target prelims 2017 general studies paper - 1 prelims …. pmt-24... · 2017-06-14 · target...

20
TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION 1. Answer (d) Explanation Revenue Receipts includes Tax Revenue and Non-tax revenue. Capital Gains Tax is a Tax revenue whereas Dividends & Profits and Interest Receipts are non-tax revenue. 2. Answer (c) Explanation In budget 2016-17 Union government introduced Krishi Kalyan cess of 0.5% over the service tax and the amount collected used solely towards financing activities for the improvement of agriculture and farmer welfare. It is in addition to the 0.5% of Swatch Bharat Cess already levied over the service tax in the 2015-16 budget. Now effectively service tax is 15% (14%+0.5% Swatch Bharat Cess+ 0.5% Krishi Kalyan Cess). In the same budget the government doubled the clean environment cess on the coal, lignite and peat. So it is levied on both goods as well as services. 3. Answer (c) Explanation An increase in the public spending or a reduction in the level of taxation are performed by the government in order to encourage and support economic growth as part of fiscal package. 4. Answer (d) Explanation Basmati rice cultivated in the Indo-Gangetic Plains on the foothills of the Himalayas covering areas of the rice grown in Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Delhi, Uttarakhand, Western U.P. and two districts of Jammu and Kathua in Jammu and Kashmir has accorded the GI tag. 5. Answer (d) Explanation In its effort to move towards an independent Public Debt Management Agency (PDMA) in about “two years”, the Ministry of Finance has set up a Public Debt Management Cell (PDMC) to help streamline government borrowings and cash management for separation of debt management functions from the Reserve Bank of India. 1 D 11 D 21 B 31 C 41 D 51 D 61 B 71 B 81 B 91 D 2 C 12 D 22 B 32 A 42 C 52 D 62 B 72 C 82 A 92 D 3 C 13 C 23 C 33 D 43 B 53 B 63 D 73 B 83 D 93 C 4 D 14 A 24 D 34 D 44 D 54 B 64 C 74 B 84 D 94 D 5 D 15 B 25 D 35 B 45 B 55 B 65 D 75 C 85 D 95 C 6 A 16 D 26 A 36 C 46 C 56 B 66 A 76 D 86 D 96 A 7 C 17 C 27 D 37 A 47 B 57 C 67 D 77 C 87 C 97 B 8 C 18 C 28 D 38 C 48 C 58 C 68 D 78 D 88 B 98 B 9 B 19 B 29 B 39 D 49 D 59 D 69 B 79 C 89 C 99 B 10 C 20 A 30 C 40 C 50 C 60 A 70 C 80 D 90 D 100 C Date: 13-06-2017

Upload: others

Post on 27-Mar-2020

10 views

Category:

Documents


0 download

TRANSCRIPT

Page 1: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER - 1

PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24

ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

1. Answer (d) Explanation Revenue Receipts includes Tax Revenue and Non-tax revenue. Capital Gains Tax is a Tax revenue whereas Dividends & Profits and Interest Receipts are non-tax revenue.

2. Answer (c) Explanation In budget 2016-17 Union government introduced Krishi Kalyan cess of 0.5% over the service tax and the amount collected used solely towards financing activities for the improvement of agriculture and farmer welfare. It is in addition to the 0.5% of Swatch Bharat Cess already levied over the service tax in the 2015-16 budget. Now effectively service tax is 15% (14%+0.5% Swatch Bharat Cess+ 0.5% Krishi Kalyan Cess).

In the same budget the government doubled the clean environment cess on the coal, lignite and peat. So it is levied on both goods as well as services.

3. Answer (c) Explanation An increase in the public spending or a reduction in the level of taxation are performed by the government in order to encourage and support economic growth as part of fiscal package.

4. Answer (d) Explanation Basmati rice cultivated in the Indo-Gangetic Plains on the foothills of the Himalayas covering areas of the rice grown in Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Delhi, Uttarakhand, Western U.P. and two districts of Jammu and Kathua in Jammu and Kashmir has accorded the GI tag.

5. Answer (d) Explanation In its effort to move towards an independent Public Debt Management Agency (PDMA) in about “two years”, the Ministry of Finance has set up a Public Debt Management Cell (PDMC) to help streamline government borrowings and cash management for separation of debt management functions from the Reserve Bank of India.

1 D 11 D 21 B 31 C 41 D 51 D 61 B 71 B 81 B 91 D

2 C 12 D 22 B 32 A 42 C 52 D 62 B 72 C 82 A 92 D

3 C 13 C 23 C 33 D 43 B 53 B 63 D 73 B 83 D 93 C

4 D 14 A 24 D 34 D 44 D 54 B 64 C 74 B 84 D 94 D

5 D 15 B 25 D 35 B 45 B 55 B 65 D 75 C 85 D 95 C

6 A 16 D 26 A 36 C 46 C 56 B 66 A 76 D 86 D 96 A

7 C 17 C 27 D 37 A 47 B 57 C 67 D 77 C 87 C 97 B

8 C 18 C 28 D 38 C 48 C 58 C 68 D 78 D 88 B 98 B

9 B 19 B 29 B 39 D 49 D 59 D 69 B 79 C 89 C 99 B

10 C 20 A 30 C 40 C 50 C 60 A 70 C 80 D 90 D 100 C

Date: 13-06-2017

Page 2: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

The PDMC, which will have only advisory functions to avoid conflict with statutory functions of the RBI, will plan government borrowings, including market borrowings and domestic borrowing activities like issuance of Sovereign Gold Bond. The PDMC will also manage government’s liabilities, monitor cash balances, improve cash forecasting, foster a liquid and efficient market for government securities along with advising government on matters related to investment, capital market operations, administration of interest rates on small savings, among others. PDMC will develop an Integrated Debt Database System (IDMS) as a centralised database for all liabilities of government, on a near real-time basis and undertake requisite preparatory work for PDMA. PDMC will have 15 experienced debt managers from Budget Division, RBI, Middle Office and other government units. The Middle Office of the Budget Division in the finance ministry has been subsumed into PDMC. Joint secretary (Budget), Department of Economic Affairs will be the overall in-charge of the PDMC, which will be located at the RBI’s Delhi office. The government had, in the Finance Bill, 2015, proposed setting up a public debt management agency. The aim of setting up the Public Debt Management Agency (PDMA) is to resolve issues relating to conflict of interest as RBI decides on the key interest rates as well as undertakes buying and selling of government bonds.

6. Answer (a) Explanation Monetary Policy Committee uses the Consumer Price Index-(combined) based inflation target of 4 per cent with a band of plus/minus 2 percent is to be followed from 2016-17 onwards.

7. Answer (c) Explanation The RBI came up with the SDR scheme in June 2015 to provide an opportunity to banks to convert debt of companies (whose stressed assets were restructured but which could not finally fulfil the conditions attached to such restructuring) to 51 percent equity and sell them to the highest bidders, subject to authorization by existing shareholders. An 18-month period was envisaged for these transactions, during which the loans could be classified as performing. But as of end-December 2016, only two sales had materialized, in part because many firms remained financially unviable, since only a small portion of their debt had been converted to equity. The S4A is RBI’s latest attempt to try and chip away at the mountain of stressed loans smothering Indian banks. The scheme tries to strike a compromise between banks with problem accounts and corporate defaulters of the non-wilful variety, by converting a portion of large loan accounts into equity shares. For a distressed company to be eligible for S4A, the RBI has laid down three conditions. 1. The project must be operating and already generating cash. 2. The total loans to the entity should be ₹500 crore or more. 3. The lending banks are required to hire an independent agency to evaluate how much of the debt is

‘sustainable’. For the loan to be eligible for S4A, at least 50 per cent of it should be ‘sustainable’. While RBI’s earlier ideas to resolve bad loans such as Strategic Debt Restructuring (SDR) required banks to oust existing promoters, S4A allows the incumbent management to continue, as long the default isn’t wilful.

8. Answer (c) Explanation Stratus clouds are layered and cover large portions of sky. They are classified as low clouds. Cirrus clouds are white and thin and form delicate patches and give a fibrous and feathery appearance. They are high clouds composed of ice crystals.

9. Answer (b) Explanation Trade winds blow between 50 and 300 latitudes on both the hemispheres. They are one of the principle reasons for the location of tropical deserts on the western margins of continents.

10. Answer (c) Explanation Climatic type Feature Mediterranean climate : winter rainfall Equatorial climate : double rainfall peaks Monsoon climate : concentrated precipitation

11. Answer (d) Explanation As a result of rapid increase of temperature in May over the north-western plains, the low pressure conditions over there get further intensified. By early June, they are powerful enough to attract the trade winds of Southern Hemisphere coming from the Indian Ocean. These southeast trade winds cross the equator and enter the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea. After crossing the equator, they get deflected towards their right due to Coriolis Effect, and follow a south-westerly direction. That is why summer monsoon winds come from south-western direction in the northern hemisphere and are known as southwest monsoons. Statement (c) The low-pressure conditions in north-west India is a factor controlling the formation of south west monsoon. But it has minimal effect on the direction of southwest monsoon winds.

Page 3: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

12. Answer (d) Explanation Tide generating forces are gravitational force of the Sun, gravitational force of the Moon and centrifugal force of the Earth.

13. Answer (c) Explanation

The character of Padmavati was first mentioned in a 16th century piece of poetry, “Padmavat” written in Awadhi language by the Sufi poet, Malik Muhammad Jayasi. That the poem could be based on historical facts cannot be completely shunned. In fact, some parts of the legend, particularly the part about the ruler Alauddin Khilji invading Chittor, has indeed been authenticated by other historical evidences. However, a quick read of this long piece of literary work reveals a large amount of fantasical elements associated with the story of queen Padmavati and the invasion of Chittorgarh by Alauddin Khilji.

“Padmavat” plot by Malik Muhammad Jayasi

Malik Muhammad Jayasi describes Padmavatis story as follows: Padmavati was an exceptionally beautiful princess of the Singhal kingdom (Sri Lanka). Ratan Sen, the Rajput ruler of Chittor, heard about her beauty from a talking parrot named Hiraman. After an adventurous quest, he married her and brought her to Chittor. Alauddin Khilji, the Sultan of Delhi also heard about her beauty, and attacked Chittor to obtain her. However, the valiant Rajput Queen would rather kill herself than be taken by the Sultan of Delhi. She along with other Rajput women committed jauhar (a custom largely practised by Hindu women in north India of mass self-immolation to avoid capture by invaders).

14. Answer (a) Explanation The death of the great Punjabi leader,Lala Lajpat Rai popularly known as Sher-e-Punjab, was seen by the romantic youthful leadership of the HSRA as a direct challenge. And so, on 17 December 1928, Bhagat Singh, Azad and Rajguru assassinated, at Lahore, Saunders, a police official involved in the lathi charge of Lala Lajpat Rai. The HSRA leadership now decided to let the people know about its changed objectives and the need for a revolution by the masses. Bhagat Singh and B.K. Dutt were asked to throw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly on 8 April 1929 against the passage of the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Disputes Bill which would reduce the civil liberties of citizens in general and workers in particular. The objective was to get arrested and to use the trial court as a forum for propaganda so that people would become familiar with their movement and ideology.

15. Answer (b) Explanation The third phase was characterized by a display of solidarity by people in other parts of the county. Students boycotted classes, hartals and processions were organized to express sympathy with the students and ratings and to condemn official repression. In the RIN revolt, Karachi was a major centre, second only to Bombay. The news reached Karachi on 19 February, upon which the HMIS Hindustan along with one more ship and three shore establishments, went on a lightning strike. Sympathetic token strikes took place in military establishments in Madras. Vishakhapatnam. Calcutta, Delhi, Cochin, Jamnagar, the Andamans, Bahrain and Aden Seventy-eight ships and 20 shore establishments, involving 20,000 ratings, were affected.

16. Answer (d) Explanation The Non-Cooperation Movement had other indirect effects as well. In the Avadh area of U.P., where kisan sabhas and a kisan movement had been gathering strength since 1918, Noncooperation propaganda, carried on among others by Jawaharlal Nehru, helped to fan the already existing ferment, and soon it became difficult to distinguish between a Non-cooperation meeting and a kisan meeting.’ In Malabar in Kerala, Non-cooperation and Khilafat propaganda helped to arouse the Muslims tenants against their landlords, but the movement here, unfortunately, at tunes took on a communal colour.’ In Assam, labourers on tea plantations went on strike. When the fleeing workers were fired upon, there were strikes on the steamer service, and on the Assam-Bengal Railway as well. J.M. Sengupta, the Bengali nationalist leader, played a leading role in these developments. Defiance of forest laws became popular in Andhra. Peasants and tribals in some of the Rajasthan states began movements for securing better conditions of life. In Punjab, the Akali Movement for wresting control of the gurudwaras from the corrupt mahants (priests) was a part of the general movement of Non-cooperation, and the Akalis observed strict non-violence in the face of tremendous repression

17. Answer (c) Explanation ‘Quit India,’ ‘Bharat Choro’. This simple but powerful slogan launched “the legendary struggle which also became famous by the name of the ‘August Revolution.’ the failure of the Cripps Mission in April 1942 was one of the main reasons for the outbreak of Quit India movement. While it is true that Muslim mass participation in the Quit India movement was not high, yet it is also true that even Muslim League supporters not act as informers. Also, there was a total absence of any communal clashes, a sure sign that though the movement may not have

Page 4: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

aroused much support from among the majority of the Muslim masses, it did not arouse their hostility either. Peasants of all strata, well-to-do as well as poor, were the heart of the movement. Peasants, especially in East U.P. and Bihar, Midnapur in Bengal, Satara in Maharashtra, also in other parts including Andhra, Gujarat and ‘Kerala participated. Many small zamindars also participated especially in U.P. and Bihar.

18. Answer (c) Explanation Part IX A of the Indian Constitution contains detailed provisions for the administration of Urban Local Bodies. Some of the provisions are similar to those contained in Part IX, Eg. Reservation of Seats, Finance Commission, Election Commission etc. This part gives birth to two type of bodies:

• Institutions of self-government [Art. 243Q] – Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council and Municipal Corporation.

• Institutions of planning [Art. 243ZX and 243ZE] - Committee for Metropolitan planning and Committee for district planning

According to Article 243 T, not less than one-third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Municipality shall be reserved for women. It will be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in a Municipality. It also provides that the offices of Chairpersons in the Municipalities shall be reserved for the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and women in such manner as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide. However, please note that all the states have not implemented the women’s reservation in Municipalities. Nagaland did not reserve seats for women because Tribal groups in Nagaland alleges that the reservation for women is against their customary practice. Naga legislature is empowered to decide on the matter under Article 371A.

19. Answer (b) Explanation 98th Constitutional Amendment Act inserted Article 371 J which empower the Governor of Karnataka to take steps to develop the Hyderabad-Karnataka Region. It provides for establishing a separate development board and equitable allocation of funds for development of the region. Apart from this, it will provide quota in public employment through local cadres and reservation in education and vocational training institutions for those who belong to the region by birth or by domicile. Special Status has been granted considering the backwardness of the region rather than for the protection of tribal population.

20. Answer (a) Explanation Indian Secularism differs from the western conception of secularism. Indian conception of secularism does not subscribe to strict separation of state and religion. Instead, equal respect and protection of religion is granted through Constitution. For instance, the government sponsoring Hajj pilgrimage in every year. Four Important features of Indian secularism are

• Religious freedom – It is guaranteed through Article 25 as a fundamental right

• Equality respect and protection of religion – It is implicit in Article 14 and 15, that guarantee equal treatment of citizen regardless of the religion.

• State does not declare any one religion as state religion – implicit in the above article

• Minority Rights – it is guaranteed through Article 29 and Article 30. Indian secularism is a unique feature of Indian Constitution and evolved in response to specific historic conditions.

21. Answer (b) Explanation Some of the Fundamental Rights need no legislation to make them enforceable, e.g. Articles 14, 19 and 21 etc. But there are certain rights in Part III which are imperfect and need further legislation to complete them and make them enforceable. Such rights are

• Article 17 (where untouchability is to be made punishable by law)

• Article 21A (to provide education in such manner as the State may, by law, determine)

• Article 23 (where traffic in human being is to be made an offence by law)

• Article 24 (child labour) Untouchability is prohibited through Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955. Right to Education is enforced through Right to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009. Human Trafficking is prohibited by Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 and Child Labour is prevented through the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986. The laws giving effect to these fundamental rights can only be passed by the Parliament and not by State Legislature.

22. Answer (b) Explanation When a Presidential rule is imposed under Article 356, the Council of Ministers of State is necessarily dismissed and President assume to himself all the executive functions and powers of the Governor. The State legislative assembly is suspended or dismissed; therefore the State Legislature is dysfunctional. The

Page 5: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

legislative power of the State Legislature is exercised by the Parliament or by the President as the case may be. There is no effect on the financial relations and the Fundamental Rights.

23. Answer (c) Explanation The differences or variations are referred to as diversity. Usually three levels of biodiversity are discussed—genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity. Biodiversity commonly deals with the number, variety and variability of living organisms, of genetic material, of community and of an ecosystem. This includes diversity within species (genetic diversity), between species (organismal/species diversity) and ecosystem or community (ecological diversity).

24. Answer (d) Explanation Project Tiger was launched by the Government of India in the year 1973 to save the threatened species of tiger in the country. Project Tiger is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of Government of India which was launched on the 1st of April, 1973 for in-situ conservation of wild tigers in designated tiger reserves. First Tiger Reserve established in India is Jim Corbett National Park. There are 50 tiger reserves in India, which are governed by Project Tiger which is administrated by the National Tiger Conservation Authority. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body of the Ministry, with an overarching supervisory / coordination role, performing functions as provided in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The role of Project Tiger / NTCA is to provide technical guidance and funding support. A ban has been imposed on hunting of tigers and trading in tiger products at the national and international levels. The State Government on recommendation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority notify an area as a Tiger reserve. The tiger reserve is divided in to core and buffer zone. Project Tiger is being implemented in the States in collaboration with the respective State Governments. The strategy adopted for tiger conservation in Project Tiger involves exclusive tiger agenda in the core/critical tiger habitat, inclusive people-wildlife agenda in the outer buffer, besides fostering the latter agenda in the corridors. This strategy / roadmap is reflected in a tiger reserve specific Tiger Conservation Plan for each reserve prepared under section 38V of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

25. Answer (d) Explanation 1. Corbett is a Tiger Reserve in Uttarakhand 2. Simlipal is a Tiger Reserve in Odisha 3. Sariska is a Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan 4. Periyar is a Tiger Reserve in Kerala

26. Answer (a) Explanation An ecological niche is the role and position a species has in its environment (ecosystem); how it meets its needs for food and shelter, how it survives, and how it reproduces. A species niche includes all of its interactions with the biotic and abiotic factors of its environment. The description of a niche may include descriptions of the organism's life history, habitat, and place in the food chain. More formally, the niche includes how a population responds to the abundance of its resources and enemies. The abiotic or physical environment is also part of the niche because it influences how populations affect, and are affected by, resources and enemies.

27. Answer: (d) Explanation CONVENTION ON BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY This agreement, adopted at the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, is part of a comprehensive strategy for sustainable development that is, meeting the needs of the current generation of human beings while ensuring a healthy and viable world for future generations. The convention sets three main goals: conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of plant and animal species, and equitable sharing of benefits from the use of genetic resources. COP 10 was held at Aichi precinct district of Nagoya, Japan. By this meeting Nagoya protocol on Genetic Resources and the Aichi Targets for Genetic Resources were originated. Aichi Targets is a short term plan, a ten-year framework for action by all countries to save biodiversity, and is officially known as Strategic Plan for Biodiversity 2011-2020. It provides 20 ambitious yet achievable targets collectively known as Aichi Targets. These 20 targets are divided into 5 sections. COP 11 held on Oct 2012 in Hyderabad, India declared the current decade as the United Nations Decade on Biodiversity and United Nations Decade for Deserts and the Fight against Desertification. CARTAGENA PROTOCOL ON BIOSAFETY The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (CPB), the first international regulatory framework for safe transfer, handling and use of Living Modified Organisms (LMOs) was negotiated under the aegis of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). The objective of the Protocol is to contribute to ensuring an adequate level of protection in the field of the safe transfer, handling and use of LMOs resulting from modern biotechnology that may have adverse effects on the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity, taking also into account risks to human health, and specifically focusing on transboundary movements. The Protocol promotes biosafety by establishing rules and procedures for the safe transfer, handling, and use of LMOs.

Page 6: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

NAGOYA PROTOCOL ON ACCESS AND BENEFIT SHARING (ABS) The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS) to the Convention on Biological Diversity is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity. It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three objectives of the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources. The Nagoya Protocol on ABS was adopted on 29 October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan and entered into force on 12 October 2014, 90 days after the deposit of the fiftieth instrument of ratification. Its objective is the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources, thereby contributing to the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity.

28. Answer (d) Explanation ‘Akashvani Maitree’ Channel is a unique venture of All India Radio and is aimed at strengthening ties between India and Bangladesh. The Channel's uniqueness lies in sharing of content between Bangladesh Betar (State-owned radio broadcasting organisation of Bangladesh) and Akashvani Maitree. It will be a common platform for participatory content creation. Akashvani Maitree and its multimedia website is an initiative of All India Radio not only for the Bengali listeners in West Bengal, Bangladesh and the adjoining areas but the entire Bengali speaking Diaspora living in different parts of the globe.

29. Answer (b) Explanation Established in 1951, IOM is the leading inter-governmental organization in the field of migration and works closely with governmental, intergovernmental and non-governmental partners. Founded in the wake of the World War II to resettle refugees from Europe, the organisation celebrated its 65th anniversary in December 2016. The UN General Assembly recently, unanimously adopted a resolution approving an agreement to make the International Organisation for Migration part of the UN as a related organisation. IOM was granted Permanent Observer status to the UN General Assembly in 1992, and a cooperation agreement between IOM and the UN was signed in 1996. India is a member of IOM. It has 166 Member States and 8 Observer States.

30. Answer (c) Explanation Operation Sankat Mochan was an operation of the Indian Air Force to evacuate Indian citizens from South Sudan during the South Sudanese Civil War.

31. Answer (c) Explanation The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is an intergovernmental organization composed of China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, India and Pakistan founded in Shanghai in 2001. Originally organized as the Shanghai Five in 1996, the organization added Uzbekistan in 2001 and renamed itself the Shanghai Cooperation Organization. Since its independence, Turkmenistan has adhered to the principles of ‘positive neutrality’ in its foreign policy. The positive permanent neutrality, non-interference into internal affairs of other states, non-alignment with any military blocks and groupings and other international obligations envisaged in the country’s Constitution are the basis of Turkmenistan’s relations with all world states. Due to its policy of 'positive neutrality', Turkmenistan did not join the SCO.

32. Answer (a) Explanation BharatQR is an interoperable payment acceptance solution. This means that merchants need to display only one QR code instead of multiple ones for different payment platforms. It has been jointly developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), Mastercard, and Visa. In case of retail payments, BharatQR eliminates the need of a Point of Sale (PoS, or card swipe) machine for carrying out electronic transaction.

33. Answer (d) Explanation 1. Income Declaration Scheme 2016 came into effect from 1 June, 2016. It's an opportunity for those who didn't disclose income or pay taxes thereon in the past. 2. Under this scheme, such persons can declare the undisclosed income and pay tax, surcharge and penalty on the declared undisclosed income. 3. Declaration of undisclosed income or asset should have been chargeable to tax for any assessment year prior to the assessment year 2017-18. 4. The person making a declaration under the scheme will have to pay income tax at the rate of 30% of the value of undisclosed income plus a surcharge of 25% thereon. 5. Additionally, the person will be liable to pay a penalty at the rate of 25% of the tax, which would make the total payment 45% of the undisclosed income. 6. The Centre has declared 30 September as the last date for making a declaration and 30 November as the date by which the tax, surcharge and penalty may be paid.

34. Answer (d) Explanation

Page 7: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

The Department of Disinvestment was set up as a separate Department on 10th December, 1999 and was later renamed as Ministry of Disinvestment form 6th September, 2001. From 27th May, 2004, the Department of Disinvestment is one of the Departments under the Ministry of Finance. The Department of Disinvestment has been renamed as Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) from 14th April, 2016. Ahead of Union Budget for 2017-18, the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) stripped off its mandate to frame policy on the utilisation of disinvestment proceeds. Instead, the Department of Economic Affairs in the Finance Ministry will now create “financial policy in regard to the utilisation of the proceeds of disinvestment channelised into the National Investment Fund,” as per a notification dated January 16, changing the Allocation of Business, signed by President Pranab Mukherjee. In addition, the role of DIPAM in strategic sales was handed over to the core group of secretaries on disinvestment headed by the Cabinet Secretary. For the first time, NITI Aayog was mandated to advice and identify the CPSEs for strategic sale to the core group of secretaries. The Centre had created a National Investment Fund in 2005 into which the proceeds from disinvestment of Central Public Sector Enterprises were to be channelised. CPSEs are firms where the direct holding of the government or other CPSEs is at least 51%.

35. Answer (b) Explanation Since infrastructure investments require long term patient capital, the Government announced the setting up of National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF), as a quasi-sovereign wealth fund in the Union Budget 2015-16. The corpus of the Fund is proposed to be of the order of Rs.40,000 cr (US$6 billion) wherein the Government of India would invest 49%, Rs.20,000 cr (US$3 billion). NIIF is expected play the role of a catalyst for supporting investments in infrastructure with the objective of maximizing economic impact through investments in commercially viable projects, both greenfield and brownfield, including stalled projects. NIIF shall also consider other nationally important projects, if found commercially viable. NIIF will raise third party capital for the remaining Rs.20,000 crore (US$ 3 billion), from long term international investors, such as a Sovereign Wealth Funds, Insurance and Pension Funds, endowments etc. National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is formed as a trust (set up under the provisions of Indian Trusts Act 1882) created by the Government of India. NIIF is registered with Securities and Exchange Board of India ("SEBI") as a Category II Alternate Investment Fund ("AIF") under the SEBI (Alternative Investments Funds) Regulations, 2012 ("AIF Regulations"). The fund has been set up as a fund of funds structure with an aim to generate risk adjusted returns for its investors alongside promoting infrastructure development and technology in the country by means of investments. National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Trustee Ltd. ("NIIF Trustee Ltd."), a 100% Government of India owned company is the trustee to NIIF. National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Ltd. ("NIIF Ltd.") is the investment manager to NIIF, in which 51% stake shall be offered to investors other than the Government of India, and balance 49% stake shall remain with Government of India. NIIF Ltd would be managed by an independent team of professionals sourced from the market with relevant experience.

36. Answer (c) Explanation Warm ocean currents transport warm waters of the tropical zones to the colder areas of the temperate and polar zones and cold currents bring cold waters of high latitudes to the areas of low latitudes. Ocean currents help in the distribution of temperature of ocean water and thus help in maintaining the horizontal heat balance of the earth because they transfer additional heat of low latitudes (area of surplus heat) to high latitudes (area of deficient heat). The mixing of warm and cold currents helps to replenish the oxygen and favour the growth of planktons, the primary food for fish population. Thus, the best fishing grounds of the world exist mainly in these mixing zones.

37. Answer (a) Explanation The vertical pressure gradient force is much larger than that of the horizontal pressure gradient. But, it is generally balanced by a nearly equal but opposite gravitational force. Hence, we do not experience strong upward winds.

38. Answer (c) Explanation ➢ Winter solstice - Mid-day sun will be overhead at tropic of Capricorn on December 22nd. - South pole experiences 24 hours of daylight. - North pole experiences 24 hours of darkness ➢ Summer solstice

- Mid-day sun will be overhead at tropic of Cancer on June 21st. - North pole experiences 24 hours of daylight.

- South pole experiences 24 hours of darkness

39. Answer (d)

Page 8: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

Explanation Gases that trap heat and thus contribute to warming up of the atmosphere are called greenhouse gases. Some of the important greenhouse gasses are: - water vapour, carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O) and ozone, they occur naturally in atmosphere. Other GHGs mainly halogenated gases such as CFC, PFC, HFC etc. are synthetic chemicals that are emitted because of human activity.

40. Answer (c) Explanation Black Carbon is emitted directly into the atmosphere in the form of fine particles (PM2.5).and is formed by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels, and biomass. BC is the most effective form of PM, by mass, at absorbing solar energy. BC is a major component of “soot”, a complex light-absorbing mixture that also contains some organic carbon (OC). Black carbon warms the Earth by absorbing sunlight and heating the atmosphere, and by reducing albedo when deposited on snow and ice (direct effects) and indirectly by interaction with clouds. Black carbon stays in the atmosphere for only several days to weeks, whereas carbon dioxide has an atmospheric lifetime of more than 100 years. It has a warming impact on climate 460-1500 times stronger than CO2. Its lifetime varies from a few days to a few weeks. When deposited on ice and snow, black carbon causes both atmospheric warming and an increase of melting rate.

41. Answer (d) Explanation Rakhigarhi in Hissar, Haryana is now considered as the largest site of Indus Valley civilisation. The archaeological excavations at Rakhigarhi revealed all the definite features of Indus civilization such as potter's kiln, an elaborate drainage system, a granary, ritualistic platforms and terracotta figurines.

SITE LOCATION RIVER MAJOR FINDINGS

1 Harappa Ram Sahini (1921-1923)

Punjab province, Pakistan

Ravi Gateway city, fortified wall, workmen’s quarter, granaries, sandstone statues, coffin burial etc

2 Mohenjodaro R.DBanerji (1922)

Sindh Pakistan Indus

Great Bath, Great Granary, Collegiate Building and Assembly Hall. A steatite male head, the bronze dancing girl and complex toys. Piece of woven cotton. pashupati seal

3 Kalibangan Amalnand Ghosh

Hanumangarh Rajasthan

Ghaggar Fire althars, camel bones, Mud-brick fortification, discovery of a plough field,

4 Koti-Diji (Pre-Harappan)

Sindh Indus Statue of mother goddess and bull

5 Chanhu-Daro Sindh Indus Brick or Stone fortification, multiple factories, inkpot

8 Banwali Hissar Haryana Saraswati Pre Harappan and Harappan sites; remain of streets and drains; traces of barley. Terracotta plough

10 Suktagendor(Baluchistan)

Pakistan Dast Trade point between Harappa and Babylon; situated on natural rock; western most site.

11 Lothal Ahemedabad Gujarat Bhogwa A coastal site, dockyard built with brick, rice husk, evidence of cotton, bead factory, Iranian Seal,

12 Surkotada Gujarat Rann of Kutch

Flourishing urban centres, bead industry, fossil remains of horse.

13 Rakhigarhi Haryana Saraswati -

14 Dholavira Gujarat Rann of Kutch

Several cultural stages; three parts of city, unique water management, largest Harappan inscription, use of fire-altars.

42. Answer (c)

Explanation Sufism was a liberal reform movement within Islam. It had its origin in Persia and spread into India in the eleventh century.Mughal Empire was founded in India in 1526. According to Sufism, one must have the guidance of a pir or guru, without which spiritual development is impossible. Sufism also inculcated a spirit of tolerance among its followers. Other ideas emphasized by Sufism are meditation, good actions, repentance for sins, performance of prayers and pilgrimages, fasting, charity and suppression of passions.

43. Answer (b) Explanation Unlike the Nagara Temple, the Dravida temple is enclosed within a compound wall. The front wall has an entrance gateway in its centre, which is known as a gopuram. The shape of the main temple tower known as vimana in Tamil Nadu is like a stepped pyramid that rises up geometrically rather than the curving shikhara of North India. In the South Indian temple, the word ‘shikhara’ is used only for the crowning element at the top of the temple

Page 9: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

which is usually shaped like a small stupika or an octagonal cupola— this is equivalent to the amlak and kalasha of North Indian temples. Whereas at the entrance to the North Indian temple’s garbhagriha, it would be usual to find images such as mithunas and the river goddesses, Ganga and Yamuna, in the south you will generally find sculptures of fierce dvarapalas or the door-keepers guarding the temple. It is common to find a large water reservoir, or a temple tank enclosed within the complex.

44. Answer (d) Explanation Gandhi said that Politically, swaraj meant self-government and it means a continuous effort to be independent of government control whether foreign or national. In other words, sovereignty of the people based on pure moral authority. Swaraj is the abandonment of the fear of death. A nation which allows itself to be influenced by the fear of death cannot attain Swaraj, and cannot retain it if some-how attained. It will be the fruit of patience, perseverance, ceaseless toil, courage and intelligent appreciation of the environment.

45. Answer (b) Explanation The santhal uprising was triggered by the disruption of their traditional agrarian system and relation with their land. The Permanent settlement was introduced in Bengal Bihar and Orissa not Mahalwari. The permanent settlement disrupted the traditional agrarian system of the Santhal. The Santhal insurrection was helped by a large number of non-tribal and poor dikus. Gwalas (milkmen) and others helped the rebels with provisions and services; lohars (blacksmiths) accompanied the rebel bands, keeping their weapons in good shape. The British took repressive measures, arrested the Santhal leaders and quelled the rebellion. The Rebellion was pacified with the creation of a separate district consisting of the Santhal Parganas.

46. Answer (c) Explanation Only the Chief Election Commissioner is removed from the office in the same manner and on the same ground as a judge of Supreme Court. Not all members are removed in the same manner State Election Commissions are responsible to organize local self-government elections, not the Election Commission of India Disqualification of MPs on ground of defection is decided by the Presiding Officer of respective houses.

47. Answer (b) Explanation The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was set up in March 2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005. NCPCR is a statutory body under the CPCR Act,2005 under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development. The Commission's Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programs, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child. The Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age group. One of the functions of the commission is to inquire into complaints and take suo motu notice of matters relating to deprivation and violation of child right.

48. Answer (c) Explanation The basic structure doctrine is an Indian judicial principle that the Constitution of India has certain basic features that cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by the Parliament.

49. Answer (d) Explanation

• Legislative Department is under Ministry of Law and Justice

• Department of Official Languages is under Ministry of Home

• Department of Pharmaceuticals is under Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers

50. Answer (c) Explanation The similarities between Chief Secretary and Cabinet Secretary are: (a) Both are chief coordinators of their respective administrations. (b) Both are chief advisors to their respective Chief Executives. (c) Both are heads of their respective civil services boards. (d) Both are administrative heads to their respective secretariats. (e) Both supervise the implementation of the decisions of the respective cabinets. The differences between the Chief Secretary and Cabinet Secretary are:

• All those functions which are not specifically allotted to any other Secretary or Additional Chief Secretary, fall within Chief Secretary’s direct functional jurisdiction. But at the Central level, Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister has the Residual powers.

• The Cabinet Secretary is primus inter pares (first among equals) among the Secretaries, but the Chief Secretary is the head of all Secretaries (including Additional Chief Secretaries and Principal Secretaries).

Page 10: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

• The Cabinet Secretary has no ministerial or departmental responsibilities, while a Chief Secretary may be the administrative head of a few departments like Planning, Personnel etc.

• As per the emergent conventions, the Cabinet Secretary has a fixed tenure of minimum two years, but such stipulation is not applicable in the case of the Chief Secretary.

• The powers and functions of the Chief Secretary are wider and more intense than those of the Cabinet Secretary.

51. Answer (d) Explanation Tributary River Main River 1. Hemavati : Cauvery 2. Wainganga : Godavari 3. Amaravati : Cauvery

52. Answer (d) Explanation TROPICAL EVERGREEN RAIN FOREST/ EQUATORIAL FOREST. These forests are found in warm and humid areas. They are having a heavy rainy season, the annual precipitation is above 200 cm and the average temperature is about 20-250C. Normally, it extends between 100N and 100S latitude. While covering less than 6 percent of Earth's land surface, rain forests are home to more than 50 percent of the world's plant and animal species. There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, so they are appearing green all the year round. The topsoil of tropical rainforest is heavily leached due to the rain and so poor in nutrients. Due to this regeneration of the tree cover is difficult when it is cleared. Because of these poor nutrients (in the surface), rainforest trees have very shallow roots to get more nutrients and they are having buttressed trunks to support. The tropical evergreen forests are well stratified. They are having a multi-layered continuous canopy; growing in layers; 5 layers. The stratification results from competition between species for favourable locations for the sunlight. Tropical evergreen rain forest biome accounts for the largest number of plant species.

53. Answer (b) Explanation 1. Sathyamangalam : Tamil Nadu 2. Lakhari Valley : Odisha 3. Mahananda : West Bengal

54. Answer (b) Explanation Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade: The text of the Rotterdam Convention was adopted on 10 September 1998 by a Conference of Plenipotentiaries in Rotterdam, the Netherlands. The Convention entered into force on 24 February 2004. The objectives of the Convention are: o to promote shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among Parties in the international trade of certain

hazardous chemicals in order to protect human health and the environment from potential harm; o to contribute to the environmentally sound use of those hazardous chemicals, by facilitating information

exchange about their characteristics, by providing for a national decision-making process on their import and export and by disseminating these decisions to Parties.

The Convention creates legally binding obligations for the implementation of the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure. It built on the voluntary PIC procedure, initiated by UNEP and FAO in 1989 and ceased on 24 February 2006. The Convention covers pesticides and industrial chemicals that have been banned or severely restricted for health or environmental reasons by Parties and which have been notified by Parties for inclusion in the PIC procedure. The convention promotes open exchange of information and calls on exporters of hazardous chemicals to use proper labeling, include directions on safe handling, and inform purchasers of any known restrictions or bans.

55. Answer (b)

Page 11: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

Explanation 56. Answer (b)

Explanation The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojan was launched on 1st May, 2016. It is aimed at providing 5 Crore LPG connections in the name of women in BPL (Below Poverty Line) households across the country. It aims to reduce the serious health hazards associated with cooking based on fossil fuel. The scheme is also for reducing the number of deaths in India due to unclean cooking fuel. The scheme will be implemented by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas (first time in the history). This Scheme would be implemented over three years, namely, the FY 2016-17, 2017-18 and 2018-19.

57. Answer (c) Explanation Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY- Housing for all) was launched in June 2015. The Government envisages building affordable pucca houses with water facility, sanitation and electricity supply round-the-clock. Option (a) is the objective of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM). Option (b) is the objective of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY). Option (d) is the purpose of Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) scheme.

58. Answer (c) Explanation National Mission for Empowerment of Women (NMEW) / Mission Poorna Shakti are an initiative of the Government of India, for empowering women holistically. It is conceived as an umbrella mission with a mandate to strengthen inter-sectoral convergence and facilitate the process of coordinating all the women’s welfare and socio economic development programmes across ministries and departments. It aims to set up Poorna Shakti Kendra (PSK) at every village.

59. Answer (d) Explanation Near money is an economics term describing non-cash assets that are highly liquid, such as bank deposits, certificates of deposit (CDs) and Treasury Bills. Near money refers to assets that can be quickly converted into cash. Also called quasi-money.

60. Answer (a) Explanation The APA Scheme was introduced in the Income-tax Act in 2012 and the “Rollback” provisions were introduced in 2014. The scheme endeavours to provide certainty to taxpayers in the domain of transfer pricing by specifying the methods of pricing and setting the prices of international transactions in advance. Since its inception, the APA scheme has evinced a lot of interest from taxpayers and that has resulted in more than 700 applications (both unilateral and bilateral) being filed so far in about five years.

The progress of the APA Scheme strengthens the Government’s resolve of fostering a non-adversarial tax regime. The Indian APA programme has been appreciated nationally and internationally for being able to address complex transfer pricing issues in a fair and transparent manner.

61. Answer (b) Explanation 51% FDI in multi brand retail is done under the approval route.

62. Answer (b) Explanation With respect to National Income in India, these are the changes in the respective sector 1. The share of manufacturing sector has increased

2. The share of services sector has increased sharply.

3. The share of agriculture has declined

63. Answer (d) Explanation MAJOR PLATES (i) Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic Plate. (ii) North American (with western Atlantic floor separated from the South American plate along the Caribbean

islands) plate. (iii) South American (with western Atlantic floor separated from the North American plate along the Caribbean

islands) plate. (iv) Pacific plate. (v) India-Australia-New Zealand plate. (vi) Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor plate. (vii) Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate. IMPORTANT MINOR PLATES (i) Cocos plate: Between Central America and Pacific plate

Page 12: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

(ii) Nazca plate: Between South America and Pacific plate. (iii) Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass. (iv) Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate. (v) Caroline plate: Between the Philippine and Indian plate (North of New Guinea). (vi) Fuji plate: North-east of Australia.

64. Answer (c) Explanation

65. Answer (d)

Explanation The rivers of the Western Ghats forms deltas, eg: Cauvery, Krishna, etc. Owing to heavy rainfall and steep slopes, landslides occur in Western Ghats.

66. Answer (a) Explanation When the sun, the moon and the earth are in a straight line, the height of the tide will be higher. These are called spring tides and they occur twice a month, one on full moon period and another during new moon Period.

67. Answer (d) Explanation Indian standard Meridian passes through UP, MP, Chhattisgarh, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh.

68. Answer (d) Explanation LUCKNOW SESSION OF 1916 AND LUCKNOW PACT

Page 13: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

The 31st Session of the Congress was held at Lucknow in 1916. It was presided over by the Ambica Charan Majumdar who was a prominent lawyer and was actively associated with the Congress since its birth. After a lapse of about 10 years both the Moderates and Extremists were united again which was a good sign for the national movement. In this session the Congress and the Muslim League came closer to each other and they signed the historic Lucknow Pact. A joint Reform Scheme was sent to the Viceroy.

They decided to make a united demand for self-government. They were to join their hands in asking the Government that a majority of the members of the Legislative Councils to be elected. They were to ask the Government that the Legislative Councils be invested with wider powers than before. They would make a common demand that at least half the seats in the Viceroy's Executive Council be filled with Indians. Thus this session of 1916 cemented the friendship between the Congress and the Muslim League and promoted goodwill between the Hindus and the Muslims. Resolution condemning the Arms Act and Press Act were passed which had virtually reduced the people and the press to a condition of absolute helplessness.

69. Answer (b) Explanation THE ILBERT BILL CONTROVERSY Prior to Lord Ripon’s Viceroyalty, a European could not be tried for a criminal offence except by a European Judge or magistrate. The law of their land thus made discrimination between the Indians and European Magistrates. It was abnormal to empower a European Deputy Magistrate to try a European offender while his superior, the Indian District Magistrate was deprived of such a power. Lord Ripon did not like to perpetuate this oddity. Sir C.P. Ilbert, the Law Member of the Executive Council of Lord Ripon, introduced a Bill aiming at the removal of this discrimination which was contrary to the basic principles of the Rule of Law. The Bill invited a wild controversy. A wild unprecedented agitation was launched by the Europeans and Anglo-Indians. They collected over a lakh and half of rupees to carry on a struggle against the Bill. The Anglo-Indian community announced a social boycott of Lord Ripon and his Executive Council. They stopped attending the entertainments at the Government House and openly denounced Lord Ripon’s regime. They condemned Indian Judges as unfit for administering justice to a white man even if he was an accused. The Government of India was cowed down. It had to bow before this mass agitation of the Whites and the Anglo-Indians. The proposed progressive legislation was withdrawn. This episode, however, was an eye- opener for the Indians who realized that they would have to face humiliation until they were freed from the clutches of the alien imperialists. They were convinced that justice was apt to remain at stake whenever the privileges and vested rights of the ruling race were in question. The utter helplessness of the British Government in the face of an organized agitation of the Anglo-Indians established the fact that an organized agitation was the only effective means to make the government listen to their demands.

70. Answer (c) Explanation Dandi March: On the historic day of 12th March, 1930, Gandhi inaugurated ‘The Civil Disobedience Movement’ by conducting the historic Dandi Salt March, by breaking the Salt Laws imposed by the British Government. Once the way was cleared by Gandhi’s ritual at Dandi, defiance of the salt laws started all over the country. In Tamil Nadu, C. Rajagopalachari led a march from Tiruchirapally to Vedaranniyam. In Malabar, K. Kelappan led a march from Calicut to Poyannur. In Assam, satyagrahis walked from Sylhet to Noakhali (Bengal) to make salt.

MAHARASHTRA, KARNATAKA, CENTRAL PROVINCES: These areas saw defiance of forest laws such as grazing and timber restrictions and public sale of illegally acquired forest produce.

DHARASANA SATYAGRAHA: On May 21, 1930, Sarojini Naidu, Imam Sahib and Manilal (Gandhi’s son) took up the unfinished task of leading a raid on Dharsana Salt Works. The unarmed and peaceful crowd was met with a brutal lathicharge which left 2 dead and 320 injured. This new form of salt Satyagraha was eagerly adopted by people in Wadala (Bombay), Karnataka (Sanikatta Salt Works), Andhra, Midnapore, Balasore, Puri and Cuttack.

71. Answer (b) Explanation Indian (National) Social Conference was founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao. It was virtually the social reform cell of the Indian National Congress. Its first session was held in Madras in December 1887. The Conference met annually as a subsidiary convention of the Indian National Congress, at the same venue, and focused attention on social reform. Pandita Ramabai from Maharashtra, a renowned social reformer, fought for the rights of women and spoke against the practice of child marriage. She promoted girls education and started the Arya Mahila Samaj in1881, in Pune, to improve the condition of women, especially child widows. Keshab Chandhra Sen Joined the Samaj in 1857 and became the right hand man of Debendranath.Later development of differences occurred between the older and conservative section led by Debendranath and the younger and progressive section led by Sen over the issues of social reforms (particularly the caste system) and of the relationship between Hinduism and Brahamoism (while the latter group stood for the

Page 14: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

complete abolition of the caste system and maintained that Brahamoism is different from Hinduism, the former group wanted to retain caste system, though criticising its rigidity, and asserted that Brahamoism is Hinduism) Sen’s group got separated from the parent body (which had come to be known as the Adi Brahmo Samaj) and formation of a new organisation, known as the Brahmo Samaj of India, in 1866. Theosophical Society was founded in New York (USA) in 1875 by Madam H.P. Blavatsky and H.S. Olcott

72. Answer (c) Explanation THE INDIAN COUNCILS ACT OF 1909 The Act provided for the expansion of the Legislative Councils at both the levels, central as well as provincial. It maintained the majority of official members in the Central Legislative Council. There were four categories of members i.e. ex-officio members, nominated officials, nominated non-officials and elected members. It provided for non-official majority in the Provincial Legislatures but then, the combined strength of official and nominated non-official members out-numbered the elected members. INDIAN TO VICEROY’S EXECUTIVE COUNCIL

A provision for appointment of an Indian to Viceroy’s executive council was made for the first time. Satyendra Prakash Sinha became the first Indian appointed to the viceroy’s executive council and he was given law portfolio.

73. Answer (b) Explanation US follows a Presidential system in which the executive, that is head of the government, is elected directly from people. He is not part of the legislature. Whereas in India, Prime Minister leads the executive branch of the government and part of the legislature. Both countries have a bicameral system of legislature. Also note that Indian Parliament India has a bicameral Parliament made of President, Rajya Sabha (Upper House / Council of States) and Lok Sabha (Lower House / House of People).

74. Answer (b) Explanation Independence and impartiality are the two important attributes of the office of the Speaker. The Speaker is politically neutral. However, he need not resign from the party he belongs to. Speaker appoints the chairman of all the Parliamentary committees of Lok Sabha and supervise its functions. He himself is the chairman of Business advisory Committee, Rules Committee and General Purpose Committee.

75. Answer (c) Explanation As of today, seven states in India have Legislative Councils. These are Jammu and Kashmir, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Proposals to create Legislative Councils in Rajasthan and Assam are pending in Parliament. Under Article 169 of the Constitution, Parliament may by law create or abolish the second chamber in a state if the Legislative Assembly of that state passes a resolution to that effect by a special majority, followed by an act of Parliament.

76. Answer (d) Explanation Chief Justice of India or in his absence the senior most judge of the Supreme Court administer oath to the President. Also, if the President and Vice President post become vacant, Chief Justice of India discharge president’s functions until a new President is elected. In 1969 when on the death of Dr. Zakir Hussain, the Vice President V V Giri resigned and the Chief Justice Hidyatullah discharged the functions of president for a brief period of time. In Presidential oath, he swears:

• To faithfully execute the office. (discharge the functions of the President)

• To preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law.

• To devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of India.

77. Answer (c) Explanation Article 39A, part of DPSP, direct the state to promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid for the poor. It is to be achieved by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disability. Thus, The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free legal services to the weaker sections of the society and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. It settles disputes through conciliation and compromise.

78. Answer (d) Explanation “Ancient and historical monuments and records, and archaeological sites and remains, declared by or under law made by Parliament to be of national importance” is an item under union list in the Seventh Schedule.

Page 15: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

79. Answer (c) Explanation For a given region, carrying capacity is the maximum number of individuals of a given species that an area's resources can sustain indefinitely without significantly depleting or degrading those resources. Determining the carrying capacities for most organisms is fairly straightforward. For humans carrying capacity is much more complicated. The definition is expanded to include not degrading our cultural and social environments and not harming the physical environment in ways that would adversely affect future generations. Carrying capacity is a measure of sustainability with the changing conditions environment. Carrying capacity is determined by the level of primary productivity and other factors. Or the carrying capacity is mainly determined by available food and space. Primary production is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis. It is expressed in terms of weight or energy. Or Primary productivity means the rate of food produced by producers (autotrophs) or the rate of solar energy trapped at first trophic level.

80. Answer (d) Explanation Food contamination can take place at various stages of the food chain, from farm to table. Apart from chemical contamination of food from various sources such as industries, vehicles, pesticides and fertilizers, pollution resulting from growing of vegetables in degraded environmental conditions in peri-urban zones also affects food safety. This is coupled with further pollution from vehicles and industries during marketing. The common sources include presence of heavy metals, pesticides, preservatives, colouring agents and other additives and adulterants in food. Lead is a highly toxic metal and a very strong poison. Lead poisoning is a serious and sometimes fatal condition. Mercury is a naturally occurring element found in air, water and soil. A highly toxic form (methylmercury) builds up in fish, shellfish and animals that eat fish. Fish and shellfish are the main sources of methylmercury exposure to humans. Other sources of mercury can be silver-colored dental fillings that contain up to 50% mercury by weight and can release mercury vapor, fluorescent light bulbs that use electricity to excite mercury vapor, and mercury fever thermometers made of glass. Metanil yellow is the principal non-permitted food colour used extensively in India. The effects of long-term consumption of metanil yellow on the developing and adult brain were studied using Wistar rats. Pesticide residue refers to the pesticides that may remain on or in food after they are applied to food crops.

81. Answer (b) Explanation The trees check the flow of water; it’s an ecological function by trees. If timber is over-harvested, there won’t be the blocking of flowing water by the plants. So the surface run-off of water will increase. During the rainy season or during floods some rivers change their course and as a result the nutrients in the soil will solve in the water and it will carry to the sea along with the soil. There by lots of fertile soil will lost to the sea. Forest and wetland acts as water purifying system.

82. Answer (a) Explanation Marking an important addition to India’s rich wildlife, researchers have described Limenitis rileyi, a butterfly spotted in Arunachal Pradesh three decades ago as the first record of the species in the country. It was earlier recorded only in Tibet, Myanmar and Vietnam.

83. Answer (d) Explanation The Government of India had launched an initiative for the development of coal-based Ultra Mega Power Projects (UMPPs) each with a capacity of 4,000 MW. Sixteen UMPPs have been identified in various parts of the

Page 16: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

Country. So far, four UMPPs have been awarded to the developer(s) selected through International Tariff based competitive bidding process.

Awarded UMPPs

Sl No

UMPP Location

1 Sasan Sasan in District Singrauli, Madhya Pradesh

2 Mundra Mundra in village Tundawand in District Kutch, Gujarat

3 Krishnapatnam Krishnapat-nam in District Nellore, Andhra Pradesh

4 Tilaiya Near Tilaiya village in Hazaribagh and Koderma Districts, Jharkhand

84. Answer (d) Explanation o The Wildlife Institute of India (WII), Dehradun now houses the country’s first repository on tigers, under its

new Tiger Cell. o Worked with the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) on tiger conservation and population

estimation in the process WII have generated a huge database o If a tiger skin is recovered at a place then a properly maintained database can be used to check where the tiger

might have come from o When a project needs environmental clearance, the spatial data can be used to overlay the project plan on

the maps and check whether the project would interfere (with wildlife habitats that must not be disturbed). The cell will also provide technical support to the Center by "giving clearances to developmental projects in an area which has a tiger population.

o The Tiger Cell will be funded by the NTCA (a statutory body under the Environment Ministry) o The Tiger Cell will assist in population assessment of tigers, law enforcement, wildlife forensics, infrastructural

development and mitigation, smart patrolling and advisory role in policy formulation o The cell will keep a database of tigers from over 50 reserves around the country as well as their DNA and

stripes samples to keep a track on their numbers. o DNA can help in broad identification of the region where the tiger is located, that is it can help determine

whether the tiger is from central India or north India or the Northeast o The step is aimed towards the conservation of the big cat and the cell's database will also help tackle

poaching incidents and wildlife crimes across the country.

85. Answer (d) Explanation Reflation: the deliberate action of government to increase rate of inflation to stimulate economy. It is usually done to redeem the economy from the deflationary condition.

86. Answer (d) Explanation Narrow Money= Currency with the public+ Demand deposits of the banks+ Other deposits of RBI

87. Answer (c) Explanation Peer-to-peer lending refers to unsecured lending that happens on online platforms without the involvement of a bank or a finance company. A P2P lender simply brings lenders and borrowers together on a common online platform so that they can transact with each other.

88. Answer (b) Explanation EARLY MINIATURE PALA SCHOOL OF ART This school was flourishing during 750-1150 AD. These paintings are generally found as a part of manuscripts and were generally executed on palm leaf or vellum paper. The Buddhist monks mostly used them and as their religion practiced non-violence against all living beings there was a stipulation to only banana or coconut tree leaves.

These paintings are characterized by curved lines and subdued tones of the background imagery. There are lonely single figures in the paintings and one rarely finds group paintings. They have simple compositions and were patronized by some of those rulers who promoted Buddhism. The proponents of the Vajrayana school of Buddhism also used and patronized these paintings. Example, the illustration of Buddhist palm-leaf manuscript, Astasahasrika Prajnaparamita.

89. Answer (c) Explanation The Gupta monarchs were famous for their gold coins. They also issued silver coins. However, coins made of copper, bronze or any other alloy metals are scarce. The abundance of gold coins from the Gupta era has led some scholars to regard this phenomenon as the ‘rain of gold’. The Gupta gold coin is known as dinaras. The gold coins of the Gupta rulers are the extraordinary examples of artistic excellence. The coins depicted the ruling monarch on the obverse and carried legends with the figure of a goddess on the reverse.

Page 17: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

90. Answer (d) Explanation Brahma Samaj The features of Brahma Samaj It rejected the role of priesthood in experiencing God. It denounced polytheism and idol worship, It discarded faith in divine incarnations, It denied that any scripture could enjoy the status of ultimate authority transcending human reason and conscience. It took no definite stand on the doctrine of karma and transmigration of soul and left it to individual Brahmos to believe either way. It opposed caste system and fought social evils. With the objectives of revival of Aryan religion and removal of all evils crept into it, Swami Dayanand Saraswati started Arya Samaj in 1875 in Bombay He wrote a book SatyarthPrakash which contains his philosophical and religious ideas.

91. Answer (d) Explanation The Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) was an agency of the government of India, part of the Department of Financial Services of the Ministry of Finance. The BIFR was established under The Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provisions) Act, 1985 (SICA).

Its objective is to determine sickness of industrial companies and to assist in reviving those that may be viable and shutting down the others. But from 1 December 2016, by an official notification, Government of India dissolved it and all proceedings to be referred to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) as per provisions of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code.

92. Answer (d) Explanation 1. Real Estate Investment Trust refers to an entity created with the sole purpose of channeling investible funds

into operating, owning or financing income-producing real estate. 2. REITs are modelled on the lines of mutual funds and provide investors with an extremely liquid way to get a

stake in real estate. 3. REITs can enlist themselves on a stock exchange.

In India, the Real Estate Investment Trusts were introduced by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) in 2007. The securities watchdog only released draft regulations which due to certain limitations were later on rejected. In September, 2013, Sebi came out with revised regulations for REITs, which were approved on September 26, 2014. REITs have many advantages for interested investors. It provides a regular income stream along with reduced portfolio volatility and dividends and wealth accumulation. As a result of it being a listed entity, it is bought and sold with ease providing great liquidity. It is a natural hedge against inflation as returns have been seen to consistently outpace Consumer Price Inflation. There are primarily two types of REITs - equity and mortgage. Real Estate Investment Trusts are extremely beneficial for the development of an economy as they allow dormant investable funds to be channelled into infrastructure projects such as apartment complexes, hospitals, schools and the likes.

93. Answer (c) Explanation The Government’s statistics wing made two changes to the GDP calculation in January 2015. One was a change in the base year for the calculation which is done routinely every five years or so. The other was to adopt a new method to measure output. Starting now, Indian GDP will be measured by using gross domestic product (GDP) at market price, rather than factor cost.

As for the base year change, it is the only way to ensure that the products and services included in the GDP calculation do remain contemporary and reflect the present state of the economy. For instance, the latest change in base year from 2004-05 to 2011-12 has included the recycling industry which didn’t figure in the earlier GDP computations.

Similarly trading activities by manufacturing firms are now included in that sector’s share. This change along with better data compilation (online data filed with the Ministry of Corporate Affairs) has led to manufacturing increasing its share in GDP.

94. Answer (d) Explanation The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is a statutory body established by an act of parliament. In April 1957, it took over the work of former All India Khadi and Village Industries Board. The broad objectives that the KVIC has set before it are...

o The social objective of providing employment. o The economic objective of producing saleable articles. o The wider objective of creating self-reliance amongst the poor and building up of a strong rural

community spirit. 95. Answer (c)

Explanation

Page 18: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

Coffee plant requires hot and humid climate with temperature varying between 15°C and 28 °C and rainfall from 150 to 250 cm. It does not tolerate frost, snowfall, high temperature above 30°C and strong sun shine and is generally grown under shady trees. Prolonged drought is also injurious to coffee. Dry weather is necessary at the time of ripening of the berries. Stagnant water is harmful and this crop is grown on hill slopes at elevations from 600 to 1,600 metres above sea level. Northern and eastern aspects of slopes are preferred as they are less exposed to strong afternoon sun and the south- west monsoon winds. Well drained, rich friable loams containing good deal of humus and minerals like iron and calcium are ideal for coffee cultivation. The soil must be properly manured to retain and replenish fertility and to increase productivity. Coffee cultivation requires plenty of cheap and skilled labour for various operations including sowing, transplanting, pruning, plucking, drying, grading and packing of coffee. Coffee Arabica and Coffee Robusta are the two main varieties of coffee grown in India accounting for 49 per cent and 51 per cent of area respectively under coffee.The restricted agro-climatic conditions have forced the coffee plantations to confine themselves to small area in south India comprising hill areas around Nilgiris. Almost the entire production is shared by three states namely Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Karnataka is the largest producer accounting for about 70 per cent of total coffee production and 60 per cent of the area under coffee in India. This state also gives the highest yield of 10.3 quintals/hectare.

96. Answer (a) Explanation ICAR-IARI, New Delhi has developed extra early maturing (120 days), semi-dwarf (95 cm to 120 cm tall), determinate, high yielding new plant type genetic material viz., Pusa Arhar 16 which is semi-erect compact plant type. Hence it is a dwarf pigeon pea created by scientists at the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), has a maturity time of 120 days, down from the 160-270 days needed by varieties now in use. It also requires less water and is suitable for mechanized harvesting with no loss in yields, at about 20 quintals/hectare. Arhar, or pigeon pea, is among the most widely consumed pulses in India. Its prices shot up to as much as Rs200 per kg last year due to lower production, leading to a surge in imports. Therefore this new high-yielding pulse developed by government scientists could prove a game changer for inflation-wary policymakers and consumers alike.

97. Answer (b) Explanation The interest subvention scheme for farmers aims at providing short term credit to farmers at subsidised interest rate. The policy came into force with effect from Kharif 2006-07. The scheme is being implemented for the year 2016-17. ➢ Interest subvention for short term crop loans ➢ The Central Government provide farmers under the interest subvention scheme to all farmers for short term

crop loan upto one year for loan upto Rs. 3 lakhs borrowed by them during the year 2016-17. ➢ Farmers will thus have to effectively pay only 4% as interest. In case farmers do not repay the short term

crop loan in time they would be eligible for interest subvention of 2% as against 5% available above. ➢ The amount of subvention is to be calculated on the amount of crop loan from the date of disbursement up to

the date of repayment. ➢ Interest subvention for post harvest loans In order to give relief to small and marginal farmers who would have to borrow at 9% for the post harvest storage of their produce, the Central Government has approved an interest subvention of 2% i.e an effective interest rate of 7% for loans upto 6 months. ➢ Interest subvention for relief to farmers affected by natural calamities To provide relief to the farmers affected by Natural Calamities, the interest subvention of 2% will be provided to Banks for the first year on the restructured amount. ➢ Due to the cancellation of legal tender character of old Rs. 500 and Rs.1000 notes and the resulting

difficulty faced by the farmers, an interest waiver was provided for a period of 2 months i.e. November & December 2016 to farmers who were disbursed crop loan from Cooperative Banks between 01.04.2016 and 30.09.2016.

98. Answer (b) Explanation IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East. The main objective is to provide Reliable Position, Navigation and Timing services over India and its neighbourhood, to provide fairly good accuracy to the user. The IRNSS will provide basically two types of services 1. Standard Positioning Service (SPS) 2. Restricted Service (RS) The IRNSS Segment consists of seven satellites, three satellites in GEO stationary orbit (GEO) and four satellites in Geo Synchronous Orbit (GSO) orbit with inclination of 29° to the equatorial plane. This constellation of seven satellites was named as "NavIC" (Navigation Indian Constellation) by the Honourable Prime Minister of India, Mr. Narendra Modi and dedicated to the Nation on the occasion of successful launch of

Page 19: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

IRNSS-1G, the seventh and last satellite of NavIC. All the satellites will be visible at all times in the Indian region. All the seven Satellites of NavIC, namely, IRNSS-1A, 1B, 1C, ID,1E, 1F and 1G were successfully launched on July 02, 2013, Apr 04, 2014, Oct 16, 2014, Mar 28, 2015, Jan 20, 2016, Mar 10, 2016 and Apr 28, 2016 respectively and all are functioning satisfactorily from their designated orbital positions. Some applications of IRNSS are:

• Terrestrial, Aerial and Marine Navigation

• Disaster Management

• Vehicle tracking and fleet management

• Integration with mobile phones

• Precise Timing

• Mapping and Geodetic data capture

• Terrestrial navigation aid for hikers and travellers

• Visual and voice navigation for drivers

99. Answer (b) Explanation 1. INS Khanderi - Scorpene submarine 2. INS Sarvekshak - Hydrographic survey ship 3. INS Viraat - Aircraft carrier 4. INS Chennai - Guided Missile Destroyer

100. Answer (c) Explanation Reusable Launch Vehicle – Technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD) is one of the most technologically challenging endeavors of ISRO towards developing essential technologies for a fully reusable launch vehicle to enable low cost access to space. The configuration of RLV-TD is similar to that of an aircraft and combines the complexity of both launch vehicles and aircraft. The winged RLV-TD has been configured to act as a flying test bed to evaluate various technologies, namely, hypersonic flight, autonomous landing and powered cruise flight. In future, this vehicle will be scaled up to become the first stage of India’s reusable two stage orbital launch vehicle. On May 23, 2016 ISRO successfully flight tested India’s first winged body aerospace vehicle operating in hypersonic flight regime. ISRO acknowledge the support of Indian coast guard and National Institute of Ocean technology (NIOT) for the mid sea wind measurement and shipborne telemetry respectively in this mission. In this flight, critical technologies such as autonomous navigation, guidance & control, reusable thermal protection system and re-entry mission management have been successfully validated. Objectives of RLV-TD:

• Hypersonic aero thermodynamic characterisation of wing body

• Evaluation of autonomous Navigation, Guidance and Control (NGC) schemes

• Integrated flight management

• Thermal Protection System Evaluation

Page 20: TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS …. PMT-24... · 2017-06-14 · TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-24 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION