target prelims 2017 general studies paper - 1 prelims …. pmt-18... · 2017. 6. 14. · target...

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TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-18

ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION

1. Answer (a) Explanation It has an equatorial circumference of 24,897 miles and its polar circumference is less by 83 miles. It has an equatorial diameter is 7, 926 miles and its polar diameter is shorter by 26 miles. Due to its rotation, the Earth (like all rotating planets) has a slightly distorted shape. The rotational momentum tends to force the matter to bunch up in the equator. The true shape of the Earth is called an Oblate Spheroid. The gravitational attraction of the sun and the moon (tidal force), and insolation are not sufficient to influence the shape of the earth.

2. Answer (a) Explanation Normally, temperature decreases with increase in elevation at normal lapse rate. At times, the situation is reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called Inversion of temperature. The inversion of temperature takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage. Cold air at the hills and mountains flows under the influence of gravity. Being heavy and dense, the cold air acts almost like water and moves down the slope to pile up deeply in pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is called air drainage. Temperature inversion promotes stability in the lower layers of atmosphere as the cold, dense air gets piled up near the surface. Thus, it discourages precipitation.

3. Answer (c) Explanation Tropical cyclones are formed by intensification of low pressure regions, around which winds spiral inward. Cyclonic circulations are anti-clockwise in northern hemisphere and clockwise in southern hemisphere. Vice-versa is the case for anticyclonic circulations. Anti-cyclones have high pressure at the centre and temperate cyclones have frontal origin.

1 A 11 B 21 D 31 D 41 C 51 C 61 B 71 C 81 C 91 A

2 A 12 C 22 D 32 A 42 B 52 A 62 C 72 B 82 A 92 B

3 C 13 B 23 B 33 D 43 B 53 B 63 B 73 B 83 D 93 A

4 C 14 D 24 C 34 B 44 D 54 A 64 C 74 C 84 B 94 A

5 D 15 D 25 B 35 C 45 C 55 C 65 B 75 D 85 C 95 D

6 C 16 C 26 B 36 C 46 D 56 C 66 B 76 D 86 A 96 C

7 D 17 C 27 D 37 A 47 C 57 A 67 D 77 C 87 B 97 A

8 A 18 B 28 B 38 B 48 C 58 D 68 B 78 B 88 D 98 B

9 C 19 D 29 B 39 C 49 D 59 C 69 D 79 C 89 C 99 B

10 D 20 B 30 D 40 B 50 C 60 C 70 C 80 C 90 B 100 B

Date: 28-05-2017


4. Answer (c) Explanation The sun is directly overhead at noon on 22nd December at tropic of Capricorn. The sun is directly overhead at noon on 21st June at tropic of Cancer. The sun is directly overhead at noon on 23rd September and 21st March at equator. The sun is never directly overhead at Antarctic and Arctic circles.

5. Answer (d) Explanation TROPICAL MARITIME (MT): It is considerably wider than cT because of greater size. Pacific Ocean, North and South Atlantic and Indian Ocean are extensive source areas for mT air. These air masses overlying the tropical seas are moist and saturated universally. They are pushed beyond the source areas and cause heavy precipitation and high temperature condition.

POLAR CONTINENTAL (CP): The air is confined in broad high latitudinal stretches of Siberia and Canada. Typically frozen and dusted with snow throughout winter season, the air masses located over this region are chilly, cold, and slightly modified in summer.

POLAR MARITIME (MP): These air masses are located over warmer high latitude oceans of North Pacific (Bering sea), North Atlantic (Norwegian Sea) and entire sweep of southern hemisphere oceans fringing Antarctica. The air, overlying these unfrozen seas with frequent probing warmer currents, is a highly efficient evaporator of readily available moisture. So mP air is less cold and more moist than cP air. North America and Northern Europe experience these types of air masses during winter season.

TROPICAL CONTINENTAL (CT): This air mass is basically hot and dry. Heat may vary a bit in the season but dryness remains immutable. These air masses develop over greater Sahara area.

6. Answer (c) Explanation The IMF Board of Governors is advised by two ministerial committees, the IMFC and the DC. The DC is a ministerial-level forum of the WB Group and the IMF for intergovernmental consensus-building on development issues. It is known formally as the Joint Ministerial Committee of the Boards of Governors of the Bank and the Fund on the Transfer of Real Resources to Developing Countries. The DC’s mandate is to advise the Boards of Governors of the Bank and the Fund on critical development issues and on the financial resources required to promote economic development in developing countries. Over the years, the Committee has interpreted this mandate to include trade and global environmental issues in addition to traditional development matters.

7. Answer (d) Explanation Jammu & Kashmir will have to pass special laws to be able to implement the Goods and Services Tax as its current Constitutional status does not mandate the applicability of the new indirect tax reform in the state. This is because Article 370 of the Constitution grants special autonomous status to the state and Parliament of India has power to make laws only on defence, external affairs and communication related matters of the state. As a result, once CGST and IGST bills are passed by Parliament, the J&K Assembly will have to pass a legislation saying the two laws are applicable to them. This approval by the state assembly will be in addition to the requirement of all states to approve the State-GST law. Union Territory GST bill is applicable only to those Union Territories which have no legislatures.

8. Answer (a) Explanation India has been ranked 60th among 79 developing economies, below neighbouring China and Pakistan, in the inclusive development index, according to a WEF report. WEF’s ‘Inclusive Growth and Development Report 2017’ said that most countries are missing important opportunities to raise economic growth and reduce inequality at the same time because the growth model and measurement tools that have guided policymakers for decades require significant readjustment. The other major reports of WEF are • Travel and Tourism Competitiveness report • Global Energy Architecture report • Global Risks Report • Global Enabling Trade Report • Global Gender Gap report • Global Competitiveness Report • Global Information Technology Report


9. Answer (c) Explanation WPI and IIP was having the base year of 2004-05. Recently, the base year of WPI & IIP was revised to 2011-12. CPI has the base year of 2012.

10. Answer (d) Explanation Data exclusivity is a kind of intellectual property protection wherein clinical trial and other data submitted by an originator drug company cannot be used or relied upon by a drug regulatory authority to approve a generic version of that drug for a certain period of time. The notion is that without such protection, the originator company lacks the necessary commercial incentive to conduct expensive trials and take a potential drug to the market. Blocking generic entry for some years will, the theory goes, help drug companies invest in clinical trials. India has long resisted U.S. and EU pressure to institute data exclusivity norms, seeing it as a barrier to generic entry and more affordable drug prices. The Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) does not mandate data exclusivity. Providing data exclusivity is a TRIPS-plus measure.

11. Answer (b) Explanation Right to Education is added as a fundamental right in the constitution through 86th Constitutional Amendment Act. Right to Property is a legal right under Article 300A. It was a fundamental right but later relegated as a legal right through 44th Constitutional Amendment. On the other hand, Right to Information is recognized through a legislation in 2005. Consumer rights are recognized through Consumer Protection Act, 1986. Six Consumer Rights delineated under the Act are • Right to Safety • Right to Information • Right to Choice • Right to be Heard • Right to seek redressal • Right to Consumer Goods

12. Answer (c) Explanation Habeas Corpus is an order issued by the court to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it. The court then examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the detained person free, if the detention is found to be illegal. Thus, this writ is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities and private individuals.

13. Answer (b) Explanation CAG ensures accountability of the executive by auditing the money spent from government accounts. Public Accounts Committee then examines the report of CAG and ensures the propriety of the spending. Estimates Committee examines the estimates and suggest improvements. On the other hand Finance Commission is set up to recommend the distribution of revenue between Union and States.

14. Answer (d) Explanation President’s rule is declared on ground of breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state. A national emergency, on the other hand, is declared on ground of war, external aggression and armed rebellion. All the proclamations made by the President under Article 352 except a proclamation revoking national emergency, shall have to be placed before both the houses of Parliament and shall cease to be in operation at the expiry of one month after it is proclaimed and unless it is approved by both the houses of the Parliament before the one month period by a majority of not less than 2/3rd members present and voting and by a majority of total strength of the house. The approval given by the Parliament shall be valid for a period of not more than 6 months from the date of approval.

15. Answer (d) Explanation Anti-defection law in the Tenth Schedule of the constitution is applicable for elected, independent and nominated members. The role of individual members of parliament has diminished after the introduction of Anti-defection law. According to the law, the members are obliged to vote according to the whip issued by Parties, effectively taking away the scope for independent standing.


16. Answer (c) Explanation RED PANDA (Ailurus fulgens)(EN) It is primarily a herbivore. The name panda is said to have come from the Nepali word ‘ponya,’ which means bamboo or plant eating animal. In India it is found in only three states: Sikkim, West Bengal and Arunachal Pradesh. It can also be seen in the Nokrek of Meghalaya, but studies on the species say that it is a subspecies of Red Panda. Almost 50 percent of the red panda’s habitat is in the Eastern Himalayas. Red Panda is closely associated with montane forests (oak mixed; mixed broad-leaf conifer; and conifer) with dense bamboo-thicket understorey. Red Panda prefers to live near (typically within 100–200 m of) water. It is largely arboreal. Red Panda is largely vegetarian, eating chiefly young leaves and shoots of bamboo. It also takes fruit, roots, succulent grasses, acorns, lichens, birds' eggs and insects. The loss of nesting trees and bamboo is causing a decline in red panda populations across much of their range because their forest home is being cleared. The major threats are habitat loss and fragmentation; habitat degradation; and physical threats and also climate change and natural disasters. They are poached for their distinctive pelts. Red panda fur caps or hats have been found for sale in Bhutan. It is included in Appendix I of CITES. It is listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972.

17. Answer (c) Explanation The Trans-border rivers flowing from China to India fall into two main groups. 1) The Brahmaputra river system on the Eastern side, which consist of river Siang (main stream of river

Brahmaputra) and its tributaries, namely Subansiri and Lohit. The river Brahmaputra is called Yaluzangbu or Tsangpo in China.

2) The Indus river system on the Western side consists of river Indus and the river Sutlej. a) Memorandum of Understanding upon provision of Hydrological Information of the River

Brahmaputra / Yaluzangbu: During the visit of Hon’ble External Affairs Minister of India to Beijing from June 4-7, 2008, Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) upon provision of Hydrological information of the River Brahmaputra /Yaluzangbu River in flood season by China to India was signed with China on 5th June 2008 with a validity of another five years. Further, this MoU was renewed on 20th May, 2013 with a validity of another five year during the visit of Hon’ble Chinese Premier Mr. Li Keqiang to India in May, 2013. The Implementation plan in this regard was also signed by both the countries on 30th May, 2013 at New Delhi.

b) Memorandum of Understanding on Hydrological Data Sharing on River Sutlej / Langqen Zangbo: Similar Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed during the visit of the Chinese Premier to India in April 2005 for providing hydrological information of one station i.e. Tsada on River Sutlej/ Langqen Zangbo during flood season. Chinese side is providing hydrological information in respect of their Tsada station on river Sutlej Langqen Zangbo. During the visit of Hon’ble Prime Minister of China to India in December, 2010, a MoU upon provision of hydrological information of Sutlej/Langqen Zangbo River during flood season by China to India was signed with China on 16th December, 2010 with a validity of five years. The Implementation Plan containing technical details of provision of hydrological information, data transmission method and cost settlement etc. in respect of the MoU on River Sutlej was signed between the two countries in April, 2011 at Beijing, China. During the recent visit of Hon’ble Vice President of the People’s Republic of China in November, 2015 a MoU has been renewed on 06.11.2015 with a validity of further five years. Accordingly, implementation plan on River Sutlej signed on 13th April, 2016 during the 10th ELM meeting held at New Delhi, India.

18. Answer (b) Explanation Chilika Lake : Orissa Keoladeo Ghana National Park : Rajasthan Kolleru Lake : Andhra Pradesh Wular Lake : Jammu & Kashmir

19. Answer (d) Explanation Transpiration is the evaporation of water into the atmosphere from the leaves. The rate of transpiration increases with decreasing humidity. The rate of transpiration decreases with decreasing light intensity.

20. Answer (b) Explanation Bioremediation: "Remediate" means to solve a problem, and "bio-remediate" means to use biological organisms to solve an environmental problem such as contaminated soil or groundwater. In a non-polluted environment, bacteria, fungi, protists, and other microorganisms are constantly at work breaking down organic matter. Bioremediation works by providing these pollution-eating organisms with fertilizer, oxygen, and other conditions


that encourage their rapid growth. These organisms would then be able to break down the organic pollutant at a correspondingly faster rate. In fact, bioremediation is often used to help clean up oil spills. Bioremediation provides a good cleanup strategy for some types of pollution, but it will not work for all. For example, bioremediation may not provide a feasible strategy at sites with high concentrations of chemicals that are toxic to most microorganisms. These chemicals include metals such as cadmium or lead, and salts such as sodium chloride. Nonetheless, bioremediation provides a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation processes that occur in nature. Depending on the site and its contaminants, bioremediation may be safer and less expensive than alternative solutions such as incineration or landfilling of the contaminated materials. It also has the advantage of treating the contamination in place so that large quantities of soil, sediment or water do not have to be dug up or pumped out of the ground for treatment.

21. Answer (d) Explanation Veeresalingam Pantulu from Andhra Pradesh was one of the earliest pioneers in South India to demand and work for progressive changes in the society. He was a great social reformer, scholar, writer who stood strongly for several social causes, like widow remarriages and abolition of child marriages. He strongly opposed the existence of caste system in the society. Kandukuri Veeresalingam was highly influenced and moved by the ideologies and principles of Brahma Samaj and leaders like Raja Rammohun Roy, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, and Keshab Chander Sen made a great impact on him. Kandukuri Veeresalingam had a good command over Telugu, English, and Sanskrit. He introduced essay, biography, autobiography, and novel into Telugu literature. Inspired by Oliver Goldsmith's "The Vicar of Wakefield", he penned the "Rajasekhara Charitamu"(first kind of social novel in Telugu). He considered literature as a source of fighting against social evils and hence, instituted revolutionary activities in his writing. Veeresalingam was among the freedom fighters who never opposed the formation of INC, in fact he was one of the members of the first session of INC in 1885.

22. Answer (d) Explanation Learning from the first lesson of the first Afghan war which cost the British Indian govt, more than 1.5 crore rupees and about 20,000 men, the Governor-General John Lawrence (1864 to 1869) adopted Masterly Inactive Policy. This policy was certain as a reaction to disaster of the first Indo-Afghan war of 1838-42. This policy was made necessary due to the frontier problems and Afghan passion for independence. LORD HARDINGE Ⅱ (1910-1916) (important events) Annulment of the Partition of Bengal. Transfer of the imperial capital from Calcutta to Delhi (1911) Coronation Durbar of King George V and Queen Mary at Delhi Death of G.K Gokhale in 1915. Foundation of the Hindu Mahasabha in 1915 by Madan Mohan Malaviya.

23. Answer (b) Explanation The rules made for the Buddhist sangha were written down in a book called the Vinaya Pitaka. Those who worked for the king, like soldiers, had to take his permission and debtors that of creditors. Otherwise they will not be permitted to become members of sangha. Women had to take their husbands’ permission. Children had to take the permission of their parents and slaves that of their masters. Men and women who joined the sangha led simple lives. They meditated for most of the time, and went to cities and villages to beg for food during fixed hours. That is why they were known as bhikkhus (the Prakrit word for beggar) and bhikkhunis. Those who joined the sangha included brahmins, kshatriyas, merchants, labourers, barbers, courtesans and slaves.

24. Answer (c) Explanation Arthshashtra was written in Sanskrit by Chanakya / Kautilya / Vishnugupta / Indian Machiavelli. Kautilya wrote about the way the state’s economy is organized, how the king should be, how ministers should be chosen, how war should be conducted, describes types of battle arrays and modes of fighting and how taxation should be arranged and distributed. Emphasis is placed on the importance of a network of runners, informers, and spies, which, in the absence of a ministry of public information and a police force, functioned as a surveillance corps for the ruler, focusing particularly on any external threats and internal dissidence.

25. Answer (b) Explanation Announcement of the ‘Communal Award’ by Ramsay Macdonald which proposed Separate Electorate for Indian minorities was not a result of the Poona Pact. Gandhiji opposed communal awards and observed fast unto death. Consequently, Dr Ambedkar negotiated with Gandhiji and agreed for joint electorate replacing separate electorate. Thus, the Poona Pact refers to an agreement between Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi signed


on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail in Pune that came after the announcement of the ‘Communal Award’. The Government of India Act of 1935 was enacted during the viceroyalty of Lord Wellington (1931-1936).

26. Answer (b) Explanation Hand – in – Hand 2016 is the sixth Joint Training Exercise between India and China. It was held at the parade ground in Aundh Military Camp, Pune. The aim of the joint exercise is to acquaint both the Armies with each other’s operating procedures in the backdrop of counter terrorism environment. The basic objective of the training is enhancing confidence and trust between the two armies which may be called upon to grapple with anti terrorism operations under the UN mandate. The conduct of Joint Military Exercises is also an important step to uphold the values of Peace, Prosperity and Stability in the region.

27. Answer (d) Explanation Vitamin A is a fat soluble vitamin that is also a powerful antioxidant. Vitamin A is essential for normal vision, as well as for proper bone growth, healthy skin, and protection of the mucous membranes of the digestive, respiratory, and urinary tracts against infection. People with long-term malabsorption of fats are very susceptible to develop Vitamin A deficiency. People with severe Vitamin A deficiency develops Xerophthalmia. Pernicious anemia is caused due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that is naturally present in very few foods, and available as a dietary supplement. It is also produced endogenously when ultraviolet rays from sunlight strike the skin and trigger vitamin D synthesis. Vitamin D promotes calcium absorption in the gut and maintains adequate serum calcium and phosphate concentrations to enable normal mineralization of bone and to prevent hypocalcemic tetany. It is also needed for bone growth and bone remodeling by osteoblasts and osteoclasts. Without sufficient vitamin D, bones can become thin, brittle, or misshapen. Vitamin D deficiency causes rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Scurvy is caused due to vitamin C deficiency. Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin, the human body requires for complete synthesis of certain proteins that are prerequisites for blood coagulation and which the body also needs for binding of calcium in bones and other tissues. Low levels of Vitamin K results in impaired blood clotting and raises risk of uncontrolled bleeding.

28. Answer (b) Explanation Gaia is a mission of European space agency (ESA) to chart a three-dimensional map of our Galaxy, the Milky Way, in the process revealing the composition, formation and evolution of the Galaxy. OSIRIS-Rex is the first asteroid mission of National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA). It will travel to a near-Earth asteroid called Bennu and bring a small sample back to Earth for study. The mission was launched on Sept. 8, 2016, from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station. As planned, the spacecraft will reach Bennu in 2018 and return a sample to Earth in 2023. Rosetta was a space probe built by the European Space Agency launched on 2 March 2004. Along with Philae, its lander module, Rosetta performed a detailed study of comet 67P/Churyumov–Gerasimenko (67P). During its journey to the comet, the spacecraft flew by Mars and the asteroids 21 Lutetia and 2867 Šteins. The Magnetospheric Multiscale Mission (MMS) is a NASA unmanned space mission to study the Earth's magnetosphere, using four identical spacecraft flying in a tetrahedral formation. The spacecraft was launched on 13 March 2015. It is designed to gather information about the microphysics of magnetic reconnection, energetic particle acceleration, and turbulence, processes that occur in many astrophysical plasmas. Aditya-L1 is the India’s first dedicated scientific mission to study the sun. The ambitious solar mission will study the sun’s outer most layers, the corona and the chromosphere, collect data about coronal mass ejection and more, which will also yield information for space weather prediction. The project costs approximately Rs 400 crores and is a joint venture between ISRO and physicists from Indian Institute of Astrophysics, Bengaluru; Inter University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics, Pune; Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, Mumbai, and other institutes.

29. Answer (b) Explanation RESOURCESAT-2A is a Remote Sensing satellite/Earth observation satellite intended for resource monitoring. RESOURCESAT-2A is a follow on mission to RESOURCESAT-1 and RESOURCESAT-2, launched in 2003 and 2011 respectively. RESOURCESAT-2A is intended to continue the remote sensing data services to global users provided by RESOURCESAT-1 and RESOURCESAT-2. It was successfully launched by PSLV-C36 on December 07, 2016 from SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota.

30. Answer (d) Explanation Stem cells are mother cells found in all multicellular organisms that have the potential to become any type of cell in the body. They are derived from zygote, blastocyst, adult body etc. Stem cell can be used in therapeutic cloning but they are not used in reproductive cloning. Stem cells can also be used for creating organs. Recently,


scientists have for the first time created a functional human liver from stem cells derived from skin and blood and say their success points to a future where much-needed livers and other transplant organs could be made in a laboratory. Reproductive cloning It is the production of a genetic duplicate of an existing organism. A human clone would be a genetic copy of an existing person. Therapeutic cloning Therapeutic cloning basically has the same procedure as reproductive cloning but with different results and goals. The goal of therapeutic cloning is to study human development and treat disease by harvesting stem cells.

31. Answer (d) Explanation Equatorial climate has great uniformity of temperature throughout the year. It has convectional rainfall which is heavy and well distributed throughout the year. There is no month without rain and a distinct dry season is absent. Precipitation during winter season is the characteristic feature of Mediterranean climate.

32. Answer (a) Explanation The difference between Terrestrial (Earth like) and Jovian (Jupiter like) planets can be attributed to the following conditions:

• The terrestrial planets were formed in the close vicinity of the parent star where it was too warm for gases to condense to solid particles. Jovian planets were formed at quite a distant location.

• The solar winds were most intense near the sun; so, it blew off lots of gases and dust from the terrestrial planets. Whereas, they were not very intense to cause similar removal of gases from the Jovian planets.

• The terrestrial planets are smaller and their lower gravity could not hold the escaping gases. All the planets were formed in the same period sometime about 4.6 billion years ago.

33. Answer (d) Explanation HCFCs (hydrochlorofluorocarbons) are widely used in the refrigeration, foam, solvent, aerosol and firefighting sectors as a transitional substance to substitute CFCs. HCFCs are also used as feedstock (raw material) in the production for other chemical products. HCFCs were introduced in the 1990s as alternative chemicals for CFCs and added to the list of substances controlled by the Montreal Protocol. Although having considerably lower ozone depleting potentials than CFCs, many HCFCs have high global warming potentials, of up to 2000 times that of carbon dioxide.

34. Answer (b) Explanation Nine islands have been selected as tourism growth zones as part of a Niti Aayog masterplan. The islands are being seen as drivers of tourism and sustainable economic development on the lines of countries like Singapore that use water parks and natural resources to promote tourism, overcoming limited land areas while being mindful of conservation.

Smith Island, Ross Island, Avis Island and Long Island in Andaman & Nicobar and in the Lakshadweep, Bangaram, Thinnakara, Suheli, Cheriyam and Minicoy are among those islands slotted for development. Tourist facilities in Lakshadweep are currently limited to Bangaram and a few other islands.

35. Answer (c) Explanation Wegener suggested that the movement responsible for the drifting of the continents was caused by pole-fleeing force and tidal force. The polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the earth. The second force that was suggested by Wegener—the tidal force—is due to the attraction of the moon and the sun that develops tides in oceanic waters. Wegener believed that these forces would become effective when applied over many million years. However, most of scholars considered these forces to be inadequate.

36. Answer (c) Explanation The lowering of repo rate means RBI is following a cheap money policy. So more funds are easily available in the economy at low cost interest.

37. Answer (a) Explanation Cess is a tax additionally levied as a percentage of existing tax amount for a specific purpose. Hence it is a tax on tax. For example, in budget 2016-17 Union government introduced Krishi Kalyan cess of 0.5% over the service tax and the amount collected used solely towards financing activities for the improvement of agriculture


and farmer welfare. In the same budget the government doubled the clean environment cess on the coal, lignite and peat. So it is levied on both goods as well as services. Both Union as well as state governments use this way to raise extra money to finance its activities.

38. Answer (b) Explanation Sovereign Credit ratings are determined by the international credit rating agencies like Moody’s, Fitch, Standard and Poors etc. The credit rating of India has remained unchanged for last several years at BBB-, which is the lowest investment grade, only a grade above the junk status for the government/sovereign bonds. The government's 'Economic Survey 2017' too has slammed the agencies for following "inconsistent" standards while rating India vis-a-vis China, saying they have not taken into account reform measures like GST, which is a "poor" reflection on their credibility. Fitch had last upgraded India's sovereign rating from BB+ to BBB- with stable outlook on August 1, 2006. Later, it changed the outlook to negative in 2012 and then again to stable in the following year, though it kept the rating unchanged at the lowest investment grade. Ratings are considered important as they help domestic companies raise overseas funds at competitive rate.

39. Answer (c) Explanation Under the Balance of Payments, there are two accounts viz. Current account and Capital account. The current account constitutes the trade account and invisible account. Invisible account has the receipts like non-factor income service (export and import of the services alone), invest income (dividends, profit and interest from loans) and private transfers (grants, gifts, remittances etc.). Foreign Loans and Foreign Investment comes under Capital Account.

40. Answer (b) Explanation A majority of not less than 2/3rd of the total strength of the House is the highest majority needed in the Constitution. It is required for the impeachment of President. The removal of the Supreme Court judges require majority of total strength of the Parliament along with 2/3rd of the members present and voting. Removal of the Vice President and removal of other Presiding officers require majority of all then members of the house.

41. Answer (c) Explanation NHRC submit its annual report to the Central Government and the State Governments concerned.

42. Answer (b) Explanation The Constitution of India designates the official language of the Government of India as Hindi written in the Devanagari script, as well as English. There is no national language as declared by the Constitution of India. Hindi and English are used for official purposes such as parliamentary proceedings, judiciary, communications between the Central Government and a State Government. The Constitution requires the authoritative text of all laws, including Parliamentary enactments and statutory instruments, to be in English, until Parliament decides otherwise. Parliament has not exercised its power to do so, instead merely requiring that all such laws and instruments, and all bills brought before it, also be translated into Hindi, though the English text remains authoritative. The Constitution provides that all proceedings in the Supreme Court of India, the country's highest court and the High Courts, shall be in English. Parliament has the power to alter this by law, but has not done so. However, in many high courts, there is, with consent from the President, allowance of the optional use of Hindi. Such proposals have been successful in the states of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar.

43. Answer (b) Explanation Article 243F provides that all persons who are qualified to be chosen to the state legislature shall be qualified to be chosen as a member of Panchayat. The only difference is that a person who has attained the age of 21 years will be eligible to a member. (in case of state legislature the prescribed age is 25 years). Every Panchayat shall continue for five years from the date of its first meeting. But it can be dissolved earlier in accordance with the procedure established by state law. Elections must take place before the expiry of the above period. In case it is dissolved earlier, then the elections must take place within six months. A panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution shall continue only for the remainder of the period.


44. Answer (d) Explanation The supreme court in order to give effect to fundamental duties as enshrined under Article 51A(g) (protecting natural environment) read with Article 21 (right to life), 47 (raising standard of living and public health), and 48A (Protection and improvement of environment) adopted the principle of sustainable development as a balancing concept and further held that “precautionary principle” and “polluter pays principle” are acceptable as part of the law of the country.

45. Answer (c) Explanation The Narmada or Nerbudda originates on the western flank of the Amarkantak plateau from Maikala range in Anuppur district of Madhya Pradesh. Flowing in a rift valley between the Satpura in the south and the Vindhyan range in the north. Narmada is the largest west flowing river of the peninsular India. Tapti/tapi originates from Multai in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. It flows south of Satpura to west parallel to Narmada and merge into sea near Surat. Purna originated from Gawilgarh range is its major tributary. Mahi originate from Vindhyan. It flows cutting twice through the Tropic of Cancer and drains into Arabian sea in Gujarat. Luni is the largest river system of Rajasthan, west of Aravali. It originates near Pushkar in two branches, i.e. the Saraswati (Sarsuti) and the Sabarmati (sagarmati), which join with each other at Govindgarh. From here, the river comes out of Aravali and is known as Luni. It flows towards the west till Telwara and then takes a southwest direction to join the Rann of Kuchchh. The entire river system is ephemeral. Luni river is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kuchch.

46. Answer (d) Explanation The importance and usefulness of wetlands was first brought to notice of the world through a Convention on Wetlands held at the Iranian city Ramsar, in the year 1971 February 3rd. The Convention on Wetlands, called the Ramsar Convention, is an intergovernmental treaty with 135 contracting parties that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. The Convention defines wise use of wetlands as “the maintenance of their ecological character, achieved through the implementation of ecosystem approaches, within the context of sustainable development”. Wise use can thus be seen as the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands and all the services they provide, for the benefit of people and nature. World Wetlands Day is celebrated every year on 2 February, the date in 1971 that the Convention on Wetlands was adopted in the Iranian city Ramsar on the shores of the Capsian Sea. The World Wetland Day marks the date of the signing of the Convention on Wetlands.

47. Answer (c) Explanation According to IUCN, conservation should aim at maintenance of existing genetic diversity and viable population of all species in the wild to maintain biological interactions, economical processes and functions. Conservation is defined as the ‘planned management of natural resources to retain natural balance, diversity and evolutionary changes in the environment by the preservation and improvement of habitats.’ There are two forms of conservation in-situ conservation (on site) and ex-situ conservation (off site). Biodiversity conservation done in the habitat itself (original place) is known as in-situ conservation. Ex-situ conservation means the conservation of components of biological diversity outside their natural habitats or ex-situ conservation means the wild-life conservation in captivity under human care. Biodiversity is highest in the tropics and decreases to the poles: Species diversity declines with increasing distance from the Equator, either north or south. There is no doubt that the tropics are very rich in species diversity. A forest in a tropical region will have up to 10 times as many species of vascular plants as a forest of equal area in a temperate region. Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable. Such constant environments promote niche specialization and lead to a greater species diversity. The largely tropical Amazonian rain forest in South America has the greatest biodiversity on earth.

48. Answer (c) Explanation Methanogens are the methane producing bacteria. Methane fermentation is a versatile biotechnology capable of converting almost all types of polymeric materials to methane and carbon dioxide under anaerobic conditions. Methane fermentation is the consequence of a series of metabolic interactions among various groups of microorganisms. Methanogenesis is complex, redox biochemical reactions occurring under anaerobic conditions. Under symbiotic effects of various anaerobic and relatively anaerobic bacteria, multimolecular organic substances are decomposed into simple, chemically stabilized compounds—methane and carbon dioxide. Methane is emitted during the production and transport of coal, natural gas, and oil. Methane emissions also result from


livestock and other agricultural practices and by the decay of organic waste in municipal solid waste landfills.

49. Answer (d) Explanation Cactus is a type of plant that can store large amounts of water and survive in extremely hot and dry habitats. Almost all cacti are native to deserts and dry regions of South and North America. Due to their attractive morphology, cacti can be found throughout the world today. Over collecting and habitat loss are major threats to the survival of cacti in the wild. Certain species are listed as endangered, but luckily, trade of most species of cacti is prohibited by law. They have waxy substance on the surface which prevents loss of water via transpiration. Cacti have spines instead of leaves. Spines can be soft or rigid, straight or curved, arranged in rows or scattered. They can reach 6 inches in length. Spines have two major roles: they prevent loss of water via transpiration and keep the plant safe from animals. Since cacti live in dry areas, they need to absorb large amount of water and store it in the stem and roots for the periods of drought. Besides storing of water, stem plays role in the process of photosynthesis (production of food by using the sunlight and carbon dioxide). Water from cactus has higher density compared with tap water, but it is safe for drinking. Cacti can survive for 15 to 300 years, depending on the species. In general, plants photosynthesize through their leaves and, to a much lesser extent, through their stems. While different cactuses may have specialized photosynthetic techniques, in general, photosynthesis occurs in a cactus' stem or trunk. The concept of photosynthesis in a cactus or succulent plant may seem strange considering that most of them do not have obvious leaves like many other plants, but their stems or trunks serve the same photosynthetic function as some other plants' leaves. In plants photosynthesis takes place in chloroplasts. Chloroplasts may be in the cells of fruits, stems, but most of all in leaves. Cacti perform photosynthesis in the same place as all other plants, inside cellular organelles called chloroplasts. Stem succulents have thick water storing stems. To limit water loss many desert adapted plants have very small or vestigial leaves. This presents a trade- off problem because reducing water loss with smaller leaves also reduces the number of chloroplast containing cells in the leaves. To compensate, the photosynthesis function is transferred to cortical cells in the fleshy stem, and so their green colour. This is not so unusual because many plants have green stems when they are young. Photosynthetic stems must also have stomate, pores, through which gas exchange takes place. Again there is a functional trade-off problem because while gas exchange is necessary for photosynthesis, water is lost through the pores. Cacti are among a group of plants that solve this problem by capturing solar energy by day, and finishing the photosynthesis by night when the stomata can be open with minimal water loss. They use Crassulacean acid metabolism (CAM). The stomata are open at night, and CO2 is fixed by the enzyme PEP carboxylase (and some others) into malic acid, which is stored in the vacuoles of cells in the cortex and pith. During the daytime, with closed stomata, CO2 is split from the malic acid and used in the Calvin cycle like other plants.

50. Answer (c) Explanation During Rig Vedic period, the tribal identities were more important than the territorial identities. The tribal assemblies elected their rajan and he exercised limited powers and no taxation system prevailed. The king was not the owner of revenue lands and he never imposed taxes. Tribal assemblies were powerful.

51. Answer (c) Explanation Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti was a 12th century sufi saint. He is also known as Gharib Nawaz (Benefactor of the Poor), was an Islamic scholar and philosopher from South Asia. Chishti introduced and established the Chishti Order of Sufism in the Indian subcontinent. The initial spiritual chain or silsila of the Chishti order in India, comprising Chishti, Qutbuddin Bakhtiar Kaki, Fariduddin and Nizamuddin Auliya—each successive person being the disciple of the previous—includes the great Sufi saints of Indian history. Qutub Minar is named after Qutbuddin Bakhtiar Kaki who was the disciple of Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti.

52. Answer (a) Explanation He was the most radical disciple of Ramananda. He is seen as one who balanced the life of a householder, a mystic and a tradesman. Bijak, Sakhi Granth, Kabir Granthawali and Anurag Sagar are compositions of Kabir. The hallmark of Kabir’s works consists of his two line couplets (Doha), which reflect his deep philosophical thinking. He criticized the existing social order and called for Hindu-Muslim unity. Kabir, lived in family of a Muslim weaver, strongly denounced idol worship, taking part in formal worship such as Namaz, pilgrimages or bathing in rivers. He wanted to preach a religion which was acceptable to all and that would unite all religions.

53. Answer (b) Explanation Maharaja Ranjit Singh was the founder of the Sikh Empire based in the Punjab region. He came to power in the early half of the 19th century, and his empire existed from 1799 to 1849. Born as the son of Maha Singh, the


Commander of the Sukerchakia Misl—one of 12 Sikh Misls in Punjab during the 18th century—Ranjit Singh followed in his courageous father’s footsteps to become an even greater leader. He built up a powerful, disciplined and well-equipped army along European line with the help of European structures. He also recruited Gurkhas, Biharis, Oriyas, Pathans, Dogras and Punjabi Muslims. He set up modern foundries to manufacture cannon at Lahore. He possessed the second-best army in Asia, the first being the army of the English East India Company. He was tolerant and liberal in religious matters. He appointed many Hindus and Muslims as officers. The most trusted of his ministers was Fakir Azizuddin (foreign affairs), while his finance minister was Dewan Dina Nath.

54. Answer (a) Explanation SAJIBU CHEIRAOBA is the lunar new year festival of the people who follow the Sanamahism religion of the Indian state of Manipur. The festival is mainly observed on the first lunar day of the lunar month Sajibu (March/April) by the Meiteis community, a majority ethnic group of Manipur. SAGA DAWA Saga Dawa is one of the major Buddhist festivals in Sikkim It is celebrated in the Tibetan lunar month The festival commemorates the birth, enlightment and death of the Buddha

55. Answer (c) Explanation Following are produced by honeybee and their uses: Honey: Nutritious whole food with medicinal property; Bee wax: used in candle, pharmaceutical and cosmetic industry; Bee venom: used for treatment of arthritis, rheumatic and pains; Royal Jelly: nutritious, increase vigour and vitality/fertility; Propolis: resinous substance uses as gum; Honey and hive products: source of income to the rural people and also generate employment.

56. Answer (c) Explanation The five commercially traded varieties of natural silks are Mulberry,Tropical Tasar, Oak Tasar, Eri and Muga. Silks other than mulberry are all grouped together and called as ‘Vanya Silks’. While rasberry is the edible fruit of plant species in the genus Rubus of the rose family.

57. Answer (a) Explanation The objectives of ‘Blue Revolution’ (Neel Kranti Mission) are as follows: • To fully tap the total fish potential of the country both in the inland and the marine sector and triple the

production by 2020. • To double the income of the fishers and fish farmers with special focus on increasing productivity, better

marketing and post-harvest infrastructure. • To triple the export earnings by 2020 with focus on benefits flow to the fishers and fish farmers. • To transform the fisheries sector as a modern industry and ensure inclusive participation of fishers and fish

farmers. • To enhance food and nutritional security of the country.

58. Answer (d) Explanation In 2006, Government enacted Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) Act to provide for a single food law regulator, and repealed earlier acts. The statutory body The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the administrative control of Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.

59. Answer (c) Explanation At the 39th session of the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Assembly in 2016, ICAO’s Member States adopted a global carbon offsetting scheme for international aviation. ICAO’s Carbon Offset and Reduction Scheme for International Aviation (CORSIA) is set to commence with a voluntary period (2021-2026) after which it will become mandatory. Under the Carbon Offsetting Scheme for International Aviation (CORSIA), aircraft operators will be required to purchase offsets, or “emission units”, for the growth in CO2 emissions covered by the scheme. CORSIA aims to address any annual increase in total CO2 emissions from international civil aviation above 2020 levels. In order to address the concerns of developing States and to take into account the special circumstances and respective capabilities of States, CORSIA will be implemented in phases. From 2021 until 2026 the scheme will only apply to international flights between States that volunteer to participate in the pilot and/or first phase. All other international flights will be exempt. From 2027, participation is mandatory for States meeting certain criteria related to their level of aviation activities, except Least Developed Countries (LDCs), Small Island Developing States (SIDs) and Landlocked Developing Countries (LLDCs) which are exempt, unless they volunteer to participate.


60. Answer (c) Explanation The Bay of Fundy of Nova Scotia has the largest tidal range in the world but the height of tidal bore is only about one meter. Because, the Bay of Fundy has quite wide mouth at its opening. In Southampton, along the southern coast of England, tides occur four times a day. Because, tidal water comes through the English Channel, as well as through the North Sea at different intervals.

61. Answer (b) Explanation List of countries entirely south of the Tropic of Capricorn • Lesotho • New Zealand • Swaziland • Uruguay

62. Answer (c) Explanation Major hot deserts are mainly formed over subtropical high pressure belt, where wind subsides from upper troposphere. Subtropical high pressure belt is characterized by low level wind divergence and anticyclonic activity. Lower level wind convergence with cyclonic activity (extra tropical cyclones) – Subpolar low pressure belt. Lower level wind convergence with ascending convective currents – Equatorial low pressure belt.

63. Answer (b) Explanation 1. Himachal Himalayas : Dun formations 2. Kashmir Himalayas : Dal lake 3. Sikkim Himalayas : Duar formations 4. Arunachal Himalayas : Fast flowing rivers

64. Answer (c) Explanation Third statement must have been the other way around. The correct statement would be “In General Elections, the party must manage to win six per cent of the votes and win at least four Lok Sabha seats.” A party has to live up to at least one of the following qualifications to be recognised as a national party: (a) It has to win a minimum of two percent of the seats in the Lok Sabha from at least three different States. (b) In General Elections, the party must manage to win six percent of the votes and win at least four Lok Sabha

seats as well. (c) The party is recognised as a 'state level party' in four or more States.

65. Answer (b) Explanation Article 142 provides that “the Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it…” This provision as a potent tool in the hands of the Supreme Court to bring about changes in significant policy issues to affect the public at large. Earlier, the Apex court has invoked this Article to bring complete justice to various deprived sections of society or to protect the environment such as awarding compensation for Bhopal Gas Tragedy Victims. However, the unrestrained use of the Article has been criticized because it was seen as Judicial overreach. For instance, the Supreme Court has invoked the same Article recently to ban the sale of alcohol in highways and to cancel the coal block allocation. These were essentially policy choices in the domain of executive action. Supreme Court has struck down the NJAC Act because it affects the independence of Judiciary, part of Basic Structure of the Constitution.

66. Answer (b) Explanation Parliamentary secretaries are ruling party members appointed to assist ministers. They are regarded for all practical purposes as deputy ministers having access to all official files and documents. State Governments have been appointing parliamentary secretaries from among MLAs, especially those who could not be included in the Council of Ministers as junior ministers because of Article 164 (1A) which limits the total number of ministers to 15% of the strength of the assembly. In India, Chief Ministers appoint parliamentary secretaries and administer oath of office. In general, the number of parliamentary secretaries corresponds to the number of cabinet ministers.


67. Answer (d) Explanation Article 370 is a temporary provision granting special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir. Article 370 specifies that except for Defence, Foreign Affairs, and Communications the Indian Parliament needs the State Government’s concurrence for applying all other laws. There is no State list for the State of Jammu and Kashmir. At the same time, while in relation to the other States, the residuary power of legislation belongs to Parliament, in the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the residuary powers belong to the Legislature of the State except some matters that affect the integrity of the nation. The As per the 3rd clause in the Article, Article 370 could be abrogated or amended by a Presidential Order only upon the recommendation of the State's Constituent Assembly.

68. Answer (b) Explanation Supreme Court had stuck down National Judicial Appointment Commission Act which was aimed to give an important role for executive branch in Judicial appointment. At the same time apex court has also agreed to revamp the present collegium system. They invited the government to form consensus in forming “Memorandum of Procedure” in the appointment of judges. However, serious disagreements between Judiciary and executive prevails about whether the executive can have power to reject recommendations by the court on the ground of national security.

69. Answer (d) Explanation Protected areas Well known for 1. Manas (Assam) : One Horned Rhinoceros 2. Ranthambhore (Rajasthan) : Tiger 3. Periyar (Kerala) : Elephant

70. Answer (c) Explanation Coniferous trees like pine (chir pine), deodar, silver fir, Spruce etc are part of Himalaya. Coniferous trees are mostly associated with cold regions. Shola forests are the patches of stunted tropical montane forest found in valleys within rolling grassland in the montane regions of South India. Teak trees are the most dominant species of trees found in tropical deciduous forests. Bamboos, sal, shisham, sandalwood, khair, kusum, arjun, mulberry are some of the other commercially important species found here. The largest area of mangrove forest in the world is in Sundarbans in the west Bengal.


71. Answer (c)

Explanation The principal tributaries joining the river from right are the Yamuna and the Son. The important left bank tributaries are the Ramganga, the Gomati, the Ghaghara, the Gandak, the Kosi and the Mahananda. The Kali River also known as “Sharda River”, “Kutiyangdi” or “Mahakali River” is a Himalayan river, which flows through Uttarakhand. The traditional source of Kali River is LipmpiyaDhura in Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand, 3,600 metres about 11,800 feet above sea level. The length of this river is 252 km and the basin area is 18,140 square km. Kali River is the headwater stream of the Mahakali River. Sharada river ends at Ghaghara River, Uttar Pradesh. Teesta is a river originating from Sikkim and is a tributary of Brahmaputra river.

72. Answer (b) Explanation Shale gas refers to natural gas that is trapped within shale formations. Shales are fine-grained sedimentary rocks (organic-rich rocks) that can be rich resources of petroleum and natural gas. The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) has identified six basins as potentially shale gas bearing. These are Cambay, Assam-Arakan, Gondwana, Krishna-Godavari, Kaveri, and the Indo-Gangetic plain. Coal is the world’s most abundant and widely distributed fossil fuel with reserves for all types of coal estimated to be about 990 billion tonnes, enough for 150 years at current consumption. Most of the coal and the ferrous group of minerals in India occur in the peninsula, south of the Vindhyas.

73. Answer (b) Explanation BNHS-India, is a pan-India wildlife research organization, has been promoting the cause of nature conservation for the past 132 years, since 1883. It is an oldest and one of the largest environmental non-governmental organisations in India. BNHS Mission is Conservation of Nature, primarily Biological Diversity through action based on Research, Education and Public Awareness. BNHS Vision is to become a Premier independent scientific organization with a broad based constituency, excelling in the conservation of threatened species and habitats. This society is engaged in collecting information and specimens of fauna and flora all through the country and played an important role in drawing public attention to the need of wildlife conservation. During its journey from an amateurs’ organization to a professional organization, the guiding principle of BNHS has been that conservation should be based on scientific research. Over 150 scientists and professionals work on and off the field to further the tasks of research, conservation and nature education. BNHS has been designated as a Scientific and Industrial Research Organization (SIRO) by Department of Science & Technology, Government of India and is the Partner of BirdLife International in India. In the true spirit of sustainable development, BNHS aims to continue its conservation mission with a professional approach and strong research background, while closely working with various stakeholders including government, research institutes, academia, corporates, civil society groups and the general public.

74. Answer (c) Explanation During the 1870s and 1880s, large parts of Eastern Bengal witnessed agrarian unrest caused by oppressive practices of the Zamindars. The Zamindars resorted to enhanced rents beyond legal limits and prevented the tenants from acquiring occupancy rights under Act X of 1859. Having had enough of the oppressive regime, the peasants of Yusufshahi Pargana in Patna district formed an agrarian league or combination to resist the demands of the Zamindars. The league organised a rent strike—the ryots refused to pay the enhanced rents,


challenging the Zamindars in the courts. Funds were raised by ryots to fight the court cases. The struggles spread throughout Patna and to other districts of East Bengal. The main form of struggle was that of legal resistance; there was very little violence. A number of young Indian intellectuals supported the peasants’ cause. These included Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, R.C. Dutt and the Indian Association under Surendranath Banerjea.

75. Answer (d) Explanation Congress Socialist Party, or (CSP), was a left-wing group within the Congress. It was formed with Acharya Narendra Deva as President and Jay Prakash Narayan as General Secretary in 1934. The rise of this party was due to the increased left influence in the Indian National Congress. By 1935, one third of the Congress members were Congress Socialists. These leaders rejected the idea of Gandhi (which they saw as anti-rational). Though, they remained active in the workers and peasants movement, they rejected the sectarian attitude of the Communist Party of India. They were influenced by Marxism-Leninism. The members ranged from the advocates of armed struggle to nonviolent resistance. The ideal of this party was decentralized socialism in which a substantial share in the economic power among co-operatives, trade unions, independent farmers, and local authorities is guaranteed.

76. Answer (d) Explanation Dickie bird plan was the brain child of Lord Mount Batten which was also called Balkan plan which proposed balkanization. Nehru and Maulana Azad were the official negotiators for the Congress with Cripps. C R Formula or Rajaji Formula was proposed by C. Rajagopalachari which constituted the basis for Gandhi-Jhinna talks in 1944. August Offer was offered by the then viceroy Lord Linlithgow.

77. Answer (c) Explanation 1st Carnatic war (1746 – 1748) – Battle of Ambur (1749) - Battle of Buxar (1764) -3rd Anglo-Maratha war (1818).

78. Answer (b) Explanation The moderates strongly believed in the essential sense of justice and the goodness of the British nation and followed the policy of gradualism and constitutionalism. Thus, they followed the 3 Ps Policies of prayer, petition and protest. It demanded mild constitutional reforms, economic relief, administrative reorganization and protection of civil rights. Other demands include the organisation of the provincial councils, simultaneous holding of examinations for the ICS in India and England and Reduction of Military Expenditure etc. However the leaders were cautious in their demands. They didn’t want to annoy govt. and incur the risk of suppression.

79. Answer (c) Explanation Brexit is a commonly used term for the United Kingdom's withdrawal from the European Union. Article 50 of the Treaty of Lisbon gives any European Union (EU) member the right to quit unilaterally, and outlines the procedure for doing so. It gives the leaving country two years to negotiate an exit deal and once it's set in motion it can't be stopped except by unanimous consent of all member states.

80. Answer (c) Explanation China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) is a $46 billion Chinese funded ambitious 3,000-km-long corridor which will shorten the route for Chinese energy imports from the Middle East by 12,000 km. CPEC aims to build an economic corridor running from Kashgar, Xinjiang, to Pakistan’s Gwadar Port. It is part of the Belt and Road Initiative proposed by the Chinese government.

81. Answer (c) Explanation The regional organisation of eight South Asian nations, namely Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka is known as the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). The SAARC Secretariat is in Kathmandu (Nepal). Mauritius and Myanmar are among the nine observers in SAARC. The 19th summit of SAARC scheduled for October 9-10, 2016 was postponed due to the backing of India followed by Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Sri Lanka blaming Pakistan for Sponsoring terrorism and Uri attack. The move by the five countries means the Summit cannot go ahead as the SAARC charter mandates that all decisions of the regional bloc must be made unanimously. The absence of even one member-state leads to the automatic postponement or cancellation of a summit. In April 2007, Afghanistan became the official full member and it is the only new inclusion that happened since SAARC was established.

82. Answer (a) Explanation The British Foreign Secretary Boris Johnson has recently sought Indian assistance in resolving current tensions between the U.K., the U.S. and Mauritius over the future of the U.S. military base Diego Garcia, and the Indian


Ocean Chagos Archipelago, amid a warning from Mauritius last year that it would push to take the matter to the International Court of Justice. Marshall Islands, a tiny Pacific island nation recently filed a lawsuit against nine nuclear-armed nations, including India, at the International Court of Justice for violating their legal obligation to disarm. Ties between China and Japan have been strained by a territorial row over a group of islands, known as the Senkaku islands in Japan and the Diaoyu islands in China. It is a group of uninhabited islands and rocks in the East China Sea. The islands are controlled by Japan.

83. Answer (d) Explanation Mercosur is a regional economic organisation made up of four member countries—Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, and Uruguay. Recently, Venezuela was suspended from the Mercosur trade group over its failure to comply with its commitments when it joined the group in 2012. Mercosur aims to integrate the economies of South America.

84. Answer (b) Explanation According to Article 20(3), no person accused of any offences shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. It extends to both oral evidence and documentary evidence. And this right is only available to criminal proceedings While Article 19, grants the right to form associations, not recognition for the formed association. Free and Compulsory education is added under Article 21A through 86th Constitutional Amendment Act. Right to vote is only a legal right established through Article 324, and not a fundamental right.

85. Answer (c) Explanation The Global Tiger Forum was established in 1994, with a goal to highlight the rationale for Tiger preservation and provide leadership and common approach throughout the world in order to safeguard the survival of the Tiger, its prey and the habitat. The Global Tiger Forum is an inter-governmental international organization for the conservation of tigers in the wild. The GTF is committed to work through mandate ratified by the Tiger Range Countries (TRCs) to ensure the implementation of the Global Tiger Recovery Programme (GTRP). It is the only inter-governmental and international body functioning exclusively for the conservation of tigers in the wild. GTF is involved in various activities and programs in the tiger range countries. The GTF has several members from the Tiger range countries, non-Tiger range countries, international and national NGOs. The tiger range countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia, China, India, Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Russia, Thailand and Vietnam and the Non Tiger Range countries willing to support and/or participate in Tiger conservation programmes is United Kingdom. In the decision of the International Symposium on Tiger held at New Delhi during February 1993 wherein a Delhi declaration on tiger conservation was adopted by the participants of the conference, there was a recommendation that a Global Tiger Forum be set up to embark on a worldwide campaign to save the wild tiger. This was followed up in the meeting of the Forestry forum for developing countries held at New Delhi in Sept '93 where a small sub group meeting was taken by the Minister in charge of Environment and Forests, Government of India with the Ministers of various tiger range states present. This sub group also re-iterated the need for formation of Global Tiger Forum. As a follow up of the decision, the first meeting of the tiger range countries was held in March 1994 at New Delhi attended by 11 tiger range states and others. In the said meeting a resolution was passed to form the Global Tiger Forum with its secretariat at New Delhi and the Union Minister for Environment & Forest, Govt. of India as the first Chairman of this forum. The current Chairperson of the forum is the Minister of Environment and Forests, Government of India, who took over the responsibilities of GTF after the 5th General Assembly held at New Delhi, India on March 30, 2011.

86. Answer (a) Explanation In 1924, Mahad Municipality, which was part of Bombay Province, passed orders to throw open the famous Chavdar water tank of Mahad city to all communities. Earlier, untouchables were not allowed to use water from Mahad tank. High caste Hindus opposed this order of Municipal Board. In response, Ambedkar organised a conference of thousands untouchable delegates at Mahad on March 20, 1927 to support the decision of Municipal Board. Ambedkar, in his presidential address, stressed the necessity of rooting out ideas of highness or lowness and inculcating self-elevation through self-help, self-respect and self-knowledge. After the conference, all delegates marched to the tank and asserted their right to drink and take water from the tank. A Satyagraha Conference was organised at Mahad on December 25, 1925 which demanded that Hindu society should be organised on the basis of equality and absence of casteism. It was also resolved to burn Manu smriti, as according to Ambedkar, it perpetuated the social, economic, religious and political slavery of the untouchables. As per the resolution, Manu smriti was burnt on December 25, 1927. Mahad Satyagraha was first collective protest of untouchables under the leadership of Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar. This movement was although withdrawn but gave confidence to the untouchables to fight against social


disability. Every year, March 20 is observed as Social Empowerment day in India to commemorate the Mahad Satyagraha.

87. Answer (b) Explanation The Sarvatobhadrika image of 4 Jinas standing back to back belongs to Mathura school of art.

88. Answer (d) Explanation WOOD’S DISPATCH, 1854 It is considered as the “Magna Carta of English Education in India”, this document was the first

comprehensive plan for the spread of education in India. It asked the government of India to assume responsibility for the education of masses, thus repudiating

the downward filtration theory, at least on paper. It systematized the hierarchy from Vernacular primary schools at the bottom, followed by Anglo-Vernacular

High Schools and an affiliated college at district level and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.

It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernacular languages at school level.

It laid stress on female education and vocational education and on teachers’ training. It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions be secular.

89. Answer (c) Explanation Ransomware is a type of malicious software designed to block access to a computer system until a sum of money is paid. In the real world, a person is taken hostage for ransom. Similarly, Ransomware is a malicious software that infects the computer and asks for money.

90. Answer (b) Explanation To monitor Revised National Tuberculosis Programme (RNTCP) effectively, a web enabled and case based monitoring application called NIKSHAY has been developed by National Informatics Centre (NIC). This is used by health functionaries at various levels across the country in association with Central TB Division (CTD), Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. NIKSHAY covers various aspects of controlling TB using technological innovations. Apart from web based technology, SMS services have been used effectively for communication with patients and monitoring the programme on day to day basis.

91. Answer (a) Explanation OpenForge is Government of India's platform for open collaborative development of e-governance applications. Through this platform, the government wants to promote the use of open source software and promote sharing and reuse of e-governance related source code.

92. Answer (b) Explanation eSAMPARK is a mechanism to connect the government directly with citizens across India by running mailer, outbound dialing and SMS campaigns. The platform is used for sharing informational and public service messages. The concept of e-SAMPARK has been introduced to establish proactive communication by digitization of campaigns. The multi-faceted platform facilitates not only seamless communication between the government and citizens, but also maintains a database of contacts of the nodal officers, representatives and citizens.

93. Answer (a) Explanation In efforts to strengthen public health infrastructure for the HIV community, the both houses (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) passed the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) and Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome – AIDS (Prevention and Control) Bill, 2017. It will empower the people affected with the disease by giving them legal sanctity. The bill is significant since India has the third largest HIV epidemic in the world. The Bill was introduced in 2014. The amendments to this Bill were introduced by the current government in July 2016. Since then there have been several changes to the original Bill. The Bill seeks to prevent and control the spread of HIV and AIDS (1st Statement), prohibits discrimination against persons with HIV and AIDS. The Bill makes anti-retroviral therapy a legal right of HIV/AIDS patient (2nd Statement). The newly passed Bill has provisions to safeguard the property rights of HIV positive people (3rd Statement). Every HIV infected person below the age of 18 years has the right to reside in a shared household and enjoy the facilities of the household.


94. Answer (a) Explanation On 1 January 2016, the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development — adopted by world leaders in September 2015 at an historic UN Summit — officially came into force. Over the next fifteen years (from 2016 to 2030), with these new Goals that universally apply to all, countries will mobilize efforts to end all forms of poverty, fight inequalities and tackle climate change, while ensuring that no one is left behind. The SDGs, also known as Global Goals, build on the success of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) and aim to go further to end all forms of poverty. Option (a) is not a Sustainable Development Goal. It was the Millennium Development Goals. Option (b), (c) and (d) are the Sustainable development goals. The Sustainable Development Goals for 2015 to 2030 are: 1. End poverty in all its forms everywhere 2. End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture 3. Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages 4. Ensure inclusive and quality education for all and promote lifelong learning 5. Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls 6. Ensure access to water and sanitation for all 7. Ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable and modern energy for all 8. Promote inclusive and sustainable economic growth, employment and decent work for all 9. Build resilient infrastructure, promote inclusive and sustainable industrialization, and foster innovation 10. Reduce inequality within and among countries 11. Make cities and human settlement inclusive, safe, resilient and sustainable 12. Ensure sustainable consumption and production patterns 13. Take urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts 14. Conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas and marine resources for sustainable development; 15. Sustainably manage forests, combat desertification, halt and reverse land degradation, halt biodiversity loss 16. Promote peaceful and inclusive societies for sustainable development, provide access to justice for all and build

effective, accountable and inclusive institutions at all levels; and 17. Revitalize the global partnership including finance, technology, capacity building, and data and monitoring for

sustainable development.

95. Answer (d) Explanation The Deen Dayal Upadhyay Gram Jyoti Yojana is one of the flagship programmes of the Ministry of Power and will facilitate 24x7 supply of power. This scheme focuses on feeder separation (rural households & agricultural) and strengthening of sub-transmission & distribution infrastructure including metering at all levels in rural areas. This will help in providing round the clock power to rural households and adequate power to agricultural consumers. The earlier scheme for rural electrification viz. Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana (RGGVY) has been subsumed in the new scheme as its rural electrification component. Option (a) is the main objective of Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana. Option (b) is the purposes of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana. Option (c) is the main purposes of National Rural Health Mission.

96. Answer (c) Explanation Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana (VPBY) was launched on 16th September, 2014. It aims to provide social security during old age and protect elderly persons aged 60 years and above against a future fall in their interest income due to uncertain market conditions. The scheme is meant to provide an assured pension based on a guaranteed rate of return of 8% per annum for ten years, with an option to opt for pension on a monthly/quarterly/half-yearly or annual basis. It is a part of Government’s commitment for financial inclusion and social security. The scheme will be implemented through Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC). Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana-2017 was launched on 25th Jan, 2017. VPBY-2017 is proposed to be open for subscription for a period of one year from the date of launch. Second statement is wrong. Such a condition is not prescribed under the scheme.

97. Answer (a) Explanation Regional Connectivity Scheme (UDAN - Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik) is an innovative scheme to develop the regional aviation market. The Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) launched the scheme on 21st October, 2016. Primary objective of RCS is to facilitate / stimulate regional air connectivity by making it affordable. It also intends to revive un-served and under-served airports, promote tourism, increase employment and promote balanced regional growth. Under this scheme, half of the seats on the plane will be capped at Rs. 2,500 per hour’s flight. Government will subsidise the losses incurred by airlines flying to dormant airports.


98. Answer (b) Explanation Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) was launched on 25th December, 2000. It aims to promote access to economic and social services and thereby generating increased agricultural incomes and productive employment opportunities in India. It aims to provide all-weather road connectivity to all eligible unconnected habitations/villages (option - b) (as part of a poverty reduction strategy). It will permit the Upgradation (to prescribed standards) of the existing roads in those Districts where all the eligible Habitations of the designated population size have been provided all-weather road connectivity. It will cover only the rural areas. Project has helped to lay down an environmental protection code to ensure that trees are planted along the newly built roads. Option (a) is the objective of Deen Dayal Upadhyay Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY), launched for providing continuous power supply to rural India. Option (c) is the purpose of Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan. Option (d) is the objective of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM).

99. Answer (b) Explanation The Smart Cities Mission is an innovative and new initiative by the Government of India to drive economic growth and improve the quality of life of people by enabling local development and harnessing technology as a means to create smart outcomes for citizens (2nd Statement). It aims to develop and upgrade living conditions and infrastructure in selected 100 cities across the country. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) is targeted cover 500 cities and towns into efficient urban living spaces over a period of five years. So the 1st statement is wrong. The programme is using the 'Challenge' or competition method to select cities (3rd Statement) for funding and using a strategy of area-based development.

100. Answer (b) Explanation The BrahMos Supersonic Cruise Missile is developed by a joint venture between Russia’s Mashinostroyenia and India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It is named after two rivers, the Brahmaputra in India and the Moskva in Russia. It operates on ‘Fire and Forget principle’. It means that after the launch, the missile can make use of a lot of different flight trajectories as it approaches the target. The present range of BrahMos is 290 km, which is now in the process of being extended up to 450 km following India’s entry into the Missile Technology Control Regime.

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