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192 COMEDK Previous Years Solved Papers

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192

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ANATOMY

1. All of the following canals open on theposterior wall of the pterygo palatine fossa

EXCEPTA. Greater palatine canalB. Foramen RotundumC. Pterygoid canalD. Palatovaginal canal

2. Ultimobronchial body forms

A. ‘C’ cells of thyroid glandB. Principal cells of parathyroid glandC. Acidophils of pituitary glandD. Pituicytes of pituitary gland

3. Openings of the posterior alveolar canals

are seen onA. Posterior maxillary surfaceB. Lateral maxillary surfaceC. Intra temporal surfaceD. Pterygo palatine fossa

4. Hypoglossal nerve supplies all the musclesEXCEPT

A. StyloglossusB. StylopharyngiusC. PalatoglossusD. Genioglossus

5. One of the following nerve is the motor

nerve for occipital belly of occipitofrontalisA. Great auricularB. Lesser occipitalC. Third occipitalD. Posterior auricular

6. Infection from the dangerous area of facespreads via one of the following veins

A. Maxillary veinB. Retromandibular vein

C. Superficial temporal veinD. Ophthalmic veins

PHYSIOLOGY

7. In a nerve, the magnitude of the actionpotential overshoot is normally a functionof the

A. Magnitude of the stimulusB. Intracellular potassium concentrationC. Extracellular sodium concentrationD. Resting membrane potential

8. Contraction in smooth muscle is initiatedwhen calcium binds to

A. CalbindinB. CalmodulinC. TroponinD. Tropomyosin

9. Non – myelinated axons differ frommyelinated ones in that they

A. Are more excitableB. Lack nodes of RanvierC. Are not capable of renerationD. Are not associated with Schwann cells

10. All the following hormones bind to cellsurface receptors of the target tissuesEXCEPT

A. Thyroid stimulating hormoneB. GlucagonC. EstrogenD. Epinephrine



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BIOCHEMISTRY

11. Ehrlich test is done to detect

A. BilirubinB. UrobilinogenC. Bile saltsD. Protein

12. Plasma Ceruloplasmin is a

A. Alpha 1 globulinB. Alpha 2 globulinC. Beta 1 globulinD. Beta 2 globulin

13. An example of a isotope that ispredominantly a beta emitter is

A. 125 IodineB. 32 PhosphorusC. 51 ChromiumD. 99 m Technetium

14. The nitrogen content in 50 gm of a typicaldietary protein is most likely to be

A. 5 gmB. 8 gmC. 10 gmD. 16 gm

GENRAL PATHOLOGY

15. Sarcoidosis is

A. Uncommon in Afro – CaribbeanB. Less common in smokersC. Seen in temperature climateD. Single system disorder

16. Ubiquitin is involved in

A. Intracellular proteolysisB. Electron transport chainC. Transport of ATP

D. Protein folding17. Durck granule’s are seen in

A. BerylliosisB. SarcoidosisC. TuberculosisD. Malaria

18. Phagocytes kill bacteria through which

mechanismsA. Membrane attack complex killingB. Oxidative and Non – oxidative killingC. Zipper killingD. Chemotaxis

MICROBIOLOGY

19. A full course of immunization against,Tetanus with 3 doses of Tetranus toxoids,confers immunity for how many years

A. 5B. 10

C. 15D. 20

20. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A. Produces heat stable enterotoxinB. Causes Shanghai feverC. Cannot be destroyed at 55º at 1 hrD. Does not produce any pigment

21. Injection abscesses due to use ofcontaminated vaccines occurs in infectionscaused by

A. M. kansasii

B. M. ulceransC. M. chelonaeD. M. smegmatis

22. The most frequent non sporing anaerobicbacilli isolated from clinical specimens is

A. Bacteroides fragilisB. Bacteroides vulgatusC. Prevotella melaninogenicaD. Fusobacterium nucleatum

23. Anaphylaxis refers to the

A. Severe reaction followings reinjection of protein solutions in a sensitizedindividual

B. Severe reaction followings primaryinjection of protein solutions

C. State of immunity developed byrepeated injection of any foreignsubstance

D. Severe reaction resulting fromsensitivity to common allergens




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PHARMACOLOGY

24. Which among the following is used as animmunosuppressant

A. CyclosporineB. CycloserineC. CyclopentolateD. Cyclizinc

25. Which of the following Anti Tuberculardrug is bacteriostatic

A. INHB. EthambutolC. Pyrazenamide

D. Streptomycin

26. Among the drugs given below, which isLEAST likely to be implicated in druginduced hepatitis

A. IsoniazidB. StreptomycinC. RipampicinD. Pyrazinamide

27. Daily loss of iron per day in a healthy adultmale is

A. 0.06 mg

B. 0.6 mgC. 60 mgD. 600 mg

28. Which among the following drugs is NOTused orally?

A. QuinidineB. VerapamilC. LignocaineD. Phenytoin

29. Which among the drugs given below, doesNOT act by protease inhibition?

A. RitonavirB. SaquinavirC. NelfinavirD. Zanamivir

30. All of the given drugs are positive

inotropes EXCEPTA. DopamineB. DobutamineC. DigoxinD. Doxepin

31. During the cell cycle, Colchicine is knownto act in

A. G1 phaseB. S phaseC. G2 phaseD. M phase

32. The use of vasoconstrictors adrenalinenoradrenaline with LA is contraindicatedin patients on

A. Antiepileptic drugsB. Antihypertensive drugsC. Tricyclic antidepressant drugsD. Anxiolytic drugs

GENERAL MEDICINE

33. In Troisiers sign the lymph nodes involvedare

A. Right axillary nodes

B. Left axillary nodesC. Right supraclavicular nodesD. Left supraclavicular nodes

34. Salivary protein which preventstransmission of human immunodeficiencyvirus via saliva is

A. SialoperoxidaseB. Secretory IgAC. Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitorD. Histidine rich proteins

35. Oral ulceration resembling Apthae areencountered in

A. Gluten EnteropathyB. Chronic SmokersC. Excess of B – ComplexD. Anti – malarial medication



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36. Acute rheumatic fever usually follows an

infection withA. Streptococcus mutansB. Streptococcus pyogenesC. Streptococcus pneumoniaD. Streptococcus viridians

37. Which is a DNA virus

A. Hepatitis A virusB. Hepatitis B virusC. Hepatitis C virusD. Hepatitis D virus

38. Warthin – Finkeldey multinucleated giant

cell is diagnostic ofA. TuberuculosisB. MumpsC. MeaslesD. Sarcoidosis

39. Treatment of Torsades de pointes isintravenous

A. MagnesiumB. Sodium bicarbonateC. SalineD. Glucose

40. Squamous metaplasia in the respiratory

epithelium is induced by deficiency ofA. Vitamin DB. Vitamin BC. Vitamin AD. Vitamin C

41. Which among the following is the drug ofchoice for Clostridium difficile – inducedcolitis?

A. GentamicinB. CiprofloxacinC. MetronidazoleD. Linezolid

42. The syndrome is usually associated with

A. Congenital heart lesionsB. Respiratory disordersC. Endo cranal abnormalitiesD. Cleft lip and Palate

43. Following dental problem are usually

association with it, EXCEPTA. Retarded eruptionB. Late shedding of deciduous teethC. HypodontiaD. Microdentia

44. Among the different types of denturestomatitis diagnosis of candida –associated denture stomatitis is confirmedby

A. Based on clinical featuresB. Based on intensity of erythematous

lesions

C. By finding mycelia or pseudohyphae ina direct smear or isolation of candida inhigh numbers

D. By examining the existing dentures

45. In the management of candida – denturestomatitis the following is used

A. Chlorhexidine 2%B. BetadineC. Gention violetD. Local therapy with nystatin or

amphotericin B

46. Increased levels of hemoglobin A2 ischaracteristic of

A. Sickle cell triatB. α Thalassemia minorC. Glucose – 6 – phosphate dehydrogenase

deficiencyD. β–thalassemia

47. Which one of the following is indicativeof cardiac tamponade

A. Pulsus paradoxusB. Wide pulse pressureC. Kussmaul’s sign

D. Forceful apical impulse




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GENERAL SURGERY

48. All the following nerves are encounteredduring submandibular gland resectionEXCEPT

A. Lingual nerveB. Hypoglossal nerveC. Accessory nerveD. Marginal mandibular nerve

49. Malignant ulcer is differentiated fromBenign by

A. Heaping up of marginsB. Fibrous scars radiating from crater

C. Induration of baseD. Clean base

50. Which of the following statement is trueregarding thyroglobulin?

A. It is a specific marker for anaplasticcarcinoma

B. Elevation after complete therapysuggests recurrence in welldifferentiated thyroid malignancies

C. Pre op elevation always suggeststhyroidal disease

D. Intra op estimation from thyroid veins

is very useful for prognosis

DENTAL MATERIALS

51. The safest method for soaking dental castis

A. Placing in a saturated solution of calcium sulfate

B. Placing in waterC. Placing in saturated solution of sodium

chlorideD. Placing in solution of gypsum slurry

52. Electralloy R B is alloy of gold andA. CarbonB. PlatinumC. CalciumD. Palladium

53. The best pickling solution for gypsum

banded investmentsA. Hydrochloric acidB. Nitric acidC. Sulphuric acidD. Phosphoric acid

54. The most practical method for avoidingany possible delayed distortion of the waxpattern is to

A. Use of heated instruments duringcarving of the wax pattern

B. Invest the wax pattern immediatelyC. Swaging the wax pattern in a closed

vesselD. Applying finger pressure during cooling

of the wax

55. Materials that facilitates removal ofimpression from cast is

A. RosinB. StarchC. Sodium chlorideD. Borates

56. ADA specification number for gypsumproducts are described under

A. 1B. 4C. 12D. 25

57. Frozen slab technique is applicable to

A. Zinc phosphate cementB. Glass consumer cementC. Zinc oxide eugenol cementD. Resin cement

58. The material used to outline the area to besoldered in order to restrict the flow ofsolder is called

A. AntifluxB. FluxC. SolderingD. Welding



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DADH

59. Nerve endings of temporomandibularjoint, confined to ligaments associatedwith the joint

A. Ruffini corpusclesB. Pacini corpusclesC. Golgi tendon organsD. Free nerve endings

60. Mucous membrane on the buccal aspect ofthe upper alveolar process is innervated bybuccal nerve and

A. Superior Alveolar Nerve

B. Mental NerveC. Interior Alveolar NerveD. Greater Palatine Nerve

61. The intimal B cells of synovial membraneof temporomandibular joint are

A. Fibroblast likeB. Macrophage likeC. Lymphocyte likeD. Plasma cell like

62. The maximum rate of eruption, as the toothcusps reach the surface epithelium is

around _______ μm/dayA. 100B. 75C. 50D. 25

63. Striae of Retzius

A. Are not found in permanent teethB. Represents the daily growth rate of

enamelC. Results from temporary constriction of

Tomes’ processD. Has more number of crystals

64. In a dried skull, holes on the lingualaspects of the deciduous teeth are called

A. Volkmann canalsB. Canals of Hirschfield and ZuckerkandlC. Haversian canalsD. Gubernacular canals

65. Successor permanent teeth develop from

A. Buccal extension of Dental laminaB. Lingual extension of Dental laminaC. Distal extension of Dental laminaD. Main or parent Dental lamina

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND

ORAL MEDICINE

66. ‘Denture sore mouth’ are also known as

A. Acute psuedomembranous candidiasisB. Acute atrophic candidiasisC. Chronic atrophic candidiasisD. Chronic hyperplastic candidasis

67. Multiple pulp stones are seen in

A. Down’s syndromeB. Ehler’s Dahlos syndromeC. Marfan SyndromeD. Apert’s syndrome

68. A positive Chvostek’s sign is suggestive of

A. HypercalcemiaB. HypocalcemiaC. HyperkalemiaD. Acidosis

69. Sinusitis may cause referred pain inA. Maxillary anterior teethB. Maxillary posterior teethC. Mandibular anterior teethD. Mandibular posterior teeth

70. Intake of which of the following leads toincreased incidence of dry socket

A. AntihypertensivesB. AntiepilepticsC. Oral hypoglycemicD. Oral contraceptives

71. Rushton bodies are seen in

A. Calcifying odontogenic cystB. Gingival cyst of adultsC. Gingival cyst of new bornD. Lateral periodontal cyst




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72. Kveim Siltzbach test is useful in the

diagnosis ofA. TuberculosisB. SarcoidosisC. LeprosyD. Cat scratch disease

73. Thrombocytopenia due to increasedplatelet destruction is seen in

A. Aplastic anemiaB. Cancer chemotherapyC. Acute leukemiaD. Systemic lupus erythematosus

74. Von willibrand’s disease is due to theA. Deficiency of factor X and factor IVB. Deficiency of factor XII and factor IXC. Deficiency of factor VII and decreased

platelet adhesionD. Deficiency of factor X and factor V

75. Neo Natal teeth erupt at

A. At birthB. In first 30 daysC. In first WeekD. In first 2 Week

76. Which of these is NOT a pre – malignant

condition for oral cancersA. LeukoplakiaB. Apthous ulcersC. ErythroplekiaD. Submucous fibrosis

77. Frey’s syndrome is caused due to the injuryof

A. Lesser occipital nerveB. Auriculo temporal nerveC. Supra trochlear nerveD. Infra orbital nerve

78. Aspirate which is creamy white viscoidwith the value of total protein less than5.0 gms/ 100 ml is suggestive of

A. Infected cystB. Dentigerous cystC. Odontogenic KeratocystD. Ranula

79. Mucocutaneous lesion associated with

neoplasiaA. Pemphigus vegetansB. ParapemphigusC. Paraneoplastic pemphigusD. Familial benign pemphigus

80. The above mentioned condition is

A. Inherited Autosomal dominant diseaseB. Autosomal recessive disorderC. X – linked diseaseD. A syndrome of unknown cause

81. One of the following is also a manifesta-

tion in the above mentioned conditionA. Café – au – lait pigmentation of the skinB. Multiple epidermoid or sebaceous cyst

of the skinC. Basal cell carcinoma of the skinD. Peri oral dermatitis

82. Multiple impacted teeth as seen inGardener’s syndrome may also is seen inone of the following

A. Multiple polyposis of large intestineB. Osteomas of the jawsC. Desmoids tumors of the skin

D. Epidermal and trichilemmal cysts83. Multiple impacted teeth as seen in

Gardener’s syndrome may also is seen inone of the following

A. Tricho – dento – osseous syndromeB. Hereditary intestinal polyposisC. Cowden’s syndromeD. Rubinstein – Taybi syndrome

84. What is this clinical situation called as

A. Epuli fissuratumB. Traumatic ulcersC. Denture irritational hyperplasiaD. Denture stomatitis

85. One of the following syndromes isassociated with Lichen Planus

A. Grinspan’s syndromeB. Ellis – van Creveld syndromeC. Patterson Kelly syndromeD. Fanconi’s syndrome



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86. What would be your choice of next

investigationA. Excision biopsyB. Aspiration CytologyC. CT ScanD. PET Bone scan

87. A dirty white aspirate with a proteinestimation of < 4 gm % is suggestive of

A. Ossigfying fibromaB. Dentigerous cystC. Muco – epidermoid carcinomaD. Odontogenic Keratocyst

88. Odontogenic Keratocyst is noted for itsA. Malignant transformationB. Daughter cysts and high rate of

recurrenceC. Impacted teethD. Nodal metastasis

89. Management of Odontogenic keratocystinvolves

A. MarsuplisationB. EnucleationC. Enucleation with periphereal ostectomyD. Resection and Radiation

90. Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed toA. InvasionB. EndotoxinC. ExotoxinD. Capsule

91. Most common salivary gland tumor arisingin the jaws

A. Pleomorphic adenomaB. Adenoid cystic carcinomaC. Mucoepidermoid carcinomaD. Acinic cell carcinoma

92. Which among the following is NOT acommon feature of trigeminal neuralgia

A. Usually affecting the middle aged andelderly

B. Sharp, stabbing pain lasting seconds

C. The most common sites involved are the

mandibular canine and maxillary canineareas

D. Pain usually crossing the midline of theface

93. One of the systemic factors predisposingto candida – associated denture stomatitisis

A. Nutritional deficienciesB. HypertentionC. HIVD. Systemic lupus erythematosis

94. The whitish striations in Lichen Planus arecalled

A. Striae of RetziusB. Wickham’s striationsC. Step ladder striationsD. Linea alba buccalis

95. The following are different clinical formsof Lichen Planus EXCEPT

A. Atrophic Lichen PlanusB. Hypertrophic Lichen PlanusC. Bullous Lichen PlanusD. Verrucous Lichen planus

96. What clinical features suggest that thedischarge is CSF Leak

A. Continuous dischargeB. Appearance of tram line or halo ringsC. Stoppage of discharge on pressureD. None of the above

97. What investigation is most confirmatoryfor detecting CSF leak

A. CT scanB. MRI ScanC. Presence of Glucose in the FluidD. Presence of transferrin beta

ORAL RADIOLOGY

98. Digital image in computerized Radio-graphy is made up of

A. PixelsB. CCDC. CMOSD. Silver halide crystals




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99. Deterministic effects of radiation are those

effects in which the severity of responseA. Is proportional to the doseB. Is determined by the operatorC. Depends on composition of tissueD. Depends on volume of exposed tissue

100. Which of the following interactions doesnot cause film fog

A. Coherent scatteringB. Transient scatteringC. Photoelectric absorptionD. Compton scattering

101. Cervical burnout is a phenomenon causedby decreased X – ray absorption in thecervical region of

A. Teeth with proximal cariesB. Normal teethC. Teeth with root cariesD. Hypoplastic teeth

102. Following organ is LEAST radiosensitiveto the effects of exposure to radiation

A. TestisB. Bone marrowC. Muscle

D. Intestine103. “Sharpened pencil” appearance of

mandibular condyle on a radiographindicates

A. OsteoarthritisB. Rheumatoid arthritisC. Infectious arthritisD. Juvenile arthrosis

104. Compared with calcium tungstate screens,rare earth screens decrease patientexposure by about

A. 15%B. 35%C. 55%D. 75%

105. The minimum amount of tooth deminera-lization required for radiographicdetection of dental caries is

A. 20%

B. 40%

C. 60%D. 80%

ORTHODONTICS

106. Clock wise rotation refers to Mandibularrotation

A. Downward and posteriorlyB. Downward and anteriorlyC. Upward and anteriorlyD. Upward and posteriorly

107. Mobility of teeth in carcinoma of Maxillary

sinus is due to involvement by tumor ofA. Anterior wall of the sinusB. Posterior wall of the sinusC. Roof of the sinusD. Floor of the sinus

108. When protraction headgear was used, mostof the orthopedic changes are observedwithin the first ______

A. 1 monthB. 3–4 monthsC. 8–10 monthsD. 1 years

109. Who proposed the ‘Nasal Septum theoryof craniofacial growth

A. MossB. SicherC. Vander LindenD. Lathan

110. Quad helix is used to correct

A. Posterior cross biteB. Anterior cross biteC. Lateral open biteD. Deep bite

111. Schubiger attachment has a screw basecommon to the

A. Introfix attachmentB. Quintivan attachmentC. C shaped ringD. Gerber attachment



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112. Which of the following surgical procedures

aid in prevention of Relapse?A. Sagittal split techniqueB. AlveoloplastyC. Segmental OsteotomyD. Circumferential Supracrestal Fibrotomy

PEDODONTICS

113. When vertical cephalometric analysisreveals increase in the skeletal componentsof anterior face height, it is termed

A. ApertognathiaB. Brachygnathia

C. LeptognathiaD. Mesognathia

114. The window of infectivity during whichmost children acquire the cariogenicorganism

A. 19 months to 33 monthsB. 19 weeks to 33 weeksC. 29 months to 39 monthsD. 29 weeks to 39 weeks

115. The tendency for drifting of posterior teethinto extraction space is more in

A. MandibleB. MaxillaC. Maxilla and MandibleD. Primary than Permanent teeth

116. Sorbitol acts in the prevention of dentalcaries by

A. Microorganisms lack the enzyme tometabolize sorbitol

B. Lactic acid cannot be producedC. Fermentation of sorbitol does not occurD. Sorbitol is not a carbohydrate

117. In case of deep carious lesion incomplete

debridement is done to

A. Allow secondary dentin formation firstB. To seal the cavity and create aseptic fieldC. Prevent pulp exposure and allow a thin

layer of a dentin to remainD. Avoid microleakage

118. Occult disease refer to disease that

A. Is very apparentB. Does not occur at allC. Presents no clinical sign or symptomD. Does not show any image on X – ray

119. “Guidance to Eruption” is another term for

A. Frankel’s applianceB. ActivatorC. Serial ExtractionD. Bionator

120. The first macroscopic development occursat approximately

A. 8 weeks in uteroB. 10 weeks in uteroC. 11 weeks in uteroD. 13 weeks in utero

121. Who developed the complete pulpectomytechnique for primary molars

A. PinkhamB. StarkeyC. Mc DonaldD. Finn

122. Joseph Wolpe developed the followingbehavior management techniques

A. ModelingB. Tell – Show – DoC. DesensitizationD. Voice Control

123. During development of speech function,the first speech sounds acquired are

A. BilabialsB. ConsonantsC. SibilantsD. Nasolabials

124. Which type of Head shape is commonly

seenA. OligocephalyB. DolicocephalyC. Brachy cephalyD. Mesio cephaly




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125. Often IQ of the patient will be

A. IQ – 140 – 170B. IQ – 140 – 170C. IQ – 140 – 170D. IQ – 140 – 170

126. Usually digit sucking habits are outgrownby

A. 6 – 7 yearsB. 3 – 4 yearsC. 1 – 2 yearsD. 11 – 12 years

127. In thumb sucking protraction of the

maxillary teeth is seen whenA. When the pollex is held upward against

the palateB. When the pollex is held downward

against the tongueC. When the pollex is held inward against

the cheekD. None of the above

128. The foremost line of treatment in thispatient is

A. No treatment wait and WatchB. Extraction of first premolars followed by

Hawleys applianceC. Psychiartric consultation prior to anytherapy

D. Extraction of second premolars followed by Hawleys appliance

129. The tongue thrust seen in this case is

A. Retained Infantile swallowB. Simple tongue thrustC. Complex tongue thrustD. Compound tongue thrust

130. An effective state of consciousness inwhich joy, sarrow, fear, hate or the likes

are expressed is termed asA. BehaviorB. EmotionC. ConditionD. Complex

131. A parent asks the dentist, ‘Is the

treatment necessary?’ after initialexamination and explanation abouttreatment required. The behavior ofthe parent is termed as

A. NeglectfulB. ManipulativeC. HostileD. Overprotective

P AND SD

132. The study which proceeds from cause toeffect

A. RetrospectiveB. Case controlC. CohortD. Descriptive

133. The basic tools of measurement inepidemiology are

A. Place person timeB. Determinants, frequency, distribution of

diseaseC. Rate, ratio, proportionD. Agent, host and environment

134. Presenting data to the “man in the street”is by

A. Pie chartB. PictogramC. Bar chartD. Simple Tables

135. The heart of randomized control trial(RCT) is

A. ProtocolB. Follow upC. AssessmentD. Randomization

136. The following term is used to describe theimpact of school based health educationprogrammers on parents

A. Side effectB. Secondary effectC. Ripple effectD. String effect



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137. The recognized behavior in a society is

calledA. CustomB. TraditionC. CultureD. Folkways

138. Trace elements presents in drinking waterare reported to be caries protective is

A. SeleniumB. IronC. VanadiumD. Iodine

139. A progressive increase or decrease of adisease over a long period of time,generally several years or decades isknown as

A. Secular trendsB. Cyclic trendsC. Seasonal trendsD. Periodic fluctuations

140. The ratio of rates of occurrence is

A. Attributable riskB. Relative riskC. Occurring risk

D. Distribution risk141. Over jet and overbite of malocclusion is

assessed using WHO survey form 1997with the help of instrument

A. Williams probeB. CPI probeC. Measuring scaleD. Straight probe

142. Examination is carried in individualclinical practice corresponding terms inpublic health practice is

A. DiagnosisB. EvaluationC. Assessment of needD. Appraisal and review

PROSTHODONTICS

143. The technique to produce limited removalof epithelial tissue in the sulcus while achamfer finish line is being created in toothstructure is called

A. Soft tissue modificationB. GingettageC. Gingival displacementD. Electrosurgery

144. For accurate interocclusal records thematerial of choice is

A. 28 gauge casting wax

B. ZOE Bite registration pasteC. Elastomeric bite registration materialD. Base plate wax

145. Hanau H2 articulator has a intercondylardistance of

A. 90 mmB. 100 mmC. 110 mmD. 120 mm

146. The untimate in finish lines that permit anacute margin of metal is

A. Shoulder

B. ChamferC. Knife edgeD. Shoulder with Bevel

147. According to Atwood’s residual ridgeclassification order III denotes

A. High well roundedB. Low well roundedC. Knife edgeD. Depressed

148. The term “Height of contour” is coined by

A. Kennedy

B. McCrackenC. CummerD. De Van




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PERIODONTICS

149. Thickness of basal lamina is

A. 100 to 200 AºB. 200 to 300 AºC. 300 to 400 AºD. 400 to 500 Aº

150. The cell type of periodontium that plays arole in pathogenesis as well as healing is

A. EpithelialB. LangerhansC. FibroblastD. Mast cell

151. The most reliable indicator of gingivalinflammation is

A. Color changeB. Change in the contourC. Change in consistencyD. Bleeding on probing

152. BANA test measures activity of

A. CalculusB. CathepsinC. ElastaseD. Trypsin like enzyme

153. Soluble components of complementsystem account for about

A. 1 -2 mg/ml of total serum proteinB. 3 -4mg/ml of total serum proteinC. 5 -7 mg/ml of total serum proteinD. 7 -8 mg/ml of total serum protein

154. Haversian systems (osteons) are foundprimarily in the

A. Spongy boneB. PeriosteumC. Alveolar bone properD. Endosteum

155. Furcation involvements is best diagnosedby

A. Nabers probeB. Williams probeC. Michigan ‘o’ probeD. Explorer

156. Definitive information regarding the bone

architecture is obtained byA. Periodontal probingB. Radiographic examinationC. Combination of probing & radiographsD. Surgical exposure of the osseous defect

157. Brushite crystal forms of calculus is morecommon in

A. Maxillary anteriorB. Maxillary posteriorC. Mandibular anteriorD. Mandibular posterior

158. These fibers in the lamina propria of thegingiva, help to bind the free gingiva to thetooth

A. AlveologingivalB. CircularC. DentoperiostealD. Dentogingival

159. Transplantation between geneticallydifferent members of the same species istermed as

A. AutograftB. Isograft

C. AllograftD. Xenograft

160. The most likely infection is

A. Necrotizing Ulcerative GingivitisB. Localized Aggressive PeriodontitisC. Acute Herpetic GingivostomatitisD. Desquamative Gingivitis

161. The microbial etiology of this condition is

A. Streptococcus speciesB. FusospirochetesC. Herpes simplex virusD. Actinomyces species

162. This infection is reported to have anincreased incidence in

A. Diabetes mellitusB. HIVC. TuberculosisD. Syphilis



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163. Surgical procedure for severe tissue

destruction in such infection isA. Reshaping the gingiva (Gingivoplasty)B. Resection of the gingiva (Gingivectomy)C. Apically displaced flap surgeryD. Coronally displaced flap surgery

CONS AND ENDO

164. The treatment of choice for acuteirreversible pulpits is

A. PulpotomyB. PulpectomyC. Direct pulp capping

D. Indirect pulp capping

165. Which of the following is true also thermaland electrical tests after trauma

A. Sensitivity tests evaluate the nerve andcirculatory condition of the tooth

B. False positive tests are more likely thanfalse negative tests

C. It may take up to nine months fornormal blood flow to return

D. It may take a few hours for normal bloodflow to return

166. The potentially hazardous irrigant causingan emergency during treatment is

A. SalivaB. ChlorhexidineC. Sodium HypochloriteD. Metrogyl

167. In which of the following is one visit rootcanal treatment not advocated

A. Pulp is necrotic and not symptomaticB. Pulp is necrotic and symptomaticC. Pulp is necrotic and there is a draining

sinus tract

D. Pulp is vital and symptomatic168. The tip diameter of a 245 bur used for

conventional amalgam preparation is

A. 2 mmB. 0.8 mmC. 0.4 mmD. 0.3 mm

169. Mode of failure during dislodgement of

prosthesis cemented with zinc polycarboxylate cement is usually seen at the

A. Cement tooth interfaceB. Cement prosthesis interfaceC. Cleavage through the cement layerD. Fracture of tooth or prosthesis

170. In pin retained amalgam restoration,failure is more likely to occur at the

A. Pin restoration interfaceB. Pin dentin interfaceC. Both of the aboveD. Inside of restoration (Restoration

fracture)

171. 90º butt joint for silver amalgampreparation is done because of

A. Fear of marginal failure of amalgamB. Amalgam has poor strength in thin

sectionsC. Amalgam is stronger than tooth

structureD. Amalgam is weaker in compression

172. pH of which cement remains below 7 evenafter 1 month after insertion into the cavity

A. GICB. Zinc phosphateC. Resin cementD. Silicate cement

173. How long does it take for an etched enamelto return to normal conditions

A. 30 daysB. 24 hoursC. 96 hoursD. 1 week

174. Which lasers can be used to cure compositeresins

A. ArgonB. Nd YAGC. Er YAGD. CO2




C O M E D K 2 0 1 1

ORAL SURGERY

175. Craniofacial dysfunction seen in

A. Lefort III fractureB. Guerrin’s fractureC. High Lefort I fractureD. None of the above

176. A fractured coronoid process of mandibledisplace upwards by the action of one ofthe following muscle

A. BuccinatorsB. Lateral PterygoidC. Mylohyoid

D. Temporalis

177. Among the following pain theories, themost accepted theory is

A. Specificity theoryB. Pattern theoryC. Gate control theoryD. Calcium displacement theory

178. Which of the following fibres are

responsible for conduction of pain impulseA. AlphaB. BetaC. DeltaD. Gamma

179. A male patient had a pin point oro antralcommunication. The treatment is

A. Berger flapB. Palatal flapC. Cald well procedureD. None

180. The most common complication of CSFRhinorrhea is

A. Brain herniationB. BlindnessC. Ascending MeningitisD. Cavernous sinus thrombosis



207COMEDK 2011

C OME D K 2 0 1 1

ANSWERS

ANATOMY

1. Ans: A

Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 339

2. Ans: A

Ref: IB Singh, 8/E, p. 111

3. Ans: A

Ref: BD Chaurasia, 5/E, p. 36

4. Ans: C

Ref: BD Chaursia, 1/E, p. 297

5. Ans: D

Ref: BD Chourasia, 5/E, p. 55

6. Ans: D

Ref: BD. Chaurasia, 5/E, p. 63

PHYSIOLOGY

7. Ans: C

Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 61

8. Ans: B


9. Ans: B


10. Ans: C

Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 1016, 1017

BIOCHEMISTRY

11. Ans: B

Ref: U.Sathyanarayana and U.Chakrapani,3/E, p. 216

12. Ans: B


13. Ans: B


14. Ans: B


Explanation

• Nitrogen conent of the total dietary proteinis 16% 50gms proteins contain 50 × 16/100=8 gms

GENRAL PATHOLOGY

15. Ans: B

Ref: Robbins Pathological Basis of Disease,7/E, p. 737

16. Ans: A


17. Ans: D


Explanation

• In malignant cerebral malaria caused byP. faliparum, brain vessels are pluggedwith parasitized red cells, each cellcontaining dots of hemozoin pigmentcalled “Malarial or Durck granules” andsmall focal inflammatory reactions arecalled “Malarial or Durck granulomas”

18. Ans: B





C O M E D K 2 0 1 1

MICROBIOLOGY

19. Ans: B

Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’sTextbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 260

20. Ans: B


21. Ans: C


22. Ans: A


23. Ans: A


PHARMACOLOGY

24. Ans: A

Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 837

25. Ans: B


26. Ans: B


27. Ans: B


28. Ans: C


29. Ans: D


30. Ans: D

Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 442 Table

31. Ans: D


32. Ans: C


GENERAL MEDICINE

33. Ans: D

Ref: Davidson, 21/E, p. 877

34. Ans: C

Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol - 01, p. 1146

35. Ans: A

Ref: Davidson,21/E, p. 863 T

36. Ans: B

Ref: Davidson, 21/E, p. 612

37. Ans: B

Ref: Davidson, 21/E, p. 947 Table

38. Ans: C

Ref: Harrison, 17/E, p. 1215

39. Ans: ARef: Davidson, 21/E, p. 568

40. Ans: C

Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol I, p. 446

41. Ans: C


42. Ans: A

Ref: Harrison,17/E, Vol II, p. 1458

43. Ans: B

Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol II, p. 1458

44. Ans: C


45. Ans: D




209COMEDK 2011

C OME D K 2 0 1 1

46. Ans: B

Ref: Harrison, Vol. I, 17/E, p. 641

47. Ans: A


GENERAL SURGERY

48. Ans: C

Ref: Bailey & Love, 25/E, p. 757

49. Ans: A

Ref: Bailey & love, 25/E, p. 596

50. Ans: B

Ref: Bailey & Love, 25/E, p. 797

DENTAL MATERIALS

51. Ans: A

Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 278

52. Ans: C


53. Ans: A


54. Ans: B


55. Ans: B

Ref: Manappalli’s Basic Dental Materials,2/E, p. 93

56. Ans: D


57. Ans: A


58. Ans: A


DADH

59. Ans: C

Ref: Berkovitz, 4/E, p. 66

60. Ans: A

Ref: Wheeler’s, 9/E, p. 257

61. Ans: A


62. Ans: B

Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 290

63. Ans: C


64. Ans: D


65. Ans: B

Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 22

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND

ORAL MEDICINE

66. Ans: CRef: Shafer, 6/E, p. 365

67. Ans: B

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 834, 835

68. Ans: B

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 617

69. Ans: B


70. Ans: D


71. Ans: C


72. Ans: B





C O M E D K 2 0 1 1

73. Ans: D


74. Ans: C

Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 787

75. Ans: B

Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 48, Neville, 3/E, p. 81

76. Ans: B


77. Ans: B

Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 84878. Ans: C

Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 685

79. Ans: C


80. Ans: A


81. Ans: B


82. Ans: A


83. Ans: A


84. Ans: D


85. Ans: A

Ref: Shafer, 6/E. 800

86. Ans: BRef: Shafer, 6/E, p. 260

87. Ans: D


88. Ans: B


89. Ans: C


90. Ans: C


91. Ans: C


92. Ans: D

Ref: Burkit, 11/E, p. 27993. Ans: A

Ref: Burkit, 11/E. 79

94. Ans: B


95. Ans: D


96. Ans: A


97. Ans: D

Ref: Text Book of Oral Medicine, Ongole andPraveen, 1/E, p. 178

ORAL RADIOLOGY

98. Ans: A

Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 78

99. Ans: A


100. Ans: C


101. Ans: B




211COMEDK 2011

C OME D K 2 0 1 1

102. Ans: C

Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 22T

103. Ans: B


104. Ans: C


105. Ans: B


ORTHODONTICS

106. Ans: A

Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 115

107. Ans: D

Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 325

108. Ans: B

Ref: Gurkeerat Singh, 2/E, p. 502, 504

109. Ans: D

Ref: Sameer. C. Bishala Text book of Orthdontics, p. 50

110. Ans: A

Ref: Profitt, 4/E, p. 498

111. Ans: D

Ref: Precision Attachments in Prostho-dontics, Harold . W . Prieskel, Vol. 2, p. 160

112. Ans: D

Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 454

Explanation

• Circumferential supracrestal Fibrotomy isalso known as “Pericision”

PEDODONTICS

113. Ans: A

Ref: Mc Donald, 9/E, p.540

114. Ans: B

Ref: Mc Donald, 9/E, p.178

115. Ans: B

Ref: Shoba Tandon, 1/E, p. 448

116. Ans: A

Ref: Mc Donald, 9/E, p. 200

117. Ans: C

Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 400

118. Ans: C


119. Ans: C

Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 474120. Ans: C


121. Ans: B


122. Ans: C


123. Ans: A


124. Ans: C


125. Ans: D


126. Ans: B

Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 494 – 495

127. Ans: A


128. Ans: CRef: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 501

129. Ans: B

Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 493 – 494




C O M E D K 2 0 1 1

130. Ans: B

Ref: Shobha Tandon , 2/E, p. 21

131. Ans: C

Ref: Pinkham, 4/E, p. 282

P AND SD

132. Ans: C

Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p.104

133. Ans: C

Ref: Soben Peter, 4/E, p. 44

134. Ans: B

Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 749

135. Ans: D


136. Ans: C

Ref: Community Dental Health, Anthony Jong, 4/E, p.191

Explanation

• The terms like spread effect and ripple

effect are used to describe the impact of school based health programmes onparents

137. Ans: D


138. Ans: C

Ref: Joseph John, 1/E, p. 43

139. Ans: A

Ref: Park, 20/0E, p. 62

140. Ans: B

Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 74

141. Ans: B

Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p.589

142. Ans: C


PROSTHODONTICS

143. Ans: B

Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 627

Explanation

• Gingettage is also known as RotaryCurettage

144. Ans: C

Ref: Mc Cracken, 11/E, p. 308

145. Ans: C

Ref: Boucher, 9/E, p. 313

146. Ans: C

Ref: Rosensteil, 4/E, p. 220

147. Ans: A

Ref: John Manappallil, 1/E, p. 12

148. Ans: A

Ref: Mc Cracken, 11/E, p. 84

PERIODONTICS

149. Ans: C

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 52

150. Ans: C


151. Ans: D


152. Ans: D


153. Ans: B

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 215154. Ans: C


155. Ans: A




213COMEDK 2011

C OME D K 2 0 1 1

156. Ans: D


157. Ans: C


158. Ans: B


159. Ans: C

Ref: Carraza, 10/E, p. 1135

160. Ans: A

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 391161. Ans: B


162. Ans: B


163. Ans: A


CONS AND ENDO

164. Ans: BRef: Ingle, 6/E, p. 617

165. Ans: C

Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 362

166. Ans: C

Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 268

167. Ans: C

Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 23

168. Ans: B

Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 713

169. Ans: B


170. Ans: B


171. Ans: B


172. Ans: D


173. Ans: C

Ref: Current Therapy in Dentistry, Vol. 7, p.160

174. Ans: A


ORAL SURGERY

175. Ans: A

Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p.357

176. Ans: D

Ref: Killy’s, 4/E, p. 14

177. Ans: C

Ref: Monheim’s, 7/E, p. 5

178. Ans: C

Ref: Monheim’s, 7/E, p. 6

179. Ans: D

Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 574, 575

180. Ans: C

Ref: Killey’s, 5/E, p. 27

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