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Page 1: Free Mock CAT by CHALOBOLO.com - 2010 cb cat 01

2010 CB CAT 01 FREE MOCK TEST SERIES FROM

WWW. .COM CHALOBOLO

MBA UNPLUGGED

Join CHALOBOLO.com for Free Mock CAT series for CAT

2011.

CB CAT by CHALOBOLO.com is the best mock CAT series

around, based on the latest trends seen in CAT 2010.

This season, get Premium Test Pack with detailed solutions

and Performance Analytics.

Real life simulation of CAT.

If acing CAT is your aim, 2011 CB CAT is your best shot.

2011 CB CAT series begins this JUNE. Register Now to keep

yourself updated!!

The following free Mock CAT test is the first test from last

year’s(2010) CB CAT series. This is free for practice. Get more

tests on CHALOBOLO.com

Page 2: Free Mock CAT by CHALOBOLO.com - 2010 cb cat 01

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2 2010 CB CAT 01 | Visit www.CHALOBOLO.com for Free Mock CAT series

2010 CB-CAT 01

Quantitative Ability

Directions for questions 1 to 20 : Answer these questions independently of each other.

Q1. : Ravi, a car driver uses 24% of his fuel in covering the first 20% of his total journey (in city

driving conditions). He knows that he has to cover another 25% of his journey in city driving

conditions. What should be the minimum percentage increase in fuel efficiency for non-city

driving over the city driving fuel efficiency, so that he is just able to cover his entire journey

without having to refuel (approximately)?

1. 40%

2. 44%

3. 47%

4. 50%

5. 52%

Q2. : 10th

April 1940 (or 10.4.40) is an interesting date because the product of first 2 numbers

equals the third. Which year in the twentieth century gives the maximum dates of this kind?

1. 1998

2. 1964

3. 1948

4. 1984

5. 1924

Q3. : When three consecutive numbers are multiplied, we get 10626. What is the sum of these 3

numbers?

1. 62

2. 63

3. 64

4. 65

5. 66

Q4. : Five digit numbers are formed using the digits 3,4,5,6 and 8 without repetition. Find the

sum of all such numbers.

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1. 69339898

2. 69333264

3. 68987634

4. 60789300

5. 76543432

Q5. : A book contains 1,000 pages. When a page is chosen, what is the probability that the sum

of digits of the number on this page is 9?

1. 17/500

2. 11/200

3. 7/100

4. 21/500

5. None of These

Q6. : A square is formed by joining the mid points of the adjacent sides of a square of side p.

The square thus formed, circumscribes a circle in which an equilateral triangle is inscribed. Find

the area of the triangle.

1. 3p2/16

2. 3√3p2/16

3. 3p2(Π - ½)/4

4. 3√3p2/32

5. None of these

Q7. : AD = ED. Measure of arc EF = ½ x Measure of arc AD. Measure of arc DE = 84°. What is

the measure of ∠FED?

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1. 42°

2. 75°

3. 87°

4. 117°

5. None of These

Q8. : Two players bet on the total roll of 2 standard dice. Player A bets that a 7 will be rolled

first. Player B bets that 12 will be rolled first. The players keep rolling until one player wins.

What is the probability that player B will win either the first or the second try (if Player B starts

first)?

1. 1/18

2. 11/216

3. 65/1296

4. 71/1296

5. Cannot be determined

Q9. : Vinay and Rajeev play a game that consists of 8 rounds. For n=1,2,…,8, the winner of the

round n receives 2n-1

Rupees from the loser of the round. At the end of 8 rounds, Vinay has won

a total of Rs. 45 from Rajeev. How many of the 8 rounds did Vinay win?

1. 3

2. 4

3. 6

4. 5

5. 2

Q10. : Area of equilateral triangle DRS is 144√3 sq. cm. Find the area of quadrilateral DRPS.

1. 192√3 sq cm

2. 180√3 sq cm

3. 48√3 sq cm

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4. 96√3 sq cm

5. Cannot be determined

Q11. : Let f be a twice differentiable such that f ’’(x) = - f (x) and f ‘(x) = g(x). If h(x) = {f(x)}2

+ {g(x)}2 where h(5) = 31, the h(10) is equal to

1. 10

2. 31

3. 5

4. 9

5. 8

Q12. : A superfast train overtakes a goods train, both going to Delhi, at 1p.m. The superfast train

reaches Delhi at 3:30p.m, rests for 1 hour and then returns. On the way back it meets the goods

train at 5p.m. When will the goods train reach Delhi?

1. 05:30 p.m

2. 06 p.m

3. 07 p.m

4. None of These

5. Cannot be determined

Q13. : A right elliptical cylinder full of petrol has its widest elliptical side 2.4 m and the shortest

as 1.6 m. Its height is 7 m. Find the time required to empty half the tank through a hose of

diameter 4 cm, if the rate of flow of petrol is 120 litre/minute.

1. 60min

2. 90min

3. 140min

4. 70min

5. 80min

Q14. : The number of ways in which one white and one black king can be put on a chess board

so that they do not attack each other is

1. 1024

2. 2048

3. 3612

4. 4636

5. 3840

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Q15. : Aman and Vikas are playing a game in which they take turn to choose one number at a

time (with replacement) from the set {-4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4}. The first player to obtain three

numbers which sums to 0 wins. In how many ways can this be done?

1. 8

2. 16

3. 24

4. 48

5. 96

Q16. : Six dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability that three of them show the same

face and the remaining three different faces.

1. 13/324

2. 25/324

3. 25/162

4. 21/324

5. None of these

Q17. : Which of the following number is the largest?

1. Log2 3

2. Log3 5

3. √2

4. 3√3

5. All are equal

Q18. : BC = 16, AC = 14 and CE = 6. Find the length of CD?

1. 5.25

2. 21

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3. 10.5

4. 15.75

5. Cannot be determined

Q19. : The smallest natural number that leaves the remainders 2,4,6 and 1 when divided by 3,5,7

and 11 respectively is:

1. 1574

2. 2729

3. 3884

4. 4752

5. None of these

Q20. : Given that (1.00000035811231)2 = 1.000000xyz2247482444265735361, where x, y, z

denote missing digits, what is the value of x + y +z?

1. 14

2. 15

3. 17

4. 18

5. 19

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Data Interpretation

Directions for questions 21 to 25 : Refer to the following information on prices and production

of crude oil for the period 1973-80 and answer the questions given below. In the first graph, the

lines show the prices of crude oil per barrel for domestic production and imports while the bar

show the domestic price as a percentage of the import price. In the second graph, the bars show

average production of barrels per day in the US and Non-OPEC countries, while the line shows

consumption of oil in the US.

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Q.21 : In 1979, if the US imported crude oil in order to meet demands, what is the total cost of

imported crude oil?

1. $45580/day

2. $296800/day

3. $376300/day

4. $251550/day

5. $384550/day

Q22. : What is the difference between the total cost of domestic production of crude oil in the

US in 1975 and the total cost of crude oil imported by the US in order to meet demands in the

year?

1. $49500/day

2. $96750/day

3. $53625/day

4. $104810/day

5. $65625/day

Q23. : Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. The percentage change in the price of imported crude oil in 1974 is approximately 120%.

2. In 1977, the difference between the percentage change in the price of domestic oil and the

price of imported oil is -1.81.

3. The percentage change in the consumption of oil by US from 1973 to 1979 is -80%.

4. In 1977, the ratio of production of oil by Non-OPEC countries to that by the US is -4.25.

1. I only

2. II only

3. III only

4. II and III

5. II and IV

Q24. : What is the difference between the percentage change in the price of imported oil and the

price of domestic oil in 1976?

1. 2.55

2. -9.95

3. -19

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4. 1.25

5. 5.92

Q25. : What is the ratio of the average production by Non-OPEC countries to the consumption

of oil by the US in 1976?

1. 0.32

2. 3.11

3. 1.5

4. 0.64

5. 1.01

Directions for questions 26 to 30 : The following questions contain two statements ,marked I

and II. As your answer

Mark 1, if the question can be answered by using statement I alone, but not by using statement II

alone.

Mark 2, if the question can be answered by using statement II alone, but not by using statement I

alone.

Mark 3, if the question can be answered by using both statements together, but not by any one

alone.

Mark 4, if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

Mark 5, if the question not be answered even by using both statements together.

Q26. : Is the average of three consecutive integers a whole number?

1. At least one of the three integers is non-negative.

2. The average of the integers taken two at a time is always negative.

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q27. : If n = x – 1, is n a prime number?

1. x is the product of three consecutive integers.

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2. x is the product of four consecutive integers.

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q28. : A man completed a certain journey on foot. How many miles did the man walk?

1. If the man had walked a mile per hour faster, he would have completed the journey in an

hour less.

2. If the man had walked a mile per hour slower, he would have completed the journey in an

hour and a half more.

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q29. : Each year, Komal’s father gives her Re.1 if she stands 5th

in class, Rs.2 if she stands 4th

in

class, Rs.3 if she stands 3rd

n class, Rs.4 if she stands 2nd

in class and Rs.5 if she stands 1st in

class. At the end of three years, Komal’s father had given her Rs.12. What was Komal’s rank in

first year?

1. Komla did not rank first or fifth in any of the three years.

2. Komal’s ranking in the third year is higher than her ranking in the second year and in no

year was the money she received and her rank the same.

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q30. : Is A 20 years old?

1. B was twice old as A 15 years ago.

2. A is 4/5th as old as B now.

1. 1

2. 2

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3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Directions for questions 31 to 34 : In an exam there are three sections each consisting of two

questions. In first section, every correct answer carries 20 marks and every incorrect answer

carries a penalty of 10 marks. If both the questions are answered correctly, a bonus of 10 marks

is given. In the second section, each correct and incorrect answer carries the same marks as

section 1. However, an additional penalty of 10 marks is awarded if both the questions are

incorrect. In the last section, each correct answer carries 25 marks and each incorrect answer

carries a penalty of 15 marks.

Q31. : If the total score obtained by a student is 30, how many answers are correct?

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q32. : If three answers are correct, then maximum possible score is

1. 50

2. 15

3. 40

4. 30

5. 25

Q33. : Score obtained is 40. How many answers are incorrect?

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q34. : A total of 30 marks can be obtained in

1. 2 ways

2. 3 ways

3. 4 ways

4. 5 ways

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5. 6 ways

Directions for questions 35 to 40 :

On one side of a street, there are five houses, numbered from 1 to 5 from left to right, each with a

front door of different colour (Red, Blue, yellow, Green, Ivory) and inhabited by men of

different nationalities (English, Spanish, Ukrainian, Norwegian, Japanese). Each man has

different kinds of drink (Coffee, Tea, Orange Juice, Water, Milk) and has a different kind of pet

(Dog, Snails, Horse, Fox, Cat). Each man also smokes a different brand of pipe tobacco

(Medium-Cut, Spun-Cut, Flake, Rough-Cut, Mixture). The following information is available:

The Englishmen lives in the house with the red door.

The Spaniard owns the dog.

Coffee is drunk in the house with green door.

The Ukrainian drinks tea.

The house with the green door is immediately to the right of the house with the ivory-

coloured door.

The medium-cut smoker owns snails.

Spun-Cut is smoked in the house with the yellow door.

Milk is drunk in the middle house.

The Norwegian lives in the first house on the left.

The man who smokes mixture lives in the house next to the man with the fox.

Spun-Cut is smoked in the house next to that where the horse is kept.

The Flake smoker drinks orange juice.

The Japanese smokes Rough-Cut.

The Norwegian lives next to the house with the blue door.

Q.35 : Who drinks water?

1. The man who smokes Mixture

2. The man who smokes Spun-Cut

3. The man who owns Snails

4. The man who owns Cat

5. The man who stays in the house with the Ivory door

Q36. : Who owns the Cat?

1. English Man

2. Japanese

3. Norwegian

4. Spanish

5. Ukrainian

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Q37. : Who smokes the Spun-Cut tobacco?

1. The man who owns the horse

2. The man who drinks Orange Juice

3. The man who drinks Milk

4. The man who owns Fox

5. The man who stays in the house with Red door

Q38. : What does the man who owns the Dog drink?

1. Coffee

2. Orange Juice

3. Milk

4. Water

5. Tea

Q39. : The house of the man who drinks Orange Juice has a _____________ coloured door.

1. Red

2. Blue

3. Green

4. Yellow

5. Ivory

Q40. : The person who lives in the Red Colour house drinks _______________

1. Coffee

2. Orange Juice

3. Milk

4. Water

5. Tea

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Verbal Ability

DIRECTIONS for questions 41 to 43:

In each of the following sentences, part or all of the sentence is underlined. The answer choices

offer five ways of phrasing the underlined part. If you think the original sentence is better than

the alternatives, choose 1st option, which merely repeats the underlined part; Otherwise choose

one of the alternatives.

Q41. : Because global warming is increasing the sea level, alternative ways to utilize waterfront

land ought to be explored.

1. alternative ways to utilize

2. alternative ways of utilization of

3. alternatives to using

4. alternatives of use of

5. alternative utilizations for

Q42. : Job applicants for computer programming jobs are at times asked to demonstrate their

programming skills on the spot.

1. Job applicants for computer programming jobs are at times

2. Job applicants are sometimes for computer programming jobs

3. For some computer programming jobs, job applicants at times are

4. In some cases some applicants for computer programming jobs are

5. Applicants for computer programming jobs are sometimes

Q43. : The need to foster allegiances between all the states was recognized by Madison and

Hamilton, among others, during its burgeoning independence from England by the United States.

1. The need to foster allegiances between all the states was recognized by Madison and

Hamilton, among others, during its burgeoning independence from England by the United States.

2. The need to foster allegiances was recognized by Madison and Hamilton, among others,

between all the states during the United States' burgeoning independence from England.

3. During a burgeoning independence from England by the United States, among others,

Madison and Hamilton recognized the need to foster allegiances among all the states.

4. During the United States' burgeoning independence from England, Madison and Hamilton,

among others, recognized the need to foster allegiances among all the states.

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5.The need recognized by Madison and Hamilton, among others, was to foster allegiances among

all the states during the United States' burgeoning independence from England.

DIRECTIONS for questions 44 to 46:

The rich analysis of Fernand Braudel and his fellow Annales historians have made significant

contributions to historical theory and research. In a departure from traditional historical

approaches, the Annales historians assume (as do Marxists) that history cannot be limited to a

simple recounting of conscious human actions, but must be understood in the context of forces

that underlie human behavior. Braudel was the first Annales historian to gain widespread support

for the idea that history should synthesize data from social sciences, especially economics, to

provide a broader historical view of human societies over time (although Febvre and Bloch,

founders of the Annales school, originated this approach).

Braudel conceived of history as the dynamic interaction of three temporalities. The first of these,

the evenementielle, involved short-lived dramatic "events," such as battles, revolutions, and the

actions of great men, which had preoccupied traditional historians like Carlyle. Conjonctures was

Braudel's term for the larger, cyclical processes that might last up to half a century. The longue

duree, a historical wave of great length, was for Braudel the most fascinating of the three

temporalities. Here he focused on those aspects of everyday life that might remain relatively

unchanged for centuries. What people ate, what they wore, their means and routes of travel—for

Braudel these things create "structures" that define the limits of potential social change for

hundreds of years at a time.

Braudel's concept of the longue duree extended the perspective of historical space as well as

time. Until the Annales school, historians had taken the juridicial political unit—the the nation-

state, duchy, or whatever—as their starting point. Yet, when such enormous time spans are

considered, geographical features may have more significance for human populations than

national borders. In his doctoral thesis, a seminal work on the Mediterranean during the reign of

Philip II, Braudel treated the geohistory of the entire region as a "structure" that exerted myriad

influences on human lifeways since the first settlements on the shores of the Mediterranean Sea.

And so the reader is given such arcane information as the list of products that came to Spanish

shores from North Africa, the seasonal routes followed by Mediterranean sheep and their

shepherds, and the cities where the best ship timber could be bought.

Braudel has been faulted for the imprecision of his approach. With his Rabelaisian delight in

concrete detail, Braudel vastly extended the realm of relevant phenomena; but this very

achievement made it difficult to delimit the boundaries of observation, a task necessary to

beginning any social investigation. Further, Braudel and other Annales historians minimize the

differences among the social sciences. Nevertheless, the many similarly designed studies aimed

at both professional and popular audiences indicate that Braudel asked significant questions

which traditional historians had overlooked.

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Q.44 : The primary purpose of the passage is to

1. show how Braudel's work changed the conception of Mediterranean life held by previous

historians.

2. evaluate Braudel's criticisms of traditional and Marxist historiography

3. contrast the perspective of the longue duree with the actions of major historical figures

4. illustrate the relevance of Braudel's concepts to other social sciences

5. outline some of Braudel's influential conceptions and distinguish them from conventional

approaches

Q45. : The author refers to the work of Febvre and Bloch in order to

1. illustrate the limitations of the Annales tradition of historical investigation

2. suggest the relevance of economics to historical investigation

3. debate the need for combining various sociological approaches

4. show that previous Annales historians anticipated Braudel's focus on economics

5. demonstrate that historical studies provide broad structures necessary for economic analysis

Q46. : The author is critical of Braudel's perspective for which of the following reasons ?

1. It seeks structures that underlie all forms of social activity.

2. It assumes a greater similarity among the social sciences than actually exists.

3. It fails to consider the relationship between short-term events and long-term social activity.

4. It clearly defines boundaries for social analysis.

5. It attributes too much significance to conscious human actions.

DIRECTIONS for questions 47 to 49:

In the following sentences, there are one or more empty blanks. Choose the best possible words,

from the options, to make a logically correct sentence.

Q47. : The newest fibre-optic cables that carry telephone calls cross country are made of glass so

________ that a piece hundred miles thick is clearer than a standard window pane.

1. fragile

2. immaculate

3. tangible

4. transparent

5. iridescent

Q48. : The reasoning in this editorial is so _________ that we cannot see how anyone can be

deceived by it.

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1. coherent

2. astute

3. cogent

4. specious

5. dispassionate

Q49. : To alleviate the problem of contaminated chicken, the study panel recommends that the

federal government shift its inspection emphasis from cursory bird by bird checks to a more

_________ random sampling for bacteria and chemical contamination.

1. rigorous

2. perfunctory

3. symbolic

4. discreet

5. dubious

DIRECTIONS for questions 50 to 53:

Marketing executives in television work with a relatively stable advertising medium. In many

ways, the television ads aired today are similar to those aired two decades ago. Most television

ads still feature actors, still run 30 or 60 seconds, and still show a product. However, the

differing dynamics of the Internet pose unique challenges to advertisers, forcing them to adapt

their practices and techniques on a regular basis.

In the early days of Internet marketing, online advertisers employed banner and pop-up ads to

attract customers. These techniques reached large audiences, generated many sales leads, and

came at a low cost. However, a small number of Internet users began to consider these

advertising techniques intrusive and annoying. Yet because marketing strategies relying heavily

on banners and pop-ups produced results, companies invested growing amounts of money into

purchasing these ad types in hopes of capturing market share in the burgeoning online economy.

As consumers became more sophisticated, frustration with these online advertising techniques

grew. Independent programmers began to develop tools that blocked banner and pop-up ads. The

popularity of these tools exploded when the search engine Google, at the time an increasingly

popular website fighting to solidify its place on the Internet with giants Microsoft and Yahoo,

offered free software enabling users to block pop-up ads. The backlash against banner ads grew

as new web browsers provided users the ability to block image-based ads such as banner ads.

Although banner and pop-up ads still exist, they are far less prominent than during the early days

of the Internet.

A major development in online marketing came with the introduction of pay-per-click ads.

Unlike banner or pop-up ads, which originally required companies to pay every time a website

visitor saw an ad, pay-per-click ads allowed companies to pay only when an interested potential

customer clicked on an ad. More importantly, however, these ads circumvented the pop-up and

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banner blockers. As a result of these advantages and the incredible growth in the use of search

engines, which provide excellent venues for pay-per-click advertising, companies began turning

to pay-per-click marketing in droves. However, as with the banner and pop-up ads that preceded

them, pay-per-click ads came with their drawbacks. When companies began pouring billions of

dollars into this emerging medium, online advertising specialists started to notice the presence of

what would later be called click fraud: representatives of a company with no interest in the

product advertised by a competitor click on the competitor's ads simply to increase the marketing

cost of the competitor. Click fraud grew so rapidly that marketers sought to diversify their online

positions away from pay-per-click marketing through new mediums.

Although pay-per-click advertising remains a common and effective advertising tool, marketers

adapted yet again to the changing dynamics of the Internet by adopting new techniques such as

pay-per-performance advertising, search engine optimization, and affiliate marketing. As the

pace of the Internet's evolution increases, it seems all the more likely that advertising

successfully on the Internet will require a strategy that shuns constancy and embraces change.

Q.50 : Which of the following most accurately states the main idea of the passage?

1. Although pay-per-click advertising remains a wide-spread and effective online advertising

medium, its popularity is likely to diminish as the Internet evolves.

2. Internet advertising is not well received by Internet users, causing independent programmers

to subvert advertisers.

3. Unlike the television, the Internet has experienced dramatic changes in short periods of time.

4. Unlike the television, the Internet has evolved rapidly, forcing online marketers to develop

new advertising strategies and mediums.

5. The pace of the Internet's evolution is increasing and will only increase in the future.

Q51. : The author implies what about the future of pay-per-performance advertising?

1. Although it improves on pay-per-click advertising, it is still vulnerable to click fraud

2. It will one day become extinct as Internet users discover drawbacks with it

3. Internet users will develop free software to block its effectiveness

4. It will eventually become less popular with advertisers as the Internet evolves and drawbacks

emerge

5. It will not face drawbacks due to its differing approach to online marketing

Q52. : According to the passage, which of the following best describes the current status of pop-

up ads?

1. Widely used

2. Less popular now than at earlier times

3. A frequent target of click fraud

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4. Non-existent due to pop-up blockers

5. Increasingly popular due to search engines

Q53. : According to the passage, the largest point at which the television and Internet differ as an

advertising medium is:

1. The type of individual each medium reaches

2. Whether the medium is interactive

3. The pace at which the medium evolves

4. The cost of advertising with each medium

5. Whether each medium contains drawbacks

DIRECTIONS for questions 54 and 55:

A number of sentences are given below which, when properly sequenced, form a COHERENT

PARAGRAPH. Choose the most LOGICAL ORDER of sentences from the choices given to

construct a COHERENT PARAGRAPH.

Q54. : A. That fateful October night, Bharti was late in serving the meal when her mother got

back from work

B. It later turned out that for years, Bharti had suffered severe thrashings at the hands of her

mother

C. It almost did her in but for that zest called life.

D. Before leaving the house every morning, the woman would leave behind a set of orders for

the child to execute

E. The girl had been playing

1. DECAB

2. DCAEB

3. BDAEC

4. BCDAE

5. ECDAB

Q55. : A. The economy's performance in expenditure terms was even poorer, with real GDP

contracting by 0.6% after a gain of 0.5% in the October-December quarter.

B. On an output basis - the government's preferred measure because it is less volatile than

expenditure-based GDP - the economy contracted by 0.3% in real terms from the previous

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quarter.

C. Data from Statistics New Zealand, a government agency, published on June 27th show an

almost uniformly abysmal economic performance in January-March 2008.

D. This was the first contraction since late 2005, made worse by the fact that the previous

quarter's growth rate was revised down from 1% to 0.8%

1. CDBA

2. ABCD

3. CBDA

4. ACBD

5. BCDA

DIRECTIONS for questions 56 and 57:

In each question, there are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the

sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage. Then,

choose the most appropriate option.

Q56. : A. Recently, I had a very amusing experience with a fresh MBA who had applied for a

job with us.

B. She had done a project on corporate governance.

C. To test her knowledge, I started off with basic question: What is corporate governance?

D. She did not take much time to get off the starting blocks: "It is about managing a company

well so that shareholders' wealth is maximised."

1. A & C

2. C

3. B & D

4. D

5. B & C

Q57. : A. Then I asked her to define the corporate finance.

B. After a bit of meandering, she repeats the first answer.

C. I then asked her to explain the difference between the corporate finance and the corporate

governance.

D. She gave herself up.

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1. A

2. B

3. C & D

4. B, C and D

5. None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 58 to 60:

Although European decisions during the 16th and 17th centuries to explore, trade with, and

colonize large portions of the world brought tremendous economic wealth and vast geographic

influence, the enormous success of European maritime ventures during the age of exploration

also engendered a litany of unintended consequences for most of the nations with which Europe

interacted. Due to their incredible military force, religious zeal, and uncompromising goal of

profit, Europeans often imposed their traditions, values, and customs on the people with whom

they traded. They frequently acted without regard to the long-term welfare of others as their

principal concern was short-term economic gain. Since many nations that traded with Europe

placed high value on their historical customs, some natives became deeply disconcerted by the

changes that occurred as a result of European power. These factors, coupled with perennial

domestic political instability, caused numerous countries to grow increasingly resistant to

European influence.

One potent example of this ideological shift can be seen in the actions of the Tokugawa

government of Japan. In its Seclusion Edict of 1636, the government attempted to extricate

cultural interactions with Europe from the intimate fabric of Japanese society. The Edict

attempted to accomplish this by focusing on three areas. First, it sought to curb cultural exchange

by eliminating people bringing European ideas into Japan. The Edict stated, "Japanese ships shall

by no means be sent abroad….All Japanese residing abroad shall be put to death when they

return home." Second, the Edict focused on limiting trade. Articles 11 through 17 of the Edict

imposed stringent regulations on trade and commerce. Third, the government banned

Christianity, which it saw as an import from Europe that challenged the long-established and

well-enshrined religious traditions of Japan. The government went to considerable lengths to

protect its culture. Article eight of the Edict stated, "Even ships shall not be left untouched in the

matter of exterminating Christians."

With the example of Japan and the examples of other countries that chose a different response to

European influence, it is perhaps not too far of a stretch to conclude that Japan made the right

decision in pursuing a path of relative isolationism. As history unfolded during the next 400

years, in general, countries that embraced European hegemony, whether by choice or by force,

tended to suffer from pernicious wealth inequality, perennial political instability, and protracted

underdevelopment.

Q.58 : According to the passage, which of the following constituted the biggest reason for the

Seclusion Edict of 1636?

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1. Japanese economic potential would be hampered in the long-term

2. European trade amounted to a disproportionate transfer of wealth

3. With growing European influence, the potential for European military action against the

Japanese government became too large

4. Traditional Japanese culture and way of life were threatened by European influence

5. Japanese rulers feared the arrival of additional traders and cultural imperialists

Q59. : It can best be inferred from the passage that in 1636, the Japanese government:

1. Saw its citizens living abroad as potential threats

2. Disagreed with the European philosophy that trade brought wealth

3. Foresaw the economic dangers of European trade and imperialism

4. Considered all foreign religions a danger

5. Believed that ideas coming into Japan via foreign interactions provided no positive impact to

Japanese society

Q60. : Based upon the passage, the author would likely agree most strongly with which of the

following statements:

1. European decisions made during the 16th and 17th centuries in dealing with Japan represent

an aberration from the typical pattern of European decisions

2. Japanese rulers who responded with ferocity to European influence bear part of the

responsibility for the caustic European-Japanese relationship that ensued

3. With the hindsight of history, Japan likely made the appropriate decision in extricating itself

from European influence

4. European religious and cultural values conflicted with European economic behavior toward

Japan

5. The width and breadth of Japan's cultural fabric suffered from its seclusionist policies

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Answer Key

Q1 - 2 Q2 - 5 Q3 - 5 Q4 - 2 Q5 - 1 Q6 - 2

Q7 - 4 Q8 - 3 Q9 - 2 Q10 - 1 Q11 - 2 Q12 - 2

Q13 - 4 Q14 - 3 Q15 - 4 Q16 - 3 Q17 - 1 Q18 - 1

Q19 - 5 Q20 - 1 Q21 - 4 Q22 - 4 Q23 - 4 Q24 - 4

Q25 - 4 Q26 - 2 Q27 - 5 Q28 - 3 Q29 - 4 Q30 - 3

Q31 - 3 Q32 - 4 Q33 - 3 Q34 - 4 Q35 - 2 Q36 - 2

Q37 - 2 Q38 - 2 Q39 - 2 Q40 - 2 Q41 - 1 Q42 - 5

Q43 - 4 Q44 - 5 Q45 - 5 Q46 - 5 Q47 - 4 Q48 - 5

Q49 - 4 Q50 - 4 Q51 - 4 Q52 - 4 Q53 - 4 Q54 - 3

Q55 - 1 Q56 - 3 Q57 - 5 Q58 - 4 Q59 - 4 Q60 - 4

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