compre sensive ans

Accounting and Finance1) The purpose of adjusting entries is to:

A) Adjust the owner’s capital account for the revenue, expense and drawings recorded during the periodB) Adjust daily balances in assets, liability, revenue, and expense account for the effects of business transactionsC) Apply the realization principle and matching principle to transactions affecting two or more accounting periodsD) Prepare revenue and expense accounts for recording the transactions of the next accounting period.

2) An investment opportunity in which investors directly acquires a claim on a security or property called:A) Direct investment B) Indirect investment

C) Construction of portfolio D) None of the above

3) Which one of the following correctly identifies the activity categories found on a statement of cash flow? A) Operating, income statement, financing B) Investment, purchasing, operating

C) Financing, operating, income statement D) Operating, investment, financing

4) Which one of the following methods is desirable if materials price decrease and company would like to pay low taxes?A) First in first outB) Last in first out

C) Highest in first out D) None of the above

5) If 100% equity is employed in a firm’s capital structure then its A) Return on equity will be equal to return on assetsB) Return on equity will be less than return on assets

C) Return on equity will be greater than return on assetsD) None of the above

6) If a company using percentage of revenue method for estimation of bad debts thenA) Existing balance of allowances for doubtful account (either debit or credit) should consider before preparing

adjusting entry B) Ignore the existing balance of allowances for doubtful account (either debit or credit)while preparing adjusting

entry C) Only debit balance of allowances for doubtful account consider before preparing adjusting entry D) Only credit balance of allowances for doubtful account consider before preparing adjusting entry

7) Which of the following statement is not consistent with generally accepted accounting principles relating to asset valuation?A) Assets are originally recorded in accounting records at their cost to the business entity.B) Subtracting total liabilities form total assets indicates what the owner’s equity in the business is worth under

certain market conditionsC) Accountants assumes that asset such as office supplies, land, and buildings will be used in business operations

rather than sold at current market priceD) Accountants prefer to base the valuation of assets upon objective, verifiable evidence rather than upon appraisals

or personal opinion.

8) If beginning and ending merchandize inventories are $1000 and $2600 respectively, and the cost of goods sold is $3400, net purchases would be:A) $3700B) $3100

C) $3400D) None of the above

9) If a firm's total debt ratio is 35 percent, this means that ______ of the firm's assets are financed by equity financing. A) 55% B) 35%

C) 65% D) Not enough information to answer question

10) A transaction causes $520,000 decrease in both assets and owner’s equity. This transaction would have been:A) Purchase of a delivery truck for $520,000 cashB) An asset with a cost of $520,000 was destroyed by

fire

C) Repayment of a $520,000 bank loanD) Collection of a $520,000 accounts receivable

11) Hercules Inc. presently has current assets totaling $600,000 and a current ratio of 2.5 to 1. Compute the current ratio immediately after Pisces pay $30,000 of its accounts payable.A) 3 to 1B) 3.3 to 1

C) 2.7 to 1D) 2.25 to 1

12) A firm has sales of $2.4 million and 10% of the sales are for cash. The year end accounts receivable balance is $180,000? What is the average collection period? (Use a 360-day year)

Comprehensive Examination March 2013

A) 40daysB) 50days

C) 60daysD) None of the above

13) LBPL has assets of $1 Million and turns its assets 1.5 times per year. Return on assets is 12%. What is the profit margin?A) 6.67%B) 5.67%

C) 8%`D) None of the above

14) Ms.Viny placed $100 in a saving account paying 8% interest compounded semi annually. How much money will be in the account at the end of 2 years? A) $161.07B) $116.64

C) $164.60D) $None of the above

15) Ms. Marcs has an opportunity to receive $3000 one-year from now. If she can earn 10% on her investments in the normal course of events what is the most she should pay now for this opportunity?A) $2727B) $2772


16) Jan Jacob can borrow $2000 to be repaid in equal annual end of year amounts of $514.14 for the next 5 years. She wants to find the interest rate on loan.A) 7%B) 8%

C) 9%D) 6%

17) If the goods purchased under the credit term 5/10 n/60 compute the annualized cost of giving up a cash discount.A) 33%B) 36.73%

C) 47.36%D) 38%

18) Stocks 40,000 ($40 par); paid in capital in excess of par value common, $100,000; and retained earnings, $200,000. Assuming only one class of stock, the book value per share is:A) $340B) $140


19) Uni Lever has issued its own $50,000, 90 day, non-interest bearing note to a bank. If the note is discounted at 9%, the proceeds to Allen are:A) 50,000B) 48875

C) 45,550D) None of the above

of 16


Management and Marketing1) Entrepreneurs can be best described as

A) possessing managerial knowledge and experience.B) exhibiting moderate to high risk-taking behavior.C) focusing on the established present.D) displaying a low-to-medium tolerance for ambiguity.

2) Which function in the management process is commonly referred to as the primary management function?A) OrganizingB) Staffing

C) ControllingD) Planning

3) According to research, the typical manager's day is best described asA) rational and logical.B) consisting largely of reflective planning.

C) carefully scheduled.D) consisting of constant interruptions.

4) Changing his major three times, Scott earned his college degree after retaking four classes and spending twice as much as his family had budgeted. In terms of the definition of management, Scott wasA) effective but not efficient.B) partly effective and partly efficient.

C) both effective and efficient.D) ineffective but efficient.

5) Which of the following are closely associated with TQM?A) Design-it-in and inspect-it-inB) Inspect-it-in and build-it-in

C) Build-it-in and fix-itD) Build-it-in and design-it-in

6) Economics and management are closely related because of their common focus onA) employees.B) resources.

C) budgets.D) profitability.

7) What is(are) always required by organizational objectives or goals?A) Management approvalB) Financial resources

C) Job descriptionsD) Collective action

8) What is the process of working with and through others to achieve organizational objectives in a changing environment called?A) ControllingB) Organizing

C) LeadingD) Planning

9) Managerial _________ tell us what managers generally do, whereas managerial _________ tell us more precisely how managers carry them out.A) goals; desiresB) skills; functions

C) visions; goalsD) functions; skills

10) The study of management and the study of _______ are closely related.A) economicsB) sociology

C) philosophyD) geography

11) Smart marketers recognize that marketing activities within the company can be as important as or even more important than marketing activities directed outside the company this refers toA) Relationship marketing B) Internal marketing

C) Four P’s of marketingD) Societal marketing

12) The rationale of Niche marketing is one of following A) Identifying the larger market share of small market segmentB) Identifying the smaller market share of large market segmentC) Identifying the larger market share of large market segmentD) Identifying the smaller market share of small market segment

of 16


13) In business markets “system buying” refers to buying one of the followingA) Buying the computer system hardware B) Buying the computer system softwareC) Buying a total solution to a problem from a sellerD) Buying single items from different suppliers

14) Demographic segmentation refers to segmentation based on one of the following variablesA) AgeB) Occasions

C) Benefits D) Geographic area

15) The brand equity can be measured as A) Market value minus financial valueB) Financial value minus market value

C) Financial value minus promotional costD) Factory overhead cost minus marketing cost

16) Competitive advantage can be defined as A) Company’s ability to produce products similar to competitors productsB) Company’s ability to produce substandard productsC) Company’s ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot doD) All of above

17) In promotional campaigns changing the marketing communication programs for each local market is known as A) Sales promotionB) Public relations

C) Communication adaptationD) Integrated marketing

18) Private label brand means A) Brands that producers develop for their productsB) Brands that suppliers developC) Brands that customers developD) Brands that retailers and wholesalers develop

19) Skimming pricing strategy meansA) Adopting pricing above the competitionB) Adopting pricing equal to the competition

C) Adopting pricing below the competitionD) Adopting pricing regardless of competition

20) When one channel member’s actions prevents the channel from achieving its goal, is known as A) Channel developmentB) Channel coordination

C) Channel powerD) Channel conflict

Research and Economics1) Scientific Method of inquiry

A) Uses observation and experiments.B) Depends on logical reasoning.C) Involves both observations and reasoning for seeking the truth. D) Uses existing theories for explanation and understanding of the real world problems.

2) Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion from a set of premises? A) rationalism B) deductive reasoning

C) inductive reasoning D) probabilistic

3) What is the final step of a scientific investigation? A) Analyze data.B) Collect data.

C) Report the findings.D) Determine whether the hypothesis was supported.

4) A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n): A) Categorical variable.B) Dependent variable.

C) Independent variable. D) Intervening variable.

of 16


5) If a baseball coach calculates batting averages, what scale would be used?A) Interval scale B) Ratio scale

C) Nominal scale D) Ordinal scale

6) What is the problem(s) with this set of response categories to the question “What is your current age?” i) 1-10 11-20 21-30 31-40 More than 40

B) The categories are not mutually exclusive C) The categories are not exhaustive D) Both a and b are problems E) There is no problem with the above set of response categories

7) When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected, this is called: A) A nonrandom sampling method B) A quota sample

C) A snowball sample D) An Equal probability selection method

8) _____________ results if you fail to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is actually false. A) Type I error B) Type II error

C) Type III error D) Type IV error

9) Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at an earlier time by a different person for a different purpose? A) Primary data B) Secondary data

C) Experimental data D) Field notes

10) Ex post facto research isA) About something related with future.B) For the events currently taking place.

C) About the events took place in past.D) Related with non-living objects only.

11) The law of demand states that: A) as the quantity demanded rises, the price risesB) as the price rises, the quantity demanded risesC) as the price rises, the quantity demanded fallsD) as supply rises, the demand rises

12) The price elasticity of demand is theA) percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in priceB) percentage change in price divided by the percentage change in quantity demandedC) dollar change in quantity demanded divided by the dollar change in priceD) percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in quantity supplied

13) The law of diminishing (marginal) returns states that as more of a variable factor is added to a certain amount of a fixed factor, above some point:A) Total physical product begins to fall B) The marginal physical product rises C) The marginal productivity fallsD) The average physical product falls

14) Which of the following is a characteristic of pure monopolyA) single seller of the product B) low barriers to entry

C) close substitute productsD) perfect information

of 16


15) Which of the following best defines price discriminationA) charging different prices on the basis of raceB) charging different prices for goods with different costs of productionC) charging different prices based on cost-of-service differencesD) selling a certain product at different prices to different buyers

16) Immediately after a trough, we would expect to have aA) PeakB) Recession

C) RecoveryD) another trough

17) Disposable personal Income is equal to:A) National Income B) Real GDP C) Personal Income Minus TaxesD) personal Income Minus Taxes Plus Transfer payments

18) The monetary base is composed ofA) gold and silver B) currency only

C) currency and reservesD) currency and checkable deposits

19) Subsidy is the tool of A) Monetary policyB) Fiscal policy

C) Foreign reservesD) Imports

20) Phillip curve shows negative relationship betweenA) Inflation and unemploymentB) Inflation and employment

C) Price and demandD) Price and supply.

Section IIPlease answer the following questions:

Q. 1. Comprehensively describe the emerging industries to focus for rapid and sustainable growth of our country. Highlight their potential areas and prospects.

Q. 2. Human resource management is an important

of 16


Section IIIFinance (Specialization)1) What are the financial statements provided in an annual report?

A) Balance sheet and income statement.B) Statement of financial earnings and statement of owners’ equity.C) Balance sheet, income statement, and statement of cash flows.D) Balance sheet, income statement, statement of cash flows, and statement of changes in equity.

2) What items are included in “Notes to the accounts”?A) Summary of accounting policies.B) Detail about particular accounts.

C) Notice of annual general meeting.D) Both (a) and (b).

3) What does an unqualified auditor’s report indicate?A) The financial statements unfairly and inaccurately present the company’s financial position for the accounting

period.B) The financial fairly the financial position, the results of operations, and the changes in cash flows and equity for

the company statements present.C) There are certain factors that might impair the firm’s ability to continue as a going concern.D) Certain managers in the firm are unqualified and are not fairly representing the interest of the shareholders.

4) The statement of cash flows reports a firm’s cash flows segregated into what categorical order?A) Operating, investing, and financing.B) Investing, operating, and financing.

C) Financing, operating, and investing.D) Financing, investing, and operating.

5) Why is the quick ratio a more rigorous test of short term solvency than current ratio?A) The quick ratio considers only cash and marketable securities as current assets.B) The quick ratio eliminates prepaid expenses for the numerator.C) The quick ratio eliminates prepaid expenses for the denominator.D) The quick ratio eliminates inventories from the numerator.

6) The gross profit margin is unchanged, but the net profit margin declined over the same period. This could have happened if __________. A) cost of goods sold increased relative to sales B) sales increased relative to expenses

C) the govt. increased the tax rate D) dividends were decreased

7) In conducting a horizontal common-size analysis every balance sheet item is divided by __________ and every income statement is divided by __________. A) its corresponding base year balance sheet item; its corresponding base year income statement item B) its corresponding base year income statement item; its corresponding base year balance sheet item C) net sales or revenues; total assets. D) total assets; net sales or revenues

8) Which group of ratios relate profits to sales? A) Liquidity ratios. B) Debt ratios.

C) Coverage ratios. D) Profitability ratios.

9) 9. If the intrinsic value of a stock is greater than its market value, which of the following is a reasonable conclusion? A) The stock has a low level of risk.B) The stock offers a high dividend payout ratio.C) The market is undervaluing the stock.D) The market is overvaluing the stock.

10) If an investor may have to sell a bond prior to maturity and interest rates have risen since the bond was purchased, the investor is exposed to

of 16


A) the coupon effect.B) interest rate risk.

C) a perpetuity.D) an indefinite maturity.

11) Interest rates and bond prices A) move in the same direction.B) move in opposite directions.C) sometimes move in the same direction, sometimes in opposite directions.D) have no relationship with each other (i.e., they are independent).

12) According to the efficient market hypothesis, there should be ______ overpriced and ______ underpriced securities. A) no, noB) no, some

C) some, noD) some, some

13) You short-sell 200 shares of Tuckerton Trading Co., now selling for $50 per share. You also place a stop-buy order at $60. What is your maximum possible loss? A) $50B) $150

C) $2,000D) Unlimited

14) The over-the-counter securities market is a good example of __________. A) an auction marketB) a brokered market

C) a dealer marketD) a direct search market

15) The term "hedge" refers to an investment that ________________. A) is entered into primarily for tax purposesB) is entered into to mitigate specific financial risksC) is entered into to conceal one's true investment strategy from other market participantsD) none of the above Answers are correct.

16) High P/E ratios tend to indicate that a company will _______, ceteris paribus. A) grow quickly B) grow at the same speed as the average company C) grow slowly D) none of the above

17) ________ are analysts who use information concerning current and prospective profitability of a firm to assess the firm's fair market value. A) Credit analysts B) Fundamental analysts

C) Systems analysts D) Technical analysts

18) Investors who wish to liquidate their holdings in a closed-end fund may ___________________. A) sell their shares back to the fund at a discountB) sell their shares back to the fund at net asset valueC) sell their shares on the open marketD) None of the above

19) The value of a call option increases with increase in ___________. A) stock priceB) time to maturity

C) volatilityD) All of the above

20) Purchases of new issues of stock take place __________. A) at the desk of the FedB) in the primary market

C) in the secondary marketD) none of the above

of 16


Marketing (Specialization) 1) Marketing Strategy during a recession should be:

A) A reduction in the number of sales person.B) A reduction in the expenditure of new product development.C) A reduction in advertisement.D) An increase in promotional efforts that promote the product/service value & utilities.E) An increase in the expenditure for marketing operations.

2) Why marketers are more interested in disposal income of the consumers?A) It accurately represents consumer future buying power.B) It is ready source of buying power.C) It increases current buying power.D) It is what is left after paying taxes to buy luxuries. E) It is essential for forecasting future business trends.

3) A small hardware store whose only competitor is a huge discount store would be least likely to use which marketing competitive tool? A) ServicesB) PriceC) Distribution

D) Promotion E) Product Offering

4) The three psychographic dimensions most commonly used in market segmentation are; A) Personality, Perception and LearningB) Personality, Perception and Behavior

C) Motives, Attitude and LifestyleD) Personality, Motives and Lifestyle

5) The Marketing Managers at Millat Tractors Limited are involved in establishing marketing performance standards, evaluating performance, and reducing the differences between actual and desired performance. These Marketing Managers are engaged in;A) The Marketing Control ProcessB) The Marketing system Design

C) The Marketing AuditD) Marketing Evaluation

6) The channel that includes both manufacturer’s agent and industrial distributor may be appropriate under which of the following circumstances? A) When the firm specialized personnel to follow up the work of the sales forceB) When the marketers wishes to enter a new geographic market but does not wish to expand the existing sales forceC) When only one or two channels of distribution are available for productsD) When the sales force is large and the marketer is thinking of cutting it down

7) To expand the number of retail outlets in Pakistan, the Symantec Inc. merged with many small and local software houses. This type of marketing integration is called; A) VerticalB) Horizontal

C) BackwardD) Forward

8) One distinguishing factor between a brand name and trade mark is that a brand name; A) Creates Customer LoyaltyB) Consist of WordsC) Identifies only one items in the product mixD) Implies an organization’s name

9) When a firm uses one of its existing brand names as part of brand name for an improved or new product, the branding is called; A) Individual Branding B) Family Branding

C) Line Family Branding D) Brand Extension Branding

of 16


10) Which type of wholesaler not only provides transportation and delivers products to retailers, but also provides the services of placing products on retailers’ shelves? A) Truck WholesalersB) Rack Jobbers

C) Cash & Carry WholesalersD) Drop Shippers

11) The postmodern marketing environment is best defined as;A) Composed of controllable variablesB) Composed of variables independent to each othersC) An indirect influence on marketing D) Dynamic, flexible and changing

12) The last people to adopt a new product and who tend to be suspicious of new products are called; A) Late adoptersB) Laggards

C) Late MajorityD) Final targets

13) A consumer context is an example of?A) Personal SellingB) Advertisement C) Sales Promotion

D) Indirect SellingE) Public Relations

14) A consumer buying decisions are affected in part by the people around him or her. These people and the forces they exert on a buyer are called; A) Social FactorsB) Motivational Influences

C) Personality InfluencesD) Cultural Influences

15) A marketing practice unique to organizational sales in which two organizations agree to buy from each other; A) A source loyal purchaseB) A Straight Re-buy

C) A Modified Re-buy PurchaseD) A Reciprocity Purchase

16) Which of the following is an example of a problem that may arise in the implementation of the marketing concept;A) By satisfying one segment in society, a firm contributes to the dissatisfaction of the others segment.B) Consumers do not understand what the marketing concept is.C) Dealers do not support the marketing concepts.D) A product may fit the needs of too many segments.

17) All of the following are marketing management task except;A) Marketing PlanningB) Organizing Marketing Activities

C) Coordinating Marketing ActivitiesD) Project Development & Analysis

18) Satisfying customers in every hemisphere is an example of; A) GlobalizationB) Customization

C) InternationalizationD) Re-organization

19) The strategy of identifying an attractive market segment and serving it in a way that differentiates the retailers from other’s in consumer’s minds is termed;A) Product PositioningB) Retail Positioning

C) Niche RetailingD) Merchandize Policy

20) Price is a key element in marketing because it relates directly to;A) The size of the sales forceB) The speed of an exchangeC) Brand ImageD) The generation of total revenue.

of 16


Human Resource Management (Specialization)

1) The knowledge, education, skills, and expertise of workers is collectively known as:A) Demographics.B) Human capital.

C) Human resources.D) Human diversity.

2) A company's _____ is its plan for balancing internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats.A) Demographics.B) Diversity.

C) Strategy.D) None of the above.

3) Formulating and executing HR systems that produce employee competencies and behaviors needed to achieve the company's strategic aims is (are):A) HR strategies.B) Strategic HR management.

C) Strategy execution.D) Strategic implementation.

4) Basic components of a value-creating strategy-oriented HR process are:A) HR professionals.B) HR system.

C) Employee behaviors and competencies.D) All of the above.

5) The metrics in an HR Scorecard are measurements of:A) Employee behaviors.B) Organizational outcomes.

C) HR activities.D) All of the above.

6) HR's basic challenges in formulating strategies include(s):A) Need to support corporate productivity and performance improvement efforts.B) Employees playing an expanded role in performance improvement efforts.C) Being more involved in designing the company's strategic plan.D) All of the above.

7) A successful orientation should accomplish all the following except:

A) Make the employee feel welcome.B) Understand the organization in a broad sense.C) Constitute an employment contract.D) Employee should be clear about what is expected in terms of work and behavior.

8) Verifying that a performance deficiency exists and identifying the means for correcting it is done through:A) Training.B) Task analysis.

C) Performance analysis.D) Needs analysis.

9) Advantages of on-the-job training include the following except:A) It is expensive.B) No need for off-site facilities.

C) Trainees get quick feedback.D) Trainees learn by doing.

10) With _____ training, people become skilled workers through a combination of classroom instruction and OJT.A) ProgrammedB) Job instruction

C) ApprenticeshipD) Simulated

11) Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills is:A) Succession planning.B) Action learning.

C) Coaching.D) Management development.

12) To bring about organizational change, managers must understand:A) How to overcome resistance to change.B) How to lead organizational change.

C) How to use organizational development.D) All of the above.

of 16


13) Frederick Herzberg declared in his Hygiene-Motivator theory that the best way to motivate someone is to:

A) Arrange the job so it helps satisfy higher-level needs.B) Add more incentives to the job.C) Distinguish between financial rewards and non-financial programs.D) Ensure employees know they can do the job.

14) The extent to which less powerful members of institutions accept and expect an unequal distribution of power is (are):A) Power distance.B) Culture.

C) Legal and industrial factors.D) Codetermination

15) The increased threat of terrorism has resulted in:A) Employers instituting more comprehensive safety plans.B) Reluctance of employees to accept foreign assignments.C) Difficulty in importing and exporting workers.D) All of the above.

16) Advantage(s) of a centralized recruitment function include:A) Easier to apply strategic priorities.B) Easier to spread technology cost among departments.C) Easier to identify recruitment results.D) The greatest good to the greatest number of people.

17) Managers must assess the numbers of applicants attracted as well as:A) Quality.B) Costs.

C) Selectivity.D) Location

18) A firm's best source of candidates for a vacant position usually is:A) Private employment agencies.B) The Internet.

C) Rehires.D) Current employees.

19) With respect to compensation, _____ refers to how a job's pay rate in one company compares to the job's pay rate in other companies.A) External equityB) Internal equity

C) Procedural equityD) Individual equity

20) A job evaluation committee should be appointed to perform the actual evaluation because:A) Members will have different perspectives regarding the nature of the job.B) Employee will more readily accept the results.C) Job must be ranked for pay purposes.D) 1 and 2

of 16


Information Technology (Specialization)1) A useful language that delivers only the software functionality needed for the specific task is:

A) C++ B) Pascal

C) XML D) RSL

2) What DBMS component contains facilities to help you develop transaction-intensive applications?A) DBMS engine B) Data definition subsystem

C) Application generation subsystem D) Data administration subsystem

3) The database personnel whose duties fall into the areas of planning, implementation, operation, and security are the:A) data administrators. B) database administrators.

C) database programmers. D) end users

4) In Website that offers multiple services of different categories including buying and selling, chatting, email, searching, auctions and community building etc. is known as: A) Web PortalB) Entertainment Website

C) Search EngineD) Blog

5) In an organization, when information technologies are collecting, processing, storing and producing information without producing any documents, the organization is known as A) PrototypeB) Scribe

C) PaperlessD) None of the above

6) A model of data communication that works on structured elements arranged in 7 layer is calledA) TDM ModelB) OSI Model

C) ISO ModelD) SMO Model

7) When every non-primary-key attributes is fully functionally dependent on the primary key then the database is fulfilling the normalization rule:A) 1NFB) 2NF

C) 3NFD) 4NF

8) …… includes conditions along with operators such as AND, OR, and NOTA) Arithmetic OperationsB) Logical Operations

C) Comparison OperationsD) None of the Above

9) Jennifer has decided to make her online purchase from a particular retailer because their site is easy to use and she can order quickly. What decision criteria is she using?A) Personal ServiceB) Convenience

C) Online ServiceD) Purchasing Cost

10) The Database made up of a set of tables where a common field in any two tables creates a relationship between the tables is A) Flat-File DatabaseB) Networked Database

C) Relational DatabaseD) Object-Oriented Databases

11) A…… session is a lengthy, structured, group meeting in which users and IT professionals work together to design or develop an applicationA) Request for proposalB) Joint-application design (JAD)

C) Request for quotation (RFQ)D) Data-flow Design (DFD)

12) An OOP language is …… which means an OOP language program checks for and response to events such as pressing or typing a key

of 16


A) Event basedB) Event driven

C) CompiledD) Interpreted

13) A …… is characterized by the production of routine reports that managers use for structured and routine tasksA) Expert SystemsB) Decision Support Systems

C) Transaction Processing SystemsD) Management Information Systems

14) The Top-level DFD (Data-Flow Diagram) known as a …… identifies only the major processes A) Project DirectoryB) Level-1 Data Flow

C) Data StoreD) Context Diagram

15) A …… is a special series of bits that function like a ticket, enabling a device to transmit data cover a network.A) BusB) Token

C) PeerD) Star

16) Many companies elevate the importance of IT by including a …… executive position that reports to the CEOA) Chief Information OfficerB) Chief Technology Manager

C) Chief MIS ManagerD) Chief Security Officer

17) The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database tasks is referred to as:A) QBE. B) SQL.

C) OLAP. D) Sequel Server.

18) The most profitable Internet-related companies are:A) e-tailers that sell books, music, and entertainersB) Internet auction companies

C) e-tailers that sell giftsD) business-to-business e-commerce specialists

19) How did the concept of the virtual office get its start?A) Teleprocessing B) Telecommuting

C) Hoteling D) Office automation

20) …… refers to the automation of anything that humans do to develop systemsA) CASE ToolsB) Prototyping

C) Analysis ToolsD) None of the above

of 16


MBA (Executive) Specialization1) What are the financial statements provided in an annual report?

A) Balance sheet and income statement.B) Statement of financial earnings and statement of owners’ equity.C) Balance sheet, income statement, and statement of cash flows.D) Balance sheet, income statement, statement of cash flows, and statement of changes in equity.

2) What items are included in “Notes to the accounts”?A) Summary of accounting policies.B) Detail about particular accounts.

C) Notice of annual general meeting.D) Both (a) and (b).

3) What does an unqualified auditor’s report indicate?A) The financial statements unfairly and inaccurately present the company’s financial position for the accounting

period.B) The financial fairly the financial position, the results of operations, and the changes in cash flows and equity for

the company statements present.C) There are certain factors that might impair the firm’s ability to continue as a going concern.D) Certain managers in the firm are unqualified and are not fairly representing the interest of the shareholders.

4) The statement of cash flows reports a firm’s cash flows segregated into what categorical order?A) Operating, investing, and financing.B) Investing, operating, and financing.

C) Financing, operating, and investing.D) Financing, investing, and operating.

5) Why is the quick ratio a more rigorous test of short term solvency than current ratio?A) The quick ratio considers only cash and marketable securities as current assets.B) The quick ratio eliminates prepaid expenses for the numerator.C) The quick ratio eliminates prepaid expenses for the denominator.D) The quick ratio eliminates inventories from the numerator.

6) The gross profit margin is unchanged, but the net profit margin declined over the same period. This could have happened if __________. A) cost of goods sold increased relative to sales B) sales increased relative to expenses

C) the govt. increased the tax rate D) dividends were decreased

7) In conducting a horizontal common-size analysis every balance sheet item is divided by __________ and every income statement is divided by __________. A) its corresponding base year balance sheet item; its corresponding base year income statement item B) its corresponding base year income statement item; its corresponding base year balance sheet item C) net sales or revenues; total assets. D) total assets; net sales or revenues

8) Which group of ratios relate profits to sales? A) Liquidity ratios. B) Debt ratios.

C) Coverage ratios. D) Profitability ratios.

9) 9. If the intrinsic value of a stock is greater than its market value, which of the following is a reasonable conclusion? A) The stock has a low level of risk.B) The stock offers a high dividend payout ratio.C) The market is undervaluing the stock.D) The market is overvaluing the stock.

10) If an investor may have to sell a bond prior to maturity and interest rates have risen since the bond was purchased, the investor is exposed to A) the coupon effect.B) interest rate risk.

C) a perpetuity.D) an indefinite maturity.

of 16


11) Marketing Strategy during a recession should be:A) A reduction in the number of sales person.B) A reduction in the expenditure of new product development.C) A reduction in advertisement.D) An increase in promotional efforts that promote the product/service value & utilities.E) An increase in the expenditure for marketing operations.

12) Why marketers are more interested in disposal income of the consumers?A) It accurately represents consumer future buying power.B) It is ready source of buying power.C) It increases current buying power.D) It is what is left after paying taxes to buy luxuries. E) It is essential for forecasting future business trends.

13) A small hardware store whose only competitor is a huge discount store would be least likely to use which marketing competitive tool? A) ServicesB) Distribution

C) Promotion D) Product Offering

14) The three psychographic dimensions most commonly used in market segmentation are; A) Personality, Perception and LearningB) Personality, Perception and Behavior

C) Motives, Attitude and LifestyleD) Personality, Motives and Lifestyle

15) The Marketing Managers at Millat Tractors Limited are involved in establishing marketing performance standards, evaluating performance, and reducing the differences between actual and desired performance. These Marketing Managers are engaged in;A) The Marketing Control ProcessB) The Marketing system Design

C) The Marketing AuditD) Marketing Evaluation

16) The channel that includes both manufacturer’s agent and industrial distributor may be appropriate under which of the following circumstances? A) When the firm specialized personnel to follow up the work of the sales forceB) When the marketers wishes to enter a new geographic market but does not wish to expand the existing sales forceC) When only one or two channels of distribution are available for productsD) When the sales force is large and the marketer is thinking of cutting it down

17) To expand the number of retail outlets in Pakistan, the Symantec Inc. merged with many small and local software houses. This type of marketing integration is called; A) VerticalB) Horizontal

C) BackwardD) Forward

18) One distinguishing factor between a brand name and trade mark is that a brand name; A) Creates Customer LoyaltyB) Consist of Words

C) Identifies only one items in the product mixD) Implies an organization’s name

19) When a firm uses one of its existing brand names as part of brand name for an improved or new product, the branding is called; A) Individual Branding B) Family Branding

C) Line Family Branding D) Brand Extension Branding

20) Which type of wholesaler not only provides transportation and delivers products to retailers, but also provides the services of placing products on retailers’ shelves? A) Truck WholesalersB) Rack Jobbers

C) Cash & Carry WholesalersD) Drop Shippers

of 16

compre sensive ans

Documents