding the interviewee through the interview, much as a pilot guides a plane

through take off and landing

(d) Testing the interview schedule before conducting the main interviews

13. What should you do if the first few interviews you conduct have all diverged away from your

interview schedule down a line of thought you had not previously considered?

(a) Go back to the drawing board, work out a new interview schedule that includes the new

directions of talk and start conducting your interviews again with a new sample.

(b) Go back to the drawing board, work out a new interview schedule that includes the new

directions of talk and re-interview the people you have already talked to with the new

schedule.

(c) Adapt to the changes as you go. Work out a new interview schedule and use that in all your

subsequent interviews.

(d) Stick with the original interview schedule so that all of your interviews have the same

starting point and the same opportunities for divergence

14. What does it mean to be an active listener?

(a) Concentrate fully on what the speaker says and on nothing else.

(b) Engage with what the speaker is saying and try to think of questions that might draw out

more detail or elaborate certain points. Make sure you understand what they say

(c) Keeping half your attention on what the speaker is saying but also concentrate on taking

notes and thinking about how it can fit into the analysis

(d) Do star jumps or sit ups while conducting the interview

15. What is inter-interview comparison?

(a) Comparing interviews you have conducted with those conducted by other researchers to

learn from each other's technique

(b) Play interviewees extracts from other interviews and ask them for their responses

(c) Go through all the interviews you have conducted and compare them for similarities and

differences in the topics or areas discussed

(d) While conducting an interview think about how it differs from previous interviews on the

same topic and come up with questions for the interviewee to try and get at why there are

differences

16. What is snowball sampling?

(a) Interview one person and then recruit someone else in order to address an issue raised in the

first interview and so on and so on

(b) Through snowballs at people until they agree to participate just to make you stop.

(c) Conduct the interviews in phases, with each phase involving more interviews than the last

until everyone in the sample has been interviewed

(d) Begin with a small pool or participants and allow the sample to filter through their personal

contacts within the target community

17. The qualitative interviewer should ...

(a) Avoid interrupting the interviewee wherever possible and allow them to direct the trajectory

of talk as much as possible without going off on completely unrelated topics

(b) Take as many notes as possible during the interview so you have a record of your instant

reaction to what the interviewee said

(c) Don't challenge the interviewee's understanding or description of events, just take it as it

comes and try to make sense of it later

(d) Involve themselves fully in the conversation and tell their side of the story to help make the

interviewee feel relaxed

18. The qualitative interviewer should ...

(a) Never ever take notes because they are rendered useless by the recording equipment

(b) Use silence as a tool for prompting further thought and elaboration on the part of the

interviewee rather than something to be filled at all costs

(c) Ask questions that interviewees can provide a specific answer for

(d) Bring food and drink for the interviewee during the interview

19. When should debriefing happen?

(a) By letter a few days after the interview so that you have had time to consider what you

should say

(b) At the end of each interview before the tape is turned off to allow it to form part of the data.

(c) After all the interviews have been completed and the researcher has generic feedback to give

to all participants

(d) When you next meet your supervisor or co-researcher

20. What does debriefing involve? Select all that apply

(a) Allowing the interviewee to ask any questions they may have about the research

(b) Checking the interviewee is still happy for the interview's recording to be used in the

research

(c) Obtaining feedback about the interview content and the methods employed

(d) Providing names and contact details of organizations, etc. which might be able to deal with

issues of a counseling or therapeutic nature arising from the interview


1. (d) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(b)

6.(d) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(c) 10.(d)

11(b) 12.(d) 13.(c) 14.(b) 15.(d)

16.(d) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(d)

Chapter-9

Group Discussion


1. Which one of the following characteristics is not necessarily true about groups?

(a) Group members are interdependent.

(b) Groups have two or more members.

(c) Groups have assigned goals.

(d) Groups interact.

2. What sort of groups is defined by the organization’s structure?

(a) task

(b) friendship

(c) interest

(d) formal

3. When do informal groups appear?

(a) in response to the need for social contact

(b) in reaction to formal groups

(c) as a result of social needs

(d) most frequently in bureaucracies

4. Julia, Bree, and David work in different departments but often eat lunch together. They are an

example of what type of group?

(a) formal

(b) informal

(c) command

(d) task

5. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) All task groups are also command groups.

(b) All command groups are also task groups.

(c) All task groups are also friendship groups.

(d) All command groups are also informal groups.

6. The group type that is determined by the organization chart is the _____ group.

(a) work

(b) authority

(c) social

(d) command

7. Which one of the following group types is organizationally determined?

(a) job

(b) task

(c) work

(d) authority

8. Employees who band together to seek improved working conditions form a(n) _____ group.

(a) union

(b) support

(c) interest

(d) work

9. Which of the following statements most accurately describes interest groups?

(a) They are longer lasting than friendship groups.

(b) They develop because individual members have one or more common characteristics.

(c) They are formed because of some common objective.

(d) They are governed by labor laws.

10. Groups based on support for a given sports team are examples of what sort of group?

(a) booster

(b) interest

(c) friendship

(d) sports

11. Which of the following is not one of the most common reasons why people join groups?

(a) security

(b) status

(c) equity

(d) power

12. What are the five stages of group development?

(a) generation, implementation, construction, production, termination

(b) introduction, development, production, deterioration, adjournment

(c) initiation, evolution, maturation, degeneration, termination

(d) forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

13. Which stage in group development is most characterized by uncertainty?

(a) introduction

(b) storming

(c) forming

(d) evolution

14. In the second stage of group development _____.

(a) close relationships are developed

(b) the group demonstrates cohesiveness

(c) intragroup conflict often occurs

(d) the job task is performed

15. After which stage of a group’s development is there a relatively clear hierarchy of leadership

within the group?

(a) norming

(b) storming

(c) development

(d) evolution

16. Which is the stage of group development characterized by the development of close

relationships and cohesiveness?

(a) bonding

(b) norming

(c) performing

(d) initiating

17. After which stage of a group’s development has the group formed a common set of

expectations of member behaviors?

(a) norming

(b) storming

(c) maturation

(d) development

(e) forming

18. When the group energy is focused on the task at hand, the group has moved to the _____

stage.

(a) norming

(b) production

(c) maturation

(d) performing

19. Temporary groups with deadlines tend to follow the _____ model.

(a) sociometry

(b) five-stage group development

(c) punctuated equilibrium

(d) cluster variance

20. A temporary task group working under a time-constrained deadline would be expected to

behave in which of the following manners?

(a) forming, then storming, then norming, then performing, and finally adjourning

(b) exhibit long periods of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes triggered by its

members’ awareness of looming deadlines

(c) develop plans, assign roles, determine and allocate resources, resolve conflicts, and set

norms

(d) group energy will move rapidly from getting to know and understand each other to

performing the task at hand


1. (c) 2.(d) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(b)

6.(d) 7.(b) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10.(c)

11(c) 12.(d) 13.(c) 14.(c) 15.(b)

16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(d) 19.(c) 20.(b)

Chapter-10

Interpersonal Skills


1. Your description of who you are as a person is your

(a) self-disclosure.

(b) self-concept.

(c) self-esteem.

(d) self-awareness.

2. Self-esteem is your

(a) evaluation of your own worth.

(b) measure of how much you know yourself.

(c) feeling of regard for yourself and others.

(d) concept of yourself in the context of your spiritual beliefs.

3. Self-disclosure is

(a) can lead to intimacy.

(b) improves self-esteem.

(c) self-destructive.

(d) undermines trust.

4. An example of self-disclosure might be to

(a) keep a private journal of your deepest fantasies and dreams.

(b) to invite someone over to your house for dinner.

(c) discuss your deepest fears with a friend.

(d) provide someone with your approximate weight and height.

5. Sharing information about yourself that can't be obtained from any source other than yourself is

called

(a) self-affirmation.

(b) self-knowledge.

(c) self-destruction.

(d) self-disclosure.

6. When someone discloses feelings about a recent personal success to you, it might mean that he or

she

(a) trusts you and seeks intimacy with you.

(b) has become too attached to you.

(c) is trying to damage your self-esteem.

(d) is hoping to distance themselves from you.

7. One can increase his or her self-awareness by

(a) trying to be more like those he or she admires.

(b) ignoring that it exists.

(c) purchasing self-help magazines.

(d) engaging in personal reflection and seeking feedback from others.

8. What is more helpful than self-talk in raising self-esteem?

(a) Securing affirmations from others

(b) Medication

(c) Reading self-help books

(d) Self-affirmations

9. People who are more likely to self-disclose are usually

(a) social and extroverted.

(b) apprehensive communicators.

(c) male

(d) introverted.

10. Self-disclosure helps to increase

(a) the number of friends one has.

(b) personal satisfaction, self-knowledge and psychological well-being.

(c) self-knowledge, communication and relationship effectiveness and psychological well-being.

(d) self-knowledge, self-concept and self esteem.

11. When considering self-disclosure one should consider

(a) the motivations for self-disclosure, the appropriateness, the disclosures of the other person

and the possible burdens it might entail.

(b) the other persons motivations, the appropriateness, the disclosures of the other person and

the possible burdens it might entail.

(c) how it might sound to someone else, the disclosures of the other person and the possible

burdens it might entail.

(d) the appropriateness, the disclosures of the other person, if others are listening and the

possible burdens it might entail.

12. When one makes a prediction come true by acting as if it were true, that person is experiencing

(a) destructive behavior.

(b) a self-fulfilling prophecy.

(c) self-esteem building.

(d) implicit personality theory.

13. Shyness is a

(a) reflex.

(b) mental illness.

(c) behavior tendency.

(d) defect

14. The drive to be perfect is

(a) admirable.

(b) self-destructive.

(c) prideful.

(d) a sign of maturity.

15. The four selves described in Johari's Window model include

(a) surprise, hidden, unknown and mysterious.

(b) blind, known, unknown and open.

(c) blind, hidden, unknown and open.

(d) blind, hidden, unknown and closed.

16. Your unknown self includes truths about you that

(a) you know about yourself but that other do not.

(b) others know about you but that you do not.

(c) neither you or others know.

(d) that only you and your family know about you.

17. Your blind self includes truths about yourself that

(a) no one will ever know about you but your spouse.

(b) neither you or others know.

(c) others know about you but that you do not.

(d) that only you and your family know about you.

18. Your open self includes truths about you that

(a) others and you know.

(b) others wish they didn't know.

(c) no one should ever know, but they do.

(d) you have tried to keep hidden but that others have found out.

19. "I am a worthy person" is an example of what kind of statement?

(a) Deceitful

(b) Self-destructive

(c) Bragging

(d) Self-affirming

20. Self-disclosure should take place

(a) over time.

(b) after a couple marries.

(c) on a long vacation.

(d) as soon as two people meet for the first time.


1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(c) 5.(d)

6.(a) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(a) 10.(c)

11(a) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(b) 15.(c)

16.(c) 17.(c) 18.(a) 19.(d) 20.(a)

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