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Unit 1: Scientific Method Review (Scientific Processes)

Matching: Match the term to its definition: 1. F Experiment 2. E Hypothesis 3. A Independent variable 4. G Dependent variable

5. B Scientific Method 6. D Constants 7. C International System of Units

A. Factor in experiment that is manipulated by experimenter (what you’re testing) B. Step-by-step procedure that serves to answer a question or test a hypothesis C. International units used in math, science, commerce, etc. D. Aspects of experiment that are kept same for entire experiment/ all groups E. Possible explanation to a scientific observation (an educated guess) F. Step in scientific method that serves to test the hypothesis G. Factor in experiment that responds to the changes in Independent variable (the data you

observe/measure) 8. The metric unit (base unit) for the measure of volume is the liter . The symbol for this is L . 9. The metric unit (base unit) for the measure of mass is the gram . The symbol for this is g . 10. The metric unit (base unit) for the measure of length is the meter . The symbol for this is m .

11. Fill in the blanks. Prefix Symbol Multiplication Factor

a. kilo k ______103_______

b. hecto h 102

c. deka da ______101_______

d. deci d 10-1

e. centi c 10-2

f. milli m ______10-3

_______

12. What is the mnemonic device to remember the metric scale?

King Henry Died By Drinking Chocolate Milk

13. Complete the following conversions:

a. 250 mL = 0.250 L

b. 150 g = .150 kg

c. 125 m = 12.5 dam

d. 0.26 cg = 2.6 mg

e. 32,300 mm = 0.0323 km

f. 0.072 kg = 7.2 dag

14. On a graph, the independent variable always goes which of the following:

a. X-axis b. Y-axis c. It depends on how the IV was measured

15. A triple-beam balance is used to measure which of the following:

a. length b. volume c. mass d. temperature

16. Which of the following is used to measure volume:

a. ruler b. thermometer c. graduated cylinder d. scale

17. On a graph, the dependent variable always goes on which of the following:

a. X-axis b. Y-axis c. It depends on how the DV was measured

18. Which of the following is used to measure length:

a. ruler b. thermometer c. graduated cylinder d. scale

19. The standard for comparison in an experiment.

a. control b. constants c. independent variable d. dependent variable

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Unit 2: Introduction to Environmental Science Review Matching: Match the term to its definition:

1. ______E_____ Pollution

2. _______I____ Renewable resources

3. ______F_____ Environment

4.______B_____ Biodiversity

5. ______C_____ Sustainability

6. _____H______ Agriculture

7. ______D_____ Biology

8. _______G____ Developing country

9. ________A___ Ecology

A. The study of how organisms interact with each other and their environment

B. The species, genetic, or ecological diversity of organisms in a given area

C. Meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own

needs

D. The study of life or living organisms

E. Any physical, chemical, or biological change that adversely affects the health, survival, or activities of living

organisms or that alters the environment in an undesirable way

F. The circumstances or conditions that surround an organism or group of organisms

G. Country with high population growth, low economic diversity, and low ecological footprints

H. The practice of growing, breeding, & caring for plants & animals used for food, clothing, etc.

I. Resources normally replaced or replenished by natural processes

10. Using scientific information from chemistry and biology to devise a plan to clean up a lake and make it healthy

again describes:

a. Ecology b. Environmental Science c. Earth Science d. Social Science

11. An ecological footprint is the

a. mark a person’s shoe makes in soft earth.

b. number of animals a person has killed.

c. amount of land and ocean area needed to support one person.

d. number of trees people cut down.

12. Name two developed nations: United States & Canada

13. Name two renewable resources: sun, wind, trees

14. Name two nonrenewable resources: coal & oil

15. During the agricultural revolution:

a. Plants and animals were domesticated c. Fossil fuel use increased

b. Forests & wetlands were destroyed for farmland d. Both (a) and (b)

16. You are visiting a developing country. Compared to a developed country, you would expect to find a: a. higher percentage of the population with safe drinking water b. higher percentage of the population under the age of 15 c. higher average life expectancy

17. Compared to developing nations, developed nations have

a. lower health standards. c. greater personal wealth.

b. faster-growing populations. d. no social support systems.

18. The current issue of rapid global climate change is mainly caused by excess CO2 in the atmosphere from

burning fossil fuels.

Turn Over

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19. A resident of which country is likely to have a large ecological footprint?

a. Indonesia b. India c. United States d. Panama

20. Biodiversity is important to us because of which following reasons:

a. We depend on healthy ecosystems for balanced nutrient & energy cycles.

b. We use organisms for food, clothing, shelter, & medicine.

c. It’s morally right to save species.

d. all of the above.

21. A sustainable world would be characterized by the:

a. Moving rare animals from their natural habitats to laboratories.

b. Invention of bigger storage facilities for increased amounts of toxic wastes.

c. Maximum exploitation of natural resources using more advanced technologies.

d. Indefinite existence of human populations in a healthy and prosperous condition.

22. Wind, water, fisheries, & forests are examples of renewable resources.

23. All of the following have contributed to loss of biodiversity except: a. Habitat destruction b. Recycling

c. Overharvesting d. Invasive species

24. Which of the following is not made from nonrenewable resources? a. Aluminum can b. Plastic bottle

c. Diamond necklace d. Paper towels

25. Organic agriculture, changes to what & where we eat, moderate use of renewable resources, lower waste, and using renewable energy sources are all examples of:

a. Sustainability b. Developing countries

c. Resource use d. Biodiversity loss

26. According to the law of supply and demand, what would occur if the supply of oil declined and the demand remained the same?

a. Oil prices would drop b. Oil prices would increase

c. Oil usage would drop d. Oil usage would increase

27. Biodiversity is important to us because of which following reasons: a. We depend on healthy ecosystems for balanced nutrient & energy cycles. b. We use organisms for food, clothing, shelter, & medicine. c. It’s morally right to save species. d. All of the above.

28. Which of the following is does NOT help to prevent the further loss of biodiversity? a. Endangered Species Act b. Captive breeding at zoos and aquariums c. Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species d. Poaching and overharvesting

29. The “Tragedy of the Commons” idea addresses the conflicts associated with what environmental challenge?

a. preventing pollution c. curbing overpopulation b. preserving biodiversity d. protecting shared resources

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Unit 3: THE BIOSPHERE: Earth Science & Ecology Review

Matching: Match the term to its definition:

1. _____A______ Niche

2. ______G_____ Competition

3. _______E____ Commensalism

4. ________H___ Producer

5. _______F____ Indicator species

6. ________B___ Herbivore

7. _________D__ Condensation

8. __________C_ Parasitism

J. The unique role a species plays in its environment

K. Organism that obtains energy from eating producers

L. Symbiotic relationship in which one organism is harmed and the other is benefited

M. Process by which water vapor turns to liquid

N. Symbiotic relationship in which one organism is benefitted and the other is neither helped nor

harmed

O. Species that provide early warning of damage to the environment

P. Relationship in which individuals or populations attempt to use the same limited resource

Q. Organism that can produce its own energy, usually through photosynthesis

9. What is always the first source of energy in most ecosystems? sun 10. What do herbivores eat? plants 11. What do omnivores eat? meat & plants 12. What do carnivores eat? meat

13. The reason that energy transfer among trophic levels is depicted as a pyramid is because only

_______% of energy consumed is available to the next trophic level:

a. 90 b. 20 c. 10 d. 3

14. Plants perform photosynthesis, where they make sugar from the sun’s energy. 15. Plants/ producers are eaten by primary consumers, which are eaten by secondary consumers, which are eaten by tertiary consumers. 16. Which organisms obtain their energy from dead organisms and return nutrients back to the soil?

decomposers (bacteria)

17. A butterfly pollinating a flower is an example of which type of symbiotic relationship? mutualism

18. A female dog’s niche includes all of the following except (choose the least best answer):

a. fleas that infest the dog b. the neighbor’s enclosed yard

c. how the dog protects its owner d. the number of puppies the dog has

19. A lynx chasing and eating an arctic hare (rabbit) is an example of what type of relationship?

a. predator/prey b. competition c. genetic d. symbiotic e. friendly

20. With respect to matter, Earth is an closed system; hence matter cycles (cycles or flows?)

21. Carbon is used by plants during photosynthesis and then is released by plants & animals during cellular respiration.

TURN OVER

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22. What human activities are adding more CO2 to the atmosphere? Burning fossil fuels 23. Which of the following is not a way to reduce your carbon impact? a. carpool b. eat locally-grown food c. throw away plastic containers d. reuse glass bottles 24. Producers release oxygen during photosynthesis and all organisms use oxygen to make energy (ATP) during cellular respiration.

25. What organisms perform the function of converting nitrogen into usable forms? bacteria that live in the roots of legumes 26. Which form of nitrogen do plants use? a. nitrogen gas (N2) b. nitrates (NO3) c. ammonium (NH4) 27. Too much nitrogen and phosphorus from agriculture (fertilizer) can cause too much algal growth in water, resulting in fish kills.

28. Life of individual organisms is maintained by the:

a. cycling of energy and flow of matter

b. flow of energy and cycling of matter

c. cycling of energy and matter

d. flow of energy and matter

29. These are good indicator species because they provide early warning of water pollution.

a. Cockroaches b. Catfish c. Rats d. Frogs

30. Which form of nitrogen is used by plants (and then transferred to animals through the food chain)?

a. N2 gas b. Nitric acid (HNO3)

c. Nitrate (NO3) D. Nitrogen oxide (NO)

32. Organisms that eat large pieces of dead animals, such as vultures and coyotes, are known as?

a. Carnivores b. Decomposers c. Omnivores d. Scavengers

32. Mutualism, parasitism, and commensalism are different types of what kind of relationship?

symbiosis

33. The spheres of earth interact to support life. Which of the following correctly describes the spheres?

a. the atmosphere is made up of mostly oxygen

b. the hydrosphere is mostly made of freshwater

c. the biosphere only contains nonliving things

d. the lithosphere consists of soil, nutrients, and minerals

34. Acorn Squirrel Snake Hawk. In this food chain, the snake is the tertiary consumer.

Unit 4: THE HYDROSPHERE Part 1: Aquatic Life Zones Review

1. The 2 broad categories of aquatic life zones are fresh water and salt water.

Matching: For Questions 2-7

A. Nekton

B. Phytoplankton

Please fix the subscripts!

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C. Benthos

D. Plankton

E. Zooplankton

2. D Free-floating aquatic organisms

3. B The producers (perform photosynthesis) in aquatic system

4. E Animal-plankton, which are consumers, that include larval fish, mollusks and echnioderms, as well as

large organisms such as jellyfish.

5. A Are strong swimmers, such as turtles, whales, sharks and other fish.

6. C Are bottom dwellers, like oysters, sea stars, sponges, worms, coral, etc.

7. The abiotic limiting factors that affect aquatic life include:

o Temperature: decreases (increases or decreases) with depth

o Light for photosynthesis: decreases (increases or decreases) with depth

o Dissolved oxygen: decreases (increases or decreases) with depth

o Nutrients: increases (increases or decreases) with depth

o Turbidity, which is the degree of cloudiness in water increases

8. Label the zones in their appropriate boxes: intertidal, neritic (coastal), oceanic, euphotic, bathyal, abyssal, and benthic.

9. Estuaries are where rivers meet the sea.

10. Which ocean zone contains 90% of all marine species, including the coral reef? neritic

11. Coral have a mutualistic relationship with zooxanthellae algae, because the coral provide the algae with a home, and the algae

provide coral with sugars, which they make from photosynthesis.

bathyal

oceanic

intertidal

euphotic

oceanic

abyssal bethic

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12. Coral bleaching is when the zooxanthellae algae are expelled from the coral, which ultimately kills the coral and leads to the

collapse of the entire ecosystem.

Matching: For Questions 13-15

A. Abyssal

B. Bathyal

C. Euphotic

13. C Oceanic zone with high oxygen levels, lots of light, and have fast, predatory fish.

14. B Oceanic zone that is dimly lit, has no producers, and has larger, but slower nekton.

15. A Oceanic zone that is completely dark, very cold, has high pressure, and has organisms adapted to eat whatever they come

across.

16. Name two threats to the ocean:

acidity due to excess CO2 in the atmosphere from burning of fossil fuels

overfishing ( also climate change, habitat destruction, dead zones, development, invasives)

Word Bank: For Questions 17-18

Algae Bacteria Carbon dioxide Carbonic Fertilizer Oxygen

17. Dead zones are caused by runoff of fertilizer from rivers that enter the ocean. This causes algae to overgrow. This blocks

sunlight and kills plants underneath. Eventually the dead algae & plants cause decomposing bacteria to bloom, which uses up

the oxygen in the water.

18. Ocean Acidification is caused by uptake of CO2 from the atmosphere. When this enters the ocean, it reacts with water (H2O) to

form carbonic acid (H2CO3).

19. The pH of today’s ocean is around 8.1. But models estimate that by the end of this century, it could be down to a pH of 7.7!

20. Effects of ocean acidification include:

impedes calcification so limits growth of shelled organisms

damages some animals senses, causes stress to coral

Matching: For Questions 21-25

A. Eutrophic

B. Lentic

C. Oligotrophic

D. Aquifer

E. Lotic

21. C. oligotrophic lakes have clear, nutrient-poor water with few plants and fish.

22. A. eutrophic lakes have turbid, nutrient-rich water with lots of plants and fish.

23. B. lentic bodies of freshwater include lakes, ponds, & inland wetlands.

24. E. lotic bodies of freshwater include streams & rivers

25. D. Aquifer formations in which freshwater is also found underground and is

stored

26. Lake zones from shore to the bottom are: littoral limnetic photic

profundal benthic

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Unit 5: THE HYDROSPHERE Part 2: Water Resources and Pollution Review

Matching: Match the term to its definition:

1. ____K______ Watershed

2. ____M______ Secondary treatment

3. ____H______ Aquifer

4. ____J______ Thermal pollution

5. ____A______ Point-source pollution

6. ____C______ Water cycle

7. ____N______ Drip irrigation

8. ____E______ Groundwater

9. ____O______ Desalination

10. ___G______ Biomagnification

11. ___B______ Surface water

12. ___I______ Cloud seeding

13. ___L______ Reservoir

14. ___D______ Water pollution

15. ____F_____ Well

R. Water pollution that can be traced back to a single source

S. Freshwater on Earth’s land surface (lakes, rivers, streams)

T. Includes evaporation, condensation, precipitation, and runoff (processes through which water is

recycled)

U. Introduction of chemical, physical, or biological agents into water that degrades quality &

negatively affects organisms

V. Water beneath Earth’s surface in sediment & rock formations

F. Hole that is dug or drilled to reach groundwater in aquifer

G. The buildup of pollutants at higher levels of the food chain (also known as bioaccumulation)

H. Underground formation that contains groundwater

I. The spraying of silver iodide crystals to make water droplets form in clouds

J. Negative change to water quality due to a change in water temperature (influx of hot water)

K. Area of land drained by a river

L. Artificial lake formed by a dam

M. Second step in water treatment that removes organic material and kills microorganisms

N. Process of watering crops with little water applied directly to crops

O. Process of removing salt from ocean water

16. The water we have now is the same water that was on Earth thousands of years ago in accordance

to the Law of the Conservation of Matter.

17. 97% of the water on earth is in what form?

a. Frozen in glaciers b. Flowing in lakes and streams

c. In the ground d. In the oceans & seas

18. The majority of freshwater on earth is locked away in which of the following?

a. Groundwater

b. Deep sea vents

c. Glaciers

d. Aquifers

19. The water portion of the biosphere is called the hydrosphere. 20. The process in which increased nitrogen and phosphorus from pollution causes explosive growth of plant and algae to the point that aquatic animals are killed is called: eutrophication

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21. What chemical is usually used in secondary water treatment to kill microorganisms? Chlorine Point vs. Nonpoint Source Pollution Classify the following as either point or nonpoint source pollution. 22. Point Oil dumped in a swale. 23. Point Pipe discharge from a wastewater treatment plant into the river. 24. Nonpoint City automobiles leaking oil and brake fluid. 25. Point Effluent from a failing septic tank. 26. Nonpoint Fertilizer runoff from farms. 27. Nonpoint Runoff from a parking lot. 28. Where are aquifers most sensitive to pollution (i.e., where does water flow into the aquifer from the surface)? recharge 29. What is the number one use of water worldwide?

A. Industry B. Agriculture C. Residential D. Drinking E. Entertainment

30. Which of the following is NOT a pollutant of water?

A. Thermal pollution B. Pathogens (bacteria, viruses, & fungi) C. Heavy metals (lead, arsenic) D. Chemicals like fertilizer and pesticides E. All of the above are pollutants of water

31. TRUE or FALSE. Water is a renewable resource, but can be depleted or destroyed in local areas. 32. Of the freshwater on earth that is not frozen, most if it exists where?

A. In the ground (groundwater) B. In rivers and streams C. In glaciers D. In reservoirs E. In seas

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Unit 6: THE LITHOSPHERE Part 1: Terrestrial Biomes & Succession Review

Matching: Match the term to its definition:

1. ____E_______ Abiotic factors

2. _____A______ Savanna

3. _____F______ Coral reef

4. _____B______ Parasitism

5. _____C______ Secondary succession

6. _____D______ Biome

A. Tropical grassland that has large herbivores

B. Symbiotic relationship in which one organism is harmed and the other is benefited

C. The change in species composition of an ecosystem after a disturbance

D. Large region characterized by a specific climate and similar ecosystems

E. The non-living part of the environment, including water, rocks, light & temperature

F. Areas where limestone ridges built by coral develop and support thousands of organisms

7. A biome is characterized by which of the following:

a. temperature b. precipitation c. plant species d. all of the above

8. Which biome is characterized by relatively constant warm temperatures and high rainfall year-round?

a. Taiga b. Tundra c. Tropical rain forest d. Desert

9. Which biome is known as the Northern Coniferous Forest or Boreal Forest and has conifer trees that

have the adaption of being cone-shaped so snow does not build up on the branches?

a. Tropical rain forest b. Temperate rain forest c. Taiga d. Savanna

10. Which biome has permafrost, or a permanently frozen layer of soil?

a. Tundra b. Temperate rain forest c. Taiga d. Deciduous forest

11. Climate and vegetation vary with:

a. latitude only b. altitude only c. latitude and altitude d. latitude and longitude

12. Primary succession occurs on new rock formations, such as after a volcanic eruption.

13. Secondary succession occurs after a disturbance, such as a fire.

14. The two most important factors in climate are precipitation and temperature.

15. Where is most of the world’s biodiversity? rainforest

16. This biome is used for farmland because it has fertile soil and plants with root systems that form dense

layers to survive drought and fire are found in which biome?

a. Temperate rain forest b. Taiga c. Temperate grassland d. Tundra

17. Which biome is known for having a permanently frozen layer of soil? Tundra

18. Wetlands serve which important functions in their ecosystem? storm buffer, absorbs pollutants,

controls flooding, provides habitat

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19. Lynx and hares are found in this biome:

a. Savanna b. Taiga c. Tropical rain forest d. Prairie

20. This forest biome has trees, such as maple and oak, which lose their leaves in the fall: Deciduous

Forest

21. Lichens and other organisms that begin the process of primary succession are known as:

a. Pioneer species b. Climax species

c. Late Successional species d. Beginning species

22. Which marine ecosystem is where freshwater and saltwater combines?

estuary

23. Animals such as the flying squirrel, black bears, cougars, and the northern spotted owl can be

found in this biome alongside trees such as spruce, fir, and redwoods.

a. Tropical rain forest b. Taiga

c. Temperate rain forest d. Temperate deciduous forest

24. What are abiotic factors? Give an example: Soil, rainfall, sunlight, pH, D.O.

25. What are biotic factors? Give an example: plants, decomposers, animals

26. Ecological succession ends in a climax community, which has lots of shade-loving hardwood trees.

27. Which of the following is not an abiotic factor that affects organisms in aquatic life zones?

a. temperature b. sunlight c. dissolved oxygen c. predators d. acidity

28. Deserts are defined by a lack of rainfall.

29. Fertile soil and plants with root systems that form dense layers to survive drought and fire are found in

which biome?

a. Temperate grassland b. Taiga c. Tundra d. Temperate rain forest

30. Tropical rain forests help regulate the world’s climate by sucking up which atmospheric gas? CO2

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Unit 7: THE LITHOSPHERE Part 2: Land Resources Review

Matching: Match the term to its definition: 1. ____G______ Soil layer 2. ____M______ Organic farming 3. ____A______ Wilderness 4. ____J______ genetically-modified plant 5. ____K______ Pests 6. ____D______ Contour plowing 7. ____G______ Sustainable agriculture

8. ____F______ Deforestation 9. ____L______ Soil 10. ___C______ Biological pest control 11. ___H______ Arable land 12. ___I______ Desertification 13. __B_______ Malnutrition

A. Land protected from all types of exploitation

B. Condition when people do not consume enough calories or eat a sufficient variety of foods

C. Using living organisms (or their products) to control pests

D. Plowing across the slope of a hill that helps prevent soil erosion

E. Includes organic farming, supporting local farmers, and eating what is in season

F. Clearing of trees from an area

G. Soil horizon

H. Land that can be used to grow crops

I. Process by which arid land becomes more desert like

J. Plant that has genetic material that has been modified for medical or industrial use

K. Plants, fungi, microorganisms, insects, and viruses that cause damage to crops

L. Mixture of weathered rock and organic material

M. Farming without use of hormones, antibiotics, pesticides, synthetic fertilizers, and

genetic modifications

14. Soil is lost by erosion, which occurs when rain or windwash/blow soil away. 15. Farming methods such as plowing and continuous monoculture cropping contribute to erosion. 16. Soil conservation methods that prevent erosion include: cover crops, crop rotation, controlled burning 17. The rock and soil portion of the biosphere is known as the lithosphere. 18. Putting steps into hills or slopes is called terracing. 19. Which of the following is the main cause for lack of food and malnutrition?

A. Poverty B. Vegetarianism C. Lack of skill D. Obesity E. Religion 20. The movement of people from rural areas to cities is called urbanization 21. Rangelands are threatened by overgrazing, which can cause.

A. Biodiversity loss B. Water pollution C. Deforestation D. Erosion E. Expensive meat 22. The expansion of cities into the countryside, including building of suburbs, is known as?

A. Suburbanization B. Emigration C. Urban sprawl D. Ruralization 23. The process of cutting and removing only middle aged or mature trees is selective cutting 24. Which pesticide is famous for polluting the soil and water and then biomagnifying up the food chain to eventually cause the death of many birds, like bald eagles? DDT

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E. Sand

27. Strategies to make cities “greener” or more environmentally-friend include which of the following?

A. Rooftop solar panels for electricity B. Rooftop gardens C. More bikes transportation D. Recycling & compositing centers E. All of the above are strategies for “green cities”

28. What are the three crops on which humanity depends for the majority of its nutrients? Wheat, corn ,& rice 29. Meat consumption has nearly doubled globally over the past 40 years in part due to:

A. Animal rights groups B. Feeding livestock corn, soy & animal products to maximize growth rates C. Better housing conditions for livestock D. Increased vegetarianism and veganism around the world E. Animals being allowed to grow slower to improve body condition

30. What are the three soil particles? Sand, Silt, Clay

25. 17% clay – 25% silt – 58% sand = A. Clay B. Silt C. Sandy Loam D. Clay Loam E. Sand

26. 72% clay – 13% silt – 15% sand =

A. Clay B. Silt C. Sandy Loam D. Clay Loam

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Unit 8 & 9: THE ATMOSPHERE PARTS 1 & 2: Air Pollution, Climate Change & Ozone Loss Review

Matching: Match the term with its definition: 1. ___J________ Atmosphere 2. ___L________ Troposphere 3. ___C________ Primary pollutant 4. ___K________ Secondary pollutant 5. ___F________ Carbon monoxide (CO) 6. ___I________ Volatile organic compound

7. ____A_______ Photochemical oxidants 8. ____B_______ Grasshopper effect 9. ____E_______ Acid precipitation 10. ___G_______ Ozone 11. ___D_______ Greenhouse gases 12. ___H_______ Global climate change

A. Products of atmospheric reactions driven by solar energy; are secondary pollutants B. When volatile compounds evaporate from warm areas, travel through the atmosphere by wind

and condense over cooler areas; leads to pollutants biomagnifying in arctic food chains C. Pollutant put directly into air by human activity, already in harmful form D. Gases in atmosphere that trap heat (such as CO2 and CH4) E. Rain, sleet, or snow with high concentration of sulfuric and nitric acids F. Colorless, odorless gas that is a primary pollutant; interferes with blood’s ability to carry oxygen G. O3; a secondary pollutant of the troposphere H. Changes in precipitation, wind, storm intensities, and average global temperatures over time I. Chemical that vaporizes readily and forms toxic fumes J. Thin layer of gases surrounding earth K. Pollutant that forms when primary pollutants react with each other or naturally-occurring

substances L. Layer of atmosphere closest to earth

14. Acid rain is rain with a pH less than 5.6. The two acids that make rain acidic beyond normal levels are sulfuric and nitric. 15. What pollutant forms when automobile emissions react with oxygen gas and ultraviolet rays? a. ozone b. carbon dioxide c. radon d. sulfur dioxide 16. Which gas makes up 78% of our atmosphere but can be used by plants only when transformed by bacteria nitrogen 17. The layer of atmosphere that we live in and breath is called the troposphere. 18. The greenhouse effect causes Earth to become warmer because

a. CO2 and other greenhouse gas molecules gang up on incoming sunlight. b. CO2 and other greenhouse gas molecules change sunlight into heat. c. CO2 and other greenhouse gas molecules are transparent to incoming sunlight, but they

absorb infrared (heat) radiation. d. CO2 and other greenhouse gas molecules capture X-rays & change them into heat.

19. Carbon dioxide is being blamed for global warming because it is building up in our troposphere and holding in heat. CO2 is increasing in our atmosphere due to burning of fossil fuels. 20. The northern hemisphere is slanted toward the sun in spring and summer, and therefore lots of plants are doing photosynthesis. This decreases (increases or decreases) the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere. 21. A device used to clean exhaust gases before they exit a vehicle’s tailpipe is called a(n): catalytic converter 22. Which of the following processes results in the biomagnification of toxins in the arctic food chain?

a. Global warming b. Hunting c. Grasshopper effect d. Temperature inversions

FYI: We did not cover this

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23. Ozone in the troposphere (layer of atmosphere) is a secondary pollutant, and therefore a bad thing.

24. Ozone in the stratosphere (upper layer of atmosphere) is a good thing because it protects us from UV light. This concentration of ozone here is called the ozone layer. 25. The ozone layer started thinning because of use of CFC’s

26. The most important factor determining a location’s climate is: a. topography b. latitude c. altitude d. ocean currents

27. Water vapor (H20), carbon dioxide (CO2), Nitrous oxide (N2O), and methane (CH4) are all greenhouse gases that trap heat in the atmosphere

28. What are some consequences of global climate change? Name three:

drought

flooding

rising sea levels

30. Primary Pollutants = pollutants put directly into air by human activity, already in harmful form

31.Secondary Pollutants - form when primary pollutants react with each other or naturally-occurring substances

32. Primary pollutants include all of the following EXCEPT: a. carbon monoxide b. sulfur dioxide c. volatile organic compounds d. ozone

33. Which of the following metals is considered a primary air pollutant? a. gold b. aluminum c. lead d. silver e. titanium

34. Indoor air pollutants include: Name two:

mold

cigarette smoke

35. Oxygen constitutes what percentage of our troposphere? a. 2% b. 21% c. 78% d. 99%

36. Normal rain is slightly acidic due to carbon dioxide and water reacting to form this acid: a. Sulfuric b. Carbonic c. Nitric d. Battery

37. The Montreal Protocol was an international treaty that was signed by 146 nations in which they agreed to limit the use and production of chlorofluorocarbons so as to prevent further ozone loss.

38. The Kyoto Protocol was an international treaty signed in which many nations agreed to reduce their carbon emissions so as to prevent further global warming.

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Unit 10: Population Ecology and The Human Review

Matching: Match the term to its definition: 1. ____D______ Logistic growth 2. ____A______ Carrying capacity 3. ____M______ Age structure 4. ____G______ Dispersion 5. ____K______ r-selection species 6. ____E______ K-selected species

7. ___J_______Demographic transition 8. ___B_______ Reproductive potential 9. ___H_______ Growth rate 10. __I_______ Population 11. __L_______ Exponential growth 12. __C_______ Population size

M. The maximum number of individuals an ecosystem can support

N. The maximum number of offspring that an individual can produce

O. The total number of individuals in a population

P. Population growth that starts fasts & then levels off at carrying capacity; s-shaped curve

F. Species that have long generation time, late sexual maturity, and few young

G. The relative distribution of a population’s individuals (random, clumped, or uniform)

H. The change in population size over time

I. All members of the same species living in the same area

J. The distribution of ages in a population

K. Species with a high rate of reproduction to overcome high mortality of offspring

L. Rapid and continuous population growth; j-shaped curve

M. Model that shows effects of economic and social changes on population

13. Populations change size (or change growth rate) when new individuals are added by birth and immigration or when individuals are lost from the population by death or emigration. 14. Give two examples of developed countries: Canada & U.S. 15. Give two examples of developing countries:Nigeria & China 16. A country’s human population growth tends to increase when

A. The country’ s economy is diverse with many industries B. The country’s female population has equal status as the male population C. The country’s age structure is dominated by young individuals D. The country’s government supplies family planning programs

17. Organisms with a high reproductive potential, such as bacteria and insects, have which of the following traits?

A. Reproduce early in life B. Have few offspring

C. Provide lots of parental care D. Reproduce infrequently

18. A recently discovered organism was found that exhibits the following characteristics: late sexual maturity, 1 offspring at a time, long parental care, and long life span. Would you classify this as an r-selected or k-selected organism? K 19. Which of the following is a density-independent factor that limits population growth?

A. Disease B. Limited resources C. Natural disasters D. Competition among individuals 20. Factors that limit population growth are: density dependent factors (related to pop size) and density independent factors (control pop regardless of size)

21. Which type of dispersion pattern helps to reduce intraspecific (within species) competition?

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A. Clumped B. Uniform C. Random

22. Rapidly growing countries have an age structure diagram that: A. forms an inverted pyramid B. has a broad-base pyramid C. Shows little variation in population by age (straight sides and not a pyramid) 23. An example of an r-selected organism is: bacteria. 24. An example of an K-selected organism is: elephant. 25. The study of human populations is called demography. 26. Given the following age structure diagram, which of the following countries could be Country A?

A. United States B. Japan

C. Australia D. India

27. List at least four problems associated with human overpopulation: pollution, shortages of food, water, & energy 28. Countries with higher incomes, diverse economies, low birth rates and slow population growth are known as:

A. Developing countries B. Developed countries

C. Pre-industrial countries D. Stabilized countries

29. The time it takes for a population growing at a specific rate to double in size is known as Doubling Time 30. Which of the following is a factor that affects a country’s population growth?

A. Type of economy B. Status of women C. Cultural beliefs D. All of the above

Country A Country B

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Unit 11: Energy Review

Matching: Match the term to its definition1. _____D______ Electric generator 2. ____ J______ Biomass Ethanol 3. _____A______ Fossil fuel 4. _____G______ Hydroelectric energy 5. _____F______ Fission

6. ____H_______ Biodiesel 7. ____E_______ Fusion 8. _____C______ Petroleum 9. _____B_____ Energy 10. ____I______ Coal

A. Remains of ancient organisms that contain energy-rich carbon-based molecules B. The ability to move matter C. Oil that is pumped from the ground; used in fuels, chemicals & plastics D. Machine that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy E. Formation of a heavy nucleus from two lighter ones (nuclei combine) and energy is

released F. The splitting of nuclei that releases energy G. Energy produced from moving water H. A vegetable oil or animal fat-based diesel fuel I. Solid fossil fuel that comes from remains of ancient plants J. An alcohol fuel made by fermenting the sugars found in grains

11. In terms of energy, Earth is an open system. This means energy flows (flows or cycles?) 12. The Law of Conservation of Energy, states that

F. Energy goes from organized states to disorganized states (entropy) G. No system can reach an absolute zero level of energy H. Energy is created by fusion and loss through use I. Energy is neither created nor destroyed, but transformed from one form to another

13. Coal is derived from ancient swampland land plants, while oil & natural gas are derived from ancient marine organisms. 14. When fossil fuels are used in power plants, they are generally burned to heat water, causing steam to turn a _________________.

A. Shaft B. Turbine C. Wheel D. Switch 15. To start the process of nuclear fission, nuclei in a reactor are hit with neutron, which causes the nuclei to split and releases energy. 16. The three fossil fuels are:

a. oil b.coal c. natural gas 17. The most energy-efficient and readily-available vehicles today are hybrids 18. Government incentives are ways that the government supports energy efficient or environmentally-friendly practices. 19. Solar or photovoltaic cells convert the sun’s energy into electricity. 20. During the process of nuclear fission,

A. A light atom combines with another light atom to create a heavy atom. B. A neutron splits and creates uranium. C. Radioactivity causes the electron of a uranium atom to split in two. D. A neutron splits a uranium atom, forming new elements and releasing several

neutrons, plus energy. 21. Nuclear power plants get energy from:

A. Nuclear fusion B. The release of electrons from a positively charged atom C. The splitting of an atom’s nucleus D. The splitting of neutrons

22. Hydrogen could be used as a fuel source in the future because it a. is abundant. b. is used in fuel cells. c. can be burned as fuel. d. All of the above

23. What is the original source of all energy used by living organisms?

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a. plants b. chlorophyll c. photosynthesis d. the sun 24. How is electricity generated in a coal-fired power plant? a. The heat generated from burning coal turns water into steam, which turns a turbine, thus running the electric generator. b. The coal is burned, which heats the air. The hot air rises and turns the electric generator’s turbine. c. The turbine breaks down the coal into a liquid fuel that powers the electric generator, thus producing an electric current. d. The coal is heated until it vaporizes. The coal vapor is distilled in the combustion chamber, which powers the electric generator. 25. A geothermal power plant can be used to generate electricity a. anywhere in the U.S. b. in areas where deposits of water are heated inside Earth. c. in areas where the ground stays warm throughout the year. d. Both (a) and (c)

Unit 12 Waste

1. NIMBY refers to the opposition for development to occur close to where someone lives

2. municipal solid waste

3. leachate 4. recycling

5. hazardous waste 6. increase in population size, packaging, & one-time use products

7. landfills, incineration, recycling

8. > 11 billion tons

9. air pollution (i.e. dioxin, particulate matter), puts workers at risk

10. A 11. D 12. C 13. Reusing. 14.

T buy things that are reusable, recyclable, or compostable T use e-mail or text messaging in place of paper mail T avoid disposable items such as plastic cups, plates, eating utensils

15. phytoremediation

16. landfills

17. paper

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18. composting

19.

Are made from plants like corn and soybean

Are biodegradable

Need less energy to produce

Would be less harmful to wildlife

20. A sustainable society c. meets the needs and aspirations of the present without compromising those of the future

21. oil- based paints, fluorescent bulbs, pesticides, batteries, engine oil, electronics, nail polish 22. c. Developing countries 23. The notion of environmental justice refers to: c. grassroots activities that monitor environmental conditions and work toward equal distribution of environmental impacts and benefits.

24. E-waste refers to a. discarded consumer electronic products 25. Landfills, incineration, recycling

26. Great Pacific Garbage Patch

27. 80% of the plastic in the Great Pacific Garbage Patch comes from land and 20% comes from the

activities at sea

28. cradle to grave laws 29.

T is capped with soil T has a leachate collection system T has a gas recovery system T has a methane monitoring system T has a polyethelene liner T has a and ground water monitoring system