Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Roll Number

in Words :

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature :

Facsimile Signature Stamp of Centre Superintendent :

This Booklet contains 24 pages

MTN

03No. :

21. Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers is :-

(1) Gross primary productivity(2) Net primary productivity(3) Secondary productivity(4) Standing state and standing quality

2. In your opinion, which is the most effective way to conservethe plant diversity of an area :-(1) By creating biosphere reserve(2) By creating botanical garden(3) By developing seed bank(4) By tissue culture method

3. Photochemical smog pollution does not contain:-(1) Ozone(2) Nitrogen dioxide(3) Carbon dioxide(4) PAN (peroxy acyl nitrate)

4. World Summit on Sustainable Development (2002) was held at :-(1) Argentina(2) South Africa(3) Brazil(4) Sweden

5. Consider A and B are two species both are in obligatoryrelationship and beneficial to each other. The relationship isknown as :-(1) Commensalism(2) Mutualism(3) Parasitism(4) Predation

6. Read statements (A–D)(A) Sparrow eating seeds is Parasitism(B) Predator helps in maintaining species diversity in a

community(C) Calotropis produces cardiac glycoside that's why no

cattle grazing on this plant(D) Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to predator.How many statements are correct ?(1) Two(2) Four(3) One(4) Three

7. In the given diagram of stratification in lake community inwhich zone minimum diversity is found?

(1) B = Limmetic zone

(2) A = Littoral zone

(3) C = Profundal zone

(4) C = Littoral and, B = Limnetic zone both

8. According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), which

particulate size in diameter (in micrometers) of the air

pollutants is responsible for greatest harm to human health ?

(1) 25 or less

(2) 5.2 – 2.5

(3) 2.5 or less

(4) 2.5 or more

9. Which is the true?

(1) Test cross is a type of back cross

(2) Homologous chromosome participate in independent

assortment

(3) Test cross produces only dominant offspring

(4) Alleles are located on non homologous chromosome

10. The law of dominance is used to explain the expression of

only one of the parental characters in a monohybrid cross in

........ and the expression of both in .......

(1) F1 and F2

(2) F2 and F3

(3) F1 and F3

(4) F2 and F1

11. Male heterogamy and female heterogamy are respectively

found in :-

(1) Human, Honey bee

(2) Reptiles, Birds

(3) Drosophila, Birds

(4) Honey bee, reptile

312. Given below is a DNA segment showing components of lac

operon :-

In this lac operon :

(1) z, y, a structural genes are transcribed in presence of

lactose

(2) RNA polymerase binds to operator site

(3) Glucose induce the expression of structural genes

(4) Binding of RNA polymerase to promoter is inhibited

by allolactose

13. In transcription process a strand which does not code for

anything is known as :-

(1) Coding strand

(2) Template strand

(3) Antisense strand

(4) Non coding strand

14. Identify the gases A, B, C and D which contribute Global

Warming :-

15. Which name would you associate with a transgenic cowproducing milk having protein in a concentration of 2.4 g/litand is most suitable for consumption by human infants :-(1) Dolly(2) ANDI(3) Rosie(4) Eve

16. The experimental manipulation of DNA of different species,producing recombinant DNA is known as :-

(1) Electrophoresis(2) Recombinant DNA technology

(3) Transformation

(4) Somatic hybridization

17. Placental wolf and tasmanian wolf are example of :-(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Divergent evolution

(3) Homology(4) Both (1) and (3)

18. What is the main essence of Darwinian theory of evolution?

(1) Genetic variation(2) Isolation

(3) Struggle for existence

(4) Natural selection

19. According to Hugo de vries, single step large mutation iscalled :-

(1) Sport

(2) Saltation(3) Variation

(4) Mutation

20. According to chemical evolution the condition on primitive

earth were?(a) High temperature

(b) Volcanic storms(c) Reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3 etc

(d) Low temperature(e) Oxidizing atmosphere

(1) b, c and d

(2) a, b and e(3) c, d and e

(4) a, b and c

21. Sweet potato and potato are example of :-

(1) Convergent evolution(2) Divergent evolution

(3) Analogy(4) Both 1 and 3

422. The figure below is the diagrammtic representation of the

E.coli vector pBR322. Which one of the given options

correctly identifies its certain component(s) :-

(1) Ori-original restriction enzyme

(2) Rop-reduced osmotic pressure

(3) Hind III, EcoRI-selectable markers

(4) ampR, tetR – antibiotic resistance genes

23. Arrange the following wall layer of anther from inner side to

outside :-

(a) Tapetum

(b) Endothecium

(c) Epidermis

(d) Middle layer

(1) (a), (d), (b), (c)

(2) (c), (b), (d), (a)

(3) (b), (d), (b), (c)

(4) (b), (d), (a), (c)

24. How many plants in the list given below have albuminous

seeds?

Gram, Bean, Pea, Castor, Groundnut, Wheat, Maize

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 7

(4) 6

25. Major cause of FSH and LH surge at the end of pre-ovulatory

phase is :-

(1) Progesterone released from corpus luteum

(2) Estrogen from corpus luteum

(3) Estrogen from theca interna

(4) All of these

26. A couple is unable to produce a chid even after 2 years oftheir marriage. It is found that fallopian tubes and ovary ofthe female are perfect but uterus is not perfect. Male has noreproductive deficiency. Then which of the followingtechinque will be prefered :-(1) ICSI(2) GIFT(3) IUT(4) Surrogate

27. Purpose of immunisation is ?(1) Formation of immunological memory(2) Strengthing innate immunity(3) Promotion of phagocytosis(4) Promotion of Disease

28. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infect?(1) T-Helper cell(2) T-killer cell(3) Macrophage(4) Both '1' & '3'

29. Mark the correctly matched option :-

(1) A and B(2) B and C(3) A, B and C(4) Only C

30. Which provide micro environment for the development andmaturation of B-lymphocytes?(1) Bone–marrow(2) Spleen(3) Thymus(4) Lymph node

531. Many diseases are spread by insect vectors. One such major

vector is mosquito which spreads all of the following diseases,

except

(1) Chikungunya

(2) Filariasis

(3) Ascariasis

(4) Malaria

32. Semi dwarf rice varieties which were developed in India, are :-

(1) IR-8, Ratna

(2) IR-36, IR-8

(3) Ratna, Jaya

(4) Sonalika, Kalyan Sona

33. Breeding of crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals

or higher proteins and healthier fats is called:-

(1) Bioprospecting

(2) Mineral Enrichment

(3) Bioconservation

(4) Biofortification

34. Somatic hybrids are produced by:-

(1) Fusion of two germ cells

(2) Fusion of two complete somatic plant cell

(3) Fusion of isolated naked protoplast

(4) Fusion of two hybrid protoplast with cell wall

35. Match the column-I with column-II :-

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(ii)

(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

36. In liverworts, reduction division takes place in:-(1) Anthridium(2) Capsule(3) Archegonium(4) Gamete formation

37. When a bacteriophage transfer genetic material from onebacterium to another bacterium. This process is called :-(1) Transduction(2) Conjugation(3) Replication(4) Recombination

38. Which one is an incorrectly matched pair ?(1) Phycomycetes – Mucor, Albugo(2) Ascomycetes – Penicillium, Aspergillus(3) Basidiomycetes – Puccinia, Agaricus(4) Deuteromyectes – Ustilago, Colletotrichum

39. The cell wall of algae is made up of :(a) Cellulose(b) Galactans(c) CaCO3

(d) Hemicellulose(e) Suberin(f) Lignin(g) MannansChoose the correct combination :-(1) a,e,f,g(2) a,b,d,e(3) a,b,c,g(4) a,c,e,f,g

40. Fertilisation is internal in :-(1) Rana Tigrina, Psittacula, Scoliodon(2) Hippocampus, Rana tigrina, Testudo(3) Neophron, Chameleon, Scoliodon(4) Bufo, Clarios, Pavo

41. The characterstic that proves the frog evolved from fishes is :-(1) The ability to swim in water(2) The tadpole larva in frogs which resembles the fishes

in many character(3) Similarity in the shape of the head(4) The tadpole larva of frogs and fishes are uricotelic

642. How many plants in the given below have corolla with twisted

aestivation?Calotropis, Mustard, China rose, Soyabean, Cotton, Petunia,Tulip, Lady finger, Cassia, Gulmohar(1) Six(2) Four(3) Five(4) Three

43. In monocotyledons stem, vascular bundles are closed typebecause :(1) Vascular bundles have cambium and cambium possess

the ability to form secondary xylem and phloem(2) Vascular bundles have no cambium and they do not

form secondary tissue.(3) Vascular bundles have cambium and cambium do not

possess the ability to form secondary tissue.(4) Both (2) and (3)

44. Which is the incorrect statement for areolar connective tissue:-(1) Present below the skin(2) Most widely distributed connective tissue(3) Fibres are densely packed(4) Works as support framework for epithelium

45. Which of the following groups belongs to acid insolublepool?(1) Proteins, Nucleic acids, polysaccharides, Lipids(2) Lipid, Nucleic acid, Fatty acids, Amino acids(3) Nucleotides, Proteins, polysaccharides, Lipids(4) Proteins, Monosaccharides, Nitrogen bases, Lipids

46. The formation of succinic acid from succinyl CoA isassociated with :-(1) Reduction of NAD+

(2) Decarboxylation(3) Phosphorylation(4) Hydration

47. Ascent of sap takes place due to :-(1) Root pressure(2) Transpiration pull(3) Mass flow(4) Both (2) and (3)

48. During non-cyclic photophosphorylation, electrons arecontinously lost from the reaction centre of PS II. Whichsource is used to replace these electrons :-(1) Sunlight(2) O2

(3) H2O(4) CO2

49. Which of the following is not a function of auxin?(1) Induce Dormancy(2) Enhancing cell division(3) Induce callus formation(4) Maintain apical dominance

50. The hormone which slimulates reabsorption of Ca+2 by therenal tubules and increases Ca+2 absorption from digestedfood is :-(1) Aldosterone(2) Anti Diuretic hormone(3) Parathormone(4) Thyrocalcitonin

51. Grave's disease occur due to :-(1) Hypo secretion of hypothalamic hormone(2) Hypo secretion of corticoides hormone(3) Hypo secretion of pituitary hormone(4) Hyper secretion of thyroid hormone

52. Second heart sound (DUP) is produced due to:-(1) Closure of semilunar valve(2) Closure of tricuspid valve(3) Opening of bicuspid valve(4) Opening of semilunar valve

53. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in Alveoli, atmospheric airand tissues will be :-(1) 0.3, 40, 45(2) 40, 0.3, 45(3) 0.3, 104, 28(4) 104, 159, 40

54. Which joint is present between atlas and axis vertebrae?(1) Ball & Socket Joint(2) Pivot Joint(3) Hinge Joint(4) Saddle joint

755. How many of the following animals are an example of

protochordates?

Ascidia, Branchiostoma, Salpa, Balanoglossus,

Saccoglossus, Doliollum, Ophiura. Antedon.

(1) Three

(2) Four

(3) Five

(4) Two

56. How many informations are correct about the given animal?

(i) Triploblastic, bilateral symmetry.

(ii) Metamerically segmented and coelomate animals.

(iii) Dioecious

(iv) Closed circulatory systems present

(v) Lateral appendages parapodia present

(1) Five

(2) Four

(3) One

(4) Three

57. Identify the given floral diagram and choose suitable floral

formula from the following.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

58. Symptoms in a growing baby like stunted growth, mental

retardation, abnormal skin, deaf-mutism, protruding tongue

etc. are developed due to :-

(1) Hyperthyroidism

(2) Hypothyroidism during pregnancy

(3) Simple goitre

(4) Deficiency of GH

59. These processes occurs during repolarisation of nerve fibre :-

(a) Open Na+ channel

(b) Closed Na+ channel

(c) Closed K+ channel

(d) Open K+ channel

(1) b and d

(2) a and c

(3) b and c

(4) a and b

60. RNAi results in :-

(1) Silencing of mRNA translation

(2) Silencing of a specific mRNA due to complementary

dsRNA molecule

(3) Silencing of mRNA transcription

(4) Silencing of DNA for mRNA transcription.

61. Above pyramid shown :-

(1) Expending population(2) Stable population(3) Declining population(4) None of above

62. Which of the following option is not related withmitochondria?(1) Photophosphorylation(2) Formation of ATP(3) Endosymbiotic origin(4) Division by fission

863. Which of the following is not a part of bark?

(1) Secondary phloem(2) Phellem(3) Phelloderm(4) Secondary xylem

64. Match the column–I with column–II and choose the correctanswer on the basis of codes given in column–I and column–II

Column-I Column-III Tuber a ColocaciaII Bulb b PotatoIII Rhizome c OnionIV Corm d Ginger(1) I–b, II–c, III–d, IV–a(2) I–c, II–b, III–c, IV–d(3) I–b, II–d, III–a, IV–c(4) I–c, II–a, III–b, IV–d

65. Which one is incorrect for variable number of tendom repeats(VNTR)?(1) It is a location in a genome where short nucleotide

sequence is organised as tendom repeat.(2) The number of repeat varies from chromosome to

chromosome in an individual and also betweenindividuals.

(3) Its size varies from 0.1 to 20 kbp.(4) It is exactly same in dizygotic twins.

66. The recent ancestors of man of today were :-(1) Java man and Peking man(2) Ramapithecus and Shivapithecus(3) Apes and Monkeys(4) Cromagnon and Neanderthal man

67. Identify the labelled (a), (b) and (c) :-

(1) Lymph gland, Typhlosole, Gizzard(2) Lymph gland, Typhlosole, Crop(3) Intestinal caecum, Typhlosole, Stomach(4) Intestinal caecum, Typhlosole, Gizzard

68. During unfavourable condition slime moulds form :-

(1) Conidia

(2) Pollen grain

(3) Fruiting bodies

(4) Gametes

69. Which of the following match is correct ?

Column–I Column–II

(A) Cyathium (i) Labiatae

(B) Verticillaster (ii) Asteraceae/Compositae

(C) Synandrous (iii) Euphorbiaceae

(D) Syngenesious (iv) Cucurbitaceae

A B C D

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) iii i iv ii

(3) iii i ii iv

(4) iii ii i iv

70. How many molecules of ATP are directly synthesised in TCA

cycle by oxidation of two glucose molecule?

(1) 4

(2) 2

(3) 6

(4) 8

71. Value of Km–constant (michaelis–Menten constant) for an

enzyme will be :–

(1) 1/4 Vmax.

(2) 1/3 Vmax.

(3) 1/2 Vmax.

(4) 1/6 Vmax.

72. Match the following pair :-

(A) Nitrogen Metabolism (a) S

(B) Cell division (b) Mg

(C) Specific parts of cystein (c) Mo Amino Acid

(D) Porphyrin Ring (d) Ca

(1) A–c, B–b, C–a, D–d

(2) A–c, B–d, C–b, D–a

(3) A–c, B–d, C–a, D–b

(4) None of the above

973. Identify the correct labelling for the figure given below :-

74. The brain structure which converts short term memory tolong term memory located on :(1) Hypothalamus(2) Cerebrum(3) Medulla(4) Cerebellum

75. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in:-(1) Castor(2) Maize(3) Papaya(4) Cucumber

76. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorderof muscular or skeletal system :-(1) Myasthenia gravis-Auto immune disorder which

inhibits sliding of myosin filaments(2) Gout–Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of

calcium(3) Muscular dystrophy - age related shortening of muscles(4) Osteoporosis-decrease in bone mass and higher

chances of fractures with advancing age

77. During Oogenesis in human, first maturation division starts___A___ and completes ____B___.(1) A-Before birth, B-Just prior to ovulation(2) A-After birth, B-Before menopause(3) A-Before ovulation, B-After entry of sperm(4) A-Before ovulation, B-After fertilisation

78. How many plants in the given list below have C4 Cycle ?Radish, Sugarcane, Sorghum, Maize, Amaranthus, Bean.(1) four(2) five(3) three(4) six

79. What is the percentage of photosynthetically active radiation(PAR) in the incident solar radiation?(1) 100%(2) 50%(3) 1–5%(4) 2–10%

80. The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is :(1) The protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected(2) It is a sex-linked disease(3) It is a recessive disease(4) It is a dominant disease

81. Nitrifying bacteria :-(1) Oxidize ammonia to nitrates(2) Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds(3) Convert proteins into ammonia(4) Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen

82. Which of the following labelled part is choroid ?

(1) A(2) B(3) C(4) D

83. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in theimmediate future is called :-(1) Vulnerable(2) Endemic(3) Critically Endangered(4) Extinct

1084. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal

person. The P- wave represents the :

(1) End of systole

(2) Contraction of both the atria

(3) Initiation of the ventricular contraction

(4) Beginning of the systole

85. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the females.

Choose the correct option from the statements given below :

i. They are introduced into the uterus

ii. They are placed to cover the cervical region

iii. They act as physical barriers for sperm entry

iv. They act as spermicidal agents

(1) i and ii

(2) i and iii

(3) ii and iii

(4) iii & iv

86. About “Recombination nodule” find out the correct state ment :

(1) Group of enzymes involved in crossing over

(2) Group of homologous chromosomes participating in

crossing over

(3) Site at which crossing over occurs between sister

chromatids of homologous chromosomes

(4) Site at which crossing over occurs between non sister

chromatids of homologous chromosomes

87. During secondary growth in stem, At some places, the

cambium forms a narrow band of parenchyma, Which passes

through the secondary xylem and phloem in radial directions

are called

(1) Sap wood

(2) Heart wood

(3) Secondary medullary rays

(4) Primary medullary rays

88. Match the following

(A) Vitamin A rich (i) Lablab

(B) Vitamin C rich (ii) Spinach

(C) Fe and Ca rich (iii) Bitter gaurd

(D) Protein rich (iv) Carrot

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

89. Match the following list of microbes and their importance.

Column I Column II

A. Saccharomyces (i) Production of

cerevisiae immunosuppressive

agent

B. Monascus (ii) Ripening of Swiss

purpureus cheese

C. Trichoderma (iii) Commercial

polysporum production of ethanol

D. Propionibacterium (iv) Production of

sharmanii blood-cholesterol

lowering agents

(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)

(2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)

(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii),D-(i)

90. In gel electrophoresis the DNA fragments separate according

to their size through sieving effect, which is provided by:

(1) Agarose gel

(2) Nylone

(3) Polyethylene glycol

(4) Ethidium Bromide

1191. Two liquids are mixed together to form

a mixture which boils at same temperature and their boilingpoint is higher than the boiling point of either of them sothey shows.

(1) no deviation from Raoult’s law

(2) positive deviation from Raoult’s law

(3) negative deviation from Raoult’s law

(4) positive or negative deviation from Raoult’s law depending upon the composition

92. At 334 K the vapour pressure of benzene, C6H6 is 0.526

atm and that of toluene (C7H8 ) is 0.188 atm. In a soluton

containing 0.500 mole of benzene and 0.500 mole of

toluene, what is the vapour pressure of toluene above the

solution at 334 K :

(1) 0.188 atm

(2) 0.10 atm

(3) 0.357 atm

(4) 0.094

93. For a reaction Ea = 0 and k = 3.2 104 s–1 at 300 K. Thevalue of k at 310 K would be:

(1) 6.4 104 s–1

(2) 3.2 104 s–1

(3) 3.2 108 s–1

(4) 3.2 105 s–1

94. Consider the Arrhenius equation given below and markthe correct option.

RT/EaAek

(1) Rate constant increases exponentially with increasingactivation energy and decreasing temperature

(2) Rate constant decreases exponentially with increasingactivation energy and decreasing temperature

(3) Rate constant increases exponentially with decreasingactivation energy and decreasing temperature

(4) Rate constant increases exponentially with decreasingactivation energy and increasing temperature

95. Cyclohexane on ozonolysis followed by reaction with zincdust and water gives compound E. Compound E on furthertreatment with aqueous NaOH yield compound F.Compound F is :

(1) CHO

(2) CHO

(3) COOH

(4)CO H2CO H2

96. Which one of the following does not involve coagulation:

(1) Formation of delta regions

(2) Peptization

(3) Treatment of drinking water by potash alum

(4) Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride

97. An unknown alkyl halide (A) reacts with alcoholic KOH toproduce a hydrocarbon (C4H8). Ozonolysis of thehydrocarbon affords one mole of propionaldehyde and onemole of formaldehyde. Suggest which organic structureamong the following is the correct structure of the abovealkyl halide (A) :

(1) CH3(CH2)3Br

(2) CH3CH(Br)CH(Br)CH3

(3) CH3CH2CH(Br)CH3

(4) Br(CH2)4Br

98. Phenol A B C(i) NaOH H /H O+2 Al O2 3

(ii) CO /140 C2o CH2COOH

In this reaction, the end product C is

(1) salicylaldehyde (2) salicylic acid

(3) phenyl acetate (4) aspirin

1299. Which of the fol lowing is not the product of

dehydration of OH ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

100. In the following reaction,

CH3 CH3

HO– X

N+

The organic product X is :

(1)

(2)

N(CH )3 2

(3)

N(CH )3 2

(4)

N(CH )3 2

101. Phthalic anhydride X YC H6 6

Anhyd.AlCl3

Conc.H SO2 4

Here X and Y respectively are :(1) phthalic acid, o-benzoylbenzoic acid(2) o-benzoylbenzoic acid, anthraquinone(3) anthracene, phthalic acid(4) anthrone, anthraquinone

102. Ethyl ester CH MgBr3excess P. The product P will be :

(1)

H C3 CH3

OHH C3

(2)

H C3 C2H5

OHH C5 2

(3)

H C5 2 C2 5H

OHH C5 2

(4) CH3CCH3

O

103.

HNO3

Br , water2

COOHOH

X

YX and Y respectively are :(1) picric acid ; 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol(2) 5-nitrosalicylic acid ; 5-bromosalicylic acid(3) o-nitrophenol ; o-bromophenol(4) 3, 5-dinitrosalicylic acid ; 3,5-dibromosalicyclic acid

104. Toluene diisocyanate is used to prepare :(1) polyesters(2) polyamides(3) polycarbonates(4) polyurethanes

105. End product of the following sequence of reactions is :

HC CH CH MgBr3 (A) (i) CO2

(ii) H O3+ (B) HgSO /H SO4 2 4

(C) Ag O2

(D)

(1) CH –C–COOH3

O

(2) CH2(COOH)2

(3) CH –C–CHO3

O

(4) H–C–CH COOH2

O

13106. Consider p-aminophenol

OH

NH2

OH

NH2

O

NH2

–

H+

OH–

(A)

(B)

y

x

Which positions are activated for coupling reaction inacidic and basic media respectively :(1) x in A and in B(2) x in A and in B(3) y in A and in B(4) x in A and in B

107. IUPAC name of the following compound is :

CH3 CH CH CH CH2 2 2 3 C

CH3

H CH3 3C N

(1) N, N, 3-Trimethylhexan -3-amine

(2) 3-Methyl-N, N-dimethylhexan-3-amine

(3) 3, N, N-Trimethylhexane-3-amine

(4) both (1) and (2)

108. The tripeptide is written as Glycine-Alanine-Glycine. Thecorrect structure of the tripeptide is :

(1)

O

O

HN N

H COOH

CH3

CH3

H N2

(2)

O

O

HN N

H COOH

CH3CH3

H N2

(3)

O

O

HN N

H COOHCH3

H N2

(4)

O

O

HN N

H COOHCH3

H N2

CH3

109. In the following sequence of reactions, what is D ?CH3

[O] A SOCl2

B NaN3

C Heat

D :

(1) Primary amine(2) An amide(3) An isocyanate(4) Chain lengthened hydrocarbon

110. What is [H+] in mol L–1 of a solution that is 0.20 M inCH3COOH and 0.1 M in CH3COOH ? (Ka for CH3COOH =1.8 10–5)

(1) 3.5 10–4

(2) 1.1 10–5

(3) 1.8 10–5

(4) 9.0 10–6

111. Which of the following molecules acts as Lewis acid?(1) (CH3)2 O(2) (CH3)3 P(3) (CH3)3 N(4) (CH3)3 B

112. Ag+ + 2NH3 Ag(NH3) 2 ; K1 = 1.8 107

Ag+ + Cl– AgCl; K2 = 5.6 109

AgCl + 2NH3 Ag(NH3) 2 + Cl–; K = ?

(1) (1.8 107) (5.6 109)

(2) (1.8 107) + (5.6 109)

(3) (1.8 107) / (5.6 109)

(4) (1.8 109) / (1.8 107)

113. When 1 L of CO2 is heated with graphite, the volume of thegases collected is 1.5 L. Calculate the number of moles ofCO produced at STP :

(1) 2.111

(2) 4.2228

(3) 4.221

(4) 4.2214

14114. What will be the weight of CO having the same number of

oxygen atoms as present in 22 g of CO2 :

(1) 28 g

(2) 22 g

(3) 44 g

(4) 72 g

115. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers are correct:

n l m2

I. 1 1 +2

II. 2 1 +1

III. 3 2 –2

IV. 3 4 –2

(1) II and III

(2) I and II

(3) I and III

(4) III and IV

116. The electorns, identified by the quantum numbers n and l,

I. n = 3 ; l = 2

II. n = 5 ; l = 0

III. n = 4 ; l = 1

IV. n = 4 ; l = 2

V. n = 4 ; l = 0

can be placed in the order of increasing energy, as :

(1) I < V < III < IV < II

(2) I < V < III < II < IV

(3) V < I < III < II < IV

(4) V < I < II < III < IV

117. Among the following elements the configuration havingthe highest ionisation energy is :

(1) [Ne] 3s2 3p3

(2) [Ne] 3s2 3p1

(3) [Ar] 4s2, 3d1

(4) [Ar] 4s2, 3d5

118. Which of the following is incorrect :

(1) Non-metals have strong tendency to gain electron

(2) Electronegativity is directly related to non-metallicproperties of elements

(3) Electronegativity in inversely proportional to themetallic properties of elements

(4) Increase in electronegativity down a group isaccompanied by a decrease in non-metallic properties

119. The number of oxygen aotms bonded to one phosphorusatom in P4O6 is :

(1) 4

(2) 3

(3) 6

(4) 5

120. Oxidising power of Cl2 in aqueous solution can bedetermined by the parameters indicated below

)g(Cl)g(Cl)g(Cl21 HH

21

2EA

.diss

)g(ClHhyd

If 1Cldiss molkJ240H

2

1ClEA molkJ349H

1Clhyd molkJ381H

The energy involved in the conversion of )g(Cl21

2 to Cl–

(aq) is :

(1) + 152 kJ mol–1

(2) – 610 kJ mol–1

(3) – 850 kJ mol–1

(4) + 120 kJ mol–1

121. NH3 and NF3, both the molecules have pyramidal shapewith a lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom. Why doesthedipole moment of NH3 is greater than that of NF3 ? Choosethe correct option :

(1) F is more electronegative than N atom

(2) In NF3 the orbital dipole is in the direction opposite tothe resultant dipole moment of the three N – F bonds

(3) In NH3 the orbital dipole is in the direction same to theresultant dipole moment of the three N – H bonds

(4) All of the above

15122. Which of the following will have largest dipole moment :

(1)

NH2

(2)

NO2

(3)

NH2

NO2

(4)

NH2

NO2

123. The types of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3

–

and NH4+ respectively are expected to be :

(1) sp, sp3, and sp2

(2) sp, sp2 and sp3

(3) sp2, sp and sp3

(4) sp2, sp3 and sp

124. A bubble of volume V1 is in the bottom of a pond at 15°Cand 1.5 atm pressure when it comes at the surface itobserves a pressure of 1 atm at 25°C and has volume V2.

Give 1

2VV :

(1) 15.5

(2) 0.155

(3) 155.0

(4) 1.55

125. Same amount of hydrogen H2(g) and CH4(g) are mixed in a

vessel at 25°C. The fraction of the total pressure exerted by

hydrogen is :

(1)21

(2) 98

(3) 32

(4) 97

126. The molecules of a gas A travel four times faster than themolecules of gas B at same temperature. The ratio ofmolecular weights (MA / MB) will be :

(1) 161

(2) 4

(3)41

(4)1

16

127. The combustion of one mole of benzene produce CO2(g),

H2O(l) and 3267.0 kJ of heat. Find out the standard enthalpy

of formation, Hf of benzene. Standard enthalpies of

formation of CO2(g) and H2O(l) are –393.5 kJ mol–1 and

–285.83 kJ mol–1 respectively :

(1) 45.81 kJ mol–1

(2) 44.71 kJ mol–1

(3) 48.51 kJ mol–1

(4) 47.52 kJ mol–1

16128. Use the following data to calculate lattice

H for NaBr.. Hsub for sodium metal = 108.4 kJ mol–1

Ionisation enthalpy of sodium = 496 kJ mol–1

Electron gain enthalpy of bromine = –325 kJ mol–1

Bond dissociation enthalpy of bromine = 192 kJ mol–1

Hf for NaBr(s) = –360.1 kJ mol–1 :

(1) – 735.5 kJ mol–1

(2) + 735.5 kJ mol–1

(3) –735.5 J mol–1

(4) +735.5 J mol–1

129. In the given equation,

4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) 2Fe2O3(s)

The entropy change in –549.4 JK–1 mol–1 at 298 K. ( Hr= – 1648 × 103 J mol–1). The above reaction is :

(1) Spontaneous

(2) Non-spontaneous

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of these

130. Find out the standard free energy change at 60°C and at 1

atmosphere if the N2O4 is 50% dissociated :

(1) –800.0 kJ mol–1

(2) +800.0 kJ mol–1

(3) –789.98 J mol–1

(4) +789.98 JK–1 mol–1

131. In alkaline medium, ClO2 oxidises H2O2 to O2 and itself

gets reduced to Cl–. How many moles of H2O2 are oxidised

by 1 mole of ClO2 :

(1) 1

(2) 1.5

(3) 2.5

(4) 5

132. A 5.0 mL of H2O2 solution liberates 0.508 g of I2 from an

acidified KI solution. Calculate volume strength of H2O2

solution :

(1) 4.48 volume

(2) 5.48 volume

(3) 3.48 volume

(4) 6.48 volume

133. When hydrogen peroxide is added to acidified potassiumdichromate, a blue colour is produced due to the formationof :

(1) CrO3

(2) Cr2O3

(3) CrO5

(4) CrO42–

134. Which of the following statements are correct :

I. Fullerenes have dangling bonds

II. Fullerenes are cage-like molecules

III. Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope

of carbon

IV. Graphite is slippery and hard and therefore used as a

dry lubricant in machines

Choose the correct option :

(1) I and II

(2) II and III

(3) III and IV

(4) All are correct

135. Which is a correct statement about diborane structure :

(1) All HBH bond angles are equal

(2) All H – B bond lengths are equal

(3) It has two three-centre-2 electron bonds

(4) All hydrogen and boron atoms are in one plane

17136. A body of mass M is kept on a rough horizontal surface

(friction coefficient µ). A person is trying to pull the bodyby applying a horizontal force but the body is not moving.The force by the surface on the body is F, where

(1) F = Mg

(2) F= µ Mgf

(3) 21MgFMg

(4) 21MgFMg

137. A particle of mass 0.1 kg is subjected to a force whichvaries with distance as shown in fig. If it starts its journeyfrom rest a x = 0, its velocity at x = 12 m is :

4 8 120

10

F (N)

X (m)

(1) 0 m/s

(2) 202 m/s

(3) 203 m/s

(4) 40 m/s

138. A uniform rod of length 2L is placed with one end incontact with the horizontal and is then inclined at an angle to the horizontal and allowed to fall without slipping atcontact point when it becomes horizontal, its angularvelocity will be :

(1)L2

sing3

(2)

sing3L2

(3)Lsing6

(4)

singL

139. The dimensions of a/b in the equation P = bx

ta 2 where P

is pressure, x is distance and t is time are

(1) L T–3

(2) M L3 T–1

(3) M2 L T–3

(4) M T–2

140. The velocity versus time curve of a moving point is asshown in the following figure. The maximum accelerationis :

0

20

60

v(m

/s)

t(sec.)10 20 30 40 50 60 70

40A B

C

D

(1) 1 m sec–2

(2) 2 m sec–2

(3) 3 m sec–2

(4) 4 m sec–2

141. The resultant of A and B

makes an angle with A and

with B

(1)

(2) if A < B

(3) if A > B

(4) if A = B

142. In the circuit shown in figure neglecting source resistancethe voltmeter and ammeter reading will respectively, willbe

R = 30 XL = 25 XC = 25

240 V

V

A

(1) 0V, 3A

(2) 150V, 3A

(3) 150V, 6A

(4) 0V, 8A

18143. Hydrogen (H), deuterium (D), singly ionized helium (He+)

and doubly ionized lithium (Li++) all have one electronaround the nucleus. Consider n =2 to n = 1 transition. Thewavelengths of emitted radiations are 1, 2, 3 and respectively. Then approximately

(1) 4321 94

(2) 4321 224

(3) 4321 23222

(4) 4321 232

144. What is the current through an ideal PN-junction diodeshown in the figure below.

–+

–+1V 3V

(1) Zero

(2) 10 mA

(3) 20 mA

(4) 50 mA

145. A transverse wave of amplitude 0.5 m and wavelength 1 mand frequency 2 Hz is propagating in a string in thenegative x-direction. The expression for this wave is

(1) )t4x2sin(5.0)t,x(y

(2) )t4x2cos(5.0)t,x(y

(3) )t2xsin(5.0)t,x(y

(4) )t2x2cos(5.0)t,x(y

146. A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a fundamentalfrequency f, in air. The tube is dipped vertically in water sothat half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of theair-column is now.

(1) f

(2) f/2

(3) 3f/4

(4) 2 f

147. A source of sound S is moving with a velocity 50m/stowards a stationary observer. The observer measures thefrequency of the source as 1000 Hz. What will be theapparent frequency of the source when it is moving awayfrom the observer after crossing him ? The velocity ofsound in the medium is 350 m/s

(1) 750 Hz

(2) 857 Hz

(3) 1143 Hz

(4) 1333 Hz

148. In the circuit, shown in fig. ‘K’ is open. The charge oncapacitor C in steady state is q1. Now key is closed and atsteady state, the charge on C is q2. The ratio of charges(q1/q2) is :

E C 2R

R K

(1) 3/2

(2) 2/3

(3) 1

(4) 1/2

149. Two resistance of 10 and 20 and an inductor ofinductance 5H are connected to a battery of 2V through akey k as shown in the figure. At time t = 0, when the key kis closed the initial current through the battery is

5H

2V_+ K

(1) 0.2 A

(2) 2/15 A

(3) 1/15 A

(4) 0

19150. In the circuit shown below, the power developed in the 6

resistor is 6 watt. The power in watts developed in the 4 resistor is

6

4

(1) 16

(2) 9

(3) 6

(4) 4

151. The relative permeability is represented by µr and thesusceptibility is denoted by for a magnetic substance.Then for a paramagnetic substance.

(1) µr < 1, < 0

(2) µr < 1, > 0

(3) µr > 1, < 0

(4) µr > 1, > 0

152. A tube of length L is filled completely with anincompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both theends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane aboutone of its ends with a uniform angular velocity . Theforce exerted by the liquid at the other end is :

(1) M L 2/2

(2) M L 2

(3) M L 2/4

(4) M L2 2/2

153. A bar magnet suspended by a horse hair lies in the magneticmeridian when there is no twist in the hair. On turning theupper end of the hair through 150º from the meridain themagnet is deflected through 30º from the meridian. Thenthe angle through which the upper end of the hair has tobe twisted to deflect the magnet through 90º from themeridian, is :

(1) 450º

(2) 360º

(3) 330º

(4) 150º

154. The de-Broglie wavelength of an atom at absolutetemperature TK will be

(1) mkTh

(2) mkT3h

(3)hmkT3

(4) mkT3

155. Light of wavelength 4000Å falls on a photosensitive metaland a negative 2V potential stops the emitted electrons.The work function of the material (in eV) is approximately(h = 6.6×10–34 Js, e = 1.6 ×10–19 C, c = 3×108 ms–1)

(1) 1.1

(2) 2.0

(3) 2.2

(4) 3.1

156. The circuit shown in following figure contains two diodesD1 and D2 each with a forward resistance of 50 ohms andwith infinite backward resistance. If the battery voltage is6V, the current through the 100 ohm resistance (in amperes)is

D1

D2

6V

150

50

100

(1) zero

(2) 0.02

(3) 0.03

(4) 0.036

20157. Shown in the figure here is a convergent lens placed inside

a cell filled with a liquid. The lens has focal length + 20 cmwhen in air and its material has refractive index 1.50. If theliquid has refractive index 1.60, the focal length of the systemis

Liquid

Lens

(1) + 80 cm(2) - 80 cm(3) - 24 cm(4) -100 cm

158. In Young's double slit experiment, if the widths of the slitsare in the ratio 4 : 9, the ratio of the intensity at maxima tothe intensity at minima will be(1) 169 : 25(2) 81 : 16(3) 25 : 1(4) 9 : 4

159. A step-down transformer transforms a supply line voltageof 2200 volt into 220 volt. Primary coil has 5000 turns. Theefficiency and power transmitted by the transformer are90% and 8 kilowatt respectively. Then the number of turnsin the secondary is :(1) 5000(2) 50(3) 500(4) 5

160. A man measures the period of a simple pendulum inside astationary lift and finds it to be T s. If the lift acceleratesupwards with an acceleration g/4, then the period of thependulum will be :

Pendulum

Lift

(1) T(2) T/4

(3) 5T2

(4) 2T 5

161. What is the mutual inductance of a two-loop system as

shown with centre separation l

1 2

l > > a

a a

(1) 3

40

8a

(2) 3

40

4a

(3) 3

40

6a

(4) 3

40

2a

162. AB is a section of a straight wire carrying current I. P is a

point at a distance d from AB. The magnetic field at P due

to AB has magnitude :

B

P

A

I

d

B

P

A

I

d

(1) )cos(cosd4I

210

(2) )cos(cosd4I

210

(3) )sin(sind4I

210

(4) )sin(sind4I

210

21163. A partition divides a container having insulting walls into

two compartement. The same gas fills the two

compartments. The volume, temperature and pressure in

the right compartment are 2 V, T and 2 P, while in the left

compartement, the corresponding parameters and V, T and

P. Then the ratio of the number of molecules in the right

compartement to that in the left compartment are:

V

T

P

2V

T

2P

(1) 1 : 1(2) 2 : 1(3) 4 : 1(4) 1 : 4

164. When an ideal gas undergoes and adiabatic expansion,the pressure of the gas in the enclosure falls. This is due to:

(1) decrease in change in momentumper collision only

(2) decrease in frequency of collision only

(3) both to decrease in frequency of collision and changein momentum per collision

(4) neither to decrease in frequency of collision nor tochange in momentum per collision

165. The temperatures inside and outside a refrigerator are 273K and 303 K respectively. Assume that the refrigerationcycle is reversible, for every joule of work done, the heatdelivered to the surrounding will be approximately :

(1) 10 J

(2) 20 J

(3) 30 J

(4) 40 J

166. Four cylinders contain equal number of moles of argon,hydrogen, nitrogen and carbon dioxide at the sametemperature. The energy is minimum in:

(1) argon

(2) hydrogen

(3) nitrogen

(4) carbon dioxide

167. Heat is supplied to a diatomic gas at constant pressure.The ratio of Q:U:W is

(1) 5 : 3 : 2

(2) 5 : 2 : 3

(3) 7 : 5 : 2

(4) 7 : 2 : 5

168. Consider a compound slab consisting of two differentmaterials having equal thickness and thermalconductivities K and 2K respectively. The equivalentthermal conductivity of the slab is

(1) K2

(2) 3 K

(3) 4/3 K

(4) 2/3 K

169. A black body emits radiations of maximum intensity at a

wavelength of 5000Å, when the temperature of the body

is 1227ºC. If the temperature of the body is increased by

2227ºC, the maximum intensity of emitted radiation would

be observed at

(1) 2754.8Å

(2) 3000Å

(3) 3500Å

(4) 4000Å

170. A body cools from 60ºC to 50ºC in 10 minutes. If the roomtemperature is 25ºC and assuming Newton's law of coolingto hold good, the temperature of the body at the end of thenext 10 minutes will be

(1) 38.5ºC

(2) 40ºC

(3) 42.85ºC

(4) 45ºC

171. The additional kinetic energy to be provided to a satelliteof mass m revolving around a planet of mass M, to transferit from a circular orbit of radius R1 to another of radius R2(R2 > R1) is

(1)

2

221 R

1R1GmM

(2)

21 R1

R1GmM

(3)

21 R1

R1GmM2

(4)

21 R1

R1GmM

21

172. The output y, when all three inputs are first high and thenlow, will respectively be

y

(1) 1, 0

(2) 1, 1

(3) 0, 0

(4) 0, 1

173. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25 divisions. Acurrent of 4 × 10–4 ampere gives a deflection of one division.To convert this galvanometer into a voltmeter having arange of 25 volts, it should be connected with a resistanceof :

(1) 245 as a shunt

(2) 2550 in series

(3) 2450 in series

(4) 2500 as a shunt

174. Two pendulums of time periods 3 s and 7 s respectivelystart oscillating simultaneously from two opposite extremepositions. After how much time they will be in same phase:

(1) 21/8 s

(2) 21/4 s

(3) 21/2 s

(4) 21/10 s

175. In the circuit shown in the figure, the current through :

9V

(1) the 3 resistor is 0.50 A

(2) the 3 resistor is 0.25 A

(3) the 4 resistor is 0.50 A

(4) the 4 resistor is 0.25 A

176. The figure indicates the energy level diagram of an atomand the origin of six spectral lines in emission (e.g. line no.5 arises from the transition from level B to A. Which of thefollowing spectral lines will also occur in the absorptionspectrum :

1 2 3

4 5

6

A

C

B

X

(1) 4, 5, 6

(2) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

(3) 1, 4, 6

(4) 1, 2, 3

177. A radioactive isotope X with a half-life of 1.37 ×109 years,

decays to Y which is stable. A sample of rocks from the

moon was found to contain both the elements X and Y and

they are in the ratio 1 : 7. What is the age of the rocks :

(1) 1.96 ×108 years

(2) 3.85 ×109 years

(3) 4.11 ×109 years

(4) 9.06 ×109 years

23178. A mass M is attached to a horizontal spring of force

coonstant k fixed on one side to a rigid support. See figure.The mass oscillates on a frictionless surface with time periodT and amplitude A. When the mass M is in equilibriumposition another mass m is gently placed on it, what will bethe new time period of oscillations :

M

m

(1)k

mM2

(2)k

mM2

(3)k2

mM2

(4)k2

mM2

179. A rectangular block has a square base measuring a ×a, and

its height is h. It moves on a horizontal surface in a direction

perpendiuclar to one of the edges. The coefficient of

friction is µ. It will toppple if :

(1) ahµ

(2)haµ

(3)ha2µ

(4)h2

aµ

180. A particle having initial velocity 10ms–1 moves. with aconstant acceleration of 4 m/s2 for time t = 10 sec. Find thedisplacement of particle in the last 1 second.

(1) 48 m

(2) 24 m

(3) 36 m

(4) 72 cm

- 0 0 0 -