mock cat test 2007

8/9/2019 Mock Cat Test 2007

1/15

Questions: 75, Time: 2.5 hours

Directions: This test is of two and a half hoursduration and is to be done in one sitting. No breaks

are to be taken. A student must attempt questions inall sections. Answers must be marked in the appropri-

ate oval in the answer sheet by a HB pencil.

There are 75 questions. Each question carries 4

marks. For each wrong answer, minus one mark willbe awarded. There is nomark for question that is not

attempted.

Attempting differentsub-sections is necessary. The

student must show compe-tence in each sub-section.

Cut off in each section:

Minimum 33% of the marksallocated for that section. A

student must score a mini-

mum of 33 (net score afternegative marking) in eachsection.

The test is designed to

help you with the new patternof the CAT and is modelled

on last years pattern. Thistest gives a practice of the

changed format but students

should be prepared for any changes in the format. Itis based by Mastermind Education, Tel: 98880 22329.

E-mail: [email protected]

SectionIVERBAL ABILITY

No. of questions: 25

Each question carries 4 marks.

Negative marks for wrong answers:1

Directions Q. 1-5: Read the passage given

below and answer the questions based on it.

Passage 1

Nature is full of surprises. When atoms werefirst proved to exist (and that was a mere century

ago), they were thought to be made only of electrons

and protons. That explained a lot, but it did not quite

square with other observations. Then, in 1932, James

Chadwick discovered the neutron. Suddenly every-

thing made senseso much sense that it took only

another 13 years to build an atomic bomb.

It is no exaggeration to say that biology is now

undergoing its neutron moment. For more than

half a century the fundamental story of living things

has been a tale of the interplay between genes, in theform of DNA, and proteins,

which the genes encode and

which do the donkey work

of keeping living organisms

living. The past couple of

years, however, have seen

the rise and rise of a third

type of molecule, called

RNA.

The analogy is not per-

fect. Unlike the neutron,

RNA has been known aboutfor a long time. Until the

past couple of years, howev-

er, its role had seemed

restricted to fetching and

carrying for DNA and pro-

teins. Now RNA looks every

bit as important as those

two masters. It may, indeed,

be the main regulator of what goes on in a cellthe

cells operating system, to draw a computing analo-

gyas well as the author of many other activities. As

important, molecular biologists have gone fromthinking that they know roughly what is going on in

their subject to suddenly realising that they have

barely a clue.

That might sound a step backwards; in fact, it is

how science works. The analogy with physics is

deeper than just that between RNA and the neutron.

There is in biology at the moment a sense of barely

contained expectations reminiscent of the physical

sciences at the beginning of the 20th century. It is a

feeling of advancing into the unknown, and that

where this advance will lead is both exciting and

mysterious.As Samuel Goldwyn so wisely advised, never

make predictionsespecially about the future. But

Mock CAT Test 2007

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here is one: the analogy between 20th-century

physics and 21st-century biology will continue, for

both good and ill.

Physics gave two things to the 20th century.

The most obvious gift was power over nature. That

power was not always benign, as the atomic bomb

showed. But if the 20th century was distinguished byanything from its predecessors, that distinctive fea-

ture was physical technology, from motor cars and

aeroplanes to computers and the internet.

It is too early to be sure if the distinguishing

feature of the 21st century will be biological techno-

logy, but there is a good chance that it will be. The

driving force of technological changenecessityis

also there. Many of the big problems facing humani-

ty are biological, or are susceptible to biological

intervention. The question of how to deal with an

ageing population is one example. Climate change,

too, is intimately bound up with biology since it is

the result of carbon dioxide going into the air faster

than plants can remove it. And the risk of a new,

lethal infection suddenly becoming pandemic as a

result of modern transport links is as biological as it

gets. Even the fact that such an infection might itself

be the result of synthetic biology only emphasises

the biological nature of future risks.

Physics gave the 20th century a more subtle

boon than mere power. It also brought an under-

standing of the vastness of the universe and human-

itys insignificant place in it. It allowed people, in

William Blakes phrase, to hold infinity in the palm of

a hand, and eternity in an hour.

Biology, though, does more than describe

humanitys place in the universe. It describes

humanity itself. And here, surprisingly, the rise of

RNA may be an important part of that description.

Ever since the human-genome project was complet-

ed, it has puzzled biologists that animals, be theyworms, flies or people, all seem to have about the

same number of genes for proteinsaround 20,000.

Yet flies are more complex than worms, and people

are more complex than either. Traditional genes are

thus not as important as proponents of human

nature had suspected nor as proponents of nurture

had feared. Instead, the solution to the puzzle seems

to lie in the RNA operating system of the cells. This

gets bigger with each advance in complexity. And it

is noticeably different in a human from that in the

brain of a chimpanzee.

If RNA is controlling the complexity of the

whole organism, that suggests the operating system

of each cell is not only running the cell in question,

but is linking up with those of the other cells when a

creature is developing. To push the analogy, organs

such as the brain are the result of a biological inter-

net. If that is right, the search for the essence of

humanity has been looking in the wrong genetic

direction.

Of course, such results are speculative and

primitive. But that is the point. Lord Rutherford, who

proved that atoms exist, knew nothing of neutrons.

Chadwick knew nothing of quarks, let alone super-



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symmetry. Modern biologists are equally ignorant.

But eventually, the truth will out.

1. Drawing a similarity with physics, the author

says that the analogy is not perfect. Which of the fol-

lowing would NOT be the reason that the analogy is

not perfect?

I. RNA has been known for a long time, unlikethe neutron.

II. The understanding of the RNA is as

important as the discovery of the neutron.

III. Biology and physics are entirely different

subjects.

IV. There is in biology at the moment a sense

of barely contained expectations.

(1) Only I (2) I and II (3) Only II

(4) II and III (5) None of these

2. Which of the following is/are true in the con-

text of the passage?

I. Never make predictionsespecially about

the future.

II. All advancements in science benefit

mankind in some way or the other.

III. Scientists are now closer to understanding

what goes inside a cell.

IV. The challenges mankind faces are all

related to biology.

(1) I and II (2) II and III (3) III and IV

(4) I and IV (5) None of these

3. Listed below are some of the problems that

can be addressed by biotechnology, according to the

passage. Which of the following would NOT be a

problem that biotechnology can help solve?

(1) A solution to climate change.

(2) Creating an artificial living organism.

(3) Creating vaccines to fight lethal infections.

(4) A solution to growing more fuel.

(5) A solution to the ageing population.

4. Which of the following is the best reason that

the author says that living organisms are the result

of a biological internet?

(1) Messages can be passed from one organ to

another in the human body.

(2) The brain is like the operating system that

controls all the organs.

(3) Every development in the body is linked up

to everything else.

(4) The RNA is the controlling element of the

whole organism.

(5) The search for the essence of humanity has

been looking in the wrong genetic direction.

5. Which of the following best sums up the

essence of the passage:

(1) Humanity has been looking in the wrong

direction in its understanding of life.

(2) Modern biologists are ignorant, but now they

are closer to the truth.

(3) The RNA is the factor that controls the build-

ing of life.

(4) Biology is now undergoing its neutron

moment and is poised for new discoveries.

(5) Technological change in biotechnology is

arising out of the driving force of technology.

Directions Q. 6-10: Given below are para-

graphs with their last line missing. Select from the

given choices the most appropriate line that best

completes the given paragraph.

6. Since the IPCC report, the science has

tended to confirm the idea that something serious is

happening. In the 1990s, satellite data seemed to

contradict the terrestrial data that showed tempera-

tures rising. The disparity puzzled scientists and

fuelled scepticism. The satellite data, it turned out,

were wrong: having been put right, they now agreewith terrestrial data that things are hotting up.

__________________.

(1) Glaciers are melting surprisingly swiftly.

(2) Arctic sea ice, for instance, is melting unex-

pectedly fast, at 9% a decade.

(3) Observations about what is happening to the

climate have tended to confirm what the

models predicted would happen.

(4) A range of phenomena, such as hurricane

activity, that were previously thought to be

unconnected to climate change are now

increasingly linked to it.

(5) The world is warming up because of human

activity, the IPCC report has argued.

7. It is true that the allocation for secondary

education has indeed increased by just under

Rs 2,000 crore. But it is immediately evident that this

is not even a small proportion of the requirement for

meeting the growing demand given the population

bulge and the need to ensure universal education up

to Class VIII and increasing enrolment up to Class X.

______________________.

(1) This is despite the fact that the goal of sarva

shikshais nowhere near being reached.(2) So clearly the Central government continues

to wash its hands of the financial commit-

ment that will be necessary to ensure univer-

sal school education.

(3) Since elementary education covers only up to

Class V, the resources for Classes VI to VIII

have to be met from the secondary education

budget.

(4) While enrolment at the primary stages has

improved the dropout rates remain very

high, especially of girls.

(5) Even by the end of elementary school (Class

V) at least 25 per cent of children in the rele-

vant age group will not complete elementary

education.

8. Former Director-General of Council of Scien-

tific and Industrial Research R.A. Mashelkar has

brought disgrace upon India's scientific establish-

ment by producing a tawdry, poorly argued, unbal-

anced and pro-big business report on Indias patents

law, at the core of which lies rank plagiarism.

Mashelkar has withdrawn the discredited report of

the Technical Expert Group on Patent Law Issues,

which he headed. ____________________.

(1) He says he did this to uphold scientific

ethics.

(2) He says: I stand by the report and its find-

ings, 100 per cent... .

(3) He claims that there was no plagiarism and

that it would be wrong to attach motives to

the fact that a critical part of his committees

report was bodily lifted from a previously

published paper.

(4) He minimises and trivialises this thoroughly

deplorable and indefensible practice as con-

sisting of mere technical inaccuracies or a




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copying error by the sub-committee that

wrote the draft.

(5) What is crucial is that the plagiarised portion

forms the heart of the Mashelkar Commit-

tees recommendation.

9. As far as I can recall, the Indian Penal Code,

1860, and the Information Technology Act, 2000, arethe only laws dealing with the subject of obscenity in

India. Section 292 of the IPC prohibits the sale of

obscene books, pamphlet, and so on, and prescribes

a sentence of two years and a fine of Rs 2,000 to a

first offender. A repeat offender gets five years and

a fine of Rs 5,000. Section 293 deals with sale of such

material to a person under 20.

__________________________.

(1) This law has been invoked by the police in

several instances of the Net being used to sell

pornography.

(2) How far can acts of child pornography be

brought under these sections will merit a

debate.

(3) Section 67 of the IT Act deals directly with

pornography on the Net.

(4) It renders publication or transmission of

material that is lascivious or which appeals

to the prurient interest of another person an

offence punishable with a sentence of five

years and a fine of Rs 100,000.

(5) Performing obscene acts and reciting

obscene songs in public are punishable

under Section 294.

10. With all the air-conditioning, the cushioned

seats, the more comfortable coaches and all the rest,

one needs really to look at the entire process of

undertaking a train journey. Is it, one needs to con-

sider, a passenger-friendly experience? This is not

merely a matter of comfortable seats and all the

other facilities being provided. The purchase of a

ticket is where the process of a journeys passenger-

friendliness, or lack of it, begins. __________________.

(1) True, it comes with an assurance that it will

almost certainly be confirmed on the day of

the journey.

(2) Most passengers will agree that it is usual to

get a wait-listed ticket even a fortnight before

the journey.

(3) With all the counters, all the electronics, the

computers and the now much-touted on-line

booking arrangements, the process is as

mystifying as it is harrowing.

(4) Why is it so difficult to provide a ticket that

is confirmed, as in the case of an air journey?

(5) And the other great Indian railway mystery:

No ticket has the passengers name on it

just the letter.

Directions Q. 11-15: From the alternatives,

choose the one which correctly classifies the four

sentences as

F: Fact: if it relates to a known matter of direct

observation, or an existing reality or something

known to be true.

J: Judgment: if it is an opinion or an estimate or

anticipation of common sense or intention.

I: Inference: if it is a logical conclusion or

deduction of something, based on the knowledge of

facts.

11. A. The capacity to absorb investment is not

a stand-alone intrinsic factor of the

scientific community; it is actually a

function of several factors that depend

on the systems and mechanisms that are

in (or not in) place for the administration

of S&T in the country.B. Investing 2 per cent of the GDP in S&T is

indeed a desirable objective if we wish to

become a developed nation.

C. The President urged that there be a

focused action plan to realise this pro-

gressively and suggested the constitu-

tion of a joint team comprising members

from all the scientific departments of the

government to work out the growth plan

in an integrated way.

D. Significantly, he recommended allocating

0.5 per cent of the GDP for basic

research as against the present level of

around 0.2 per cent.

(1) FFFI (2) FIIJ (3) FJFF

(4) FIFF (5) IJFF12. A. The passage of the Scheduled Tribes and

Other Traditional Forest Dwellers(Recognition of Forest Rights) Bill, 2006,is an important step in the struggle toreverse the historical marginalisation ofthe tribal people of India.

B. The Scheduled Tribes, constituting about8.4 per cent of the population, have been

denied access to benefits from land andforests by both the medieval and themodern State.

C. Thus, the displacement of tribal peopleinto forests was not a colonial phenome-non alone, but British imperialism accen-tuated it by setting up State monopolyover forests.

D. As a consequence, a centralised and

often autocratic forest management

came into force in India.

(1) JIFI (2) JIIF (3) FIIJ

(4) FIII (5) JIII13. A. In their ongoing study of wild balsams,

researchers of the Edhkwehlynawd

Botanical Refuge of Udhagamandalam

noticed that some of the native species

had become rare.

B. It took them three years to locate Impa-

tiens denisonii; they made three annual

field trips during August-September,

when the balsams are in bloom, and

reported the sighting of the species on

the third such visit.

C. It is likely that this was the first scienti-fic collection of the species since British

naturalist Richard Henry Beddome first

documented it in 1862.

D. The study was the most authoritative

text on the subject and was prescribed

in universities.

(1) IFIJ (2) IJIF (3) IIJF

(4) JIIJ (5) IFJI

14. A. Watching Tony Blairs awkward

demeanour alongside George Bush at

the White House, it was striking just




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how American a country Britain has

become.

B. It has long been a cliche that the UK is

the 51st State of the union, but it has

never seemed a more appropriate

description.

C. Indeed, there is a case for saying thatafter effectively living in sin for so long,

its time to make the special relation-

ship legitimate.

D. Britain is never going to join the USA,

but if it did the Prime Minister would

probably have a lot more clout on the

other side of the Atlantic than he does

now.

(1) FIJJ (2) JIIJ (3) IJJJ

(4) JIFJ (5) IJJF

15. A. The problem is that in exercising one

precious right, we often extinguish that

right in othersthose who constitute

what is called the unorganised sector of

society.

B. When a political party or a trade union,

or a group of trade unions, decides to

call a bandh and shut down a State for a

day, lakhs of people who are in the

unorganised sector, lose their earnings

for that day.

C. Most of them depend on their daily earn-

ings to manage their households and

have to do without the means to feed

their families.

D. More often than not, bandhs have no

effect on public awareness of the rea-

sons they were organised for, except in a

vague way.

(1) IIIJ (2) JIII (3) IIIF

(4) JIIF (5) IIFF

Directions Q. 16-25: Read the passages given

below and answer the questions based on them.

Passage 2

Neanderthal man was a strong, large-brained,

skilful big-game hunter who had survived for more

than 200,000 years in the harsh European climates

of the last Ice Age. But within a few thousand years

of the arrival of modern humans in the continent, he

was extinct. Why that happened is a matter of abid-

ing interest to anthropologically inclined descen-

dants of those interloping moderns. The extinction

of Neanderthal man has been attributed variously to

his having lower intelligence than modern humans,

to worse language skills, to cruder tools, or even to

the lack of a propensity for long-distance trade. The

latest proposal, though, is that it is not so much

Neanderthal man that was to blame, as modern

woman.

In existing pre-agricultural societies there is,

famously, a division of food-acquiring labour

between men, who hunt, and women, who gather.

And in a paper published in Current Anthropology,

Steven Kuhn and Mary Stiner of the University of Ari-

zona propose that this division of labour happened

early in the species history, and that it is what

enabled modern humans to expand their population

at the expense of Neanderthals.

As Adam Smith noted, division of labour leads

to greater productivity because it allows people to

specialise and become very good at what they do. In

the vast majority of cases among historically known

and present-day foragers, men specialise in hunting

big game, while women hunt smaller animals and

collect plant food. In colder climes, where long win-ters make plant-gathering difficult or impossible for

much of the year, women often specialise in making

clothing and shelters.

The archaeological record, however, shows few

signs of any specialisation among the Neanderthals

from their appearance about 250,000 years ago to

their disappearance 30,000 years ago. Instead, they

did one thing almost to the exclusion of all else: they

hunted big game. There are plenty of collections of

bones from animals such as reindeer, horses, bison

and mammoths that are associated with Nean-

derthals, but few remains of rabbits or tortoises.

There is also little sign of preserved seeds and nuts,

or of the specialised grinding stones that would have

been needed to process them. And there are no bone

awls or needles that would suggest that Nean-

derthals were skilled leather workers, despite the

abundance of animal skins that their hunting would

have provided.

Signs of division of labour come only with the

arrival of modern humans into Europe around

40,000 years ago. That is when evidence appears of

small animals being eaten routinely and plant foods

being gathered. It is also when tools designed for

sophisticated leather working emerge.

Dr Kuhn and Dr Stiner suggest that division of

labour actually originated in a warmer part of the

worldAfrica seems most likelywhere plant foods

could be gathered profitably all year round. But as

humans brought the idea of division of labour north,

the female side of the bargain gave the species a sig-

nificant advantage by providing fallback foods when

big game was scarce and allowing more people to

inhabit a given piece of land in times of plenty. Mod-

ern human populations grew, Neanderthal popula-

tions shrank, and the rest is prehistory.

Of course, the archaeological record cannot

prove which sex was doing what, or even if speciali-

sation was determined by sex at all. But almost all

known groups of foragers divide mens and womens

work the same way, which makes it likely that the

same rule applied in the past, and for the same

reasonsmen tend to be stronger and faster, and

women are more likely to be occupied with childcare.

That it was division of labour which gave mod-

ern humanity its edge over the Neanderthals is not a

completely new idea. A study published by Jason

Shogren of the University of Wyoming used a mathe-

matical model to suggest it would work, particularly

if combined with trade. But Dr Shogrens thesis was

that wimpy, useless hunters were the ones who

stayed at home and crafted objects, while the real

men went out and killed things. Dr Kuhn and Dr

Stiner, by contrast, assign to women the main role in

establishing the antecedents of modern economics,

and thus launching the process of growth that

continues to this day.

16. According to the study, women helped

modern man by doing which of the following?

A. Providing food




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B. Providing clothing and shelters

C. Hunting large animals

D. Staying at home and crafting objects

(1) Only A (2) A and B

(3) B and C (4) A, B and D

(5) All of the above

17.

The conclusion of the studies to assign towomen the main role in establishing the antecedents

of modern economics, can be:

(1) accepted as true as the evidence is convinc-

ing

(2) extrapolated with activities of modern

women to see that it is right

(3) accepted as most probably true as the con-

clusion is logical

(4) accepted with a pinch of salt, at best

(5) accepted as somewhat near the truth

18. According to the passage, Neanderthals did

all of the following except:

A. Long distance trade

B. Hunting

C. Leather processing

D. Farming

(1) A and C (2) A, B and C (3) B, C and D

(4) C and D (5) A, C and D

19. Which of the following would strengthen

the conclusion reached by the researchers?

(1) The finding of large number of cooking

implements of the Neanderthal man.

(2) The evidence of bones of small animals dat-

ing back to 2,50,000 years.

(3) Cave paintings which show that language

was developed by ancient man.

(4) Farming and sewing implements that were

only 30,000 years old.

(5) None of the above

20. It can be inferred from the passage that:

(1) Modern man drove Neanderthal man to

extinction by killing him


extinction by enslaving him


extinction by better specialization


extinction by cornering resources needed

for survival

(5) Modern man was often in conflict with the

Neanderthal man

Passage 3

In the early 1990s, globalisation was supposed

to be the wave of the future. The writings of global-

ist thinkers such as Kenichi Ohmae and Robert Reich

celebrated the emergence of the so-called borderless

world. The process by which relatively autonomous

national economies become functionally integrated

into one global economy was touted as irre-

versible. And the people who opposed globalisation

were disdainfully dismissed as modern-day incarna-

tions of the Luddites.

Today, what passes for an international econo-

my remains a collection of national economies.

These economies are interdependent no doubt, but

domestic factors still largely determine their dynam-

ics. Globalisation, in fact, has reached its high-water

mark and is receding. During globalisations heyday,

we were told that State policies no longer mattered

and that corporations would soon dwarf States. In

fact, States still do matter. The European Union, the

United States government, and the Chinese State are

stronger economic actors today than they were a

decade ago. In China, for instance, transnational cor-

porations (TNCs) march to the tune of the State

rather than the other way around.Moreover, State policies that interfere with the

market in order to build up industrial structures or

protect employment still make a difference. Indeed,

over the last 10 years, interventionist government

policies have spelled the difference between deve-

lopment and underdevelopment, prosperity and

poverty. Malaysias imposition of capital controls

during the Asian financial crisis in 1997-98 prevent-

ed it from unravelling like Thailand or Indonesia.

Strict capital controls also insulated China from the

economic collapse engulfing its neighbours.

Fifteen years ago, we were told to expect the

emergence of a transnational capitalist elite that

would manage the world economy. Indeed, globalisa-

tion became the grand strategy of the USA, which

envisioned the U.S. elite being the primus inter pares

first among equalsof a global coalition leading

the way to the new, benign world order. Today, this

project lies in a shambles. The nationalist faction has

overwhelmed the transnational faction of the eco-

nomic elite. Nationalism-inflected States are now

competing sharply with one another, seeking to

beggar one anothers economies.

The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was born,

joining the World Bank and the International Mone-

tary Fund (IMF) as the pillars of the system of inter-

national economic governance in the era of globali-

sation. With a triumphalist air, officials of the three

organisations meeting in Singapore during the first

ministerial gathering of the WTO in December 1996

saw the remaining task of global governance as the

achievement of coherence, that is, the coordination

of the neoliberal policies of the three institutions in

order to ensure the smooth, technocratic integration

of the global economy.

But now Sebastian Mallaby, the influential pro-

globalisation commentator ofThe Washington Post,

complains that trade liberalisation has stalled, aid

is less coherent than it should be, and the next finan-

cial conflagration will be managed by an injured fire-

man. In fact, the situation is worse than he

describes. The IMF is practically defunct. Knowing

how the Fund precipitated and worsened the Asian

financial crisis, more and more of the advanced

developing countries are refusing to borrow from it

or are paying ahead of schedule, with some declaring

their intention never to borrow again. These include

Thailand, Indonesia, Brazil and Argentina. Since the

Funds budget greatly depends on debt repayments

from these big borrowers, this boycott is translating

into what one expert describes as a huge squeeze

on the budget of the organisation.

The World Bank may seem to be in better health

than the Fund. But having been central to the deba-

cle of structural adjustment policies that left most

developing and transitional economies that imple-

mented them in greater poverty, with greater

inequality, and in a state of stagnation, the Bank is

also suffering a crisis of legitimacy. This can only be

worsened by the recent finding of an official high-




7/15

level experts panel headed by former IMF chief

economist Kenneth Rogoff that the Bank has been

systematically manipulating its data to advance its

pro-globalisation position and conceal globalisa-

tions adverse effects.

Fred Bergsten, the pro-free trade American

economist, once compared trade liberalisation andthe WTO to a bicycle: they collapse when they are not

moving forward. The collapse of an organisation that

one of its Director-Generals once described as the

jewel in the crown of multilateralism may be

nearer than it seems.

21. Which of the following, according to the

author, is/are the reasons why globalisation in

retreat?

I. The rise of the nationalist State

II. The IMF is practically defunct

III. The lack of coordination of the three

institutions

IV. People getting sick of the effects of

globalisation

(1) I, II and III (2) II, III and IV

(3) I and II only (4) Only I

(5) All of the above

22. Strict capital controls also insulated China

from the economic collapse engulfing its neigh-

bours. What would be the effects of the strict capi-

tal controls through which a collapse was avoided?

(1) Capital controls would control the power of

globalisation and thus prevent collapse

(2) Capital flows would impose restrictions on

global capital flows and thus insulate the

economy.

(3) Capital flows would have the effect of

bringing in responsibility of individual gov-

ernments, thus preventing an economic

meltdown.

(4) Capital controls are what is advocated by

the IMF and World Bank and stand in the

way of globalisation.

(5) Capital flows have the effect of controlling

transnational corporations (TNCs) that

usually bring about economic collapse.

23. What would be the best meaning of Lud-

dites after reading the passage?

(1) A person who opposes globalisation.

(2) A nationalist person.

(3) A person who opposes things for the sake of

opposing.

(4) A person who opposes technology.

(5) A traditional minded person.24. According to the passage,

I. The international finance institutions are

facing a financial crunch.II. The international finance institutions are

facing questions of legitimacy.III. The days of the international finance

institutions are numbered.

(1) I (2) II (3) III(4) I and II (5) I, II and III

25. Which of the following would be a conse-

quence of the line, Nationalism-inflected States arenow competing sharply with one another, seeking to

beggar one anothers economies?

(1) India and Pakistan are always at loggerheadsand their peace talks never succeed.

(2) Israel attacking Lebanon and trying to

destroy its economy.

(3) Conflicts among African States.(4) China dumping goods in a country.

(5) India's Infosys competing with Accentre to

bag a contract.

Section II

QUANTITATIVE ABILITYNo. of questions: 25

Each question carries 4 marks.Negative marks for wrong answers:1

Directions Q. 26-50: Each question is inde-

pendent unless stated.

26. Nine parallel chords are drawn in a circle of

diameter 10 cm. If the distance between any two of

the adjacent chords is 1 cm, which of the following

statements is always true?

(1) One of the chords is diameter of circle.

(2) At least 2 chords must be of equal length.(3) The difference between the lengths of any

two adjacent chords on the same side of

diameter is > 1 cm.

(4) There is only one way to draw such chords.

(5) None of these.

27. Nine mangoes, four apples and six pine-

apples cost Rs 114. Four mangoes, six apples and

nine pineapples cost Rs 114. What is the cost of five

mangoes?

(1) Rs 30 (2) Rs 40 (3) Rs 45

(4) Rs 50 (5) cannot be determined

28. A, B, C are running in the same direction ona circular track. The track is marked with numbers

from 1 to 12, like the dial of a clock. The 12 numbers

are uniformly spaced along the track. A overtakes B

once at 4 and next time at 8. A overtakes C once at 2

and the next time again at 4. What is ratio of Bs

speed to Cs speed?

(1) 7 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 3 : 2

(4) 7 : 1 (5) None of these

29. R and S start simultaneously from a point A

on a circular track and run in same direction. The

speed of R is nine times speed of S. How many times

are they diametrically opposite to each other by thetime S completes three complete rounds on the

track?

(1) 27 (2) 54 (3) 60

(4) 48 (5) 44

30. In an isosceles trapezium ABCD, with

and CD = q, which of the following is always true?

(1) p < r (2) p = r (3) p > r

(4) p2

= r2

(5) None of these

31. A number, 3N, when divided by D leaves a

remainder 13 where N and D are natural numbers. If4N divided by D leaves a remainder of 9, then what

is the remainder when N is divided by D?

(1) 17 (2) 21 (3) 25

(4) 27 (5) Cannot be determined

32. The class X of Vidyaniketan School has four

sections A, B, C and D. The average weight of stu-

dents of A, B, C together and A, C, D together are 45

kg and 55 kg while the average weight of students of

A, B, D together and B, C, D together are 50 kg and

60 kg. Which of the following could be the average

weight of students of all four sections together?




8/15

(1) 47.6 kg (2) 49.9 kg (3) 53.7 kg

(4) 56.5 kg (5) 58.5 kg

33. Two students take square of a certain num-

ber and express it in box 5 and 6 respectively, where

box 5 and box 6 represents the remainders obtained

when squares of any number is divided by 5 & 6

respectively. A third student takes two representa-tions made by them and adds up the numbers.

Which of the following cannot be the value of units

digit of sum obtained by third student?

(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 7 (5) 9

34. A class of 30 primary school boys goes out

on a camping trip. They have with them a bag con-

taining some marbles. During the night, one boy

takes out two thirds of the marbles and places 2

marbles back. He is in turn followed by the other

boys, each of whom in turn, performs the same

operation. If the 13th boy and the 23rd boy got the

same number of marbles, what was the initial num-

ber of marbles in the bag?

(1) 330

1 (2) 330

230

1 (3) 230

1

(4) 230

(5) None of these

35. In the figure below, AL is perpendicular to

BC and CM is perpendicular to AB. If CL = AL = 2BL,

find

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4


Directions for questions 36 and 37: Read the

following information and answer the questions

that follow.

In a class of 128 students, 100 passed in

Mathematics, 96 passed in Physics, 99 passed in

Chemistry, 90 passed in Biology, while 40 passed in

all the four subjects.

36. What could be the maximum number of stu-

dents who failed in all four subjects?

(1) 25 (2) 28 (3) 13

(4) 12 (5) 10

37. Taking only the basic information into

consideration, what could be the maximum number

of students who could have passed in exactly two

subjects?

(1) 29 (2) 39 (3) 49

(4) 19 (5) 9

Directions for questions 38 to 43: Answer the

following questions as per the best of your ability.

38. There are a certain number of red, blue and

green marbles in the box. The ratio of the number of

red marbles to that of blue marbles is the same as

ratio of number of blue marbles to that of green mar-

bles. If the sum of the number of red marbles and

green marbles is 74, which of the following can be

the number of blue marbles in the box?

(1) 20 (2) 35 (3) 42

(4) 56 (5) 75

39. Consider a function f(n) defined for non-

negative integer values of n. f(n) = (1)Sn+1 + (1)Sn +

f(n 1) where f(0) = 1 and Si = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + ...........

+ iwhere i N. What will be the value of the expres-

sion G? [Where G = f(1) + f(2) + f(3) + ............. f(25)]

(1) 26 (2) 24 (3) 22

(4) 20 5. None of these

40. A boy wants to write all the possible fivedigit numbers with distinct digits such that each

number is a multiple of each of its five digits. How

many of these numbers will be divisible by 5?

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 2

(4) 1 (5) None of these

41. Out of a total of one hundred dozen

employees, one more than twelve dozen are illiter-

ate. Out of a total of thirty dozen female employees

305 are literate. Find the percentage of illiterate

males with respect to literate males.

(1) 12% (2) 20% (3) 18%

(4) 8% (5) None of these42. A big number of 90 digits is written by writ-

ing even consecutive numbers beginning with 2 side

by side. What is the 90th digit of the big number?

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 (5) 9

43. Let x, y and z be three positive numbers

such that x + y + z = 30. Then the minimum value of

(1) 1 (2) 0.9 (3) 0.3

(4) 0.1 (5) None of these

44. When three consecutive numbers are multi-plied we get 3360. What is the sum of these three

numbers?

(1) 42 (2) 45 (3) 48 (4) 51 (5) 52

45. What are the last three digits of (2005)2005

?

(1) 025 (2) 125 (3) 375

(4) 625 (5) None of these

46. There were two different copper alloys, the

first containing 40% less copper than the second.

When these were melted together, the resulting alloy

contained 36% of the copper. Determine the percent-

age of copper in the first and second alloy, if it is

known that there was 6 kg. of copper in the copperin the first alloy and 12 kg. in the second.

(1) 35%, 75% (2) 20%, 60%

(3) 30%, 70% (4) 15%, 55%

(5) None of these

Directions for questions 47 and 48: Read the

following information and answer the questions

that follow.

A shopkeeper buys 10 biscuit packets, each

packet containing 10 biscuits. Each packet is bought

at the same price. He intends to sell n (0 < n < 10)

packets, each at a profit of 20% while all the remain-ing packets are opened and the biscuits therein sold

separately, each biscuit being sold at a profit of 50%.

In this manner he sells all packets of biscuits. Each

biscuit in any packet costs a whole number of rupees

and the total revenue obtained after selling all

biscuits is Rs 144.

47. What is the C.P. of each packet in rupees?

(1) 1 (2) 12 (3) 10


48. What is the value of n?

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4




9/15


Directions for questions 49 and 50: Answer

the following questions to the best of your ability.

49. E = 4(4!) + 5(5!) + 6(6!) + ........ 19(19!) +

20(20!). What is the remainder when E is divided by

64?

(1) 24 (2) 40 (3) 32(4) 16 (5) 12

50. Anil wrote down all the possible three digit

numbers with distinct digits on black board of these

numbers. Biswas erased all the numbers whose first

and last digits were either both odd or both even.

How many numbers are left on the board?

(1) 450 (2) 360 (3) 400

(4) 320 (5) 300

Section IIIDATA/REASONING ABILITY

No. of questions: 25

Each question carries 4 marks.Negative marks for wrong answers:1

Directions for questions 51 to 52: Read the

information given below and answer the questions

given after that.

ABC Co decided to have a quality check on its

production before the supply is sent to the cus-

tomers. The system applied is: A set of 20 articles is

manufactured and 4 of them are chosen at random.

If any one of them is found to be defective then the

whole set is put under 100% screening again. If nodefectives are found, the whole set is sent to the

customers.

51. Find the probability that a container having

only one defective article will be sent back for

screening?

52. Find the probability that a box containing 3

defective items will be sent to the customers?

Directions for questions 53 to 56: In a race,

participants are given scores from 1 to 10. 10 friendsparticipated in a race and every one secured different

scores. The following incomplete table gives the ratio

of some of their scores. For example B has scored dou-ble of A; or A has scored half of B.

A B C D E F G H I J

A - 1 : 2 2 : 1

B 2 : 1 -

C 4 : 1 -

D - 2 : 1

E -

F - 2 : 3

G - 1 : 3

H -

I 4.5 : 3 -

J -

53. What is the score of H?

(1) 3 (2) 7

(3) 5 (4) 6

(5) Indeterminate

54. What is the score of I as a percentage of Js

score?

(1) 60%(2) 55.55%

(3) 80%

(4) 110%

(5) 180%

55. Whose score cannot be found?

(1) C (2) D

(3) H (4) A

(5) Everyones score can be found

56. Which of the following statements is true?

(1) C scores more than A.

(2) Combined score of B and C is equal to A.(3) Combined score of I and G is equal to F.

(4) Ds score is the average of the score of all

friends combined.

(5) None of these

Directions for questions 57 to 59: Answer

these based on the figure which represents the flow ofnatural gas through pipelines across major cities A, B,

C, D and E (in suitable units). Assume that supply

equals demand.

57. What is the number of units demanded in

B?

(1) 400

(2) 350(3) 450

(4) 500

(5) 550

58. If the number of units demanded in C is

225, what is the value of M?

(1) 875

(2) 1075

(3) 775

(4) 850

(5) 950

59. If the total demand in E is 80% of thedemand in A, what is the demand in A ?

(1) 2400

(2) 2500

(3) 4500

(4) 4750

(5) None of these

Directions for questions 60 to 63: Study the

table to answer these questions.

TableNumber of Cancer Cases over Two Years




10/15

for Selected Countries.Country 2006 (in '00 2006 (Rate 2007 (in '00

cases) per 10,000) cases)A 53 0.1 46

B 345 2.1 145

C 87 1.1 39

D 81 33.9 26

E 84 0.8 23F 1365 0.9 209

G 661 13.0 239

H 516 1.9 236

J 36 0.2 16

K 95 1.8 23

L 262 3.9 156

M 19 0.0 18

N 1862 3.3 563

P 47 56.2 11

Q 49 0.5 18

R 337 5.0 235

S 61 1.2 35

T 17 0.3 12

U 896 1.5 235

V 39 1.4 14

W 31 0.0 5

X 501 0.6 12

Y 217 1.4 73

Z 31 0.9 22

AA 39 0.8 13

AB 46 0.4 35

AC 48 0.1 21

AD 71 0.8 32

AE 162 2.4 83

AF 655 1.1 241AG 21,861 8.9 6445

AH 869 1.4 219

AJ 19 0.0 13

All countries that have reported more than five

hundred cancer cases to the WHO in 2007 are listed

here. The left column gives the total number of

cases reported by each country for 2006, the middle

column gives the 2006 rate (cancer cases per 10,000

population) and the last column shows the number

of cases reported in early 2007.Most of the 2007 reports were for only the first

quarter of the year. Owing to reporting delays of sixmonths or more, cases reported in 2007 actuallywere diagnosed in 2006.

60. What is the population of AD on the basisof the reported cases of cancer in 2006 (in thou-sands)?

(1) 825,000 (2) 812,500 (3) 810,000(4) 780,000 (5) None of these61. Which country has reported the second

highest number of cancer cases to WHO during2006?

(1) N (2) AG (3) F (4) U (5) Q62.

The countries which have reported lessthan 2000 cases both the 2006 and early 2007 are(1) M, J and P (2) V, AJ and W(3) W, M and T (4) M, T and AJ(5) None of these63. Which of the following are true from the

table ?

I. The reported cancer cases of M, W and AJ as

compared to their population are negligible.

II. The 2006 rate is highest for P though the

reported cases are only 4700.

III. The population of R is 664,000 in 2006.

IV. P reported more than 20,000 cases of

cancer in early 2007.

(1) I, II and III (2) II and III (3) I and II

(4) I, II and IV (5) I, II, III and IV

Directions for Questions 64 to 67:

There are three coalitions, namely Apple,

Banana and Guava, in the national politics of a

Socialist Democratic country on this Earth. Apple,which has won 255 seats in the current election,

comprises of A, C, D, E, and J. Banana, which has won

232 seats in the current election, comprises of B, F,

G, H, I, K, L, M, N, and O. Rest of the parties belong

to Guava coalition. The total number of seats con-

tested in the election was 509.

Rules of Government Formation:

I. If a coalition gets more than half of the total

seats, then it can form the national govern-

ment.

II. If no one gets the required majority, then the

nation will go for another general election.Part V R1 R2 R3 R4 R5 R6 R7 R8 R9 R10 R11 R12

A 30 13 2 22 11 8 18 1 8 6 19 7

B 2 7 10 16 2 18 38 0 8 24 10 3

C 1 0 0 0 0 12 0 0 0 0 4 26

D 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 35 1

E 0 19 0 0 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

F 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 19 0

G 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 16 0

H 0 0 0 0 0 0 12 0 0 0 0 0

I 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 11 0 0 0

J 1 0 0 0 1 3 0 0 0 0 2 3

K 0 0 0 0 0 0 9 0 0 0 0 0L 0 6 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0

M 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 8 0 0

N 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 5 0

O 0 0 0 0 4 0 0 0 1 0 0 0

P 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Q 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

R 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 0

S 0 4 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

T 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 4 0

Here, R1 implies Region 1, R2 implies Region 2and so on.

64. Party E comes out of Apple coalition and

joins Banana coalition; party J pulls itself out of Applecoalition and joins Guava coalition; party F and Gcomes out of Banana coalition and joins Apple coali-tion; and party A in Region 6 splits into two groupsof equal representatives, one group remains with theApple coalition and another joins Guava coalition. Inthis scenario which coalition will have the requirednumbers to form the national government?

(1) Guava (2) Banana(3) Apple (4) Apple or Guava(5) Nation to go for general election65. Five seats fell vacant in Region 12 after the

untimely death of the sitting members of the currentparliament. Two of these seats were formerly won byparty C, two by party A, and one by party B. Afterfresh elections in these five seats, party C retainedone of the seat and the other seat went to party A;party A retained one seat and the other went toparty B; and party B retained its only seat which wentfor re-elections. The percentage of seats of party C inregion 12 is:

(1) 69.5% (2) 65% (3) 62.5%(4) 60% (5) 59.5%

66. It has been seen that the number of seats

won by party A in region 1 is directly proportional to




11/15

the number of voters who voted in the elections. In

the last elections all 10 million listed voters voted in

region 1. In the current election there is a ten per

cent increase in the list of eligible voters, out of

which eighty per cent voted in addition to the 10 mil-

lion voters who voted last time. Assuming that in the

other regions party A has won same number of seatsas in the last elections, what will be the approximate

number of seats won by party A in the current elec-

tions?(1) 148 (2) 147 (3) 145(4) 144 (5) Cannot be determined67. Last election in Region 10, out of ten million

voters, thirty per cent were very old voters. In thecurrent elections fifty per cent of them died andwere removed from the list of eligible voters. At thesame time two million new citizens got voting rights.If the number of seats won by party B in region 10 isdirectly proportional to the number of votes in that

region, then approximately how many seats party Bwill win?

(1) 22 (2) 23 (3) 24(4) 25 (5) Cannot be determined

Directions for Questions 68 to 72:

Souravs Fish Salon serves a special Friday night

seafood banquet consisting of seven courseshilsa,

pomfret, Indian shrimp, rahu, kingfish, lobster and

bhetki. Diners are free to select the order of the

seven courses, according to the following conditions:

The kingfish is served sometime after rahu.

Exactly one course should be served betweenthe pomfret and the Indian shrimp. (Pomfret before

Indian Shrimp)

The lobster is served some time before the

pomfret.

The kingfish is served either fifth or sixth.

The hilsa is served second.

68. Which one of the following sequences

would make for an acceptable banquet?

(1) rahu, hilsa, lobster, bhetki, pomfret, king-

fish, Indian shrimp

(2) rahu, hilsa, bhetki, pomfret, kingfish, Indian

shrimp, lobster(3) lobster, hilsa, pomfret, rahu, kingfish,

Indian shrimp, bhetki

(4) lobster, hilsa, rahu, kingfish, pomfret,

bhetki, Indian shrimp

(5) None of these

69. If kingfish is the fifth course served, then

which one of the following MUST be true?

(1) Pomfret is the third course served

(2) Indian shrimp is the fourth course served

(3) Bhetki is the seventh course served

(4) Lobster is the first course served

(5) Cannot be determined

70. Which one of the following would make it

possible to determine the EXACT ordering of the

courses?

(1) Pomfret is the fourth course served

(2) Indian shrimp is the fifth course served

(3) Kingfish is the sixth course served

(4) Lobster is the first course served

(5) None of these

71. If kingfish is the sixth course served, then

which one of the following CANNOT be true?

(1) Rahu is the fifth course served

(2) Indian shrimp is the seventh course served

(3) Pomfret is the fifth course served

(4) Lobster is the third course served

(5) None of these

72. If Bhetki is the third course served, which

one of the following MUST be true?

(1) Pomfret is the fourth course served

(2) Kingfish is the fifth course served(3) Rahu is the first course served

(4) Indian shrimp is the seventh course served

(5) None of these

Directions for Questions 73 to 75:During one week, a human resource director

conducts five interviews for a new job, one interviewper day, Monday through Friday. There are six candi-dates for the jobRam, Shyam, Trilochan, Usha,Veena, and Kishore. No more than two candidatesare interviewed more than once. Neither Shyam norUsha nor Veena is interviewed more than once, and

no other candidate is interviewed more than twice.The schedule of interviews is subject to the follow-ing conditions:

If Trilochan is interviewed, then Trilochanmust be interviewed on both Monday andFriday.

If Shyam is interviewed, then Usha is alsointerviewed, with Shyams interview takingplace earlier than Ushas interview.

If Ram is interviewed twice, then Ram'ssecond interview takes place exactly twodays after Ram's first interview. (on the thirdday)

If Veena is interviewed, then Kishore is inter-viewed twice, with Veenas interview takingplace after Kishores first interview and

before Kishore's second interview. If Usha is interviewed, then Ram is also

interviewed, with Ushas interview takingplace on a day either immediately before orimmediately after a day on which Ram isinterviewed.

73. Which of the following could be a complete

and accurate list of candidates the human resources

director interviews and the days on which those

interviews take place?(1) Monday: Shyam; Tuesday: Usha; Wednesday:

Ram; Thursday: Kishore; Friday: Ram.

(2) Monday: Shyam; Tuesday: Kishore; Wednes-

day: Ram; Thursday: Kishore; Friday: Usha.

(3) Monday: Trilochan; Tuesday: Ram; Wednesday:

Shyam; Thursday: Ram; Friday: Trilochan.

(4) Monday: Trilochan; Tuesday: Ram; Wednes-

day: Kishore; Thursday: Veena; Friday:

Trilochan.

(5) None of these

74. If Veena is interviewed on Tuesday, then

which one of the following MUST be true?

(1) Trilochan is interviewed on Friday

(2) Usha is interviewed on Thursday

(3) Ram is not interviewed

(4) Shyam is not interviewed

(5) None of these

75. If Kishore is not interviewed, then which

one of the following MUST be true?

(1) Ram is interviewed on Thursday

(2) Shyam is interviewed on Tuesday

(3) Trilochan is interviewed on Monday

(4) Usha is interviewed on Wednesday

(5) None of these




12/15

Section I

1. (4) I is a valid reason for the analogy not being

perfect. II is a reason for the analogy being

perfect and III is immaterial in this case. IV is

clearly mentioned as the analogy being

deeper. Hence II and III are not valid reasons

for the analogy not being perfect.

2. (5) All the given statements are false. I is

contradicted by the author directly; II is false

as all findings are not benign; III is false

because they have barely a clue and IV is

false because all challenges may not be

related to biology.

3. (2) Note that (2) is not a problem at all, in fact, it

may even be a threat. All others are problems

that biotechnology can address.

4. (3) The second last paragraph explains the

biological internet. The other choices are too

narrow in their description.

5. (4) The essence of the passage is that humanity

has been looking at the wrong things but

now they have a clue and great things are

going to happen in the future.

6. (3) Things are hotting up the next sentence

should confirm these findings, which is

happening in (3).

7. (3) The argument is about allocation of

secondary education and universal

education. Hence the next sentence should

be about financing the elementary education,

which is part of universal education. No

other choice addresses this.

8. (1) The paragraph is about the charges against

Mashelkar. It should continue with his

justification for making the mistake, which is

stated in (1) only.

9. (5) The paragraph is describing punishment. It

talks of Section 293, and in the next line it

should talk about further penalties, in

Section 294, hence (5).

10. (3) The paragraph talks about is not merely a

matter of comfortable seats and all the other

facilities being provided. The purchase of a

ticket hence it should continue with (3)

which states that the process is quite

mystifying and confusing.

11. (3) Statement A is fact as it states a direct

relationship, B is judgment as it mentions a

desirable objective, while C and D are direct

facts.

12. (5) Statement A is judgment as it states

important step, B, C and D are inferences

from other facts.

13. (1) Statement A is inference from research, B is a

direct fact, C is inference as it says it is

likely and D is judgment: most

authoritative

14. (3) Statement A is inference from watching Tony

Blair, all other statements are judgments: B:

appropriate description, C: its time to

and D: will have a lot more clout

15. (1) Statement A is inference, in exercising one

right, B: When a political party, C is

inference from their economic conditions. D

is judgment as it says that they have no

effect

16. (2) Women are mentioned to do A and B only. C

was done only by men and D by wimpy

fellows.

17. (3) The arguments are quite logical and the

conclusion seems probably true but we

cannot say it is convincing, because other

reasons are not explored.

18. (5) The passage mentions that they did not do

long distance trade, nor evidence has been

found for leather processing or farming.

19. (4) The passage states that modern man

developed farming and sewing, hence only

(4) matches this finding.

20. (3) The passage is about division of labour,

hence better specialization has to be the

answer.

21. (4) The only reason mentioned in the passage is

(I). II is an effect, not the cause while III is too

narrow. IV is nowhere mentioned.

22. (2) Note that the reason given is countries

unravelling like others. Thus an insulation

would prevent them from economic collapse.

23. (4) people who opposed globalisation were

disdainfully dismissed as modern-day

incarnations of the Ludditesthis means

that Luddites belonged to the past and thus

they would be persons who opposed all

technology.

24. (5) The given statements can be inferred from

the last few paragraphs. Though one

institution is mentioned for financial crunch

etc, we can infer that all of them are facing

similar problems.

25. (4) The line talks of competition beggaring one

anothers economies. In all the choices the

consequences are different except in (4)

where the economy will suffer.

Section II

26. (5) Construct the figure as follows:

The nine parallel chords are shown as aboveand C5 is diameter.

We can now shift these chords by a small

distance say 1 cm downward and all

conditions of the question are still met.

27. (1) Form the simple equations:

9m + 4a + 6p = 114 (1)

and 4m + 6a + 9p = 114 (2)

(1) 3 (2) 2 gives 19m = 114

m = Rs 6

C.P. = 6 5 = Rs 30.



ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS


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28. (1) Let speeds of A, B, C be a, b, c.

In the time B covers 4 units A cover 12 + 4

= 16 unitsIn the time C covers 2 units A covers 12+2

= 14 units

Hence

29. (1) In each round R completes he is

diametrically opposite S exactly once. By the

time S completes 3 rounds, R completes 27

rounds and hence he is diametrically

opposite S on 27.

30. (1)

An isosceles trapezium is a cyclic

quadrilateral.

31. (2) The equations are: 3N = Dx + 13 (i)

and 4N = Dy + 9 (ii)

Subtracting (i) from (ii) we get:

N = D(y x) 4

OR Remainder R = D 4 (because a ve

remainder means adding the

remainder in the divisor)

When 3N is divided R becomes 3R

i.e. 3D 12 = 13 3D = 25

or D = 25 (because 25 is not a multiple of 3)

Now R = D 4 = 21.

32. (3) Average of A, B, C = 45.

A, C, D = 55.

A, B, D = 50.

B, C, D = 60.

Let a, b, c and d be the no. of students in

section A, B, C and D respectively.

Total = 150a + 155b + 160c + 165d (Adding

a's, b's, c's and d's)

33. (2) We need the remainder of squares when theyare divided by 5 and 6.Denoting the sets by S5 and S6 we have

R5 = {0, 1, 4} and R6 = {0, 1, 3, 4}.

34. (5) Let us assume that each boy gets at least onemarble (>0). Hence after every operation thenumber of marbles in the bag shoulddecrease. This implies that successive boysshould get decreasing number of marbleseach. But it is given that 2 boys got the samenumber of marbles. Hence our initialassumption is not valid. This means each boygets no or zero marbles. This is possible ofonly if number of marbles in bag is 3.

35. (2)

36. (3) There are 128 students in a class with100 + 96 + 99 + 90 passes i.e. 385 passes.Now 40 students have a total of 160 passes,therefore rest 88 students have 225 passes.Now each of these 75 students can getalmost 3 passes.

Therefore number of students with no passes= 88 75 = 13.

37. (2) As calculated above 88 students have toprovide for 225 passes.Taking the maximum number of studentswith two passes still have to take a total of225 passes.Let x number of students have passed inexactly two of the subjects. This implies theremaining 88 x must have passed in all thethree subjects.Thus the equation will be 3(88 x) + 2x = 225.Solve and get x = 39.

38. (2) R B Gx y

x y x = 7, y = 5

39. (5) f(1) = (1)S2 + (1)S1 + f(0) = 1,

f(2) = (1)S3 + (1)S2 + f(1) = 1

f(3) = (1)S4

+ (1)S3

+ f(2) = 1, f(4) = 1,

f(5) = 1, f(6) = 1, f(3) = 1, f(8) = 1

The pattern is repeating itself in cycle of

four.

Sum of four terms is zero. As 25 = 6(4) + (1)

f(1) = 1

40. (4) Since the number has to be a multiple of 5 it

can have only 5 in units place and not 0The number can have only odd digits

(since units digit is 5) i.e. 1, 3, 5, 7, 9

But sum of these is not a multiple of 3 hence

we cannot have a multiple of 5.

No such number can be made.

41. (1) Total employees = 1200.

Total illiterates = 145.

Female employees = 12 30 = 360

Male employees = 840.

Female illiterates = 360 305 = 55;

Male illiterates = 145 55 = 90.




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42. (2)

43. (3)

44. (2)

45. (2)

46. (2)

47. (3)

48. (1)

49. (2)

50. (2)

51. (2)

52. (1)

53. (2)

54. (5)

57. (1)

58. (2)

59. (2)

60. (5)




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61. (1)

62. (4)

Q. 64

64. (3)

65. (1)

66. (2)

67. (4)

68. (1)

69. (3)

70. (2)

71. (1)

72. (4)

73. (2)

74. (4)

75. (3)

mock cat test 2007

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