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Countdown Cat Mock Test Paper-3

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SECTION-I

1. Dick and Jane agree to meet at a restaurant for lunch. Dick will arrive at a random time

between 11:00 AM to 1:00 PM and will wait ¼ of the time from when he arrives until 1:00

PM and Jane will wait 30 minutes. What is the probability that they are both at the

restaurant at the same time?

a. 5

16 b.

13

48 c.

1

8 d.

1

4 e. None of these

2. There are two cities A and B situated in a different time-zones. A plane flying at usual

speed leaves A at 6 am of it‟s local time and reaches B at 3 Pm of B‟s local time. Another

plane leaves B at 3 Pm of it‟s local time and reaches A at 4 pm of A‟s local time. If a plane

leaves A at 9 am of it‟s local time at it‟s usual speed, and at same instance another plane

leaves B at 2/3rd of the usual speed then what will be the local time of the place where

they cross each other. (Assume time-zone change is proportional to the distance)

a. 1.24 Pm b. 3.24 pm c. 2.24 pm d. 1.15 pm e. None of these

3. Rani‟s salary is first increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. The result is the same

as Kajol‟s salary increased by 20% and then reduced by 25%. Find the ratio of Kajol‟s

salary to that of Rani?

a. 4:3 b. 11:10 c. 10:9 d.12:11 e. None of these

4. Find the sum of the areas of the shaded sectors given that ABCDEF is any hexagon and

all the circles are of same radius r with different vertices of the hexagon as their centres

as shown in the figure.

a. 2r b. 22 r c. 25 r

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d.

23

2

r e. None of these

5. Aaryan begin to dig a well. After three days Aaditya joined him and it took 9 more days to

complete the work. If during the first three days the work would have been carried out by

Aaditya alone, then another 8 days were required by both of them to complete the work.

How many days would Aaryan and Aaditya respectively take to complete the work

separately?


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a. 24,14 b. 25,15 c. 30,15 d. 40,20 e. None of these

6. If

1

11

1

a a

c b

b b

a c

and a,b, and c are positive integers, then the number of ordered triples

(a,b,c) such that a+2b+c40, is………

a. 33 b. 37 c. 40 d. 42 e. None of these

7. P is a 2-digit number „ab‟, Q is a 3-digit number‟ cde‟. If you multiply P and Q, then

multiple it by 9 then you will get abcde. What is the sum of P and Q?


8. Mr, Honest Singh is a very professional milk seller. Initially he had 600 liters of pure milk

in a container. Unable to maintain his honesty, he withdraws 15% of the milk from the

container and replaces with the same quantity of pure water. He repeats the same

process again and again till the percentage concentration of milk in the container becomes

below 45%. How many times does he repeat the process?

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d.6 e. None of these

9. If 5 7 9log 3 log 5 log 7, thenx

a. 3

2x b.

3

1

2x c.

3

3

2x d. None of these

10. What is the sum of the series 2 3 4 51 2 3 4 5 ...........upto ?n n n n n

a. 1

1n b.

2

2

1

1

n n

n

c.

2

2

1

1

n n

n

d.

1

2

n n e. None of these

11. A particle starts at the origin (0,0) at time 0. it moves at one unit per second first to

(1,0) then (1,1), (0,1), (-1,1), (-1,-1) and to (2,-1) spiraling rectangular outward in a

counter-clockwise direction. Find the location of the particle after 226 seconds.

a. (5,7) b. (8,-7) c. (8,-6) d. (5,6) e. None of these

12. In a garden in the form of a square of side 10 m, green grass is grown symmetrically as

shown by the shaded portion in the figure. The area of the portion where green grass is

grown (in m2) is


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13. The areas of the three faces of a cuboid are in the ratio 1:3:4 and its volume is 144c.c.

The length of its diagonal is

a. 17 cm b. 21 cm c. 13 cm d.24 cm e. None of these

14. The sum of n terms of the series 7+77+777+…………

a. 7/9 10 10 1 /9n n

b. 7/9 10 10 1 /9n n

c. 7/9 10 10 1 /9n n

d. 7/9 10 10 1 /9n n

e. None of these

15. Fresh coconut contains 80% water by weight whereas dry coconut contains 10% water

by weight, what is the weight of dry coconut that can be obtained from 20 kg of fresh

coconut?

a. 4 kg b. 4.12 kg c. 4.44 kg d. 4.54 kg e. None of these

16. Find the value of 1010 648 648 648107 7 7 ...........

a. 817 b.

727 c. 64807 d.

45367 e. None of these

17. Ram Lal professes to sell 2 kg of Kajoo at a loss of 20%, Now to avoid the loss, he uses

two weighing stones, each of which is marked 1 kg, but weighs less. By doing so he gains

1

6 %2

on selling every 2 kg of Kajoo. If it is given that one of the stones weighs only 750

gm, then how much does the second stone weigh?

a. 900 gm b. 850 gm c. 750 gm d. Cannot be determined

18. 4/5th of the votes in Amritsar promised to vote for Navjot Singh Siddhu and the rest

promised to vote for Sukhbir. of these votes 10% of the voters who had promised to vote

for Navjot Singh Siddhu did not vote on the election day, While 20% of the voters who

had promised to vote for Sukhbir did not vote on the election day. What is the total no. of

votes polled if Navjot Singh Siddhu got 216 votes?


19. A,B,C and D represent the mid-points of four sides of a rectangle, If AB=BC=CD=AD=5


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cms and if one of the sides of the rectangle measures 6 cms, what is the area of the

quadrilateral ABCD?


20. If 25ylog 6 and log 8 3,y x x then y is ….

a. 85 b. 12.5 c. 12 d. 10 e. None of these

SECTION-II

Directions for questions 21 to 24: The annual gathering of a college was organized one

day. Six different programmes-Skit, Acting, Dance, Speech, Debate and Extempore are to

be peformed by six students A,B,C,D,E and F not necessarily in the same order. The

programme begins with acting not done by B and ends with extempore. C peforms dance

immediately after the speech. E performs the skit just before the extempore. D or F is not

available for the last performance. The speech is not given by A. An interval of 30 minutes

is given immediately after dance with three more items remaining to be performed. D

performs immeidately after the interval.

21. Which item is performed by F?

a. Acting b. Extempore c. Song d. Data inadequate

22. Who performed the Extempore?

a. A b. B c. Either A or B d. F

23. Who was the first performer?

a. D b. E c. A d. Data inadequate

24. Who was the last performer?

a. A b. B c. F d. Data inadequate

Directions for question 25 & 28: Refer to the following information and answer the

questions that follow.

During a lawn tennis tournament, players are required to complete in four stages:

qualifying round, quarter finals, semi finals and the final. The tournament is conducted

from Monday to Friday. The matches were played on eight courts. The details of the

players who played on each court and particular days are given us:


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TABLE 1

Court Players

1 1,5

2 9,1,14,9

3 11,7,3,1

4 11,16,13,16

5 3,15,3,10

6 11,10,8,1

7 4,12,4,6

8 3,6,2,4

TABLE 2

Days of week Players

Monday 5,11,7,1,14,16,9,13

Tuesday 1,9,11,16,3,15,10,8,4,12,6,2

Wednesday 11,3,10,1,4,6

Thursday Not available

Friday Not available

TABLE 3

Event Court Days

Qualifying Road I, II, III, IV 1,2,3,4 Monday

Qualifying Road V, VI, VII, VIII 5,6,7,8 Tuesday

Quarter Final I, II 2,4 Tuesday

Quarter Final III, IV 5,7 Wednesday

Semi Final I 6 Wednesday

Semi Final II 8 Thursday

Final 3 Friday

25. Who among the following players moved to the quarter finals?

a. Players 2 b. Players 5 c. Players 11 d. Player 15 e. None of these

26. Which pair of players could not have played their quarterfinal match against each other?

a. Player 1 and Player 9 b. Player 3 and Player 11

c. Player 11 and Player 16 d. Player 4 and Player 6 e. None of these

27. Who among the players won the tournament?

a. Player 1 b. Player 4 c. Player 11 d. Cannot be determined

28. Which player does not play one of his matches on a consecutive day?

a. Player 1 b. Player 3 c. Player 4 d. Player 11 e. None of these


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Directions for questions 29 to 30: The questions are based on the information given

below:

Each of five traders steel, Timber, Boot, Wood and Cotton sent a consignment of goods to

one of the others, none sending to and receiving from the same person. Steel‟s

consignment went to wood. Wood sent boots to the sender of timber. Timber received

steel, and the sender of wood had the name of the commodity received by Boot.

29. Boot received a consignment of

a. wood b. timber c. steel d. cotton

30. Who received neither timber nor steel?

I. Boot II. Timber III. Wood

a. I b. II c. III d. I and II

SECTION-III

Directions for questions 31 to 35: Refer to the followings graphs and answer the

question.


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31. If 248 users were questioned for the survey, how many wanted the soaps only for

medicinal purposes?

a. 42 b. 166 c. 124 d. Indeterminable

32. If 420 people were covered under the survey, how many wanted the soaps to combat

body odour?

a. 150 b. 181 c. 169 d. Indeterminable

33. If 851 people were questioned for the above survey, how many wanted the soap for

cleansing action?

a. 102 b. 112 c. 122 d. None of these

34. What percent of the people, who tried the soap in trial because of recommendations,

continued using it for a mentioned similar purpose daily use?

a. 88.14 b. 84.35 c. 79.86 d. None of these

35. If 302 people were questioned regarding the reason for use, how many of them were

foreign returned?

a. 24 b. 21 c. 27 d. Insufficient data

Directions for questions 36 to 37: Each of these items has a question followed by two

statements, I and II. Mark,

a. If the question can be answered with the help of one statement alone.

b. If the question can be answered with the help of any statement independently.

c. If the question can be answered with the help of both statements together.


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d. If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both statements together

36. Find a pair of real numbers x and y that satisfy the following two equations simultaneously.

It is known that the values of a,b,c,d,e and f are non-zero

ax+by=c

dx+ey=f

I. a=Kd and b=Ke, c=Kf,

II. a=b=1, d=c=2,f 2c

37. Three Professors A,B and C are separately given three sets of numbers to add. They

were expected to find the answers to 4+1,1+1+2, and 1+1 respectively. Their respective

were 3,3 and 2. How many of the professors are mathematicians?

I. A mathematician can never add two numbers correctly, but can always add three

numbers correctly.

II. When a mathematician makes a mistake in a sum, the error is to 1 or -1

Directions for questions 38 to 40: Answer these questions on the basis of the

information given below.

Surveys were conducted in three different years-2003, 2004 and 2005-to find out the

likelihood of people investing in shares or real estate. Each year, exactly 500 people were

surveyed and the results of the survey are given in the following table.

Likelihood of investing

Number of People

In share In Real Estate

2003 2004 2005 2003 2004 2005

Very unlikely 250 230 110 85 90 105

Somewhat unlikely

120 130 145 70 65 40

Undecided 50 60 75 20 65 35

Somewhat likely 25 30 55 230 180 170

Very likely 10 20 35 80 105 125

No response 45 30 80 15 35 25

Persons likely to invest=Persons somewhat likely to invest+Persons very likely to invest

Persons unlikely to invest=Persons somewhat unlikely+Persons very unlikely are real

estate?

38. In the year 2003, at least how many of the persons surveyed are unlikely to invest in both shares are real estate?

a. 25 b. 35 c. 45 d. Cannot be determined

39. In the year 2005, what is the least number of persons surveyed who are likely to invest in shares or real estate? a. 0 b. 90 c. 295 d. Cannot be determined


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40. In the year 2004, if of the persons surveyed, exactly 70 persons said that were undecided

to invest either in shares or in real estate, what percentage of the total number of persons surveyed were undecided to invest both in shares and in real estate?

a.4% b. 5% c. 6% d. 9%

SECTION-IV

Directions for Questions 41 to 42: Identify the correct sentence or sentences.

41. A. The boy worked hard lest he fail.

B. They enjoyed during the match

C. The question comprises of four parts.

D. I was very much taken aback by his behaviour.

a. Only A b. Both A & C c. Both B & D d. Only D

42. A. Will you pardon me being rude that day?

B. The Watch Was much more expensive than we thought at first.

C. Who is the smartest student of the class?

D. She shouted to me from the top floor.

a. Only A b. Only B c. Both B & D d. Only C

Directions for questions 43 & 44: Read each of the short passage and answer the

questions that follow:

43. A company decided to cut costs during a downturn. One of the measures was to monitor

the usage of stationary. The management was of the opinion that a reduction of even

15% in stationary costs would increase profitability by 5%.

Which of the following, if true, would weaken the above argument?

a. The downturn was not expected to last for more than four quarters.

b. The cost of stationary in other companies was similar.

c. The expenditure on usage monitoring equipment was more than the reduction in cost of

stationary.

d. The entire cost cutting exercise was rendered futile due to employee retrenchment.

44. „Manasi‟ a women‟s fortnightly magazine, conducted a survey among its women readers to

test the acceptability factor of a new mixer-grinder. Seventy five per cent of the

respondents gave a positive reply. This survey clearly indicates that the launch of this

new electronic gadget in the near future, will be a successful one.

The flaw in the above argument is:

a. Concentration on the urban women alone.

b. A survey not being foolproof enough for a launch.

c. The sample not being representative enough for the launch.

d. The remaining 25% of respondents not being considered.


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Directions for questions 45 & 46: Read each of the short Passages and answer

the questions that follow:

45. About 96% of Scandinavian moths have ears turned to the ultrasonic pulses that bats,

their predators, emit. But the remaining 4% do not have ears and are deaf. However,

they have a larger wingspan than the hearing moths, and also have higher wing-loadings

- the ratio between a wing‟s area and its weight-meaning higher maneuverability.

Which one of the following can be best inferred from the above passage?

a. A higher proportion of deaf moths than hearing moths fall prey to bats.

b. Deaf moths may try to avoid bats by frequent changes in their flight direction.

c. Deaf moths are faster than hearing moths, and so are less prone to becoming a bat‟s

dinner than hearing moths.

d. The large wingspan enables deaf moths to better receive and sense the pulses of their

bat predators.

46. Argentina‟s beef cattle herd has dropped to under 50 million from 57 million ten year ago

in 1990. The animals are worth less, too; prices fell by over a third last year, before

recovering slightly. Most local, meat packers and processors are in financial trouble, and

recent years have seen a string of plant closures. The Beef Producers‟ Association has now

come up with a massive advertisement campaign calling upon Argentines to eat more

beef-their “Juicy, healthy, rotund, platefilling” steaks.

Which one of the following, if true, would contribute most to a failure of the campaign?

a. There has been a change in consumer preference towards eating leaner meats like

chicken and fish.

b. Prices of imported beef have been increasing, thus making locally grown beef more

competitive in terms of pricing.

c. The inability to cross breed native cattle with improved varieties has not increased

production to adequate levels.

d. Animal rights pressure groups have come up rapidly, demanding better and humane

treatment of farmyard animals like beef cattle.

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Read the passage and answer the questions

that follow:

The single most vital step in your journey towards enlightenment in this: Learn to move

away from your mind. Every time you create a gap in the stream of mind, the light of your

consciousness grows stronger. One day you may catch yourself smiling at the voice in

your head, as you would smile at the antics of a child. This means that you no longer take

the content of your mind all that seriously, as your sense of self does not depend on it.

Even while you indulge in a daily routine like going for a walk or just the office routine, be

present in what you do. Feel as if you are the other, just observing the activity performed

by your body. Feel your limb movements. Feel your breath, Be the real you, quite distinct

from the routine activity. But feel your presence while you are in action. When this


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process is complied with, it gives great satisfaction and enables you to lure your

consciousness away from the mind.

Man has the potentially to achieve what may be called in metaphysical terms “total

consciousness”. This could be Practised while living in a mundane existence, by following

some simple steps. As a first step man must try to listen to the beats of the inner voice.

In this stage man will listen to the sounds of repeated thought patterns and of his old

memories. In the metaphysical language this may be called “Watching the Thinker”. It is

a simple way of observing the silent activities of the mind, as a passive observer. In this

process man is not supposed to judge or decide what he listens to. Man will “realize” that

this watching the sense of his presence is not a thought; it arises from an unknown region

beyond the mind.

In this state, man is oblivious of the thoughts but he is aware of his presence and this

may be called a state of new consciousness. In this spiritual state man feels a conscious

presence, a deeper layer of inner self is revealed to him. The heavy burden of thoughts

loses its hold on him and in this stage man is no longer energizing the mind through

identification with it. This is the beginning of the end of spontaneous and compelling

thinking.

This is a state where the power of memory abandons him. Apparently, the power of

thought is still inactive. The empty spaces, in the beginning shall be short-lived but after

the passage of a few seconds the empty spaces shall be expanding wider and wider. They

are helpful too. Frequent exposure to these give rise to a very beneficial mixture of peace

and idleness. This step to realize one‟s natural self is to seek union with the supreme by

breaking out of all barriers put forth by the mind; to go into a state of eternal bliss; in

communion with the existence, and in a liberated frame of mind.

Any time is a good beginning and through sustained practice the sense of stillness and

peace will deepen. Such pursuit of liberation and eternal peace is endless and fathomless.

The state is beyond the physical. There is a deep sense of serenity and tranquility and a

seamless joy that is felt deep within. In this metaphysical state, man will feel a

mysterious emanation of joy arising from the deep bottoms of the consciousness; they

may be called the joy of being. When on this level of existence, man is more alert and

aware. At this instant, man is fully aware of his environment and is re-energized by the

union with his consciousness. As he drifts further into this mindless realm, he realizes his

true self. When experiencing this state, he feels his existence with such ecstasy that

nothing else stands in comparison. In this state, he loses his self and goes beyond serving

the mind. Man has become a Living Being true to himself. This is the crux of being with

the soul and the mind, at all times.

47. What does the phrase “Watching the thinker” signify in context of the passage?

a. Paying attention to the thought patterns erupting in an otherwise blank mind.

b. It is a process of inner realization of self while working.


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c. It is a state of consciousness when the mind is detached from the inside world.

d. It is the state of super consciousness when the self minds the mind as an observer.

48. In the passage the author most likely describe specific experiences of routine activities in

order to

a. explain the significance of connectedness of the external world of realities and the inner

thought patterns.

b. express the mind-identified state when vibrational frequency gives life to the physical

existence.

c. express a state when physical body and the whole external world become insignificant

in the context of true consciousness.

d. draw a state of mind which is alert and is blissful mood.

49. According to the passage, the role of a free existence is

a. to liberate the mindset and to make a man true to his inner-self.

b. to gain inner enlightenment subsiding bizarre sounds of old memories

c. to achieve a state of inner connectedness and the inception of involuntary thinking.

d. to be in a natural state of transcendental bliss.

50. How can we accomplish total dis-identification from the mind?

a. Through the art of detachment.

b. Observing sense vibrations felt during the routine work.

c. By mind-alertness in observation of all sense perceptions and their effect on the mind

activity.

d. By measuring the degree of peace that is felt in the mind.

51. The author is least likely to agree with which of the following statements?

a. Man can always become oblivious of the old memories haunting him at every step of

life

b. Listening to the inner voice impartially is a hazardous experience.

c. Self-realization is possible and the layers of thought patterns restrain a person from

feeling his conscious presence.

d. Man can never feel and think freely as he is in the web of worldly activities.

Directions for questions 52: Each of the following questions has a pair of capitalized

words followed by four other pairs of words. Choose the word pair which exhibits a

relationship similar to that in the capitalized pair.

52. SENTENTIOUS: APHORISM

a. redundant: criticism b. allegorical: maxim c. deprecatory: panegyric

d. laudatory: eulogy


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Directions for questions 53 to 54: The opening line of a paragraph is given. From the

alternatives, choose the one that rearrange the statements numbered A,B,C and D such

that they form a coherent paragraph and follow the opening line.

53. An established business which is able and willing to invest in its development into mail

order trading will usually engage the services of a suitable advertising agency.

a. Unfortunately, however, too often the newcomer is left to his own creative devices,

which are likely to be few and underdeveloped.

b. But should a suitable agency be persuaded to accept the account, life should be much

easier for the new business.

c. But an individual beginner with limited financial resources will extremely fortunate to

find such an agency.

d. There are few agencies with the real depth of experience in the mail field and even

fewer that will be prepared to invest their time and money is nursing a beginner without

the inducement of a substantial fee.

a. DCBA b. CDBA c. CADB d. ACDB

54. As I went about to the other workrooms, I realized that every painting was a self-portrait

even when it was a still life or a scene over the roofs of Paris.

a. With every brush stoke the artist was mercilessly exposed; he could conceal nothing,

he could pretend to be another person, but in the end, he would fool no one.

b. For no man ever pictured anything but himself, his core, the things he was basically.

c. An artist had one thing to say, and only one; he might flail about, seek new techniques,

form, colours, combinations, subjects but intrinsically, he would always paint the same

canvas, write the same book.

d. Only now, years after having read through the work of Shakespeare, Dickens and

Scott, I realize that even the most prolific writer created only one novel; the true and

complete portrait of himself.

a. CABD b. ABCD c. CADB d. BADC

Directions for questions 55 to 57: The Passages given below are followed by a

set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Although the classic view of modernization developed by Marx, Weber, and others was

wrong on many points, the central insight-that socioeconomic development brings major

social, cultural, and political changes-is basically correct. This insight is confirmed by a

massive body of new evidence, including survey data from eighty-one societies containing

85 percent of the world‟s population, collected from 1981 to 2001, that demonstrates that

the basic values and beliefs of the public of advance societies differ dramatically from

those found in less-developed societies – and that these values are changing in a

predictable direction as socioeconomic development takes place. Changing values, in turn,

have important consequences for the way societies are governed, promoting gender

equality, democratic freedom, and good governance.


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Early version of modernization theory were too simple, socioeconomic development has a

powerful impact on what people want and do, as Kari Marx argued, but a society‟s cultural

heritage continues to shape its prevailing belief and motivation, as Max Weber argued.

Moreover, a socio-cultural change is not linear. Industrialization brings rationalization,

secularization, and bureaucratization, but the rise of the knowledge society brings another

set of changes that move in a new direction, placing increasing emphasis on individual

autonomy, self-expression and free choice. Emerging self-expression values transform

modernization into a process of human development, giving rise to a new type of

humanistic society that is increasingly people centered.

The first phase of modernization mobilized the masses, making modern democracy

possible-along with fascism and communism. The postindustrial phase of modernization

produces increasingly powerful mass demands for democracy- the form of government

that provides the broadest latitude for individuals to choose how to live their lives.

Coherent changes are taking place in political, religious, social and sexual norms

throughout postindustrial societies. They present a model of social change that predicts

how the value system of given societies will evolve in coming decades. And it

demonstrates that mass values play a crucial role in the emergence and flourishing of

democratic institutions. Modernization is evolving into a process of human development,

in which socioeconomic development brings cultural changes that make individual

autonomy, gender, equality and democracy increasingly likely, giving rise to a new type of

society that promotes human emancipation on many fronts.

Democracy is not simply the result of clever elite bargaining and constitutional

engineering. It depends on deep-rooted orientations among the people themselves. These

orientations motivate them to demand freedom and responsive government, and to act to

ensure that the governing elites remain responsive to them. Genuine democracy is not

simply a machine that once set up, functions by itself. It depends on the people. The core

of the human development sequence is the expansion of human choice and autonomy. As

this aspect of modernization becomes more prominent, it brings cultural changes that

make democracy the logical institutional outcome. In previous account of modernization,

the central role played by cultural changes has been either overlooked or underestimated.

To a large extent, culture is transmitted from one generation to the next. But people‟s

basic values reflect not only what they are taught but also their firsthand experiences.

During the past half century, socioeconomic development has been changing people‟s

formative condition profoundly and with unprecedented speed. Economic growth, rising

levels of education and information, and diversifying human interactions increase

people‟s material, cognitive and social resources, making them materially, intellectually,

and socially more independent. Rising levels of existential security and autonomy

changes people‟s firsthand life experiences fundamentally, leading them to emphasize

goals that were previously given lower priority, including the pursuit of freedom. Cultural

emphasis shifts from collective discipline to individual liberty, from group conformity to


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human diversity and from state authority to individual autonomy, giving rise to a

syndrome, that we can call self-expression values. These values bring increasing

emphasis on the civil and political liberties that constitute democracy, which provide

broader latitude for people to pursue freedom of expression and self– realization. Rising

self-expression values transform modernization into a process of human

development, generating a society that is increasingly people-centered. This reflects a

humanistic transformation of modernity. In short socioeconomic modernization brings the

objective capabilities that enable people to base their lives on autonomous choices. Rising

emphasis on self-expression values leads people to demand and defend freedom of

choice. And democratic institutions establish the rights that entitle people to exert free

choice in their activities. These three processes all focus on the growth of autonomous

human choice. Because autonomous choice is specifically human ability, we characterize

the processes that develop this potential as “human” development.

55. In the passage, which of the following best describes the author‟s opinion of

modernization?

a. Skeptical b. Commendatory c. Vilifying d. Trenchant

56. From the passage, it can be inferred that as result of modernization:

a. Succeeding generation will be more independent than their predecessors

b. Democracy is a tool of the elite to promote their own interest.

c. Changing values are creating a period of transition that is troublesome for all involved

d. Pursuant of freedom takes on a secondary role.

57. According to the author, which of the following is NOT a feature associated with socio-

economic development?

a. Self expression values

b. Independence

c. Gender equality

d. Rationalization

58. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the main argument made by author?

a. There are parameters other than socio-economic development that effect people‟s

value system.

b. Recent studies have shown that it is very difficult to change one‟s basic value system

c. There are many communist countries which have achieved high level of socio-economic

development

d. Socio-economic development leads to the breakdown of nuclear families into smaller

units rising self-expression values, transform traditional values into a process of human

development.

Directions for Questions 59 to 60: Read the following passage and answer the

questions that follow:


16

How many really suffer as a result of labour market problems? This is one of the most

critical yet contentious social policy questions. In many ways, our social statistics

exaggerate the degree of hardship. Unemployment does not have the same dire

consequences today as it did in the 1930‟s when most of the unemployed were primary

breadwinners, when income and earnings were usually much closer to the margin of

subsistence, and when there were no countervailing social programs for those failing in

the labour market. Increasing affluence, the rise of families with more than one wage

earner, the growing preponderance of secondary earners among the unemployed and

improved social welfare protection have unquestionably mitigated the consequences of

joblessness.

Earning and income data also overstate the dimensions of hardship. Among the millions

with hourly earnings at or below the minimum wage level, the overwhelming majorities

are from multiple-earner, relatively affluent families. Most of those counter by the poverty

statistics are elderly or handicapped or have family responsibilities, which keep them out

of the labour force, so the poverty statistics are by no means an accurate indicator of

labour market pathologies. Yet there are also many ways our social statistics

underestimate the degree of labour –market –related hardship. The unemployment counts

exclude the millions of fully employed workers who wages are so low that their families

remain in poverty. Low wages and repeated or prolonged unemployment frequently

interact to undermine the capacity for self-support. Since the number of experiencing

joblessness at some time during the year is several times the number unemployed in any

month, those who suffer as a result of forced idleness can equal or exceed average annual

unemployment, even though only a majority of the jobless in any month really suffer.

For every person counted in the monthly unemployment tallies, there is another working

part time because of the inability to find full-time work, or else outside the labour force

but wanting a job. Finally, income transfers in our country have always focused on the

elderly, disabled and dependent, neglecting the needs of the working poor, so that the

dramatic expansion of cash and in-kind transfers does not necessarily mean that those

failing in the labour market are adequately protected. As a result of such a contradictory

evidence, it is uncertain whether those suffering seriously as a result of thousands or the

tens of millions, and hence, whether high levels of joblessness can be tolerated or must

be countered by job creation and economic stimulus. There is only one area of agreement

in this debate-the existing poverty, employment and earnings statistics are inadequate for

one of their primary applications, measuring the consequences of labour market

problems.

59. Which of the following proposals best responds to the issues raised by the author?

a. A compromise should be found between the positions of those who view joblessness as

an evil greater than economic control and those who hold the opposite view.

b. New statistical indices should be developed to measure the degree to which

unemployment and inadequately paid employment cause suffering.

c. Consideration should be given to the ways in which statistics can act as partial causes

of the phenomenon that they purport to measure.


17

d. The labour force should be restructured so that it corresponds to the range of job

vacancies.

60. The author‟s purpose in citing those who are repeatedly unemployed during a 12-month

period is most probable to show that

a. Unemployment statistics can underestimate the hardship resulting from joblessness.

b. Recurrent inadequacies in the labour market can exist and can cause hardships for

individual workers.

c. A majority of those who are jobless at one time do not suffer severe hardship.

d. There are fewer individuals who are without jobs at some time during a year than

would be expected on the basis of monthly unemployment figures.


18

SECTION-I

1. b 2. c 3. c 4. a 5. c 6. d 7. d 8. c 9. c 10. c

11. c 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. c 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. c 20. b

SECTION-II

21. d 22. c 23. d 24. d 25. c 26. b 27. d 28. a 29. b 30. c

SECTION-III

31. d 32. d 33. d 34. d 35. d 36.a 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. d

SECTION-IV

41. d 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. c 46.a 47. d 48. c 49. d 50. a

51. d 52. d 53. b 54. d 55. b 56.b 57. d 58. d 59.b 60.a


19

Solution:-

1. Plot the arrival time of D & J and calculate areas: Let-60 be 11:00 AM, 60 be 1:00 PM, so

the Possible arrival times are on a 120X 60 grid. If Jane is later than 30 minutes before

Dick and earlier than 1

length of time Dick gets there before 1:004

after Dick arrives,

(given by the following inequalities) D-30<J<D+ 1 3

60 D 15 D4 4

then they meet.

This has an area of 1950 out of a total of 7200, B.

2. A________________B. From the given information we have, let T be the time

difference and D be the time required to cover the distance. Then we have D+T=9, and

D-T=1, solving them we get D=5hr and T=4hr.

Since the plane takes 5 hr to complete the journey, so we can draw the following

A_________1_________2_________3________4__________B.

If both planes start together, at the described time then the meeting point is at 3. Since

the time zone varies proportional to distance, so the time when it was 9 am at A the time

at 3 will be more by 4 60

min=144 min =2hr. 24 min. 5

So the time at that instance at 3 is 11.24 am. In 3 hrs, i.e at the time of at 3 hrs, i.e. at

the time of crossing the local time at 3 will be 2.24 pm.

3. Let Rani‟s salary be Rs. 100/-

After 25% increment, it will becomes Rs. 125/-

Again, After 20% decrement, it will become Rs. 100/-

Now, taking Kajol‟s salary to be Rs. 100/-

After 20% increment, it will become Rs. 120/-

After 25% decrement, new salary will become Rs. 90/-

So 100 R=90 K

K 100

R 90

Ratio of Kajol‟s to Rani‟s salary is 10:9.

Hence (c) is the correct answer.

5. Through options

Option (a), (b), and (d) do not fulfill the conditions while option (c) fulfils the required

conditions.

By option (c)

Let Aaryan complete the work in 30 days and Aaditya in 15 days separately.

Let the amount of the work be 30 units (L.C.M of 30 and 15)

Work done by Aaryan and Aaditya separately in a day is 1 unit and 2 units respectively.

Now According to question


20

Aaryan‟s three days‟ work + (Aaryan+Aaditya )‟s 9 days work.

=13+3 8=30

Aaditya‟s three days‟ work + (Aaditya +Aaryan)‟s 8 days‟ work =23+38=30.

Hence the option is (c)

6. Simplify the expression

111

a a

c bb b

aa c

as follow:

11

11

11 since c 0

11b

ab ac bc

bc

bc ab ac

ac

ac

bc

a

b

a

By substitution, the condition a+2b+c40 becomes 13b+c 40.

Since b and c are positive integers, then b can only take on the values 1,2 or 3. The value

of a correspond directly to the value of b, since a=11b.

If b=3, there is one corresponding value of c. When b=2, there are 14 possible values of

c. Finally if b=1, there are 27 possible values of c.

Therefore, the number of different ordered triples satisfying the given conditions is

1+14+27=42.

7. Let number n=abcde

=1000 (ab)+cde

n=1000 P+Q

=9.P.Q

n=F (P,Q)

9PQ=1000 P+Q

If Q=100, then

900 P<1000 P+Q.

If Q=100, then

900 P<1000 P+100

P must be greater than 111 as L.H.S=9. P.111=999P and

R.H.S=1000 P+Q.

Check the options:

Eliminate option (1) and (2) as both are less than 111

Only possibility that satisfies is Q=112.

9112P=1000 P+112


21

1008 P=1000 P+112

8P=112P=14

P=14, Q=112, satisfy 9PQ=1000 P+Q

So, P+Q=126.

8. Amount left=Capacity (1-fraction withdrawn) no. of times Now, by going through options

from option (c) we get

Amount Left =600

5 53 17

1 60020 20

1419857600 266.22

3200000

266.22Therefore, percentage concentration= 100 44.37%

600

9. Since A.MG.M.

2

15 7 9 3

5 7 9

1

1 3

35 7 9

11 1

31 3 3

39 3 3

3 3

5 7 9 3 3

log 3 log 5 log 7 log 3 log 5 log 7

3

log3 log5 log7log 3 log 5 log 7

log5 log7 2log3

1 1 1 1log 3

109 9 2log 3 2log

3 3log 3 log 5 log 7 , Thus, x

2 2x

10. Let S=1+n+2n3+3n3+4n4+5n5+………………..upto

Multiply both sides by n and subtract

n.S=n+n2+2n3+4n4+5n5+…………..

(1-n) S=1+n2+n3+n4+n5……………..

=1+n2 (1+n+n2+n3______)

2

2

2 2

2 2

11

1

11

1 1S=

1-n 1 1

nn

n

n

n n n

n n

11. As shown in figure we obtain the series as


22

in 1 sec (1,0)

in 9 sec (2,-1)

in 25 sec (3,-2)

in 49 sec (4,-3)

.

.

.

We can see that it is following a pattern of squares of consecutive odd number as

coordinates of point are changing by one. So when the particle will travel for 225 seconds

it will be eventually on (8,-7).

Therefore in next second it will be on (8,-6)

12.

Area of rectangle (shaded) =104=40 sq.m.

Area of each triangle (shaded)=1

5 3 7.5 sq.m.2

Total area of shaded region=area of rectangle +2 area of triangle =40+7.52=55 sq.m.

13. Let a,b and c is the order of cuboid.

ab:bc:ca=1:3:4

Let ab=K, bc= 3K and ca=4K.

Volume of the cuboid=abc

ab:bc. ca=K, 3K, 4K i.e. a2b2c2=12 K3

It is given the volume is 144 c.c.

abc=144

2 3144 12 K

K=12

Hence the surfaces are 12 sq. cm. 36 sq. cm and 48 sq. cm

Hence, ab=12 sq. cm, be bc=36 sq. cm, ca=48 sq.cm.

Also abc=144 cm3

c=12 cm, a=4 cm and b=3 cm


23

The length of the diagonal=

2 2 2

2 2 212 4 3 13

a b c cm

cm cm

14. nS 7 77 777 .............. termsn

2 3

=7 1+11+111+.........

7 /9 9 1 11 111 ......

7 /9 10 1 100 1 1000 1 ......

7 /9 10 100 1000 ....... I

7 /9 10 10 1 /9 since 10+10 10 ........Term a GP

with a=10 and r=10 >1

n

n

n

15. Fresh coconuts contain 200.2=4kg of other matter and this other matter from 90% of

dry fruit weight.

Hence 0.9 4x

4

4.440.9

x

16. Let 648 648 64810 7 10 7 10 7 ............x

10 648

9 648

99 72

72

7

7

7

7

x x

x

x

x

17. Let the CP of 2 kg Kajoo=Rs. 100,

The SP of 2 kg Kajoo=(100-20)% of 100=Rs. 80

Again According to Question (by using the stones ), the new SP is equal to Rs. 106.67

There is a gain of 33.33%

As we know (by product constancy)

There is a gain of 33.33%

The stones must be weighing 25% less

The combined weight of both the stones is 1500 gm instead of 2000 g


24

One of the stones weighs 750 g

The other of the stones weighs 750 g

18. Let the total number of voters be „x‟ , then 4

5

th

of the votes polled will be given to Navjot

Singh, and rest i.e. 1

5

th

is been polled to Sukhbir.

Again 10% of 4

5x

candidates didn‟t vote. So, 90% of the voters polled, to Navjot,

Singh Siddhu.

So 4 90 4

90% of 5 100 5

x x

18

25x

Now, Navjot singh Siddhu got 216 voters.

18216

25

25 216

18

300.

1Sukhbir got of the total votes, out of these voters only

5

80 1 480% voted, so Sukhbir will get

100 5 24

Navjot Singh Siddhu got 216 voters i.e.

18216

25

300

x

x

x

x

x x

x

x

300 voters were there all over, out of which 10% for Navjot Singh Siddhu and 20% for

Sukhbir did not vote. So, 3/25 of 300 did not vote.

Votes polled=3

300 300 26425

So, 264 votes were polled.


25

19.

ABCD is a rhombus.

Hence AO2+OD2=AD2

OD=OB=6/2=3. (half the breadth)

AO2+32=52

AO=4, Therefore AC=8

Area of the rhobus=1

Product of diagonals 2

1

8 6 242

20. 6

7log 6x y

3

25y

6 3 3 3

log 8 3 8 25

8 25 25 25/ 2 12.5 Ans b

x x y

y y y

Solution for 21-24

Create the following table to solve the following questions:

Skit Acting Dance Speech Debate Extempore

A x . x x x .

B x x x . X .

C x x x x x

D x x x x x

E x x x x x

F x . x . x x

5 1 3 2 4 6

Given that after Dance three more items are to be performed. Dance is at number 3.

E performs Skit just before Extempore so Skit is at number 5. An interval of 30 minutes is

given immediately after Dance (item no 3) and D performs after the interval. So the

Debate (item no 4) is performed by D.


26

21. d

22. c

23. d

24. d

Solutions for 25 to 28:

We can get the following table by the information provided

25. c

26. b

27. According to the table it can be determined that player 1 and 3 played the final match,

but who won the tournament cannot be determined. Ans (d)

28. a

29. b

30. c

Solutions for 31 to 35

31. In the bar graph, the total percentage exceeds 100. So some people have opted for more

than one reason. So getting an answer is not possible.

32. Since fragrance cannot be directly associated to body odour, the answer is Indeterminable.

33. Cleansing action was cited as a purpose by around 17% of the 851 people; while is around

851x0.17-145. So the answer is none of these.

34. Since word of mouth is similar to recommendation, the percentage for trial is 19 and the

percentage that used it because of word mout is 14. So the required percentage is (14/19)x

100-73.3%. so the answer is “None of these”.

35. We cannot determine how many of the people were foreign returned. So the answer is

insufficient data.

Rounds Court Match between Winner Loser

Qualifying Round

I Monday

1234 1,5 1 5

II 1234 14,9 9 14

III 1234 11,7 11 7

IV 1234 16,13 16 13

V

Tuesday

5678 3,15 3 15

VI 5678 10,8 10 8

VII 5678 4,12 4 12

VIII 5678 6,2 6 2

Quarter

Final

I 24 9,1 1 9

II 24 11,16 11 16

III Wednesday 57 3,10 3 10

IV 57 4,6 4 6

Semi final I 6 11,1 1 11

II Thursday 8 3,4 3 4

Final Friday 3 3,1 - -


27

36. Statement I when used to solve the sum gives us the same equation as the second

substituted into the first equation. Kdx +Key=Kf

K dx+ey as k 0f

So, it is of no use as we get infinite solutions and not a unique one.

Statement II gives us the following equations.

x+y=c

2x+2y=f.

These are two linear equations in x and y, such that ½=1/2 c/f as c/f 1/2 (Given),

Which is a system having a unique solution.

37. Statement II tells us that mathematicians can make mistakes which are always errors of +1

and -1. Also statement I tells us that mathematicians can never add 2 numbers correctly but we

know he can make mistake also.

Again he can always add 3 numbers correctly. Therefore, as mistakes can be made here too, we

cannot decide as to who is a mathematician.

Solution for 38 to 40:

38. As per the data, given the total number of persons surveyed who are unlikely to invest in

shares and real estate in 2003 include those who are very unlikely and somewhat

unlikely=250+120+85+70=525.

But the total number of persons survey=500

The required number of respondents=525-500=25

39. Those likely to invest in shares and real estate include those who are somewhat likely and

very likely. Those who are somewhat likely to invest in real estate is 170 and those in shares is

55. The least number of those somewhat likely to invest in shares or real estate=170. Similarly

the least number of respondents are very to invest in shares or real estate=125.

The required number of respondents=170+125=295

40. In 2004, number of persons undecided to invest in shares and real estate are respectively

60 and 65. Those who are undecided to invest either in shares or real estate is 70.

Number of respondents who were undecided to invest in shares and real estate =(60+65)-

70=45

The required percentage 45

100 9%500

41. Only D is correct. The correct form of A is-The boy worked hard lest he should fail. In B, the

verb enjoyed should be followed by the reflexive pronoun „themselves‟ because the action.

Returns to the subject „they‟ the correct sentence is-they enjoyed themselves during the

Match. In C, the verb „comprises‟ is not followed by the preposition of. (The verb consists‟ is

followed by of‟) the correct form of C is –the question comprises four parts.

42. Both B & D are correct. In A the pronoun „me‟ that governs the gerund‟ being should be in

the possessive case. The correct sentence is –will you pardon my being rude that day? The

correct form of C is –who is the smartest student in the class? D is correct because, you „shout

at‟ somebody when you are angry. „shout to somebody so that they can hear you.

43. The argument seeks an increase in profitability by cutting costs. The argument is weakened

in option (c) as it states that inspite of reducing stationary costs, the actual cost rises because of

some other expenditure. All the other options do not dwell on the main argument. Hence (c)


28

44. The sample consist of only the readers of the magazine. The group cannot decide the

viability of the launch. Option (a) is not relevant because urban women are not indicated in the

paragraph. Option (b) states that the survey is not foolproof, which is above the scope of the

paragraph. Option (d) is irrelevant. Hence (c)

45. Option (a) is wrong. Because there is no fact mentioned to infer this statement. Option (b)

and (c) are very close. Since the description of deaf moth stands with „However‟, it suggests the

comparison between hearing and deaf moth and finally linking it to the predator but, who eats

them, so option (c) is better than option (b). Option (d) is beyond the states fact.

46. Option (b) makes the campaign successful rather than a failure option (c) talk about the

production level, since there is no problem of production, in fact the demand is falling against

the supply so option (c) is not linked with campaign. Option (d) may make the life of meat

producer difficult, however it will not lead to failure of campaign. Option (a) is right as it is linked

to campaign‟s success directly.

47. (a) is wrong as man‟s mind is never blank and thought patterns continue surfacing.

(b) is incomplete and incoherent.

(c) is rendered incorrect by the detachment of mind. It is not the mind that is detached; it is‟

the self that is detached from the mind.

(d) is correct as the state of super-consciousness is a state of total awareness when the self is in

constant communion with existence and acts as an observer of the mundane existence of the

mind.

(e) is rendered incorrect by the term „compulsive thinking‟.

48. (a) is incorrect as the experiences do not connect the act and the thought.

(b) is incorrect and incoherent.

(c) the statement is correct because the routine activities become insignificant and extraneous

to the consciousness of man though he continues to live with his physical existence.

(d) is wrong as it is not the mind that is in a blissful state.

(e) the experiences are not mentioned to articulate meditation and its insignificance.

49. (a). It is incorrect as liberation of mind is not the focus of the passage.

(b) It is incorrect and incoherent.

(c) It is incorrect as inner connectedness is not achieved by involuntary thinking.

(d) It is correct as detachment from mind is a state of natural bliss.

50. (a). It is correct as the eternal bliss requires total detachment.

(b) “Sense vibrations‟ and sense perceptions‟ render (b) and

(c) as wrong

(d) It is wrong as peace of mind is not exactly measured.

51. The inference is negative. As per the passage self need not be a slave to mind. With effort

and application, a man can come out of the web of realities.

52. (d) Sententious and aphorium is to observation what praise is to laudatory and eulogy.

Solutions for 53 to 54:

53. Opening sentence talks about engaging services of an advertising agency. So C has to follow

as it talks whether finding such an agency is that easy. D follows C giving examples of a few

agencies and that they would accept any after but charge a good fee. B states if some agency


29

accepts the account, life and would become simple. But A states that for newcomers life is not

that easy.

54. Starts with telling that the author sees other painters work he realises that in every picture

the painter has tried to draw his self-potrait indirectly. B gives the reason for this followed by A

which further strengthens the point. Then the author gives similar examples in the field of

writing (mention in D.) in the end in C, the author states that no matter what an artist draws or

writes the inner message would be the same.

55. Answer is 2. The author is approving of all the development he lists under the effects of

modernization. The word “commendatory” means approving. All the other options bear a

negative connotation that would imply disapproval i.e. contradictory to what is seen in the

passage. “Vilifying” means “ to make derogatory statement about”. “ Trenchant” means

something harsh”.

56. The option can be traced in the penultimate paragraph, though it is reiterated in the

passage. Options 2 and 4 contradict the information in the passage. Option c cannot be inferred

as there is insufficient information to support the conclusion to socio-economic development.

57. The concept of rationalization has been termed as one of the ill-effects of industrialization,

and not in relation to socio-economic development. All the other options stand in relation to

socio-economic development.

58. Though the author beings by favouring the theory proposed of Marx and Weber, in the

ensuing paragraphs he stresses on the importance, of autonomous choice provided be the

democratic philosophy. He stresses on democratic means as resulting in development. Option c

negates these points, thus making it the correct option.

59. Viewed in correlation with the above answer option b is a continuation of the same theme of

accuracy in determining the number of unemployed.

60. Any‟ „snapshot‟ statistic reveals reality that exists at a particular time A „time period‟ statistic

will look at a cumulative effect –and so will not underestimate. This is what option (a) is

highlighting.


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