ANATOMY AND EMBRYOLOGY

1. The branch of facial nerve that conveys the secretomotor impulse involved in lacrimation is (2004)A. Chorda tympani nerveB. Deep petrosal nerveC. Greater petrosal nerveD. Lesser petrosal nerve

2. Circumvallate papilla are supplied by (2004),(2005)A. Lingual nerve B. Glossopharyngeal nerveC. Hypoglossal nerveD. Vagus nerve

3. DNA is same for (2004)A. Identical twins B. Non identical twinsC. All siblingsD. Everybody

4. The sweat glands are supplied by only (2004)A. Parasympathetic nervesB. Sympathetic nervesC. Sensory nervesD. Motor nerves

5. Messeter muscle is a powerful muscles because of (2005)A. Bipennate arrangement of fibresB. Multipinnate arrangement of fibresC. It has multiple tendinous septaD. Its attachment to bone is unique

6. Muscles of face are derived from the mesoderm of (2005)A. 1st branchial archB. 2nd branchial archC. 3rd branchial archD. 2nd and 3rd branchial arch

7. Genioglossus muscle is attached in the posterior surface of symphysis menti in the (2005)A. Mental spinesB. Superior genial tubercleC. The inferior genial tubercleD. Just above the lower border of mandible

8. Liver is divided into (2005)A. 8 couinaud segmentsB. 7 couinaud segmentsC. 9 couinaud segmentsD. 10 couinaud segments

9. Cricothyroid muscle is supplied by (2005)A. External laryngeal nerveB. Internal laryngeal nerveC. Recurrent laryngeal nerveD. A direct branch from vagus nerve

10. The anterior triangle occupies the side of the neck in front of sternomastoid muscle. Each triangle presents boundry in front (2005)

A. Anterior median line of the neck extending from symphysis menti to suprasternal notchB. The midline of the neckC. Midline of the neck uptothe sternoclavicular jointD. Posterior border of thyroid gland

11. Blood supply of coronoid process of mandible is primarily from (2006)A. Inferior alveolar arteryB. Deep temporal arteryC. Facial arteryD. Middle meningeal artery

12. Among the muscles of TMJ, the following muscles opposes,stabilizes and antagonizes muscle force as far as the disc is concerned (2006)

A. Medial pterygoidB. TemporalisC. Lateral pterygoidD. Masseter

13. Skull at birth has (2006)A. 22 bonesB. 34 bonesC. 45 bonesD. 54 bones

14. Pterygopalatine ganglion is functionally related to (2006)A. Facial nerveB. Mandibular nerveC. Glossopharyngeal nerveD. Maxillary nerve

15. Derivative of 2nd pharyngeal arch is (2006)A. Sphenomandibular ligamentB. Stylomandibular ligamentC. Anterior ligament of malleusD. Stylohyoid ligament

16. Parotid duct traverses (2006)A. MasseterB. BuccinatorC. Medial pterygoidD. Lateral ptrygoid

17. Deep surface of hyoglossus is related to (2006)A. Lingual nerveB. Hypoglossal nerveC. Submandibular ganglionD. Glossopharyngeal nerve

18. Suprasternal space does not containwhich of the following structures (2006)A. Jugular archB. Anterior jugular veinC. Sterna head of sternocleidomastoidD. External jugular vein

19. Deep part of submandibular salivary gland is in relation to (2006)A. Facial nerveB. Lingual nerveC. Accessory nerveD. Mandibular nerve

20. Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of (2006)A. External carotid arteryB. Internal carotid arteryC. Common carotid arteryD. Subclavian artery

21. Muscles of tongue are formed by (2006)A. 1st arch mesodermB. 2nd arch mesoderm C. Occipital myotomesD. Cervical somites

22. The structure that does not traverse parotid gland is (2006)A. Superficial temporal arteryB. Posterior auricular arteryC. External carotid arteryD. Internal carotid artery

23. Sensory innervations of larynx as far as the vocal folds is by (2006)A. External laryngeal nerveB. Recurrent laryngeal nerveC. Internal laryngeal nerveD. Glossopharyngeal nerve

24. Nerve of the pterygoid canal is formed by the union of (2006)A. Deep petrosal nerve with greater petrosal nerveB. Deep petrosal nerve with lesser petrosal nerveC. Greater petrosal nerve with lesser petrosal nerveD. Greater petrosal nerve with External petrosal nerve

25. Lymphatics of upper gums drain into (2006)A. Lingual nodesB. Retropharyngeal nodesC. Submandibular nodesD. Submental nodes

26. Accessory meningeal artery enters cranial cavity through (2006)A. Foramen lacerumB. Foramen rotundumC. Foramen spinosumD. Foramen ovale

27. Protraction of the mandible is brought about by (2007)A. Lateral pterygoid B. Medial pterygoid C. TemporalisD. Masseter

28. Hyoid bone is a derivative of (2007)A. 1st pharyngeal archB. 1st and 2nd pharyngeal archC. 2nd and 3rd pharyngeal archD. 4th pharyngeal arch

29. Mental spines provide attachment to (2007)A. Genioglossus & GeniohyoidB. Anterior & Posterior bellies of digastricsC. MylohyoidD. Superior constricot of pharynx

30. ‘Dacrocystitis’ is interruption in the drainage of (2007)A. Submandibular glandB. Parotid glandC. Lacrimal glandD. Sublingual gland

31. Lingual nerve, supplying tongue, is a branch of (2007)A. Facial nerveB. Hypoglossal nerveC. Mandibular nerveD. Maxillary nerve

32. Failure of descent of thyroid analogue can be seen in the tongue (2008)A. In anterior T1 of dorsal aspectB. In posterior S1 of dorsal aspectC. Near the base of tongue close to foramen caecumD. In the anterior T1 of the inferior surface

33. Development of mandible is by (2008)A. 1st branchial archB. 2nd branchial archC. 4th branchial archD. 3rd branchial arch

34. Which of the following lobes of cerebrum is related to the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle (2008)

A. FrontalB. ParietalC. TemporalD. Occipital

35. The branch of facial nerve that conveys the secretomotor impulse involved in lacrimation is (2008)A. Chorda tympani nerveB. Deep petrosal nerveC. Greater petrosal nerveD. Lesser petrosal nerve

36. Structures related to the medial surface of the hyoglossus muscle including the following EXCEPT (2008)

A. Glossopharyngeal nerveB. Stylohyoid ligamentC. Lingual arteryD. Hypoglossal nerve

37. Which one of the following nerves is NOT encountered during submandibular gland resection (2008),(2011)

A. Lingual nerve B. Hypoglossal nerveC. Accessory nerveD. Marginal mandibular nerve

38. Umbilical cord contains (2009)A. Three arteries and one veinB. One artery and three veins C. One artery and one veinD. Two arteries and one vein

39. The abductors of the vocal cords are (2009)A. Transverse arytenoidB. Oblique arytenoidC. Lateral thyroarytenoidD. Posterior cricoarytenoid

40. Horner’s syndrome include all except (2009)A. Enopthalmos B. MiosisC. ExopthalmosD. Ptosis

41. CSF is directly returned to venous system by (2009)A. Choroid plexusB. Cerebral veins C. Arachnoid villiD. Emissary veins

42. Unilateral paralysis of hypoglossal nerve leads to (2009)A. Deviation of tongue to normal sizeB. Deviation of the tongue to paralysed sideC. No change in the position of the tongueD. Retraction of the tongue

43. Which papillae are completely keratinized (2009)A. FungiformB. FiliformC. CircumvallateD. Foliate

44. The type of suture representated by sagittal suture of the cranial vault is (2010)A. Serrate B. DenticulateC. Squamous D. Plane

45. Nerve supply to the vocal cords is by (2010)A. Internal laryngeal nerveB. Recurrent laryngeal nerveC. Superior laryngeal nerveD. Internal and recurrent laryngeal nerves

46. The lingual surface of epiglottis is lined by (2010)A. Stratified squamous epitheliumB. Simple squamous epitheliumC. Stratified columnar epitheliumD. Pseudostratified epithelium

47. Which of the following venous sinuses is more likely to be affected with thrombosis in chronic otitis media and mastoiditis (2010)

A. CavernousB. Inter cavernousC. Sigmoid D. Superior petrosal

48. Meiotic division division of male germ cells commence (2010)A. During intra uterine lifeB. Just before birthC. By around 6 years after birthD. By around 16 years

49. Infection from the dangerous area of face spreads via one of the following veins (2011)A. Maxillary veinB. Retromolar veinC. Superficial temporal veinD. Ophthalmic veins

50. All of the following canals open on the posterior wall of the pterygopalatine fossa EXCEPT (2011)A. Greater paltine canalB. Foramen rotundumC. Pterygoid canalD. Palatovaginal canal

51. One of the following nerve is the motor nerve for occipital belly of occipitofrontalis (2011)A. Great auricularB. Lesser occipitalC. Third occipitalD. Posterior auricular

52. Hypoglossal nerve supplies all the muscles EXCEPT (2011)A. StyloglossusB. Hyoglossus C. PalatoglossusD. Genioglossus

53. The first macroscopic development occurs at approximately (2011)A. 8 weeks in uteroB. 10 weeks in uteroC. 11 weeks in uteroD. 13 weeks in utero

54. Ultimobranchial body forms (2011)A. ‘C’ cells of thyroid glandB. Principal cells of parathyroid glandC. Acidophils of pituitary glandD. Pituicytes of pituitary gland

55. Mucous membrane on the buccal aspect of the upper alveolar process process is innervated by buccal nerve and (2011)

A. Superior alveolar nerveB. Mental nerveC. Interior alveolar nerveD. Greater palatine nerve

56. Openings of the posterior alveolar canals are seen on (2011)A. Posterior maxillary surfaceB. Lateral maxillary surfaceC. Intra temporal surfaceD. Pterygopalatine fossa

PHYSIOLOGY

57. The supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus is believed to control the secretion of which of the following hormones (2004)

A. ADHB. OxytocinC. GHD. ACTH

58. Steroid hormones are believed to enter target cells (2004)A. Faciliated duffusion B. Carrier mediated endocytosisC. Cholesterol lined pores in the plasma membraneD. Simple diffusion

59. The skeletal muscle action potential (2004)A. Is not essential for contraction to occcurB. Has a prolonged palteau phase C. Spreads inward to all parts of the muscle via the t-tubule systemD. Begins with an inward movement of K+ ions

60. Which of the following statements about the action of somatomedins is true (2004)A. They inhibit protein synthesisB. They antagonize the effect of insulinC. They promote growth of bones and cartilageD. They mediate the local effects of somatostatin

61. What effect does hyperventilation have on oxygen binding affinity of hemoglobin (2004)A. PO2 and O2 affinity decreasesB. PO2 and O2 affinity increasesC. PO2 decreases and O2 affinity increasesD. PO2 increases and O2 affinity decreases

62. Acomegaly is a disorder of (2004)A. Excess growth hormone secretionB. Excess thyroxine secretionC. Excess ACTH secretionD. Excess FSH secretion

63. Supporting cells of taste buds are called as (2004) (2005)A. Sustenticular cellsB. Taste cellsC. Von Ebners cellsD. Acini

64. Partially keratinized papilla is (2004)A. FungiformB. FiliformC. CircumvallateD. Foliate

65. Open faced nucleus in a cell signifies (2004)A. That the cell is restingB. That the cell is activeC. NothingD. That the cell is in transition phase

66. Which of the following is not an effect of insulin (2004)A. Decreased gluconeogenesisB. Increased gluconeogenesisC. Increased transport of glucose into cellsD. Induction of lipoprotien lipase

67. Rennin release is inhibited by (2005)A. PGI2

B. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)C. EpinephrineD. Decreased glomerular filteration

68. Citrate is a useful anticoagulant because of its ability to (2005)A. Buffer basic groups of coagulation factorsB. Bind factor XIIC. Bind Vit-KD. Chelate calcium

69. Ventricular muscle receives impulses directly from the (2005)A. Purkinje systemB. Bundle of HisC. Right and left bundle branchesD. AV node

70. After secretion of trypsinogen into the duodenum, the enzyme is converted into its active form Trypsin by (2005)

A. EnterokinaseB. ProcarboxypeptidaseC. Pancreatic lipaseD. Previously secreted trypsin

71. Sensory receptors for pain are (2005)A. Pacinian corpusclesB. End organs of RuffiniC. End bulb of KrauseD. Free nerve endings

72. The haemoglobin-oxygen saturation of blood entering the right ventricle is approximately (2005)A. 97%B. 85%C. 75%D. 53%

73. Function of hepatic kupffer cells is (2005)A. Formation of sinusoidsB. Vitamin-A storageC. Increased blood perfusionD. Phagocytosis

74. The normal brown red colour of feaces results from the presence of (2005)A. HaemeB. StercobilinC. BiliverdinD. Bilirubin diglucuronide

75. The normal pH of human blood is (2006)A. 7.0B. 7.2C. 7.35 – 7.40D. 7.6

76. The following factors increase the cardiac output except (2006)A. PreloadB. AfterloadC. Heart rateD. Myocardial contractility

77. In clinical practise, GFR is estimated using the plasma clearance value of (2006)A. InulinB. PAHC. GlucoseD. Creatinine

78. The number of muscle fibers in a motor unit are least in (2006)A. Laryngeal musclesB. Pharyngeal muscles

C. Muscles of middle earD. Extra ocular muscles

79. Normal Myeloid:Erythroid ratio is (2006)A. 3:1B. 1:3C. 4:1D. 6:1

80. Glucose tolerance test is usually done to assess (2007)A. Acute pancreatitisB. Carcinoma of head of pancreasC. Acinar function of the pancreasD. Endocrine dysfunction of pancreas

81. Thermoregulatory response activated by cold is (2007)A. Cutaneous vasodilatationB. AnorexiaC. Increased voluntary activityD. Increased respiration

82. Which of these organelles function as the digestive system of the cell (2007)A. MitochondriaB. Rough ERC. Golgi apparatusD. Lysosomes

83. Thrombopoietin is produced by (2007)A. MonocytesB. LiverC. MegakaryocytesD. Megakaryoblasts

84. In determining blood pressure by the auscultatory method (2007)A. The loudest sound is the diastolic blood pressureB. Systolic pressure estimation tends to be lower than that made by the palpatory methodC. The first sound is heard is the systolic blood pressureD. The sound that are heard are generated in the heart

85. Which of the following is a function of the golgi apparatus (2007)A. Modification of proteinsB. mRNA synthesisC. Protein storageD. tRNA synthesis

86. Which of the following is called ‘Counter Current Exchanger’ (2008)A. Loop of HenleB. Vasa rectaC. Collecting ductD. Proximal convulated tubule

87. Acute pyogenic infection produces (2008)A. LeukopeniaB. LeukocytosisC. NeutropeniaD. Lymphopenia

88. The receptor cells of olfactory epithelium are (2008)A. Bipolar neurons B. Unipolar neuronsC. Multipolar neuronsD. Stellate cells

89. Activity of osteoclasts can be modified and regulated by which hormone (2008)A. CalcitoninB. ThyroidC. InsulinD. Pituitary

90. Isometric relaxation ends immediately after (2008)A. AV valve closesB. When ventricular pressure falls below aortic pressureC. When ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressureD. None of the above.

91. Which one of the following is a regulatory protein of the muscle (2008)A. TroponinB. MyosinC. ActinD. Protein C

92. Intrinsic factor in the stomach is secreted by (2008)A. Oxyntic cellsB. Chief cellsC. Mast like cellsD. D-cells of antrum

93. Kussmaul’s respiration occurs in response to (2008)A. Decrease in pH of bloodB. Increase in pH of blood

C. Obstructive pulmonary diseaseD. Carbon monoxide poisoning

BIOCHEMISTRY

94. What is true of iron (2004)A. It is stored as ferritinB. It is absorbed by transferrin in the intestineC. Spleen is the major storage organD. Fe++ is excreted in urine

95. A mutation is that converts an amino acid codon to a stop codon is a (2004)A. Nonsense codonB. TransversionC. Silent mutationD. Frame shift mutation

96. Which one of the following is purely ketogenic (2004)A. Proline B. PhenylalanineC. IsoleucinD. Leucin

97. Aspartate aminotransaminase is released (2004)(2005)A. By viable cells B. After cell necrosisC. Either of the above twoD. None of the above

98. Scurvy is the rsult of deficiency of (2004)A. Vit AB. Vit CC. Vit BD. Vit D

99. Mature red blood cells are distinguished from most body cells by their (2004)A. Reliance on anaerobic glycolysisB. Spherical shapeC. Lack of plasticityD. Relative impermeability to plasma anions

100. All cells do not devide at the same rate. Events in which phase of the cell cycle determine when a cell is going to replicate (2005)

A. M phaseB. G1 phaseC. S phase

D. G2 phase

101. Which one of the following human tissues contains the greatest amount of body glycogen (2005)A. Liver B. KidneyC. Skeletal muscleD. Cardiac muscle

102. The monosaccharide glucose is best described by which one of the following statements (2005)A. It usually exists in the furanose formB. It is a ketoseC. It possesses an anomeric C-2 carbon atomD. It forms part of the disaccharide sucrose

103. Which one of the following is a precursor of both gonadal and adrenocortical hormones (2005)A. Progesterone B. CortisolC. TestosteroneD. Corticosterone

104. Which of the following vitamins is bound to gastric intrinsic factor (2005)A. Vit- KB. Folic acidC. Vit- B12

D. Vit-D

105. Which one of the following enzymatic reactions is directly related to Vit-K (2005)A. Activation of factor XB. Regulation of blood calcium levelC. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrinD. Synthesis of prothrombin

106. Von Gierke’s disease is associated with deficiency of (2006)A. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenaseB. Glucose 6 phosphate C. Phosphorylase in liverD. Hexokinase

107. Deficiency of Vit – C causes the following except (2006)A. Painful swollen gums B. Abnormal collagenC. AnemiaD. Diarrhoea

108. Intestinal absorption of Ca+2 is decreased by (2006)

A. ProteinsB. LactoseC. Phytic acidD. Acidity

109. The class of amino acids that contains only non-essential amino acids is (2007)A. AcidicB. BasicC. AromaticD. Branded chain

110. Serum Creatine Kinase-3 (CK-3) is elevated in (2007)(2009)A. Muscular dystrophyB. Myocardial infarctionC. Alcoholic cirrhosisD. Brain tumors

111. The enzyme known to cause spontaneous thrombosis as an adverse reaction is (2007)A. Tyrosine kinaseB. AromataseC. AsparaginaseD. Collagenase

112. Transport form of iron is (2007)(2008)A. TransferrinB. FerritinC. ApoferritinD. Lactoferrin

113. The main component of hyperlipidemia a mojor risk factor for atherosclerosis isA. High densely lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterolB. Intermediate densely lipoprotein (IDL) cholesterolC. Low densely lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterolD. Very low densely lipoprotein (VLDL) cholesterol

114. The enzyme phosphofructokinase -1 is strongly activated byA. Cyclic AMPB. Adenosine triphosphateC. CitrateD. Fructose 2,6 bis phosphate

115. Transcription is the synthesis of A. Single stranded complimentary copy of DNAB. Double stranded complimentary copy of DNAC. Complimentary copy of RNA

D. Complimentary copy of rRNA

116. Non polar lipids act asA. Electric insulatorsB. IonsC. Non electric insulatorsD. Electrolytes

117. Cofactor required for lipoprotrein lipase activityA. Apo A–II B. Apo C–II C. Apo C–IIID. Apo B–II

118. Thr first plasma protein to be generated after severe protein deficiency A. AlbuminB. GlobulinC. FibrinogenD. Thrombin

119. Hemochromatosis presents with all EXCEPTA. Micronodular cirrhosisB. Diabetes mellitusC. Skin pigmentationD. Hepatitis

120. Burning feet syndrome occurs due to deficiency of A. NiacinB. Pantothenic acidC. RiboflavinD. Folic acid

121. The uptake of glucose by the liver increases following a carbohydrate meal becauseA. There is increased phosphorylation of glucose by glukokinaseB. GLUT-2 is stimulated by insulinC. Glukokinase has a low Km for glucoseD. Hexokinase in liver has a high affinity for glucose

122. Which of the following events do not occur in rods in response to lightA. Structural changes in rhodopsinB. Activation of transducinC. Decreased intracellular cGMPD. Opening of Na+ channels

123. Which of the following enzyme provides a link between glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

A. Lactate dehydrogenaseB. Pyruvate kinaseC. Citrate synthaseD. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

124. Under metabolic conditions associated with a high rate of fatty acid oxidation, the liver producesA. GlutamateB. AcetoacetateC. CholesterolD. Glycine

125. Insulin increases the activity ofA. HMG –CoA reductaseB. HMG –CoA lyaseC. HMG –CoA synthaseD. Thiolase

126. Squamous metaplasia in the respiratory epithelium is induced by deficiency of (2010,2011)A. Vitamin –D B. Vitamin –B C. Vitamin –A D. Vitamin –C

127. The nitrogen content in a 50 gm of a dietary protein is mos likely to be (2011)A. 5 gmB. 8 gmC. 10 gmD. 16 gm

128. Ehrlich test is done to detect (2011)A. BilirubinB. UrobilinogenC. Bile saltsD. Protein

129. Ubiquitin is involved in (2011)A. Intracellular proteolysisB. Electron transport chainC. Transport of ATPD. Protein folding

130.131.

DENTAL MATERIALS

132. The compressive strength of dentin is approximately (2004)A. 468 MPaB. 162 MPaC. 350 MPaD. 266 MPa

133. Crystalline materials as compared to amorphous materials have (2004)A. No space lattice B. Less stabilityC. Well defined melting pointD. Hydrophobic property

134. Hardening solutions are used with impressions made of (2004)A. Hydrocolloids B. Impression compoundC. ElastomersD. Zinc oxide eugenol

135. The phenomenon by which porcelain appears different under varying condition of color is called (2004)

A. MesomerismB. MetamerismC. Refractive indexD. Translucency

136. The type -1 gypsum product is also called (2004) (2005)A. Impression plaster B. Type -1 stone or HydrocalC. Type -2 stone or DensiteD. Model plaster

137. pH of which cement remains below 7 even one month after insertion into the cavity (2004)A. GICB. Zn PhosphateC. Resin cementD. Silicate cement

138. Who was the first person to introduce Cast Inlay restoration into Dentistry (2004)A. William H TaggartB. Micheal BuonocoreC. G V BlackD. Bowen

139. The best pickling solution for gypsum bonded investment is (2004) (2005) (2011)

A. Hydrochloric AcidB. Nitric acidC. Sulfuric acidD. Phosphoric acid

140. The alloy that possess ‘super elasticity’ is (2005)A. NitinolB. Stainless steelC. Cobalt-Chromium-NickelD. Gold-Palladium

141. Which lasers can be used to cure composite resins (2005)A. ArgonB. Nd:YAGC. Er:YAGD. CO2

142. Back pressure porosity in casting is due to (2005)A. High casting pressureB. Low investment permeabilityC. Small size and improper direction of sprueD. Sprue

143. Frozen slab technique is applicable to (2005)(2011)A. Zinc phosphate cementB. GICC. Zinc oxide eugenol cementD. Resin cement

144. Casting flux is used to (2005)A. Prevent the oxidation of material during meltingB. Increase the melting point of the fluxC. Prevent the contamination of the metal and the linerD. All the above

145. The setting expansion of gypsum products can be reduced by (2005)A. Increased spatulationB. Adding potassium sulphateC. Less water/powder ratioD. Allowing setting under water

146. The cements which adhere to the tooth are (2005)A. Silicate and GICB. ZnO Eugenol and GICC. GIC and Zn polycarboxylate

D. GIC and Zn phosphate

147. Dimensional stability of hydrocolloid impressions may be achieved by (2005)A. Using less water/powder ratioB. Storing the impression under waterC. Prolonged manipulationD. Using humidor

148. Gases dissolved in molten metals are liberated when cooled, giving rise to (2005)A. Suck back porosityB. Gas inclusion porosityC. Localized shrinkage porosityD. Micro porosity

149. For esthetic areas where high luster is required the restoration used usually (2005)A. Glass Ionomer restorativesB. Hybrid resin compositesC. Microfilled rsin compositesD. Macrofilled resin composites

150. The water /powder ratio of alginate is (2005)A. 100 ml of water + 60 gm of powderB. 40 ml of water + 40 gm of powderC. 40 ml of water + 15 gm of powderD. 15 ml of water + 40 gm of powder

151. Percentage of gold in a high noble gold alloy is (2005)A. < 25%B. 25%C. >40%D. 00%

152. The solid solution of silver and mercury is called (2005)A. γ 1B. γ 2C. є 1D. η

153. The main form of iron carbide in 18:8 stainless steel is (2005)A. MartensiteB. AusteniteC. FerriteD. Pearlite

154. To make vinyl polysiloxane hydrophilic, the following is added (2005)A. Mineral oil

B. SurfactantC. WaterD. Plasticizer

PHARMACOLOGY

155. Ketamine is a (2004)A. Short general anesthesiaB. Local anesthetic agentC. Anti depressive agentD. Hypnotic agent

156. Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine (2004)A. Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethoniumB. Increased blood pressure caused by nicotineC. Tachycardia caused by exerciseD. Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetycholine

157. An untoward effect that is common to all phenothiazines is (2004)A. A marked increase in the blood pressureB. Rigidity and tremor at rest particularly with prolonged useC. Suppression of prolactinD. Nausea

158. Which drug may be administered even when the patient is on alcoholic beverages (2004)A. Animal charcoalB. Glibenclamide C. Chloral hydrateD. Cefixime

159. Serum Sickness is caused by all of the following drugs except (2004)A. AspirinB. PenicillinsC. SulphonamidesD. Choloroquine

160. All of the following drugs are components of the MOPP cancer chemotherapy regimen except (2005)

A. ProcarbazineB. VincristineC. MechlorethamineD. Methotrexate

161. Granulocytopenia, GI tract irritation, gingival hyperplasia, and facial hirsutism are all possible side effects of which of the following anticonvulsant drugs (2005)

A. PhenobarbitolB. CarbamazepineC. AcetazolamideD. Phenytoin sodium

162. Clavulanic acid is given in combination with amoxicillin in order to (2005)A. Reduce the risk of allergic reactionsB. Prolong the half life of amoxicillinC. Reduces the severity of diarrhoeaD. Extend amoxicillin’s antibacterial spectrum

PATHOLOGY

163. All cells do not devide at the same rate. Events in which phase of the cell cycle determine when a cell is going to replicate (2004)

A. M phaseB. G1 phaseC. S phaseD. G2 phase

164. The term poikilokaryosis means (2004)A. Division of both nucleus ana cytoplasmB. Division of nucleus without division of cytoplasmC. Division of cytoplasmD. Fading of nuclei

165. Physiologic programmed cell death is known as (2004)A. Apoptosis B. Lysis C. Autolysis D. Autopsy

166. Mast cells (2005)A. Possess receptors for complement componentsB. Can synthesize TNF- αC. Release histamineD. Antigen recognised by IgA

167. Which of the following is not a pigment disorder (2005)A. VitiligoB. MelesmaC. FreckleD. Seborrheic keratosis

168. The most striking haematological finding in Agranulocytosis is (2005)

A. Decreased absolute neutrophil countB. Increased absolute neutrophil countC. Decreased absolute basophil countD. Increased absolute monocyte count

169. ‘Sago spleen’ is the term used to describe the gross appearance of spleen in (2005)A. HypersplenismB. AmyloidosisC. Chronic myelocytic leukemiaD. Chronic malaria

170. Mercury is toxic because it (2005)A. Complexes with haemoglobin to form methaemoglobinB. Inhibits haemoglobin synthesis, producing anemiaC. Inhibits anaerobic glycolysisD. Binds to sulfhydryl groups

171. A cell that contains hemosiderin, derived from RBCs that have been extravasated into the tissues, is (2005)

A. SiderophageB. MelanophageC. Plasma cellD. Lymphocyte

172. Lepra cells seen in leprosy are (2005)A. LymphocytesB. Plasma cellsC. Vacuolated histiocytesD. Neutrophils

173. Virchow’s lepra cells are seen in (2005)A. Tuberculoid leprosyB. Indeterminate leprosyC. Borderline tuberculoid leprosyD. Lepramatous leprosy

MICROBILOGY

174. The distinguising characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is (2004)A. ErythemaB. NecrosisC. IndurationD. Vasculitis

175. Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces (2004)

A. Capsule B. Flagella C. Pili D. Mesosomes

176. The binding site for complement on the immunoglobin molecule is in the (2004)A. VL domainB. CL domainC. CH-1 domainD. CH-2 domain

177. The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is (2004)A. Mannitol fermentationB. Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytesC. Detection of coagulaseD. The catalase test

178. Human immunoglobins are divided based on (2004)A. Functional differencesB. Antigenic affinityC. Complement fixationD. Structural differences

179. In HIV infection, diffuse lymphadenopathy in aperson who is clinically well is usually a sign of which of the following (2004)

A. LymphomaB. Kaposi’s sarcomaC. Tuberculosis D. PGL(Persistent Generalized Lymphadenopathy)

180. Tuberculin test screeens for (2004)A. Humoral immunityB. Cell mediated immunityC. Complement functionD. Phagocyte dysfunction

181. Following active immunisation with tetanus toxoid injection, how often should a booster dose be given (2004)

A. Every yearB. Every 2 yearsC. Every 5 yearsD. Twice a year

182. Sulphur granules are a diagnostic feature of (2004)A. Histoplasmosis B. Sulfide poisoningC. ActinomycosisD. Toxoplasmosis

183. Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of (2005)A. Ultraviolet raysB. Ultrasonic vibrationsC. Infrared raysD. Gamma rays

184. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be prevented if the mother is injected, at parturition, with an antibody called (2005)

A. Blocking antibodyB. Rh (D) ImmunoglobinC. Antilymphocyte globulinD. Antilymphocyte serum

185. A test that can be used fro typing of class -1 histocompatibility antigen is (2005)A. Cell mediated lympholysis (CML)B. Donor- recipient mixed lymphocyte responseC. Primed lymphocyte typingD. Antibody and complement mediated cytotoxicity

186. Hepatitis-C belongs to which one of the following virus groups (2005)A. Picona virusB. Herpes virusC. Hepadna virusD. Flavi virus

ORAL ANATOMY & HISTOLOGY

187. How many pulpal horns are there in the mandibular second primary molar (2004)A. 3B. 6C. 4D. 5

188. First permanent molars begin to calcify at (2004)A. 6 months of intrauterine lifeB. BirthC. Before decidous incisorsD. About 1 year after birth

189. The eruption age of maxillary permanent lateral incisor is (2004)

A. 08-09 yearsB. 06-07 yearsC. 10-11 yearsD. 08-09 months

190. Which of the following serum enzymes is the most sensitive index of neo osteogenesis (2004)A. Acid phosphataseB. Alkaline phosphataseC. LDHD. Lipase

191. The stain used for exfolliative cytology (2004)A. Weigert stainB. Van Gieson stainC. Periodic Acid Schiffs stainD. Papaniculaou stain

192. Which of the following is non keratinocyte (2004)(2005)A. Langhan’s cellB. RBCC. Langerhan’s cellD. Grey cell

193. Keratohyaline granules are more evident in (2004)A. KeratinizedB. Non-keratinizedC. Parakeratinized D. Orthokeratinized

194. The following is a special stain for collagen (2004)A. Haematoxylin & eosinB. Leishman’sC. PASD. Mallory’s

195. Cementicles are found in the (2004)A. GingivaB. PDLC. Alveolar boneD. Cementum

196. Where do we see ‘Actin and Myosin’ (2005)A. Serous cellsB. Mucous cellsC. Myoepithelial cells

D. Demilunes

197. The ‘Plexus of Rashkov’ is present in which of the following zones in pulp (2005)A. Cell free zoneB. Cell rich zoneC. Odontoblastic zoneD. Pulp core

198. In which of the following the mucosa is keratinized (2005)A. Hard palateB. Buccal mucosaC. Labial mucosaD. Soft palate

199. Morphological stages of tooth development are explained based on (2005)A. Shape of enamel organB. Shape of the tooth germC. Functions of the enamel organD. Shape of the dental papilla

200. What line is formed when primary curvatures of dentinal tubules meet (2005)A. Schreger lineB. Contour line of OwenC. Von Ebner’s lineD. Imbrications lines of Pickerel

201. Glands of Blandin and Nuhn are the (2005)A. Palatine glands in the posterolateral region of the hard palateB. Anterior lingual glands located near the apex of the tongueC. Labial and buccal mucosaD. Glossopalatine glands

202. Perikymata are believed to be the external manifestations of (2005)A. Striae of retzius

GENERAL MEDICINE

203. Megaloblastic anemia occurs due to (2004)A. Iron deficiencyB. Folate deficiencyC. Vit –C deficiencyD. Protein deficiency

204. A patient with a history of ankle edema, shortness of breath and orthopnea is probably suffering from (2004)

A. Asthama B. EmphysemaC. Cardiac decompensationD. Constrictive pericarditis

205. Features of hypothyroidism do not include (2004)A. ObesityB. Hypertension C. High TSH levelD. Increased risk of infections

206. Nephrotic syndrome is characterised by following manifestation except (2004)A. ProteinuriaB. HyperlipidemiaC. EdemaD. Hypertension

207. The commonest cuase of massive upper GIT bleeding is (2004)A. Gastri ulcerB. Erosive gastritisC. Gastritis carcinomaD. Duodenal ulcer

208. Which of the following results in a prolonged bleeding time (2004)A. Hemophilia CB. Hemophilia BC. thrombocytopeniaD. Hemophilia A

209. Which one of the following is a sex linked disorder (2004)A. ThalassemiaB. Kleinfelter’s syndromeC. HemophiliaD. Neurofibromatosis

210. Acromegaly is a disorder of (2005)A. Excess growth hormone secretion B. Excess thyroxine secretionC. Excess ACTH secretionD. Excess FSH secretion

211. Occupational disease of lung caused by inhalation of sugar cane dust is called as (2005)A. ByssinosisB. BagassosisC. Anthracosis

D. Silicosis

212. The drug of choice for prompt relief of an ongoing attack of angina precipitated by exercise or emotional stress is (2005)

A. PropranololB. AtenololC. Sublingual nitroglycerinD. Sublingual nifedipine

213. Which of the following is associated with cyanotic congenital heart disease (2005)A. Cor triatriatumB. Tetralogy of fallotC. Mitral stenosisD. Primary pulmonary hypertension

214. Clubbing of the fingers (2005)A. Always indicates heart diseaseB. Is common in cirrhosis of the liverC. Warrants a search for sickle cell anemiaD. Is seen in pulmonary A-V fistula

215. Platelet count is raised in (2005)A. OsteopetrosisB. Disseminated Intravascular CoagulationC. Haemolytic anaemiaD. Thiazide therapy

GENERAL SURGERY

216. The most common site of metastasis from the mandibular sarcoma is (2004)A. LungB. LiverC. SpleenD. Heart

217. Horner’s syndrome does not include (2004)A. PtosisB. AnhydrosisC. FlushingD. Mydriasis

218. A cold nodule in thyroiditis scan mean (2004)A. Nodule which is coldB. Hyperactive noduleC. Nodule which is non functioning and malignantD. Nodule which has no signs of inflammation

219. The 5-year survival rate for patients with esophageal carcinoma who have been treated surgically is (2004)

A. 60%B. 45%C. 30%D. 10%

220. The most important aspect in treating Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is to (2004)A. Administer heparinB. Administer plateletsC. Treat the underlying disease processD. Achieve normal levels of fibrinogen

221. All of the following components or qualities of stored blood tend to decrease over time except (2004)

A. Red blood cell activityB. Potassium concentrationC. pHD. Platelet activity

222. Level-III neck nodes are (2005)A. In the submental triangleB. In the posterior triangleC. In the midline from hyoid to suprasternal notchD. Around the middle 1/3rd of internal jugular vein

223. Important components of collagen synthesis, wound strength and contraction include all of the following except (2005)

A. FibroblastsB. MyofibroblastsC. Vitamin-CD. Vitamin-D

224. Keloid scars (2005)A. Usually occur in the Caucasian raceB. Often occur in wounds which have healed perfectaly without complicationsC. Surgical treatment as a single modality has the least recurrenceD. Radiation should not be administered as it is a non-malignant condition.

225. Hypothyroidism should be treated with daily administration of which of the following thyroid hormone preparations (2005)

A. Thyroid extractB. Thyroglobulin

C. Thyroxine(T4)D. Triiodothyronine(T3)

ORAL PATHOLOGY

226. If the tooth is present at the time of birth it is known as (2004)A. Neonatal toothB. Perinatal toothC. Natal toothD. Postnatal tooth

227. Tetracycline drug ingestion in children is not recommended till the age of (2004)A. 6 Years B. 8 Years C. 4 Years D. 12 Years

228. Upon stretching the buccal mucosa, white lesion that disappears is (2004)A. OSMFB. LeukoedemaC. White sponge nevusD. Lichen planus

229. Reed-Sternberg cells are a feature seen in (2004)A. Non –Hodgkin’s lymphomaB. Hodgkin’s lymphomaC. Burkitt’s lymphomaD. Ewing’s sarcoma

230. Which histopathological type of OKC is commoner, more invasive and has a greater tendency for recurrence (2004)(2005)

A. Ortho keratinizedB. Para keratinizedC. Non keratinizedD. Kis keratinized

231. In early carious lesion the first structure to show evidence of destruction is the (2004)A. Enamel prismB. Interprismatic substanceC. Enamel tuftsD. Enamel lamellae

232. Features of Grinspan’s Syndrome include (2004)A. Leukoplakia and hypertensionB. Candidiasis and diabetes mellitus

C. Leukoplakia and hypotensionD. Lichen planus and diabetes mellitus

233. Which of the following is a pseudocyst (2004)A. Mucous retention cystB. Radicular cystC. Aneurysmal bone cystD. Dentigerous cyst

234. Glossodynia is (2004)A. Pain in the tongueB. Burning of the tongueC. Swelling of the tongueD. White patch on the tongue

235. Nikolsky’s sign is positive in (2004)A. PemphigusB. Lichen planusC. LeukoplakiaD. Leukoedema

236. The most common salivary gland tumor is (2004)A. Basal cell adenomaB. Mixed cell carcinomaC. Pleomorphic carcinomaD. Pleomorphic adenoma

237. Target lesions are characteristically seen in (2004)A. NeurofibromatosisB. Erythema multiformeC. Erythema nodosumD. Pemphigus

238. Talon’s cusp is characteristic of which syndrome (2004)A. Edward’s syndromeB. Kleinfelter’s syndromeC. Rubinstein taybi syndromeD. Down’s syndrome

239. Head shape in down syndrome is typically (2004)A. MesocephalicB. DolicocephalicC. BrachycephalicD. Acephalic

240. One of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder (2005)241. Among pre-malignant oral lesion (2005)242. Bohn’s nodules are (2005)243. The tissue of which lesion has been described as resembling a ’blood soaked sponge with large

pores’ (2005)244. The peripheral lesion that would most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is245. Dentinal union of two embryologically developing teeth is referred to as246. Which of the following is not true about primary HSV infections247. Psorolane Ultra Violet A (PUVA) therapy is advised in248. Dentigerous cyst is associated with the following249. Treacher collin’s syndrome is250. Port wine stain is a characteristic feature of 251. Common cariogenic bacteria is252. Multinucleated giant cell and perivascular cuffing are features seen in253. Early invading bacteria in carious lesions are called254. Herpangina is caused by255. ‘Xerostomia’ is seen in all of the following except256. Loss of tooth surface because of chemo mechanical action is known as257. Chocolate colored fluid is seen in the cystic space of258. Of the following conditions, the one which is not considered to be premalignant is259. Rushton bodies are seen commonly in260. Break up time test is done in261. The commonest intraosseous salivary gland neoplasm is262. ‘Lock Jaw’ indicates263. Blood borne seeding of bacteria into an area of previously damaged or irritated pulp with resultant

inflammation is known as264. Albers – Schonberg disease is265. The cells which give the starry sky appearance in Burkitt’s Lymphoma are266. Sequestrum means

ORTHODONTICS

267. Leeway space of nance is utilized in (2004)A. Early mesial shift of first permanent molarsB. Incisal liabilityC. Late mesial shift of first permanent molarsD. Secondary spacing of first permanent molars

268. Functional matrix theory was hypothesized by (2004)A. ScottB. SicherC. PetrovicD. Moss

269. Following is a feature of Angle’s class II Division 2 (2004)A. Open biteB. Retrusion of maxillary centralsC. Protrusion of maxillary centralsD. Mesio-occlusion of upper 1st molar

270. Which of the following landmarks are not located in the mandible (2004)A. Pogonion B. GnathionC. Menton D. Porion

271. Maxillary protraction head gear is used for (2004)A. Maxillary skeletal retrusionB. Mandibular skeletal protrusionC. Bimaxillary protrusionD. Skeletal open bite

272. Abnormally thick maxillary labial frenum results in (2004)A. Maxillary midline diastemaB. Imbrication of incisorsC. Labial inclination of incisorsD. Anterior deep bite

273. Which of the following permanent tooth is least extracted for orthodontic treatment (2004)A. CaninesB. Permanent maxillary 1st molarC. 1st premolarsD. 2nd premolars

274. Hyalinization of the periodontal ligament, due to excessive orthodontic forces results in (2004)A. Frontal resorptionB. Undermining resorptionC. Cementum remaining intactD. Dentine remaining intact

275. Dominant movement of root with relatively less movement of the crown is called (2004)A. CoupleB. TorqueC. IntrusionD. Extrusion

276. SNB angle describes the relationship of the (2004)A. Maxilla to the cranial baseB. Mandible to the cranial base

C. Maxilla to the mandibleD. All of the above

277. A major criterion to differentiate between a true Angle’s Class III and a pseudo Angle’s Class III is (2004)

A. Degree of anterior cross biteB. Presence of bilateral cross biteC. Existence of a forward shift of the mandible during closureD. Occlusal relationship between maxilla and mandible

278. The most accepted theory of tooth eruption is (2004)A. Hydrodynamic theoryB. Clone theoryC. Periodontal ligament traction theoryD. Vascular theory

PEDODONTICS

279. Treatment for Ellis class III fracture of anterior tooth in a 12 year old patient, reported after 72 hours is (2004)

A. PulpotomyB. RCTC. Indirect pulp capping D. Direct pulp capping

280. Hand Over Mouth Exercise (HOME) is an effective behavioural modification technique in the age group (2004)

A. 3-6 yearsB. Under 3 yearsC. 6-9 yearsD. Above 9 years

PERIODONTICS

281. Bulk of lamina propria of the gingiva is made up of collagen type (2004)A. IB. IIC. IIID. IV

282. Which of the following suture technique can be used to suspend the periodontal flap at the desired level (2004)

A. Figure of eight sutureB. Suspensory ligationC. Continuous ligationD. Interdental ligation

283. Angulation of a periodontal instrument refers to the (2004)A. Angle between the face of the blade and the shankB. Angle between shank or he shaftC. Angle between the face of the blade and the tooth surfaceD. Angle between the shank and the tooth surface

284. Ramping can be done for a (2004)A. One wall angular defectB. Two wall angular defectC. Three wall angular defectD. Four wall angular defect

285. Langerhan’s cells are absent in (2004)A. Junctional epitheliumB. Sulcular epitheliumC. Oral epitheliumD. All the above

RADIOLOGY

286. Which of the following is most radio resistant (2004)A. Early precursor cells of erythroblastic seriesB. Muscle cellsC. FibroblastsD. Vascular endothelial cells

287. What is the function of the lead foil in the film packet (2004)A. Moisture protectionB. To give rigidityC. Absorb the backscatter radiationD. Protection against florescence

288. Which of the structures appear radiopaque (2004)A. Maxillary sinus B. Nasal fossaC. Nasal septumD. Mental foramen

289. In the bisecting technique, the film is placed (2004)A. Parallel to the tooth B. As close to the tooth as possibleC. Parellel to the bisectorD. Perpendicular to the bisector

PROSTHODONTICS290. Bennett movement is (2004)

A. Direct lateral side shift of the mandible that occurs simultaneously with lateral mandibular excursion.

B. Direct lateral sideshift of the mandible that occurs simultaneously with medial mandibular excursion.

C. Direct medial sideshift with medial mandibular excursionD. Direct lateral side shift with medial mandibular excursion

291. Centric relation refers to the position of the condyles in (2004)A. Posterior most positionB. Posterior and superior positionC. Anterior and superior positionD. Anterior most position

292. Cross section form of lingual bar major connector is (2004)A. Full pear shapeB. Half pear shapeC. Round shapeD. Flat shape

293. Combination clasp consists of (2004)A. Wrought wire reciprocal arm and cast retentive armB. Wrought wire retentive arm and cast rediprocal armC. Wrought wire reciprocal arm and wrought retentive armD. Cast reciprocal arm and cast retentive arm

294. The finish line for a PFM anterior restoration is (2004)A. Facially shoulder with bevel lingually chamferB. Facially shoulder with bevel and linguallly shoulderC. Facially chamfer and lingually knife edgeD. Facially chamfer and lingually shoulder

295. The pontic design of choice in the appearance zone of maxillary and mandibular ridge is (2004)A. HygienicB. Modified ridge lapC. SaddleD. Conical

296. Instructing the patient to say ‘ah’ with short vigorous bursts will help in visualizing (2004)A. Soft palateB. Posterior vibrating lineC. Anterior vibrating lineD. Junction of hard and soft palate

297. Central incisor tooth arrangement in a tapering arch (2004)

A. Rotation of incisors on their long axis inward at the distal aspectB. Rotation of incisors on their long axis outward at the distal aspectC. Rotation of incisors on their long axis inward at the mesial aspectD. Central incisors almost in a straight line

298. Atmospheric pressure as a factor of retention is effective only (2004)A. If saliva is presentB. If adequate peripheral seal is presentC. If principle of mucostatics is appliedD. If good neuromuscular co-ordination is present

299. Bucco-lingual widths of poeterior teeth should be (2004)A. Equal to the width of the natural teeth they replaceB. Greater tha nthe width of the natural teeth they replaceC. Lesser than the width of the natural teeth they replaceD. Width of artificial posterior teeth is a matter of the operator’s prefrence

CONSERVATIVE DENTISTRY

300. Short bevel extends (2004)A. In almost 1/3 of the enamelB. All of the enamel and ½ of the dentinC. All of the enamel onlyD. 1/3 of the enamel only

301. Dentin bonding agents usually contain (2004)A. Only hydrophobic componentB. Only hydrophilic componentC. Hydrophobic and hydrophilic componentsD. Lycophilic and lycophobic components

302. Cavity varnish can be used under (2004)A. Zn phosphate cementB. Zn polycarboxylate cemenyC. GICD. Composite veneer restoration

303. What is the recommended force for condensation of dental amalgam (2004)A. 35 lbsB. 03 lbsC. 15 lbsD. 25 lbs

304. The highest incidence of pulp necrosis associated with (2004)A. Class V preparations on root surface

B. Inlay preparations C. Partial veneer preparationsD. Full crown preparations

ENDODONTICS

305. The bleaching material used for ‘Night Guard’ vital tooth bleaching is (2004)A. SuperoxolB. Anesthetic ether and hydrochloric acidC. Sodium bicarbonateD. Carbamide peroxide

306. Currently, one of the popular root end filling materials in great vogue is (2004)A. Calcium hydroxideB. GICC. Microfilled composite resinD. Mineral Trioxide Aggregate(MTA)

307. The prognosis for teeth with root fracture is best when the fracture occurs in the (2004)A. Coronal 1/3rd of rootB. Middle 1/3rd of rootC. Apical 1/3rd of rootD. Coronal ½ of root

308. The periapical lesion that would most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is (2004)A. Periapical abscessB. Periapical cystC. Periapical granulomaD. Condensing osteitis

309. Apexification is the treatment of choice for a permanent tooth with wide open apex when (2004)A. The pulp is necroticB. The pulp is vitalC. The pulp and root canals are calcifiedD. There is a traumatic pulp exposure during cavity preparation

310. Calcium hydroxide is advocated as an inter-appointment intracanal medication because of (2004)A. Its ability to dissolve necrotic tissueB. Its antimicrobial propertyC. Its ability to stimulate hard tissue formationD. Its powerful bleaching effect

311. In class III Ellis fracture (2004)A. Only enamel is involved B. Enamel and dentin are involvedC. Enamel, dentin and pulp are involved

D. Non vital pulp

312. Instrument used primarily to extirpate the pulp is (2004)A. K –fileB. H- fileC. Barbed broachD. Reamer

313. Blood born seeding of bacteria into an area of previously damaged or irritated pulp with a resultant inflammation is known as (2004)

A. Bacterial endocarditisB. Anachoretic pulpitis C. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitisD. Ulcerative pulpitis

ORAL SURGERY

314. The first sensation to be lost following administration of local anesthetic is (2004)A. ProprioceptionB. PainC. TouchD. Temperature

315. Treatment of choice of a linear non displaced fracture of the body of mandible with full complement of teeth is (2004)

A. Kirschner wireB. Circumferential wiringC. External pin fixationD. Inter dental fixation

316. With overdose of LA agent, one would observe (2004)A. HypertensionB. HypotensionC. No change in BPD. Cardiac arrhythmias

317. Sagittal split ostectomy is procedure done for (2004)A. Maxillary deformitiesB. Mandibular deformitiesC. Condylar deformitiesD. Deformities in which occlusion is not involved

318. The most common dislocation of TMJ is (2004)A. AnteriorB. Posterior

C. MedialD. Lateral

319. The following microorganism is considered to be responsible for dry socket (2004)A. PseudomonasB. Treponema denticolaC. SpirochetesD. Streptococcus viridians

320. ‘Rubber Band’ extraction is a method of extraction in a patient having (2004)A. Bleeding disordersB. Myocardial infarction and angina pectorisC. Supernumerary teethD. Impacted teeth

321. Which muscles make up the pterygomandibular raphae (2004)A. Masseter anteriorly and palatopharyngeus posteriorlyB. Masseter anteriorly and medial pterygoid posteriorlyC. Buccinators anteriorly and superior constrictor posteriorlyD. Buccinator anteriorly and medial constrictor posteriorly

322. Commonly used suture material for closure of intraoral wounds is (2004)A. Nylon B. SilkC. CatgutD. Chromic catgut

323. The most significant adverse consequence of accidental i.v. administration of local anesthetic is (2004)

A. BronchoconstrictionB. Hepatic damageC. Nerve damageD. Seizures

COMMUNTY DENTISTRY

324. The health promotional phase in public health was between the years (2004)A. 1880 – 1920 B. 1920 – 1960 C. 1960 – 1980 D. 1981 – 2000

325. The Physical Quality of Life Index(PQLI) ranges between (2004)A. 01 – 10 B. 00 – 50

C. 00 – 100D. 50 – 100

326. Sensitivity of a test is its ability to identify (2004)A. True negative B. False positiveC. False negativeD. True positive

327. The point at which the chlorine demand of water is (2004)A. Break pointB. Back washC. Loss of headD. Chlorine demand

328. The number of people in a group receiving a lecture should not be more than (2004)A. 60B. 50C. 40D. 30

329. The ‘Bhore Committee’ on health survey and development submitted its report in (2004)A. 1943B. 1946C. 1962D. 1963

330. The first country to adopt salt fluoridation was (2004)A. FranceB. GermanyC. JamaicaD. None

331. In Snyder’s test, saliva is said to be highly cariogenic if the color change is observed at hrs (2004)A. 24B. 48C. 72D. 96

332. Clinical wastes in hospitals are to be disposed in which color bags (2004)A. Yellow B. BlackC. Green D. Red

333. The permissible level of E.Coli (number/ml)in potable water is (2004)A. 20B. 15C. 10D. 0

334. The index used to record the plaque score is (2004)A. PMA indexB. Silness and Loe indexC. Green And Vermillion indexD. Russell’s index

335. Proxa brushes are recommended to be used in which of the following type of embrasure (2004)A. Type I embrasureB. Type II embrasureC. Type III embrasureD. All the above

336.