paper - 1 current affairs & environment prelims model …. pmt-11... · 2017-06-14 · test...

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TEST BOOKLET TARGET PRELIMS 2017 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 CURRENT AFFAIRS & ENVIRONMENT PRELIMS MODEL TEST-11 Time Allowed: Two Hour Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. Encode clearly the test booklet series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate place in the answer sheet. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which has a penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question, if it has a penalty. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO Date: 17-04-2017

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Page 1: PAPER - 1 CURRENT AFFAIRS & ENVIRONMENT PRELIMS MODEL …. PMT-11... · 2017-06-14 · test booklet target prelims 2017 general studies paper - 1 current affairs & environment prelims

TEST BOOKLET TARGET PRELIMS 2017

GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1

CURRENT AFFAIRS & ENVIRONMENT PRELIMS MODEL TEST-11

Time Allowed: Two Hour Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. Encode clearly the test booklet series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate place in the answer sheet.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test

Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which

has a penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question, if it has a penalty.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Date: 17-04-2017

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1. With reference to ecological niche, consider the following statements: 1. Niche is the physical space occupied by

an organism and its functional role in the community of organisms

2. A habitat have several ecological niche 3. Two species can have same ecological

niche Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. ‘NoMore50’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (a) campaign calling for stronger and higher

penalties for Tax evading (b) campaign calling for stronger and higher

penalties for animal cruelty (c) campaign calling for stronger and higher

penalties for environmental pollution (d) campaign calling for stronger and higher

penalties for smoking in public place

3. The Animal Welfare Board of India, country’s apex institution for promoting welfare of animals is constituted under the (a) Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (b) Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act,

1960 (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

4. With reference to Species richness, consider the following statements: 1. Species richness refers to the number of

species in an area or community. 2. Species richness in general tends to

increase with the size of the area or from higher to lower latitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. ‘One planet city challenge’, an initiative to recognize and reward cities for their efforts to combat climate change, is a programme created by (a) World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) (b) International Union for the Conservation

of Nature and Natural Resource (IUCN) (c) United Nations Framework Convention

on Climate Change (UNFCCC) (d) United Nations Conference on

Sustainable Development, Rio+20

6. With reference to ‘sangai’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an herbivorous animal. 2. It is found along the entire Western

Ghats regions of India.

3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only

7. Consider the following pairs: 1. Kamlang Tiger

Reserve : Arunachal

Pradesh 2. Tadoba-Andhari

Tiger Reserve : Madhya

Pradesh 3. Umred-Karhandla

wildlife sanctuary : Maharashtra

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

8. Recently, which of the following states has declared some butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’? 1. Arunachal Pradesh 2. Maharashtra 3. Karnataka 4. Himachal Pradesh Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

9. Consider the following statements: 1. National Board for Wildlife is established

under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

2. National Board for Wildlife is a statutory body.

3. National Board for Wildlife is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

10. If an animal is included in the Vermin category, what does it imply? (a) The animal comes under the Schedule I

of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (b) That particular animal can be culled as

it cause’s harm to crops and humans (c) That particular animal is a man-eater

wild animal (d) The animal is given a high degree of

protection by Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

11. One of the Ramsar site in India which is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity, is deteriorating primarily because of the change in water regime due to construction of a barrages and the commissioning of a

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Hydro-Power Project in that region. Which of the following could be that Ramsar site? (a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves (b) Chilika Lake (c) East Calcutta Wetlands (d) Loktak Lake

12. Consider the following protected areas: 1. Khangchendzonga 2. Achanakmar Amarkantak 3. Seshachalam 4. Manas Which of the above are included in the world network of Biosphere reserve by UNESCO? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

13. Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of wildlife? (a) Tiger Reserve (b) National Park (c) Wildlife Sanctuary (d) Zoological Park

14. Which one of the following statements is not true? (a) Teesta river originates in the Himalayas

and flows through Sikkim and West Bengal to merge with the Brahmaputra

(b) Harikke barrages water is utilized in the Indira Gandhi Canal

(c) River Luni is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kuchch

(d) Cauvery River rises from Trimbakeshwar

15. Which of the following animals are listed in the Vermin category in certain states by the Ministry of Environment and Forest? 1. Nilgai 2. Peacock 3. Rhesus Macaque 4. Elephant 5. Wild boar Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

16. Consider the following States: 1. Nagaland 2. West Bengal 3. Meghalaya In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Evergreen Forest’ occur? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

17. ‘BIOTA 1.0’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (a) a biofuel (b) a satellite in PSLV C37 (c) a biodiversity app (d) an anti-cancer drug produced form

plants

18. Consider the following statements regarding the Earth hour: 1. Earth hour is a global environmental

movement by International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource (IUCN).

2. Rajkot is declared as the National Earth hour capital of 2016.

3. The global Earth Hour City Challenge (EHCC) is a year-long competition that rewards cities for their long term efforts to combat climate change.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

19. Consider the following protected areas: 1. Satkosia 2. Ratapani 3. Kaziranga 4. Ranthambhore Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

20. Which of the following biotic components are producers of ecosystems? 1. Mosses 2. Ferns 3. Fungi 4. Phytoplankton Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

21. Consider the following statements: 1. Species evenness means relative

abundance of each species in a community

2. If a habitat has similar abundance for each species present, the habitat is said to have evenness.

3. Evenness tells whether a particular ecosystem is numerically dominated by one species or whether all of its species have similar abundances

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

22. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? 1. Carbon dioxide. 2. Ammonia 3. Ozone 4. Lead 5. Methane

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Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

23. Consider the following statements regarding Eco-sensitive Zone: 1. These are the land falling inside the

protected areas which act as the shock absorber to ecological damages.

2. These are declared to prevent ecological damage caused due to developmental activities around the protected areas.

3. Eco-sensitive Zones are declared under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

24. Which of the following pairs is/are correct? Protected Area State

1. Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary

: Arunachal Pradesh

2. Panna Tiger Reserve

: Kerala

3. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

: Madhya Pradesh

4. Dandeli - Anshi Tiger Reserve

: Karnataka

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1 only (d) 1 and 4

25. With reference to ‘hangul’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a subspecies of elk native to India. 2. It is found along the entire deccan

regions of India 3. It is given legal protection under

Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only

26. With reference to an organisation known as ‘Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a global organisation dedicated to

maintaining and restoring wetlands for their environmental values as well as for the services they provide to people.

2. It identifies the sites known as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.

3. They work at the field level to develop and mobilise knowledge, giving respect to traditional values and use the

practical experience to advocate for better policies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

27. With reference to coral bleaching, consider the following statements: 1. Coral bleaching takes place when the

symbiotic relationship between algae (zooxanthellae) and their host corals breaks down under certain environmental stresses

2. Coral beaching occurs only due to the rise in temperature

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

28. Consider the following statements: 1. The sum total of the populations of the

same kind of organism constitute the community.

2. Community consists of interacting populations and all the species living in an area.

3. Population consists of all the species living in an area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only

29. Consider the following statements: 1. The Home range of an animal could be

the whole area that can sustain the animal with living conditions such as food, shelter, and mating partners.

2. Home range is expressed to identify the total inhabited area of a particular species, subspecies, or other taxonomic group.

3. The territory expresses only the area of a particular group of animals in the same species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

30. Consider the following protected areas: 1. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary 2. Agasthyamalai 3. Sundarbans 4. Western Ghats Which of the above are declared World Heritage Sites? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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31. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. IUCN is a membership union composed

of both government and civil society organisations (NGOs) for the conservation of biodiversity

2. IUCN has an official Observer Status at the United Nations General Assembly

3. IUCN runs field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

32. Which of the following is/are the factors determining the primary productivity? 1. Availability of nutrients 2. Photosynthetic capacity of plants 3. Photosynthetic active radiation Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3only (d) 1, 2 and 3

33. Consider the following pairs: Tributary River Main River 1. Ken : Narmada 2. Wainganga : Ganga 3. Shyok : Indus Which of the pairs above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only

34. Which one of the following is the best description of World Heritage Sites? (a) A place of importance that is listed by

the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) as of special cultural or physical significance.

(b) The sites of outstanding example of ongoing ecological process and beauty only.

(c) The sites protected by IUCN without any human interventions.

(d) The places having ecologically important wetlands which are protected by Ramsar Convention.

35. Consider the following statements: 1. A biome is a large ecological area with a

distinct climate and a distinct biological community of plants, animals and other organisms.

2. One or more communities of different species interacting with one another and with their no-living environment is called as ecosystem.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

36. With reference to an initiative called Asian Waterbird Census (AWC), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The AWC is a citizen science programme

that supports the management and conservation of waterbirds and wetlands.

2. AWC is only monitoring waterbirds. 3. The Bombay Natural History Society

(BNHS) along with Wetlands International is organizing Asian Waterbird Census (AWC) to count waterbirds all over India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

37. Which one of the following is an example of parasitic food chain? (a) Phytoplankton→ Zooplankton→ Fish→

Hawk (b) Grass→ Grasshopper→ Frog→ Snake→

Hawk (c) Trees→ Fruit eating birds→ Lice and

bugs→ Bacteria and fungi (d) Dead leaves→ Earthworm→ Blackbird

38. With reference to India Biodiversity Awards (IBA), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of

Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) and United Nations Development programme (UNDP).

2. It recognise the contribution of stakeholders towards the conservation of biodiversity and excellence in biodiversity governance.

3. It is only giving awards to the steps taken for conservation of threatened species.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

39. Which of the following is not a correct statement? (a) Materials are cycling through

ecosystems (b) Energy is cycling through ecosystem (c) Energy will be reduced in every trophic

level (d) Energy transfer happens in an

ecosystem through the food chain

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40. What would happen if excess fertilisers are run off in to a lake ecosystem? 1. The excess in nutrients results in algal

bloom 2. Biodiversity of the lake will increase 3. Decrease in the oxygen level of the lake

and becomes dead zones Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

41. Which of the following is/are not a correct statement? 1. Ecological succession is the process

through which ecosystems tend to change over a period of time.

2. The xerarch succession starts from a wetter area and ends in a mesic state.

3. The hydrarch succession starts from a dry area and ends in a mesic state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

42. A snow covered region is the natural habitat of an Indian species, which were not sighted in the Kargil’s Drass Sector after the 1999 Kargil war, due to its habitat destruction. The species is again spotted in that region recently. Which one of the following could be that animal? (a) Himalayan Musk Deer (b) Himalayan Brown Bear (c) Himalayan Tahr (d) Snow leopard

43. Which of the following is not a correct statement? (a) Primary productivity is related to

producers (b) Primary productivity is the organic

material that plants produce (c) Net Primary Production (NPP) represents

the amount of energy or organic matter fixed or stored at trophic level one (Producers) after respiration

(d) Annual productivity of an ecosystem is greater than the annual increase in biomass of the herbivores in the ecosystem

44. With reference to speciation, consider the following statements: 1. Speciation occurring when the

population becomes separated by geographical barriers is called as allopatric speciation.

2. The formation of two or more species from a single ancestral species all occupying the same geographical area is known as sympatric speciation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

45. Consider the following: 1. Irrawaddy dolphin 2. Humpback dolphin 3. Bottlenose dolphin 4. Finless Porpoise Which of the above are naturally found in India? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

46. Other than indiscriminate cutting, what are the possible reasons for the very high mortality rate in the population of Khejri tree, a Keystone species found in Rajasthan? 1. Decrease in groundwater level 2. Fungal attacks 3. Use of mechanical ploughs 4. Lopping off of branches for fodder 5. Changing topography with the Indira

Gandhi Canal making water flow through once arid desert

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

47. Recently, from one of the global biodiversity hotspot in India four new tiny Night Frogs belong to the Nyctibatrachus genus were found which are endemic to that region; they are in threat posed by human activities, especially due to hydroelectric projects. The species can be seen in: (a) Himalaya (b) Western Ghats (c) Indo-Burma (d) Sundaland

48. Consider the following pairs: 1. Manas River : Assam 2. Peddavagu river : Arunachal Pradesh 3. Pala Rapu cliff : Telangana Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

49. In India, one of the strongest contenders for the top spot as the next-best substitute for petrol and diesel is biofuel. Which of the following is/are the source/sources for biodiesel? 1. Jatropha 2. Pongamiapinnata 3. Mahua 4. Neem 5. Castor Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

50. With reference to ‘pacha chedi’ (Neurocalyx calycinus), sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a medicinal plant endemic to the

southern parts of Western Ghats and Sri Lanka.

2. It has a potential for developing anti-cancer drug.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

51. ‘Aquila’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (a) Waste management technology (b) Wireless communication technology (c) Nuclear power production technology (d) Water conservation technology

52. Regarding ‘BharatNet’ sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It aims to provide on demand, affordable broadband connectivity of 2 Mbps to 20 Mbps for all households and on demand capacity to all institutions.

2. The entire project is being funded by Universal service Obligation Fund (USOF).

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

53. The province known as ‘Idlib’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to (a) Yemen (b) Syria (c) North Korea (d) Somalia

54. With reference to ‘Islamic Military Alliance to Fight Terrorism (IMAFT)’; consider the following statements: 1. It is a specialised agency of Organisation

of Islamic Cooperation in working relation with NATO.

2. It calls for all member states to cooperate to combat terrorism in all its forms and manifestations.

3. It was established by Saudi Arabia in December 2015 and its joint operations centre is based in Riyadh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

55. With reference to ‘International Energy Agency (IEA)’, consider the following statements: 1. The IEA was founded in 1974 to help

countries collectively respond to oil supply disruptions.

2. India recently became a member of International Energy Agency.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

56. In the South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation (SASEC), an initiative of seven countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants? 1. Pakistan 2. Bangladesh 3. Thailand 4. Myanmar 5. Nepal Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 5

57. Consider the following statements: 1. Tawang is a disputed territory in the

Western sector of the India- China boundary.

2. Tawang district is situated in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

58. Consider the following pairs: Community sometimes mentioned in the news

In the affairs of

1. Yazidis : Afghanistan 2. Pashtuns : Syria 3. Baloch : Pakistan Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

59. With reference to ‘Organoid’, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It was created by coating tiny gel beads

with liver-derived stem cells. 2. It aims to study the diseases, including

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

60. Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Shenzhou-11’ that was in the news recently? (a) Supercomputer of Russia

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(b) Remote sensing satellite of China (c) Rice variety made by India (d) Manned spacecraft of China

61. With reference to ‘Pelargonic Acid Vanillyl Amide (PAVA)’ shell, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is otherwise called Nonivamide. 2. It is a Russian-based ammunition. 3. It aims to find an alternative to pellet

guns for crowd control. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

62. With reference to ‘Sarathi vessel’, consider the following statements: 1. It is a torpedo recovery vessel. 2. It is capable of carrying pollution

response equipment to contain oil spill at sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. With reference to ‘Intellectual Disability (ID), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is otherwise called cystic fibrosis. 2. It is measured by an intelligence

quotient below 70. 3. It significantly limits an individual’s

practical skills. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

64. Yudh Abhyas 2016, recently seen in the news, is a joint military exercise between India and (a) Turkmenistan (b) Russia (c) U.S.A (d) Uzbekistan

65. With reference to ‘Barak-8 missile’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a surface-to-air missile. 2. It was jointly developed by India and

Russia. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. With reference to ‘Three parent technique’, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It involves fertilising both the mother’s egg and a donor egg with the father’s sperm.

2. It is legally approved in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

67. With reference to ‘avian influenza’, consider the following statements: 1. It is a disease caused by bacteria. 2. It is a zoonotic disease. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

68. With reference to ‘Quantum radar’, recently seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a device that uses quantum

entanglement photons to provide better detection capabilities than conventional radar systems

2. It will be useful for tracking targets with stealth technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

69. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana? (a) Members of the scheduled caste and

scheduled tribe households (b) Economically weaker sections, low-

income group and mid-income group (c) Physically differently abled or senior

citizens (d) All the above

70. Regarding ‘Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It aims to skill all the youth who are

poor and provide them with jobs having regular monthly wages.

2. It envisages setting up of at least 1500 to 2000 training centers across the country.

3. It guarantees placement for at least 75% trained candidates.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

71. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana, which of the following statements is/are correct?

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1. It provides for accidental Death Insurance.

2. It is available to people between 18 and 70 years of age with bank accounts

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

72. The endeavour of ‘Pradhan Mantri YUVA Yojana’ Programme is 1. to provide skills training and enhance

the employability of unemployed youth 2. to provide industry-relevant skill

training for unemployed youth 3. to provide entrepreneurship education

and training Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

73. ‘Swavlamban Health Insurance Scheme’ launched by the Government of India pertains to (a) provide affordable Health Insurance to

the persons with disabilities (b) provide one year life insurance scheme

to people in the age group of 18 to 50 years

(c) Social security scheme for rural landless household

(d) Financial inclusion of all the households in the country

74. Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of ‘National Rural Health Mission’ of the Government of India? 1. To provide accessible, affordable and

quality health care to the rural population, especially the vulnerable groups.

2. To achieve the goal of making the public health delivery system fully functional, community owned, decentralized health delivery system with inter-sectoral convergence at all levels

3. It aims to promote access to improved healthcare at household level through the female health activist (ASHA).

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

75. With reference to ‘Mission Poorna Shakti’, consider the following statements: 1. It aims to ensure violence against

women is eliminated progressively. 2. It aims to prevent gender biased sex

selective elimination

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

76. Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission is aimed at (a) enhancing livelihood security of people

in rural areas (b) development of 300 rural growth

clusters (c) creating efficient and effective

institutional platforms of the rural poor (d) All the above

77. With reference to Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, consider the following statements: 1. It provides a legal guarantee of 100 days

of work in a financial year. 2. Adult members of below poverty line

(BPL) households are eligible to get the benefits.

3. One-third of the stipulated work force must be women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

78. ‘PRAGATI’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at (a) starting a culture of timely

implementation of government projects and programmes, improving the governance in the country proactively

(b) providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs

(c) bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal financial system

(d) protecting, restoring and enhancing India’s diminishing forest cover

79. Subramanian panel’s recommendations are based on (a) MSP procurement operations (b) Mandi taxes (c) Agri warehousing facilities (d) Working of eNAM

80. Consider the following crops of India: 1. Sorghum 2. Buck wheat 3. Pearl millet Which of the above is/are coarse cereals? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3

81. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, and it has many other uses. Which one of the following is not a use of it?

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(a) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas.

(b) Guar gum is used in baking as a dough thickener.

(c) The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics.

(d) Guar is used in mining, petroleum drilling and textile manufacturing industries.

82. With reference to ‘sunflower’, consider the following statements: 1. Besides oil, almost every part of

sunflower has commercial value. 2. Crop gained importance due to its short

duration of maturity. 3. Since it is a photo-insensitive crop, it

can be grown throughout the year. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

83. Consider the following crops: 1. Cowpea 2. Cluster bean 3. Green gram 4. Pigeon pea Which of these are leguminous Green Manures? (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

84. Suez Canal connects (a) Red Sea and Gulf of Aden (b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea (c) Black Sea and Caspian Sea (d) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea

85. With reference to ‘Article 50 of European Union’, consider the following statements: 1. It sets out the process by which member

states may withdraw from the European Union.

2. It gives the leaving country two years to negotiate an exit deal.

3. It was created as part of the Treaty of Lisbon.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only

86. What is ‘Raisina Dialogue’? (a) It is a flagship conference of India on

geopolitics and geo-economics. (b) It was a meeting of global business

leaders in November 2016 which was organised by the Government of India.

(c) It is the nickname given to the Indus Water Treaty.

(d) It is the initiative of India to fight piracy in Indian Ocean region.

87. With reference to ‘World Food Programme (WFP)’, consider the following statements: 1. It was established very recently in

response to Syrian Civil War. 2. It is the largest humanitarian

organisation implementing school feeding programmes worldwide.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

88. With reference to ‘United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund (UNICEF)’, consider the following statements: 1. It is a United Nations (UN) programme

headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. 2. It advocates for the protection of

children's rights. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

89. With reference to ‘Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC)’, consider the following statements: 1. It was established in response to

incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.

2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

90. Diego Garcia island, which is a US military base is located in (a) Indian Ocean (b) Atlantic Ocean (c) Pacific Ocean (d) Arctic Ocean

91. ‘Ram Sethu’, recently in news, lies between which one of the following pairs of islands? (a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Amini and Canannore (c) Sumatra and Java (d) Pamban and Mannar

92. Consider the following pairs: National Cities Highway connected 1. NH 2 : Delhi and Kolkata 2. NH 5 : Chennai and Bhubaneshwar 3. NH 4 : Mumbai and Chennai Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

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93. Consider the following pairs: Hills State

1. Dafla Hills : Nagaland 2. Nallamalai Hills : Tamil Nadu 3. Agasthyamala : Kerala 4. Maikala range : Madhya Pradesh Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

94. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Carbon Offsetting Scheme for International Aviation’ is/are correct? 1. It suggests a single global market-based

measure to address CO2 emissions from international aviation.

2. The agreement was adopted at UNFCCC meeting in Paris in 2015.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

95. With reference to ‘Gravitational waves’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Gravitational waves are ripples in the

fabric of space-time. 2. Coalescing neutron stars produce

gravitational waves. 3. It was first discovered using Laser

Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory (LIGO).

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

96. Which of the following statements regarding ‘gas hydrates’ is/are correct? 1. They are ice-like combination of natural

gas and water found in oceans and polar regions.

2. Deposits of Gas hydrates are found in Krishna-Godavari Basin.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

97. Which of the following describes/describe the objective of ‘Ujwal Discom Assurance Yojna’? 1. Financial turnaround and operational

improvement of State electricity distribution utilities.

2. Reduction of cost of generation of power 3. Development of Renewable Energy Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

98. Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer was recently amended at Kigali, Rwanda. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Parties of Montreal Protocol agreed to

phase out Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). 2. The Kigali Amendment will enter into

force only if it is ratified by at least 20 parties to the Montreal Protocol.

3. Kigali agreement is not legally binding and countries can opt out of the agreement at any stage.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

99. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? Major Ports State (a) Jawaharlal

Nehru Port : Goa

(b) Ennore : Tamil Nadu (c) Paradip : Maharashtra (d) Mormugao : Odisaa

100. The Chenani-Nashri tunnel, the longest highway tunnel in India, is a part of which of the following National Highways? (a) NH 8 (b) NH 37 (c) NH 2 (d) NH 44

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