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Table of Contents RBI ASST. Pre 2017 (Sitting-1) ........... 2
English Language .............................. 2
Quantitative Aptitude ........................ 5
Reasoning .......................................... 7
Answer Key ..................................... 10
Solutions: ......................................... 12
RBI Asst. Pre 2017 (Sitting-2) .......... 15
English Language ............................ 15
Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 17
Reasoning ........................................ 18
Solutions: ......................................... 22
RBI Asst. 2017 (Sitting-3) ................. 25
English Language ............................ 25
Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 27
Reasoning ........................................ 29
Solutions: ......................................... 33
RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-2) ....... 36
English Language ............................ 36
Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 39
Reasoning ........................................ 41
Answer Key ..................................... 44
Solutions: ......................................... 45
RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-1) ....... 48
English Language ............................ 48
Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 51
Reasoning ........................................ 53
Answer Key ..................................... 56
Solutions: ......................................... 57
RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-3) ....... 60
English Language ............................ 60
Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 63
Reasoning ........................................ 65
Answer Key ..................................... 69
Solutions: ......................................... 70
RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting- 4) ...... 73
English Language ............................ 73
Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 76
Reasoning ........................................ 78
Answer Key ..................................... 82
Solutions: ......................................... 83
RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-2) ....... 86
English Language ............................ 86
Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 88
Reasoning ........................................ 91
Answer Key ..................................... 94
Solutions: ......................................... 95
RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-1) ....... 98
English Language ............................ 98
Quantitative Aptitude .................... 100
Reasoning ...................................... 102
Answer Key ................................... 106
Solutions: ....................................... 107
RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-2) ..... 110
English Language .......................... 110
Quantitative Aptitude .................... 113
Reasoning Ability .......................... 115
Answer Key ................................... 118
Solutions: ....................................... 119
RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-3) ..... 122
English Language .......................... 122
Quantitative Aptitude .................... 124
Reasoning Ability .......................... 127
Answer Key ................................... 130
Solutions: ....................................... 131
2
RBI ASST. Pre 2017 (Sitting-
1) English Language
Directions (1-5) : Rearrange the following six sen-
tences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in proper se-
quence to form a meaningful paragraph, then an-
swer the given questions
(A) Take for example, the market for learning danc-
ing
(B) This could never happen if there was a central
board of dancing education which enforced strict
standards of what will be taught and how such
things are to be taught
(C) The Indian education system is built on the
presumption that if something is good for one child,
it is good for all children
(D) More importantly, different teachers and insti-
tutes have developed different ways of teaching
dancing
(E) There are very different dance forms that attract
students with different tastes
(F) If however, we can effectively decentralise edu-
cation, and if the government did not obsessively
control what would be
be the method of instruction, there could be an ex-
plosion of new and innovative courses geared to-
wards serving various riches of learners.
1. Which of the following should be the LAST
(SIXTH) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) A (2) F
(3) D (4) C
(5) B
2. Which of the following should be the THIRD
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B
(3) F (4) D
(5) E
3. Which of the following should be the SECOND
sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) F
4. Which of the following should be the FIRST
sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) E
5. Which of the following should be the FOURTH
sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) E
(5) D
Directions (6-15) : Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to
help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
Manufacturers of consumer packaged goods (CPG)
face two key challenges this year. The first is con-
tinued slow or negative growth a-
ble incomes. The second is changing consumer
attitudes toward products and brands, as the great
fragmentation of consumer markets take another
turn.
In response, companies must dramatically shift the
route they take to reach consumers in terms of both
product distribution and communications.
In many markets, consumer wages have been static
for five years now. Even where economies are start-
ing to perform better, the squeeze on after -tax
wages, especially for the middle class younger peo-
ple and families, is depressing consumer spending.
Although growth in developing countries is still
better than in the United States and Europe, a slow-
down in emerging countries such as China - where
many countries had hoped for higher sales- has
translated quickly into lower-thanexpected con-
sumer spending growth.
Meanwhile, what we call the great fragmentation is
manifested in consumer behaviour and market re-
sponse. In both developed and emerging markets,
there is a wider variety among consumers now than
at any time in the recent past.
Growth is evident both at the top of the market
(where more consumers are spending for higher-
quality food and other packaged goods) and at the
lower end (where an increasing number of consum-
ers are concentrating on value). But the traditional
middle of the market is shrinking.
Further, individual consumer behaviour is more
pluralistic. We are used to seeing, for example,
spirits buyers purchasing a premium brand in a bar,
a less costly label at home for personal consump-
tion and yet another when entertaining guests. But
this type of variegated shopping has now spread to
the grocery basket as well.
Fewer consumers are making one big stocking-up
trip each week. Instead, shoppers are visiting a
premium store and a discounter as well as a super-
market, in multiple weekly shops ¾ in addition to
making frequent purchases online.
During recession, more shoppers became inclined
to spend time hunting for bargains and as some
traditional retailers either went out of business or
3
shuttered down, retail space was freed up and was
often filled by convenience stores, specialty shops,
and discounteRs A decade ago, VCPG companies
had only a handful of sales channels to consider
supermarkets, convenience stores, hypermarkets in
advanced economies and traditional small and large
retailers in emerging countries. Since then, various
discounters have made-significant inroads, includ-
ing no frills, low variety outlets, such as
Aldi and Lidi, which sell a limited range of private-
label grocery items in smaller stores and massive
warehouse clubs, such as
which initially operated solely in the U.S. but are
now expanding internationally.
In addition, dollar stores, specialised retailers, and
online merchants are having an impact on the CPG
landscape, Economising consumers have been
pleasantly, surprised by the savings generated by
spreading their business among multiple channels,
as well as by the variety and product quality they
find. The result has been greater demand for more
products and brands, with different sizes, packaging
and sales methods. At most CPG companies, SKUs
are proliferating despite there being little increase
in overall consumption. A better outcome can be
seen at smaller food and beverage suppliers, which
are benefiting from consumer demand for variety
and authenticity. A recent report found that in the
U.S., small manufactureRs (with revenues of less
thanUS $ l billion) grew at twice the compound
annual rate of large manufacturers (with revenues
of more than $3 billion) between 2009 and 2012
also fragmented with
the rise of digital content and the proliferation of
online devices. Each channel- from the Web, Mo-
bile and social sites for radio, TV, and printhas its
own requirements, audience appeal and economies,
needing specialised attention. But, at the same time,
media campaigns need to be closely coordinated for
effective consumer messaging.
Collectively, these shifts challenge the way CPG
companies manage their brand and business portfo-
lios and call for a rethinking of their go-to-market
approach, with an emphasis on analytics. Our work
with INSEAD shows that among business leaders,
applying analytics-especially for tracking consumer
behaviour and product and promotional perfor-
mance- considered one of the most effective ways
to improve results and outpace the competition. But
using the
insight wisely to determine how to manage costs.
The more knowledgeable about customer needs and
preferences a company is, the smarter and more
focused it must be in managing its own economics
to cost-effectively deliver both variety and value to
be squeezed consumer.
6. The central theme of the given passage is
_________.
(1) The shrinking market.
(2) Shift towards offering luxury goods to consum-
ers.
(3) Products to offer consumers with squeezed
pockets.
(4) To highlight products consumed by the middle
class.
(5) Gaining insight into changing consumer behav-
iour towards CPGs.
7. In the context of the passage, which of the fol-
lowing brands existed otherwise but is now being
manifested in buying groceries as well ?
(1) Consumers purchasing the same products for
over a period of time.
(2) Consumer willing to purchase goods for a long-
er period of time.
(3) Consumers preferring luxury goods over regular
goods.
(4) Consumers are more aware of their rights.
(5) Consumers prefer buying goods from a variety
of stores.
8. Which of the following is most nearly the OP-
POSITE in
as used in the passage ?
(1) Encouraging (2) Sunny
(3) Doubtful (4) Light
(5) Nil
9. As mentioned in the passage, CPG companies
may have to reassess their present strategies of op-
erating to _________
(A) retain their customeRs (B)keep pace with
changing consumer preferences as they have access
to multiple media channels
(C)make more cost-effective decisions.
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) All the three A, B and C
(4) Only C
(5) Only A and B
10. Which of the following is true in the context of
the passage?
(1) In the U.S., during the three year period after
2009, small manufacturers did not fare well as
compared to their larger counterparts.
(2) Impact on disposable incomes of people barely
affects the CPG manufacturing industry.
(3) Post-tax wages, especially for the middle class,
are one of the critical factors which have reduced
spending behaviour of consumers.
4
(4) CPG have always been a favourite among con-
sumers.
(5) None of the given options is true.
11. Which of the following correctly explains the
meaning of used in the
passage ?
(1) Boundless (2) Planned
(3) Satisfactory (4) Limited
(5) Imperfect
12. As mentioned in the passage, one of the most
critical factors that aids in catering to the needs of
consumers is
(1) persuading them to purchase goods produced by
the organization.
(2) assess their requirements and appropriately plan
to meet them.
(3) offering them products that an organization reg-
ularly manufactures.
(4) concentrating only on being aware about chang-
ing preferences of consumers.
(5) None of the given options.
13. Which of the following is most nearly the
SAME in meaning to the word
used in the passage ?
(1) Developing (2) Annoying
(3) Narrowing (4) Wasting
(5) Rising
14. Which of the following is most nearly the
SAME in meaning to as
used in the passage ?
(1) Diverse (2) Composite
(3) Strong (4) Narrow
(5) Valued
15. Which of the following is most nearly the OP-
POSITE in as
used in the passage ?
(1) Closed (2) Retail
(3) Flourished (4) Gratified
(5) Nearest
Directions (16-20) : In the following questions,
some parts of the sentences have errors and some
are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an
error. The number of that part is the answer.
If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (5)
i.e. No error. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
16. After his term in the Department of Defence
(1)/ he was appointed Secretary of Energy (2)/a job
in which he was strongly supported the use (3)/ of
alternate sources of energy such as nuclear energy.
(4)/ No error (5)
17. As GDP growth is half of what it (1)/ is just a
few years ago, the country (2)/ desperately needs to
cut red tape and improve (3)/ infrastructure to boost
investment and growth (4)/ No error (5)
18. When elections in the country are due shortly
(1)/ people are determined to register as voters and
to vote for (2)/ candidates based on their track rec-
ord and the programmes (3)/ that they intend to
implement for the betterment of the country. (4)/
No error (5)
19. At least a quarter of the
lost (1)/ over the past twenty-five years and as cli-
mate change warms (2)/ the oceans the additional
carbon dioxide will make (3)/ the water more acidic
further destroying coral reefs. (4)/ No error (5)
20. laid out how (1)/ it
is important to encourage female participated (2)/ in
the economy yet the percentage of female lawmak-
ers in (3)/ the lower house of parliament has fallen
to 8 percent. (4)/ No error (5)
Directions (21-25) : The question has two blanks
each blank indicating that something has been omit-
ted. Choose the set of words for each blank that
best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
21. Three unknown assailants _____ on motorcy-
cles and opened _______ barely a few metres from
where the actor was shooting, (1) came, shooting
(2) rode, rounds
(3) arrived, fire (4) approached, hitting
(5) climbed, shots
22. The police _____ in _______ a car theft case
within a matter of two hours of registration of the
complaint.
(1) achieved, solving
(2) victorious, catching
(3) famed, arresting
(4) succeeded, cracking
(5) failed, assigning
23. The health ministry has approved major expan-
sion of post-graduate seats in key departments of
AI IMS to ________ the severe ________ of spe-
cialists across the country.
(1) address, dearth
(2) correct, loss
(3) improve, damage
(4) rectify, limits
(5) good, shortage
24. With the _______ wedding season, people are
leaving no stone unturned to make their wedding
cards look _________.
(1) prolonged, beyond
(2) ongoing, special
(3) instant, great
(4) sudden, while
(5) estimated, legible
5
25. The tourism data ______ that Indians are
______ the biggest spenders while on holidays.
(1) says, within (2) reveal, amongst
(3) proclaims, between
(4) states, surrounded
(5) speaks, amid
Directions (26 30) : In the following passage
some of the words have been left out. Read the pas-
sage carefully and choose the correct answer to
each question out of the five alternatives and fill in
the blanks. A strong economy would improve live-
lihoods and give hope for the future, but the lack of
reliable electricity in the country has contributed to
holding back prosperity.
Over the past five years, GDP growth has averaged
3 per cent, too (26) to fight poverty and create jobs.
Demand for power outstrips what the country can
produce and (27). Planned and unplanned electrici-
ty outages of 12 to 16 hours daily nationwide (28)
business, aggravate unemployment and spark angry
protests. The country has (29) energy resources- an
estimated 186 billion tonnes of coal, over 100,000
megawatts of hydro potential and wind potential of
upto 3,46,000 megawatts. But the technology and
investment to (30) these resources are limited. An
overreliance on imported fuel has exposed the
country to high oil
money to keep the system- a mix of private and
state run enter - prises- running or to fix faulty in-
frastructure that leaks electricity. A resolution of
power crisis is thus very critical to survival of the
country.
26. (1) much (2) low
(3) required (4) tough
(5) minimal
27. (1) represent (2) sufficient
(3) adequate (4) amount
(5) deliver
28. (1) run (2) happens
(3) plans (4) effect
(5) hurt
29. (1) ample (2) fix
(3) worst (4) frequent
(5) paucity
30. (1) lack (2) solve
(3) waste (4) exploit
(5) advantage
Quantitative Aptitude 31. AT present, Pia is 6 years older to Ray. The
respective ratio between the present ages of Pia and
Mini is 3 : 4. At present Ray is 14 years younger to
present age ?
(1) 16 years (2) 20 years (3) 14 years (4) 18 years
(5) 24 years
Directions (32 36) : In each of the following
questions, two equations numbered I and II are giv-
en. You have to solve both the equations and give
answer
(1) if x > y (2) if x < y
(3) if x > y (4) if x < y
(5) if relationship between x and y cannot be estab-
lished
32. I. 4x2 + 17x + 15 = 0
II. 3y2 + 19y + 28 = 0
33. I. 3x2 17x + 22 = 0
II. 5y2 21y + 22 = 0
34. I. 3x2 + 11x + 10 = 0
II. 2y2 + 13y + 21 = 0
35. I. 3x2 + 13x + 14 = 0
II. 8y2 + 26y + 21 = 0
36. I. 3x2 14x + 15 = 0
II. 15y2 34y + 15 = 0
Directions (37 41) : Study the table to answer the
given questions.
Data related to expenses by companies A, B, C, D
and E in the April 2012 Companies Total Expenses
(in lakh rupees)
Expenses (in percentage)
Marketing Legal
A 90 24 18
B 80 23 8
C 74 30 25
D 65 20 10
E 70 15 9
Note : Other than the mentioned expenses under
the given heads, there may also be some other ex-
pense. For calculation purposes, please consider the
given expense heads only
37. what is the respective ratio between the market-
ing expense of company A and the marketing ex-
penses of company C ?
(1) 34 : 35 (2) 32 : 33
(3) 35 : 36 (4) 36 : 37
(5) 37 : 38
38. Total expenses of Company E in October 2012
was 20% more than the total given expenses of the
same company in April 2012. How much was the
Marketing expenses of the same Company in Octo-
ber 2012, if it was 25% of the total expenses of the
same month ?
(in Rs. Lakhs)
(1) 27 (2) 24
(3) 26 (4) 21
(5) 18
6
39. Marketing expenses of company D is less than
marketing expenses of Company B, by approxi-
mately what percent ?
(1) 20 (2) 40
(3) 39 (4) 59
(5) 29
40. what is the average total expense of all the
companies ? (in Rs. Lakhs)
(1) 75.25 (2) 75.8
(3) 75 (4) 72.8
(5) 72.25
41. What is the difference between the total ex-
penses made by company C in legal and marketing
together and the total expenses made by company E
in legal and marketing together ? (in Rs. Lakhs)
(1) 24.5 (2) 23.5
(3) 22.9 (4) 23
(5) 23.9
Directions (42 46) : What approximate value will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the given
questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the
exact value)
42. 6399 ×
+ 353 ÷ ? = 10444
(1) 14 (2) 22
(3) 2 (4) 16
(5) 8
43. √ × 14.02 + √ × 15.97 = ?
(1) 670 (2) 570
(3) 710 (4) 510
(5) 610
44. 8461 ÷ 11.99 24.01 ÷ 5/100 = ?
(1) 625 (2) 400
(3) 25 (4) 900
(5) 225
45. 14.85% of 679 + 19.9% of 219.89 = ?
(1) 115 (2) 145
(3) 65 (4) 105
(5) 85
46. 1441 ÷ ? + 149.98 × 14.99 = 3006 254.91
(1) 35 (2) 15
(3) 25 (4) 45
(5) 3
Directions (47 51) : What will come in place of
the question mark
(?) in the following number series.
47. 19 30 44 67 117 ?
(1) 236 (2) 272
(3) 264 (4) 248
(5) 254
48. 7 9 18 46 111 ?
(1) 245 (2) 229
(3) 233 (4) 248
(5) 237
49. 7 24 58 109 ? 262
(1) 183 (2) 189
(3) 171 (4) 163
(5) 177
50. 19 20 16 25 9 ?
(1) 32 (2) 38
(3) 34 (4) 42
(5) 48
51. 7.4 9.2 11.4 14 17 ?
(1) 19.8 (2) 22.6
(3) 23 (4) 21
(5) 20.4
52. A bag contains 5 red balls, 6 yellow and 3 green
balls. If two balls are picked at random, what is the
probability that both are red or both are green in
colour ?
(1) 3/7 (2) 5/14
(3) 1/7 (4) 2/7
(5) 3/14
53. In a 140 litres of mixture of milk and water,
precentage of water is only 30%. The milkman
gave 20 litres of this mixture to a customer. Then
he added equal quantities of pure milk and water to
the remaining mixture. As a result the respective
ratio of milk and water in the mixture became 2 : 1.
What was the quantity of milk added ? (in litres)
(1) 12 (2) 16
(3) 18 (4) 8
(5) 10
54. Aboat can travel 4.2 km upstream in 14
minutes. If the respective ratio of speed of the boat
in still water and speed of the stream is 7 : 1. How
much time will the boat take to cover 17.6 km
downstream ? (in minutes)
(1) 52 (2) 44
(3) 48 (4) 36
(5) 54
55. A starts a business with a capital of Rs. 15000.
B joins the business 6 months later from the start of
the business and C joins the business 8 month later
from the start of the business.
End of the year their respective share in profit was
in ratio of 5 : 3 : 3. What is the sum of amount put
in the business by B and C together ?
(1) Rs. 3300 (2) Rs. 3500
(3) Rs. 4200 (4) Rs. 4800
(5) Rs. 4500
56. The length of a rectangle is 4m more than the
side of a square and the breadth of the rectangle is
4m less than side of the same square. The area of
the square is 567 square metre, what is the area of
the rectangle ? (in square metre)
7
(1) 549 (2) 545
(3) 557 (4) 559
(5) 551
57. A sells an item at 20% profit to B. B sells it to
C at 10% profit. C sells it to D at Rs 116 profit.
Difference between the cost price of D and Cost
price of A was Rs. 500. How much did B pay to A
for the item ?
(1) Rs. 1,240 (2) Rs. 1,250
(3) Rs. 1,440 (4) Rs. 1,450
(5) Rs. 1,400
58. 10 men can finish a piece of work in 15 days. 8
women can finish the same piece of work in 25
days. Only 10 women started working and in few
days completed certain amount of work. After that
3 men joined them. The remaining work was com-
pleted by 10 wome and 3 men together in 5 days.
After how many days 3 men joined 10 women ?
(1) 11 (2) 13
(3) 15 (4) 10
(5) 12
59. Rs. 16,000 was invested for three years, partly
in Scheme A at the rate of 5% Simple Interest per
annum and partly in scheme B at the rate of 8%
Simple Interest per annum.
Total interest received at the end was Rs. 3480.
How much sum of money invested in Scheme A ?
(1) Rs. 6,000 (2) Rs. 6,500
(3) Rs. 4,500 (4) Rs. 4,000
(5) Rs. 8,000
Directions (60-64) : In the following questions
based on the graph given below.
Data related to number of hats sold by two
stores (M and N) during six given months :
60. Number of hats sold by store M during January
is what percent of the total number of hats sold by
the store N during March and April together ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
61. What is the average number of hats sold by
store N during January, March, May and June ?
(1) 535 (2) 525
(3) 515 (4) 500
(5) 530
62. Stores M and N sells only two types of hats :
Fedora Hats and Trilby Hats. If the respective ratio
of total number of Fedora hats to total number of
Trilby hats sold by stores M and N together during
March is 9 : 5, what is the total number of Fedora
hats sold by stores M and N together during March
?
(1) 990 (2) 900
(3) 720 (4) 630
(5) 810
63. If the total number of hats sold by stores M and
N together in July is 15% more than the total num-
ber of hats sold by the same stores together during
June, what is the total number of hats sold by tha
same stores together during July ?
(1) 1298 (2) 1316
(3) 1356 (4) 1284
(5) 1334
64. Number of hats sold by store M increased by
what percent from February to May ?
(1) 75 (2) 55
(3) 65 (4) 70
(5) 60
65. Monthly salary of Dex is 1/4 th
is 2/5
monthly sal pays
Rs. 12,800, which is 1/4 th of her monthly salary as
study loan. Savings and expenses made out of the
monthly salary, by Dex is in the respective ^ratio 3
: 5. How much does Dex save each month ?
(1) Rs. 12,000 (2) Rs. 10,600
(3) Rs. 10,400 (4) Rs. 12,600
(5) Rs. 12,400
Reasoning Directions (66 70) : Study the following infor-
mation carefuly and answer the questions given
below :
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting
around a circular area of equal distances between
each other, but not necessarily in the same order.
Some of the people are facing the centre while
some face outside. i.e. in a direction opposite to the
centre
(NOTE : Same direction means if one person is
facing the centre then the other also faces the centre
and vice-versa. Opposite direction means that if one
person is facing the centre then the other person
faces outside and vice-versa)
8
D sits third to the right of B. E sits second to the
left of B. Immediate neighbours of B face the same
direction (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre the
other neighbour also faces the centre and vice-
versa)
C sits second to the left of E. E faces the centre. F
sits third to the right of C. G sits second to the left
of H. H is not an immediate neighbour of B. G fac-
es the same direction as D. Immediate neighbours
of E face opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbour
faces the centre the other neighbour faces outside
and viceversa.)
Immediate neighbours of F face opposite directions
(i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre the other
neighbour faces outside and viceversa).
66. How many persons in the given arrangement
face the centre ?
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) One (4) Four
(5) Five
67. Which of the following is true regarding A as
per the given seating arrangement ?
(1) H sits second to the left of A
(2) A faces outside
(3) Only two persons sit between A and B.
(4) C is one of the immediate neighbours of A.
(5) Only three persons sit between A and G.
68. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the given seating arrangement and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(1) F (2) B
(3) H (4) G
(5) D
69. to H ?
(1) Third to the left
(2) Second to the right
(3) To the immediate right
(4) To the immediate left
(5) Third to the right
70. Who sits second to the left of G ?
(1) H (2) A
(3) B (4) Other than those giv-
en as options
(5) F
Directions (71 75) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Seven persons A, B, C, D, K, L and M live on sev-
en different floors of a building but not necessarily
in the same order. The lowermost floor of the build-
ing is numbered one, the one above that is num-
bered two and so on till the topmost floor is num-
bered seven. Each one of them also likes different
games namely Snooker, Badminton, Chess, Ludo,
Cricket, Hockey and Polo (but not necessarily in
the same order.) Only three persons live between B
and K. B lives on one of the floors above K. K does
not live on the lowermost floor.
Only one person lives between B and the one who
like Chess. The one who likes Polo lives on one of
the even numbered floors above the one who likes
Chess.
Only two persons live between M and the one who
likes Chess. The one who likes Snooker lives im-
mediately above M. A lives immediately above L.
A does not like Chess.
The one who likes Ludo lives on one of the odd
numbered floors below L. M does not like Ludo. D
lives on one of the floors above C. Only one person
lives between the one who likes Cricket and the one
who likes Hockey. D does not like Cricket. M does
not like Badminton.
71. Which of the following games does B like ?
(1) Snooker (2) Ludo
(3) Polo (4) Badminton
(5) Chess
72. Who amongst the following lives on the floor
numbered 4 ?
(1) The one who likes Hockey
(2) The one who likes Chess
(3) A
(4) L
(5) B
73. Which of the following statements is true with
respect to the given arrangement ?
(1) Only two persons live between K and M.
(2) The one who likes Hockey lives immediately
above K.
(3) C likes Chess (4) C lives on an even
numbered floor.
(5) None of the given options is true.
74. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical
order from top to bottom, the positions of how
many people will remain unchanged ?
(1) None (2) Three
(3) Two (4) One
(5) Four
75. Which of the following combinations is true
with respect to the given arrangement ?
(1) Polo-C (2) Ludo-B
(3) Cricket-K (4) Snooker-A
(5) Chess-L
Directions (76 80) : In each of the following
questions, two/ three statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II have been given.
9
You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance form the cdom-
monly known facts and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II follows
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-
sion II follows.
Give answer (4) if both the Conclusion I and Con-
clusion II follow
Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-
clusion II follows
(76 77) :
Statements :
Some wins are trophies.
Some trophies are cups.
No cup is a prize.
76.
Conclusions I. Atleast some cups are wins.
II. All prizes being trophies is a possibility.
77.
Conclusions I. No trophy is a prize.
II. No prize is a win.
78. Statements No layer is a coat.
All coats are deposits.
All deposits are sheets.
Conclusions I. All coats are sheets.
II. All deposits can never be layers.
79. Statements Some flats are apartments.
No apartment is a hall.
Some halls are rooms.
Conclusions I. Atleast some rooms are flats.
II. No apartment is a room.
80. Statements Some codes are secrets.
All secrets are puzzles.
Conclusions I. All secrets being codes is a possibil-
ity.
II. Atleast some puzzles are coses.
81. A person starts walking from his office towards
a party hall.
He walks for 30m towards East. He takes a 90°
right turn and walks for 15m. He again takes a 90°
right turn, and walks for another 20m. He then
walks for 25m after taking a 90° left turn. Turining
90° towards his right he walks for 10m to reach the
party hall. How far and in which direction is the
party hall from his office ?
(1) 40m towards West
(2) 40m towards South
(3) 45m towards South
(4) 45m towards North
(5) 40m towards North
82. Point A is 40m to the north of point B. Point C
is 20m to the west of point A. Point D is 30m to the
south of point C. Point E is exactly midway be-
tween points D and F in such a manner that Point
D, E and F form a horizontal straight line of 40m.
Point F is to the east of point D. Point G is 30m to
the north of point F. How far and in which direction
is point G from point A ?
(1) 30m towards West
(2) 40m towards North
(3) 20m towards West
(4) 20m towards East
(5) 30m towards East
Directions (83 85) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
J is the sister of T. T is married to D. D is the father
of R. M is the son of H. T is the mother- in-law of
H. D has only one son and no daughter. J is married
to B. L is the daughter of B.
83. How is L related to T ?
(1) Niece (2) Sister
(3) Cannot be determined
(4) Daughter
(5) Mother
84. How is M related to D ?
(1) Nephew (2) Uncle
(3) Brother (4) Son
(5) Grandson
85. How is J related to R ?
(1) Sister (2) Aunt
(3) Mother-in-law (4) Mother
(5) Cannot be determined
Directions (86 90) : In each of the following
questions, relationship between different elements
is shown in the statements. The statements are fol-
lowed by two Conclusions numbered I and.
II. Study the Conclusions based on the given state-
ment(s) and select the appropriate answer.
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true
Give answer (3) If either Conclusion I or Conclu-
sion II is true
Give answer (4) if both the Conclusion I and Con-
clusion II are true
Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-
clusion II is true
(86 87) :
Statements L = P < W < V < K > Q; B < L; K = M
86.
Conclusions I. B < V
II. M > P
87.
10
Conclusions I. L > Q
II. W = M
88. Statements R < U = B < S; B < X
Conclusions I. X > R
II. X = R
(89 90) :
Statements C > U < S < T = O > D > Y; Z = O < P
89.
Conclusions I. U > D
II. S < P
90.
Conclusions I. Z > Y
II. C < O
Directions (91 95) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
In a certain code language,
is
(All codes are two letter codes only)
91. In the the given code language, what does the
stand for ?
(1) in
(3)
(4) task
(5) huge
92. in the given
code language ?
(1) hy (2) te
(3) op (4) Other than those giv-
en as options
(5) kj
93. the given code
language ?
(3) dp (4) Other than those giv-
en as options
(5) re
94.
code language ?
(1) te hy (2) dp kj
(3) ba kj (4) Other than those giv-
en as options
(5) ba te
95. What may be the possible code
given code language ?
(1) uc ba re (2) gr uc re
(3) op uc gr (4) op kj hy
(5) op gr kj
Directions (96 100) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight persons E, F, G, H, L, M, N and O are seated
in a straight line, facing North, but not necessarily
in the same order. O sits at the extreme right end of
the line. Only four persons sit between O and G.
Both F and M are immediate neighbours of G. Only
two persons sit between M and L. L is not an im-
mediate neighbour of O. N sits second to left of E.
96. What is the position of L with respect to G ?
(1) Third to the right
(2) To the immediate left
(3) Second to the right
(4) Fourth to the right
(5) Second to the left
97. Based on the given arrangement, which of the
following is true with respect to N ?
(1) Only three persons sit between N and O.
(2) None of the given options is true
(3) Only one person sits to the right of N.
(4) E sits to immediate right of N.
(5) Both L and F are immediate neighbours of N.
98. Who amongst the following persons represents
the person seated at the extreme left end of the line
?
(1) L (2) N
(3) E (4) F
(5) H
99. How many persons are seated between O and E
?
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) None
(5) One
100. Who amongst the following sit exactly be-
tween M and L ?
(1) E,N (2) F,O
(3) F,G (4) E,G
(5) H,N
Answer Key 1. (2) 2. (5) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (5) 6. (5) 7. (5) 8. (1) 9.
(3) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16.
(3) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (3) 22. (4) 23.
(1) 24. (2) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (5) 28. (5) 29. (1) 30.
(4) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (4) 36. (1) 37.
(4) 38. (4) 39. (5) 40. (2) 41. (5) 42. (5) 43. (1) 44.
(5) 45. (2) 46. (5) 47. (4) 48. (5) 49. (5) 50. (3) 51.
(5) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (2) 55. (5) 56. (4) 57. (3) 58.
(2) 59. (4) 60. (4) 61. (2) 62. (5) 63. (5) 64. (3) 65.
(1) 66. (5) 67. (2) 68. (3) 69. (4) 70. (1) 71. (4) 72.
(1) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (5) 76. (2) 77. (5) 78. (4) 79.
11
(5) 80. (4) 81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (1) 84. (5) 85. (2) 86.
(4) 87. (5) 88. (3) 89. (2) 90. (1) 91. (2) 92. (4) 93.
(1) 94. (5) 95. (3) 96. (5) 97. (2) 98. (1) 99. (4) 100.
(3)
Solutions: 8. (1) Depressing (Adjective) = mak-
ing you feel very sad and without
enthusiasm. Encouraging (Adjective)
= giving somebody support, courage
or hope. Look at the sentences :
Looking for a job these days can be
n-
employment figures are not very
encouraging.
11. (4) A handful of = small number
of people or things, limited. Look at
the sentences : Only a handful of
people came at the meeting.
13. (3) Shrink (Verb) = become
smaller/make smaller in size or
amount. Look at the sentence : Tele-
vision in a sense has shrunk the
world.
14. (1) Variegated (Adjective) =
consisting of many different types of
things or persons; having different
colours; diverse.
15. (3) Shutter (Verb) = close. Flour-
ish (Verb) = to develop quickly;
thrive.
16. (3) Here, not Passive but Active
voice should be used. Hence, a job
which he strongly supported the use
..... should be used
17. (2) The clause shows past time.
Hence, was just a few years ago ......
should be used.
18.
improper. Hence people are deter-
mined to register themselves as vot-
ers and vote for should be used. 19
(1) Here, Passive i.e., At least a
quar
been lost ...... should be used.
20. (2) Here, Reporting verb is in
Past tense. Hence, it was important
...... should be used.
22. (4) Crack (Verb) = to find a solu-
tion to a problem.
25. (2) Reveal (Verb) = disclose; to
make something known.
31.
6)
years
According to the question, 4x (3x
6) = 14
4x 3x + 6 = 14
x + 6 = 14
x = 14 6 = 8 years
\ 6
= 3 × 8 6 = 24 6 = 18 years
32. (3) I. 4x2 + 17x + 15 = 0
4x2 + 12x + 5x + 15 = 0
4x (x + 3) + 5 (x + 3) = 0
(x + 3) (4x + 5) = 0
x = 3 or, -5/4
II. 3y2 + 19y + 28 = 0
3y2 + 12y + 7y + 28 = 0
3y (y + 4) + 7 (y + 4) = 0
(y + 4) (3y + 7) = 0
y = 4 or, -7/3
Clearly, x > y
33. (1) I. 3x2 17x + 22 = 0
3x2 6x 11x + 22 = 0
3x (x 2) 11 (x 2) = 0
(x 2) (3x 11) = 0
x = 2 or, 11/3
II. 5y2 21y + 22 = 0
5y2 10y 11y + 22 = 0
5y (y 2) 11 (y 2) = 0
(y 2) (5y 11) = 0
y = 2 or, 11/5
Clearly, x > y
34. (3) I. 3x2 + 11x + 10 = 0
3x2 + 6x + 5x + 10 = 0
3x (x + 2) + 5(x + 2) = 0
(x + 2) (3x + 5) = 0
x = 2 or, -5/3
II. 2y2 + 13y + 21 = 0
2y2 + 6y + 7y + 21 = 0
2y (y + 3) + 7 (y + 3) = 0
(y + 3) (2y + 7) = 0
y = 3 or, -7/2
Clearly, x > y
35. (4) I. 3x2 + 13x + 14 = 0
3x2 + 6x + 7x + 14 = 0
3x(x + 2) + 7(x + 2) = 0
(x + 2) (3x + 7) = 0
x = 2 or, -7/3
II. 8y2 + 26y + 21 = 0
8y2 + 12y + 14y + 21 = 0
4y (2y + 3) + 7 (2y + 3) = 0
(2y + 3) (4y + 7) = 0
y = -3/2 or, -7/4
Clearly, x < y
36. (1) I. 3x2 14x + 15 = 0
3x2 9x 5x + 15 = 0
3x (x 3) 5 (x 3) = 0
(3x 5) (x 3) = 0
x = 5/3 or, 3/II. 15y2 34y + 15 =
0
15y2 25y 9y + 15 = 0
5y (3y 5) 3 (3y 5) = 0
(3y 5) (5y 3) = 0
y = 5/3 or, 3/5
Clearly, x > y
37. (4) Required ratio
:
38. (4) Total expense of company
in October 2012
(
) lakhs
. 84 lakhs.
Marketing expenses in Octo‐ ber
. 21 lakh
39. (5) Marketing expenses :
Company
(
) lakhs
. 13 lakh
Company
(
) lakhs
. 18.4 lakhs
Required per cent
. (2) Required average
(90 80 74 65
70) lakhs
(
) lakhs
lakhs
41. (5) Marketing and legal ex‐ penses :
Company
. 40.70 lakhs
Company
. 16.80 lakhs
Required difference
lakhs
lakhs
42. (5)
?
43. (1)? √ √
44. (5)?
45. (2)
Required Answer l45
46. (5)
?
13
47. (4) The pattern is, 19 + 11 = 30
30 + 14 (= 11 + 3) = 44
44 + 23 (= 14 + 32) = 67
67 + 50 (= 23 + 33) = 117
? = 117 + (50 + 34)
= 117 + 50 + 81 = 248
48. (5) The pattern is, 7 + 13 + 1 = 7
+ 2 = 9
9 + 23 + 1 = 9 + 9 = 18
18 + 33 + 1 = 18 + 28 = 46
46 + 43 + 1 = 46 + 65 = 111
111 + 53 + 1 = 111 + 126 = 237
49. (5) The pattern is, 7 + 1 × 17 = 7
+ 17 = 24
24 + 2 × 17 = 24 + 34 = 58
58 + 3 × 17 = 58 + 51 = 109
109 + 4 × 17 = 109 + 68 = 177
177 + 5 × 17 = 177 + 85 = 262
50. (3) The pattern is, 19 + 12 = 19 +
1 = 20
20 22 = 20 4 = 16
16 + 32 = 16 + 9 = 25
25 42 = 25 16 = 9
9 + 52 = 9 + 25 = 34
51. (5) The pattern is, 7.4 + 1.8 = 9.2
9.2 + 2.2 = 11.4
11.4 + 2.6 = 14
14 + 3 = 17
17 + 3.4 = 20.4
52. (3) Total number of balls in the
bag
Total possible outcomes
selection of 2 balls out of 14
balls
Favourable outcomes Selec‐ tion of 2 balls out of 5 red balls
selection of 2 balls out of 3
green balls
Required probability
53. (1) In 120 litres of mixture, Milk
litres
Water
litres
Let litres of milk and litres
of water are mixed.
According to the question,
litres
54. (2) Speed of current kmph
Speed of boat in stillwater
kmph.
Rate upstream
kmph.
Time
Rate down stream
kmph.
Time taken in covering 17.6
km.
hour
(
) minutes
minutes
55. (5) Rs. Rs. Ratio of equivalent capitals of
A and for 1 month
. 1800
Again ratio of equivalent cap‐ itals of A and
. 2700
. (1800 2700)
. 4500
56. (4) Side of square √ metre
Length of rectangle metre
Its breadth metre
Area Sq. metre
57. (3) C.P. for
C.P for
According to the question,
. 1200
C.P. for
. 1440
58. (2) men
women
men women
3 women
women women
part
part
Remaining work
This part of work is done by
10 women.
Required time
days.
59. (4) Investment in scheme
Investment in scheme
S.I.
. 4000
. (4) Required per cent
(
)
61. (2) Required average
(380 480 520 720)
62. (5) Hats sold by stores and
in March
Number of Fedora hats sold
63. (5) Number of hats sold by
stores and in July
of (440 720)
64. (3) Required per cent
65. ‐ ary
. 51200
(
)
. 128000
14
. 32000
(
)
. 12000
71. 75.
Floo
r No.
Per-
son
Games Alphabeti-
cal Order
7 B Badmin-
ton
A
6 A Polo B
5 L Chess C
4 D Hockey D
3 K Snooker K
2 M Cricket L
1 C Ludo M
83. 85. : T is wife of D. T is moth-
er of R. J is wife of B. H is wife of
R. L is the daughter of B and J. (86
87) : L = P < W < V < K > Q B < L ;
K = M B < L = P < W < V L = P <
W < V < K = M
86. (4) Conclusions I. B < V : True
II. M > P : True
87. (5) Conclusions I. L > Q : Not
True II. W = M : Not True
88. (3) R < U = B < S ; B < X R < U
= B < X Conclusions I. X > R : Not
True II. X = R : Not True X is either
greater than or equal to R. Therefore,
either Conclusion I or Conclusion II
is true.
89. 90. : C > U < S < T = O > D >
Y Z = O < P C > U < S < T = O = Z
< P Z = O > D > Y
89. (2) Conclusions I. U > D: Not
True II. S < P : True
90. (1) Conclusions I. Z > Y: True II.
C < O : Not True
15
RBI Asst. Pre 2017 (Sitting-2)
English Language Directions (1 10) : Read the following passage carefully
and answer the questions. Certain words/ phrases have
been given in bold to help you locate them while answer-
ing some of the questions.
Over the past few days alone,
has pumped extra cash into the financial system and cut
interest rates.
The aim is to free more cash for banks to lend and pro-
vide a boost for banks seeking to improve the return on
their assets. The official data, though, suggested that bad
loans make up only 1.4 % of their balance sheets. How to
explain the discrepancy? One possible answer is that bad
loans are a tagging indicator, i.e. it is only after the econ-
omy has struggled for a while that borrowers began to
suffer. Looked at this way, China is trying to anticipate
problems, keeping its banks in good health by sustaining
growth of nearly 7% year on year. Another more worry-
ing possibility is that bad loans are worse than official
data indicate. This does not look to be a cause for con-
banks, which are managed con-
servatively and largely focus on the -
value and quality borrowers. But there is mounting evi-
dence that when it comes to smaller banks, especially
those yet to list on the stock market, bad loans are piling
up. That is important because unlisted lenders account for
just over a third of the Chinese banking sector, making
them as big a industry.
Although non-performing loans have edged up slowly,
the increase in special-mention loans (a category that
includes those overdue but not yet classified as impaired
loans.) has been much bigger. Special-mention loans are
about 2% at most of
that such loans must be much higher at their smaller,
unlisted peers. Many of these loans are simple bad debts
which banks have not yet admitted to. Another troubling
fact is that fifteen years ago, the government created
asset-management companies (often referred to as bad
banks) to take on the nonperforming loans of the lenders.
After the initial transfer these companies had little to pay.
But, last year, Cinda, the biggest of the bad banks, bought
nearly 150 billion Yuan ($24 billion) of distressed assets
last year, two-thirds more than in 2013. These assets
would have raised the bank (s) bad-loans ratio by a few
tenths of a percentage point.
Although such numbers do not seem very alarming, ex-
perts who reviewed
which only 20 are listed, found that
loans recorded as investments which may be a disguise
for bad loans have grown to as much as 5.7 billion
Yuan, or are heavily
concentrated on the balance sheets of smaller unlisted
banks, and at the very least, all this points to a need for
recapitalisation of small banks.
1. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in
meaning as the word given in bold as used
in the passage.
(1) delayed (2) breaking
(3) stopping (4) protecting
(5) tying
2. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the
word FREE given in bold as used in the passage?
(1) expensive (2) secret
(3) complimentary (4) restrict
(5) charged
3. According to the passage, which of the following can
be
(A) These are cautiously run.
(B) Their clients are mainly high-value.
(C) 2 per cent of their loans have been classified as over-
due but not impaired.
(1) Only (B) (2) Only (A)
(3) All (A) , (B) and (C)
(4) Only (A) and (C)
(5) Only (B) and (C)
4. Which of the following is the central idea of the pas-
sage?
(1) Small banks should be permitted to become listed on
the stock exchange.
(2) The government should do away with asset manage-
ment companies.
not as serious as it is being
made out to be.
failed out to predict and stop
the decline of its banks.
(5) There is trouble brewing in unlisted
banks.
5. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in
meaning POINTS bold as used in
the passage.
(1) peaks (2) moments
(3) arguments (4) indicates
(5) plugs
6. Which of the following is true in the context of the
passage?
(1) China has not implemented any resources to help its
banking sector in recent times.
banking sector is
unlisted.
plummeted in recent times.
is experiencing a boom
unlike that of China.
(5) None of the given options is true in the context of the
passage.
7. What does the example of Cinda convey?
(1) Many of the loans given by u-
ble.
(2) Many such large Chinese asset management compa-
nies are failing.
dependent on large banks.
(4) China is the ideal destination for small banks to flour-
ish.
(5) Such companies have become obsolete.
16
8. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to
the word MOUNTING given in bold as used in the pas-
sage.
(1) melting (2) accumulating
(3) removing (4) submerging
(5) decreasing
9. Which of the following best describes
regarding shadow loans?
(1) Shadow loans have been steadily falling and are neg-
ligent at present.
(2) These are growing substantially and indicate the need
for reform of small banks.
(3) Shadow loans are unfairly being passed on to asset
management companies.
(4) These loans are inconsequential for the health of
banks.
(5) The findings are faulty as there include only a few
listed banks.
10. small banks?
(1) These have a better loan portfolio than large banks.
(2) These are in good health helping us to sustain eco-
nomic growth of 7 per cent.
(3) These should be merged with large banks to bail them
out of trouble.
(4) Regulations governing these banks should be relaxed.
(5) Other than those given as options.
Directions (11 20) : In the following passage, some of
the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
by a number. Find the suitable word from the options
given against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
Against the backdrop (11) of the attacks on Indian stu-
dents in Milan, the External Affairs Ministry has told
(12) citizens in Italy not to panic. External Affairs Minis-
ter Sushma Swaraj has received a detailed report on the
situation even as the students met Indian diplomats.
While mobilizing (13) the Indian students of their safety,
the Minister said she was overseeing the
have got the detailed report [on the attacks in Milan].
Please do not worry. I am adjudicating (14) the situation
Ms. Swaraj said in a social media message. The Indian
Students Association for Polimi (Politechnic University
of Milan) said two incidents took place over the past few
days in which a group of people beat up a student and
scraped (15) his mobile phone and another student was
scoured (16) by a gang. Following these incidents, the
Consulate General of India (CGI) in Milan on Monday
issued a/an induction (17) to Indian nationals and stu-
dents has re-
ceived reports of the unfortunate incidents of attacks on
Indian students in Milan. All Indian students are urged
not to panic.
The Consulate is taking up this matter with the highest
level of law and Consu-
late said in the advisory posted on social media plat-
forms. However, associa-
tion said the study (18) needs to be completed and avoid-
ed
reached out to us
offering to help.
Our community is widely targeted (19) in Milan; even the
media in the city has enquired and extended all sorts of
help to create awareness, so I want to state clearly that
Italy remains safe for Indians and Indian
Sandeep said while explaining that the attacks were likely
(20) to be part of a racist plot.
11. (1) rise (2) evidence
(3) increase (4) record
(5) No improvement
12. (1) endorsed (2) urged
(3) backed (4) reproached
(5) No improvement
13. (1) affirming (2) securing
(3) conjuring (4) assuring
(5) No improvement
14. (1) escalating (2) monitoring
(3) testing (4) leading
(5) No improvement
15. (1) plucked (2) secured
(3) snatched (4) obtained
(5) No improvement
16. (1) pelted (2) sweeped
(3) hurtled (4) assaulted
(5) No improvement
17. (1) checklist (2) ruling
(3) advisory (4) assistance
(5) No improvement
18. (1) investigation (2) research
(3) survey (4) observation
(5) No improvement
19. (1) condemned (2) appreciated
(3) criticized (4) ignored
(5) No improvement
20. (1) unlikely (2) thought
(3) guessed (4) sought
(5) No improvement
Directions (21 30) : Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer.
as your answer.
21. A lots of real estate companies may come up (1) /
with tempting offers and discounts but buyers should (2) /
always keep their eyes open and must check (3) / whether
all approvals are in place or not. (4) / No error (5)
22. Before investing, (1) / you should look after the (2) /
overall business dynamics of the company (3) / along
with efficient management and good corporate govern-
ance. (4) / No error (5)
23. Unless (1) / he will not understand (2) / the concept
he will not be (3) / able to solve the questions. (4) / No
error (5)
24. The objective of facebook might (1) /be fair but there
are (2) / certain unintended consequences (3) /of what are
disguised as freebies. (4) / No error (5)
17
25. This is a strange world (1) / where each one pursues
their (2) / own golden bubble (3) / and laughs at others
for doing the same. (4) / No error (5)
26. One of the major problems with (1) / representative
democracy is that (2) / the business of government has
(3) / become the privilege of few. (4) / No error (5)
27. If two types of economy exists in the country (1) /
either there should be conflict (2) /between the two or (3)
/ one will overwhelm the other. (4) / No error (5)
28. India is the second most populous (1) / country in the
world (2) / and is expected to (3) / take over China by
2030. (4) / No error (5)
29. Though these programmes have proved (1) / to be
extremely (2) / effective (3) / they do have certain draw-
backs (4) /No error (5)
30. Any failure (1) / to complicit (2) / with these funda-
mental (3) / regulations will result in a fine (4) / No error
(5) Quantitative Aptitude Directions (31 35) : Study the following table carefully
to answer the given questions.
Years Place
A B C D E
2011 5.3 3.8 1.5 2.7 1.1
2012 12.5 8.3 3.4 4.8 2.1
2013 16.7 11.7 5.5 6.6 1.8
2014 20.9 13.6 9.8 12.7 3.6
2015 25.8 14.5 11.5 14.1 5.5
2016 30.3 20.9 15.6 15.9 7.8
31. At which place did the monthly rent not increase
continuously from year 2011 to 2016?
(1) A (2) D
(3) C (4) B
(5) E
32. What was the difference between the monthly rent at
B in the year 2015 and D in the year 2013?
(1) Rs. 7600 (2) Rs. 7900
(3) Rs. 8100 (4) Rs. 8600
(5) None of these
33. In which year at A, the monthly rent increased more
than 100 per cent from the previous year?
(1) 2012 (2) 2013
(3) 2014 (4) 2015
(5) 2016
34. Monthly rent at C in the year 2014 was approximately
what per cent of the total monthly rent at E over all the
years together?
(1) 30 (2) 33
(3) 38 (4) 42
(5) 45
35. Which city was most expensive in terms of rent?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) E
36. A person started his journey in the morning. At 11 am
he covered
of his journey and on the same day at 4: 30
pm he covered
of the journey. At what time did he start
his journey?
(1) 6: 00 am (2) 5: 30 am
(3) 07: 00 am (4) 06: 30 am
(5) None of these
37. How much per cent above the cost price should a
shopkeeper mark his goods so as to earn a profit of 32%
after giving a discount of 12% on the marked price?
(1) 52% (2) 50%
(3) 55% (4) 56%
(5) None of these
38. A can do a work in 5 days less than the time taken by
B to do it. If both of them together take
days to
complete the whole work, then what will be the time
do the same work?
(1) 15 days (2) 20 days
(3) 25 days (4) 30 days
(5) None of these
39. Vessels A and B contain mixture of milk and water in
the ratios 4: 5 and 5: 1 respectively.
In what ratio should quantities of mixtures be taken from
A and B to form a mixture in which milk to water is in
the ratio 5: 4 ?
(1) 2: 5 (2) 4: 3
(3) 5: 2 (4) 2: 3
(5) 3: 4
40. Ratio of the earnings of A and B is 4: 7. If the earn-
ings of A is increased by 50% and that of B decrease by
25%, the new ratio of their earnings becomes 8: 7. What
a
(1) Rs. 21,000 (2) Rs. 26,000
(3) Rs. 28,000 (4) None of these
(5) Data inadequate
Directions (41 55) : What will come in place of question
mark (?) in the following questions?
41. 68% of 625 + ?% of 185 = 499
(1) 42 (2) 40
(3) 28 (4) 25
(5) None of these
42. (16 × 4) 3
÷ (4) 5
× (2 × 8) 2
= (4) ?
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 3 (4) 8
(5) None of these
43. 126 ÷ 14 × (9) 2
53 = (?) 2
(1) 26 (2) √
(3) 729 (4) 27
(5) √
44.
+
= ?
18
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5) None of these
45. 58.621 13.829 7.302 1.214 = ?
(1) 37.281 (2) 35.272
(3) 36.276 (4) 31.254
(5) None of these
46. ?% of 450 + 46% of 285 = 257.1
(1) 34 (2) 32
(3) 21 (4) 28
(5) None of these
47. 115% of 4880 85% of 1640 = ?
(1) 4218 (2) 4368
(3) 4448 (4) 4628
(5) None of these
48. 3251 + 587 + 369 ? = 3007
(1) 1250 (2) 1300
(3) 1375 (4) 1400
(5) None of these
49. 0.5% of 674 of 0.8% of 225 = ?
(1) 7.066 (2) 9.12
(3) 6.066 (4) 5.17
(5) None of these
50. 56% of 225 + 20% of 150 = ? + 109
(1) 49 (2) 103
(3) 53 (4) 47
(5) None of these
51.
× 2286 +
× 1397 = ?
(1) 916 (2) 1016
(3) 1216
(4) 1026
(5) 1256
52.
+
+
+
= ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5) None of these
53. 14.5% of 740 ?% of 320 = 87.3
(1) 6.75 (2) 6.25
(3) 12.5 (4) 14.75
(5) 8.25
54. (0.125) 3
÷ (0.25) 2× (0.5)
2= (0.5)
?–3
(1) 12 (2) 18
(3) 14 (4) 10
(5) None of these
55. 64.5% of 800 + 36.4% of 1500 = (?) 2
+ 38
(1) 32 (2) 38
(3) 42 (4) 48
(5) 34
56. A train travels 50% faster than a car. Both start from
point A at the same time and reach point B 75 kms away
from A at the same time. On the way, however, the train
lost about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the stations.
What will be the speed of the car?
(1) 100 kmph (2) 110 kmph
(3) 120 kmph (4) 130 kmph
(5) None of these
57. The difference between the S.I.
on a certain amount at the rate of 10% per annum and
compound interest which is compounded every 6 months
for 2 years is Rs. 124.05. What is the principal?
(1) Rs. 6,000 (2) Rs. 8,000
(4) Rs. 12,000 (4) Rs. 8,500
(5) None of these
58. While selling a watch, a shopkeeper gives a discount
of 5%.
If he gives a discount of 6%, he earns Rs. 15 less as prof-
it.
What is the marked price of watch?
(1) Rs. 1250 (2) Rs. 1400
(3) Rs. 1550 (4) Rs. 1350
(5) None of these
59. Walking at 5 kmph a student reaches his school from
his house 15 minutes early and walking at a speed of 3
kmph he is late by 9 minutes. What is the distance be-
tween his school and his house?
(1) 5 km (2) 8 km
(3) 3 km (4) 2 km
(5) None of these
60. A completes
part of a work in 20 days. Then he
completes the rest work with B in 3 days.
How much time will B take alone to complete this work?
(1)
days
(2) 37 days
(3) 40 days
(4) 23 days
(5) None of these
Directions (61 65) : What should come in place of ques-
tion mark (?) in the given number series?
61. 9 62 ? 1854 7415 22244
(1) 433 (2) 309
(3) 406 (4) 371
(5) None of these
62. 4 8 24 60 ? 224
(1) 178 (2) 96
(3) 109 (4) 141
(5) None of these
63. 8000 1600 320 64 12.8 ?
(1) 2.56 (2) 3.5
(3) 3.2
(4) 2.98
(5) None of these
64. 6 9 15 27 51 ?
(1) 84 (2) 99
(3) 123 (4) 75
(5) None of these
65. 7 8 18 ? 232 1165
(1) 84 (2) 42
(3) 57 (4) 36
(5) None of these Reasoning Directions (66 70) : In each of the following questions,
relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by two Conclu-
19
sions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on
the given statements and mark the appropriate answer.
Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion
II are true
Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II
is true
Give answer (3) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion
II is true
Give answer (4) if only Conclusion I is true
Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II is true
66. Statements:
G < C; B > G; E > A > K; B < K
Conclusions:
I. E > C
II. B < C
67. Statements:
A > K; K < M > N; B > N
Conclusions:
I. A > N
II. K < B
68. Statements:
G > S; M > N > G; R > M
Conclusions:
I. G < R
II. S < M
69. Statements:
N > M < S; R > T < J; N > R
Conclusions:
I. S < R
II. S > T
70. Statements:
B < A < D; C > E; B > C
Conclusions:
I. A > E
II. E < A
Directions (71 75) : Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting
around a rectangular table but not necessarily in the same
order. Four persons who sit on each middle side of rec-
tangular table face towards the centre, while other four
persons who sit on the corner of table face outside the
centre. O faces Q. P sits 3rd to the right of R, who sits
2nd to the right of T. Only one person sits between P and
O. M sits 2nd to the right of Q. N sits 3rd to the right of
O.
71. Who among the following sits second to the right of
P?
(1) M (2) Q
(3) S (4)
(5) N
72. Who among the following faces M?
(1) N (2) R
(3) S (4) P
(5) Q
73. Who among the following sits second to the right of
the one who sits third to the left of R?
(1) Q (2) S
(3) P (4) N
(5) T
74. Who among the following sits diagonally opposite to
R?
(1) S (2) O
(3) M (4) N
(5) None of these
75. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and hence they form a group based on the given ar-
rangement.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) M (2) Q
(3) O (4) P
(5) N
76. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
APPREHENSIVE, each of which has as many letters
between them in the word (in both forward and backward
directions) as they have between them in the English
alphabet?
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) More than three
(4) One
(5) None
77. from the right and
rank is 21st from the left but Amit who is two
places to the left of Rohit is sitting on the immediate right
of Monika, then how many students are there in the
class?
(1) 45 (2) 39
(3) 42 (4) 44
(5) 46
Directions (78 79) : Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are six boxes i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F which are of
different weight and no two boxes are of same weight.
Only two boxes are heavier than box F. Box A is heavier
than both E and D but is not the heaviest.
Box A is of 25 kg in weight. Box F is heavier than 25 kg.
Box B is heavier than box F but not the heaviest.
78. If box B is 28 kg in weight then what will be the pos-
sible weight of box F?
(1) 26 kg (2) 29 kg
(3) 24.5 kg (4) 33 kg
(5) 35 kg
79. Which of the following box is the lightest among all?
(1) C (2) D
(3) F (4) E
(5) Either (E) or (D)
80. Atul started walking in the east direction from point
P, after walking 4 km he takes a right turn and walks for
6 km to reach at point S, from point S, he takes a left turn
and walks for 4 km to reach point T, then what is the
shortest distance between points P and T?
(1) 11 km (2) 15 km
(3) 9 km (4) 10 km
(5) 12 km
Directions (81 85) : In each of the questions below,
some statements are given followed by Conclusions/
group of Conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
assume all the statements to be true even if they seem to
20
be at variance from the commonly known facts and then
decide which of the given two Conclusions logically
follows from the information given in the statements.
Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion
II follow
Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II
follows
Give answer (3) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion
II follows
Give answer (4) if only Conclusion I follows
Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II follows
81. Statements:
All events are bikes.
No bike is race.
All races are laps.
Conclusions:
I. No event is a race.
II. Some events are not laps.
82. Statements:
All subjects are tools.
All tools are instruments.
Some instruments are books.
Conclusions:
I. Some books are subjects.
II. Some tools are books.
83. Statements:
All As are Bs.
Some Bs are Cs.
No C is D.
All Ds are Es.
Conclusions:
I. Some Bs are not Ds.
II. Some Es are not Cs.
84. Statements:
Some apples are oranges.
Some oranges are grapes.
No orange is banana.
Conclusions:
I. Some grapes are not bananas.
II. Some apples are not bananas.
85. Statements:
All notes are books.
No book is a bag.
Some bags are pens.
Conclusions:
I. Some pens are not books.
II. Some notes are pens.
Directions (86 90) : Study the following arrangement
carefully and answer the questions given below:
R 4 P I J M A 3 % T @ © U K 5 V 1 W $ Y 2 E 6 # 9 D
H 8 G & Z N
86. How many such symbols are there in the above ar-
rangement, each of which is immediately followed by a
vowel?
(1) One (2) Three
(3) Two (4) Four
(5) None
87. Which of the following element is exactly in the mid-
dle of 3rd element from the left end and the 10th element
from the right end of the arrangement?
(1) © (2) U
(3) K (4) 5
(5) @
88. How many such vowels are there in the above ar-
rangement each of which is immediately followed by a
number and also immediately preceded by a number?
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) None
(5) One
89. What should come in the place of question-mark (?)
in the following series ?
JAI @UT 1$V ?
(1) 69# (2) 69H
(3) 69E (4) 692
(5) 69Y
90. How many such consonants are there in the above
arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a
vowel and also immediately preceded by a number?
(1) Two (2) None
(3) Three (4) One
(5) More than three
Directions (91 95) : Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H who are
sitting in a row such that some are facing south direction
and some are facing north direction. No two friends are
sitting together according to the alphabetical order. F and
D face the same direction as B is facing. D sits 3rd to the
right of A. The number of persons sitting to the right of G
is equal to the number of persons sitting to the right of D.
A sits at one of the ends. C and E are immediate neigh-
bours but both face opposite directions with respect to
each other.
H sits 4th to the right of C. C does not sit to the left of G.
B sits to the left of C but does not face the same direction
as A. H faces the same direction as A and G are facing.
E does not face south direction.
91. Who among the following sits second to the right of
C?
(1) A (2) G
(3) B (4) D
(5) H
92. How many persons face south direction?
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) One (4) Two
(5) More than four
93. Who among the following sits to the immediate left
of A?
(1) B (2) D
(3) E (4) H
(5) No one
94. Who among the following sits to the immediate left
of B?
(1) C (2) G
(3) A (4) H
(5) No one
21
95. A is related to F, in the same way as D is related to C
then following the same pattern E is related to:
(1) C (2) G
(3) H (4) B
(5) A
Directions (96 100) : Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are six lectures on different subjects i.e. Chemistry,
Biology, Physics, Maths, Economics and Polity which
are to be conducted on different days of the same week
starting from Monday but not necessarily in the same
order. One of the days is off day which is not Sunday.
There are two days gap between s-
The lecture of Physics is conducted on the day after the
lecture of Economics but not on Friday. There is one day
gap between lecture of Economics and the lecture of
Chemistry.
The lecture of Chemistry is conducted on the day imme-
diately before the lecture of Biology. The lecture of Poli-
ty is conducted on Saturday.
The lecture of Physics is not conducted on Sunday. Lec-
ture of Maths is conducted after the lecture of Physics.
96. Which day of the week is off day?
(1) Tuesday (2) Saturday
(3) Monday (4) Friday
(5) Thursday 97. The lecture of Economics is conducted on which day
of the week?
(1) Wednesday (2) Tuesday
(3) Friday (4) Saturday
(5) Sunday
98. The lecture of Maths is conducted on which day of
the week?
(1) Monday (2) Sunday
(3) Saturday (4) Thursday
(5) Wednesday
99. Which lecture is conducted on Thursday?
(1) Biology (2) Chemistry
(3) Economics
(4) None
(5) Physics
100.How many lectures are conducted before Chemistry?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) None (4) More than three
(5) Three
Answer Key
1. (5) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (5) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (5) 9. (2) 10. (5)
11. (5) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (1)
19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (1) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (2) 26. (4)
27. (1) 28. (4) 29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (5) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (5)
35. (1) 36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (5) 41. (2) 42. (4)
43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (5) 49. (3) 50. (4)
51. (2) 52. (5) 53. (2) 54. (4) 55. (1) 56. (3) 57. (2) 58. (5)
59. (3) 60. (1) 61. (4) 62. (5) 63. (1) 64. (2) 65. (3) 66. (3)
67. (3) 68. (1) 69. (3) 70. (5) 71. (2) 72. (4) 73. (3) 74. (1)
75. (5) 76. (3) 77. (4) 78. (1) 79. (5) 80. (4) 81. (4) 82. (3)
83. (1) 84. (1) 85. (4) 86. (1) 87. (2) 88. (5) 89. (3) 90. (4)
91. (4) 92. (1) 93. (5) 94. (5) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (1) 98. (2)
99. (5) 100. (3)
22
Solutions: 1. (5) Tagging (Adjective) = adding
as an appendage; attaching; tying.
2. (4) Free (Verb) = release; exempt;
to remove the limits or controls on
something. Restrict (Verb) = keep
under control; put a limit on. Look at
the sentences : Her retirement from
politics will free her (= provide her
with enough time) to write her
memoirs. The government has re-
stricted freedom of movement into
and out of the country.
5. (4) Point (Verb) = indicate; show
the truth. Look at the sentence : The
evidence clearly points to her guilt.
8. (5) Mounting (Adjective) = grad-
ually increasing. Its antonym should
be decreasing.
11. (5) Backdrop (Noun) = the gen-
eral situation in which particular
events happen.
12. (2) Urge (Verb) = to strongly
advise or try to persuade someone to
do a particular thing.
13. (4) Mobilize (Verb) = to prepare
something, such as a group of peo-
ple, for a purpose. Assure (Verb) =
to tell something confidently that
something is true.
14. (2) Adjudicate (Verb) = judge,
adjudge; to act as judge in a compe-
tition or argument or argument.
Monitor (Verb) = to watch and
check a situation carefully for a pe-
riod of time.
15. (3) Scrape (Verb) = to remove an
unwanted covering or a top layer
from something. Snatch (Verb) = to
take hold of something suddenly and
roughly.
16. (4) Scour (Verb) = to remove dirt
from something by rubbing it hard.
Assault (Verb) = to attack someone
violently.
17. (3) Induction (Noun) = an occa-
sion when someone is formally in-
troduced into a new job or organisa-
tion. Advisory (Noun) = an official
announcement that contains advice,
information or a warning.
18. (1) Investigation (Noun) = the
act of examining a crime, problem
etc. carefully, especially to discover
the truth.
19. (2) Target (Verb) = select as an
object of attention or attack ; pick
out. Appreciate (Verb) = to recog-
nise how good something is and to
value it.
20. (1) Unlikely = not probable or
likely to happen. Look at the sen-
tence : The lack of evidence means
that the case is unlikely to go to
court.
21. (1) A lot of = lots of = a large
number or amount ; a great deal
Look at the sentences : She eats lots
of fruit. There were a lot of people
there. Hence, A lot of real estate.....
should be used here.
22. (2) Look after = take care of
Look at = used when you are telling
someone to be careful or to pay at-
tention Hence, you should look at
the .... should be used here.
23. (2) Unless = except if Look at
the sentence :
unless you have experience. Hence,
he understands (Pres ent Simple) ....
should be used here.
24. (4) Here, Past tense i.e. of what
were disguised as freebies should be
used.
25. (2) The possessive pronoun of
each one should be . Hence,
where each one pursues his ......
should be used here.
26. (4) Here, become the privilege of
the few .... should be used. the few =
rare. e.g. the few black rhino left.
27. (1) Here, If two types of econo-
my/ economics is a plural subject.
Hence, plural subject i.e. exist in the
country .... should be used.
28. (4) Take over = to take control of
Overtake = to go past something by
being a greater amount or degree.
Hence, overtake China by 2030
should be used here.
29. p-
er.
30. (2) Complicit (Adjective) = in-
volved in or knowing about a crime
or some activity that is wrong. Look
at the sentence : She was accused of
being complicit in her
death. Comply (Verb) = to act ac-
cording to an order, set of rules or
request. Look at the sentence : There
are serious penalties for failure to
comply with the regulations. Hence,
to comply .... should be used here.
31. (5) It is obvious from the table.
The montly rent at place E decreased
in 2013.
32. (2) Required difference
= Rs. (14.5 6.6) × 1000
= Rs. (7.9 × 1000) = Rs. 7900
33. (1) Percentage increase in
monthly rent in 2012 at place
(
)
34. (5) Total monthly rent at place Rs. thousand
. 21.9 thousand
Required per cent
35. (1) City A is the most expensi-
tive place. It is obvious from
the table.
36. (4) Period of time between
11 a.m. and 4:30
hours
Distance covered (
) part
(
) part
part
Time taken in covering
th part of distance
hours
Time taken in covering
th part of distance
hours
hours
Time when the journey was
started 37. (2) Let the C.P. of article be Rs.
100 and its marked price be Rs.
According to the question,
(100‐12) % of
. 150 i.e. 50% above the C.P.
38. (3) Let the time taken by be
days.
Time taken by days.
According to the question,
23
because
39. (3) . (5) Rs. Rs.
According to the question,
No result is obtained.
41. (2)
100
42. (4)
43. (1)
√
44. (2) ?
(
)
(
)
45. (3) ? 7.302 1.214)
46. (4)
47. (1) ?
48. (5) 325
49. (3) ?
. (4)
51. (2)
52. (5) ?
(
)
(
)
53. (2)
54. (4) (0.5)
2
(0.5) 2
(0.5) 2
(0.5) 7
55. (1)
√
56. (3) Speed of car kmph.
Speed of train
kmph.
According to the question,
Time
kmph.
57. (2) Let the principal be Rs.
Case II,
Rate per half year
Time half‐ years
C.I. [(
)
]
*(
)
+
[(
) ] (
)
According to the question,
. 8000
58. (5) Marked price of watch
According to the question,
(95‐94) % of
. 1500
59. (3) Let the required distance be
km.
Difference in time minutes
hour
hour
According to the question,
km.
. (1) A does
th of work in 20
days.
Time taken by A in doing 1
work
days
Remaining work
Time taken by in
doing 1 work days
Required time
days
61. (4) The pattern is :
24
62. (5) The pattern is :
124
63. (1) The pattern is :
64. (2) The pattern is :
9 6
15
27 24 99
65. (3) The pattern is :
57
66. (3) G < C; B > G; E > A > K; B
< K E > A > K > B > G < C Conclu-
sions I. E > C : Not True II. B < C :
Not True
67. (3) A > K; K < M > N; B > N A
> K < M > N K < M > N < B Con-
clusions I. A > N : Not True II. K <
B : Not True
68. (1) G > S; M > N > G; R > M R
> M > N > G M > N > G > S Con-
clusions I. G < R : True II. S < M :
True
69. (3) N > M < S; R > T < J; N > R
R < N > M < S T < R < N > M S
Conclusions : I. S < R : Not True II.
S > T : Not True
70. (5) B < A < D ; C > E ; B > C E
< C < B < A < D Conclusions I. A >
E : Not True Ii. E < A : True (91 95)
:
91. (4) D sits second to the right of
C.
92. (1) Four persons F, D,C and B
face the south direction.
93. (5) A faces north. A sits at the
west end.
94. (5) B faces south. B sits at the
east end.
95. (2) Only one person sits between
A and F. Only one person sits be-
tween D and C. Similarly, there is
only one person between E and G.
96. 100.
Day Subjects
Monday Chemistry
Tuesday Biology
Wednesday Economics
Thursday Physics
Friday HOLIDAY
Saturday Polity
Sunday Maths
25
RBI Asst. 2017 (Sitting-3)
English Language Directions (1 5) : In each of the given sentences there
are two blank spaces. Below each sentence five pairs
of words have been given.
Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the
blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make
the sentence meaningfully complete.
1. The incident has _______ severe damage to the
______ of the employees.
(1) resulted optimism
(2) led emotions
(3) produced conduct
(4) contributed integrity
(5) caused morale
2. ______ investing in technology, the company has
been ______ to compete globally.
(1) For trying (2) Despite gradual
(3) While clear (4) Since enable
(5) By able
3. The root _______ of slow reduction in poverty is
_______ of investment in agriculture.
(1) purpose increase
(2) reason hike
(3) cause lack (4) effect incidence
(5) consequence plunge
4. You have unfairly _______ his success to the fact
that he is well _______.
(1) reduced behaved
(2) doubted adjusted
(3) excused educated
(4) attributed connected
(5) rated-known
5. To ________ the problems of the region it is
________ to interact with the local people.
(1) discover necessity
(2) understand essential
(3) rsearch advice
(4) manage needful
(5) focus better
Directions (6 10) : In each of the following ques-
tions, a sentence with four words in bold type is giv-
en.
One of these four words given in bold may be either
wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or
inappropriate, if any. That word is your answer. If all
the words given in bold are correctly spelt and also
appropriate in the context of
your answer.
6. The government has permitted foreign direct in-
vestment in digitail service providers upto a limit of
50 percent.
(1) permitted (2) digitail
(3) service (4) percent
(5) All correct
7. A bank gift card is usually a prepaid card which
can be used in an ATM to cheque the balance but one
cannot withdraw cash.
(1) usually (2) prepaid
(3) cheque (4) withdraw
(5) All correct
8. He first joinned the Board of Directors two years
ago and has expressed his concerns at various global
debates.
(1) joinned (2) ago
(3) various (4) global
(5) All correct
9. The waste amount of information available today
has created a more knowledgeable public.
(1) waste (2) amount
(3) information (4) public
(5) All correct
10. Some of the steps taken over the late few months
have made the tax return filing process simpler.
(1) steps (2) late
(3) filing (4) simpler
(5) All correct
Directions (11 18) : Read each of these sentences to
find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.
Select the part with the error as your answer. If there
is no error,
Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.
11. The two-part documentary (1) / is a critique of the
education system (2) / and its impacting (3) / on up-
liftment of women. (4) / No error
(5)
12. All the Airlines is (1) / using the increased aware-
ness (2) / about security to impose a new (3) / code of
conduct among passengers. (4) / No error (5)
13. They treated themselves (1) / to ice creams (2) /
and were all set of explore (3) / the markets of the city.
(4) / No error (5)
14. He used to help his (1) /
and clean of the house (3) / at an incredible speed. (4)
/ No error (5)
15. One afternoon, the crocodile (1) / was resting be-
side a stone near (2) / the pond, when two fishermen
(3) / stopped there to drinking water. (4) / No error
(5)
16. My brother and I are (1) / going to tell her that
scientists (2) / are here to take crystals away, (3) /
which is how everyone is crying. (4) / No error (5)
17. All of them met after a hour (1) / at the same spot
and were (2) / counting money spread (3) / out on a
blanket. (4) / No error
26
(5)
18. The fishermen took (1) / the foolish fishes to the
(2) / market and sale (3) / them for a good profit. (4) /
No error (5)
Directions (19 30) : Read the following passage and
answer the given questions. Certain words/ phrases are
given in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
There was once a king who died leaving four sons.
The other three princes were extremely jealous of the
youngest and conspired against him making him leave
the palace. The queen went along with him (her be-
loved son) . Now one day they were by the river when
they spotted an abandoned boat.
The young prince saw it and immediately began to
plan a voyage.
His mother pleaded. But the young prince was deter-
mined to seek his fortune with or without her. So at
last the queen got into the boat.
They set sail and journeyed for days till the river met
the sea.
They journeyed on and on till land was no longer visi-
ble and came upon a whirlpool . Strange red rocks
were floating and disappearing from sight. As their
boat drew alongside one such rock they could see it
was ruby. The prince cast a net and drew in a dozen
large rubies.
As he drew them on board,
they belong to someone who was shipwrecked and
overboard, keeping just one which he hid among his
clothes from his mother. They sailed on and at last
came to a port. When they came ashore they realised it
was the capital of a great king. They took some cheap
rooms on the city outskirts.
Now the prince was still young and longed for compa-
ny of his age after working for a local merchant all
day. One day he came upon some youth of the town
playing marbles and they invited him to join them. But
in their game as he had no marbles of
his own. On the spur of the moment he used the red
ruby. Now it so happened that the princess was pass-
ing by and seeing the brilliant n-
chanted.
When she reached the palace she told her father that
she had never seen such a marble and would like to
possess it. The king ordered that the boy and the mar-
ble be brought to the the
brilliant stone he realised it was a so rare a gem that he
would be the envy of all.
He asked the boy how he had come upon it. The boy
said that he had got it from the sea. The king offered a
thousand rupees for the marble and the boy not realis-
ing its true value readily parted with it. He took the
money to his mother who was a little frightened won-
dering if he had stolen it for they had nothing of such
value to sell. On learning where he had got the money
she calmed down. Now at the palace the princess hap-
pily put the ruby in her hair but her
princess puts princess
went to her father in n-
other
The king sent for the boy. He was unable to describe
exactly where he had found the ruby but volunteered
to go in search of more. The king offered the boy a
handsome reward for he loved his daughter.
The boy went his home and told his mother that he
had to set off.
She was frightened but nothing could deter him. He
set off and finally after many days and getting out
several times he came upon the whirlpool. This time
though he wanted to discover the source of the rubies.
He dived into the gap in the middle of the whirlpool
and reached a beautiful palace. There he saw a young
girl imprisoned and as her tears fell on the beautiful
red corral these were transformed into rubies. Seeing
the plight of the girl he was moved and picked up one
of the golden rods lying outside her prison to break the
lock when the rod floated from his hand and touched
the bars which melted away. The girl was astonished
to see the boy and the two quickly ran from the palace
before the witch who had imprisoned her there real-
ised. The two made off with some of the rubies and
returned to the king who rewarded them. They were
married and lived happily ever after and the whirlpool
was never found again.
19. Which of the fol lowing is most nearly the OPPO-
SITE of the word TRUE as used in the passage?
(1) evil (2) disloyal
(3) untrustworthy
(4) wrong
(5) All the given options.
20. Which of the following can be said about the
(A) She loved her youngest son very much.
(B) She sometimes gave into her
(C) She was honest.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (C)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) All (A) , (B) and (C)
21. How did the king react to the
(1) He himsel f set off in search of the rubies.
(2) He tried to distract her with other jewels.
(3) He banished her to her room with only her parrot
for company.
(4) He tried to meet them.
(5) Not mentioned in the passage.
27
22. What made the boy pick up the golden rod?
(1) He wanted to take it back to the king and sell it.
(2) To rescue the girl trapped in the palace.
(3) To fish out more rubies from the whirlpool.
(4) To defend himself from
on him.
(5) Not mentioned in the passage
23. Why did the prince dive into the whirlpool?
(1) To discover the source of the rubies.
(2) To rescue the princess.
(3) To destroy the palace so that no one else would get
such rubies.
(4) He enjoyed swimming.
(5) None of the given options.
24. Why did the prince leave his palace/home?
(1) The king had banished him and the queen.
(2) His elder brothers plotted against him.
(3) He was adventurous and wanted to travel.
(4) He wanted to marry a princess from a distant land.
(5) None of the given options.
25. Which of the fol lowing is most nearly the OPPO-
SITE of the word BRILLIANT as used in the passage?
(1) dull (2) unintelligent
(3) foolish (4) unaware
(5) All the given options
26. Why did the boy play with the ruby?
(1) He knew the princess was passing by and wanted
to impress her.
(2) He wanted to participate in the game the other
boys were playing and used it as a plaything.
(3) he knew that it would fetch a handsome price.
(4) His mother would not allow him to sell it at any
cost.
(5) None of the given options.
27. Which of the fol lowing is most nearly the same in
meaning as the word CAST as used in the passage?
(1) actors (2) moulded
(3) stereotyped (4) threw
(5) selected
28. Which of the following is/are true in the context of
the story?
(1) The prince was foolish not to marry the princess.
(2) The rubies were cursed
(3) The king did not pay the boy the true worth of the
ruby the first time.
(4) The young prince was dishonest and untrustwor-
thy.
(5) All the given options are not true in the context of
the story.
29. Which of the fol lowing is most nearly the SAME
in meaning as the word SPOTTED as used in the pas-
sage?
(1) dirty (2) multicoloured
(3) saw (4) stained
(5) difficulty
30. Which of the following does not describe the prin-
cess?
(1) Stubborn (2) Demanding
(3) Determined (4) Malicious
(5) All the given options
Quantitative Aptitude 31. Rs. 4,800 was invested at 10 per cent per annum
compound interest (compounded annually) and a cer-
tain sum was invested at 20 per cent per annum com-
pound interest (compounded annually) .
After 2 years the total interest accrued from both the
schemes was Rs. 3472. What was the sum invested at
20 per cent per annum compound interest (compound-
ed annually) ?
(1) Rs. 6000 (2) Rs. 5800
(3) Rs. 5600 (4) Rs. 5200
(5) Rs. 6400
Directions (32 41) : What will come in place of ques-
tion mark
(?) in the given questions?
32. 34
× ? ÷ 9–2
= 311
(1) 36 (2) 144
(3) 9 (4) 81
(5) 729
33. √ √ =
of (?
2 ÷ 120)
(1) 60 (2) 36
(3) 40 (4) 30
(5) 20
34. 22% of 550 = (? 54) 2
(1) 69 (2) 75
(3) 68 (4) 65
(5) 72
35. 958 ?2
+ 50 = 684
(1) 20 (2) 24
(3) 22 (4) 16
(5) 18
36. ?% of (4.5 × 4 + 24) = 21
(1) 20 (2) 50
(3) 60 (4) 40
(5) 30
37. (32.5 7.5) × 5 = 50 × ?
(1) 1.5 (2) 2.5
(3) 3.5 (4) 0.5
(5) 2.4
38. ?% of 240 23 = 157
(1) 70 (2) 65
(3) 85 (4) 75
(5) 80
39. (
) ÷ ? =
(1)
(2)
28
(3)
(4)
(5)
40. ? ÷ 7.5 × 4 121 = 79
(1) 364 (2) 375
(3) 372 (4) 381
(5) 365
41. ? ÷ 1.75 4.5 = √
(1) 21 (2) 42
(3) 35 (4) 14
(5) 28
42. Two pipes can fill a tank in 30 hours and 45 hours
respectively.
A third pipe (Z) can empty the tank in x hours. If all
the pipes are opened and function simultaneously,
50% of the tank will be full in
hours. What is the
value of x?
(1) 60 (2) 75
(3) 45 (4) 50
(5) 90
43. A, B and C started a business by investing Rs.
8400, Rs. 9600 and Rs. 14000 respectively.
All of them invested for
share in annual profit was Rs. 12,600, what was the
sum of profit?
(1) Rs. 16,200 (2) Rs. 16,900
(3) Rs. 23,400 (4) Rs. 15,600
(5) Rs. 14,300
44. Four years hence, Rashmi wil l be hal f of Jas-
present age. Two years ago, the ratio between
time was 1: 3
respectively. If Jasmine is 12 years elder to Anna,
3 years hence? (in years)
(1) 33 (2) 20
(3) 29 (4) 23
(5) 26
45. There was 96 litre of pure milk in a vessel. 12
litres of pure milk was taken out and replaced with
equal quantity of water. Again 16 litres of mixture was
taken out and replaced with x litre water.
After this, respective ratio of milk and water in the
resultant mixture became 10: 3.
What is the value of x?
(1) 13 (2) 11
(3) 15 (4) 14
(5) 7
46. The side of a square of area 196 cm2
is equal to the
breadth of a rectangle of perimeter equal to 60 cm.
What is the area of the rectangle?
(in cm2)
(1) 258 (2) 244
(3) 232 (4) 216
(5) 224
47. Item A was sold at 60% profit.
If it was marked 100% above its cost price, what was
the percentage discount offered?
(1) 10 (2) 12.5
(3) 17.5
(4) 20
(5) 25
48. 16 men or 20 women can finish a work in 25 days.
How many days 28 men and 15 women will take to
finish this job?
(1)
(2)
(3) 8 (4) 10
(5) None of these
49. The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the
average weight of A and B be 45 kg and that of B and
C be 43 kg, than the weight of B is
(1) 17 kg (2) 20 kg
(3) 26 kg (4) 31 kg
(5) None of these
Directions (50 54) : What will come in place of ques-
tion mark
(?) in the given number series?
52. 3328 832 208 52 ? 3.25
(1) 7.5 (2) 11
(3) 13 (4) 15
(5) 10
51. 9 22 37 55 77 ?
(1) 105 (2) 97
(3) 115 (4) 99
(5) 104
52. 7 6 8 15 29 ?
(1) 46 (2) 52
(3) 48 (4) 50
(5) 54
53. 3 8 23 68 ? 608
(1) 198 (2) 203
(3) 212 (4) 199
(5) 215
54. 31 58 122 247 463 ?
(1) 796 (2) 806
(3) 810 (4) 792
(5) 824
55. The time taken by a boat to cover 84 km down-
stream is 2 hours 48 minutes. The speed of the boat
upstream is 24 km/h. What is the total time taken to
cover 60 km upstream and the same distance down-
stream?
(1) 4 hrs. 20 mins.
(2) 4 hrs. 30 mins.
(3) 5 hrs. 50 mins.
(4) 5 hrs. 30 mins.
(5) 6 hrs. 30 mins.
Directions (56 60) : Study the table and answer the
given questions.
29
Month
Gymnasium
May
June
July
August
September
A 160 170 150 180 180
B 240 200 210 240 250
C 220 280 250 260 225
D 180 195 200 190 185
56. What was the difference between total number of
people who visited Gymnasiums C and D together in
June and those who visited the same gymnasiums
together in August?
(1) 20 (2) 15
(3) 35 (4) 25
(5) 30
57. What was the average number of people who vis-
ited Gymnasiums A, B and D in September?
(1) 216 (2) 195
(3) 190 (4) 210
(5) 205
58. What was the respective ratio of number of people
who visited Gymnasium C in May to total number of
people who visited Gymnasium A in May and June
together?
(1) 5: 6 (2) 7: 8
(3) 3: 4 (4) 3: 5
(5) 2: 3
59. Out of the number of people who visited Gymna-
sium A in August, if
th were females, how many
were males?
(1) 84 (2) 96
(3) 80 (4) 100
(5) 128
60. Total number of people who visited Gymnasium B
in June and July together was what per cent more than
number of people who visited Gymnasium C in July?
(1) 48 (2) 56
(3) 36 (4) 44
(5) 64
61. The population of a village in 2013 was 3168. It
decreased from 2011 to 2012 by 20% and increased
from 2012 to 2013 by 10%. If in 2011 the number of
females was 1840, what was the respective ratio be-
tween the number of females and that of males in
2011?
(1) 25: 21 (2) 23: 21
(3) 26: 21 (4) 23: 22
(5) 25: 22
62. An interest of Rs. 1680 is earned when a certain
sum is invested for 5 years in Scheme-A offering sim-
ple interest at the rate of 12% per annum. If the same
sum was invested for 3 years in Scheme-B offering
simple interest at the rate of 14% per annum, what will
be the interest earned? (in Rs.)
(1) 1176 (2) 1088
(3) 1124 (4) 1512
(5) 1248
63. A man covers the first part of his journey by car-A
x x distance
at 85 km/h in 6 hours by car B. If the total distance
covered by him by both cars together was 750 km,
what is the total time taken by him to complete the
journey?
(1) 8 hours (2) 9 hours
(3) 10 hours (4) 6 hours
(5) 5 hours
64. The average scores of P, Q and R in Test-A was
80 marks. In Test-A, P scored 4 marks less than Q. In
Test-B, P got 6 marks less and Q got 4 marks more (as
compared to their respective scores in Test-A) ; and
scores was 144 marks. What
was the difference between
Test- A?
(1) 12 marks (2) 16 marks
(3) 14 marks (4) 18 marks
(5) 23 marks
65. Five tables and eight chairs corst Rs. 7350. Three
tables and five chairs cost Rs. 4475.
The price of a table is
(1) Rs. 950 (2) Rs. 325
(3) Rs. 925 (4) Rs. 350
(5) None of these
Reasoning 66. In the word CITRUS, the letter immediately be-
fore each vowel is replaced with the next alphabet (as
per the English alphabetical order) and all others re-
main unchanged.
Which of the following letters did not appear in the
word thus formed?
(1) I (2) V
(3) T (4) S
(5) D
67. In a certain code language, SHOUT is written as
*$59# and HATES is written as $4#6*. How will
HOUSE be coded in the same code language?
(1) $59#2 (2) 6$295
(3) #95$6 (4) Cannot be determined
(5) $59*6
Directions (68 70) : In each of the following ques-
tions, relationship between different elements is
shown in the statements.
The statements are followed by two Conclusions
numbered I and
30
II. Study the Conclusions based on the given statement
and select the appropriate answer.
Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclu-
sion II are true
Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion
II is true
Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I is true
Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true
Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclu-
sion II is true
68. Statements:
G < I = A < N < T
Conclusions:
I. G < T
II. G = T
69. Statements:
B < C = X > Y < Z
Conclusions:
I. B > Z
II. B = Z 70. Statements:
G < H < R > S = T > U
Conclusions:
I. R > G
II. H > U
Directions (71 72) : Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below:
A is 8m west of M. L is 9m north of A. Q is 3m west
of L. R is 14m south of Q. W is 15m east of R.
71. In which direction is M with respect to R?
(1) North-East (2) North-West
(3) North (4) South-East
(5) East
72. If C is 5m north of W, then what will be the dis-
tance between A and C?
(1) 15m (2) None of the given
options
(3) 12m (4) 5m
(5) 8m
Directions (73 75) : Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six people A, B, C, D, E and F bought different
number of books from a store. C bought more books
from only two people. A bought less books than only
F. E bought more books than both B and C. B did not
buy the least number of books. The one who bought
second lowest number of books bought 9 books.
73. If E bought 15 books, then how many books did C
possibly buy?
(1) 7 (2) 20
(3) 8 (4) 17
(5) 13
74. How many books did B buy?
(1) 16 (2) 7
(3) 9 (4) Cannot be determined
(5) 2
75. Who bought the third highest number of books?
(1) None of the given options
(2) E
(3) D (4) A
(5) C
Directions (76 80) : Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six people A, B, C, P, Q and R cleared their promo-
tion exam in different months of the same year- Janu-
ary, March, June, September, November and Decem-
ber. B cleared his exam after the eighth month of the
year but before November.
Only one person cleared the exam between B and C.
As many people cleared their exam before C as after
Q. A cleared his exam in one of the months between B
and
Q. Only two people cleared their exams between A
and R.
76. If X cleared his exam in one of the calendar
months between those of B and R, then in which
month did X clear is exam?
(1) February (2) Either April or May
(3) October (4) None of the given
options
(5) Either July or August
77. In which month did R clear his exam?
(1) March (2) December
(3) June (4) January
(5) November
78. As per the given arrangement, Q is related to P in
the same way as B is related to
C. Following the same pattern, to whom is A related?
(1) Either R or B
(2) B
(3) Either B or Q
(4) Q
(5) R
79. How many people have cleared their exam before
Q?
(1) Two (2) More than three
(3) One (4) None
(5) Three
80. Which of the following statements is true with
respect to the given arrangement?
I. C cleared his exam in a month having 31 days.
II. C cleared his exam in one of the months before B.
III. No one cleared an exam between B and R.
(1) Both I and III
(2) Only I
(3) Both II and III
(4) Only II
31
(5) All I, II and III
81. of the number
4782659 and odd digits,
then which of the following digits will appear twice in
the new number thus formed?
(1) 7, 2 (2) 1, 5, 9
(3) 7, 9 (4) 1, 9
(5) 5, 3, 7
Directions (82 85) : In each of the following ques-
tions, two or three statements followed by two Con-
clusions numbered I and II have been given. You have
to take the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from the commonly known
facts and then decide which of the given Conclusions
logically follows from the given statements.
Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclu-
sion II follow
Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion
II follows
Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I follows
Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II follows
Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclu-
sion II follows
82. Statements:
Some sketches are paintings.
All paintings are drawings.
Some drawings are letters.
Conclusions:
I. Al l sketches can never be drawings.
II. No painting is a letter.
83. Statements:
All cubes are spheres.
Some spheres are triangles.
Conclusions:
I. No cube is a triangle.
II. All spheres are cubes.
(84 85) : Statements:
Some juices are drinks.
All drinks are snacks.
No snack is cookie.
84.
Conclusions:
I. All juices can never be cookies.
II. Atleast some juices are snacks.
85.
Conclusions:
I. No drink is a cookie.
II. Atleast some juices are cookies.
Directions (86 90) : The following questions are
based on five words given below:
CAR BET AIR PIE USE
(The new words formed after performing the men-
tioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words)
86. If the first letter of the second, third and fourth
words
(from the left) are used to make a meaningful English
word, then which word will be formed?
(1) More than one word can be formed
(2) TUB
(3) No word can be formed
(4) RUB
(5) BAP
87. If all the letters in each of the given words are
rearranged in alphabetical order within the word, in
which of the following words will the last alphabet be
a vowel?
(1) Only USE (2) Both BET and AIR
(3) Only BET (4) Only CAR
(5) Both AIR and PIE
88. If in each of the given words, each of the conso-
nants is changed to the previous letter in the English
alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed
will all the letters be vowels (same or different vow-
els) ?
(1) Two (2) One
(3) All the given words
(4) Four
(5) Three
89. each of the given
words, how many meaningful English words will be
formed?
(1) One (2) Four
(3) Two (4) None
(5) Three
90. If the given words are arranged in the order as they
would appear in an English dictionary from left to
right, which of the following will be second from the
right?
(1) USE (2) CAR
(3) BET (4) PIE
(5) AIR
Directions (91 95) : Study the following arrangement
of letters, numbers and symbols carefully and answer
the questions given below:
V J T & 9 H % # Y 5 @ 7 P * A 2 π M 4 Φ K 6 F + 8
G
91. How many symbols are there between the fifth and
the sixteenth elements from the left end?
(1) Five (2) Two
(3) More than five
(4) Three
(5) Four
92. If only one meaningful English word can be made
using the letters between the seventh and the seven-
32
teenth elements from the left end, what will be the last
letter of that word?
(1) Y (2) M
(3) P (4) More than one word
can be formed using the given letters
(5) H
93. If all the symbols are deleted, then which of the
following will be the tenth element from the right end?
(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 2 (4) P (5) A
94. If all letters and symbols are deleted, then what
will be the sum of the first, third and fifth elements
from the left end?
(1) 17 (2) 10
(3) 20 (4) 14
(5) None of the given options
95. Which of the following is the eighth element to the
right of 7?
(1) F (2) Φ
(3) π (4) 6
(5) M
96. If it is possible to make only one meaningful Eng-
lish word with the first, the fourth, the fifth and the
seventh letters from the left of the word EVACUA-
TION, using all the letters but each letter only once,
which would be the second letter of the word from the
left end? If more than one such word can be formed,
give word can be
as your answer.
(1) Y (2) Z
(3) U (4) T
(5) C
97. In a straight line of 17 people
(all facing north) , B sits fifth from the right end of the
line.
Only six people sit between B and L. Q is an immedi-
ate neighbour of L. T sits fifth to the left of Q. The
number of people sitting between T and B is double of
that between Q and C. What is the position of C from
the left end of the line?
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) Ninth
(3) Twelfth (4) Fourth
(5) First
Directions (98 100) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given be-
low:
B is married to S. G is the brother of B. A is the father
of G. R is the only daughter of A. R is the mother of P.
G is married to E.
98. How is B related to P?
(1) Uncle (2) Aunt
(3) Cousin (4) Brother-in-law
(5) Sister-in-law
99. If Q is the mother-in-law of S, then how is Q relat-
ed to R?
(1) Sister-in-law
(2) Mother-in-law
(3) Grandmother (4) Aunt
(5) Mother
100. How is A related to E?
(1) Brother (2) Uncle
(3) Grandfather (4) Father-in-law
(5) Father Answer Key
1. (5) 2. (5) 3. (3) 4. (5) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (1) 10.
(2) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (4) 16. (4) 17. (1) 18.
(3) 19. (4) 20. (5) 21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26.
(2) 27. (4) 28. (5) 29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (3) 32. (5) 33. (1) 34.
(4) 35. (5) 36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42.
(1) 43. (1) 44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (5) 47. (4) 48. (4) 49. (4) 50.
(3) 51. (5) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (2) 56. (4) 57. (5) 58.
(5) 59. (3) 60. (5) 61. (4) 62. (1) 63. (1) 64. (5) 65. (1) 66.
(2) 67. (5) 68. (2) 69. (5) 70. (3) 71. (1) 72. (3) 73. (5) 74.
(3) 75. (2) 76. (3) 77. (5) 78. (2) 79. (4) 80. (1) 81. (5) 82.
(5) 83. (5) 84. (1) 85. (1) 86. (5) 87. (1) 88. (2) 89. (3) 90.
(4) 91. (5) 92. (1) 93. (4) 94. (3) 95. (2) 96. (3) 97. (5) 98.
(1) 99. (5) 100. (4)
33
Solutions: 1. (5) Cause (Verb) = make some-
thing happen. Morale (Noun) = the
amount of confidence felt by a per-
son.
2. (5) Able (Adjective) = having the
means to do something.
3. (3) Lack (Noun) = not sufficient or
enough; deficiency
4. (5) Rate (Verb) = consider to be of
a certain quality or standard.
5. (2) Understand (Verb) = to know
why or why something happens.
6. (2) The correct spelling is digi-
tal.
7. (3) The appropriate word is
check (= examine)
8. (1) The correct spelling is
joined. Join (Verb) = to become a
member of an organisation.
9. (1) Waste (Adjective) = useless;
discarded. Vast (Adjective) = ex-
tremely big Hence, the appropriate
word is vast.
10. (2) The appropriate word is
last.
11. (3) Here, after its, Noun i.e. and
its impact..... should be used.
12. (1) All the Airlines is a Plural
Subject. Hence, Plural Verb i.e. All
the Airlines are..... should be used.
13. (3) Infinitive = to + V1 Hence,
and were all set to explore..... should
be used here.
14. (3) The use of preposition of is
superfluous.
15. (4) Infinitive = to + V1 Hence,
stopped there to drink water.....
should be used here.
16. (4) Which is why is used to in-
troduce a sub-ordinate clause.
Hence, which is why..... should be
used here.
17. (1) Hour Vowel sound Hence,
All of them met after an hour.....
should be used here.
18. (3) The sentence shows past
time. Hence, Past Simple i.e., market
and sold..... should be used here.
19. (4) True (Adjective) = accurate or
exact. Its antonym should be wrong.
25. (1) Brilliant (Adjective) = very
bright; shining. Its antonym should
be dull which means : lacking
brightness.
27. (4) Cast (Verb) = throw some-
thing forcefully. Look at the sen-
tence : He cast the book down on to
the chair angrily.
29. (3) Spot (Verb) = see, notice,
observe. Look at the sentence : The
police spotted him driving a stolen
car.
(3) Case I,
C.I. [(
)
]
[(
) ]
[(
) ]
. 1008
Case II,
Principal
C.I. [(
) ]
[(
) ]
[(
) ]
(
) Rs.
According to the question,
Rs. 5600
32. (5) √ (3)
√
√
√
√
33. (1) √ √
√
√ √
34. (4)
35. (5) 1008 ?2
√
36. (2)
37. (2) ?
?
38. (4)
39. (2) (
)
(
)
40. (2) ?
121 79
41. (1)
√
42. (1) Time taken in filling half
of the tank
hours
Time taken in filling the
tank fully
hours
According to the question,
hours
43. (1) Ratio of the shares of
and : 9600: 14000
. 16200
44. (4) Two years ago
years
years
years
4 years hence from today,
years
According to the question,
2
years
34
years
years
45. (2) Case I,
Milk: Water : : 1
In 16 litres of mixture,
Milk
litres
Water litres
According to the question,
litres
46. (5) Perimeter of rectangle
cm.
cm. (i)
Side of square √ cm.
Width of rectangle cm.
cm.
Area of rectangle sq. cm.
47. (4) C.P. of article . 100
Its marked price
S.P. of article Rs. 160
Discount . (200 160)
If discount , then
48. (4) 16 men women
4 men women
28 men women
men men
days
49. (4) A + B + C = 45 × 3 = 135 kg
... (i)
A + B = 2 × 40 = 80 kg .... (ii)
B + C = 2 × 43 = 86 kg. .... (iii)
By equatino (ii) + (iii) (i) ,
= (86 + 80 135) kg
= 31 kg.
50. (3) The pattern is :
3328 ÷ 4 = 832
832 ÷ 4 = 208
208 ÷ 4 = 52
52 ÷ 4 = 13
13 ÷ 4 = 3.25
51. (5) The pattern is :
9 + 13 = 22
22 + 15 (= 13 + 2) = 37
37 + 18 (= 15 + 3) = 55
55 + 22 (= 18 + 4) = 77
77 + 27 (= 22 + 5) = 104
52. (2) The pattern is :
7 1 = 6
6 + 2 (= 1 + 3) = 8
8 + 7 (= 2 + 5) = 15
15 + 14 (= 7 + 7) = 29
29 + 23 (= 14 + 9) = 52
53. (2) The pattern is :
3 × 3 1 = 9 1 = 8
8 × 3 1 = 24 1 = 23
23 × 3 1 = 69 1 = 68
68 × 3 1 = 204 1 = 203
203 × 3 1 = 609 1 = 608
54. (2) The pattern is :
31 + 33 = 31 + 27 = 58
58 + 43 = 58 + 64 = 122
122 + 53 = 122 + 125 = 247
247 + 63 = 247 + 216 = 463
463 + 73 = 463 + 343 = 806
55. (2) 2 hours 48 minutes
hours
hours
hours
Rate downstream of boat
(
) kmph
(
) kmph
kmph
Required time
(
) hours
(
) hours
(
) hours
hours 30 minutes
56. (4) Required difference
57. (5) Required average
58. (5) Required ratio
:
59. (3) Number of people whc
come to gmnasium A in August
Number of men
(
) of 180
60. (5) Required percent
(
)
(
)
61. (4) Let the population of village
in 2011 be According to the question,
(
) (
)
(
) (
)
Females
Males
Required ratio : 1760
62. (1) Case I,
Principal
. 2800
Case II,
S.I.
. 1176
63. (1) Distance Speed Time
According to the question,
√ Time taken in the first part
of journey hours
Required total time
hours hours
64. (5) In Test (i)
(ii)
In Test
In Test
Required difference
65. (1) C.P. of 1 table
C.P. of 1 chair
According to the question.
(i)
35
(ii)
By equation (i) equation
(ii)
68. (2) G < I = A < N < T G = I = A
= N = T or, G < I = A < N < T or, G
< I = A < N < T Conclusions : I. G <
T : Not True II. G = T : Not True G
is either smaller than or equal to T.
Therefore, either Conclusion I or
Conclusion II is true.
69. (5) B < C = X > Y < Z Conclu-
sions : I. B > Z : Not True II. B = Z :
Not True
70. (3) G < H < R > S = T > U Con-
clusions : I. R > G : True II. H > U :
Not True
76. 80.
Month Person
January Q
March A
June P
September B
November R
December C
98. 100. B and S are married cou-
ple. A is the father of B, G and R. R
is the only daughter of A. Therefore,
B is the son of A. Now, B is the
husband of S. G is the husband of E.
36
RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-
2) English Language
Directions (1 5) : Each sentence given below has
two blanks. Each blank indicates that something
has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits in
the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. Realistically, however this disconnect cannot
_______ itself very long, sooner rather than
_______ the whole will no doubt converge.
(1) sustain, later
(2) sustained, later
(3) submerge, latter
(4) harmonize, lately
(5) mend, lately
2. Digitisation will _______ a couple of billion
dollars in pay revenues, bring more taxes choice
and clean out black money _______ cable.
(1) realise, from (2) replenish, off
(3) release, from (4) revive, with
(5) supply, with
3. Public sector infrastructure financing companies
could _______ ng
_______ of guaranteed returns on investments.
(1) opt for, crisis
(2) opt out, lack
(3) prefer, excess
(4) select, lack
(5) opt, cause
4. Looks like the oil markets are not only showing
_______ between the physical and the financial
perspectives from time to time but also _______
between the short term view and the long term real-
ities.
(1) disconnect, convergence
(2) disconnect, divergence
(3) connection, difference
(4) supply, demand
(5) similarity, contrast
5. Top global oil exporter Saudi Arabia _______ its
crude production in April to a record high, _______
its flourishing Asian market share.
(1) rose, feed (2) risen, collecting
(3) raised, lead (4) raised, feeding
(5) increased, healing
Directions (6 15) : Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you
locate them while answering some of the questions.
Core competencies and focus are now the mantras
of corporate strategists in Western economies. But
while managers in the West have dismantled many
conglomerates assembled in the 1960s and 1970s,
the large, diversified business group remains the
dominant form of enterprise throughout most
emerging markets. Some groups operate as holding
companies with full ownership in many enterprises,
others are collections of publicly traded companies,
but all have some degree of central control.
As emerging markets open up to global competi-
tion, consultants and foreign investors are increas-
ingly pressuring these groups to conform to West-
ern practice by scaling back the scope of their busi-
ness activities. The conglomerate is the dinosaur of
organizational design, they argue, too unwieldy and
fast-paced markets. Al-
ready a number of executives have decided to break
up their groups in order to show that they are focus-
ing on only a few core businesses.
There are reasons to worry about this trend. Focus
is good advice in New York or London, but some-
thing important gets lost in translation when that
advice is given to groups in emerging markets.
Western companies take for granted a range of in-
stitutions that support their business activities, but
many of these institutions are absent in other re-
gions of the world. Without effective securities
regulation and venture capital firms, for example,
focused companies may be unable to raise adequate
financing; and without strong educational institu-
tions, they will struggle to hire skilled employees.
Communicating with customers is difficult when
the local infrastructure is poor, and unpredictable
government behavior can stymie any operation.
Although a focused strategy may enable a company
to perform a few activities well, companies in
emerging markets must take responsibility for a
wide range of functions in order to do business ef-
fectively.
In the case of product markets, buyers and sellers
usually suffer from a severe dearth of information
for three reasons. First, the communications infra-
structure in emerging markets is often under-
developed. Even as wireless communication
spreads throughout the West, vast stretches in coun-
tries such as China and India remain without tele-
phones. Power shortages often render the modes of
communication that do exist ineffective. The postal
service is typically inefficient, slow, or unreliable;
and the private sector rarely provides efficient cou-
rier services. High rates of illiteracy make it diffi-
cult for marketers to communicate effectively with
customers.
37
Second, even when information about products
does get around, there are no mechanisms to cor-
roborate the claims made by sellers. Independent
consumer-information organizations are rare, and
government watchdog agencies are of little use.
The few analysts who rate products are generally
less sophisticated than their counterparts in ad-
vanced economies.
Third, consumers have no redress mechanisms if a
product does not deliver on its promise. Law en-
forcement is often capricious and so slow that few
who assign any value to time would resort to it.
Unlike in advanced markets, there are few extraju-
dicial arbitration mechanisms to which one can
appeal.
As a result of this lack of information, companies in
emerging markets face much higher costs in build-
ing credible brands than their counterparts in ad-
vanced economies. In turn, established brands
wield tremendous power. A conglomerate with a
reputation for quality products and services can use
its group name to enter new businesses, even if
those businesses are completely unrelated to its
current lines. Groups also have an advantage when
they do try to build up a brand because they can
spread the cost of maintaining it across multiple
lines of business. Such groups then have a greater
incentive not to damage brand quality in any one
business because they will pay the price in their
other businesses as well.
6. Which of the following sentence(s) is/are correct
in the context of the given passage ?
I. Consultants and foreign investors argue that the
conglomerate is the dinosaur of organisational de-
sign too unwieldly and slow to compete s
fast-paced markets.
II. Core competencies and focus are now the man-
tras of corporate strategists in western economies.
III. Due to lack of information required, companies
in emerging markets face much higher costs in
building credible brands in comparison to their
counterparts in advanced economies.
(1) Only I (2) Only II and III
(3) Only I and III
(4) Only I and II
(5) All I, II and III
7. What suggestions have been cited by the writer
in regard to raising adequate financing and hiring
skilled employees ?
(1) Effective securities regulation
(2) Effective securities regulation and venture capi-
tal firms
(3) Effective securities regulation and venture capi-
tal firms and strong educational institutions
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(5) None of these
8. The writer has cited some hurdles in the case of
product markets regarding shortage of information.
Which of the following statement(s) in this regard
is/are true ?
I. Communications infrastructure in emerging mar-
kets is often under developed.
II. Postal service is typically inefficient, slow or
unreliable.
III. High rates of illiteracy make it difficult for
marketers to communicate effectively with custom-
ers.
(1) Only I (2) Only III
(3) Only II and III
(4) Only I and II
(5) All I, II and III
9. Which of the following statements is correct in
regard to the given passge ?
(1) The few analysts in emerging markets who rate
products are generally less sophisticated than their
counterparts in advanced economies.
(2) Unlike in advanced markets there are few extra-
judicial arbi trat ion mechanisms in emerging mar-
kets to which one can appeal.
(3) Even as wireless communication spreads
throughout the West, vast regions of China and
India remain without telephones.
(4) Unpredictable government behaviour can sty-
mie any operation.
(5) All are correct
10. Established brands can wield tremendous power
in emerging markets because
(1) a conglomerate with a reputation for quality
products and services can use its group name to
enter new businesses.
(2) they have much political nexus and strong man
power
(3) they have excess of money and customeRs (4)
they have greater incentive to damage brand quality
in any one business
(5) None of these
11. What should be the most appropriate title of this
passage ?
(1) Hurdles in Emerging markets
(2) What is an Emerging market
(3) Lack of Information in Emerging Markets
(4) Advanced Markets Eat Emerging Markets
(5) None of these
Directions (12 13) : Choose the word/group of
words which is most similar in meaning to the
38
word/group of words printed in bold as used in the
passage.
12. CONFORM TO
(1) comply (2) conflict between
(3) confirm (4) confiscate
(5) confine to
13. DISMANTLE
(1) take together (2) hold
(3) take apart (4) disorder
(5) dismount
Directions (14 15) : Choose the word which is
MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
14. CAPRICIOUS
(1) unpredictable (2) predictable
(3) changeable (4) captive
(5) reasonable
15. DEARTH
(1) scarcity (2) Shortage
(3) paucity (4) abundance
(5) debility
Directions (16 20) : Rearrange the following six
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the
proper sequence to form meaningful paragraph;
then answer the questions given below them
as dramatic as
the declines associated with Colony Collapse Dis-
order (CCD), which was first identified in October
2006
(B) Beekeepers tapped for the survey manage a
total of 400,000 colonies, representing about 14.5
percent of the
(C) Overall, colony losses during the 12-month
period that ended in April reached 42.1 percent
the second-highest annual loss to date
(D) Summer colony losses reached 27.4 percent,
exceeding winter losses that came in at 23.7 percent
(E) For the first time, beekeepers watched more of
their colonies disappear during the summer than in
winter
(F) A new survey outlining honeybee colony losses
in the U.S. has scientists scratching their heads.
16. Which of the following should be the FIRST
sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) F (4) E
(5) D
17. Which of the following should be the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) E (2) F
(3) A (4) B
(5) C
18. Which of the following should be the SIXTH
sentence after rearrangement.
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) E
19. Which of the following should be the
FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) E
20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH
sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) E
Directions (21 25) : Read each sentence to find
out whether there is any grammatical error or idio-
matic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one
part of the sentence. The number of that part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ig-
nore errors of punctuation, if any.)
21. Profitability of fleet operators (1)/ have im-
proved due to a decline (2)/ in fuel prices during
(3)/ the last two months. (4)/ No error (5).
22. We are a young country, (1)/ a brash country, a
forward (2)/ looking country, and (3)/ true history
interest us a lot. (4)/ No error
(5).
23. The joint statement included (1)/ just three lines
on military (2)/ cooperation, restriction itself for
(3)/ exercise and ship visits. (4)/ No error (5).
24. In a country currently there is (1)/ absolute no
shortage in fact (2)/ there is an abundance of pilots
holding (3)/ a valid licence but unable to find a job.
(4)/ No error (5).
25. WPI might have turned negative primarily (1)/
due to a steep decline in the prices (2)/ of non-food
articles (3)/ raising vegetable prices keep food arti-
cles firm during this month. (4)/ No error (5)
Directions (26 30) : In the following passage
there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and
against each, five words are suggested, one of
which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word in each case.
There is plenty written about the wealth divide in
the U.S. economy. But there is another important
divide the one between consumers and corpora-
tions.
If you look at how U.S. households have been be-
having (26) think it was all blue skies. Con-
sumer confidence is at a five-year high, thanks to
higher stock prices and a (27) in the housing mar-
39
ket. Home prices have had their biggest jump since
2005
Consumers, finally feeling more (28) are buying
that new car or electronic gadget and bolstering
GDP growth a bit. The wealth gap between Ameri-
high income group and everyone else has (29)
record high levels since the economic recovery
from the Great Recession of 2007-09, with a clear
(30) of increasing wealth for the upper-income fam-
ilies and no wealth growth for the middle- and low-
er-income families.
26. (1) late (2) lately
(3) uniformly (4) eager
(5) earnestly
27. (1) discovery (2) growing
(3) recovery (4) delivery
(5) depletion
28. (1) flush (2) happy
(3) satisfied (4) flung
(5) flunk
29. (1) reach (2) reached
(3) delivered (4) targeted
(5) subjugated
30. (1) target (2) projection
(3) trajectory (4) tarnation
(5) temptation.
Directions (31 35) : Study the following table
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Number of students enrolled in 4 different
courses of a college during the given years Years
2010 2011 2012 Courses Total Total Total Total
Total Total No. of Female No. of Femal No. of
Female Students Students Students Students Stu-
dents Students
2010 2011 2012
Courses Total Female Total Female Total Female
A 840 378 820 553 800 432
B 1200 660 1200 660 1250 750
C 952 342 900 360 980 441
D 900 540 860 602 700 525
31. What was the average number of boys studying
in all four courses of the college in the year 2010 ?
(1) 493 (2) 480
(3) 439 (4) 468
(5) None of these
32. What was the average number of female stu-
dents studying in all four courses of the college in
the year 2012 ?
(1) 573 (2) 537
(3) 437 (4) 473
(5) None of these
33. By what percent approximately is the number
of boys studying in all four courses of the college in
the year 2011 less than that of the girl students
studying in all four courses in the same year ?
(1) 32 (2) 30
(3) 26 (4) 22
(5) None of these
34. What is the difference between the number of
girls studying in all four courses in the year 2010
and that of boys studying in all four courses in the
year 2011 ?
(1) 205 (2) 215
(3) 305 (4) 315
(5) None of these
35. What is the respective ratio between the total
number of boys in courses B and D together in
2010 and that of all students in courses A and D in
2012 ?
(1) 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 7 (4) 4 : 5
(5) None of these
36. A dealer allowed a discount of 25% on the
marked price of Rs. 12000 on an article and in-
curred a loss of 10%. What discount should he al-
low on the marked price so that he gains Rs. 440 on
the article ?
(1) 11% (2) 13%
(3) 19% (4) 15%
(5) None of these
Quantitative Aptitude Directions (37 41) : Study the following line graph
carefully to answer the given questions.
Number of projects handled by 6 companies
during 6 years
37. What is the average number of projects handled
by company A during all the given years ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5) None of these
40
38. What is the respective ratio between the total
number of projects handled by both companies in
the years 2002 and 2003 ?
(1) 4 : 5 (2) 5 : 9
(3) 7 : 9 (4) 5 : 7
(5) None of these
39. By what per cent is the number of projects han-
dled by company B in the year 2006 more than that
handled in the year 2002 by the same company ?
(1) 84% (2) 86%
(3) 72% (4) 76%
(5) None of these
40. What is the average number of projects handled
by company B during all the given years ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5) None of these
41. What is the difference between the total number
of projects handled by company A and company B
in the years 2001, 2003 and 2006 taken together ?
(1) 250 (2) 230
(3) 260 (4) 240
(5) None of these
42. A man gave 20% of his salary to his only son
and only daughter.
The ratio of amount given to son and daughter is 3 :
2 respectively.
Twice the amount what he gave to his daughter, he
invested in LIC. Out of the remaining amount he
gave one fourth to his wife.
After that he was left with Rs 16800. Find out the
amount invested in LIC.
(1) Rs. 5600 (2) Rs. 5400
(3) Rs. 5800 (4) Rs. 6200
(5) None of these
43. In a vessel there is 40 litres mixture of milk and
water. There is 15% water in the mixture. The
milkman sells 10 litres of mixture to a customer and
thereafter adds 12.5 litres of water to the remaining
mixture. What is the respective ratio of milk and
water in the new mixture ?
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3
(5) None of these
44. A boat covers a distance of 2.75 km upstream in
11 minutes. The ratio between speed of current and
that of boat downstream is 1 : 7 respectively. The
boat covers distance between A and B downstream
in 52 minutes. What is the distance between point
A and point B ?
(1) 19.2 km. (2) 17.2 km.
(3) 18.2 km. (4) 16.5 km.
(5) None of these
Directions (45-49) : What will come in place of the
question mark (?) in each of the following number
series ?
45. 125 128 119 146 65 ?
(1) 308 (2) 316
(3) 298 (4) 294
(5) 264
46. 8 17 30 47 68 ?
(1) 83 (2) 93
(3) 98 (4) 95
(5) 96
47. 24 12 12 18 ? 90
(1) 40 (2) 38
(3) 36 (4) 45
(5) None of these
48. 5 16 49 104 ? 280
(1) 165 (2) 160
(3) 171 (4) 181
(5) 175
49. 13 19 30 48 75 ?
(1) 107 (2) 108
(3) 116 (4) 112
(5) 113
50. A and B together can complete a piece of work
in
days white B and C together can complete
the same work in
days. B is 25% more effi-
cient than C. In how many days will A and C to-
gether complete the same work ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5) None of these
51. The sum of present ages of Ria and Abby is 48
years. Today Abby is 4 years older than Shweta.
The respective ratio of the present ages of Ria and
Shweta is 4 : 7
ago ?
(1) 32 years (2) 30 years (3) 28 years (4) 34 years
(5) None of these
Directions (52 56) : What approximate value will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the fol-
lowing questions ? (You are not expected to calcu-
late the exact value).
52. 52.02% of 749 + 45% of 419.98 ? = 152
(1) 354 (2) 364
(3) 370 (4) 368
(5) None of these
53. 349.98 × 19.99 + ?2 × 180.16 = 11500
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 9
(5) 25
41
54. e1800 √ 29.99j ÷ 15.02
(1) 12 (2) 25
(3) 625 (4) 144
(5) 169
55. (52.022 34.012) ÷ 17.99 × √
= 1720
(1) 400 (2) 20
(3) 25 (4) 625
(5) None of these
56. (340 × 9.98) ÷ 6.4001 + 1245.15 = ?
(1) 1766 (2) 1776
(3) 1676 (4) 1876
(5) 1806
57. A, B and C together start a business.
The ratio of the investments of A, B and C is 0.125
: 0.75 :
0.25. After 8 months A adds thrice amount of his
earlier investment and C withdraws half of his ear-
lier investment. At the end of the year, they earn a
total profit the
profit ?
(1) Rs. 3400 (2) Rs. 3200
(3) Rs. 3600 (4) Rs. 3800
(5) None of these
58. In a bag there are 4 white, 4 red and 2 green
balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the
probability that at least one ball is of green colour ?
(1) 4/5 (2) 3/5
(3) 1/5 (4) 2/5
(5) None of these
59. Equal amounts are invested in two schemes A
and B for 6 years and 8 years respectively. Scheme
A offers interest at the rate of 12% per annum and
scheme B offers interest at the rate of 8% per an-
num.
The difference between the interests earned is Rs.
1280
What is the amount invested in each scheme ?
(1) Rs. 16000 (2) Rs. 16500
(3) Rs. 17000 (4) Rs. 18000
(5) None of these
60. The area of a rectangle is equal to the area of a
square whose diagonal is 12 √ metre. The differ-
ence between the length and the breadth of the rec-
tangle is 6 metre.
What is the perimeter of rectangle ? (in metre).
(1) 160 metre (2) 80 metre
(3) 82 metre (4) 84 metre
(5) None of these
Directions (61 65) : In the following questions two
equations numbered I and II are given. You have to
solve both the equations and
Give answer (1) if x > y
Give answer (2) if x > y
Give answer (3) if x < y
Give answer (4) if x < y
Give answer (5) if x = y or the relationship cannot
be established.
61. I. 3x2 + 14x + 15 = 0
II. 6y2 + 17y + 12 = 0
62. I. 3x2 17x + 24 = 0
II. 4y2 15y + 14 = 0
63. I. 2x2 + 11x + 14 = 0
II. 2y2 + 17y + 33 = 0
64. I. 3x2 + 13x + 12 = 0
II. 2y2 + 15y + 27 = 0
65. I. x2 22x + 121 = 0
II. y2 = 121
Reasoning Directions (66 70) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight friends C, D, E, F, N, O, P and Q are
sitting in a straight line facing north but not neces-
sarily in the same order. O is sitting second to the
right of P. E is sitting third to the left of Q. F is sit-
ting fourth to the left of P. E does not sit on the
extreme end of the line. D is immediate neighbour
of neither F nor P. C is not an immediate neighbour
of P.
66. Which of the following pairs represents the two
persons sitting at the extreme ends of the line ?
(1) F, C (2) D, F
(3) C, Q (4) N, D
(5) O, F
67. Which of the following statements is definitely
true as per the given arrangement ?
(1) F and E are immediate neighbours of P.
(2) C is sitting third to the right of Q.
(3) There are only three persons between D and E.
(4) N is sitting to the immediate left of P.
(5) All the given statements are true
68. Who among the following is sitting third to the
right of N ?
(1) O (2) D
(3) C (4) E
(5) Q
69. What is the position of C with respect to Q ?
(1) Fourth to the right
(2) Third to the right
(3) Fourth to the left
(4) Third to the left
(5) Second to the right
70. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the given arrangement and hence
42
they form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group ?
(1) FN (2) PD
(3) EQ (4) CP
(5) NQ
Directions (71 73) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
S is the daughter of U. V has only two children S
and Y. Y is married to D. P is the brother of B. V
has only two daughters. J is the mother of U. J is
married to L. P is married to S. V is the son of T.
71. Who among the following is the sister in law
of B ?
(1) Y (2) S
(3) U (4) J
(5) T
72. Who among the following is the father of U ?
(1) J (2) T
(3) V (4) L
(5) None of these
73. How is V related to P ?
(1) Father in law (2) Mother in law
(3) Father (4) Mother
(5) Brother
74. Point A is 30 metres to the east of point B.
Point C is 10 metres to the south of Point A. Point
D is 15 metres to the west of Point C. Point E is
exactly in the middle of the Points D and F. Points
D, E and F lie in a straight line.
The length of the line DEF is 20 metres. Point F is
to the north of Point D. Point G is 15 metres to the
east of Point F. How far and in which direction is
Point G from Point A ?
(1) 10 metres, South
(2) 15 metres, North
(3) 10 metres, North
(4) 15 metres, South
(5) 10 metres, East
75. A person starts from his house and moves to-
wards the market. He walks 40 metres towards
south and takes a right turn. After walking 30 me-
tres he takes a left turn and walks 20 metres. Finally
he takes a left turn and reach the market after walk-
ing 30 metres. How far and in which direction is his
house from the market ?
(1) 60 metres, South
(2) 60 metres, North
(3) 70 metres, North
(4) 70 metres, South
(5) 90 metres, North
Directions (76 80) : In each question given below
two or three statements followed by two Conclu-
sions numbered I and II have been given.
You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from the com-
monly known facts and then decide which of the
following Conclusions logically follows from the
given statements, disregarding commonly known
facts.
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II follows
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-
sion II follows
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-
clusion II follows
Give answer (5) if both the Conclusions I and II
follow
(76 77) : Statements All magazines are journals.
Some journals are periodicals.
All periodicals are bulleteins.
76.
Conclusions I. Some periodicals are definitely not
journals.
II. All periodicals being magazines is a possibility.
77.
Conclusions I. At least some bulleteins are jour-
nals.
II. No bulletein is a magazine.
78. Statements All turns are loops.
No loop is a bend.
Some bends are curves.
Conclusions I. At least some curves are loops.
II. No bend is a turn.
79. Statements No country is a village.
All villages are districts.
Conclusions I. All countries are districts.
II. All districts are villages.
80. Statements All progress are growth.
All developments are growth.
No growth is an evolution.
Conclusions I. All developments being progress is
a possibility.
II. No evolution is a progress.
Directions (81 85) : In each of the following ques-
tions, relationship between different elements is
shown in the statements. The statements are fol-
lowed by two Conclusions numbered I and.
II. Study the Conclusions based on the given state-
ments and select the appropriate answer :
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-
sion II is true
43
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-
clusion II is true
Give answer (5) if both the Conclusions I and II
are true
(81 82) : Statements Y < K < D = S ; D < V < O ;
G > D < Q
81.
Conclusions I. G > V. II. Y < Q
82.
Conclusions I. K < O. II. G = V
83. Statements D < L < F = N ; L = A
Conclusions I. N > D. II. A < F
(84 85) : Statements B > Z = R > M < J < H ; J >
P ; K < Z
84.
Conclusions I. H < P. II. B > M
85.
Conclusions I. K < J. II. R > H
Directions (86 90) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
In a certain code language,
86. given code lan-
guage ?
(1) ge (2) kw
(3) nj (4) sy
(5) bo
87. in the given
code language ?
(1) bo kw (2) kw nj
(3) rd bo (4) rd nj
(5) Cannot be determined
88.
the given code language ?
(1) sy bo ux fp (2) fp ta rd kw
(3) ge fp ta bo (4) mr ta sy fp
(5) bo nj ta ge
89. What is th the given code
language ?
(1) fp (2) rd
(3) kw (4) bo
90.
the given code language ?
(1) sy bo mr fp (2) ta nj kw rd
(3) ta fp ux nj (4) mr sy bo ta
(5) ux ge nj sy
Directions (91 95) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are
sitting around a circular table at equal distance be-
tween each other, but not necessarily in the same
order. Some of them are facing the centre while
some others are facing outside (i.e., in a direction
opposite to the centre) Note : Facing the same di-
rection means if one faces the centre then the other
also faces the centre and vice versa. Facing oppo-
site directions means if one person faces the centre
then the other person faces outside and vice versa.
R is sitting second to the right of Q. Only three per-
sons are sitting between R and S. T is sitting second
to the right of R. T faces the centre. R and S face
opposite directions. P and S face opposite direc-
tions. N is sitting second to the left of P. P is not an
immediate neighbour of Q. Only one person is sit-
ting between P and O. O is not an immediate
neighbour of Q. M is sitting third to the left of T.
The immediate neighbours of T face opposite direc-
tions. M and R face opposite directions. N faces the
same direction as that of O.
91. Which of the following statements is true re-
garding T according to the given seating arrange-
ment ?
(1) T is sitting second to the left of S.
(2) T is sitting exactly between O and P.
(3) T is sitting just opposite to N.
(4) There are four persons between T and Q.
(5) T faces the opposite direction as that of M.
92. How many persons in the given seating ar-
rangement face outside?
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Five (4) Six
(5) Two
93. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the given seating arrangement and
hence they form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group ?
(1) O (2) S
(3) M (4) Q
(5) N
94. Who among the following sits exactly between
S and Q when counted from the left of S ?
(1) None (2) O
(3) M (4) N
(5) T
95. What is the position of M with respect to R ?
(1) Other than those given as options
(2) Third to the right
(3) Second to the left
44
(4) Second to the right
(5) Third to the left
Directions (96 100) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Seven persons M, N, O, P, Q, R and S live on
separate floors of a seven storeyed building, but
not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor
of the building is numbered 1, the floor above it 2
and so on until the topmost floor is numbered 7.
Each person likes differnt cartoon characters, viz,
Chipmnuk, Flinstone, Jetson, Popeye, Scooby Doo,
Simpson and Tweety, but not necessarily in the
same order.
The person who likes Popeye lives on floor num-
bered 4. Only two persons live between P and the
one who likes Popeye. M does not live on the low-
ermost floor. M lives on any odd numbered floor
below the one who likes Popeye. S lives on an even
numbered floor but neither immediately above nor
immediately below the floor of M. Only two per-
sons live between M and the person who likes
Tweety.
Only one person lives between N and R. R lives on
an even numbered floor and does not like Popeye.
Only three persons live between the persons who
like Chipmnuk and Jetson respectively.
The person who likes Chipmnuk live on any floor
The person who likes Chipmanuk does not live on
the topmost floor. O does not like Chipmnuk or
Jetson. The person who likes Scooby Doo lives on
the floor immediately above the floor of the perosn
who likes Simpson.
96. How many persons live between the floors on
which S and P live ?
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) Four (4) Five
(5) No One
97. Which of the following statements is/are true
according to the given information?
(1) Q lives on floor numbered 5 and he does not
like Popeye
(2) M likes Scooby Doo and he does not live on
floor numbered 4.
(3) O likes Flinstone and he lives on the topmost
floor
(4) Only two persons live between the floors of Q
and R
(5) All the statements are true
98. Who among the following lives on the floor
immediately above the floor of M ?
(1) N (2) R
(3) S (4) O
(5) No One
99. Who among the following lives exactly be-
tween the floors on which S and N live ?
(1) P (2) R
(3) M (4) Q
(5) No one
100. Who among the followimg does like cartoon
character Jetson ?
(1) R (2) P
(3) N (4) Q
(5) S
Answer Key 1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (5) 7. (3) 8. (5) 9.
(5) 10. (1) 11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (4) 16.
(3) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (2) 22. (4) 23.
(3) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30.
(3) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (1) 36. (2) 37.
(2) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (1) 41. (2) 42. (1) 43. (2) 44.
(3) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (5) 50. (1) 51.
(2) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (2) 57. (3) 58.
(4) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (3) 62. (1) 63. (1) 64. (2) 65.
(5) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (1) 69. (3) 70. (5) 71. (2) 72.
(4) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (1) 78. (2) 79.
(4) 80. (5) 81. (2) 82. (1) 83. (5) 84. (2) 85. (4) 86.
(3) 87. (1) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (5) 91. (2) 92. (1) 93.
(4) 94. (3) 95. (5) 96. (3) 97. (5) 98. (1) 99. (4) 100.
(2)
Solutions: 12. (1) Conform to (Verb) = to agree
with or match something; comply ;
to obey. Look at the sentence : It did
not conform to the usual stereotype
of an industrial city.
13. (3) Dismantle (Verb) = to take
apart ; to end an organisation or
system gradually in an organised
way. Look at the sentence : The
government was in the process of
dismantling the state owned indus-
tries.
14. (2) Capricious (Adjective) =
unpredictable, changeable ; changing
suddenly and quickly.
15. (4) Dearth (Noun) = a lack of
something ; the fact of there not
being enough of something; scarcity.
Abundance (Noun) = in large quanti-
ties ; more than enough. Look at the
sentences : There was a dearth of
reliable information on the subject.
Fruit and vegetables grow in abun-
dance on the island.
21. (2) Here, subject (profitability of
fleet operators) is singular. Hence,
has improved due to a decline ....
should be used.
22. (4) Here, subject (true history) is
singular. Hence, true history inter-
ests us a lot .... should be used.
23. (3) Here, cooperation, restricting
(Gerund) itself to .... should be used.
24. (2) Here, it is Preposition/Adverb
related error. Hence, absolutely (Ad-
verb) no shortage of .... should be
used.
25. (4) Raise = to increase the level
or amount of something. Rise = to
reach a higher level ; move upwards.
Hence, rising vegetable prices kept
(V2) ....... should be used here. Past
time is evident.
31. (1) Number of boys in 2010 :
Course A 840 378 = 462
Course B 1200 660 = 540
Course C 952 342 = 610
Course D 900 540 = 360
Required average
32. (2) Required average
33. (3) Number of Uoys in 2011 :
Course
Course
Course
Course
Their total number
Total number of girls Required percent
34. (4) Total number of girls in 2010
Total number of boys in 2011
Required difference
35. (1) Number of Uoys in courses
and in 2010
Required ratio
: : : 5
36. (2) C.P. of article (let).
Rs. 10000
Again, profit . 440
S.P. Rs. 10440
Discount 2000 10440
Rs. 1560
If discount , then
37. (2) Number of projects handled
By
company
38. (3) Required ratio
: (550 350)
: : 9
39. (4) Required percent
. (1) Average number of projects
handled By company
41. (2) Number of projects handled
in
the years 2001 , 2003 and 2006:
Company 190 350 570
Company Required difference
42. (1) Initial amount with the per-
son
(let)
Amount given to the son and the
daughter
Amount given to daughter
Rs.
Amount invested in LIC
Remaining amount
Rs. (
)
Rs. (
)
Rs.
Amount given to wife
Rs.
Remaining amount
Rs.
. 35000
Amount invested in LIC
. 5600
43. (2) In 30 litres of mixture, Milk
litres
Water litres
On adding 12.5 litres of water
Total quantity of water
litres
Required ratio of milk and
water
: : : 2
44. (3) Speed of boat in still water
kmph
Speed of current kmph.
Rate downstream
kmph.
Rate upstream kmph.
Again,
kmph.
46
kmph
Rate downstream
kmph
Distance between points A and
Rate downstream Time
km.
45. (1) The pattern is :
125 + 3 = 128
128 32 = 128 9 = 119
119 + 33 = 119 + 27 = 146
146 34 = 146 81 = 65
65 + 35 = 65 + 243 = 308
46. (2) The pattern is :
8 + 9 = 17
17 + 13 (= 9 + 4) = 30
30 + 17 (=13 + 4) = 47
47 + 21 (=17 + 4) = 68
68 + 25 ( = 21 + 4) = 93
47. (3) The pattern is :
24 × 1/2= 12
12 × 1 = 12
12 × 3/2 = 18
18 × 2 = 36
36 × 5/2= 90
48. (4) The pattern is :
5 + 11 (= 11 × 1) = 16
16 + 33 (= 11 × 3) = 49
49 + 55 (= 11 × 5) = 104
104 + 77 (= 11 × 7) = 181
181 + 99 (= 11 × 9) = 280
49. (5) The pattern is :
13 + 6 = 19
19 + 11 (= 6 + 5) = 30
30 + 18 (= 11 + 7) = 48
48 + 27 (= 18 + 9) = 75
75 + 38 (= 27 + 11) = 113
(1) is 25% more efFlcient than C.
Ratio of time taken by and : : 5
Time taken by days
Time taken by days
Time taken By days
Time taken By days
If the time taken by A be days,
then
Time taken By A and together
days
51. years
years
llx
years
years
52. (1)
?
53. (2)
√
54. (3)
√
√
√
√
55. (1) √
√
√
√
56. (2)?
57. (3) Initial investments of A, B
and
C respectively
= Rs. 125, Rs. 750 and Rs. 250
(let)
Ratio of their equivalent capitals
for 1 month
= (125 × 8 + 500 × 4) : (750 × 12)
: (250 × 8 + 125 × 4)
= (1000 + 2000) : (9000) : (2000
+ 500)
= 3000 : 9000 : 2500
= 30 : 90 : 25
= 6 : 18 : 5
Sum of ratios = 6 + 18 + 5 = 29
\
= Rs. 3600
58. (4) Total number of balls in the
bag
Total possible outcomes Selec‐ tion of 2 Ualls out of 10 Ualls
avourable outcomes green
ball and 1 ball of other colour
green balls
59. (1) Invested amount (let)
S.I.
According to the question,
. 16000
. (2) Area of square
√ √
sq. metre
Area of rectangle
sq. metre
Breadth of rectangle metre
Length metre
metre
Perimeter of rectangle
metre
61. (3) I.
or,
II.
Clearly,
62. (1) I.
or, 3
II.
47
or, 2
Clearly,
63. (1) I.
or
II.
or,
Clearly,
64. (2)
I.
or,
II.
or,
Clearly,
65. (5)
I.
II.
√
71. 73. : S is the daughter of U and
V. Y is also daughter of U and V. Y
is the wife of D. P is the husband of
S. S is the sister in law of B. V is
the husband of U. L is the husband
of J. L is the father of U.
81. 82. Y < K < D = S D < V < O
G > D < Q Y < K < D = S < V < O
Y < K < D < G Y < K < D = S < Q
G > D < V < O
81. (2) Conclusions I. G > V : Not
True II. Y < Q : True
82. (1) Conclusions I. K < O : True
II. G = V : Not True
83. (5) D < L = A < F = N Conclu-
sions I. N > D : True II. A < F : True
(84 85) : B > Z = R > M < J < H J >
P ; K < Z P < J < H K < Z = R > M <
J
84. (2) Conclusions I. H < P : Not
True II. B > M : True
85. (4) Conclusions I. K < J : Not
True II. R > H : Not True
96. 100.
Floor
Number
Person Cartoon Char-
acter
7 O Flinstone
6 S Tweety
5 Q Chipmunk
4 N Popeye
3 M Scooby Doo
2 R Simpson
1 P Jetson
RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-
1) English Language
Directions (1 10) : Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are given in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
Over a couple of days in February, hundreds of
thousands of point-of-sale printers in restaurants
around the world began behaving strangely. Some
churned out bizarre pictures of computers and giant
the hacker God him-
self. Some informed
God, please close
the hacker God gave an interview
to Motherboard, a technology website, he claimed
to be a British secondary- school pupil by the name
of parlous
state of computer security, he had, he claimed, de-
cided to perform a public service by demonstrating
just how easy it was to seize control.
Not all hackers are so publicspirited, and 2016 was
a bonanza for those who are not. In February of that
year cyber -crooks stole $81m directly from the
central bank of Bangladesh and would have got
away with more were it not for a crucial typo. In
National Security Agency (NSA)
saw its own hacking tools leaked all over the inter-
net by a group calling themselves the Shadow Bro-
keRs (The C1A suffered a similar indignity this
March,) In October a piece of software called Mirai
was used to flood Dyn, an internet infrastructure
company, with so much meaningless traffic that
websites such as Twitter and Reddit were made
inaccessible to many users. And the hacking of the
Democratic National -mail servers
and the subsequent leaking of embarrassing com-
munications seems to have been part of an attempt
to influence the outcome of the American elections.
Away from matters of great scale and grand strate-
gy, most hacking is either show-off vandalism or
simply criminal. It is also increasingly easy. Ob-
scure forums oil the trade in stolen credit-card de-
tails, sold in batches of thousands at a time. Data-
dealers hawk
malicious attackers to subvert systems.
with which to
encrypt photos t-
ers before charging them for the key that will un-
scramble the data.
So sophisticated are these facilitating markets that
coding skills are now entirely optional. Botnets
flocks of compromised computers created by soft-
ware like Mirai, which can then be used to flood
websites with traffic, knocking them offline until a
ransom is paid can be rented by the hour. Just like
a legitimate business, the bot-herders will, for a few
dollars extra, provide technical support if anything
goes wrong. The total cost of all this hacking is
small attacks, and many big
ones, go unreported). But all agree it is likely to
rise, because the scope for malice is about to ex-
pand remarkably
-sized
Schneier, a security analyst, in the shape of the n-
buzz-phrase used to
describe the computerisation of everything from
toys, medi-
cal devices and light bulbs. In 2015 a group of
computer- security researchers demonstrated that it
was possible to take remote control of certain Jeep
cars.
When the Mirai malware is used to build a botnet it
seeks out devices such as video recorders and
webcams; the botnet for fridges is just around the
corner.
1. Which of the following is the most appropriate
title for the passage?
(1) Public spirited HackeRs
(2) Broken Computer Security
(3) Hacking: The Criminal Offence
(4) The Internet of Things
(5) The Growing Artificial Intelligence
2. According to the paragraph,
to perform a public service?
(1) To hack the NSA server
(2) To show the people that hacking was very easy
(3) To influence the outcome of the American elec-
tions
(4) To aware the people about the computer securi-
ty threats.
(5) None of these
3. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the
context of the passage?
(1) The lot is a buzz-phrase used to describe the
computerisation of everything from cars and elec-
toys, medical devices
and light bulbs.
(2) The hacking of the Democratic National Com-
e-mail servers was per - formed with the
help of a
hacking tool Security
Agency all over the internet.
49
(4) Obscure forums oil the trade in stolen credit-
card details, sold in batches of thousands at a time.
(5) All of these are true in the context of the pas-
sage.
4. According to the paragraph, what caused the
websites like to the
users?
(1) It was caused due to hacking of the security
contents of the website.
(2) Due to unscramble of the encrypted data on the
websites.
(3) Due to Dyn, an infrastructure company.
(4) Due to surge in the worthless traf fic which was
forced by the hackers.
(5) All are correct
5. Which of following statement(s) is/are correct
(A) To take remote control of all digital devices
(B) A world sized Robot
(C) It means computerization of everything.
(1) Only (A) is correct (2) Only (B) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (C) are correct (4) Both (B)
and (C) are correct
(5) All are correct
Directions (6 7) : Choose the word/group of words
which is most opposite in meaning to the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the pas-
sage.
6. Malice
(1) Antipathy (2) Malevolence
(3) benignity (4) Audacity
(5) Valour
7. Parlous
(1) adventurous (2) fatal
(3) terrible (4) innocuous
(5) risky
Directions (8 10) : Choose the word/group of
words which is most similar in meaning to the
word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the
passage.
8. Subsequent
(1) consequent (2) direct
(3) anterior (4) foregoing
(5) prior
9. Subvert
(1) vitiated (2) comply
(3) undermine (4) betray
(5) overwhelm
10. Typo
(1) advantage (2) defeat
(3) strength (4) bug
(5) stain
Directions (11 20) : Which of the phrases (1), (2),
(3) and (4) given below each sentence should re-
place the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to
make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is
correct as it is given and no correction is required,
mark (5) as the answer.
11. In the modern day, it is common to say you are
bored to death if someone or something is incredi-
bly uninteresting.
(1) bored of death
(2) bored from death
(3) bored till death
(4) bored until death
(5) No correction required
12. We advised them to going to a hill station dur-
ing the summer vacation.
(1) for going to (2) that they go to
(3) to go to (4) that they should have
to go to
(5) No correction required
13. They failed in their attempt to repair the de-
molished portion of the building.
(1) for their attempt
(2) in their attempting
(3) with their attempt
(4) on their attempt
(5) No correction required
14. In Indian democracy, It is necessary for the citi-
zens to beware of all the political facts about every
political party.
(1) be aware of (2) be aware for
(3) beware for (4) be aware to
(5) No correction required
15. put down our summer
vacation until July because of the bad weather con-
ditions.
(1) put off (2) put across
(3) put out (4) put back
(5) No correction required
16. We called on able to find the
car part we needed to fix the gear system.
(1) called off (2) called back
(3) called around (4) called up
(5) No correction required
17. If everyone chips in they can get the whole
kitchen painted by today afternoon.
(1) chips on (2) chips up
(3) chips off (4) chips towards
(5) No correction required
18. Hang up find a better job
very soon because you are very sincere.
(1) hang on (2) hang back
(3) hang out (4) hang in
50
(5) No correction required
19. When I think of on my youth, I wish I had
studied harder and had secured good grades.
(1) think over (2) think about
(3) think out (4) think back
(5) No correction required
20. A stranger cut through with unsolicited advice
on how we could fix our relationship.
(1) cut out (2) cut about
(3) cut back (4) cut in
(5) No correction required
Directions (21 30) : In the given passage there are
words/group of words highlighted in bold and un-
derlined.
You have to decide if the words given is correct (in
terms of grammar and context). If not, find out the
appropriate word/group of words from the given
options. In case, the suggested word/group of words
is correct, select the option
your answer.
As a nation, we are in a great dilemma on the fi-
nancing of public higher educational institutions.
Highly subsidised quality higher education, with
admissions based strictly on merit, continues to be a
great hope for upward socioeconomic (21) alter-
nate. This public demand has also ensured that
there is consensus across the political spectrum on
the need for setting up new IITs, IIMs, AIIMSs,
NITs, etc. On the other hand, as the number of such
institutions increases, the (22) main requirements
for supporting them will prove to be a challenge.
What are the alternatives? Globally there is a shift
towards charging a higher (23) fraction of educa-
tion costs as fees even in European countries
where, traditionally, higher education was com-
pletely free. For the purpose of inclusion of stu-
dents from economically weaker sections, there is
the provision of education loans, often at lower than
commercial rates. This has resulted in education-
loan-driven higher education, which has clear (24)
explicit for blocking the socio-economic mobility
of poor people, even in an affluent country like the
United States.
In a country like India, publicfunded institutions
where the full fee is financed through loans are un-
desirable for many reasons. One, it will make edu-
cation inaccessible to many who cannot afford to be
(25) casted with such large loans.
Second, heavy debt would result in higher educa-
tion being seen more as capital investment. It would
lead to the clear (26) graduation objective of get-
ting a quick return on investment.
The net result would be that graduates would opt
for safe career options even more than they cur-
rently do that provide the
not those choices that may be low-paying but have
greater social value and impact and which the grad-
uate may (27) needlessly want to pursue.
Medical education in India has already fallen into
this trap; with high cost of education in private and
foreign institutions, the increase in volume is not
resulting in (28) producing access for a significant
section of the population. Further, in the Indian
socio-economic context where, even today, most
students pursue academic programmes and careers
that are forced on them by family and not out of
their own choice, there is another great disad-
vantage.
Just when we were seeing some change in at
least a small fraction of students the increase in
fees or a greater loan burden would put the clock
back. The (29) attenua-
tions in the public (100) regard in India primarily
driven by the stories of high-paying jobs for IIT
graduates.
21. (1) structure (2) fabric
(3) good (4) mobility
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.
22. (1) basic (2) finance
(3) budgetary (4) ordinary
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.
23. (1) rate (2) part
(3) portions (4) wealth
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.
24. (1) targets (2) implications
(3) incarnation (4) forms
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.
25. (1) demanded (2) debited
(3) forced (4) burdened
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.
26. (1) main (2) achievable
(3) financial (4) accessible
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.
27. (1) affordably (2) alternatively
(3) not (4) genuinely
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.
28. (1) cutting (2) providing
(3) enhanced (4) fabricating
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.
29. (1) focused (2) success
(3) traction (4) force
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.
30. (1) discourse (2) domain
(3) bodies (4) opinions
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct
51
Quantitative Aptitude Directions (31 35) : What will come in place of
the question mark
(?) in each of the following number series ?
31. 14, 8, 9, 14.5, 30, ?
(1) 75 (2) 76
(3) 60 (4) 65
(5) 80
32. 20, 29, 54, 103, 184, ?
(1) 310 (2) 350
(3) 305 (4) 315
(5) 320
33. 7, 8, 18, 57, ?, 1165
(1) 250 (2) 234
(3) 230 (4) 232
(5) 235
34. 5, 7, 18, 47, 103, ?
(1) 195 (2) 210
(3) 200 (4) 190
(5) 220
35. 77, 85, 69, 101, 37, ?
(1) 180 (2) 165
(3) 170 (4) 120
(5) 175
Directions (36 40) : Read the following line graph
and answer the following questions.
There are two car manufacturing companies
(Company X and Company Y). The sale of cars
by these two different companies is given in dif-
ferent years
There are two car manufacturing companies
(Company X and Company Y). The sale of cars
by these two different companies is given in dif-
ferent years Number of cars sold
36. If the sale of company X in year 2016 is in-
creased by 20% with respect to year 2015 and the
sale of company Y in year 2016 with respect to
year 2015 is decreased by 10% then find the total
sale of the company X and Y together in year
2016?
(1) 7200 (2) 9600
(3) 8400 (4) 5600
(5) 8800
37. Find the ratio of the sales of company X in
years 2011, 2013 and 2015 together to the total sale
of company Y in years 2012 and 2014 together?
(1) 23 :14 (2) 14 : 23
(3) 11 : 29 (4) 29 : 11
(5) 23 : 11
38. Total cars sold by both companies in year 2012
are what percent more/less than the total cars sold
by both companies in year 2013?
(1) 28% (2) 18%
(3) 25% (4) 20%
(5) 21%
39. Find the difference between the average number
of cars sold by company X from 2011 to 2015 and
the average number of cars sold by company Y
from 2011 to 2015?
(1) 750 (2) 900
(3) 800 (4) 850
(5) 830
40. Find the total number of cars sold by both com-
panies from year 2012 to 2014?
(1) 23000 (2) 21000
(3) 22500 (4) 21500
(5) 22000
Directions (41 45) : Read the following table and
answer the following questions
Districts Museum
Total visitors (Male
& Female)
Percentage of male
out.
of total visitors
P 250 40%
Q 350 44%
R 375 60%
S 450 56%
T 300 55%
U 525 32%
41. Total number of female visitors from districts Q
and R together to see the museum are how much
more/less than total number of male visitors from
districts R and S together to see the museum?
(1) 142 (2) 126
(3) 128 (4) 131
(5) 136
42. Average number of visitors from districts P, Q
and R together to see the museum are approximate-
ly what percent of the average number of visitors
from districts S, T and U together to see the muse-
um?
(1) 71% (2) 76%
(3) 78% (4) 74%
52
(5) 85%
43. Find the ratio of the male visitors from districts
T and U together to see the museum to the female
visitors from districts R and S together to see the
museum?
(1) 107 : 117 (2) 106 : 111
(3) 111 : 116 (4) 117 : 107
(5) 117 : 106
44. Male visitors from district R to see the museum
are what percent more/less than the female visitors
from district T to see the museum?
(1)
% (2)
%
(3)
% (4)
%
(5) 50%
45. Find the difference between the total number of
male visitors from districts Q, R and S together to
see the museum and the total number of female
visitors from districts S, T and U together to see the
museum?
(1) 25 (2) 75
(3) 60 (4) 50
(5) 59
Directions (46 50) : In each of these questions,
two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to
solve both the equations and give answer
(1) if x > y (2) if x > y
(3) if x < y (4) if x < y
(5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot
be established.
46. I. x2 3x + 2 = 0
II. 2y2 7y + 6 = 0
47. I. 3x2 + 4x + l = 0
II. y2 + 5y + 6 = 0
48. I. 2x2 + 5x + 2 = 0
II. y2 + 9y + 20 = 0
49. I. x2 7x + 10 = 0
II. y2 12y + 35 = 0
50. I. (x 12)2 = 0
II. y2 = 144
Directions (51 55) : What approximate value
should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following questions? (Note: You are not expected
to calculate the exact value.)
51. 23.001 × 18.999 × 7.998 = ?
(1) 4200 (2) 3000
(3) 3500 (4) 4000
(5) 2500
52. 33.99 × √ + 42.032 × √ =
× (?)
(1) 81 (2) 72
(3) 169 (4) 121
(5) 144
53. 94.95 × 13.03 + √ × 14.99 = 53 × √
(1) 25 (2) 144
(3) 225 (4) 625
(5) 900
54. 1884.88 ÷ 144.921 + 6.99 + (?)2 = 69.09
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 7 (4) 6
(5) 5
55. 41% of 601 250.17 = ? 77% of 910
(1) 800 (2) 500
(3) 690 (4) 760
(5) 550
56. An article is marked up 40% higher than cost
price but it was sold on x% discount. The shop-
keeper thus gains 12%. What would be the S.P. of
the article with C.P. of Rs. 120 and sold on x%
profit?
(1) Rs. 134.50 (2) Rs. 144
(3) Rs. 128 (4) Rs. 148
(5) Rs. 157
57. There are 27 cards having numbers from 1 to
27. Two cards are picked at random one by one
without replacement. What is the probability that
sum of numbers on these two cards is odd ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
58. B is 20% more efficient than A. B started the
work and did it for x days. And then B is replaced
by A. A completed the remaining work in (x + 8)
days. Ratio of work done by A and B is 3 : 2. In
how many days will A and B working together
complete the whole work?
(1)
days (2)
days
(3)
days (4)
days
(5)
days
59. A sum of Rs. 91,00 is borrowed at 20% per
annum compounded annually. If the amount is to be
paid in two years, what will be the total amount?
(1) Rs. 13,104 (2) Rs. 13,280
(3) Rs. 13,250 (4) Rs. 14,230
(5) Rs. 13,514
60. A man spends 28% of his salary on food. From
the remaining he spent
th on rent and sent
th to
his mother. If he is left with Rs. 5280, what amount
does he send to his mother?
(1) Rs. 4230 (2) Rs. 4320
(3) Rs. 4580 (4) Rs. 4420
(5) Rs. 4570
61. The average age of a husband and wife was 23
years when they were married 5 years ago.
53
The average age of the husband, the wife and a
child who was born during the interval, is 20 years
now. How old is the child now?
(1) 9 months (2) 1 year
(3) 3 years (4) 4 years (5) 6 years
62. The ratio between the ages of a father and a son
at present is 5 : 2 respectively. Four years hence the
ratio between the ages of the son and his mother
will be 1 : 2 respectively.
What is the ratio between the present ages of the
father and the mother respectively?
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 5 : 4
(3) 4 : 3 (4) Cannot be deter-
mined
(5) 6 : 5
63. Total distance between A and B is d km. The
distance travelled along the stream is three times of
the total distance and the distance travelled against
the stream is two times of the total distance. The
time taken to cover distance along the stream is
10% less than the time taken to cover the distance
against the stream. If a person covers a distance of
21 km in 1 hour 24 minutes along the stream, then
find the rate of current?
(1) 2 km./h. (2) 3 km./h.
(3) 1 km./h. (4) 4 km./h.
(5) 5 km./h.
64. P and Q started a business by investing Rs.
15,000 and Rs.18,000 respectively. After four
months R joined them with a capital of Rs. 10,000.
After two more months Q left the business with his
capital. At the end of the year P got a share of Rs.
4,500 in the profit. What is the total profit earned?
(1) Rs. 6800 (2) Rs. 7600
(3) Rs. 8600 (4) Rs. 9200
(5) Rs. 9600
65. Inside a square plot a circular garden is devel-
oped which exactly fits in the square plot and the
diameter of the garden is is equal to the side of the
square plot which is 28 metre. What is the area of
the space left out in the square after developing the
garden?
(1) 98 metre2 (2) 146 metre2
(3) 84 metre2 (4) 168 metre2
(5) 115 metre2
Reasoning Directions (66 70) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
In an apartment, eight persons, i.e., D, E, F, G, H, I,
J and K live on different floors but not necessarily
in the same order. The lowermost floor of the build-
ing is numbered 1 and the topmost floor of the
building is numbered 8. They are from different
stream of Engineering i.e., Chemical Engineering
Instrumentation Engineering, Software Engineer-
ing, Aeronautical Engineering, Mechanical Engi-
neering, Electrical Engineering, Automobile Engi-
neering, and Civil Engineering.
The one who lives on fourth floor is specialized in
Mechanical Engineering. D lives on odd numbered
floor but above 3rd floor. The number of persons
between D and the one who is specialized in Elec-
trical Engineering is same as number of persons
between D and I. The one who is specialized in
Instrumentation Engineering lives on lowermost
floor. K lives on an even numbered floor and he is
specialized in Automobile Engineering.
There are two floors between E and H and E lives
above to H. E is specialized in Aeronautical Engi-
neering. J lives just above the one who is special-
ized in Aeronautical Engineering.
The number of floors between the one who is spe-
cialized in Aeronautical Engineering and Mechani-
cal Engineering is two. The one who is specialized
in Civil Engineering lives on odd numbered floor.
The number of floors between the one who is spe-
cialized in Chemical Engineering and J is four. The
one who is specialized in Aeronautical Engineering
lives on an odd numbered floor. The number of
floors between the one who is specialized in Civil
Engineering and the floor on which F lives is same
as the number of floors between F and G. I lives
below the floor on which D lives.
66. How many persons live between the person
who is specialized in Chemical Engineering and the
one who is specialized in Electrical Engineering?
(1) Six (2) One
(3) Four (4) Two
(5) None of these
67. J is specialized in which of the following stream
of engineering?
(1) Aeronautical Engineering
(2) Electrical Engineering
(3) Civil Engineering
(4) Instrumentation Engineering
(5) Mechanical Engineering
68. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and hence they form a group.
Which one of the following does not belong to that
group?
(1) G (2) K
(3) H (4) I
(5) J
69. D lives on which floor?
(1) 1 (2) 3
54
(3) 4 (4) 5
(5) 7
70. G is related to Mechanical Engineering, in the
same way as F is related to Automobile Engineer-
ing.
Then, which of the following is H related to? (Fol-
lowing the same pattern)
(1) Mechanical Engineering
(2) Electrical Engineering
(3) Civil Engineering
(4) Instrumentation Engineering
(5) Aeronautical Engineering
71. Which of the following symbols should replace
the sign ($) and
(#) in the given expression in order to make the
expressions P > C and C < B definitely true?
(1) >, > (2) >, <
(3) >, = (4) =, >
(5) <, <
72. Five persons namely A, B, C, D and E are going
to the school on different days of the week, starting
from Monday to Friday. Two persons are going
between C and B. C is going before Wednesday. D
is going to the school immediately after E. A is not
going on Friday. Then who among the following
persons is going to school on Wednesday?
(1) B (2) C
(3) D (4) E
(5) A
73. Q is the daughter of A. J is the brother of Q. J is
the son of R. J is the father of S. If it is given that A
is mother of Q, then what is the relation of R with
respect to S?
(1) Father (2) Mother-in-law
(3) Mother (4) Father-in-law
(5) Grandfather
74. In a certain code language
is ex-
x-
pected then what is
?
(1) lo (2) pr
(3) qi (4) ve
(5) jo
75. If 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the
number 7493652 and 3 is added to each even digit
in number then which of the following digit is re-
peated in the new number so obtained?
(1) 9, 4 (2) 6, 5
(3) 5, 4 (4) 5, 9
(5) 5, 7
Directions (76 80) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight people viz. A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are sit-
ting in a straight line. They all are facing north.
Each one of them has a different age i.e
14,16,17,19, 21, 23, 26 and 31 year, but not neces-
sarily in the same order.
B sits at one of the extreme end of the row. There
are three persons sitting between C and Q. Q is of
neither 14 nor 19 years old. There are two persons
sitting between D and the person whose age is 23
years. Neither Q nor D is the oldest person. Age
difference of immediate neighbours of D is 5 years.
A sits to the right of R, but not immediate right.
There are three persons sitting between B and the
one whose age is 16 years. The one whose age is 19
years sits third to the right of C. R sits to the right
of B. Q sits second to the right of the person whose
age is 23 years. P sits immediate left of the person
whose age is 14 years. Q is not youngest person.
The one, whose age is 31 years is not an immediate
neighbour of the youngest person. C is not the
fourth oldest person.
76. Who sits second to the right of D?
(1) A (2) S
(3) P (4) R
(5) None of these
77. How many persons sit between the persons
whose age is 31 years and S?
(1) Four (2) Five
(3) Three (4) One
(5) None of these
78. Who among the following persons is 26 years
old?
(1) R (2) D
(3) C (4) S
(5) None of these
79. If P is related to 16 years in the same way as B
is related to 26 years, then which of the following is
R related to, following the same pattern?
(1) 19 year (2) 17 year
(3) 21 year (4) 31 year
(5) None of these
80. What is the age difference of
neighbours?
(1) Three (2) Seven
(3) Five (4) Six
(5) None of these
Directions (81 85) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
55
There are seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V who
were born on the same day of the same month of
different years i.e., 1984, 1946, 1967, 1972, 1982,
1989 and 1992 but not necessarily in the same or-
der.
Note : (A) All calculations are done with respect to
the present year 2017 assuming the month and date
to be the same as that of the years of birth as men-
tioned above
(B) Each person is assumed to be born on the same
date and same month of the respective years.
The difference between the ages of Q and R is
twice the square root of the age of one of the any
seven persons. Difference between the ages of R
and S is the same as the number obtained by divid-
ing ages of any of the other five persons. Age of P
is greatest amongst those whose ages are multiples
of five. T is older than V who is not the youngest. R
is not youngest person. S was not born in 1992.
81. Who amongst the following persons is the old-
est?
(1) P (2) V
(3) U (4) T
(5) None of these
82. What is the age of R?
(1) 33 years (2) 35 years (3) 25 years (4) 45 years
(5) 50 years 83. How many persons are younger
than U?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
(5) None of these
84. What is the age of S?
(1) 45 years (2) 35 years (3) 33 years (4) 50 years
(5) 28 years
85. Who was born in 1989?
(1) V (2) U
(3) T (4) P
(5) Q
Directions (86 87) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
There are four boxes i.e. J, K, L and M in which
four types of fruits are stored. Fruits are Litchi, Ap-
ple, Grapes and Mango. Boxes are arranged in a
manner from top to bottom. There are two boxes
between K and L. The box in which Grapes are
stored is above L, but not immediately above. The
box in which Apple is stored is immediately below
M, but not stored in box L. Litchi box is above the
Mango box, but not immediately above Apple box.
86. In which of the following boxex, Litchi is
stored?
(1) J (2) M
(3) K (4) L
(5) Either J or M
87. Which of the following fruits is stored in se-
cond lowest Box?
(1) Grapes (2) Apple
(3) Mango (4) Litchi
(5) Cannot be determined
Directions (88 89) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
There are six family members A, B, C, D, E and F
and all of them are of different age. A is younger
than only one person. E is older than B and D but
not as old as A. D is older than only one person. F
is youngest in the family. The age of D is 25 year
and the age of person who is second oldest is 40
year.
88. Who is the oldest in the family?
(1) C (2) B
(3) D (4) E
(5) A
89. What is the possible age of B?
(1) 42 years (2) 20 years (3) 55 years (4) 19 years
(5) 30 years 90. Which of the following statements
(1) B < C = A > K = R
(2) C = K > B < R > A
(3) C > B > A > K = R
(4) B = K < C < R = A
(5) None of these
Directions (91 95) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight persons M, N, O, V, W, X, Y and Z attend
seminars on different months of the year viz.
March, June, October tmd November, such that not
more than two persons attend their seminars in each
of the months. Seminars can be held on either 10th
or 27th day of the month. No two seminars can be
held on the same day. W and N attend the seminars
on the same month. There are three seminars be-
tween the seminars of X and O. W does not attend
their seminar in November. Z attends his seminar
immediately after N. V attends his seminar in the
month of November. The number of persons who
attend their seminars between the seminars of Y
and Z respectively is the same as the number of
persons who attend their seminars between the sem-
inars of N and V respectively.
X does not attend the seminar on October. W at-
tends his seminar before N.
91. M attends his seminar on which of the follow-
ing dates?
56
(1) 10th October (2) 27th November
(3) 10th November (4) 10th March
(5) None of these
92. Which of the following persons attends his sem-
inar on 27th March?
(1) W (2) X
(3) M (4) N
(5) None of these
93. How many persons attend the seminar after W?
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 3
(5) None of these
94. Who among the following persons attends the
seminar on 10th October?
(1) W (2) M
(3) Z (4) V
(5) None of these
95. How many persons attended seminar after V?
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 7 (4) No one
(5) None of these
Directions (96 98) : In these questions, relation-
ship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by two
Conclusions numbered I and.
II. Study the Conclusions based on the given state-
ments and select the appropriate answer :
Give answer (1) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-
clusion II is true.
Give answer (2) if both the Conclusion I and Con-
clusion II are true.11
Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer (5) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-
sion II is true.
96. Statements :
M > U > L < N; L > Y > A
Conclusions :
I. Y < N
II. Y = N
97. Statements :
J > A > D = E; L < A < M
Conclusions :
I. M < J
II. J > L
98. Statements :
M < K > L = Y; P < T > M
Conclusions :
I. P > Y
II. T < L
99. In a vertical row 13 persons are sitting. A is
seventh from the beginning and two persons sits
between G and A. The number of persons between
A and L is same as the number of persons between
G and Q. Then what is the position of Q from the
beginning?
(1) Fourth (2) Eighth
(3) Sixth (4) Ninth
(5) Cannot be determined
100.A man walks 12 metre east from point A and
reaches point B. From point B he takes left turn and
walks 4 metre and then he takes right turn and
walked 6 metre and again he takes right turn and
walks 7 metre and again takes right turn and reach-
es point M. If it is given that point B is in north
from point M, then what is the distance between B
and M?
(1) 7 metre (2) 6 metre
(3) 5 metre (4) 4 metre
(5) 3 metre
Answer Key 1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (5) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (1) 9.
(3) 10. (4) 11. (5) 12. (3) 13. (5) 14. (1) 15. (1) 16.
(3) 17. (5) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (4) 21. (4) 22. (3) 23.
(5) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (5) 27. (4) 28. (3) 29. (3) 30.
(1) 31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (1) 35. (2) 36. (2) 37.
(1) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (5) 41. (4) 42. (2) 43. (3) 44.
(4) 45. (5) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (4) 50. (5) 51.
(3) 52. (3) 53. (4) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (2) 57. (4) 58.
(3) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (4) 62. (4) 63. (2) 64. (4) 65.
(4) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (4) 70. (5) 71. (2) 72.
(4) 73. (5) 74. (5) 75. (5) 76. (4) 77. (1) 78. (3) 79.
(2) 80. (4) 81. (4) 82. (2) 83. (5) 84. (3) 85. (1) 86.
(3) 87. (2) 88. (1) 89. (5) 90. (3) 91. (4) 92. (2) 93.
(1) 94. (3) 95. (5) 96. (5) 97. (4) 98. (1) 99. (5) 100.
(5)
57
Solutions: 6. (3) Malice (Noun) = a feeling of
hatred for somebody that causes a
desire to harm them. Benignity
(Noun) = kindness; unhurting, toler-
ance towards others. Look at the
sentences : He sent the letter out of
malice. He has a face of great benig-
nity set on a gangling body.
7. (4) Parlous (Adjective) = full of
danger or uncertainty; precarious;
dreadful; risky; unsafe. Innocuous
(Adjective) = harmless; safe; non
dangerous. Look at the sentences :
Relations between the two countries
have been in a parlous state for some
time. Some mushrooms look innoc-
uous but are in fact poisonous.
8. (1) Subsequent (Adjective) = fol-
lowing; upcoming; consequent; en-
suing. Look at the sentence : The
book discusses his illness and subse-
quent resignation from politics.
9. (3) Subvert (Noun) = to try to
destroy or damage something; un-
dermine; vitiate. Look at the sen-
tence : The rebel army is attempting
to subvert the government.
10. (4) Typo (Noun) = a small mis-
take in a text made when it was
typed or printed; faults and mistakes.
11. (5) Bored to death = completely
bored.
12. (3) Here, infinitive i.e., to go to
...... should be used. Infinitive = to +
v1
13. (5) To fail in attempt = not suc-
ced.
14. (1) Be aware of = be conscious
of , be mindful of . Beware (used
only in infinitive) = to warn against
danger. Look at the sentence : Be-
ware of dogs.
15. (1) Put of f = postpone Here, put
off should be used.
16. (3) Call around = phone many
different places/people Call on =
visit somebody Hence, call around
should be used here.
17. (5) Chip in help
18. (4) Hang in = stay positive Hang
up = end a phone call Hence, hang in
should be used here.
19. (4) Think back = remember
Hence, think back should be used
here.
20. (4) Cut in = interrupt Hence, cut
in should be used here.
21. (4) Mobility = flexibility
24. (2) Implications (Noun) = infer-
ences; conclusions; involvements.
25. (4) Burdened = loaded
29. (3) Traction = grip; resistance
30. (1) Discourse = written or spo-
ken communication
31. (2) The pattern is :
14.5
76
32. (3) The pattern is :
184
33. (4) The pattern is :
7 × 1 + 1 =7 + 1=8
8 × 2 + 2= 16 + 2= 18
18 × 3 + 3=54 + 3=57
57 × 4 + 4=228 + 4=232
232 × 5 + 5= 1160 + 5= 1165
34. (1) The pattern is :
5 + 2=7
7 + 11 (=2 + 9) = 18
18 + 29(= 11 + 18) =47
47 + 56(=29 + 27) = 103
103 + 92 (=56 + 36)=195
35. (2) The pattern is :
77 + 8=85
85-2 × 8=85-16=69
69 + 2 × 16=69 + 32= 101
101-2 × 32= 101-64=37
37 + 2 × 64=37 + 128=165
36. (2) Number of cars sold in 2016 :
Company
Company
Required answer
6000
37. (1) Required ratio
:
(2500 : 7000
: 14
38. (4) Number of cars sold by
both companies :
Year Year
Percentage decrease
(
)
39. (3)Average number of cars
sold :
Company X
Company
Required difference
. (5) Required answer
. (4) Female visitors :
District
District
Their Sum
Male visitors :
District
District
Their sum
Required difference
42. (2) Required average number
of visitors from districts and
Required average number of
visitors from districts and
Required percent
43. (3) Male visitors :
District
District
Their sum l65
Female visitors :
District
District
Their sum l50
Required ratio : 348
: 116
44. (4) Male visitors from district
Female visitors from district
Required percentage increase
(
)
%
45. (5) Male visitors :
District
District
58
District
Their sum l54
Female visitors :
District
District
District
Their sum
46. (4) I. x2 3x + 2 = 0
x2 x 2x + 2 = 0
x (x 1) 2 (x 1) = 0
(x 2) (x 1) = 0
x = 1 or 2
II. 2y2 7y + 6 = 0
2y2 4y 3y + 6 = 0
2y (y 2) 3 (y 2) = 0
(y 2) (2y 3) = 0
y = 2 or, 3/2
Clearly, x < y
47. (1) I. 3x2 + 4x + 1 = 0
3x2 + 3x + x + 1 = 0
3x (x + 1) + 1 (x + 1) = 0
(x + 1) (3x + 1) = 0
x = 1 or, 1/3
II. y2 + 5y + 6 = 0
y2 + 2y + 3y + 6 = 0
y (y + 2) + 3 (y + 2) = 0
(y + 2) (y + 3) = 0
y = 2 or, 3
Clearly, x > y
48. (1) I. 2x2 + 5x + 2 = 0
2x2 + 4x + x + 2 = 0
2x (x + 2) + 1 (x + 2) = 0
(x + 2) (2x + 1) = 0
x = 2 or, 1/2
II. y2 + 9y + 20 = 0
y2 + 4y + 5y + 20 = 0
y (y + 4) + 5 (y + 4) = 0
(y + 4) (y + 5) = 0
y = 4 or, 5
Clearly, x > y
49. (4) I. x2 7x + 10 = 0
x2 2x 5x + 10 = 0
x (x 2) 5 (x 2) = 0
(x 5) (x 2) = 0
x = 5 or, 2
II. y2 12y + 35 = 0
y2 5y 7y + 35 = 0
y (y 5) 7 (y 5) = 0
(y 5) (y 7) = 0
y = 5 or, 7
Clearly, x < y
50. (5) I. (x 12)2 = 0
(x 12) (x 12) = 0
x = 12, 12
II. y2 = 144
y = ± 12
51. (3)?
Required answer
52. (3) √ √
?
√
?
√
?
√
53. (4) √
√
√
√
√
54. (3)
√
55. (3)
Required answer
56. (2) Let the C.P. of article be Rs.
100.
Marked price Rs. 140
S.P. . 112
Discount Rs. Rs. 28
Case II, S.P. of article Rs.
(
)
. 144
57. (4) From 1 to 27 :
Odd numbers
Even numbers
The sum of numbers appear‐ ing at both cards will be odd
if one card has odd number, other
card has even number.
Required probability
when first card is even and
second card is odd when
first card is odd, other card is
even
58. (3) Work done by
Work done by
Time taken by A in doing 1
work
Time taken by in doing 1
work
days
is 20% more efficient than
A.
Time taken by
days
Time taken by days
Work done by both in 1 day
Required time
days
59. (1) (
)
(
)
(
)
. 13104
. (2) Expenditure on rent and
money given to mother out of
72% of salary
Remaining part
part . 5280
part
Rs. 4320
61. (4) Sum of present ages of
husband and wife
years
years
Sum of present ages of hus‐ band, wife and child
years
years
62.
years
years
4 years hence,
years
years
Father : Mother
59
:
63. (2) Rate downstream
*
+ kmph.
kmph.
If the speed of current be
kmph, then
Rate upstream kmph.
According to the question,
kmph.
64. (4) Ratio of the equivalent cap‐ itals of and for 1 month
: :
: : : 27 : 20
Sum of the terms of ratio
If total annual profit be Rs. then
Rs. 9200
65. (4) AB = 28 metre
Radius of circle = 14 metre
Area of circular garden = pr2
=
× 14 × 14
= 616 sq. metre
Area of square plot = 28 × 28
= 784 sq. metre
\ Area of shaded region
= (784 616) sq. metre
= 168 sq. metre
(66 70) :
Floor
Number
Person Specialisation
8 J Electrical
Engineering
7 E Aeronautical
Engineering
6 K Automobile
Engineering
5 D Civil
Engineering
4 H Mechanical
Engineering
3 F Chemical
Engineering
2 I Software Engi-
neering
1 G Instrumentation
Engineering
76-80
B P D C R S A Q
31 21 14 26 16 23 19 17
81-85
Year Person Age in years
1946 T 71
1967 P 50
1972 Q 45
1982 R 35
1984 S 33
1989 V 28
1992 U 25
86-87
Box Fruit
K Litchi
M Grape
J Apple
L Mango
91-95
Month Date Person
March 10th M
27th X
June 10th W
27th N
October 10th Z
27th O
November 10th V
27th Y
96. (5) M > U > L < N
L > Y > A
Y < L < N
Conclusions :
I. Y < N : Not True
II. Y = N : Not True
Y is either smaller than or
equal to N. Therefore, either
Conclusion I or Conclusion II
is true.
97. (4) J > A > D = E
L < A < M
J > A < M
J > A > L
Conclusions :
I. M < J : Not True
II. J > L : True
98. (1) M < K > L = Y
P < T > M
P < T > M < K > L = Y
T > M < K > L
Conclusions :
I. P > Y : Not True
II. T < L : Not True
60
RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-
3) English Language
Directions (1 10) : Which of the phrases given
against the sentences should replace the word/
phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it
grammatically correct?
If the sentence is correct as it is given and no cor-
rection is required,
as the answer.
1. Progress is necessary, but by responsibly devel-
opment, we will be the agents of our own destruc-
tion.
(1) without responsible development
(2) despite of responsible development
(3) for responsible develop
(4) following responsibility development
(5) No correction required
2. Plucking and feast from fresh, detectable berries
favourite childhood memory.
(1) feasting (2) feasting on
(3) feast upon (4) feasted with
(5) No correction required
3. The indigenous and ingenious boat-making tradi-
tion that once thrived in India, is now well its way
by.
(1) on its way out.
(2) its way to
(3) its way over
(4) is on its way
(5) No correction required
4. The research team, which includes some well-
known names, is very optimistic, in the process.
(1) by the process
(2) about the process
(3) beyond the process
(4) through the process
(5) No correction required
5. Curiosity has played important role around ad-
vancement of the human species.
(1) feasting
(2) to advance the
(3) of the advanced
(4) in the advancement
(5) No correction required
6. The role of banks in economic development is to
removed deficit of capital by stimulating savings
and investment.
(1) have removed deficiency
(2) remove the deficiency
(3) remove away deficient
(4) removing deficit
(5) No correction required
7. During the carnival anyone can set up a tempo-
rary restaurant in their backyard or at street and
sell their specialities to passers-by.
(1) down the street
(2) before street
(3) by the street
(4) across street
(5) No correction required
8. A team of European scientists placed a spacecraft
into orbit around Mars to hunt for signs of life
below.
(1) as to hunt sign
(2) hunting about signs
(3) be hunted by signs
(4) hunt following sign
(5) No correction required
9. The public sector banks exercise a degree of dis-
crimination of optimum utilise of the financial
resources of the community.
(1) on optimising utility
(2) by optimally utilising
(3) to optimum utilise
(4) for optimum utilisation
(5) No correction required
10. Observing that when the markets are in a
buoyant state, the retail investor tends to jump in
and invest in the market.
(1) To observe
(2) An observation
(3) It is observed
(4) By observing
(5) No correction required
Directions (11 20) : Read the following passage
and answer the given questions. Certain words or
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
Stocks of grain and other foods are high, with an-
other bumper harvest due in the northern hemi-
sphere this year. The number of hungry people has
been falling too, by 167 million in the past decade,
according Organ-
isation (FAO), chiefly thanks to progress in China
and India. Yet that leaves nearly 800 million, a
third of which are in Africa, The UN reckons that
one measure,
has the dropped from 18.6% of the world popula-
tion in 1990-92 to 10.9% now. That broadly meets
a target the world set itself in 2000, in the Millenni-
um Development Goals. But international bodies
such as the G7 are worried about the coming dec-
population will exceed nine bil-
61
lion in 2050, with most of the growth in developing
countries. The United States Department of Agri-
culture reckons that the number of hungry
-Saharan Africa will
rise by a third. The FAO reckons that food produc-
tion will need to increase by 70%. Worries abound.
Crop yields are flat.
And many trends are negative : new crop diseases,
urbanisation, desertification, salinisation and soil
erosion, which outstrips renewal even in developed
countries.
That does not mean disaster is looming. Agricultur-
al productivity is i-
tion- plenty of
room for improvement. But in most kinds of agri-
culture, scarce water can be used more sensibly. A
Mechanical Engi-
neers estimated that 550 billion litres are wasted
annually in crop production. Eliminating waste, for
example by dripfeed irrigation, could raise food
production by 60% or more. Phosphorus {a finite
resource, unlike water) is wasted too : only a fifth
of the phosphorus mined actually ends up in food.
Climate change will indeed hurt some farmers but
help otheRs (so, perhaps, does more carbon dioxide
in the atmosphere). Genetically Modified (GM)
crops (such as drought-resistant rice, heat-resistant
maize or blight-resistant wheat) have huge poten-
tial. Technology is only part of the solution.
The food chain lacks resilience to other forms of
disruption too, from political strife to consumer
panics.
Panics about contamination (real or imagined), for
example, can send food flying off the shelves. A
new report by Lloyds of London insurance market
highlights the need for more innovation to help
farmers and food manufacturers deal with adverse
weather and other potential risks.
The Gulf countries have long been preoccupied by
the question of how to feed their people. The re-
population is expected to grow by 40% be-
tween 2010 and 2030. Some gulf countries import
as much as 10% of their food. Their governments
have been unsure of the best way to keep everyone
fedand content. Qatar reportedly declared that it
would produce 70% of its food at home by 2023, by
adopting new technologies of desalination and hy-
droponics. Adding a layer of the hydroponic sand
under the topsoil stops water from reaching away,
making it easier to grow crops in odd climates or in
waterscarce lands. Agricultural entrepreneurs reck-
on that such innovation could allow the country to
grow more of its own food. That idea was soon
dropped. Saudi Arabia, with the busiest farm sec-
tor among the six countries of the Gulf Co-
operation Council, scaled back wheat grown by
irrigation because it was draining non-renewable
aquifers.
Heavy reliance on imports is problematic when
countries such as Argentina suddenly restrict their
exports in response to rising prices.
Buying farmland in countries such as Sudan, Tan-
zania and Pakistan is another Gulf ploy. The UAE
and Saudi Arabia are among the top ten investors in
land abroad, according to Land Matrix, a body that
tracks such deals. But this has drawbacks, too.
Getting big projects off the ground in places that
lack infrastructure
rulers are now considering investing in food com-
panies abroad, often in more developed countries.
which works
closely with the government and owns land abroad,
recently bought eight farm companies in Serbia for
$400m. It has also invested in an Indian rice pro-
ducer. In addition, countries like Saudi Arabia are
looking at ways of keeping strategic food reserves.
Gulf rulers may end up following a mixture of such
strategies to fill
should at least be commended for grappling with
the problem, says a regional food expert. Poorer
and hungrier Arab countries, like Egypt and Yem-
en, are far less willing to address it.
11. Why has the author mentioned the example of
Qatar in the passage?
(A) To illustrate how increased dependence on for-
eign food imports backfires
(B) It demonstrates the tremendous impact climate
change has on agriculture which is going unnoticed
(C) To show that some countries are innovative and
making tremendous efforts to improve agriculture.
(1) Only A (2) Only C
(3) Only B and C (4) Only A and C
(5) All three A, B and C
12. Which of the following is the SAME in mean-
ing as the word FLAT as used in the passage?
(1) categorical (2) totally
(3) unvarying (4) pre-determined
(5) All the given options
13. Which of the following can be said about agri-
culture in Gulf countries?
(A) Though genetically modified such food has
proven more nutritious
(B) Some countries are highly dependent on food
imports
(C) It is a tricky issue to address and needs a variety
of remedies.
62
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3) Only C (4) Only A and C
(5) All three A, B and C
14. Which of the following is the OPPOSITE of the
word DROPPED as used in the passage?
(1) upheld (2) sustained
(3) supported (4) backed
(5) All the given options
15. Which of the following is/are
(a) theme(s) of the passage?
(1) Factors impacting food production
(2) Food security in gulf countries
(3) Challenges to agricultural productivity even in
developed countries
(4) Wastage of water resources
(5) All the given options are themes
16. Which of the following best describes the au-
the global food situation?
(1) The world has been successful to an extent in
addressing the issue of hunger.
(2) There is a food crisis imminent in the coming
decades.
(3) Countries cannot rely solely on imports to meet
their food needs.
(4) Technology can be har - nessed to address the
issue of food security.
(5) All the given options
17. Which of the following is/are the argument(s) in
favour of investing in agriculture abroad?
(A) It is a means to boost food security in countries
which invest
(B) Agriculture at home is too costly in terms of
scarce natural resources
(C) It will help countries which do so to address
discontent at home.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3) All (A), (B) and (C) (4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) Only (A) and (C)
18. Which of the following is the OPPOSITE of the
word POTENTIAL as used in the passage?
(1) inept (2) unthinkable
(3) impending (4) incapable
(5) None of the given options
19. Which of the following is not true in the context
of the passage?
(1) Gulf countries are rich on account of vast soil
reserves and food needs are easily met through im-
ports.
(2) China, India have made strides in addressing
food security.
(3) Drip-feed irrigation is an efficient means of
irrigation.
(4) The population is growing in gulf countries.
(5) All the given options are true in the context of
the passage.
20. Which of the following is the SAME in mean-
ing as the word TRACKS as used in the passage?
(1) paths (2) monitoRs
(3) prints (4) captures
(5) None of the given options
Directions (21 30) : In the given passage there are
words/group of words highlighted in bold and un-
derlined. You have to decide if the word/group of
words given is correct (in terms of grammar and
context). If not, find out the appropriate word/group
of words from the given options. In case, the sug-
gested word/group of words is correct, select the
answer.
Ergonomics is the science of studying how efficient
people are in their work environment, as well as
(21) to analysing what could be done to make them
more productive throughout the day. In simple
terms, an ergonomic study is conducted to (22)
established if all employees are working to their
full efficiency with the office supplied to them cur-
rently. If the study concludes that productivity
would increase and the employees would benefit
from a change in supplies such as a different chair,
desk, mouse, monitor, etc., the needed changes are
made to (23) ensure that employees do not sustain
any injury and are able to work at their full produc-
tivity level from then on.
Unfortunately, in many workplaces ergonomics is a
little thought about subject, resulting in employees
developing long term issues such as back pain, car-
pal tunnel syndrome, neck pain, vision problems,
etc. The benefits of working in an economic envi-
ronment are (24) Infinity, but some of the major
benefits are attractive to employers as well as em-
ployees, such as reducing costs, increasing produc-
tivity, increasing employee morals and improving
the quality of work.
The more people working in an ergonomic envi-
ronment will result in less and less risk factors and
in compensation
claims a business faces. (25) Accommodate em-
ployees with a comfortable work space reduces the
risk of their obtaining injuries during their career,
and gives them a sense of importance within the
company to know they are being taken care of and
their best (26) concern are being looked out for by
their employer. Statistics show that many adults
spend up to 70% of their waking hours sitting down
and have little to no physical activity in their daily
lives. The introduction of the computer led to a (27)
63
dissolution in physical activity due to the fact that
many adults hold office jobs which require them to
sit at a desk to work. Leading ergonomic furniture
supplier, ISE Group, offers a complete line of ergo-
nomic office furniture allowing consumers to (28)
manufacture which pieces and styles they would
like and customize their office to (29) met their
needs, as well as any accessories that may come in
handy such as laptop and tablet drawers.
employer to put
employees an ergonomic environment. There are
small things employees can do each day to improve
their work environment, take (30) strain off their
back and improve their productivity.
21. (1) spelling (2) reciting
(3) accounting (4) detailing
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct
22. (1) determine (2) drive
(3) incline (4) figure
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct
23. (1) guard (2) ascertained
(3) provide (4) doubt
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct
24. (1) ultimate (2) endless
(3) halting (4) ornamental
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct
25. (1) Affording (2) Administering
(3) Catering (4) Providing
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct
26. (1) interests (2) enthusiasm
(3) wishes (4) activities
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct
27. (1) weaken (2) decent
(3) decline (4) diminish
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct
28. (1) align (2) choose
(3) elect (4) prefer
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct
29. (1) ensemble (2) correspond
(3) attune (4) fit
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct
30. (1) constrict (2) wetness
(3) afflicted (4) afflicting
(5) The given word(s) is/are correct
Quantitative Aptitude Directions (31 35) : Study the table and answer
the given questions
School Number of females
who appeared
Ratio of number of
females and males
who appeared
A 520 13 : 10
B 450 3 : 2
C 330 3 : 5
D 420 7 : 6
E 300 4 : 5
31. What was the respective ratio of the difference
between the number of students (males and fe-
males) appearing from Schools A and C and those
appearing from Schools B and D?
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 6 : 5
(3) 7 : 6 (4) 5 : 3
(5) 5 : 4
32. In School B, if the number of males and fe-
males who failed x re-
spective ratio between the number of males and
females who passed the test was 5 : 8, what was the
value of x ?
(1) 75 (2) 60
(3) 45 (4) 80
(5) 50
33. Total number of students
(males and females) appearing from School D was
by what per cent more than those from School E?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
34. What was the average number of males who
appeared from Schools B, D and E?
(1) 350 (2) 345
(3) 355 (4) 340
(5) 335
35.What was the difference between the total num-
ber of females appearing from Schools A and C
together and that of males appearing from the same
Schools together?
(1) 120 (2) 100
(3) 90 (4) 130
(5) 110
Directions (36 40) : What approximate value will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the given
questions? (You are not expected to calculate the
exact value.)
36. 1440 ÷ √ + 44.85 ?
= 21.92 × 5.04
(1) 55 (2) 60
(3) 75 (4) 70
(5) 65
37. 59.94% of (? × 8.03) √ = 6.92
(1) 8 (2) 10
(3) 15 (4) 28
(5) 22
38.
√ ´ = 52
(1) 625 (2) 25
64
(3) 1225 (4) 35
(5) 1025
39. 3089.92 930.02 ? = 21.92 × 49.93
(1) 1030 (2) 900
(3) 1060 (4) 1080
(5) 920
40.
(1) 28 (2) 20
(3) 18 (4) 16
(5) 14
41. Radha invests certain sums in scheme A (for 6
years) and B (for 5 years) both offering simple in-
terest. The sum invested in scheme B was 25% less
than that in scheme A. The interests received from
both the schemes are equal. If the interest offered
by scheme A is 10% per annum what is the rate of
interest (per annum) offered by scheme B?
(1) 12% (2) 20%
(3) 16% (4) 15%
(5) 18%
42. The present age of B is three years more than
six years ago. The respective ratio
years
years present age ?
(1) 14 years (2) 32 years (3) 19 years (4) 22 years
(5) 18 years 43. Jar A has x litre milk and jar B has
y litre water. 80% milk and 20% water was taken
out from the respective jars and were mixed in jar
C. The respective ratio between milk and water in
jar C was 2 : 1. When 28 litre pure milk was added
to jar C, the total quantity of mixture in jar C be-
came 76 litre. What was the value of x ?
(1) 90 (2) 50
(3) 60 (4) 80
(5) 40
Directions (44 48) : What should come in place of
question mark (?) in the given number series ?
44. 5 9 35 209 ? 16709
(1) 1711 (2) 1574
(3) 1627 (4) 1671
(5) 1681
45. 5 12 23 43 79 ?
(1) 130 (2) 110
(3) 140 (4) 160
(5) 150
46. 256 252 225 209 84 ?
(1) 48 (2) 42
(3) 44 (4) 40
(5) 50
47. 8 3 2 2 3 ?
(1) 5.5 (2) 5
(3) 4.5 (4) 6.5
(5) 6
48. 17 18.6 15.4 21.8 9 ?
(1) 34.8 (2) 34.6
(3) 32.2 (4) 36.2
(5) 33.8
Directions (49 53) : Refer to the graph and answer
the given questions
Data regarding the number of students opting
for one of the five games at a Sports Academy
(having a total strength of 1400 students)
49. What is the difference between the total number
of students opting for Cricket and Volleyball to-
gether in 2012 and those opting for the same games
together in 2013?
(1) 110 (2) 160
(3) 130 (4) 100
(5) 120
50. What is the respective ratio between the total
number of students opting for Cricket in 2012 and
2013 together and those opting for Volleyball in the
same years together ?
(1) 6 : 7 (2) 8 : 9
(3) 7 : 8 (4) 4 : 5
(5) 5 : 6
51. At the end of 2013, the total strength of the
sports Academy increases by 5%. The new joiners
opt for Cricket and Tennis only, in the respective
ratio of 3 : 4.What is the new respective ratio of the
number of students opting for Cricket and Tennis ?
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 6 : 5
(3) 5 : 4 (4) 4 : 3
(5) 7 : 6
52. In 2012, number of students opting for football
is what per cent less than those opting for swim-
ming ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
53. What is the average number of students opting
for Cricket, Swimming and Volleyball in 2013?
(1) 300 (2) 320
(3) 290 (4) 310
(5) 280
65
54. A bag contains 25 cards (numbered 1, 2, 3, 4,
______, 25) Two cards are picked at random from
the bag (one after another and without replacement)
What is the probability that the first card drawn has
a prime number and the second card drawn has a
number which is multiple of 12?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
55. The sum of radius and height of right circular
cylinder is 29 metre. If the total surface area of the
cylinder is 1276 square metre, what is the volume
of the cylinder? (in cubic metre)
(1) 3340 (2) 3442
(3) 3774 (4) 3308
(5) 3388
Directions (56 60) : In the following questions,
two equations numbered I and II are given. You
have to solve both the equations and
Give answer If
(1) x < y (2) x > y
(3) x < y (4) x > y
(5) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
56. I. x2 3x 40 = 0
II. y2 15y + 54 = 0
57. I. 2x2 + 7x + 5 = 0
II. 5y2 + 9y + 4 = 0
58. I.x2 21x + 38 = 0
II. y2 11y + 28 = 0
59. I.(x + 13)2 = 0
II. y2 + y 56 = 0
60. I.9x2 18x + 8 = 0
II. 3y2 10y + 8 = 0
61. A and B together can finish a piece of work in
20 days. B and C can together finish the same piece
of work in 30 days If A is twice as efficient as C, in
how many days can C alone finish the same piece
of work?
(1) 36 (2) 40
(3) 42 (4) 60
(5) 48
62. Out of their respective monthly salaries, Sonia
and Tina spend 76% and 68% on various household
expenses. The sum of remaining salary with Sonia
30% less tha
monthly salary?
(1) Rs. 28,000 (2) Rs. 29000
(3) Rs. 25000 (4) Rs. 30000
(5) Rs. 32000
63. A, B and C started a business with investments
of Rs. 1200, Rs. 400 and Rs. 300 respectively. At
the end of 6 months from the start of the business,
A invested an additional amount x
total annual profit was 5 3 4 in an-
nual profit, what was the value of x ?
(1) 1200 (2) 1000
(3) 900 (4) 800
(5) 850
64. The distance covered upstream
a boat is equal to the distance covered downstream
in (T 1) hours. The speed of the boat upstream is
16 km/h and that downstream is 20 km/h. What is
the distance covered by the boat downstream? (in
km)
(1) 80 (2) 120
(3) 72 (4) 85
(5) 100
65. Renu sold article A at a loss of 10%. She sold
article B at a price which was 25% more than the
selling price of article A. If she made a profit of
20% on article B, by what per cent is the cost price
of article A more than that of article B?
(1)
(2) 4
(3) 5 (4)
(5)
Reasoning 66. C is the mother-in-law of Z. Z is the only child
of P. P is the grandfather of S. S is the niece of T. If
C has only one daughter, how is T definitely related
to Z?
(1) Daughter-in-law
(2) Brother-in-law
(3) Sister
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) Sister-in-law
67. In a vertical queue of 15 people all facing north
with equal distance between each other, P stands
third from one of the extreme ends of the queue.
Only six people stand between P and A. The num-
ber of people standing before A is same as that
standing after G. Q stands exactly between A and
G. How many people stand after Q?
(1) Seven (2) Four
(3) Twelve (4) Six
(5) Eight
Directions (68 70) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Each of the six stores D, E, F, G, H and I sold dif-
ferent number of fruits in one day. Only two stores
66
sold less fruits than I. F sold less fruits than D but
more than G and I. G sold less fruits than I. H sold
more fruits than D. The store which sold the third
highest number of fruits sold 62 fruits (Note : the
number of fruits sold is in whole numbers).
68. If the total number of fruits sold by E is 60,
with reference to the total number of fruits sold, E +
D = 135, then D + F = _______ ?
(1) 122 (2) 111
(3) 129 (4) 139
(5) 137
69. If the total number of fruits sold by E is 60, then
who amongst the following sold the lowest number
of fruits?
(1) G (2) D
(3) F (4) Cannot be deter-
mined
(5) E
70. How many fruits did H probably sell ?
(1) 61 (2) 54
(3) 81 (4) 49
(5) 30
Directions (71 75) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight people J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q were
born in different years, viz. 1955, 1963, 1977,
1982, 1988, 1993, 2000 and 2006 but not necessari-
ly in the same order.
Note :
(A) All calculations are done with respect to the
present year, 2017 assuming the month and date to
be the same as that of the years of birth as men-
tioned above.
(B) Each person is assumed to be born on the same
date and same month of the respective years M was
born after 1993. The sum of the present ages of M
and Q is 46. The difference between the present
ages of Q divisible by
9. The difference between the present ages of N and
J is less than 6. J is older than N. O was born in an
even numbered year. O is not 11 year old.
71. How many person(s) is/are younger than M?
(1) Three (2) None
(3) Two (4) One
(5) More than three
72. Which of the following statements is true re-
garding K as per the given arrangement?
(1) The difference between the present ages of K
and P is less than 12.
(2) K was born in an even numbered year.
(3) None of the given statements is true.
(4) K is younger than L
(5) K is 11 years old.
73. If N is older than O but younger than J, then
which of the following can possibly be the present
age of N (in years)?
(1) 24 (2) 17
(3) 29 (4) 35
(5) 40
74. Who amongst the following was born in the
year 1977?
(1) J (2) K
(3) L (4) N
(5) P
75. Which of the following represents the present
ages of J and L (in years) respectively?
(1) 35, 54 (2) 24, 40
(3) 24, 62 (4) 29, 54
(5) 29, 40
76. In a certain code language,
. How
code language? (All the
given codes are two letter codes only)
(2) dc
(3) st
(4)
(5) gf
77. What should come in place of $ and # respec-
tively in the expressions V > U > L > T $ R; M > O
# V > P, so that the expression R < M definitely
holds true?
(1) >, > (2) <, <
(3) <, < (4) None of those given
as options
(5) <, <
Directions (78 80) : In these questions, relation-
ship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by two
Conclusions numbered I and.
II. Study the Conclusions based on the given state-
ments and select the appropriate answer.
Give answer (1) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-
clusion II is true
Give answer (2) if both the Conclusion I and Con-
clusion II are true
Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I is true
Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true
Give answer (5) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-
sion II is true
78. Statements :
S < P < A > R > O; E > L > A < W < Y
Conclusions :
I. E > S
67
II. O < Y
(79 80) :
Statements :
C > R > E < A < P; G > I > C < O < N
79. Conclusions :
I. N > P
II. G > A
80. Conclusions :
I. I > R
II. I = R
Directions (81 85) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight persons A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S have a
party in either April or December of the same year
which will be organised only on the four days viz.,
4th, 17th, 20th and 29th of each month. No two
people have a party on the same day. A has a party
in December on an odd numbered date. Only three
people have to attend a party between A and C. The
number of people having a party after C is same as
those having a party before B. Only one person has
a party between P and B. P does not have to attend
a party in April. Both S and R have to attend a party
on the same date. S has to party on one of the days
after R. Only two people have to attend a party be-
tween S and Q.
81. How many people have to attend a party be-
tween Q and D?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Three (4) Two
(5) More than three
82. When does Q have to attend a party ?
(1) 4th April (2) 29th December
(3) 17th December (4) Cannot be deter-
mined
(5) 20th April
83. Who among the following have to attend a par-
ty on 4th April and 4th December ?
(1) B, C (2) R, S
(3) P, B (4) B, D
(5) P, C
84. Which of the following statements is true with
respect to the given information?
(I) S has to attend a party on 4th December
(II) Only two people have to attend a party between
A and Q
(III) C has to attend a party on one of the days after
R.
(1) None of the given statements is true
(2) Both (I) and (II)
(3) Only (III)
(4) Only (I)
(5) Both (II) and (III)
85. In the given arrangement, if Q and A inter-
change their positions and so do C and P, then how
many people will have to attend a party between A
and C?
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) One (4) More than three
(5) None
Directions (86 90) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight persons A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S all of
them facing north are sitting in a straight line.
Each person is having different age viz., 14, 16, 21,
26, 28, 17, 29 and 31 but not necessarily in the
same order. B sits at one of the extreme ends of the
number. There are three
persons sitting between one whose age is 16 and B.
One whose age is 29 sits second to the left of C. C
sits to the right of one whose age is 16 but not im-
mediately. D sits at the third position from the left
end. The one who is the eldest among all is not an
immediate neighbour of D, who is not the youngest
among all. P sits to the immediate right of one who
nor 17. Differ-
are two persons sitting between one whose age is
26 and S, who sits to the right of one whose age is
26. R is not to the immediate left of S. Q sits third
to the right of A.
86. Who among the following persons sits second
to the right of S?
(1) B (2) C
(3) Q (4) A
(5) None of these
87. What is the age of one who sits to the immedi-
ate right of P?
(1) 17 (2) 28
(3) 14 (4) 26
(5) Cannot be determined
88. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the given arrangement and hence
they form a group.
Which one of the following does not belong to that
group?
(1) 14, R (2) P, 29
(3) 26, B (4) Q, 29
(5) S, 21
89. Who among the following persons are immedi-
ate neighbours of one whose age is 14?
(1) P and Q (2) C and S
(3) S and B (4) R and C
(5) None of these
68
90. Which of the following statement is/are defi-
nitely true?
(1) One who sits third to the right of S is Q, whose
age is 14.
ages are consecutive
numbers.
(3) R is an immediate neighbour of S and C.
a prime number.
(5) Both (2) and (4)
91. A person starts from Point A, walks 7m towards
north and reaches Point B. He then takes a right
turn, followed by a right turn and walks for 10m
each time. He then takes a right turn and walks
14m. He takes a final left turn, walks 3m and
reaches Point C. Point Z is 10m to the north of
Point C. Point Z is in which direction with respect
to Point B?
(1) North-West (2) South-East
(3) South-West (4) North-East
(5) South
92. Five movies D, E, F, G and H are to be
released on five different days of the same week
starting from Monday and ending on Friday, but not
necessarily in the same order. E will be released on
one of the days after Tuesday but not on Wednes-
day. Only two movies will be released between E
and F. D will be released immediately before F.
Only one movie will be released between D and H,
which movie is released immediately after G?
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) H
(3) E (4) D
(5) F
93. In the number 2698345, three is subtracted from
each digit greater than five. Five is added to each
digit less than four.
All other digits are kept unchanged.
In the new number thus formed, which of the fol-
lowing digits will appear more than once ?
(1) None (2) Only 3
(3) Both 3 and 6 (4) Both 3 and 4
(5) Only 5
94. Leena placed four envelopes A, B, C and D
above one another but not necessarily in the
same order. She kept one of the items in each of the
envelopes Tickets, Passport, Marksheets and
Stationery but not necessarily in the same order.
The envelope containing Passport is kept immedi-
aely below A. No envelope is kept between A and
C. The envelope containing Tickets is kept imme-
diately above the envelope containing Marksheets.
A does not contain Marksheets. What is the posi-
tion of the envelope containing Stationery from the
top of the stack ?
(1) Fourth (2) Cannot be deter-
mined
(3) Second (4) First
(5) Third
95. In which of the following expression does the
expression K > N definitely holds false ?
(1) Q < U = B < K; N < T < Q < R
(2) Q = U = B < K; N < T < Q > R
(3) Q < U < B > K; N = T < Q > R
(4) Q = U < B < K; N < T < Q > R
(5) Q = U < B < K; N < T < Q > R
Directions (96 100) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight people viz. Z, V, N, E, L, Q, H and U live on
eight different floors of a building. The ground
floor of the building is numbered one, the one
above that is numbered two and so on till the top-
most floor is numbered eight. All of them play a
different video games viz., Batman, Darkstone,
Gothic, Magicka, Jurassic Park, Rayman, Payday
and Victoria
(Note : None of the given information is necessari-
ly in the same order.) E lives on floor number two.
No one lives between E and the one who plays
Batman. Only four people live between U and the
one who plays Batman. Only one person lives be-
tween U and the one who plays Magicka.
The one who plays Magicka does not live on the
topmost floor.
As many people live between the one who plays
Batman and Magicka as between L and Q. L lives
on an odd numbered floor above Q. As many peo-
ple live between the one who plays Batman and Q
as between the one who plays Darkstone and Q.
The one who plays Payday lives on an even num-
bered floor immediately above the one who plays
Victoria but on floor above two. Only two people
live between H and Z. H lives on one of the floors
above Z. The one who plays Rayman lives immedi-
ately below the one who plays Gothic. Only one
person lives between V and N. V lives on one of
the floors above N.
96. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the given arrangement and thus they
form a group. Which one of the following does not
belong to the group?
(1) V Floor Number Six
(2) Q Victoria
(3) Z Magicka (4) U Floor Number
Five
69
(5) H Darkstone
97. Who plays Jurassic Park ?
(1) E (2) Q
(3) L (4) H
(5) N
98. Which of the following statements is true as per
the given arrangement ?
(1) Z lives on floor number five.
(2) Q plays Magicka.
(3) Only one person lives between U and H.
(4) V lives immediately above E.
(5) All the given statements are true
99. Which game does U play ?
(1) Victoria (2) Payday
(3) Rayman (4) Gothic
(5) Batman
100. How many people live between the one who
plays Gothic and U ?
(1) Three (2) One
(3) Two (4) Four
(5) None
Answer Key 1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (5) 9.
(4) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (5) 14. (2) 15. (5) 16.
(5) 17. (3) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (4) 22. (1) 23.
(5) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (2) 29. (4) 30.
(5) 31. (1) 32. (5) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (2) 36. (1) 37.
(3) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (2) 41. (3) 42. (5) 43. (5) 44.
(4) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (5) 50. (3) 51.
(5) 52. (1) 53. (1) 54. (1) 55. (5) 56. (5) 57. (3) 58.
(5) 59. (1) 60. (3) 61. (4) 62. (4) 63. (4) 64. (1) 65.
(1) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (5) 69. (1) 70. (3) 71. (2) 72.
(3) 73. (1) 74. (5) 75. (4) 76. (4) 77. (1) 78. (2) 79.
(1) 80. (5) 81. (2) 82. (5) 83. (4) 84. (3) 85. (1) 86.
(3) 87. (1) 88. (2) 89. (4) 90. (5) 91. (3) 92. (3) 93.
(5) 94. (2) 95. (3) 96. (1) 97. (4) 98. (5) 99. (2) 100.
(3)
70
Solutions: 1. (1) But shows contrast. Hence,
without responsible development
.....should be used here.
2. (2) Feast on something = to eat a
lot of good food and enjoy it very
much. Hence, feasting on should be
used here.
3. (1) On its way out = going out of
fashion; in the process of becoming
redundant or obsolete. Hence, on its
way out should be used here.
4. (2) Optimisitic (Adjective) = ex-
pecting good things to happen : posi-
tive. Look at the sentence : She is
not very optimisitic about the out-
come of the talks. Hence, about the
process should be used.
5. (4) In the advancement = in the
progress. Hence, in the advancement
..... should be used here.
6. (2) Here, remove the deficiency
(Noun) .....should be used.
7. (1) Down the street = a short dis-
tance away on the same street
9. (4) Here, for optimum utilisation
(Noun) .....should be used.
10. (1) Generality is evident. Hence,
It is observed ..... should be used.
12. (3) Flat (Adjective) = complete
or certain, and not likely to change;
unvarying.
14. (2) Drop (Verb) = to stop doing
or discussing something; to not con-
tinue with something doing or dis-
cussing something; to not continue
with something. Sustain (Verb) = to
make something continue for some-
time.
18. (5) Potential (Noun/Adjective) =
develop, achieve or succeed. Look at
the sentence : The region has enor-
mous potential for economic devel-
opment.
20. (2) Track (Verb) = to record the
progress ; monitor. Look at the sen-
tence : The study tracked the careers
of 100 doctors who trained at the
Medical school.
21. (4) Detail (Verb) = give full
information about
22. (1) Determine (Verb) = to dis-
cover the facts about something.
23. (5) Ensure (Verb) = make sure.
24. (2) Endless = very large in size;
limitless.
25. (4) Interest = advantage
27. (3) Decline = to become weaker
31. (1) Males who appear in the
test :
School
School
School
School
Difference between the
number of students from
schools A and who appear
in test
Difference between the number of
students from schools
and who appear in test
Required ratio
32. (5) School
Males who appear in test
According to the question,
33. (2) Males from school who
appear in test
Total number of students who
appear in test :
School
School
Required per cent
(
)
%
34. (2) Required average
35. (2) Required difference
36. (1) √
37. (3)
√
38. (3) √
√
√
39. (3) 3090 930−?
. (2)
√
41. (3) Let the investment in
scheme A be Rs. 100.
Investment in scheme S.I.
According to the question,
per annum
42. (5) Let
years.
(
) years
(
) years
years
According to the question,
years
43. (5) Case I, Quantity of milk in
vessel
litres
Quantity of water
litres
According to the question,
(i)
Case II, On adding 28 litres of milk,
litres
44. (4) The pattern is :
5 × 2 1 = 10 1 = 9
9 × 4 1 = 36 1 = 35
35 × 6 1 = 210 1 = 209
71
209 × 8 1 = 1672 1 = 1671
1671 × 10 1 = 16710 1
= 16709
45. (3) The pattern is :
5 + 7 = 12
12 + 11 (= 7 + 22) = 23
23 + 20 (=11 + 32) = 43
43 + 36 (= 20 + 42) = 79
79 + 61 (= 36 + 52) = 140
46. (1) The pattern is :
256 22 = 256 4 = 252
252 33 = 252 27 = 225
225 42 = 225 16 = 209
209 53 = 209 125 = 84
84 62 = 84 36 = 48
47. (4) The pattern is :
6.5
48. (2) The pattern is :
17 + 1.6 = 18.6
18.6 2 × 1.6 = 18.6 3.2
= 15.4
15.4 + 2 × 3.2 = 15.4 + 6.4
= 21.8
21.8 6.4 × 2 = 21.8 12.8 = 9
9 + 12.8 × 2 = 9 + 25.6 = 34. 6 .
49. (5) Required difference
= (320 + 340) (240 + 300)
= 660 540 = 120
50. (3) Required ratio
= (240 + 320) : (300 + 340)
= 560 : 640
= 7 : 8
51. (5) In the end of 2013, Number
of new students
Cricket
Tennis
Required ratio
: (260 40)
52. (1) Required per cent
(
)
%
53. (1) Required average
54. (1)
55. (5) According to the question,
metre
Total surface area of cylinder
metre
metre
Volume of cylinder
cubic metre
56. (5) I. x2 3x 40 = 0
x2 8x + 5x 40 = 0
x (x 8) + 5 (x 8) = 0
(x 8) (x + 5) = 0
x = 8 or, 5
II. y2 15y + 54 = 0
y2 9y 6y + 54 = 0
y (y 9) 6 (y 9) = 0
(y 9) (y 6) = 0
y = 9 or, 6
57. (3) I. 2x2 + 7x + 5 = 0
2x2 + 2x + 5x + 5 = 0
2x (x + 1) + 5 (x + 1) = 0
(x + 1) (2x + 5) = 0
x = 1 or, 5/2
II. 5y2 + 9y + 4 = 0
5y2 + 5y + 4y + 4 = 0
5y (y + 1) + 4 (y +1) = 0
(y + 1) (5y + 4) = 0
y = 1 or, 4/5
Clearly, x < y
58. (5) I. x2 21x + 38 = 0
x2 2x 19x + 38 = 0
x (x 2) 19 (x 2) = 0
(x 2) (x 19) = 0
x = 2 or, 19
II. y2 11y + 28 = 0
y2 4y 7y + 28 = 0
y (y 4) 7 (y 4) = 0
(y 4) (y 7) = 0
y = 4 or, 7
59. (1) I. (x + 13)2 = 0
x = 13, 13
II. y2 + y 56 = 0
y2 + 8y 7y 56 = 0
y (y + 8) 7 (y + 8) = 0
(y 7) (y + 8)
y = 7 or, 8
Clearly, x < y
60. (3) I. 9x2 18x + 8 = 0
9x2 6x 12x + 8 = 0
3x (3x 2) 4 (3x 2) = 0
(3x 2) (3x 4) = 0
x = 2/3 or, 4/3
II. 3y2 10y + 8 = 0
3y2 6y 4y + 8 = 0
3y (y 2) 4 (y 2) = 0
(y 2) (3y 4) = 0
y = 2 or, 4/3
Clearly, x < y
61. (4)
If time taken by be days, then
[A is twice
as efficient as ].
days
62.
. 100
Monthly savings of both
(
)
If savings
salary . 75
If savings
salary
(
)
. 30000
63. (4) Ratio of the equivalent cap‐ itals of and for 1 month
:
According to the question,
64. (1) According to the question,
hours
Distance covered down‐ stream km.
65. (1) C.P. of article . 100
Its S.P. . 90
S.P. of article
. 112.5
C.P. of article
(
)
. 93.75
Required per cent
72
71. 75.
Year Person
Case-I Case-II
1955 K
1963 L L
1977 J P
1982 N Q
1988 Q J
1993 P N
2000 M O
2006 M
77. (1) V > U > L > T > R M > O >
V < P M > O > V > U > L > T > R R
< M : True
78. (2) S < P < A > R > O E > L > A
< W < Y S < P < A < L < E Y > W >
A > R > O
Conclusions : I. E > S : True II. O <
Y : True (79 80) : C > R > E < A <
P G > I > C < O < R P > A > E < R
< C < O < N G > I > C > R > E < A I
> C > R
79. (1) Conclusions : I. N > P : Not
True II. G > A : Not True
80. (5) Conclusions : I. I > R : Not
True II. I = R : Not True I is either
greater than or equal to R. Therefore,
either Conclusion I or Conclusion II
is true.
81. 85.
Month Date Person
Case-I Case-II
April 4th D
17th C R
20th Q
29th R C
December 4th P B
17th A S
20th B P
29th S A
Floor
Number
Person Video Game
8 H Jurassic Park
7 L Darkstone
6 U Payday
5 Z Victoria
4 Q Magicka
3 V Gothic
2 E Rayman
1 N Batman
73
RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-
4) English Language
Directions (1 10) : Which of the phrases given
against the sentences should replace the word/
phrase given in bold in each sentence to make it
grammatically correct?
If the sentence is correct as it is given and no cor-
rection is required,
as the answer.
1. The presence of new players on the basketball
team is to additionally attract for the audience.
(1) with add attraction
(2) for adding attractive
(3) an added attraction
(4) of adding attraction
(5) No correction required
2. The dire need of amusement to escape boredom
made him cultivate various hobbies.
(1) escaped boredom
(2) as escaping boredom
(3) escapes bored (4) for escape being
bored
(5) No correction required
3. We were credibly informed that the Conman has
gave himself to the police.
(1) given over (2) give himself in
(3) given himself over
(4) given himself up
(5) No correction required
4. We tempted Karen with many promises but noth-
ing would worked her up.
(1) working with her
(2) works her over
(3) works upon her
(4) work on her
(5) No correction required
5. The soil of India saw growths of one of the old-
est culture in the world that is the Harappan Civili-
zation.
(1) seen the growth
(2) saw the growth
(3) had saw growing
(4) see the growths
(5) No correction required
6. A renowned organisation has recent appointed a
highly acclaimed scientist to head new research and
development assistant.
(1) recently appointed
(2) a recent appointed
(3) is to appoint (4) to recently appointed
an
(5) No correction required
7. The serene lush green slope of the hill station
make it up ideal venue for the meditation camp.
(1) making so ideal
(2) is ideal for
(3) makes it an ideal
(4) as of ideal
(5) No correction required
8. Taking good care of yourself is paramount for
succession of your goals.
(1) about being a success
(2) to the success
(3) about being successful
(4) to succeed
(5) No correction required
9. The tambourine to gain popularity in the mid
18th century in Western Europe as an orchestral
instrument.
(1) was been popular
(2) have popularity
(3) has being popular
(4) gained popularity
(5) No correction required
10. Varun advised Aman that give off wrong pleas-
ure is not selfsacrifice but self-culture.
(1) gave up (2) gives away
(3) giving through
(4) giving up
(5) No correction required
Directions (11 20) : Read the following passage
and answer the given questions. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
There is a market failure in cyber security. Solu-
tions being suggested or tried include increasing
transparency about data losses, helping consumers
and firms to make more informed decisions about
cyber-security; shedding more light on how inter-
net-service provideRs (ISPs) tackle malware infec-
tions and using
liability laws to force software companies to pro-
duce safer code. On transparency, America has led
the way. Almost all American states now have data-
breach laws that require firms to reveal any loss of
sensitive customer information.
In Europe telecoms firms have been obliged to noti-
fy customers of breaches for some time now, and
there are plans to extend reporting to a wider range
of industries.
Breach laws have encouraged insurance companies
to offer coverage against potential losses. This is
74
helpful because they are in a position to gather and
share information about best practices across a wide
range of companies. A cyberinsurer advises com-
panies on defensive tactics, and also on how to
minimise the damage if something goes wrong. The
American government should create a cyber-
equivalent of the National Transportation Safety
Board, which investigates serious accidents and
shares information about them. Such a body could
look into all breaches that cost over, $50m and
make sure the lessons are shared widely. But insur-
ers are likely to remain wary of taking on broader
risks because the costs associated with a serious
cyber- incident could be astronomic.
Insurers can deal with acts of God, but not acts of
Anonymous (hacking groups or acts of state spon-
sored overall cyber-insurance market is still small.
Governments are weighing in, too, not least by
supporting private-sector efforts to clean up t-
computers con-
trolled by hackers. These networks, which are prev-
alent in countries such as America and China, can
be used to launch attacks and spread malware.
In Germany an initiative called Bot- Frei, which
helps people clean up their infected computers,
received government support to get started, though
it is now self-financing. The American government
has also worked closely with private firms to bring
down large botnets. Another strategy involves issu-
ing standards to encourage improved security.
Standards and
Technology published a set of voluntary guidelines
for companies in critical-infrastructure sectors such
as energy and transport. Britain has also launched a
scheme called - under which firms
can apply for a certificate showing they comply
with certain minimum security standards. Appli-
cants undergo an external audit and, if successful,
are awarded a badge which they can use on market-
ing materials.
Whether governments are best placed to set mini-
mum standards is debatable, but they have certainly
raised awareness of cyber-security as an issue that
needs attention.
They could also help to get more information into
the public domain.
Researchers have argued persuasively that collect-
ing and publishing data about the quantity of spam
and other bad traffic handled by ISPs could encour-
age the worst performers to do more to tackle the
problem, thus improving overall security.
Another debate has revolved around getting soft-
ware companies to produce code with fewer flaws
in it. One idea is to make them liable for damage
caused when, say, hackers exploit a weakness in a
software program. Most software companies cur-
rently insist customers accept end-user licensing
agreements that specifically protect firms from le-
gal claims unless local laws prohibit such exclu-
sions. The snag is that imposing blanket liability
could have a chilling effect on innovation.
Companies that are selling millions of copies of
programmes might take fright at the potential expo-
sure and leave the business. Strict liability be ap-
plied only to firms which produce software that
cannot be patched if a security flaw is found.
There is quite a lot of that sort of code around.
11. Which of the following is the SAME in mean-
ing as the word BROADER as used in the passage?
(1) spacious (2) subtle
(3) weaker (4) comprehensive
(5) approximate
12. Which of the following is/are the argument(s) in
favour of cyber- essentials?
(A) It boosts transparency and promotion of firms
(B) The certification is given by hackers which
makes it authentic
(C) Firms benefit from paying attention to cyber-
security and so do users.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A) and (C) (4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)
13. Which of the following is the SAME in mean-
ing as the word TRIED as used in the passage?
(1) convicted (2) accused
(3) attempted (4) exasperated
(5) None of the given options
14. Which of the following is the OPPOSITE of
the word SERIOUS as used in the passage?
(1) genuine (2) witty
(3) noisy (4) insignificant
(5) irresistible
15. Which of the following is the OPPOSITE of
the word CHILLING as used in the passage?
(1) promoting (2) reassuring
(3) encouraging (4) fostering
(5) All the given options
16. Which of the following best describes the au-
laws?
(1) These will act as incentives for computer firms
to produce more secure software.
(2) These are pointless as they cannot be uniformly
or strictly implemented.
(3) These will not greatly impact computer firms as
the financial profits from software are huge.
75
(4) These are not an appropriate approach to cyber
security.
(5) None of the given options
17. Which of the following can be said about gov-
ernment efforts with regard to cyber security?
(A) Government efforts have been coupled with
private sector cooperation
(B) Government efforts have been focused on de-
stroying botnet infrastructure
(C) These are not worth while and too small in
magnitude.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A) and (B) (4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)
18. Why has the author mentioned the National
Transportation Security Board in the passage?
(A) To urge America to set up a body to share data
in cyberrelated instances
(B) To monitor cyber security episodes whose loss-
es are over a certain sum
(C) To publish and enforce standards for cyber-
security for sectors like energy.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Only (B) (4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)
19. Which of the following is/are
(a) theme(s) of the passage?
(1) Holding cyber firms accountable for flaws in
their products.
(2) Cyber-crime infrastructure in certain countries.
(3) Ways to secure cyber - space.
(4) Limits of cyber-insurance.
(5) All the given options are themes.
20. Which of the following is/are true in the context
of the passage?
(1) Breach laws can be helpful for organisations.
(2) America is leading the way in terms of laws for
disclosure of cyber-breaches.
(3) Pressure is increasing on software companies to
produce safer products.
(4) Varied efforts are being made to create a market
which values cyber-security.
(5) All the given options are true in the context of
the passage.
Directions (21 30) : In the given passage there are
words/group of words highlighted in bold. You
have to decide if the word/group of words given is
correct (in terms of grammar and context). If not,
find out the appropriate word/group of words from
the given options. In case, the suggested
word/group of words is correct, mark the option
your answer.
Everyone knows that (21) sustenance brainboxes is
good for an economy. In Thailand, school reform-
ers have an extra incentive to narrow (22) con-
trasting between rich people in cities and their
poorer rural cousins, which have (23) fulfilled to a
decade of political tension and occasional eruptions
of violence.
For years shoddy teaching has favoured urban chil-
dren whose parents can afford to send them to
cramming schools or to study abroad. Dismal in-
struction in the countryside has made it easier for
city slickers from posh colleges to paint their politi-
cal opponents as pliable bumpkins.
The dangerous social divide is all the more reason
to (24) worry
educational league table published in December.
Thailand limped into the bottom quarter of 70
countries whose pupils participated in the mathe-
matics, reading and science tests organised under
the Programme for International Student Assess-
ment (PISA). Its scores (25) been crushed since a
previous assessment in 2012, when researchers
found that almost one-third of -year
-olds were al-
most half of those studying in rural schools.
(26) error performance is not dramati-
cally out of step with countries of similar incomes.
But it is strange given its unusually generous (27)
allocation of on education, which in some years
has hoovered up more than a quarter of the budget.
Rote learning is common. There is a shortage of
maths and science teachers, but a (28) overflow of
physical-education instructors. Many head teachers
lack the authority to hire or fire their own staff. A
big problem is that Thailand spends too much mon-
ey teaching is
the poorest. Almost half of Thailand schools have
fewer than 120 students, and most of those have
less than one teacher per class.
Opening lots of village schools once helped Thai-
land (29) achieve impressive attendance rates, but
roadbuilding and other improvements in infrastruc-
ture mean most schools are now within 20 minutes
of another.
Over the next ten years falling birth rales will re-
duce school rolls by more than 1m, making it ever
more (30) fulfilled for tiny institutions to provide
adequate instruction at a reasonable cost.
21. (1) diluting (2) nurturing
(3) alleviating (4) ornamental
(5) The given option(s) is/are correct
22. (1) contracts (2) characteristic
(3) distinct (4) differences
76
(5) The given option(s) is/are correct
23. (1) preceded (2) managed
(3) compelled (4) led
(5) The given option(s) is/are correct
24. (1) concern (2) apprehension
(3) fearful (4) distress
(5) The given option(s) is/are correct
25. (1) deteriorated (2) sink
(3) decomposed (4) declining
(5) The given option(s) is/are correct
26. (1) extreme (2) cheerful
(3) dismal (4) inauspicious
(5) The given option(s) is/are correct
27. (1) employed (2) investing
(3) spending (4) setting
(5) The given option(s) is/are correct
28. (1) satiety (2) surplus with
(3) saturated (4) surfeit
(5) The given option(s) is/are correct
29. (1) complete (2) conclude
(3) acquired (4) adhere
(5) The given option(s) is/are correct
30. (1) difficult (2) ambition
(3) troubling (4) doubtful
(5) The given option(s) is/are correct
Quantitative Aptitude Directions (31 35) : What approximate value will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the fol-
lowing questions? (You are not expected to calcu-
late the exact value).
31. ?2 137.99 ÷ 6 = 21.99 × 23.01
(1) 23 (2) 50
(3) 42 (4) 29
(5) 35
32. ?% of 400.02 + 12. 932 = 285
(1) 18 (2) 15
(3) 24 (4) 34
(5) 29
33. (3327. 99 27. 93) ÷ ? = 110 ×
5.99
(1) 9 (2) 1
(3) 19 (4) 15
(5) 5
34. 5520 ÷ 12.01 + √ × 5.99 =?
(1) 350 (2) 550
(3) 500 (4) 450
(5) 250
35. 160.01 + 40 ÷ (16.5 ÷ 33) = ?
(1) 310 (2) 290
(3) 250 (4) 350
(5) 240
Directions (36 40) : Refer to the graph and answer
the given questions. A B Number of students who
opted for two courses A and B from 2010 to
2014
36. Number of students who opted for Course B in
2013 was what per cent more than that who opted
for course A in 2013?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
37. What is the difference between the total number
of students who opted for Courses A and B together
in 2012 and that who opted for both the courses
together in 2014?
(1) 50 (2) 30
(3) 60 (4) 40
(5) 45
38. x Courses A and B
each and the ratio of number of students that failed
Courses A and B respectively was 5 : 2, what is the
x
(1) 190 (2) 220
(3) 160 (4) 150
(5) 180
39. What is the average number of students who
opted for Course A in 2010, 2011 and 2012?
(1) 225 (2) 250
(3) 230 (4) 240
(5) 260
40. The number of students who opted for Courses
A and B in 2011 was respectively 25% more and
35% less than that in 2009. What was the total
number of students who opted for Courses A and B
together in 2009?
(1) 600 (2) 540
(3) 575 (4) 560
(5) 584
41. The respective ratio between numerical values
of curved surface area and volume of right circular
cylinder is 1 : 7. If the respective ratio between the
77
diameter and height of the cylinder is 7 : 5, what is
the total surface area of the cylinder? (in metre2)
(1) 2992 (2) 3172
(3) 2882 (4) 3576
(5) 3992
42. The time taken by the boat to cover a distance
of (D 56) km upstream is half of that taken by it
km downstream. The
respective ratio between the speed of the boat
downstream and that upstream is 5 : 3. If the time
taken to cover (D 32) km upstream is 4 hours,
what is the speed of water current? (in km./h.)
(1) 5 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 16
(5) 8
43. Poonam invests Rs. 4200 in scheme A which
offers 12% per annum of simple interest. She also
invests Rs. (4200 P) in scheme B offering 10%
per annum of compound interest (compounded an-
nually). The difference between the interests Poo-
nam earns from both the schemes at the end of 2
years is Rs. 294, what is the value of P?
(1) 1500 (2) 800
(3) 600 (4) 1000
(5) Other than those given as options
44. Man sold two articles A (at a profit of 40%)
and B (at a loss of 20%). He incurred a total profit
of Rs. 18 in the whole deal. If article A costs Rs.
140 less than article B, what is the price of article
B?
(1) Rs. 380 (2) Rs. 280
(3) Rs. 340 (4) Rs. 375
(5) Rs. 370
45. B is eighteen years older than A. The respective
ratio of age six years present age
is 3 : 2. If at of A,
years ago?
(1) 24 years (2) 28 years
(3) 29 years (4) 26 years
(5) 16 years
46. Time taken by A alone to finish a piece of work
is 60% more than that taken by A and B together to
finish the same piece of work. C is twice as effi-
cient as B. If B and C together can complete the
same piece of work in
days, in how many days
can A alone finish the same piece of work?
(1) 36 (2) 24
(3) 16 (4) 28
(5) Other than those given as options
47. Out of her monthly salary, Ridhi spends 34%
various expenses. From the remaining, she gives
1/6 th to her brother, 2/3 rd to her sister and the
remaining she keeps as savings. If the difference
between the amounts she gave to her sister and
brother was Rs. 10,260,
(1) Rs. 3,740 (2) Rs. 3,420
(3) Rs. 4,230 (4) Rs. 3,230
(5) Other than those given as options
48. A bag contains 63 cards (numbered 1, 2, 3, .......
63). Two cards are picked at random from the bag
(one after another and without replacement), what
is the probability that the sum of numbers of both
the cards drawn is even?
(1) 11/21 (2) 34/63
(3) 7/11 (4) 11/63
(5) Other than those given as options
Directions (49 54) : In the following questions,
two equations numbered I and II are given. You
have to solve both the equations and select the ap-
propriate answer
(1) if x < y (2) if x > y
(3) if x < y (4) if x > y
(5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot
be established
49. I. 2x2 + 11x + 14 = 0
II. 4y2 + 12y + 9 = 0
50. I. 3x2 4x + 1 = 0
II. 15y2 8y + 1 = 0
51. I. x2 + 14x + 45 = 0
II. y2 + 19y + 88 = 0
52. I. x2 2x 8 = 0
II. y2 + 15y + 54 = 0
53. I. 2x2 9x + 9 = 0
II. y2 7y + 12 = 0
54. I. x2 = 121
II. y2 23y + 132 = 0
55. A jar contains mixture of milk and water in the
respective ratio of 3 : 1.
th of the mixture is taken
out and 24 litre water was added to it. If the result-
ant ratio between milk and water in the jar was 2 :
1, what was the initial quantity of mixture in the
jar? (in litre)
(1) 160 (2) 180
(3) 200 (4) 250
(5) None of these
Directions (56 60) : What will come in place of
the question mark
(?) in the following number series?
56. 17 9 10 16.5 ? 90
(1) 44 (2) 35
(3) 48 (4) 38
(5) 33
57. 7 6 10 27 ? 515
(1) 112 (2) 104
(3) 114 (4) 96
(5) 108
78
58. 33 40 29 42 25 ?
(1) 40 (2) 44
(3) 52 (4) 48
(5) 46
59. 316 307 282 233 152 ?
(1) 35 (2) 25
(3) 31 (4) 41
(5) 47
60. 5 9 33 72 121 ?
(1) 169 (2) 163
(3) 171 (4) 184
(5) other than those given as options
Directions (61 65) : Study the table and answer
the given questions Centre Total Number
of registered Voters
Per ce n t ag e of.
people who voted
(out of the t otal
number of r e g i s t e r
e d voters)
A 2100 80
B 1750 80
C 3000 70
D 2400 76
E 2000 85
61. What is the average number of people who
voted at centres B, D and E?
(1) 1700 (2) 1641
(3) 1720 (4) 1740
(5) 1560
62. What per cent of the total number of registered
voters cast invalid votes at centre D, if the number
of invalid votes cast at centre D was 10% of the
number of votes cast?
(1) 5.5 (2) 8.5
(3) 7.5 (4) 6.5
(5) Other than those given as options
63. At centre F, the total number of registered vot-
ers was 25% less than that at centre C. At centre F,
number of people who voted was 450 less than that
at centre C and 150 votes cast were declared inva-
lid. What was the respective ratio between the
number of valid votes cast and the total number of
registered voters at centre F ?
(1) 4 : 5 (2) 3 : 4
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 6 : 1
(5) 5 : 8
64. Number of people who did not vote at centre D
was what per cent more than that who did not vote
at centre A?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5) Other than those given as options
65. What is the difference between the total number
of people who did not vote at centres A and B to-
gether and that who did not vote at centres D and E
together?
(1) 80 (2) 60
(3) 50 (4) 70
(5) 106
Reasoning 66. Five movies D, E, F, G and H are released
on five different days of the same week starting
from Monday and ending on Friday, but not neces-
sarily in the same order. F is released on one of the
days before Thursday. Only two movies are re-
leased between F and G. H is released immediately
before G. D is released on one of the days after H.
Which movie was released on Wednesday ?
(1) E (2) Either G or D
(3) G
(4) D
(5) H
67. Four cartons A, B, Y and Z are placed
above one another but not necessarily in the same
order. Each carton contains a different drink
Pepsi, Coffee, Frooti and Milkshake, but not neces-
sarily in the same order. Only carton B is kept be-
tween the cartons of Pepsi and Frooti. Carton of
Coffee is kept immediately below carton of Frooti.
Carton of Coffee is kept at one of the positions be-
low Z. What is the position of the carton of
Milkshake in the stack?
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) Immediately below the carton of Frooti
(3) First from the bottom
(4) First from the top
(5) Second from the top
Directions (68 70) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Each of the six stores P, Q, R, S, T and U sold dif-
ferent number of books in one day. Only three
stores sold less books than U. P sold more books
than R. T did not sell the highest number of books.
S sold more books than R and P but less than U.
The store which sold the second highest number of
books sold 72 books.
68. How many books did Q probably sell?
(1) 43 (2) 58
(3) 71 (4) 65
(5) 89
69. Which of the following stores sold the second
lowest number of books?
(1) T (2) P
(3) S (4) R
79
(5) Q
70. If the total number of books sold by P and T is
125, then how many books did P sell?
(1) 51 (2) 76
(3) 53 (4) 45
(5) 68
71. In a vertical queue of 13 people, all facing east,
K stands exactly at the centre of the queue. No one
stands between K and W. Only five people stand
between W and P. L stands at one of the positions
before P but not at the beginning of the queue. How
many people stood after W?
(1) Three (2) None
(3) Five (4) Six
(5) Seven
72. In which of the given expressions, does the ex-
pression
(1) P > A > L < E; C > L > O > N
(2) P < A < L > E; C > L < O < N
(3) P = A > L = E; C = L > O < N
(4) P > A > L > E; C < L < O < N
(5) P = A > L < E; C < L > O > N
73. A person starts from Point A, walks 30 metre
towards south and reaches Point B. He then takes a
right turn, walks 7 metre, followed by a right turn,
and walks for 6 metre. He then takes a right turn
and walks 7 metre. He takes a final left turn, walks
a certain distance and reaches Point R. Point R is 17
metre to the north of Point B. What is the distance
between Point A and Point R?
(1) 18 metre (2) 23 metre
(3) 21 metre (4) 27 metre
(5) 13 metre
74. S is the only son of V. V is married to R. M is
the daughter of R. R is the grandmother of A. How
is S definitely related to A?
(1) Uncle (2) Cannot be deter-
mined
(3) Father (4) Grandfather
(5) Cousin
75. What should come in place of $ and # respec-
tively in the expression:
P > A $ R < O < T; S < L < A # M, so that the ex-
pression T > M definitely holds true?
(1) >, < (2) <, =
(3) <, < (4) <, <
(5) >, >
Directions (76 80) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight persons C, D, E, F, W, X, Y and Z have
to attend a wedding in January, April, September
and December months of the same year. In each
month the wedding is on either the 11th or the 24th
of the month. Not more than two of the given peo-
ple have to attend a wedding in the same month. W
has to attend a wedding on the 11th of the month
which has only 30 days. Only three people have to
attend a wedding between W and Y. C and Y have
to attend a wedding neither on the same date nor in
the same month. C does not have to attend a wed-
ding in April. Only two people have to attend a
wedding between C and F. X and F does not have
to attend a wedding on the same date. D has to at-
tend a wedding on one of the days before X. Only
one person has to attend a wedding between D and
E. Less than four people have to attend a wedding
between E and Z.
76. How many people have to attend a wedding
between F and Z?
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) None (4) More than three
(5) One
77. When does X have to attend a wedding?
(1) 24th April
(2) Cannot be determined
(3) 11th January
(4) 24th September
(5) 11th December
78. If all the people are made to attend the wedding
in alphabetical order starting from 11th January and
ending on 24th December, the schedule of how
many people will remain unchanged?
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) Five (4) None
(5) One
79. Who among the following has to attend a wed-
ding before Y?
(1) Both C and X (2) Only W
(3) None (4) Both F and W
(5) Only F
80. As per the given arrangement, four of the fol-
lowing five are alike in a certain way and so they
form a group. Which of the following does not be-
long to the group?
(1) W (2) Z
(3) F (4) Y
(5) X
Directions (81 83) : In these questions, relation-
ship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by two
Conclusions numbered I and.
II. Study the Conclusions based on the given state-
ments and select the appropriate answer.
Give answer (1) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-
sion II is true
80
Give answer (2) if both the Conclusion I and Con-
clusion II are true
Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I is true
Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true
Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-
clusion II is true
(81 82) : Statements :
M < O < U < R > T; P > R < I < C < L
81.
Conclusions :
I. L > M
II. O < C
82.
Conclusions :
I. P > T
II. P = T
83. Statements :
C < L = I < N > G; I < M > O > R > T
Conclusions :
I. C < O
II. G > T
84. In the number 7853921, one is added to each
digit exactly divisible by two. Two is subtracted
from each digit exactly divisible by three. All other
digits are kept unchanged. In the new number thus
formed, which of the following digits will appear
twice?
(1) None (2) Only 5
(3) Both 2 and 3 (4) Only 3
(5) Both 1 and 7
85. In a certain code language, r-
written as
that code language? (All the given codes are two
letter codes only)
(1) si
(2)
(4) dm
(5) bo
Directions (86 90) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight people viz. X, G, T, C, P, J, A and M live on
different floors of a building. The ground floor of
the building is numbered one, the one above that is
numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is
numbered eight. All of them can perform a different
form of dance viz., Kathak, Garba, Dandiya, Bhan-
gra, Lavani, Odissi, Mohiniattam and Sattriya
(Note : None of the given information is necessari-
ly in the same order) T lives on an even numbered
floor below floor number five. Only three people
live between T and the one who performs Garba.
As many people live below T as above the one who
performs Lavani. Number of people living between
the one who performs Garba and Lavani is equal to
the number of people living between C and P. C
lives on an even numbered floor above P. Neither C
nor P performs Garba or Lavani. The one who per-
forms Kathak lives on an odd numbered floor be-
low floor number four. P does not perform Kathak.
The number of people between T and the one who
performs Kathak is same as the number of people
living between X and the one who performs Lavani.
X lives on one of the floors above the one who per-
forms Lavani. Number of people living between C
and X is equal to the number of people living be-
tween T and M. The one who performs Odissi lives
on an even numbered floor immediately above the
one who performs Bhangra. Only three people live
between G and J. G lives on one of the floors above
J. The one who performs Bhangra lives immediate-
ly above the one who performs Sattriya. C neither
likes Odissi nor Dandiya.
86. Which of the following statements is true as per
the given arrangement?
(1) C performs Odissi.
(2) The one who performs Garba lives on floor
number six.
(3) T lives immediately above J.
(4) None of the given statements is true.
(5) Only two people live between M and G.
87. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the given arrangement and thus they
form a group. Which one of the following does not
belong to the group?
(1) M Bhangra (2) C Dandiya
(3) P Odissi (4) G Floor number
eight
(5) T Floor number five
88. How many people live between the one who
performs Lavani and Bhangra?
(1) More than three
(2) Three
(3) One (4) Two
(5) None
89. Who performs Dandiya?
(1) G (2) A
(3) P (4) T
(5) C
90. Which dance M performs?
(1) Sattriya (2) Lavani
(3) Odissi (4) Mohiniattam
(5) Kathak
81
Directions (91 95) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight people A, B,C, D, E, F, G and H were
born in different years, viz. 1961, 1970, 1974,
1980, 1983, 1987, 1996 and 2000 but not necessari-
ly in the same order.
Note : (A) All calculations are done with respect to
the present year 2017 assuming the month and date
to be same as that of the years of birth as mentioned
above
(B) Each person is assumed to born on the same
date and same month of the respective years D was
born after 1983 but not in the year 2000. The sum
of the present ages of A and D is 64. The difference
between the present ages of A and G is less than 5.
B was born in an odd numbered year. B is older
than G. The sum of present ages of F and C is 68. F
is younger than C. H is not the youngest.
91. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way as per the given arrangement and hence they
form a group.
Which of the following does not belong to the
group?
(1) E (2) B
(3) C (4) F
(5) G
92. How many persons is/are younger than E?
(1) Two (2) More than three
(3) None (4) Three
(5) One
93. Who amongst the following was born in the
year 1996?
(1) F (2) C
(3) A (4) G
(5) E
94. years older than A, then how
at present (in years)?
(1) 77 (2) 68
(3) 89 (4) 56
(5) 85
95. Which of the following represents the differ-
ence between the present ages of B and H
(in years)?
(1) 22 (2) 9
(3) 25 (4) 32
(5) 13
Directions (96 100) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight persons F, G, H, I, O, P, Q and R are seated
in a straight line facing north. Each of them works
on different floors of an office building viz. 7th,
16th, 18th, 23rd, 31st, 35th, 44th, 47th. None of the
given information is necessarily in the same order.
O sits fourth to the right of the one who works on
the 31st floor. The one who works on the 23rd floor
sits second to the right of O.
Q sits third to the left of I. I is not an immediate
neighbour of O. Q does not sit at any of the extreme
ends of the line.
Only two people sit between Q and P. The one who
works on the 44th floor sits to the immediat right of
H. H is not an immediate neighbour of P.
The difference between the numerical values of
floor numbers in which P and the one to the imme-
diate right of P work is 13.
Only one person sits between F and the one who
works on the 35th floor. F is not an immediate
neighbour of I. More than two people sit between R
and the one who works on the 16th floor. O does
not work on the 16th floor. H works on a floor low-
er than O.
96. Which of the following pairs represents the per-
sons seated at the two extreme ends of the line?
(1) G and the one working on the 7th floor.
(2) I, R
(3) The ones working on the 18th and 44th floors.
(4) P and the one working on 16th floor
(5) The ones working on the 31st and 23rd flooRs
97. What is the difference between the floor num-
bers on which P and R work?
(1) 4 (2) 31
(3) 3 (4) 16
(5) 15
98. F is related to the one working on the 47th floor
following a certain pattern based on the given ar-
rangement. In the same pattern, P is related to the
one working on the 44th floor. To who amongst the
following is H related to following the same pat-
tern?
(1) The one working on the 35th floor
(2) The one to the immediate left of R.
(3) The one sitting second to the left of O.
(4) The one working on the 16th floor.
(5) O
99. Fill in the blanks (respectively in the same or-
der) in order to make the statement correct based on
the given arrangement. G _______ and O
__________.
(1) works on the 47th floor, sits to the immediate
left of Q.
(2) works on one of the floors above H, works on
one of the floors below F.
(3) sits to immediate left of I, works on the 44th
floor.
82
(4) sits second to the right of Q, works three floors
above I.
(5) Other than those given as options.
100. How many people sit to the left of the one
working on the 35th floor?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) None (4) Four
(5) Three
Answer Key 1. (3) 2. (5) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9.
(4) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (5) 16.
(1) 17. (5) 18. (3) 19. (5) 20. (5) 21. (2) 22. (4) 23.
(4) 24. (5) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (2) 29. (5) 30.
(1) 31. (1) 32. (5) 33. (5) 34. (2) 35. (5) 36. (3) 37.
(4) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (3) 43. (2) 44.
(5) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (5) 49. (1) 50. (4) 51.
(5) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (2) 57. (2) 58.
(2) 59. (3) 60. (5) 61. (2) 62. (5) 63. (3) 64. (5) 65.
(5) 66. (5) 67. (1) 68. (5) 69. (2) 70. (3) 71. (5) 72.
(4) 73. (5) 74. (2) 75. (2) 76. (4) 77. (5) 78. (1) 79.
(3) 80. (2) 81. (2) 82. (1) 83. (5) 84. (5) 85. (4) 86.
(5) 87. (4) 88. (3) 89. (2) 90. (1) 91. (2) 92. (3) 93.
(1) 94. (4) 95. (5) 96. (2) 97. (1) 98. (4) 99. (5) 100.
(3)
83
Solutions: 1. (3) Add = to give a particular qual-
ity to an event, a situation etc. Look
at the sentence : The suite will add a
touch of class to your bed room.
Additionally = In addition, extra.
Hence, an added attraction .....
should be used here.
3. (4) Give yourself/somebody up to
somebody = to of fer yourself/
somebody to be captured. Hence,
given himself up .... should be used
here.
4. (4) Work on somebody = to try to
persuade somebody to agree to
something or to do something.
Hence, work on her ..... should be
used here.
5. (2) Here, saw the growth .....
should be used. Growth is followed
of
6. (1) To modify a verb, an adverb
should be used. Hence, recently
(Adverb) appointed .... should be
used.
7. (3) Here, Present Simple i.e.,
makes it an ideal .... should be used.
Subject is singular.
8. (2) Paramount = more important
than anything else. Here, to the suc-
cess .... should be used.
9. (4) The sentence shows past time.
Hence, Past Simple i.e. gained popu-
larity ..... should be used.
10. (4) Give up = (to stop doing)
Hence, Gerund i.e. giving up ....
should be used.
11. (4) Broader (Adjective) = com-
plete; general; including almost all;
comprehensive.
13. (3) Try (Verb) = to make an at-
temp or effort to do or get some-
thing.
14. (4) Serious (Adjective) = that
must be treated as important; signifi-
cant. Look at the sentences : We
need to get down to the serious busi-
ness of working out costs. He made
her insignificant and stupid.
15. (5) Chilling (Adjective) = fright-
ening; discouraging; terrifying. Look
at the sentence : The monument
stands as a chilling reminder of
21. (2) Nurture = to care for and
protect somebody/something while
they are growing or developing.
25. (1) Deteriorate (Verb) = to be-
come worse.
26. (3) Dismal (Adjective) = gloomy;
miserable; not skilful.
28. (2) Surplus (Adjective) = extra;
additional.
31. (1)
23 23
√
32. (5)
33. (5)
34. (2)? √
35. (5)?
36. (3) Required per cent
(
)
37. (4) Required difference
38. (2) Students who passed in
course Students who passed
in course
According to the question,
39. (4) Required average
. (4) Number of students in 2009 :
Course
Course
Required answer
41. (1) According to the question,
Let, metre
10x metre
Curved surface area
Volume of cylinder
metre
metre
Total surface area
(14 20)
square metre
42. (3) Let rate downstream of boat
be kmph.
Rate upstream kmph.
According to the question,
(D 56) 10D 560
km.
Case II, Time taken in covering (D‐32)
km. i.e., km. in
upstream hours
Speed of current
(Rate
downstream Rate upstream)
km./hour
43. (2) S.I. from scheme
. 1008
C.I. from scheme
*(
)
+
[(
) ]
[(
) ]
(
)
According to the question,
44. (5) Let cost price of article be
84
Rs. Cost price of article According to the question,
45. (4) years
years
years
According to the question,
3
years
years
. (2) is twice as good as B.
If time taken by be days, Time
taken by days
Time taken by days
If A takes days, then
(
)
days.
: 1
Time taken by both in doing
work
Time taken by
days
Time taken by
days
: 3
Time taken by
days (inverse ratio)
47. (2) Of the remaining salary, Sav-
ings
th part
(
)
. 3420
48. (5) The sum of numbers on both
cards will be even if both cards
bear either even or odd numbers.
Even numbers from 1 to Odd numbers
When both cards are odd, Required
probability
When both cards are even, Required
probability
Required total probability
49. (1) I. 2x2 + 11x + 14 = 0
2x2 + 4x + 7x + 14 = 0
2x (x + 2) + 7 (x + 2) = 0
(x + 2) (2x + 7) = 0
x = 2 or, 7/2
II. 4y2 + 12y + 9 = 0
(2y)2 + 2 × 2y × 3 + (3)2 = 0
(2y + 3)2 = 0
2y + 3 = 0
y = 3/2
Clearly, x < y
50. (4) I. 3x2 4x + 1 = 0
3x2 3x x + 1 = 0
3x (x 1) 1 (x 1) = 0
(x 1) (3x 1) = 0
x = 1 or, 1/3
II. 15y2 8y + 1 = 0
15y2 5y 3y + 1 = 0
5y (3y 1) 1 (3y 1) = 0
(3y 1) (5y 1) = 0
y = 1/3 or,1/5
Clearly, x > y
51. (5) I. x2 + 14x + 45 = 0
x2 + 5x + 9x + 45 = 0
x (x + 5) + 9 (x + 5) = 0
(x + 5) (x + 9) = 0
x = 5 or, 9
II. y2 + 19y + 88 = 0
y2 + 8y + 11y + 88 = 0
y (y + 8) + 11 (y + 8) = 0
(y + 8) (y + 11) = 0
y = 8 or, 11
52. (2) I. x2 2x 8 = 0
x2 4x + 2x 8 = 0
x (x 4) + 2 (x 4) = 0
(x 4) (x + 2) = 0
x = 4 or, 2
II. y2 + 15y + 54 = 0
y2 + 6y + 9y + 54 = 0
y (y + 6) + 9 (y + 6) = 0
(y + 6) (y + 9) = 0
y = 6 or, 9
Clearly, x > y
53. (3) I. 2x2 9x + 9 = 0
2x2 3x 6x + 9 = 0
x (2x 3) 3 (2x 3) = 0
(x 3) (2x 3) = 0
x = 3 or,3/2
II. y2 7y + 12 = 0
y2 3y 4y + 12 = 0
y (y 3) 4 (y 3) = 0
(y 3) (y 4) = 0
y = 3 or 4
Clearly, x < y
54. (3) I. x2 = 121
x = √ = ± 11
II. y2 23y + 132 = 0
y2 12y 11y + 132 = 0
y (y 12) 11 (y 12) = 0
(y 12) (y 11) = 0
y = 11 or, 12
Clearly, x < y55. (3) Initial quantity
of milk
litres
Initial quantity of water
litres
According to the question, In
litres of mixture
Quantity of milk
litres
Quantity of water
litres
On adding 24 litres of water,
(
)
Initial quantity of mixture
litres
Let initial quantity of mixture
litre
In 24 litres, Milk litres
Water litres
When,3 litres water is added, Milk:
Water : 1
If 3 litres of water is added
total mixture litre
If 24 litres of water is added
total quantity
litres
56. (2) The pattern is :
85
35
57. (2) The pattern is :
58. (2) The pattern is :
29
25 44
Note: 7, 11, 13, 17, 19 are con‐ secutive prime numbers.
59. (3) The pattern is :
152 31
. (5) The pattern is :
9 24
33 39
72 49
61. (2) Number of voters who cast
their votes :
Centre
Centre
Centre
Required average
62. (5) Total votes polled at centre
Invalid votes
Required per cent
63. (3) Total registered voters at cen‐
tre
Votes polled at centre
Total votes polled at centre
Total valid votes l50
Required ratio : 2250
64. (5)Voters who do not vote at
centre
Voters who donot vote at centre
Required per cent
(
)
%
65. (5)Voters who donot vote at
centre A and
Voters who donot vote at cen‐ tres and
Required difference
76. 80.
Month Dat
e
Per-
son
Alphabeti-
cal order
January 11th Y C
24th D D
April 11th F E
24th E F
Septem- 11th W W
ber 24th C X
Decem-
ber
11th X Y
24th Z Z
81. 82. : M < O < U < R > T P > R
< I < C < L M < O < U < R < I < C
< L O < U < R < I < C P > R > T
81. (2) Conclusions : I. L > M : True
II. O < C : True
82. (1) Conclusions : I. P > T : Not
True II. P = T : Not True P is either
greater than or equal to T. Therefore,
either Conclusion I or Conclusion II
is true.
83. (5) C < L = I < N > G I < M > O
> R > T C < L = I < M > O G < N >
I < M > O > R > T Conclusions : I.
C < O : Not True II. G > T : Not
True
84. (5) 7 8 5 3 9 2 1
86. 90.
Floor
Number
Person Dance
8 X Garba
7 A Dandiya
6 C Mohiniattam
5 G Lavani
4 T Odissi
3 P Bhangra
2 M Sattriya
1 J Kathak
95. 90.
1961 B
1974 H
1983 A
1996 F
1970 C
1980 G
1987 D
2000 E
86
RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-
2) English Language
Directions (1 5) : Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
Until the 1960s boys spent longer and went further
in school than girls, and were more likely to gradu-
ate from university. Now, across the rich world and
in a growing number of poor countries, the balance
has tilted the other way.
policymakers once fretted about n-
fidence in science but this is changing. Sweden has
commissioned research s-
tralia has devised a reading programme called
of generations, one gender gap has closed, only for
another to open up.
The reversal is laid out in a report published on
March 5th by the OECD, a Paris-based rich-country
think- about endures in
maths; at age 15 they are, on average, the equiva-
lent of girls. In
science the results are fairly even. But in reading,
where girls have been ahead for sometime, a gulf
has appeared. In all G4 countries and economies in
the study, girls outperform boys. The average gap is
equivalent to an extra year of schooling. The OECD
deems literacy to be the most important skill that it
assesses, since further learning depends on it. Sure
enough, teenage boys are 50% more likely than
girls to fail to achieve basic proficiency in any of
maths, reading and science.
Youngsters in this group, with nothing to build on
or shine at, are prone to drop out of school alto-
gether.
To see why boys and girls fare so differently in the
classroom, first look at what they do outside it. The
average 15-year old girl devotes fiveand- a-half
hours a week to homework, an hour more than the
average boy, who spend more time playing video
games and trawling the internet. Three-quarters of
girls read for pleasure, compared with little more
than half of boys. Reading rates are falling every-
where as screens draw eyes from pages, but boys
are giving up faster. The OECD found that, among
boys who do as much homework as the average
girl, the gender gap in reading fell by nearly a quar-
ter.
Once in the classroom, boys long to be out of it.
They are twice as likely as girls to report that
often turn up
late. Just as a teacher used to struggle to persuade
girls that science is not only for men, the OECD
now urges parents and policymakers to steer boys
away from a version of masculinity that ignores
for school
might have been less irrational when there were
plenty of jobs for uneducated men. But those days
have long gone. It may be that a bit of swagger
helps in maths, where confidence plays a part in
to delu-
sion : 12% of boys told the OECD that they are
familiar with the mathematical concept of b-
junc that fooled only 7%
of girls.) But their lack of self-discipline drives
teachers crazy. The OECD found that boys did
much better in its anonymised tests than in teachers
assessments. What is behind this discrimination?
One possibility is that teachers mark up students
who are polite, eager and stay out of flights, all
attributes that are more common among girls. In
some countries, academic points can even be
docked for bad behaviour.
1. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in mean-
ing to the word DOCKED given in bold as used in
the passage.
(1) raised (2) stopped
(3) widened (4) flown
(5) cut short
2. According to the passage, what can be said about
the school education today ?
(1) Science education is deteriorating rapidly.
(2) Online education can easily address its prob-
lems such as shortage of teaching staff.
(3) It fosters rote learning instead of creative think-
ing.
(4) The amount of homework for children is pro-
hibitive.
(5) Girls are doing better at school as compared to
boys on some parameters.
3. Choose the word/group of words which is most
nearly the SAME in meaning as the word DRAW
given in bold as used in the passage.
(1) sketch (2) tie
(3) raffle (4) represent
(5) divert
4. Which of the following is TRUE in the context
of the passage ?
(1) Boys perform better than girls on subjective
teacher assessments.
87
(2) Efforts to improve representation of girls in
education have had success.
(3) By and large teachers are female and they dis-
criminate against boys.
(4) Education in rich countries needs to be subsi-
dised to reduce dropout numbers.
(5) None of the given statements is true in the con-
text of the passage.
5. Choose the word/group of words which is most
nearly the SAME in meaning as the word PRONE
given in bold as used in the passage.
(1) unconscious (2) flat
(3) likely (4) lifeless
(5) opinionated
6. Which of the following factors can have an im-
pact on results of boys in school ?
(A) Perceptions of teacheRs (B) Societal attitude
towards educational achievement and boys
(C) Overconfidence of male students.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3) All (A), (B) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (C)
(5) Only (A) and (B)
7. What do the OECD statistics in the passage indi-
cate ?
(1) Schools dropout rates among boys are higher in
developing countries than in rich ones.
(2) Despite the perception that girls are doing better
than boys in school, the same is not true.
(3) Today boys are more at risk than girls in terms
of educational achievement in developed countries.
(4) Enrolment of girls in schools has doubled while
that of boys has fallen.
(5) By and large teenagers have very low educa-
tional achievement in rich countries.
8. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in mean-
ing to the word DELUSION given in bold as used
in the passage.
(1) myth (2) superstition
(3) precipitating (4) reality
(5) familiarity
9. Which of the following best describes the au-
(1) It is not as much of a problem as it is made out
to be.
(2) Policymakers should address d-
boys as it will impact boys employment
subsequently.
(3) It can be addressed by implementing quotas at
university level.
(4) It is a rich country phenomenon and can be easi-
ly addressed through increased funding for schools.
(5) None of the given options.
10. Which of the following is an appropriate title
for the passage ?
(1) Finding the Glass Ceiling
(2) Men Storming Up the Irony Tower
(3) Pay and Job Flexibility
(4) Attention! A New Gender Gap
(5) A Broken Safety Net
Directions (11 15) : Read each sentence to find
out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.
Select the part with the error as your answer. If
there is answer.
(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
11. The fare will be calculated (1)/ on the basis of
(2)/ expected travel time distance (3)/ and traffic
where applied. (4)/ No error (5)
12. Junior colleges sees (1)/ marginal violations in
(2)/ minimum score cap for arts, (3)/ science and
commerce streams. (4)/ No error (5)
13. The actor has (1)/ filed a case (2)/ against the
director and (3)/ has sought a written apology (4)/
No error (5)
14. The practice of big pharma companies (1)/ of-
fering kickbacks to (2)/ prescribing physicians may
not be (3)/ a breach of ethics. (4)/ No error (5)
15. The government has narrowed (1)/ its list of
candidates (2)/ to become the next (3)/ governor of
the RBI. (4)/ No error
(5)
Directions (16 20) : Rearrange the given six sen-
tences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
and
(F) in proper sequence as to form a meaningful par-
agraph and then answer the given questions
(A) Others were shown advertisements of more
affordable stuff, such as smartphones
(B) This experience shows the complexities of ad-
vertising today, when it is so easy for dissatisfied
customers to make their voices heard
(C) Moreover, some of those not shown the adver-
tisement complained, referring to themselves as, or
(putting it politely) loseRs (D) But its advertise-
ment was shown only to those whose profiles sug-
gested they were potential buyers of expensive
caRs (E) Eventually, this bruised a few egos
(F) Earlier this year a carmaker advertised on
WeChat, a popular messaging app in China with
around 550m monthly users.
16. Which of the following should be the FIRST
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A (2) C
(3) B (4) F
(5) E
88
17. Which of the following should be the SECOND
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B
(3) F (4) D
(5) C
18. Which of the following should be the
FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) A (2) E
(3) C (4) F
(5) D
19. Which of the following should be the SIXTH
(LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) B (2) D
(3) A (4) C
(5) E
20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) E (2) D
(3) A (4) F
(5) C
Directions (21 25) : In the following questions,
each sentence has two blanks, each blank indicating
that something has been omitted.
Choose the set of words for the blanks which best
fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
21. find the econo-
my in a much better _______ than what it was in
______ three years ago.
(1) condition, holding
(2) turmoil, over
(3) shape, charge (4) characters, reigns
(5) position, duty
22. consolidate
public sector banks (PSBs) could create _______ in
the current environment where stressed assets
across banks are high.
(1) actions, exposed
(2) intend, uncertainty
(3) proposal, secure
(4) strategise, havoc
(5) plans, risks
23. The IT firm may be _________ out as clients
shifts to cloud services _________ by rivals.
(1) venting, existing
(2) losing, offered
(3) close, provided
(4) locking, promising
(5) shutting, delivered
24. Inspite of _______ , social performs are likely
to _______ an budg-
et.
(1) pitfalls, receive
(2) hazards, getting
(3) negative, share
(4) drawbacks, obtained
(5) fallen, have
25. Litigation and hurdles in a potential sale to a
Chinese partner have __________ the company to
_______ the closing of one of its plants.
(1) raised, changing
(2) denying, choose
(3) forced, defer (4) enable, modify
(5) compelled, defeat
Directions (26 30) : In the following passage,
there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
Against each, five words are suggested, one of
which fits the blank appropriately.
Find out the appropriate word in each case.
around the not-so-
new idea that emerging technology is destroying
jobs and will (26) destroy the middle class. Fears
about a shrinking job pool are (27) : our economy is
still recovering from the recession, and jobs have
not returned to prerecession levels. Meanwhile,
technology is (28) some low-skilled jobs.
Yet, changes to the job landscape, while they may
require some adjustments, are not bad news for the
middle class. (29), advances in innovation and
technology promise to make life better for every-
one, both professionally and (30).
26. (1) not (2) ultimately
(3) securely (4) publicly
(5) demandingly
27. (1) understandable
(2) weird
(3) unjust (4) remanded
(5) wrong
28. (1) dicing (2) acquiring
(3) replacing (4) lifting
(5) paying
29. (1) But (2) Instead
(3) Fact (4) Since
(5) However
30. (1) workplace (2) shortly
(3) personally (4) morosely
(5) environmental
Quantitative Aptitude 31. C is 20% more efficient than A. A and B to-
gether can finish a piece of work in 16 days. B and
C together can do it in 15 days. In how many days
A alone can finish the same piece of work?
(1) 42 (2) 48
(3) 54 (4) 36
(5) 45
32. A started a business with an investment of Rs.
16,000. After 6 months from the start of the busi-
89
ness, B and C joined with Rs. 12,000 and Rs.
18,000 respectively and A invested an additional
amount of Rs 4000. If the difference between
annual profit is Rs. 6000,
what was the annual profit received?
(1) Rs. 17,600 (2) Rs. 13,200
(3) Rs. 14,300 (4) Rs. 16,500
(5) Rs. 11,000
33. Shiva gives 20% of his monthly salary to his
mother, 50% of the remaining salary he invests in
an insurance scheme and PPF in the respective ratio
of 5 : 3 and the remaining he keeps in his bank ac-
count. If the sum of the amount he gives to his
mother and that he invests in PPF is Rs 12,600,
monthly salary?
(1) Rs. 36,000 (2) Rs. 64,000
(3) Rs. 42,000 (4) Rs. 40,000
(5) Rs. 35,000
34. The respective ratio of radii of two right circu-
lar cylinders (A and B) is 4 : 7. The respective ratio
of the heights of cylinders A and B is 2 : 1. What is
the respective ratio of volumes of cylinders A and
B?
(1) 25 : 42 (2) 23 : 42
(3) 32 : 49 (4) 30 : 49
(5) 36 : 49
35. At present, Aanshi is five years younger to Bin-
twenty years hence will be equal
five years ago. What will
be years hence?
(1) 42 years (2) 35 years (3) 30 years (4) 48 years
(5) 50 years
Directions (36 40) : In each equation two equa-
tions numbered I and II are given. You have to
solve both the equations and mark the appropriate
option
(1) Relationship between x and y cannot be estab-
lished
(2) x < y (3) x > y (4) x < y (5) x > y
36. I. 9x2 37x + 30 = 0
II. 3y2 19y + 30 = 0
37. I. 2x2 17x + 36 = 0
II. 5y2 33y + 40 = 0
38. I. 12x2 23x + 11 = 0
II. 21y2 20y + 4 = 0
39. I. x2 + 12x + 35 = 0
II. 7y2 + 32y + 16 = 0
40. I. 25x2 + 20x + 3 = 0
II. 4y2 + 11y + 6 = 0
41. A number is such that when it is multiplied by
6, it gives another number which is more than 168
as the original number itself is less than 168. What
is 15% of the original number?
(1) 8.4 (2) 7.8
(3) 6.6 (4) 8.8
(5) 7.2
42. Dharma invested Rs. P for 3 years in scheme A
which offered 12% per annum simple interest. She
also invested Rs (P + 400) in scheme B which of-
fered 10% compound interest
(compounded annually), for 2 years. If the amount
received from scheme A was less than that received
from scheme B, by Rs. 304, what is the value of P?
(1) Rs. 1400 (2) Rs. 1000
(3) Rs. 1500 (4) Rs. 900
(5) Rs. 1200
Directions (43 47) : Study the following table
carefully and answer the questions
Dance
Schools
Total num-
ber of stu-
dents who
have en-
rolled in the
schools
Percentage of
enrolled stu-
dents who are
learning free-
style dance
Respective
ratio of male
and female
students learn-
ing freestyle.
dance
A 200 25 2 : 3
B 400 28 7 : 9
C 150 30 2 : 7
D 300 24 9 : 3
43. The number of students (both male and female)
who are learning freestyle in schools C and D to-
gether is what percent less than the number of stu-
dents
(both male and female) who are learning the same
in schools A and B together?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
44. What is the average number of students learning
dance forms (other than freestyle) in schools B, C
and D?
(1) 206 (2) 207
(3) 204 (4) 205
(5) 201
45. Out of the number of students
(both male and female) learning freestyle in school
B, 5 8 of them are 15 years old or above. If out of
the total students who are 15 years old or above,
30% are females, what is the number of female
students learning freestyle who are below 15 years?
(1) 35 (2) 42
(3) 32 (4) 46
(5) 40
46. What is the respective ratio between the total
number of male students learning freestyle in
90
schools A and C together and the total number of
female students learning the same in the same
schools together?
(1) 6 : 39 (2) 6 : 13
(3) 12 : 13 (4) 6 : 11
(5) 12 : 35
47. What is the difference between the number of
male students studying freestyle in schools B and D
together and the total number of female students
studying the same in the same schools together?
(1) 22 (2) 18
(3) 26 (4) 20
(5) 12
48. The percentage profit earned when an article is
sold for Rs 558 is double the percent profit earned
when the same article is sold for Rs. 504. If the
marked price of the article is 30% above the cost
price, what is the marked price of the article?
(1) Rs. 585 (2) Rs. 595
(3) Rs. 624 (4) Rs. 590
(5) Rs. 546
Directions (49 53) : What will come in place of
the question mark
(?) in the given number series?
49. 150 102 70 46 26 ?
(1) 7 (2) 13
(3) 8 (4) 2
(5) 12
50. 10 14 24 52 134 ?
(1) 351 (2) 302
(3) 368 (4) 341
(5) 378
51. 24 11 10 14 27 ?
(1) 67.5 (2) 60.5
(3) 66.5 (4) 61.5
(5) 62.25
52. 4500 900 90 6 ? 0.012
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.09
(3) 0.9 (4) 0.015
(5) 0.03
53. 8 7 12 33 128 ?
(1) 672 (2) 684
(3) 635 (4) 620
(5) 692
Directions (54 58) : What approximate value will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the fol-
lowing questions? (You are not expected to calcu-
late the exact value.)
54. 3? × √ = 183.998 ÷ 8.001 + 328.02
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 1 (4) 5
(5) 3
55. ? % of (230.02 × 7.89 559.85) = 960
(1) 20 (2) 80
(3) 50 (4) 70
(5) 75
56. 518.002 44.99 + 8.998 8.012 = ?
(1) 650 (2) 350
(3) 418 (4) 550
(5) 600
57. 358.98 ÷ 15.02 + 450.15 ÷ 8.992 + 56.02 = ?
(1) 230 (2) 200
(3) 180 (4) 150
(5) 130
58. 25% of 459 + 65.01 ÷ 5.02 =?
(1) 109 (2) 128
(3) 234 (4) 80
(5) 186
Directions (59 63) : Refer to the following bar
graph and answer the given questions
Data related to number of applications received
by a University for Masters program for two
subjects (A and B) during 5 years Number of
applications received
59. In 2005, out of total number of applications
received for subjects A and B together, only 30%
were accepted. What was the total number of appli-
cations accepted for subjects A and B together in
2005?
(1) 121 (2) 123
(3) 129 (4) 132
(5) 131
60. In 2004, 30% of applications received for sub-
ject A and 20% of applications received for subject
B were from international students. What was the
total number of International applicants for subjects
A and B together in 2004?
(1) 91 (2) 97
(3) 89 (4) 93
(5) 87
61. If the respective ratio of total number of appli-
cations received for subjects A and B together in
2008 and 2009 is 3 : 4, what was the total number
of applications received for subjects A and B to-
gether in 2009?
91
(1) 500 (2) 560
(3) 400 (4) 520
(5) 500
62. What is the average number of applications
received for subject A in 2005, 2007 and 2008?
(1) 190 (2) 180
(3) 170 (4) 200
(5) 160
63. Number of applications received for subject B
increased by what percent from 2004 to 2006?
Directions (69 70) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Vansh starts walking from Point E and walks 25m
towards the north. He then takes a right turn and
walks for 15m. He makes a left turn and stops at
Point M after walking for 20m, Point K is 30m to
the west of Point M. Point K is 45m to the north of
Point J. Point J is 10m to the east of Point L.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
64. In a bag, there are 8 red balls and 7 green balls.
Three balls are picked at random. What is the prob-
ability that two balls are red and one ball is green in
colour?
(1) 28/65 (2) 22/65
(3) 37/65 (4) 3/13
(5) 1/13
65. A vessel contains 120 litres of mixture of milk
and water in the respective ratio of 11 : 4
Forty five litres of this mixture was taken out and
replaced with 5 litres of water.
What is the percentage of water in the resultant
mixture?
(1) 35 (2) 31.25
(3) 25 (4) 20
(5) 15
Reasoning Directions (66 68) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
S is the mother of D. K is the brother of D. K is the
only son of M. M is the son of U. U is the husband
of T. T is the mother of Y.
66. If D is married to X, then how is X related to
M?
(1) Son in law (2) Daughter in law
(3) Son (4) Niece
(5) Daughter
67. How is T related to K?
(1) Mother (2) Aunt
(3) Granddaughter (4) Grandmother
(5) Mother in law
68. How is S related to Y?
(1) Sister (2) Cousin
(3) Mother in law (4) Niece
(5) Sister-in-law
69. How far and in which direction is Point E with
respect to Point L?
(1) 30m towards West
(2) 25m towards East
(3) 20m towards East
(4) 20m towards West
(5) 25m towards West
70. If Neha is standing at Point D which is 20m to
the north of Point L, in which direction will she
have to walk in order to reach Point M?
(1) North-west (2) East
(3) South-east (4) North-east
(5) North
Directions (71 75) : In these questions, relation-
ship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by two
Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclu-
sions based on the statements and select the appro-
priate answer.
Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Con-
clusion II are true
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion I is true
Give answer (3) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-
clusion is II true
Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true
Give answer (5) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-
sion II is true
71. Statements R > S = T > U; S > A > V
Conclusions I. A < R
II. V < U
(72-73) :
Statements B > E > A > T = H < I < M
72. Conclusions I. H < E
II. B > T
73. Conclusions I. E < I
II. M < A
74. Statements S < M < I < T; R > J > I
Conclusions I. R = S
II. S < R
75. Statements D < O < L > C > E
Conclusions I. O < E
II. L > D
92
Directions (76 78) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Each of the six sections, U, V, W, X, Y and Z of
the same class has different number of students.
Only Z has more number of students than X. V has
more number of students than Y but less than U. W
has more number of students than both the both Y
and U. The section having the third highest number
of students has 39 students. Y has 24 students.
76. If the number of students in sections W + Z is
sixty six more than the number of students in sec-
tion Y, how many of students are there in section
Z?
(1) 31 (2) 46
(3) 51 (4) 55
(5) 45
77. How many students does section V possibly
have?
(1) 39 (2) 43
(3) 55 (4) 31
(5) 14
78. Which of the following statements is true re-
garding the number of students in section U?
(1) No other section has less students than U.
(2) X has more number of students than U.
(3) U possibly has 45 students.
(4) U has more number of students than only three
sections
(5) None of the given statements is true
Directions (79 84) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Seven persons, namely A, B, C, D, E, F and G have
an appointment but not necessarily in the same or-
der, on seven different months (of the same year)
namely January, February, April, June, August,
October and December. Each of them also likes a
different activity namely Drawing, Singing, Paint-
ing, Boxing, Karate, Craft and Running but not
necessarily in the same order.
The one who likes Craft has an appointment on one
of the months before April. Only two persons have
an appointment between the one who likes craft and
the one who likes painting. Only one person has an
appointment .between the one who likes painting
and the one who likes running. The one who likes
running has an appointment in a month which has
31 days. Only three persons have an appointment
between the one who likes running and E. G has an
appointment on one of the months before E. G does
not have an appointment in the month which has
the least number of days. Only three persons have
an appointment between G and C. Only one person
has an appointment between C and the one who
likes Karate. The one who likes Karate has an ap-
pointment before C. The one who likes singing has
an appointment immediately before B. B has an
appointment in a month which has less than 31
days.
Only one person has an appointment between A
and F. A has an appointment before F. Only one
person has an appointment between F and the one
who likes drawing.
79. Who amongst the following has an appointment
immediately before the one who has an appoint-
ment in December?
80. In which of the following pairs, both the per-
sons have an appointment in months which have
less than 31 days?
(1) A, F (2) F, D
(3) B, A (4) E, D
(5) B, F
81. Which of the following combinations is cor-
rect?
(1) G-Singing (2) A-Painting
(3) F-Running (4) B Karate
(5) D-Painting
82. As per the given arrangement Craft is related to
April and Karate is related to June following a cer-
tain pattern, which of the following is Drawing
related to following the same pattern?
(1) February (2) October
(3) December (4) August
(5) January
83. Who amongst the following likes Running?
(1) F (2) D
(3) A (4) B
(5) Other than those given as options
84. How many persons have an appointment be-
tween the one who has an appointment in February
and A?
(1) Three (2) None
(3) More than three
(4) One
(5) Two
Directions (85 90) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Seven persons namely A, B, C, D, E, F and G teach
seven different subjects namely, Mathematics, Eng-
lish, Chemistry, History, Accountancy, Physics and
Biology. Each of them works in either of the three
institutes viz. Paramount, Brilliant and Embibe with
atleast two of them in a institute
93
(Note : None of the information given is necessarily
in the same order.) G works in Brilliant with the
one who teaches Accountancy. The one who teach-
es Biology works in an institute with only the one
who teaches Chemistry. B teaches English. B does
not work with G. D works with F but not in
Embibe.
Neither D nor F teaches Accountancy. F does not
teach Chemistry. C works with only the one who
teaches Mathematics. E works with the one who
teaches History.
85. Who amongst the following teaches Physics?
(1) F (2) E
(3) C (4) D
(5) G
86. Which of the following combinations represents
the institute in which C works and the subject he
teaches?
(1) Brilliant Accountancy
(2) Embibe Accountancy
(3) Paramount Biology
(4) Brilliant History
(5) Paramount Chemistry
87. Which of the following subjects does A teach?
(1) Biology (2) Chemistry
(3) Mathematics (4) Accountancy
(5) History
88. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) D teaches Biology
(2) None of the given statements is true
(3) Only two persons work in Brilliant
(4) Both E and G work in the same institute
(5) A teaches Mathematics.
89. Which of the following combinations represents
the combination of persons working in Paramount?
(1) D and the one who teaches English
(2) E, A
(3) G, C, E
(4) F and the one who teaches Chemistry
(5) A, B
90. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the given arrangement and hence
form a group. Which of the following does not be-
long to that group?
(1) BE (2) GC
(3) EA (4) FG
(5) AB
Directions (91 95) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one
above the other, but not necessarily in the same
order.
Each box contains different items- Shoes, Papers,
Bands, Medicines, Ribbons, Creams and Phones,
but not necessarily in the same order.
Only three boxes are kept between D and G, The
Ribbon box is kept immediately above G. Only one
box is kept between the Ribbon box and A. The
Ribbon box is not the second from the bottom of
the stack. Only one box is kept between E and A. E
is kept above A. The Medicine box is kept immedi-
ately above E. Only three boxes are kept between
the Medicine box and the Shoe box. The Paper Box
is kept immediately above the Phone box. G is not
the Paper box. F is kept immediately below the
Cream box.
Only one box is kept between B and the Cream
box.
91. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and hence form a group. Which of the follow-
ing does not belong to the group?
(1) G Creams (2) E Bands
(3) C Shoes (4) D PapeRs (5) A
Bands
92. Which of the following boxes contains bands?
(1) D (2) C
(3) A (4) Other than those giv-
en as options
(5) G
93. What is the position of F in the given stack of
boxes?
(1) Second from the top
(2) Third from the bottom
(3) First from the top
(4) Fifth from the bottom
(5) Fourth from the top
94. Which of the following boxes is kept immedi-
ately below G?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) The Shoe box
(5) The Paper Box
95. How many boxes are kept between B and the
Ribbon box?
(1) Two (2) One
(3) None (4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (96 100) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight friends, C, D, E, F, L, M, N and O are seated
in a straight line, but not necessarily in the same
order.
Some of them are facing north while some face
south. Only three persons sit to the right of M. E
sits second to the left of M. F sits third to the right
94
of O. O is not an immediate neighbour of M. O
does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.
Both the immediate neighbours of O face south. D
sits second to the right of N. As many people sit
between M and D as between M and L.
Immediate neighbours of F face opposite directions
(i.e. if one person faces north then the other person
faces south and viceversa.) l L and F face direction
opposite to C (i.e. If C faces north then both L and
F face south and vice-versa.) l Persons sitting at
extreme ends face opposite directions (i.e., if one
person faces north then the other person faces south
and vice versa)
96. Which of the following statements true, based
on the given arrangement?
(1) D faces north.
(2) Only three persons face south.
(3) L sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
(4) O and E face the same direction
(5) None of the given options is true
97. How many persons sit to the left of O?
(1) Three (2) More than four
(3) One (4) Four
(5) Two
98. Who amongst the following faces north?
(1) E (2) M
(3) F (4) N
(5) D
99. Who amongst the following sits second to the
left of L?
(1) O (2) No one as less than
two persons sit to the left of L
(3) N
(4) F
(5) D
100.Who among the following represent the per-
sons sitting at extreme ends of the line?
(1) D, N (2) O, D
(3) L, N (4) D, L
(5) D, C
Answer Key 1. (1) 2. (5) 3. (5) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9.
(2) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. (3) 16.
(4) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (3) 22. (5) 23.
(2) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30.
(3) 31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (4) 36. (4) 37.
(1) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (3) 41. (5) 42. (5) 43. (4) 44.
(2) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (3) 50. (5) 51.
(3) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (5) 55. (5) 56. (3) 57. (5) 58.
(2) 59. (2) 60. (1) 61. (2) 62. (1) 63. (3) 64. (1) 65.
(2) 66. (1) 67. (4) 68. (5) 69. (2) 70. (4) 71. (2) 72.
(1) 73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (4) 76. (3) 77. (4) 78. (2) 79.
(5) 80. (3) 81. (1) 82. (4) 83. (2) 84. (4) 85. (2) 86.
(1) 87. (5) 88. (3) 89. (4) 90. (4) 91. (3) 92. (5) 93.
(2) 94. (1) 95. (4) 96. (4) 97. (3) 98. (1) 99. (2) 100.
(5)
95
Solutions: 1. (1) Dock (Verb) = cut short; to
remove part of something. Raise
(Verb) = increase; improve. Look at
the sentences : As a punishment, the
15% and took away their leave. They
raised their of fer to $ 400.
3. (5) Draw (Verb) = distract; to take
attention away; divert. Look at the
sentence :
attention away from the economic
situation.
5. (3) Prone (Adjective) = likely to
suffer from something; liable. Look
at the sentence : Working without a
break makes you more prone to er-
ror.
8. (4) Delusion (Noun) = a false
belief or opinion; not real or not true;
deception Reality (Noun) = the true
situation Look at the sentences :
n-
deur. You are out of touch with re-
ality.
11. (4) Here, and traffic where appli-
cable/ wherever applicable should be
used. Applicable (Adjective) = that
can be said to be true in the case of
something; relevant. Look at the
sentence : Give details of children
where applicable.
12. (1) Plural subject agrees with
plural verb. Hence, Junior colleges
see should be used.
13. (4) Repetition of has is not need-
ful as has has been used earlier with
subject. Hence, sought (for) a written
apology .... should be used.
14. (3) Here, prescribed physicians
may not be .... should be used. Look
at the sentence : The prescribed
form must be completed and re-
turned to the of fice.
15. (3) Here, to select/appoint the
next .... should be used. Select = to
choose from a group of people.
21. (3) Charge = responsibility for
something. Look at the sentence : He
took charge of the farm after his
22. (5) Risk = a situation that can be
dangerous.
23. (2) Lose out = to not get business
that you expected.
24. (1) Pitfall = a danger or difficul-
ty.
25. (3) Force (Verb) = compel Defer
(Verb) = put of f ; delay.
31. (2) is 20% more efficient than
A.
Time taken by days
Time taken by days
.. (i)
(ii)
By equation (ii) (i),
Time taken by
32. (4) Ratio of the equivalent cap‐ itals of and for 1 month
:
(12000
: : 72: 108
: 72 : : 2 : 3
Sum of the terms of ratio
If the total annual profit be Rs.
, then
According to the question, Differ-
ence between the shares
of A and . 6000
. 16500
33.
Amount given to the mother
Remaining amount
(
)
Amount spent in insurance ̇
Amount deposited in
According to the question,
. 36000
34. (3) Cylinder A Cylinder
35.
years
years
According to the question,
years
36. (4)
I.
or
II.
or
Clearly,
37. (1)
I.
or
II.
or
38. (3)
I.
or
II.
or
Clearly,
39. (2)
I.
96
or
II.
or
Clearly, . (3)
I.
II.
or
Clearly,
41. (5) Let the original number
be According to the question,
15% of
42. (5) S.I.
Amount
Again, (
)
(
)
(
)
(
)
According to the question,
. 1200
43. (4) Students who are learning
freestyle dance :
Dance School
Dance School
Their sum
Dance School
Dance School
Their sum
Required percent
(
)
44. (2) Students who are learning
dance forms other than free‐ style :
Dance school
Dance School
Dance School
Required average
45. (2) Students enrolled in
School to learn freestyle
Girls
Students of age 15 years or
above
Girls
Girls who are below 15
years
46. (2) Number of boys :
School
School
Number of girls :
School
School
Required ratio
: (30 35)
: 13
47. (1) Number of students who
are learning freestyle :
School
School
Number of girls :
School
School
Required difference
48. (1) Difference of S.P.S.
C.P. of article
. (504 54)
Marked price of article
(
)
49. (3) The pattern is :
150 48 = 102
102 32 (= 48 16) = 70
70 24 (= 32 8) = 46
46 20 (= 24 4) = 26
26 18 (= 20 2) = 8
50. (5) The pattern is :
10 + 4 = 14
14 + 10 (= 4 + 6) = 24
24 + 28 (= 10 + 18) = 52
52 + 82 (= 28 + 54) = 134
134 + 244 (= 82 + 162)
= 378
51. (3) The pattern is :
24 × 0.5 1 = 12 1 = 11
11 × 1 1 = 11 1 = 10
10 × 1.5 1 = 15 1 = 14
14 × 2 1 = 28 1 = 27
27 × 2.5 1 = 67.5 1
= 66.5
52. (1) The pattern is :
4500 ÷ 5 = 900
900 ÷ 10 = 90
90 ÷ 15 = 6
6 ÷ 20 = 0.3
0.3 ÷ 25 = 0.012
53. (3) The pattern is :
8 × 1 1 = 8 1 = 7
7 × 2 2 = 14 2 = 12
12 × 3 3 = 36 3 = 33
33 × 4 4 = 132 4 = 128
128 × 5 5 = 640 5 = 635
54. (5) √
55. (5)?% of
56. (3)?
57. (5)?
58. (2)?
59. (2) Number of application
97
forms accepted for subjects
and in 2005
of (130 280)
. (1) Number of international
applications received for sub‐ jects A and in 2004
61. (2) Number of applications re‐ ceived for subjects A and in
Total number of applica‐ tions received for both subjects
in
62. (1) Required average
63. (3) Applications received for
subject :
Years
Years
Percentage increase
(
)
64. (1) Total number of balls in the
bag
Total possible outcomes
Selection of 3 balls out of 15
balls
Total possible outcomes Se‐ lection of 2 balls out of 8 red
balls Selection of 1 ball out
of 7 green balls
Required probability
65. (2) In remaining
litres of mixture, Quantity of water
litres
5 litres of additional water is
added.
Required percentage of wa‐
ter
66. 68. : S is the mother of D and
K. D is the daughter of M and S. M
is the husband of S. U is the father of
M and Y.
71. (2) R > S = T > U S > A > V R >
S > A V < A < S = T > U Conclu-
sions : I. A < R : True II. V < U :
Not True (72-73) : B > E > A > T =
H < I < M
72. (1) Conclusions : I. H < E : True
II. B > T : True
73. (3) Conclusions : I. E < I : Not
True II. M < A : Not True
74. (4) S < M < I < T R > J > I S <
M < I < J < R Conclusions : I. R = S
: Not True II. S < R : True
75. (4) D < O < L > C > E Conclu-
sions : I. O < E : Not True II. L > D :
True
79. 84.
Month Person Activity
January G Singing
February B Craft
April E Karate
June A Drawing
August C Painting
October F Boxing
December D Running
85. - 90.
Person Subject Institute
A History Embibe
B English Embibe
C Accountancy Brilliant
D Chemistry Paramount
E Physics Embibe
F Biology Paramount
G Mathematics Brilliant
91. 95.
Box Item
C Medicines
E Ribbons
G Bands
A Creams
F Shoes
B Papers
D Phones
98
RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-
1) English Language
Directions (1 5) : Rearrange the given six sentenc-
es/ group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and
(F) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful
paragraph and then answer the given questions
(A) This lack of concern comes from the fact that
companies do not hire managers that are experts at
managing
(B) Too many managers focus on the daily minuti-
ae aimed at making sure the employee is following
path towards results
(C) Instead, they hire managers who reward indi-
vidual contributors by promoting them into man-
agement positions
(D) However, their role can be enhanced if such
managers, can be hired who change from being
supervisors who monitor work to facilitators who
help subordinates release their full potential
(E) They take this path because results are proof of
productivity and how the employee achieves it is
not a concern for the manager
(F) This faulty hiring has devalued their role.
1. Which of the following should be the FIFTH
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) E (2) D
(3) A (4) F
(5) C
2. Which of the following should be the SECOND
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B
(3) F (4) D
(5) E
3. Which of the following should be the FOURTH
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) B (2) D
(3) A (4) F
(5) C
4. Which of the following should be the FIRST
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A (2) C
(3) B (4) F
(5) E
5. Which of the following should be the SIXTH
(LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A (2) E
(3) C (4) F
(5) D
Directions (6 15) : Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
What is immediately needed today is the establish-
ment of a World Government or an International
Federation of mankind. It is the utmost necessity of
the world today, and all those persons who wish to
see all human beings happy and prosperous natural-
ly feel it keenly. Of course, at times we feel that
many of the problems of our political, social, lin-
guistic and cultural life would come to an end if
there were one Government all over the world.
Travellers, businessmen, seekers of knowledge and
teachers of righteousness know very well that great
impediments and obstructions are faced by them
when they pass from one country to another, ex-
change goods, get information, and make an effort
to spread their good gospel among their fellow-
men. In the past, religious sects divided one set of
people against another, colour of skin or shape of
the body set one against the other.
But today when philosophical light has exploded
the darkness that was created by religious differ-
ences, and when scientific knowledge has falsified
the superstitions, they have enabled human beings
of all religious views and of all races and colours to
come in frequent contact with one another.
It is the governments of various countries that keep
people of one country apart from, those of another.
They create artificial barriers, unnatural distinc-
tions, unhealthy isolation, unnecessary fears and
dangers in the minds of common men who by their
nature want to live in friendship with their fellow-
men. But all these evils would cease to exist if there
were one Government all over the world.
6. What divides people of a country against anoth-
er?
(1) Different religions
(2) Different language
(3) Different social and political systems of differ-
ent people
(4) Governments of various countries
(5) None of these
7. What is the urgent need of the world today?
(1) The establishment of an international economic
order
(2) The establishment of a world government
(3) The creation of a cultural international social
order
(4) The raising of an international spiritual army
(5) None of these
8. What will the world Government be expected to
do?
(1) it will arrange for interplanetary contacts
99
(2) it will end all wars for all time to come
(3) it will bring about a moral regeneration of man-
kind
(4) it will kill the evil spirit in man
(5) None of these
9. Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning
as the word passage.
(1) rectitude (2) religiosity
(3) requirement (4) scrupulousness
(5) Immorality
10. Which of the following problems has not been
mentioned in the passage as likely to be solved with
the establishment of world Government?
(1) Social Problems
(2) Political Problems
(3) Cultural Problems
(4) Economic Problems
(5) None of these
11. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in
meaning to the the
passage.
(1) handicaps (2) furtherance
(3) providence (4) hindrances
(5) obstacles
12. The most appropriate title of the above passage
may be
(1) The evils of the world order
(2) The man can make his destiny
(3) The need of world Government
(4) The role of Religion in the Modern Times
(5) None of these
13. What was the factor, according to the passage,
that set one man against another?
(1) Material prosperity of certain people in the
midst of grinding poverty.
(2) Superior physical strength of some persons.
(3) Colour of skin or shape of the body.
(4) Some people being educated and other illiterate.
(5) None of these
14. The theory of racial superiority stands falsified
today by
(1) knowledge derived from scientific advances
(2) the ascendancy of people who were here to fore
considered of inferior racial stock
(3) the achievements of the so called backward
countries in every field of life
(4) the precedence given to the physical powers of
different races
(5) None of these
15. In the past religious sects
(1) united the people with one another
(2) interfered in political affaiRs (3) did a good job
by way of spreading message of love and peace
(4) divided one set of people from another
(5) None of these
Directions (16 20) :Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of \the sentence.
Select the part with the error as your answer. If
there is
(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
16. Since the films are (1)/ so similar, it is (2)/ you
who has infringe (4)/ No
error (5)
17. The company has been (1)/ testing upfront fares
for (2)/ a small segment of (3)/ riders across five
cities. (4)/ No error (5)
18. Over 2 lakh students (1)/ had applied, seeking
enter (2)/ to various streams (3)/ in junior colleges
in the city. (4)/ No error (5)
19. Analysts said (1)/ that a lack of (2)/ transparen-
cy in the selection process (3)/ was a worry (4)/ No
error (5)
20. The growing fixation on super speciality doc-
tors (1)/ has meant a proportionate (2)/ dwindling
on the ranks of (3)/ the good old fashioned general
practitioners. (4)/ No error (5)
Directions (21 25) : In the following questions,
each sentence has two blanks, each blank indicating
that something has been omitted.
Choose the set of words for the blanks which best
fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
21. The _________ of the latest policy is set to
_______ demand for automobiles.
(1) practice, creating
(2) application, rise
(3) purpose, hike
(4) implementation, boost
(5) employ, increase
22. Last year, vehicles _______ for the highest
share of the amount Indian households _______ on
consumer durables.
(1) accounted, spent
(2)amounted, disbursed
(3) explain, shared
(4) consumed, lost
(5) departed, bestowed
23. The airline, which is the official airline partner
for the recent blockbuster has ________ a special
aircraft for this purpose ________ images of the
lead actor.
(1) set, posed
(2) dedicating, displaying
(3) devoted, bearing
(4) alleged, carrying
(5) donated, addressing
100
24. While the technology and state of knowledge in
medicine allows the gadgets to _____ data and give
recommendation, it will be a while before we are
ready to _____ doctors for serious illnesses.
(1) estimate, credit
(2) evaluate, credence
(3) analyse, trust
(4) describe, distrust
(5) figure out, confidence
25. transferring kids to
the adult criminal justice system for trial and con-
viction has _____ to prevent repeat offences.
(1) data, declined
(2) information, rise
(3) disproof, developed
(4) indication, finished
(5) evidence, failed
Directions (26 30) : In the following passage,
there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
Against each, five words are suggested, one of
which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word in each case.
Technology has had an (26) on relationships in
business, education and social life. Firstly, tele-
phones and the Internet allow business people in
different countries to interact without ever (27)
each other. Secondly, services like Skype create
new (28) for relationships between students and
teachers. For (29), a student can now take video
lessons with a teacher in a different city or country.
Finally, many people use social networks, like Fa-
cebook, to make new friends and find people who
share common interests, and they interact through
their computeRs (30) than face to face.
26. (1) control (2) impact
(3) intervention (4) influenced
(5) issue
27. (1) meeting (2) looking
(3) impersonating (4) being
(5) listening
28. (1) outlooks (2) fortunes
(3) respect (4) possibilities
(5) associates
29. (1) example (2) instant
(3) true (4) learned
(5) sake
30. (1) but (2) apart
(3) against (4) rather
(5) and
Quantitative Aptitude Directions (31 35) : In the following questions,
two equations numbered I and II are given. You
have to solve both the equations and
Give answer If
(1) x < y (2) x > y
(3) x < y (4) x > y
(5) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
31. I. x2 + 18x + 72 = 0
II. y2 + 6y + 8 = 0
32. I. 8x2 22x + 15 = 0
II. 3y2 13y + 14 = 0
33. I. 9x2 26x + 16 = 0
II. 3y2 16y + 20 = 0
34. I. 10x2 17x + 7 = 0
II. 15y2 19y + 6 = 0
35. I. 12x2 + 19x + 5 = 0
II. 5y2 + 16y + 3 = 0
36. The respective ratio of radii of two right circu-
lar cylinders (A and B) is 2 : 5. The respective ratio
of the heights of cylinders A and B is 3 : 1. What is
the respective ratio of volumes of cylinders A and
B?
(1) 12 : 25 (2) 9 : 25
(3) 9 : 20 (4) 3 : 5
(5) 12 : 35
37. Raja gives 30% of his salary to his mother, 40%
of the remaining salary he invests in an insurance
scheme and PPF in the respective ratio of 4 : 3 and
the remaining he keeps in his bank account. If the
difference between the amount he gives to his
mother and that he invests in insurance scheme is
Rs
(1) Rs. 60,000 (2) Rs. 62,000
(3) Rs. 64,000 (4) Rs. 65,000
(5) Rs. 54,000
38. C is 40% efficient less than A. A and B together
can finish a piece of work in 10 days. B and C to-
gether can do it in 15 days. In how many days A
alone can finish the same piece of work?
(1) 18 (2) 12
(3) 14 (4) 20
(5) 15
Directions (39 43) : What approximate value will
come in place of question mark (?) in the given
questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the
exact value.)
39. 619.002 134.99 14.998 9.012 = ?
(1) 355 (2) 360
(3) 350 (4) 400
(5) 388
40. 439.97 ÷ 15.02 + 208.08 ÷ 8.01 16.01 = ?
(1) 120 (2) 60
(3) 100 (4) 80
(5) 40
41. 4? × √ = 245.998 ÷ 8.001 + 929.99
(1) 4 (2) 5
101
(3) 2 (4) 3
(5) 1
42. ?% of (140.06 × 7.99 679.92) = 330.01
(1) 75 (2) 90
(3) 80 (4) 50
(5) 60
43. 40% of 859 + 86.01 ÷ 7.99 = ?
(1) 398 (2) 286
(3) 412 (4) 215
(5) 355
44. In a bag there are 7 red balls and 5 green balls.
Three balls are picked at random. What is the prob-
ability that two balls are red and one is green in
colour?
(1) 29/44 (2) 21/44
(3) 27/44 (4) 23/44
(5) 19/44
45. Shyama invested Rs. P for 2 years in scheme A
which offered 11% per annum simple interest. She
also invested Rs (600 + P) in scheme B which of-
fered 20% compound interest
(compounded annually), for 2 years. If the amount
received from scheme A was less than that received
from scheme B, by Rs. 1216, what is the value of P
?
(1) Rs. 1,500 (2) Rs. 1,400
(3) Rs. 2,000 (4) Rs. 1,600
(5) Rs. 1,800
46. A vessel contains 180 litres of mixture of milk
and water in the respective ratio of 13 : 5
Fifty four litres of this mixture was taken out and
replaced with 6 litres of water, what is the approx-
imate percentage of water in the resultant mixture?
(1) 41 (2) 31
(3) 24 (4) 9
(5) 17
47. A started a business with an investment of Rs.
28,000. After 5 months from the start of the busi-
ness, B and C joined with Rs. 24,000 and Rs.
32,000 respectively and A withdrew Rs 8000 from
the business. If the
and profit is Rs. 2,400, what
was the annual profit received?
(1) Rs. 15,600 (2) Rs. 14,400
(3) Rs. 14,040 (4) Rs. 15,360
(5) Rs. 13,440 schools together?
Directions (48 52) : Read the following table care-
fully and answer the questions
Dance
Schools
Total number
of students
who have
enrolled in
Percentage
of enrolled
students who
are learning
Respective
ratio of male
and female
students learn-
the schools Kathakali ing Kathakali
A 450 30 7 : 8
B 200 38 9 : 10
C 500 24 5 : 19
D 400 18 5 : 7
48. What is the respective ratio between the total
number of male students learning Kathakali in
schools A and D together and the total number of
female students learning Kathakali in the same
schools together?
(1) 30 : 37 (2) 31 : 38
(3) 31 : 44 (4) 36 : 37
(5) 36 : 39
49. In school B, out of the number of students (both
male and female) learning Kathakali, 5/19 are be-
low 15 years of age.
If out of the total students who are below 15 years
of age, 60% are female, what is the number of fe-
male students learning Kathakali who are 15 years
or above?
(1) 24 (2) 29
(3) 26 (4) 25
(5) 28
50. What is the difference between the total number
of male students learning Kathakali in schools B
and C together and the total number of female stu-
dents learning the same in the same
51. What is the average number of students learning
dance forms (other than Kathakali) in schools A, B
and C?
(1) 289 (2) 297
(3) 285 (4) 283
(5) 273
52. The number of students (both male and female)
who are learning Kathakali in schools B and D to-
gether is approximately what percent less than the
number of students
(both male and female) who are learning the same
in schools A and C together?
(1) 18 (2) 42
(3) 22 (4) 51
(5) 33
53. At present, Akki is seven years younger to Bin-
ny. age sixteen years hence, will be equal
age two years ago. What will be
the sum of their present ages?
(1) 72 years (2) 61 years (3) 54 years (4) 62 years
(5) 46 years
Directions (54 58) : Refer to the bar graph and
answer the given questions
102
Data related to number of applications received
by a University for Masters Programe in two
subjects (A and B) during 6 years Number of
applications received
54. In 2008, 20% of the applications received for
subject A and 15% of applications received for sub-
ject B were from International students. What was
the total number of international applications for
subjects A and B together in 2008?
(1) 62 (2) 78
(3) 72 (4) 60
(5) 76
55. In 2010, out of toal number of applications re-
ceived for subjects A and B together, only 40%
were accepted. What was the total number of appli-
cations accepted for subjects A and B together in
2010?
(1) 158 (2) 168
(3) 178 (4) 172
(5) 162
56. The number of applications received for subject
B increased by what percent from 2010 to 2011?
(1) 41.5 (2) 40.5
(3) 45.25 (4) 40.75
(5) 43.75
57. What is the average number of applications
received for subject A in 2008, 2009 and 2011?
(1) 250 (2) 220
(3) 210 (4) 240
(5) 230
58. If the respective ratio of total number of appli-
cations received for subjects A and B together in
2012 and 2013 is 4 : 5, what was the total number
of applications received for subjects A and B to-
gether in 2013?
(1) 625 (2) 750
(3) 600 (4) 650
(5) 700
59. A number is such that when it is multiplied by
number which is as much more
than 153 as the original number itself is less than
153. What is 25% of the original number?
(1) 8 (2) 7.5
(3) 10 (4) 8.5
(5) 6.5
Directions (60 64) :What will come in place of the
question mark
(?) in the given number series?
60. 476 472 462 434 352 ?
(1) 192 (2) 164
(3) 108 (4) 112
(5) 176
61. 45000 1800 90 6 0.6 ?
(1) 0.012 (2) 1.2
(3) 0.03 (4) 0.024
(5) 0.12
62. 9 8 14 39 152 ?
(1) 755 (2) 628
(3) 772 (4) 720
(5) 684
63. 192 108 64 40 26 ?
(1) 21 (2) 17
(3) 13 (4) 19
(5) 15
64. 18 8 7 9.5 18 ?
(1) 50.5 (2) 46
(3) 48.25 (4) 44
(5) 52
65. Percent profit earned when an article is sold for
Rs. 546 is double the percent profit earned when
the same article is sold for Rs. 483. If the marked
price of the article is 40% above the cost price,
what is the marked price of the article?
(1) Rs. 588 (2) Rs. 608
(3) Rs. 616 (4) Rs. 596
(5) Rs. 586
Reasoning Directions (66 68) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Each of the six translators, L, M, N, O, P and Q
translates different number of books in a year. O
translated more books than only two people and M
is one of them. N translated more books than P but
less than L. L did not translate the highest number
of books. P translated more books than M. The one
who translated second highest number of books
translated 32 books. P translated 15 books.
66. How many books has N possibly translated?
(1) 33 (2) 36
(3) 23 (4) 12
(5) 14
67. Which of the following statements is true re-
garding the number of books translated by Q?
(1) No other translator has translated less books
than Q.
103
(2) Q has translated less number of books than N.
(3) Q translated less books than only two persons.
(4) Q possibly translated 45 books.
(5) The difference between number of books trans-
lated by P and Q is less than 17.
68. How many books has M possibly translated?
(1) 30 (2) 10
(3) 24 (4) 36
(5) 32
Directions (69 70) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Gauri starts walking from Point M and walks 20m
towards the south. She then takes a right turn and
walks for 30m. She takes a left turn and stops at
Point O after walking for 15m. Point R is 10m to
the east of Point O. Point J is 35m to the north of
Point R. Point S is 5m to the west of Point J.
69. If Pooja is standing at Point W which is 10m to
the north of Point S, in which direction will she
have to walk in order to reach Point O?
(1) North east (2)West
(3) South west (4) South
(5) South east
70. How far and in which direction is Point S with
respect to Point M?
(1) 25m towards West
(2) 20m towards East
(3) 25m towards East
(4) 20m towards West
(5) 25m towards North
Directions (71 76) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Seven people, namely, J, K, L, M, N, O and P like
seven different cartoon characters namely, Tweety,
Wiene, Superman, Garfield, Jerry, Ariel and Pop-
eye. Each of them studies in either of the three
standards viz. IV, VIII, XI with atleast two of them
in a standard
(Note : None of the information given is necessari-
ly in the same order.) Only one person studies with
M in XI standard. K studies with the one who likes
Ariel. M does not like Ariel. P studies with only the
one who likes Garfield. Neither K nor M likes Gar-
field. J likes Popeye. J does not study with K. The
one who likes Tweety studies with J. N studies with
the one who likes Jerry. N does not study in IV
standard. Neither K nor O likes Jerry. The one who
likes Superman studies with N.
71. Who amongst the following likes Wiene?
(1) N (2) O
(3)M (4) P
(5) K
72. Which of the following cartoon characters does
L like?
(1) Superman (2) Ariel
(3) Tweety (4) Jerry
(5) Garfield
73. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) Both M and J study in the same standard
(2) K studies in IV standard
(3) J studies with the one who likes Wiene
(4)More than two people study in the standard in
which O studies
(5) None of the given statements is true
74. Which of the following combinations represents
the combination of people studying in VIII stand-
ard?
(1) N and the one who likes Wiene
(2) J, O
(3) K, L, N (4) K and the one who
likes Tweety
(5) Other than those given as options
75. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the given arrangement and hence
form a group.
Which of the following does not belong to that
group?
(1) LK (2) PM
(3) KN (4) LN
(5) OP
76. Which of the following combinations represents
the standard in which O studies and the cartoon
character he likes?
(1) VIII Garfield (2) VIII Superman
(3) XI Tweety (4) IV Ariel
(5) IV Garfield
Directions (77 82) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Seven people, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V have
a meeting but not necessarily in the same order on
seven different months (of the same year) namely
January, February, April, May, July, August and
September. Each of them also likes a different fit-
ness activity namely Yoga, Gym Training, Zumba,
Mountaineering, Bicycle, Running and Surfing but
not necessarily in the same order.
The one who likes Gym Training has a meeting on
one of the months before May. The one who likes
Gym Training has a meeting in the month which
has less than 31 days. Only three people have a
meeting between the one who likes Gym training
and T. Only two people have a meeting between T
and the one who likes running.
104
The one who likes Mountaineering has a meeting
on one of the months after the one who likes Run-
ning. The one who likes Mountaineering has a
meeting in the month which has only 30 days. V
has a meeting on one of the months before the one
who likes Gym Training. V does not have a meet-
ing in the month which has least number of days.
More than three people have a meeting between V
and R. Only two people have a meeting between R
and Q. The one who likes Yoga has a meeting im-
mediately before U. U does not have a meeting in a
month which has 31 days. Only one person has a
meeting between the one who likes Surfing and S.
S has a meeting after the one who likes Surfing. R
does not like Zumba.
77. In the given arrangement Yoga is related to
February and Gym Training is related to May fol-
lowing a certain pattern, with which of the follow-
ing is Zumba related to following the same pattern?
(1) July (2) September
(3) April (4) August
(5) January
78. Who amongst the following has a meeting im-
mediately before the one who has a meeting in Ju-
ly?
(1) The one who likes Zumba
(2) The one who likes Surfing
(3) S
(4) R
(5) Q
79. Which of the following combinations is cor-
rect?
(1) S Zumba (2) V Yoga
(3) R Running (4) T Bicycling
(5) U Gym Training
80. Who amongst the following likes Surfing?
(1) U (2) Q
(3) R (4) T
(5) Other than those given as options
81. How many people have a meeting between the
one who has a meeting in February and R?
(1) More than three
(2) None
(3) One (4) Two
(5) Three
82. In which of the following pairs, both the per-
sons have a meeting in the months which has less
than 31 days?
(1) R, S (2) R, Q
(3) U, Q (4) T, P
(5) S , U
Directions (83 87) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight friends, C, D, E, F, K, L, M and N are seated
in a straight line, but not necessarily in the same
order. Some of them are facing north while some
are facing south. Only one person sits to the left of
K. E sits third to the right of K. C sits second to the
left of E. C is not an immediate neighbour of K. C
faces a direction opposite to that of E (i.e. if E faces
north then C faces south and viceversa.) Both the
immediate neighbours of D face south. D is not at
any of the extreme ends of the line. F sits third to
the right of N. Both the immediate neighbours of C
face north. L is not an immediate neighbour of E.
Immediate neighbours of K face opposite directions
(i.e. if one neighbour faces north then the other fac-
es south and viceversa.)
83. Who amongst the following sits second to the
right of L?
(1) C (2) N
(3) E (4)M
(5) No one as less than two people sit to the right of
L.
84. Which of the following statements is true, based
on the given arrangement?
(1) M and E face opposite directions.
(2)M sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
(3) Only four people face south.
(4) None of the given options is true
(5) K faces north.
85. Who among the following represents the per-
sons sitting at extreme ends of the line?
(1) L, M (2) L, N
(3) F, M (4) M, N
(5) F, N
86. How many people sit between C and K?
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) More than four
(4) Two
(5) One
87. Who among the following are immediate
neighbours of F?
(1) Other than those given as options
(2) E and M
(3) D and K (4) D and N
(5) E and D
Directions (88 90) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
is the sister of D. D is the mother of U. U is married
to T. T is the only son of Z. Z is the son of R. R is
the husband of Q.
105
88. If Z is the father of X, then how is X related to
U?
(1) Brother (2) Sister-in-law
(3) Cousin (4) Brother-in-law
(5) Sister
89. How is U related to L?
(1) Son-in-law (2) Daughter
(3) Daughter-in-law
(4) Niece
(5) Nephew
90. How is Q related to T?
(1) Sister-in-law (2) Mother-in-law
(3) Grandmother (4)Mother
(5) Aunt
Directions (91 95) : In these questions, relation-
ship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by two
Conclusions numbered I and.
II. Study the Conclusions based on the statements
and select the appropriate answer.
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-
sion II is true
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-
clusion II is true
Give answer (5) if both Conclusion I and Conclu-
sion II are true
(91 92) :
Statements :
M < J < B = L < T > P < S
91.
Conclusions :
I. J < T
II. L > S
92.
Conclusions :
I. B > P
II. M < L
93. Statements :
D < R < I < L; I < F < S
Conclusions :
I. D < F
II. S > R
94. Statements :
R > I > S > K; V > O > S
Conclusions :
I. O < R
II. K > V
95. Statements :
D > R > A < F < T
Conclusions :
I. R < T
II. D > F
Directions (96 100) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Seven boxes M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are kept one
above the other, but not necessarily in the same
order. Each box is of a different shape. Square, Tri-
angular, Rectangular, Hexagonal, Conical, Pentag-
onal and Octagonal, but not necessarily in the same
order.
The hexagonal box is kept immediately below M.
Only two boxes are kept between the Hexagonal
box and the square box. More than two boxes are
kept above the square box. Only one box is kept
between the square box and R. O is kept immedi-
ately above R. Neither O nor S is a hexagonal box.
S is kept immediately above the Pentagonal box. S
is not a square box. N is kept immediately above Q.
Only one box is kept between the N and the trian-
gular box. N is kept above the triangular box.
Only two boxes are kept between the Triangular
and the Octagonal box. The Rectangular box is kept
neither at the top nor at the bottom of the stack.
96. Which of the following is kept immediately
below R?
(1) S
(2) The Triangular Box
(3) P
(4) N
(5) The Conical Box
97. Which of the following boxes is rectangular in
shape?
(1) R (2) N
(3)M (4) O
(5) Other than those given as options
98. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and hence form a group. Which of the follow-
ing does not belong to that group?
(1) M Triangular (2)M Hexagonal
(3) O Octagonal (4) S Square
(5) S Conical
99. What is the position of S in the given stack of
boxes?
(1) Second from the top
(2) Fourth from the top
(3) Third from the bottom
(4) Third from the top
(5) Second from the bottom
100. How many boxes are kept between the P and
the Square box?
(1) Two (2) One
(3) None (4) Three
(5) More than three
106
Answer Key 1. (4) 2. (5) 3. (5) 4. (3) 5. (5) 6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9.
(1) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (4) 16.
(3) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (5) 21. (4) 22. (1) 23.
(4) 24. (3) 25. (5) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30.
(4) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (5) 36. (1) 37.
(1) 38. (4) 39. (5) 40. (5) 41. (4) 42. (1) 43. (5) 44.
(2) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (5) 50. (2) 51.
(5) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (5) 55. (4) 56. (5) 57. (5) 58.
(4) 59. (4) 60. (3) 61. (5) 62. (1) 63. (2) 64. (4) 65.
(1) 66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (1) 71. (4) 72.
(4) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (5) 77. (4) 78. (3) 79.
(2) 80. (1) 81. (5) 82. (3) 83. (4) 84. (3) 85. (2) 86.
(1) 87. (5) 88. (2) 89. (4) 90. (3) 91. (1) 92. (2) 93.
(5) 94. (4) 95. (4) 96. (4) 97. (2) 98. (5) 99. (3) 100.
(1)
107
Solutions: 6. (4) Look at the sentence : It is the
governments of various countries
that keep people of one country apart
from, those of another.
7. (2) It is obvious from the first
sentence of the passage.
8. (3) Look at the sentence : It is the
utmost necessity of the world today
and all those persons who wish to
see all human beings mankind.
9. (1) Righteousness (Noun) = mor-
ally right and good; moral ac-
ceptance; fairness; great concern for
morals and ethics; propriety; scrupu-
lousness; rectitude. Immorality
(Noun) = not considered to be good
or honest. Look at the sentences :
Lord Buddha believed in righteous-
c-
cept men of immorality.
11. (2) Impediment (Noun) = some-
thing that delays or stops the pro-
gress of something; obstacle; hin-
drance. Furtherance (Noun) = the
process of helping something to
develop or to be successful. Look at
the sentences : The level of inflation
is a serious impediment to economic
recovery. He took these actions
purely in the furtherance of his own
career.
16. (3) The antecedent of relative
you. Hence, Plural
Verb i.e., you who have infringed
(V3) should be used.
17. (2) It is preposition related error.
Hence, testing upfront fares on ...
should be used here. Look at the
sentence : Children were tested on
core subjects.
18. (2) Here, have applied, seeking
admission (Noun) ..... should be
used. The Past relates to Present.
Moreover, gerund should be fol-
lowed by a Noun.
19. (2) Here, that the lack of .......
should be used. Certainty is evident.
21. (4) I m p l e m e n t a t i o n
(Noun) = making something start
Boost (Verb) = to make something
increase or become better.
22. (1) Account for = to be a part of
something
23. (4) Allege (Verb) = to state
something as a fact but without giv-
ing proof.
24. (3) Analyse = to examine the
nature of something
25. (5) Evidence (Noun) = the facts
that make you believe that some-
thing is true.
28. (1) Outlooks = prospect, the
probable future.
31. (1)
I. x2 + 18x + 72 = 0
x2 + 6x + 12x + 72 = 0
x (x + 6) + 12 (x + 6) = 0
(x + 6) (x + 12) = 0
x = 6 or 12
II. y2 + 6y + 8 = 0
y2 + 2y + 4y + 8 = 0
y (y + 2) + 4 (y + 2) = 0
(y + 2) (y + 4) = 0
y = 2 or 4
Clearly, x < y
32. (1)
I. 8x2 22x + 15 = 0
8x2 12x 10x + 15 = 0
4x (2x 3) 5 (2x 3) = 0
(4x 5) (2x 3) = 0
x = 5/4 or 3/2
II. 3y2 13y + 14 = 0
3y2 6y 7y + 14 = 0
3y (y 2) 7 (y 2) = 0
(y 2) (3y 7) = 0
y = 2 or 7/3
Clearly, x < y
33. (3)
I. 9x2 26x + 16 = 0
9x2 18x 8x + 16 = 0
9x (x 2) 8 (x 2) = 0
(x 2) (9x 8) = 0
x = 2 or\8/9
II. 3y2 16y + 20 = 0
3y2 6y 10y + 20 = 0
3y (y 2) 10 (y 2) = 0
(y 2) (3y 10) = 0
y = 2 or 10/3
Clearly, x < y
34. (2)
I. 10x2 17x + 7 = 0
10x2 10x 7x + 7 = 0
10x (x 1) 7 (x 1) = 0
(x 1) (10x 7) = 0
x = 1 or 7/10
II. 15y2 19y + 6 = 0
15y2 10y 9y + 6 = 0
5y (3y 2) 3 (3y 2) = 0
(3y 2) (5y 3) = 0
y =2/3 or 3/5
Clearly, x > y
35. (5)
I. 12x2 + 19x + 5 = 0
12x2 + 4x + 15x + 5 = 0
4x (3x + 1) + 5 (3x + 1) = 0
(4x + 5) (3x + 1) = 0
x = 5/4 or 1/3
II. 5y2 + 16y + 3 = 0
5y2 + 15y + y + 3 = 0
5y (y + 3) + 1 (y + 3) = 0
(y + 3) (5y + 1) = 0
y = 3 or 1/5
36. (1) Cylinder‐A Cylinder units
units
units units
..
(
)
(
)
(
) (
)
37.
Amount given to the mother
Rs.
Remaining amount
(
) Rs.
Amount invested in insurance
and PP 40% of Rs.
(
) Rs.
Investment in insurance
Rs. (
)
According to the question,
38. (4) Time taken by days
is 40% less efficient than A.
Time taken by days
(i)
(ii)
Equation ,
108
days
39. (5)?
Required answer
41. (4) √
42. (1)
43. (5)?
44. (2) Total number of balls in
the bag
Total possible outcomes
lection of 3 balls out of 12
balls
Total favourable outcomes
Selection of 2 balls out of 7
red balls and selection of 1 ball
out of 5 green balls
Required probability
45. (4) S.I. received from the
scheme
Rs.
Amount Rs. (
)
(
) Rs.
Amount received from the
scheme (
)
(
)
(
)
(
)
(
)
According to the question,
. 1600
46. (2) Remaining mixture
litres
Quantity of water
(
) litres
litres
On adding 6 litres of water, Total
quantity of water
41litres
Quantity of mixture litres
Percentage of water
47. (2) Ratio of the equivalent
capitals of and for 1
month
: : :
: :
Sum of the terms of ratio
Total annual profit Rs.
(let)
According to the question, (
)
. 14400
48. (2) School Students who are
learning
Kathakali
Boys
Girls
School Students who are learning
Kathakali
Boys
Girls
Required ratio
: (72 42)
:
49. (5) In school Students who are
learning
Kathakali
Students who are below 15
years of age
Girls
Girls who are learning
Kathakali
Girls who are 15 years old
or above
50. (2) In School Students who
are learning
Kathakali
Boys
Girls
In School Students who are learn-
ing
Kathakali
Boys
Girls
Required difference
51. (5) Students who are learning
dance forms other than Kathaka‐ li:
School
School
School
Required average
52. (2) Students who are learning
Kathakali :
School
School
Their sum
School
School
Their sum
Required percent
(
)
53.
years
years
According to the question,
years
Required sum years
years
years years
54. (5) Applications received from
international students in the
year 2008:
Subject
Subject
Required answer
55. (4)Applications accepted in
2010
109
of
56. (5)Required percentage
(
)
57. (5)Required average
58. (4)Applications received for
both subjects in 2012
Total applications received
in
59. (4) Let the number be According to the question,
25% of
60. (3) The pattern is :
472 10
462 28
434 82
352 244
61. (5) The pattern is :
62. (1) The pattern is :
63. (2) The pattern is :
64. (4) The pattern is :
9.5
44
65. (1) Profit on selling the arti‐ cle for Rs. C.P. of article
Marked price of article
(
) Rs. 588
71. 76.
Person Standard Cartoon
Character
J XI Popeye
K VIII Superman
L VIII Jerry
M XI Tweety
N VIII Ariel
O IV Garfield
P IV Wiene
77. 82.
Month Person Activity
January V Yoga
February U Surfing
April Q Gym Training
May S Running
July P Zumba
August R Bicycle
September T Mountaineering
91. 92. : M < J < B = L < T > P <
S
91. (1) Conclusions : I. J < T : True
II. L > S : Not True
92. (2) Conclusions : I. B > P : Not
True II. M < L : True
93. (5) D < R < I < L I < F < S D <
R < I < F D < R < I < F < S Conclu-
sions : I. D < F : True II. S > R :
True
94. (4) R > I > S > K V > O > S R >
I > S < O < V V > O > S > K Con-
clusions : I. O < R : Not True II. K >
V : Not True
95. (4) D > R > A < F < T Conclu-
sions : I. R < T : Not True II. D > F :
Not True
96. 100.
Box Shape
O Conical
R Octagonal
N Rectangular
Q Square
S Triangular
M Pentagonal
P Hexagonal
110
RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-
2) English Language
Directions (1 10) : Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to
help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
first appeared in
the Wall Street Journal in 1986 and was then used
in the title of an academic article by A.M. Morrison
and others published in 1987. Entitled
the Glass Ceiling: Can Women Reach the Top of
looked at the
persistent failure of women to climb as far up the
corporate ladder as might be expected from their
representation in the working population as a
whole. The idea behind the expression was that a
transparent barrier, a glass ceiling, blocked them.
Invisible from the bottom, when women started
their careers, it was steely strong in stopping them
attaining equality with men later on.
It helped explain the fact that in large corporations
in Europe and North America women rarely came
to account for more than 10% of senior executives
and 4% of CEOs and chairmen. A secondary issue
is that of that even
when women do reach the highest levels of corpo-
rate management, they do not receive the same pay
as men for the same job; a figure of 75% is often
quoted.
And rather than getting better over time, the posi-
tion seems to be deteriorating. One survey found
that women executives in the United States were
earning an even lower percentage of their male
in 2000 than they were
in 1995
So worried was the American government about the
issue that in 1991 it set up something called the
Glass Ceiling Commission, a 21-member body ap-
pointed by the president and Congress and chaired
by the labour secretary.
The commission focused on barriers in three areas :
the filling of management and decision-making
positions; skills-enhancing activities; and compen-
sation and reward systems.
The Glass Ceiling Commission
and was disbanded. Needless to
say, the problem did not disappear with it. One of
the first women to head a major Japanese company,
when asked in 2005 what had changed least in Jap-
anese business in the previous 20 years
Several theories
have been presented to explain the glass ceiling :
The time factor : One theory is that the cohorts of
first-class female graduates have not yet had time to
work through the pipeline and reach the top of the
corporate hierarchy. Qualifications for a senior
management post usually include a graduate degree
and 25 years of continuous work experience.
In the early 1970s, when
were graduating, fewer than 5% of law and MBA
degrees were being awarded to women. Nowadays,
women gain over 40% of all law degrees in the
United States and 35% of MBAs. Motherhood :
Sometimes the blame for the glass ceiling is laid at
the door of motherhood.
Women are distracted from their career path by the
need to stay at home and rear children.
They are unable to undertake the tasks required to
reach the top; for example, extended trips abroad,
wearing air miles like battle medals, long evenings
clients and changing plans at short
notice. Lack of role models : In her 1977 book
n
Moss Kanter suggested that because managerial
women are so often a token female in their work
environment they stand out from the rest. This
makes them (and their failures) much more visible,
and exaggerates the differences between them and
the dominant male culture.
Some authors recently have gone so far as to chal-
lenge the metaphor of the glass ceiling, arguing that
it presents the image of a one-off blockage some-
where high up the career ladder, whereas in reality
there is a whole series of obstacles along the way
that hold women back.
1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in
the context of the given article?
I. The American government formed a Glass Ceil-
ing Commission in 1991 regarding
participation in corporations.
II. Rosabeth Moss Kanter wrote
Women of
III. Now a days women gain over 40% of all law
degrees in the United States and 35% of MBAs.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Only I and II (4) Only II and III
(5) All three I, II and III
2. Worried by the poor participation of women in
largest corporations, the government
appointed a 21 member body chaired by the la-
bour secretary. Which of the following area(s)
was/were of their focus?
111
I. Employment for management and decision mak-
ing positions.
skills III. How to
presence in duty and their work-
ing hours.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Only I and III
(4) Only I and II
(5) All three I, II and III
3. What should be the most appropriate title of the
given passage?
(1) Breaking the wooden ceiling.
(2) Breaking the glass ceiling
corporations
(4) Global participation of women
(5) None of these
4. Which of the following statements is not true in
the context of the given passage?
(1) In large corporations in Europe and North
America women rarely come to account for more
than 10% of senior executives and 4% of CEOs and
chairmen.
in the title of an academic article by A.M. Morri-
son.
(3) The idea behind the expression l-
was that a transparent barrier blocked women
in their progress.
(4) According to a survey, women executives in the
United States were earning an even lower percent-
age of their male counterparts remuneration in 2000
than they were in 1995.
(5) None of these
5. Several theories have been presented to explain
the glass ceiling. Which of the following is/are cor-
rect in this regard?
I. Because managerial women are so often a token
female in their work environment they stand out
from the rest.
II. Sometimes the blame for glass ceiling is laid at
the door of motherhood.
III. The cohorts of first class female graduates have
not yet had time to work through the pipeline and
reach the top of the corporate hierarchy.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Only I and II (4) Only II and III
(5) All three I, II and III
6. Select the correct statement in the context of the
given passage.
(1) In early 1970, fewer than 6% of law and MBA
degrees were being awarded to women.
(2)Women are not distracted from their career path
by the need to stay at home and rear children.
(3) The women get same pay for same job as com-
pared to men.
(4) The Glass ceiling commission completed its
mandate in 1996 and was disbanded.
(5) None of these
Directions (7 8) : Which one of the following
words is most similar in meaning to the word given
in bold letters in the passage?
7. Persistent
(1) relenting (2) perquisite
(3) unrelenting (4) transient
(5) perseverance
8. Stand out
(1) to be noticeable
(2) watch
(3) remain valid (4) isolate
(5) support
Directions (9 10) : Which one of the following
words is most opposite in meaning to the word giv-
en in bold letters in the passage?
9. Distracted
(1) diverted (2) distressed
(3) inattentive (4) distinguished
(5) attentive
10. Deteriorate
(1) to become worse
(2) decline
(3) degrade (4) improve
(5) retrogress
Directions (11 15) : Rearrange the given six sen-
tences/ group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
and (F) in a proper sequence so as to form a mean-
ingful paragraph and then answer the given ques-
tions
(A) And the number four, Humana, has been look-
ing at selling itself to either Aetna or Cigna
(B) The second largest, Anthem, is trying to buy
the number five, Cigna which on June 21st reject-
billion bid
(C) The largest insurer, United- Health, has ap-
proached the number three, Aetna
(D) A similar consolidation among health insurers
was also predicted.
But since the new insurance exchanges set up under
Obama care only went into operation last year, it
has taken until now for it to be clear how big the
merger wave may be
(E) Sure enough, one of the more immediate effects
was a frenzy of hospital mergers, as providers
sought to raise their efficiency in response to
measures in the Affordable Care Act of 2010, alias
Obamacare, designed to curb their cost increases
112
(F) Reform of American health care was always
expected to have an enormous impact on the sector.
11. Which of the following should be the FIRST
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A (2) F
(3) B (4) C
(5) E
12. Which of the following should be the LAST
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) E
13. Which of the following should be the SECOND
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) F (2) E
(3) A (4) B
(5) C
14. Which of the following should be the
FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) E
15. Which of the following should be the FIFTH
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) E
Directions (16 25) : In the following passage,
some of the words have been left out, each of which
is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word
from the options given against each number and fill
up the blanks with appropriate words to make the
paragraph meaningful.
New technologies (16) cause stress and suffering,
because of a
During this session, Delphine Remy-Boutang
the founder and CEO of The Social Bureau and
Christophe Aguiton researcher at the Orange
Labs (17) that due to the acceleration of our lives
led by the acceleration of technology, we (18)
changed the way we consume and generate infor-
mation.
People are trying to live 10 lives at once and a lot
of stress and anxiety occurs from that. The two
speakers even argue that we are (19) from digital
bulimia, meaning that we take in a lot of infor-
mation at once, without really processing it for our-
selves, and in turn (20) a lot of new information.
Thus, as Christophe Aguiton says, the
same time creators and victims of information over-
Thus, it is obvious that technological ad-
vancement has failed (21) its mission of making
life easier, as many people are reacting
negatively to it. As Dolphine Remy-Boutant put it :
is really a (22) : On the one hand, the technolo-
gy we are surrounding ourselves which is designed
to give us more time for ourselves which is
something we all want.
However, today, while technology is as developed
as ever before, we are living in a time with the (23)
explained
this phenomenon by (24) of the car
allowed us to save time,when compared to walking.
However, it also made us want to go further by giv-
ing us this option, so overall we spend more time
getting to places. The same is true for other tech-
nologies we want to travel to more countries,
learn more, fall in love more often. The search for
content and experience has become the (25) of life
for many.
16. (1) actual (2) actually
(3) rarely (4) fundamental
(5) are
17. (1) argued (2) rejected
(3) amplified (4) ameliorated
(5) deteriorated
18. (1) has (2) will
(3) should (4) have
(5) should be
19. (1) suffered (2) suffering
(3) going (4) running
(5) suffocating
20. (1) creating (2) create
(3) created (4) destroy
(5) destroying
21. (1) of (2) with
(3) at (4) off
(5) after
22. (1) paradox (2) truth
(3) orthodox (4) lie
(5) indeed
23. (1) big (2) bigger
(3) biggest (4) small
(5) smaller
24. (1) inventing (2) invention
(3) discovery (4) reach
(5) manufacturing
25. (1) meaning (2) means
(3) source (4) pleasant
(5) curse
Directions (26-30) : Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer. If there is no er-
ror, the answer is (5) i.e., No error
(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
113
26. However, while the younger generations are
often accusing for (1)/ actively adhering to this
technology (2)/ based lifestyle, the study showed
(3)/ that 38% of 10 18 year olds claim to feel
overwhelmed. (4)/ No error (5)
27. The economy of a country is literary (1)/ a
backbone to its existence and it helps (2)/ determine
overall health (3)/ and growth of a nation. (4)/ No
error (5)
28. A thief runs away from a police station with a
uniform (1)/ speed of 100m/minute and after one
minute a policeman runs behind the (2)/ thief to
catch him at speed of 100m/ minute in first (3)/
minute and increases his speed 10m each succeed-
ing minute. (4)/ No error (5)
29. Now-a-days people are really (1)/ afraid of the
terrorism and terrorists (2)/ attack all time. It has
become a warm (3)/ topic as it is a big social issue.
(4)/ No error (5)
30. With the decline of cottage (1)/ and handicraft
industries, the traditional (2)/ economy base of
country (3)/ was in bad shape. (4)/ No error (5)
Quantitative Aptitude Directions (31 35) : What approximate value will
come in place of the question mark (?) in each of
the following questions?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
31. (20.1% of 375.2) + (39.98% of 440.002) = ?
(1) 251 (2) 260
(3) 241 (4) 261
(5) 240
32. ?% of 450.15 ÷ 5.99 + 150.25 = 180
(1) 35 (2) 40
(3) 45 (4) 46
(5) 44
33. 499.998 ÷ 19.992 + 43.001 ×1.992 = ?
(1) 185 (2) 190
(3) 197 (4) 180
(5) 186
34. (174.95 + 350.05) × √ + 125.11 = ?
(1) 2800 (2) 2450
(3) 2650 (4) 2750
(5) 2600
35. 47.94 + 2240.02 ÷ (14.01 × 79.9) = ?
(1) 50 (2) 55
(3) 45 (4) 40
(5) 56
36. The ratio of the heights of two cylinders A and
B is 5 : 4 respectively and the respective ratio of
their volumes is 5 : 36. What is the respective ratio
between their radii?
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 3
(5) 3 : 2
37. On selling an article for Rs 756, a loss of 68%
is incurred.
To gain 30%, the selling price of the article will be
(1) Rs. 3171.25 (2) Rs. 3071.25
(3) Rs. 3107.25 (4) Rs. 3200
(5) None of these
38. A and B start a business with respective in-
vestments of Rs 10000 and Rs. 18000. After 8
months from the start of the business, B quits and C
joins with Rs. 24000. If annual profit be Rs. 38250,
share in the profit?
(1) Rs. 13000 (2) Rs. 11750
(3) Rs. 12750 (4) Rs. 12000
(5) None of these
39. Ali deposited Rs. P in scheme A for 3 years at
the rate of 10% per annum simple interest. He in-
vested the amount received after 3 years in scheme
B for 2 years which offered compound interest at
the rate of 10% per annum. If the interest earned
from scheme B was Rs. 819, what is the value of P?
(1) Rs. 2880 (2) Rs. 3000
(3) Rs. 3050 (4) Rs. 3125
(5) None of these
40. In a box there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green
balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is the
probability that it is neither red nor green?
(1) 1/3 (2) 3/4
(3) 7/19 (4) 8/21
(5) 9/21
Directions (41 45) : What will come in place of
the question mark (?) in the following number se-
ries?
41. 5 3 4 7.5 17 45 ?
(1) 138 (2) 135
(3) 140 (4) 142
(5) 136
42. 9 16 25 38 57 ?
(1) 81 (2) 84
(3) 82 (4) 83
(5) 86
43. 8 5 6 10 21 ?
(1) 51.5 (2) 52.25
(3) 53.5 (4) 54.5
(5) 53.25
44. 8 ? 116 152 176 188
(1) 45 (2) 68
(3) 60 (4) 48
(5) 50
45. 25 26 30 39 55 ?
(1) 80 (2) 75
(3) 85 (4) 90
114
(5) None of these
Directions (46 50) : Study the following table
carefully and answer the questions given below it
Company Total num-
ber.
of employ-
ees
Marketing.
Department
H.R.
Department
Males Females Males Females
A 200 15 13 5 8
B 550 24 12 4 6
C 600 18 20 3 5
D 400 22 19 2 4
46. What is the apporximate average number of
female employees in H.R. department taking all
companies together?
(1) 24 (2) 17
(3) 18 (4) 19
(5) 20
47. What is the approximate average number of
male employees in the Marketing department tak-
ing all companies together?
(1) 88 (2) 90
(3) 91 (4) 92
(5) 87
48. What is the difference between the number of
male employees in Marketing department of com-
panies A and B together and that of female employ-
ees in H.R. department of companies C and D to-
gether?
(1) 114 (2) 115
(3) 116 (4) 118
(5) 120
49. By what per cent approximately is the number
of male employees in marketing department of
company C less than that of male employees in the
same department of company B?
(1) 19% (2) 20%
(3) 16% (4) 18%
(5) 21%
50. What is the respective ratio between the number
of female employees in the marketing department
of company A and company D?
(1) 13 : 38 (2) 13 : 21
(3) 19 : 27 (4) 27 : 19
(5) 2 : 3
Directions (51 55) : Two equations I and II are
given in each question. You have to solve these
equations. On the basis of these equations, you
have to decide the relation between x and y and
give answer
51. I. 4x2 + 7x + 3 = 0
II. 2y2 + 5y + 3 = 0
52. I. 2x2 9x + 10 = 0
II. 9y2 27y + 20 = 0
53. I. 3x2 7x + 2 = 0
II. 6y2 19y + 13 = 0
54. I. 5x2 + 18x + 9 = 0
II. 15y2 + 11y + 2 = 0
55. I. 6x2 5x + 1 = 0
II. 10y2 13y + 4 = 0
Directions (56 60) : Study the following table
carefully and answer the given questions.
Members in two gymnasiums A and B during 5
years Gymnasium A Gymnasium B
Total M : F Total M : F
2010 120 7 : 5 180 11 : 7
2011 140 9 : 5 200 3 : 2
2012 220 6 : 5 230 14 : 9
2013 190 9 : 10 360 5 : 4
2014 170 9 : 8 260 7 : 6
56. What is the respective ratio between the number
of male members in gymnasium A in the year 2010
and that of female members in gymnasium B in the
year 2014?
(1) 7 : 12 (2) 3 : 7
(3) 7 : 3 (4) 5 : 9
(5) 9 : 5
57. What is the average number of female members
in gymnasium B taking all the years together?
(1) 105 (2) 104
(3) 106 (4) 107
(5) 108
58. What is the average number of male members
in gymnasium A taking all the years together?
(1) 91 (2) 90
(3) 92 (4) 93
(5) 94
59. By what per cent is the number of male mem-
bers in gymnasium A in 2012 more than that of
female members?
(1) 20% (2) 21%
(3) 22% (4) 18%
(5) 19%
60. What is the difference between the total number
of members in gymnasium A and B taking all the
years together?
(1) 360 (2) 390
(3) 385 (4) 380
(5) 395
61. At peresent Anu is six years younger than
Charu and Charu is 10 years younger than Bilal.
Six years hence, the respective ratio between Bi-
2.
present age.
115
(1) 32 years (2) 30 years (3) 34 years (4) 26 years
(5) 22 years
62. Two trains, one from Howrah to Patna and the
other from Patna to Howrah start simultaneously.
After they meet, the trains reach their destinations
after 9 hours and 16 hours respectively. The ratio of
their speeds is
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 4 : 3
(3) 6 : 7 (4) 9 : 16
(5) None of these
63. 10 men and 15 women together can complete a
work in 6 days. It takes 100 days for one man alone
to complete the same work. How many days will be
required for one woman alone to complete the same
work?
(1) 90 (2) 125
(3) 145 (4) 150
(5) 225
64. Salaries of Ravi and Sumit are in the ratio 2 : 3.
If the salary of each is increased by Rs 4000, the
new ratio becomes 40 : 57. What is
salary?
(1) Rs. 17000 (2) Rs. 20000
(3) Rs. 25500 (4) Rs. 38000
(5) None of these
65. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels, how many
words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be
formed?
(1) 210 (2) 1050
(3) 25200 (4) 21400
(5) None of these
Reasoning Ability Directions (66 71) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Seven persons, viz, J, K, L, M, N, O and P attend
wedding ceremony in seven different months of the
same year, viz., February, March, May, June, Au-
gust, November and December, but not necessarily
in the same order. Each one of them also likes dif-
ferent fruits viz., Apple, Mango, Banana, Strawber-
ry, Cherry, Grapes and Orange, but not necessarily
in the same order.
J attends a wedding ceremony in a month which has
only 30 days. Only two persons attend wedding
ceremonies between J and the one who likes Man-
go. The person who likes Mango does attend a
wedding ceremony in a month which has 31 days.
K attends a wedding ceremony immediately before
the one who likes Mango. Only three persons attend
wedding ceremonies between K and the one who
likes Cherry. P attends a wedding ceremony before
K. P does not attend a wedding ceremony in the
month which has more than 30 days. Only two per-
sons attend wedding ceremonies between P and the
one who likes Banana. O attends a wedding cere-
mony immediately after the one who likes Banana.
N attends a wedding ceremony immediately before
M. Only one person attends a wedding ceremony
between M and the one who likes Apple. The one
who likes Apple attends a wedding ceremony be-
tween the persons who likes Apple an Strawberry
respectively. The one who likes Grapes attends a
wedding ceremony in any month before the one
who likes Strawberry.
66. Who among the following likes Strawberry?
(1) N (2) K
(3) O (4) J
(5) M
67. Who among the following attends a wedding
ceremony immediately before the one who attended
a wedding ceremony in the month of June?
(1)M (2) P
(3) O (4) L
(5) K
68. In the given arrangement Apple is related to
March and Banana is related to August following a
certain pattern, with which of the following is Cher-
ry related to following the same pattern?
(1) February (2) June
(3) November (4) May
(5) December
69. Which of the following combinations is correct
as per the given arrangement?
(1) N Grapes (2) June Banana
(3) O Cherry (4) November Apple
(5) December K
70. How many persons attended wedding ceremo-
nies between N and the one who attended a wed-
ding ceremony in the month of November?
(1) More than three
(2) None
(3) One (4) Two
(5) Three
71. In which of the following pairs, both the per-
sons attended wedding ceremonies in the months
each of the which has less than 31 days?
(1) P and M (2) J and L
(3) P and K (4) L and O
(5) K and N
Directions (72 77) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight friends viz., G, H, I, J, W, X, Y and Z are
sitting in a straight line, but not necessarily in the
same order. Some of them are facing North while
116
some others are facing South. J sits third to the right
of W.
W sits at any extreme and of the line. Both the im-
mediate neighbours of J face North. Only one per-
son sits between J and H. H is not an immediate
neighbour of W. I sits second to the left of Y. Y is
not an immediate neighbour of J. Both the immedi-
ate neighbours of Y face South. G does not sit at
any extreme end of the line. G is not an immediate
neighbour of J. More than one person are sitting
between I and X. The immediate neighbours of Z
face a direction opposite to Z (i.e., if Z faces North,
the immediate neighbours of Z face South and
vice versa)
The immediate neighbours of Y face the same di-
rection as that of Y (i.e., if Y faces North, both the
immediate neighbours of Y also face North and
vice versa).
72. Who amongst the following sits third to the
right of I?
(1)W (2) X
(3) H (4) G
(5) Z
73. How many persons sit between G and H?
(1) Three (2) More than three
(3) None (4) One
(5) Two
74. Which of the following statements is true based
on the given arrangement?
(1) Only three persons face North.
(2) H and J face opposite directions
(3) X sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
(4) Z faces South
(5) None of the given statements is true
75. Who amongst the following are immediate
neighbours of H?
(1) X and Y (2) I and Z
(3) Y and Z (4) Other than those giv-
en as options
(5) Y and I
76. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the given arrangement and hence
they form a group.
Which one of the following does not belong to that
group?
(1) Y, J (2) H, G
(3) X, I (4)W, J
(5) I, G
77. In the given arrangement X is related to H and
Z is related to I following a certain pattern, with
which of the following W is related to, following
the same pattern?
(1) H (2) J
(3) Y (4) Z
(5) G
Directions (78 83) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F borrowed different
number of books from their libraries. D borrowed
more number of books than both C and F. D bor-
rowed less number of books than A. A did not bor-
rowed the highest number of books. C borrowed
neither the lowest nor the second lowest number of
books. B borrowed neither the lowest nor the high-
est number of books. The one who borrowed the
second highest number of books, borrowed 34
books. The one who borrowed second lowest num-
ber of books borrowed 19 books.
78. Who amongst the following did borrow the
highest number of books?
(1) D (2) E
(3) C (4) F
(5) None of these
79. What number of books did F possibly borrow?
(1) 36 (2) 27
(3) 23 (4) 21
(5) 14
80. Who amongst the following did borrow more
number of books than B but less number of books
than D?
(1) C (2) F
(3) A (4) E
(5) None of these
81. What number of books did A definitely borrow?
(1) 36 (2) 28
(3) 34 (4) 30
(5) 21
82. Who amongst the following did borrow more
number of books than only F?
(1) E (2) F
(3) C (4) B
(5) None of these
83. If C borrowed 26 books then D might have bor-
rowed what number of books?
(1) 38 (2) 24
(3) 30 (4) 22
(5) 36
84. N is the sister of T. T is the only son of Y. Y is
the mother of K. J is the daughter of K. J is the sis-
ter of M. D is married to K. If X is the wife of M,
how D is related to X?
(1) Father (2) Father in law
(3)Mother (4) Mother in law
(5) Cannot be determined
117
85. Ravi starts walking from point D and walks 20
metres towards north. He takes a left turn and walks
15 metres.
Then he takes a right turn and stops at point B after
walking 5 metres.
Mohit is standing at point Z which is 30 metres to
the east of point B. He walks 25 metres towards
south. He takes a left turn and stops at point X after
walking 10 metres.
How far and in which direction is point X from
point D?
(1) 25 metres West
(2) 25 metres South
(3) 25 metres East
(4) 30 metres East
(5) 20 metres West
Directions (86 90) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Seven boxes M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are kept
one above the other and are of seven different col-
ours viz., Yellow, Brown, Pink, Green, Silver, Or-
ange and White, but not necessarily in the same
order.
Only three boxes are kept between M and S. The
orange box is kept immediately below the box M.
Only two boxes are kept between orange box and
pink box. More than three boxes are kept above the
pink box. Box Q is kept immediately below the
pink box. Only one box is kept between R and Q.
Box R is not of orange colour. Box N is kept below
Box R but not immediately below R. Brown box is
kept immediately above box P. Only two boxes are
kept between brown box and silver box. Yellow
box is kept immediately above the white box.
86. How many boxes are kept between Brown Box
and Box S?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) None (4) More than three
(5) Three
87. Which of the following boxes is kept immedi-
ately below the Box R?
(1) White Box (2) Box S
(3) Yellow Box (4) Green Box
(5) Box P
88. Which of the following boxes is of green col-
our?
(1) Box M (2) Box P
(3) Box R (4) Box O
(5) Box Q
89. What is the position of Box R in the given stack
of boxes?
(1) Fourth from the bottom
(2) Third from the top
(3) Second from the top
(4) Third from the bottom
(5) Fifth from the top
90. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and hence form a group. Which of the follow-
ing does not belong to the group?
(1) P Silver (2) S White
(3) M Yellow (4) O Pink
(5) R Orange
Directions (91 95) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Seven persons namely, A, B, C, D, E, F and G like
seven different fruits viz., Apple, Banana, Guava,
Orange, Litchi, Mango and Watermelon, but not
necessarily in the same order. Each of them works
in either of the three departments of the same com-
pany viz., Marketing, Production and Research &
Development, with atleast two of them in a depart-
ment. B works in the Research & Development
department with the one who likes Banana. E works
with only one who likes Litchi. E does not like Ba-
nana. F works with only G. F does not work with
the one who likes Litchi. The one who likes Apple
works with the only one who likes Guava. G does
not like Guava. A likes orange. The one who likes
Mango does not work with the one who likes Gua-
va. C does not work with the one who likes Litchi.
D does not work in the Marketing department. The
one who likes Watermelon does not work in the
Production department.
91. Which of the following represents the combina-
tion of that persons who work in the Research &
Development department?
(1) The ones who like Banana, Apple and Guava
(2) The ones who like Litchi, Banana and Water-
melon
(3) The ones who like Banana, Watermelon and
Orange
(4) B and the ones who like Banana and Mango
(5) The ones who like Mango, Banana and Guava
92. Which of the following statements is not true as
per the given arrangement?
(1) D works in the Research & Development de-
partment and he likes Banana
(2) G likes Apple and works in the Marketing de-
partment
(3) Only two persons work in the Production de-
partment
(4) C works in the Research & Development de-
partment while F works in the Marketing depart-
ment
118
(5) A works with the ones who like Watermelon
and Banana.
93. Which of the following combinations represents
the department in which F works and the fruit he
likes?
(1) Production, Guava
(2) Production, Apple
(3) Research & Development, Watermelon
(4) Marketing, Watermelon
(5) Marketing, Guava
94. Four of the following five are alike in certain
way as per the given arrangement and hence form a
group. Which of the following does not belong to
that group?
(1) A, B (2) D, E
(3) F, G (4) C, E
(5) B, C
95. Who amongst the following likes Banana?
(1) F (2) C
(3) G (4) D
(5) None of these
Directions (96 100) : In these questions, relation-
ship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by two
Conclusions numbered I and.
II. Study the Conclusion based on the statements
and select the appropriate answer :
Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Con-
clusion II are true
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion I is true
Give answer (3) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-
clusion II is true
Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true
Give answer (5) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-
sion II is true
96. Statement :
J > V > D < L < C
Conclusions :
I. J > L
II. C > D
97. Statements :
B > E > U < F; L = A < U
Conclusions :
I. L < F
II. B > A
(98 99) : Statement :
> G > O < H = A < V < Q
98.
Conclusions :
I. H < L
II. A > G
99.
Conclusions :
I. O < V
II. G > Q
100. Statements :
R < P = N < S; Y > Q < S
Conclusions :
I. R < S
II. P > Y
Answer Key 1. (5) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (5) 6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9.
(5) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16.
(2) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (2) 21. (3) 22. (1) 23.
(3) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (3) 29. (5) 30.
(3) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (1) 36. (1) 37.
(2) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (1) 41. (1) 42. (2) 43. (3) 44.
(2) 45. (1) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (4) 50. (1) 51.
(3) 52. (1) 53. (5) 54. (2) 55. (4) 56. (1) 57. (2) 58.
(3) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (5) 64. (4) 65.
(3) 66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (4) 69. (2) 70. (5) 71. (3) 72.
(4) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (5) 76. (2) 77. (4) 78. (2) 79.
(5) 80. (1) 81. (3) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. (2) 85. (3) 86.
(5) 87. (2) 88. (4) 89. (1) 90. (3) 91. (3) 92. (1) 93.
(5) 94. (4) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (1) 98. (3) 99. (2) 100.
(2)
119
Solutions: .
7. (3) Persistent (Adjective) = con-
tinuing for a long time without inter-
ruption; unrelenting. Look at the
sentence : Persistent rain has caused
flood like situation in the streets of
my city.
8. (1) Stand out = to be easily seen;
to be noticeable. Look at the sen-
tence : The lettering stood out well
against the dark background.
9. (5) Distracted (Adjective) = una-
ble to pay attention to something
because you are worried; inattentive.
Look at the sentence : I was distract-
ed a bit by noise.
10. (4) Deteriorate (Verb) = to be-
come worse; decline; degrade. Im-
prove (Verb) = to become better than
before. Look at the sentences : The
discussion quickly deteriorated into
an angry argument. His quality of
life has improved dramatically since
the operation.
16. (2) Actually (Adverb) = used in
speaking to emphasize a fact or a
comment.
17. (1) Argue (Verb) = to give rea-
sons why you think that something is
right/wrong.
22. (1) Paradox = a situation or
thing that has two opposite features
and therefore seems strange.
25. (1) Meaning = the real im-
portance of a feeling or experience.
26. (1) Here, ...... are of ten accused
of ..... should be used. Clearly, pas-
sive voice should be used.
27. (1) Here, an Adverb i.e., The
economy of a country is literally ....
should be used. Literally = in a lit-
eral way; exactly. Look at the sen-
tence :
28.
i.e., thief to catch him at the speed of
100m/minute in the first ..... should
be used.
30. (3) Here Adjective i.e., economic
be used.
An adjective is used to qualify
a noun.
31. (1)?
82. (2)
33. (3)?
34. (4)?
√
35. (1)?
36. (1) Cylinder A Cylinder units units
cubic cubic
units units
37. (2) C.P. of article (let).
. 2362.5
For a gain of 30%, S.P.
. 3071.25
38. (3) Ratio of the equivalent cap‐ itals and for 1 month
: :
:
Sum of the terms of ratio
(
)
Rs. 12750
39. (2) S.I.
Rate
Rs.
Amount Rs. (
)
C.I.
[(
)
]
[(
) ]
[(
) ]
(
)
. 3000
40. (1) Total number of balls
Total possible outcomes
Selection of 1 ball out of 21
balls
Total favourable outcomes
Selection of a blue ball
Required pobability
41. (1) The pattern is :
5 × 0.5 + 0.5 = 2.5 + 0.5 = 3
3 × 1 + 1 = 3 + 1 = 4
4 × 1.5 + 1.5 = 6 + 1.5 = 7.5
7.5 × 2 + 2 = 15 + 2 = 17
17 × 2.5 + 2.5 = 42.5 + 2.5
= 45
45 × 3 + 3 = 135 + 3 = 138
42. (2) The pattern is :
9 + 7 = 16
16 + 9 (= 7 + 2) = 25
25 + 13 (=9 + 4) = 38
38 + 19 (=13 + 6) = 57
57 + 27 (= 19 + 8) = 84
43. (3) The pattern is :
8 × 0.5 + 1 = 4 + 1 = 5
5 × 1 + 1 = 5 + 1 = 6
6 × 1.5 + 1 = 9 + 1 = 10
10 × 2 + 1 = 20 + 1 = 21
21 × 2.5 + 1 = 52.5 + 1
= 53 5 .
44. (2) The pattern is :
188 12 = 176
176 24 = 152
152 36 = 116
116 48 = 68
68 60 = 8
45. (1) The pattern is :
25 + 12 = 25 + 1 = 26
26 + 22 = 26 + 4 = 30
30 + 32 = 30 + 9 = 39
39 + 42 = 39 + 16 = 55
55 + 52 = 55 + 25 = 80
46. (1) Female employees in H.R
department :
Company
Company
Company
Company
Required average
47. (2) Male employees in mar keting department :
Company
Company
120
Company
Company
Required average
48. (3) Required difference
49. (4) Required per cent
50. (1) Females in marketing de partment :
Company
Company
Required ratio : 76
51. (3)
I.
or
II.
or,
Clearly
52. (1)
I.
or 2
II.
or
Clearly
53. (5)
I.
or 2
II.
or
54. (2)
I.
or
II.
Clearly;
55. (4)
I.
or
II.
or
Clearly;
56. (1) Required ratio
: : 12
57. (2) Number of female mem‐ bers in gymnasium :
Year
Year
Year
Year
Year
Required average
58. (3) Number of male members
in gymnasium :
Year
Year
Year
Year
Year
Required average
59. (1) Required per cent
60. (2) Required difference
61.
years
years
years
According to the question, After 6
years
years
62. (2) Ratio of
speed √
63.
women)
work
Required time days
64. (4) Let the original salaries of
Ravi and Sumit be Rs. and
Rs. respectively
11& 228000
. 38000
65. (3) Number of ways of select‐ ing 3 consonants out of 7 and
2 vowels out of
Each group has 5 letters.
Required number of words
66. 71.
Month Person Fruit
February P Apple
March N Cherry
May M Grapes
121
June J Banana
August O Strawberry
November K Orange
December L Mango
86. 90.
Box Colour
Box M Brown
Box P Orange
Box O Green
Box R Silver
Box S Pink
Box Q Yellow
Box N White
91. 95.
Person Fruit Department
A Orange Research &
Development
B Water-
melon
Research &
Development
C Banana Research &
Development
D Litchi Production
E Mango Production
F Guava Marketing
G Apple Marketing
96. (4) J > V > D < L < C Conclu-
sions : I. J > L : Not True II. C > D :
True
97. (1) B > E > U < F; L = A < U L
= A < U < F B > E > U > A = L
Conclusions : I. L < F : True II. B >
A : True (98 99) : L > G > O < H =
A < V < Q
98. (3) Conclusions : I. H < L : Not
True II. A > G : Not True
99. (2) Conclusions : I. O < V : True
II. G > Q : Not True
100. (2) R < P = N < S; Y > Q < S R
< P = N < S > Q < Y Conclusions :
I. R < S : True II. P > Y : Not True
122
RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-
3) English Language
Directions (1 10) : Read the following stroy care-
fully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to
help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
On January 19th every year, Americans celebrate
the life and achievements of Dr. Martin Luther
King Jr., (MLK), a Baptist clergyman turned activ-
ist, who is often credited with spearheading the
vil rights movement It is thanks to his
efforts that America is today a nation where every-
one has equal rights, regardless of race, color or
creed. MLK who would have celebrated his 86th
birthday on January 15th, 2015, was born in Atlan-
ta, Georgia, in 1929, a city where racial divide was
a way of life. Blacks and whites lived totally dis-
parate lives. They went to different schools, ate at
different restaurants and even sat on specially des-
ignated seats on buses and trains. Though this did
not seem right to the young boy, just like the others,
he accepted it as a way of life. Things started to
change in the summer of 1944 when 15-year-old
MLK left Atlanta to work in the tobacco fields of
Simsbury, Connecticut. To his surprise, the black
residents in the Northern states were not subjected
to the same kind of racial injustice.
The young boy expressed his astonishment in a
letter he wrote to his father in June saying,
we passed Washington there was no discrimination
at all. The white people here are very nice.
We go to any place we want to and sit any where
end of the summer, the seeds
of what would transform MLK into
influential civil rights leader had been firmly plant-
ed. In 1954, MLK who was by now an ordained
Minister and married chose to become pastor of a
church in Montgomery, Alabama, a city that was
notorious for its racial discrimination. His foray
into activism began gradually - by encouraging
Montgomery residents to register to vote and join
the NAACP, the n largest civil
rights organization.
However, his passive stance changed on December
1st, 1955, after fellow activist Rosa Parks was ar-
rested for refusing to vacate her seat on a public bus
for a white passenger. Enraged, MLK asked the
black residents of Montgomery to boycott all public
transportation.
This was no easy request.
The buses were the only commute mode for the
residents, whose jobs often entailed traveling long
distances.
But they took the challenge not for just one day or
month, but a full year! As the news of the boycott
spread, black people from other parts of the nation
that had similar laws, joined in! In 1956, the activ-
ists won their first battle when the Supreme Court
of the United States passed a ruling that abolished
the transportation segregation law. But MLK was
just getting started. He decided to dedicate his life
to the cause and spent the next decade traveling
around the country, spurring all Americans to
stand up to segregation in a non-violent peaceful
manner by organizing sit-ins, boycotts and protest
marches. While he gave many inspiring speeches,
his most memorable one was delivered on August
28th, 1963. The events leading to the oft-
have a that year
when President John F. Kennedy asked the US
Congress to pass a civil rights bill - one that would
give all Americans equal access to public places.
To convince government officials to pass the bill,
MLK along with other civil rights leaders asked
people to demonstrate their support by staging
a.peaceful march in Washington D.C. Over 250,000
Americans from all over the country flew, drove,
rode buses and even walked, to participate in what
the history books now call the March on Washing-
ton! It was at this event while standing on the steps
of the Lincoln Memorial, that MLK articulated his
dream of living in a country where everyone was
treated equally. Unfortunately, the civil rights activ-
ist was killed while on a trip to Memphis, Tennes-
see in 1968, and did not live long enough to see it
come true.
But had MLK been alive, he sure would have been
proud to see how far the country has come in rec-
ognizing that everyone is equal - regardless of race,
color or creed!
1. Why did he initially accept discrimination as a
way of life?
(1) As he was afraid of the whites.
(2) As his father wanted him to accept that as a
form of life.
(3) So as to save himself from the abuses and the
beatings by the whites.
(4) Because he lacked decision making capabilities
as he was young, (5) As he was ignorant to the
cause of the blacks.
2. What happened when he went to Simsbury in the
summer of 1944?
123
(1) It was the first time he saw specially designated
seats on buses and trains for blacks.
(2) His passive stance changed.
(3) He was stupefied by what he saw there.
(4) He encouraged the residents there to vote.
(5) He gave his famous speech
3. Why MLK was enraged?
(1) Because of specially designated bus seats for
black people in Montgomery
(2) As a fellow activist was apprehended.
(3) Racial injustice in Washington.
(4) Different schools on the basis of race.
(5) He was enraged with how people accepted the
discrimination.
4. What was the first victory won by the activists?
(1) Passing of the civil rights bill.
(2) The voting rights granted to the black people.
(3) Abolishment of transportation segregation law.
(4) Boycotting public transportation by the black
people.
(5) Right to vote.
5.
(1) The arrest of the activist named Rosa Parks.
(2) Kenned congress to pass the
civil rights bill.
(3) Transportation segregation law.
pass the bill.
(5) None of these.
6.
(1) Abolition of public transportation segregation
law.
(2) Right to vote.
(3) Equal access in all public places.
(4) To exonerate Rosa parks from the accusation of
violating civil rights, (5) He wanted a person who is
black to be the next U.S president.
Directions (7 8) : Which of the following words is
nearest in the meaning to the word as given in bold
letters in the passage?
7. ENTAIL
(1) Involve (2) Prohibit
(3) Exclude (4) Feign
(5) Dissuade
8. FORAY
(1) Exodus (2) Retreat
(3) Incursion (4) Disengagement
(5) Detachment
Directions (9 10) : Which one of the following
words is most opposite in meaning to the word giv-
en in bold letters in the passage?
9. ORDAIN
(1) Appoint (2) Consecrate
(3) Sanctify (4) Abrogate
(5) Enact
10. SPURRING
(1) Incentive (2) Stimulant
(3) Inducement (4) Impetus
(5) Deterrent
Directions (11 15) : Rearrange the given seven
sentences/ group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D),
(E), (F) and (G) in a proper sequence so as to form
a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given
questions
(A) One is the adverse global environment
(B) But the second can be tackled and should have
been tackled by now. Unfortunately, precious time
has been lost for want of clarity on the way forward
(C) It will be up to the incoming RBI governor,
therefore, to show the way. The bulk of the bad
loans is with public sector banks (PSBs)
(D) As bad loans mounted and banks had to make
provisions for these, profits fell at PSBs or losses
mounted. PSB performance suffered in comparison
with private banks
(E) The other is a banking sector weighed down by
bad loans. There can do about the
first
(F) The Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) is better placed than anybody else to feel the
pulse of the banking sector
to accelerate
growth and realise the promise of achche din face
two formidable obstacles today.
11. Which of the following should be the SECOND
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B
(3) F (4) D
(5) E
12. Which of the following should be the FIRST
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A (2) C
(3) B (4) G
(5) E
13. Which of the following should be the FIFTH
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) E (2) D
(3) B (4) F
(5) A
14. Which of the following should be the
FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) F
(5) E
15. Which of the following should be the SIXTH
sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) C (2) D
124
(3) A (4) B
(5) E
Directions (16 20) : The Following questions have
two blanks, each blank indicating that something
has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each
blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a
whole.
16. Though the country has, ____ free medical ser-
vice for the poor, it is_____.
(1) stopped; unaffordable
(2) rendered; essential
(3) maintained; admirable
(4) favoured; appreciable
(5) instituted; inadequate
17. If India is ____ on protecting its resources, in-
ternational business appears equally ___ to safe-
guard its profit, (1) dreaded , fragile, (2) stubborn
weak, (3) bent, determined, (4) approaching, set-
tled, (5) obsessed, prepared.
18. Obesity and uncontrolled diet ____ together to
____ the risk of liver disease in both men and
women.
(1) act, increase, (2) result, aggravate, (3) taken,
arrest, (4) put, heighten, (5) mix, lower.
19. The blame game for the air tragedy is already in
full ____ with the authorities involved making at-
tempts to ____ themselves up.
(1) sway, defend, (2) view, try.
(3) fledged, protect, (4) swing, cover.
(5) roll, hide.
20. Human beings are biological ______ they need
to struggle in order to _____.
(1) things, forward.
(2) souls, back, (3) organisms, survive, (4) features,
undone, (5) creatures, again.
Directions (21 25) : Read each sentence to find
out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.
The number of that part is the answer. If there is no
error, the answer is (5) i.e., No error
(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
21. In India working woman (1)/ lead a life of dual
responsibilities (2)/ if they are married (3)/ and
have a family, (4)/ No error (5)
22. Though, she has aptitude (1)/ in mathematics I
(2)/ her to take it up as a subject of
Degree (3)/ because I know
the labour involved will tell upon her health. (4)/
No error (5)
23. The RBI has proposed to introduce (1)/ polymer
notes after taking into considering (2)/ the cost and
longevity (3)/ associated with their manufacturing.
(4)/ No error
(5)
24. Over the next five years (1)/ the government
needs to invest (2)/ at less 350 billion dollars (3)/ in
rural infrastructure (4)/ No error (5)
25. Money from poor countries (1)/ is flowing into
richer ones (2)/ in large part due to the active pur-
chase (3)/ of foreign assets by central banks, (4)/
No error
(5)
Directions (26-30) : In the following passage,
some of the words have been left out, each of which
is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word
from the options given against each number and fill
up the blanks with appropriate words to make the
paragraph meaningful.
Rural healthcare in India is
(26) by a huge gap between supply and demand.
Currently, rural healthcare needs met either by lim-
ited government facilities and private nursing
homes, which have not been able to keep pace with
increasing demand or by a number of quacks who
practise medicine in rural areas. The quality of in-
frastructure is usually poor and people end up hav-
ing to go to nearby large cities if they need high
quality care. Rural India deserves, better, since the
ability to pay has gone up over the last few years,
driven by growth in income penetration of govern-
ment healthcare programmes. Increasing demand
(27) with the failure of existing infrastructure to
scale, has resulted in rural healthcare (28) a large
under served market. Absence of a viable business
model (29) conversion of the huge rural expendi-
ture on health into an economic activity that gener-
ates income and serves the poor. It is this
(30) that entrepreneurs are looking to plug.
26. (1) performed (2) displayed
(3) furthered (4) characterised
(5) male
27. (1) couple (2) combined
(3) mentioned (4) engaged
(5) resulting
28. (1) become (2) happening
(3) being (4) exists
(5) is
29. (1) to (2) makes
(3) so (4) ceasing
(5) prevents
30. (1) gap (2) truth
(3) progress (4) catastrophes
(5) divides
Quantitative Aptitude Directions (31 35) : There are five companies and
the number of employees working in different
125
companies is given. In the table the percentage of
male and female employees in HR and Marketing
departments is also given. Study the table carefully
and answer the questions
Company Number
of Em-
ployees
HR Marketing
Male Female Male Female
P 450 12 14 6 6
Q 850 18 10 12 14
R 400 28 14 4 7
S 525 20 8 8 4
T 375 12 20 4 8
31. What is the ratio between the number of female
employees in HR department of companies S and T
together to that of male employees in Marketing
department in companies P and Q together?
(1) 41 : 55 (2) 43 : 39
(3) 55 : 41 (4) 39 : 43
(5) None of these
32. What is the difference between the number of
male employees of marketing department in all
companies together (excluding company T) and
that of the female employees of HR department in
all companies together (excluding companies Q and
T)?
(1) 21 (2) 26
(3) 31 (4) 36
(5) None of these
33. Total number of Marketing employees in com-
panies Q and S together what percent more than the
total number of marketing employees in company
R?
(1) 536.76% (2) 526.67%
(3) 576.76% (4) 546.67%
(5) 545.45%
34. If 40% of the employees of company T in HR
department have graduation degree and 60% of the
employees of the same company in the Marketing
department have graduation degree, then how many
employees have graduation degree in company T in
both departments together?
(1) 75 (2) 108
(3) 106 (4) 92
(5) 66
35. What is the ratio of female employees of com-
panies P and Q together in HR department to the
male employees of companies S and R together in
marketing department?
(1) 41 : 13 (2) 74 : 29
(3) 22 : 59 (4) 29 : 74
(5) None of these
36. A quantity of eight litres is drawn from a cask
full of wine and then cask is filled with water.
This operation is performed three more times. The
ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that
of water is 16 : 65. How much wine did the cask
hold originally?
(1) 18 litres (2) 24 litres
(3) 32 litres (4) 42 litres
(5) None of these
37. A and B can complete a piece of work in 80
days and 120 days respectively. They started work-
ing together but A left after 20 days. After another
12 days C joined B and they completed the remain-
ing work in 28 more days. In how many days can C
alone complete the work?
(1) 110 days (2) 112 days
(3) 114 days (4) 120 days
(5) None of these
38. A man sets out on cycle from Delhi to Farida-
bad, and at the same time another man starts from
Faridabad on cycle for Delhi. After passing each
other. they complete their journeys in
and
hours respectively. At what rate does the second
man cycles if the first man cycles at 14 kmph?
(1) 10 kmph (2) 5 kmph
(3) 7 kmph (4) 8 kmph
(5) None of these
39. What would be the compound interest accrued
on an amount of Rs. 8400 at the rate of 12.5% per
annum compounded annually at the end of 3 years?
(Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(1) Rs. 4205.62 (2) Rs. 2584.16
(3) Rs. 3560.16 (4) Rs. 3820.14
(5) None of these
40. The average age of all the 100 employees in an
office is 29 years, where 2/5 employees are ladies
and the ratio of average age of men to women is 5 :
7. The average age of female employees is :
(1) 18 years (2) 35 years (3) 25 years (4) 30 years
(5) None of these
Directions (41 45) : Two equations I and II are
given in each question. On the basis of these equa-
tions, you have to decide the relation between x and
y and give answer
(1) if x > y (2) if x < y
(3) if x > y (4) if x < y
(5) if x = y, or no relation can be established be-
tween x and y.
41. I. 5x2 87x + 378 = 0
II. 3y2 49y + 200 = 0
42. I. 10x2 x 24 = 0
II. y2 2y = 0
43. I. x2 5x + 6 = 0
126
II. 2y2 15y + 27 = 0
44. I. 3x + 2y = 301
II. 7x 5y = 74
45. I. 14x2 37x + 24 = 0
II. 28y2 53y + 24 = 0
Directions (46 50) : In the following bar chart, the
number of total members enrolled in different years
from 1990 to 1994 in two gymnasiums A and B is
given. Study the bar chart and solve the following
questions based on this bar chart
46. The total number of members enrolled in gym-
nasium B from 1991 to 1994 is approximately
what percent more than the total number of mem-
bers enrolled in gymnasium A in 1993 and 1994
together is?
(1) 175% (2) 180%
(3) 170% (4) 75%
(5) 185%
47. If from the year 1989 to 1990, there was 30%
increase in total number of members enrolled in
both gymnasiums, then find the total number of
members enrolled in 1989.
(1) 282 (2) 296
(3) 292 (4) 286
(5) 319
48. The respective ratio between total members in
both gymnasiums in 1992 to total members in both
gymnasium in 1993 is :
(1) 11 : 16 (2) 21 : 11
(3) 11 : 21 (4) 25 : 13
(5) 27 : 22
49. The number of members of gymnasium A in
1993 is what percent of the number of members of
gymnasium B in 1990?
(1) 60.98% (2) 55.75%
(3) 95.55% (4) 93.85%
(5) None of these
50. Total members enrolled in gymnasium A in the
years 1991, 1992 and 1994 together is what percent
less than the members enrolled in gymnasium B in
the years 1990 and 1993 together?
(1) 30% (2) 35%
(3) 32.5% (4) 31.5%
(5) 38.77%
Directions (51 55) : What will come in place of
the question mark (?) in each of the following num-
ber series?
51. 17 52 158 477 ? 4310
(1) 1433 (2) 1432
(3) 1435 (4) 1434
(5) None of these
52. 3 22 ? 673 2696 8093
(1) 133 (2) 155
(3) 156 (4) 134
(5) None of these
53. 6 7 15 42 106 231 ?
(1) 440 (2) 441
(3) 447 (4) 461
(5) None of these
54. 286 142 ? 34 16 7
(1) 66 (2) 72
(3) 64 (4) 74
(5) None of these
55. 17 9 ? 16.5 35 90
(1) 5 (2) 15
(3) 10 (4) 20
(5) None of these
56. A man sells two articles at Rs 12 each. He gains
20% on one and loses 20% on the other.
In the whole transaction, there is
(1) Neither loss nor gain
(2) Profit of Re. 1
(3) Loss of Re. 1 (4) Profit of Rs. 2
(5) None of these
57. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for
every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every
wrong answer. A student attempted all the 200
questions and scored in all 200 marks. The number
of questions, he answered correctly was :
(1) 82 (2) 80
(3) 68 (4) 60
(5) None of these
58. A copper wire is bent in the form of an equilat-
eral triangle and has area 121 √ cm2. If the same
wire is bent into the form of a circle, the area (in
cm2) enclosed by the wire is (take = 22/7 )
(1) 364.5 (2) 693.5
(3) 346.5 (4) 639.5
(5) None of these
59. What will be the ratio of petrol and kerosene in
the final solution formed by mixing petrol and ker-
127
osene that are present in three identical vessels in
the ratio 4 : 1, 5 : 2 and 6 : 1 respectively?
60. Mrs. Sharma invests 15% of her monthly salary,
i.e., Rs 4428 in Mutual Funds. Later she invests
18% of her monthly salary on Pension Policies and
she also invests another 9% of her salary on Insur-
ance Policies. What is the total monthly amount
invsested by Mrs. Sharma?
(1) Rs. 113356.8 (2) Rs. 12398.4
(3) Rs. 56678.4 (4)
(5) None of these
Directions (61 65) : What approximate value
should come in place of question mark (?) in the
following questions? (You are not expected to cal-
culate the exact value).
61. 23.999 × 9.904 × 16.997 = ?
(1) 3200 (2) 4100
(3) 2700 (4) 3700
(5) 4500
62.
= ?
(1) 490 (2) 590
(3) 540 (4) 460
(5) 520
63. 5940 ÷ 28 ÷ 6 = ?
(1) 40 (2) 35
(3) 46 (4) 52
(5) 27
64. 15.5% of 850 + 24.8% of 650 = ?
(1) 295 (2) 330
(3) 270 (4) 375
(5) 220
65. 3 √ = ?
(1) 45 (2) 59
(3) 41 (4) 37
(5) 47
Reasoning Ability Directions (66 68) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Seven persons A, B, C, D, K, L and N are seat-
ed in ascending order of their salaries. N earns
more than L and D. N earns more than A but he
does not earn the highest. A earns more than L. The
person who earns the second highest receives a
salary of Rs. 35,000 while the third lowest earner
receives Rs. 23,000. K earns less than L but more
than D. C earns Rs 18,000. D is not the lowest
earner.
66. Who among the following earn(s) more than
Rs. 23,000 but less than Rs. 35,000?
(1) Only A (2) Only L
(3) A and L (4) K and L
(5) A and N
67. Who among the following may earn Rs.
21,000?
(1) K (2) D
(3) L (4) C
(5) N
68. Who among the following earns Rs. 35,000?
(1) A (2) L
(3) B (4) K
(5) N
Directions (69 74) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Seven representatives of a company P, Q, R, S, T,
U and V travelled to three different countries i.e.
South Africa, Australia and France. Each of them
travelled on different days of the week (no two per-
sons travelled on the same day), starting on Mon-
day and ending on Sunday. Minimum two persons
travelled to each country and South Africa is the
only country to which three persons travelled. P
travelled to South Africa on Monday. U travelled to
Australia but neither on Tuesday nor on Saturday.
V travelled on Sunday but not to France. The one
who travelled to Australia travelled on Tuesday and
the one who travelled to France travelled on Satur-
day. T travelled on Wednesday. R travelled to
South Africa but not on Thursday. Q did not travel
to France.
69. by one day, who
will be travelling on Wednesday?
(1) U (2) R
(3) Q (4) T
(5) None of these
70. Who amongst the seven representatives trav-
elled on Saturday?
(1) S (2) Q
(3) R (4) Cannot be deter-
mined
(5) None of these
71. Which one of the following combinations is
true according to the given information?
(1) U Thursday South Africa
(2) S Wednesday France
(3) V Monday South Africa
(4) R Friday Australia
(5) None of these
72. To which country and on which day did Q trav-
el?
(1) South Africa, Wednesday
(2) Australia, Friday
(3) Australia, Thursday
(4) Australia, Tuesday
128
(5) None of these
73. Who was the last one to travel?
(1) P (2) R
(3) V (4) S
(5) None of these
74. Who amongst the following representative trav-
el to South Africa?
(1) Q (2) V
(3) S (4) U
(5) None of these
Directions (75 80) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Eight persons H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O are
standing in a straight line at equidistant. Some of
them are facing north while others are facing south.
M is standing third to the right to H. M is standing
at one of the extreme ends. L is standing third to the
left of H. The immediate neighbours of J face north.
N is not an immediate neighbour of H. The persons
standing at the extreme ends face the same direc-
tion (both are facing either North or South). The
immediate neighbours of H face just opposite direc-
tion as that of M. The immediate neighbours of O
face opposite direction with respect to each other. K
is one of the immediate neighbours of L and is fac-
ing north. I is standing between J and M. Not more
than four persons are facing north. L is to the im-
mediate right of K.
75. Who among the following is third to the left of
N?
(1) K (2) J
(3) H (4) I
(5) O
76. The immediate neighbours of L are :
(1) M and N (2) N and O
(3) K and N (4) N and H
(5) J and H
77. How many persons are standing exactly be-
tween I and O?
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) One (4) Two
(5) None
78. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the above arrangement and hence
form a group.
Which of the following does not belong to that
group?
(1) N (2) L
(3) O (4) J
(5) K
79. Who among the following is exactly between L
and J?
(1) O (2) N
(3) H (4) I
(5) None
80. Who among the following is fourth to the right
of J?
(1) N (2) I
(3) H (4) L
(5) K
Directions (81 85) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Seven persons, namely L, M, N, O, P, Q and R will
appear for a different exam but not necessarily in
the same order, in seven different months (of the
same year) namely January, February, April, May,
July, September and December.
Each of them also likes a different genre of TV
shows namely Family, Action, Comedy, Reality,
Animated, History and Thriller but not necessarily
in the same order. O will appear for an exam in a
month which has only 30 days.
Only one person will appear between the one who
likes Animated Shows and O. The one who likes
Action will appear for an exam immediately before
the one who likes Animated Shows. The one who
likes Thriller will appear for an exam neither in the
month which has 31 days nor in the month which
has 30 days. Only two persons will appear for an
exam between the one who likes Thriller and Q. M
will appear for an exam immediately after Q and
does not likes Action Shows. R will appear for an
exam immediately before N. P likes History Shows
and appear for an exam in December.
The one who likes Family Shows will appear for an
exam in a month which has 31 days. O does not
like Comedy Shows.
81. Which of the following genres of TV shows
does O like?
(1) History (2) Thriller
(3) Family (4) Action
(5) Reality
82. How many persons will appear for an exam
between the months on which N and L will appear
for an exam?
(1) One (2) None
(3) Three (4) Two
(5) More than three
83. As per the given arrangement, January is related
to Reality Shows and February is related to Action
Shows following a certain pattern, with which of
the following is July related to following the same
pattern?
(1) Family Shows (2) Thriller Shows
129
(3) Comedy Shows (4) History Shows
(5) Animated Shows
84. Which of the following represents the month in
which L will appear for an exam?
(1) December (2) May
(3) July (4) September
(5) Cannot be determined
85. Which of the following represents the persons
who will appear for an exam in January and De-
cember respectively?
(1) N, P (2) N, M
(3) R, P (4) R, M
(5) M, P
Directions (86 90) : In these questions, relation-
ships between different elements is shown in the
statements. These statements are followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II.
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-
sion II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-
clusion II follows.
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II fol-
low.
86. Statements :
G < F = L < J; J < K = H
Conclusions : I. H = G
II. G < H
87. Statement :
P < R < S < T > U
Conclusions : I. U < R
II. T > P
88. Statements :
T > U > V > W; X < Y = W >Z
Conclusions : I. Z < U
II. W< T
89. Statements :
K < L < M < N; M < O < P
Conclusions : I. P > K
II. N > O
90. Statements :
B < A < C; A > D < E
Conclusions : I. B < E
II. C > E
Directions (91 95) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are seven different bowls
of different fruits i.e. Apple, Banana, Orange, Li-
tchi, Pineapple, Grapes and Cherry but not neces-
sarily in the same order. Bowl which is of Apple
fruit is immediately above T. There are only two
bowls between W and the bowl which is of Apple
fruit. Bowl which is of Orange fruit is above W but
not immediately above W. Only three bowls are
between V and the bowl which is of Orange fruit.
The bowl which is of Cherry fruit is immediately
above V. The bowl which is of Litchi fruit is im-
mediately above the bowl Z. Only one bowl is there
between U and X. Bowl U is above X. Neither
bowl U nor T is of Pineapple fruit. T is not of Ba-
nana fruit.
91. How many bowls is/are there between W and
Z?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
(5) None
92. W
(1) Cherry (2) Apple
(3) Litchi (4) Orange
93. Find the pair of fruit and bowls which is not
correct?
(1) U Litchi (2) Y Orange
(3) T Grapes (4) Z Apple
(5) None of these
94. Which of the following condition is correct
regarding Pineapple fruit with respect to X?
(1) There is one bowl between X and Pineapple
fruit
(2) X is immediately above of Pineapple fruit
(3) Pineapple fruit is related to the bowl immediate-
ly above X
(4) All of the above is true
(5) None of the above is true
95. Which of the following fruit
(1) Apple (2) Litchi
(3) Pineapple (4) Banana
(5) None of these
Directions (96 98) : Study the following infor-
mation and answer the questions given below :
Q is the sister of M. P is wife of M. P has only one
son R. S is mother of P. S is married to T. T has
only one son and only one daughter
96. If P is sister of J, how is J related to M?
(1) Sister in law (2) Cannot be deter-
mined
(3) Brother (4) Brother in law
(5) Uncle
97. As per the given information, how is M related
to S?
(1) Son (2) Son in law
(3) Niece (4) Nephew
(5) Daughter in law
130
98. As per the given information, how is R related
to Q?
(1) Nephew (2) Cannot be deter-
mined
(3) Uncle (4) Niece
(5) Aunt
Directions (99 100) : Study the following infor-
mation carefully and answer the questions given
below :
Ashish starts running from point P and runs 10 km
towards North. He takes a right turn and runs 15
km. He now runs 6 km.
after taking a left turn. He takes a left turn, runs 15
km. Finally he takes right turn and runs 5 km.
99. respect to point P?
(1) 16 km. (2) 25 km.
(3) 4 km. (4) 21 km.
(5) None of these
100. Towards which direction was the Ashish run-
ning before he
(1) North (2) East
(3) South (4)West
(5) North West
Answer Key 1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9.
(4) 10. (5) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (1) 16.
(5) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (3) 21. (1) 22. (2) 23.
(2) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30.
(1) 31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (5) 34. (1) 35. (2) 36. (2) 37.
(2) 38. (1) 39. (3) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42. (5) 43. (4) 44.
(2) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (5) 48. (1) 49. (3) 50. (5) 51.
(3) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (5) 55. (3) 56. (3) 57. (2) 58.
(3) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (2) 62. (3) 63. (2) 64. (1) 65.
(1) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (5) 69. (3) 70. (1) 71. (5) 72.
(4) 73. (3) 74. (2) 75. (2) 76. (3) 77. (4) 78. (5) 79.
(1) 80. (4) 81. (5) 82. (1) 83. (4) 84. (2) 85. (3) 86.
(3) 87. (2) 88. (5) 89. (1) 90. (4) 91. (2) 92. (4) 93.
(1) 94. (3) 95. (5) 96. (4) 97. (2) 98. (1) 99. (4) 100.
(1)
131
Solutions: 7. (1) Entail (Verb) = to involve
something that cannot be avoided;
involve. Look at the sentence: The
job entails a lot of hard work.
8. (3) Foray (Noun) = an attempt to
become involved in a different activ-
ity or profession.
9. (4) Ordain (Verb) = to make
somebody a priest, minister or
RABBI. Abrogate (Verb) = repeal;
to of ficially end an agreement. Look
at the sentence: He was ordained
(as) a priest last year.
10. (5) Spur (Verb) = to encourage
somebody to do something. Deter
(Verb) = to make somebody decide
not to do something.
Look at the sentences : Her difficult
childhood spurred her on to succeed.
The high price of the service could
deter people from seeking advice.
Hence, spurring and deterrent are
antonymous.
16. (5) Institute (Verb) = to introduce
a system, policy or start a process
Inadequate (Adjective) = not enough
not good enough.
17. (3) Bent on doing something =
determined to do something.
18. (1) Act together = perform ; to do
something.
19. (4) In full swing = having
reached a very lively level. Cover up
= to try to stop people from knowing
the truth about a mistake, a crime
etc.
20. (3) Survive (Verb) = to continue
to live or exist.
21. (1) Here, plural subject i.e. In
India working women... should be
used. The sentence shows plural
sense.
22. (2) It is preposition related error.
allow.... should be used. Look at the
sentence : She showed a natural
aptitude for the work.
23. (2) Here, polymer notes after
taking into consideration (Noun)...
should be used. Take something into
consideration = to think about and
include a particular thing when you
are making a decision.
24. (3) Here, at least 350 billion
dollars... should be used. At least =
not less than.
25. (3) Here, in large amount...
should be used.
26. (4) Characterise (Verb) = to give
somebody/something its most no-
ticeable qualities or features.
28.
should be used.
31. (4) Females in HR depart‐ ment :
Company
Company
Males in Marketing department:
Company
Company
Required ratio
:
32. (2) employees in the
Marketing department of
companies and
(
)
Female employees in the HR
department of companies and
(
)
Required difference
33. (5) Total number of employees
in Marketing department :
Company
Company
Their sum
Total number of employees in
Marketing department of
company
Required percent
(
)
545.45%
34. (1) Graduate employees in the
HR department of company
(
)
Graduate employees in Mar‐ keting department of company
(
)
Required answer
S5. (2)Female employees in the
HR department of companies
and
Male employees in Marketing
department of companies
and
Required ratio : 58
S6. (2) Initial quantity of wine
litres
Remaining quantity of wine
Initial quantity
(
)
(
)
(
)
(
) (
)
litres
S7. (2) Work done by A and in
20 days (
)
(
)
Work done by in 12 days
Remaining work
Let alone do the work in
days.
days
speed
38 (1) speed
√
√
√
√
kmph
39. (3) C.I. [(
)
]
[(
) ]
132
(1.125)3
. 3560.16
40. (2) Female employees
= 100 × 2/5
= 40
Male employees = 60
According to the question, 40 × 7x +
60 × 5x
= 29 × 100
14x + 15x = 29 × 5
29x = 29 × 5
x = 5
Average age of female
employees = 7x = 7 × 5
= 35 years
41. (1)
I. 5x2 87x + 378 = 0
5x2 45x 42x + 378 = 0
5x (x 9) 42 (x 9) = 0
(5x 42) (x 9) = 0
x = 42/5 or, 9
II. 3y2 49y + 200 = 0
3y2 24y 25y + 200 = 0
3y (y 8) 25 (y 8) = 0
(3y 25) (y 8) = 0
y = 25/3 or, 8
Clearly, x > y
42. (5)
I. 10x2 x 24 = 0
10x2 + 15x 16x 24 = 0
5x (2x + 3) 8 (2x + 3) = 0
(5x 8) (2x + 3) = 0
x = 8/5 or, 3/2
II. y2 2y = 0
y (y 2) = 0
y = 0 or, 2
43. (4)
I. x2 5x + 6 = 0
x2 3x 2x + 6 = 0
x (x 3) 2 (x 3) = 0
(x 2) (x 3) = 0
x = 2 or, 3
II. 2y2 15y + 27 = 0
2y2 9y 6y + 27 = 0
y (2y 9) 3 (2y 9) = 0
(y 3) (2y 9) = 0
y = 3 or, 9/2
Clearly, x < y
44. (2) By equation I
From equation I,
Clearly
45. (3)
I.
,
or
II.
or,
Clearly
46. (2) Members enrolled in gym‐ nasium from 1991 to 1994:
185 265 125
Members enrolled in gymna‐ sium A in the years 1993 and
Required percent
47. (5) Total number of members
enrolled in both gymnasiums
in 1989
(190 225)
48. (1) Required ratio
: (215 265)
: 16
49. (3) Required per cent
50. (5) Members enrolled in gym‐ nasium A taking years 1991, 1992
and 1994 together
Members enrolled in gymna‐ sium taking years 1990 and
1993 together 225 265
Required percent
38.77%
51. (3) The pattern is :
17 × 3 + 1 = 51 + 1 = 52
52 × 3 + 2 = 156 + 2 = 158
158 × 3 + 3 = 474 + 3 = 477
477 × 3 + 4 = 1431 + 4 = 1435
1435 × 3 + 5 = 4305 + 5 = 4310
52. (4) The pattern is :
3 × 7 + 1 = 21 + 1 = 22
22 × 6 + 2 = 132 + 2 = 134
134 × 5 + 3 = 670 + 3 = 673
673 × 4 + 4 = 2692 + 4 = 2696
2696 × 3 + 5 = 8088 + 5 = 8093
53. (3) The pattern is :
6 + 13 = 6 + 1 = 7
7 + 23 = 7 + 8 = 15
15 + 33 = 15 + 27 = 42
42 + 43 = 42 + 64 = 106
106 + 53 = 106 + 125 = 231
231 + 63 = 231 + 216 =447
54. (5) The pattern is :
55. (3) The pattern is :
16.5
56. (3) C.P. of first article
. 10
C.P. of second article
Rs. 15
Total C.P.
Loss . 1
57. (2)Number of correct an swers
Number of wrong answers
According to the question,
58. (3) Area of equilateral trian.
√
(Side)2
√
√
√ cm.
Length of wire cm.
Circumference of circle
cm.
cm.
Area of circle
133
sq. cm.
59. (2) Mixture in each cask
units
In first cask, Petrol
; Kerosene
In second cask, Petrol
; Kero-
sene
In third cask, Petrol
, Kerosene
On adding, Required ratio
(
) (
)
:
(
)
60. (2)
salary Rs. 15% of
. 29520
Total investment
18 9 % of 29520
. 12398.40
61. (2)?
62. (3)?
63. (2)?
64. (1)?
65. (1)? √
69. 74.
Day Repres-
entative
Country
Monday P South Af-
rica
Tuesday Q Australia
Wednesday T France
Thursday U Australia
Friday R South Af-
rica
Saturday S France
Sunday V South Af-
rica
81. 85.
Month Person Favourite TV
Shows
January R Family
Shows
February N Thriller
Shows
April O Reality
Shows
May L Action
Shows
July Q Animated
Shows
September M Comedy
Shows
December P History
Shows
86. (3) G < F = L < J J < K = H G <
F = L < J < K = H Conclusions : I. H
= G : Not True II. G < H : Not True
G is either smaller than or equal to
H. Therefore, either Conclusion I or
Conclusion II is true.
87. (2) P < R < S < T > U Conclu-
sions : I. U < R : Not True II. T > P :
True
88. (5) T > U > V > W X < Y = W >
Z T > U > V > W > Z Conclusions :
I. Z < U : True II. W < T : True
89. (1) K < L < M < N M < O < P K
< L < M < P O > M < N Conclusions
: I. P > K : True II. N > O : Not True
90. (4) B < A < C A > D < E B < A
> D < E C > A > D < E Conclusions
: I. B < E : Not True II. C > E : Not
True
91. 95.
Fruit Bowl
Orange Bowl Y
Banana Bowl U
Pineapple Bowl W
Cherry Bowl X
Litchi Bowl V
Apple Bowl Z
Grapes Bowl T
96. 98. : M is the husband of P. P
is the sister-in-law of Q. R is the son
of M and P. S is the mother-in-law
of M. T is the husband of S. P is the
only daughter of S and T
134
135
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