table of contents · (a) retain their customers (b)keep pace with changing consumer preferences as...

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Table of Contents RBI ASST. Pre 2017 (Sitting-1) ........... 2 English Language .............................. 2 Quantitative Aptitude ........................ 5 Reasoning .......................................... 7 Answer Key ..................................... 10 Solutions:......................................... 12 RBI Asst. Pre 2017 (Sitting-2) .......... 15 English Language ............................ 15 Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 17 Reasoning ........................................ 18 Solutions:......................................... 22 RBI Asst. 2017 (Sitting-3) ................. 25 English Language ............................ 25 Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 27 Reasoning ........................................ 29 Solutions:......................................... 33 RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-2) ....... 36 English Language ............................ 36 Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 39 Reasoning ........................................ 41 Answer Key ..................................... 44 Solutions:......................................... 45 RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-1) ....... 48 English Language ............................ 48 Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 51 Reasoning ........................................ 53 Answer Key ..................................... 56 Solutions:......................................... 57 RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-3) ....... 60 English Language ............................ 60 Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 63 Reasoning ........................................ 65 Answer Key ..................................... 69 Solutions:......................................... 70 RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting- 4) ...... 73 English Language ............................ 73 Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 76 Reasoning ........................................ 78 Answer Key ..................................... 82 Solutions:......................................... 83 RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-2) ....... 86 English Language ............................ 86 Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 88 Reasoning ........................................ 91 Answer Key ..................................... 94 Solutions:......................................... 95 RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-1) ....... 98 English Language ............................ 98 Quantitative Aptitude .................... 100 Reasoning ...................................... 102 Answer Key ................................... 106 Solutions:....................................... 107 RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-2) ..... 110 English Language .......................... 110 Quantitative Aptitude .................... 113 Reasoning Ability.......................... 115 Answer Key ................................... 118 Solutions:....................................... 119 RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-3) ..... 122 English Language .......................... 122 Quantitative Aptitude .................... 124 Reasoning Ability.......................... 127 Answer Key ................................... 130 Solutions:....................................... 131

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Page 1: Table of Contents · (A) retain their customeRs (B)keep pace with changing consumer preferences as they have access to multiple media channels (C)make more cost-effective decisions

Table of Contents RBI ASST. Pre 2017 (Sitting-1) ........... 2

English Language .............................. 2

Quantitative Aptitude ........................ 5

Reasoning .......................................... 7

Answer Key ..................................... 10

Solutions: ......................................... 12

RBI Asst. Pre 2017 (Sitting-2) .......... 15

English Language ............................ 15

Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 17

Reasoning ........................................ 18

Solutions: ......................................... 22

RBI Asst. 2017 (Sitting-3) ................. 25

English Language ............................ 25

Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 27

Reasoning ........................................ 29

Solutions: ......................................... 33

RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-2) ....... 36

English Language ............................ 36

Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 39

Reasoning ........................................ 41

Answer Key ..................................... 44

Solutions: ......................................... 45

RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-1) ....... 48

English Language ............................ 48

Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 51

Reasoning ........................................ 53

Answer Key ..................................... 56

Solutions: ......................................... 57

RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-3) ....... 60

English Language ............................ 60

Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 63

Reasoning ........................................ 65

Answer Key ..................................... 69

Solutions: ......................................... 70

RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting- 4) ...... 73

English Language ............................ 73

Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 76

Reasoning ........................................ 78

Answer Key ..................................... 82

Solutions: ......................................... 83

RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-2) ....... 86

English Language ............................ 86

Quantitative Aptitude ...................... 88

Reasoning ........................................ 91

Answer Key ..................................... 94

Solutions: ......................................... 95

RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-1) ....... 98

English Language ............................ 98

Quantitative Aptitude .................... 100

Reasoning ...................................... 102

Answer Key ................................... 106

Solutions: ....................................... 107

RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-2) ..... 110

English Language .......................... 110

Quantitative Aptitude .................... 113

Reasoning Ability .......................... 115

Answer Key ................................... 118

Solutions: ....................................... 119

RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-3) ..... 122

English Language .......................... 122

Quantitative Aptitude .................... 124

Reasoning Ability .......................... 127

Answer Key ................................... 130

Solutions: ....................................... 131

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RBI ASST. Pre 2017 (Sitting-

1) English Language

Directions (1-5) : Rearrange the following six sen-

tences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in proper se-

quence to form a meaningful paragraph, then an-

swer the given questions

(A) Take for example, the market for learning danc-

ing

(B) This could never happen if there was a central

board of dancing education which enforced strict

standards of what will be taught and how such

things are to be taught

(C) The Indian education system is built on the

presumption that if something is good for one child,

it is good for all children

(D) More importantly, different teachers and insti-

tutes have developed different ways of teaching

dancing

(E) There are very different dance forms that attract

students with different tastes

(F) If however, we can effectively decentralise edu-

cation, and if the government did not obsessively

control what would be

be the method of instruction, there could be an ex-

plosion of new and innovative courses geared to-

wards serving various riches of learners.

1. Which of the following should be the LAST

(SIXTH) sentence after the rearrangement ?

(1) A (2) F

(3) D (4) C

(5) B

2. Which of the following should be the THIRD

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B

(3) F (4) D

(5) E

3. Which of the following should be the SECOND

sentence after the rearrangement ?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) F

4. Which of the following should be the FIRST

sentence after the rearrangement ?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) E

5. Which of the following should be the FOURTH

sentence after the rearrangement ?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) E

(5) D

Directions (6-15) : Read the following passage

carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to

help you locate them while answering some of the

questions.

Manufacturers of consumer packaged goods (CPG)

face two key challenges this year. The first is con-

tinued slow or negative growth a-

ble incomes. The second is changing consumer

attitudes toward products and brands, as the great

fragmentation of consumer markets take another

turn.

In response, companies must dramatically shift the

route they take to reach consumers in terms of both

product distribution and communications.

In many markets, consumer wages have been static

for five years now. Even where economies are start-

ing to perform better, the squeeze on after -tax

wages, especially for the middle class younger peo-

ple and families, is depressing consumer spending.

Although growth in developing countries is still

better than in the United States and Europe, a slow-

down in emerging countries such as China - where

many countries had hoped for higher sales- has

translated quickly into lower-thanexpected con-

sumer spending growth.

Meanwhile, what we call the great fragmentation is

manifested in consumer behaviour and market re-

sponse. In both developed and emerging markets,

there is a wider variety among consumers now than

at any time in the recent past.

Growth is evident both at the top of the market

(where more consumers are spending for higher-

quality food and other packaged goods) and at the

lower end (where an increasing number of consum-

ers are concentrating on value). But the traditional

middle of the market is shrinking.

Further, individual consumer behaviour is more

pluralistic. We are used to seeing, for example,

spirits buyers purchasing a premium brand in a bar,

a less costly label at home for personal consump-

tion and yet another when entertaining guests. But

this type of variegated shopping has now spread to

the grocery basket as well.

Fewer consumers are making one big stocking-up

trip each week. Instead, shoppers are visiting a

premium store and a discounter as well as a super-

market, in multiple weekly shops ¾ in addition to

making frequent purchases online.

During recession, more shoppers became inclined

to spend time hunting for bargains and as some

traditional retailers either went out of business or

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shuttered down, retail space was freed up and was

often filled by convenience stores, specialty shops,

and discounteRs A decade ago, VCPG companies

had only a handful of sales channels to consider

supermarkets, convenience stores, hypermarkets in

advanced economies and traditional small and large

retailers in emerging countries. Since then, various

discounters have made-significant inroads, includ-

ing no frills, low variety outlets, such as

Aldi and Lidi, which sell a limited range of private-

label grocery items in smaller stores and massive

warehouse clubs, such as

which initially operated solely in the U.S. but are

now expanding internationally.

In addition, dollar stores, specialised retailers, and

online merchants are having an impact on the CPG

landscape, Economising consumers have been

pleasantly, surprised by the savings generated by

spreading their business among multiple channels,

as well as by the variety and product quality they

find. The result has been greater demand for more

products and brands, with different sizes, packaging

and sales methods. At most CPG companies, SKUs

are proliferating despite there being little increase

in overall consumption. A better outcome can be

seen at smaller food and beverage suppliers, which

are benefiting from consumer demand for variety

and authenticity. A recent report found that in the

U.S., small manufactureRs (with revenues of less

thanUS $ l billion) grew at twice the compound

annual rate of large manufacturers (with revenues

of more than $3 billion) between 2009 and 2012

also fragmented with

the rise of digital content and the proliferation of

online devices. Each channel- from the Web, Mo-

bile and social sites for radio, TV, and printhas its

own requirements, audience appeal and economies,

needing specialised attention. But, at the same time,

media campaigns need to be closely coordinated for

effective consumer messaging.

Collectively, these shifts challenge the way CPG

companies manage their brand and business portfo-

lios and call for a rethinking of their go-to-market

approach, with an emphasis on analytics. Our work

with INSEAD shows that among business leaders,

applying analytics-especially for tracking consumer

behaviour and product and promotional perfor-

mance- considered one of the most effective ways

to improve results and outpace the competition. But

using the

insight wisely to determine how to manage costs.

The more knowledgeable about customer needs and

preferences a company is, the smarter and more

focused it must be in managing its own economics

to cost-effectively deliver both variety and value to

be squeezed consumer.

6. The central theme of the given passage is

_________.

(1) The shrinking market.

(2) Shift towards offering luxury goods to consum-

ers.

(3) Products to offer consumers with squeezed

pockets.

(4) To highlight products consumed by the middle

class.

(5) Gaining insight into changing consumer behav-

iour towards CPGs.

7. In the context of the passage, which of the fol-

lowing brands existed otherwise but is now being

manifested in buying groceries as well ?

(1) Consumers purchasing the same products for

over a period of time.

(2) Consumer willing to purchase goods for a long-

er period of time.

(3) Consumers preferring luxury goods over regular

goods.

(4) Consumers are more aware of their rights.

(5) Consumers prefer buying goods from a variety

of stores.

8. Which of the following is most nearly the OP-

POSITE in

as used in the passage ?

(1) Encouraging (2) Sunny

(3) Doubtful (4) Light

(5) Nil

9. As mentioned in the passage, CPG companies

may have to reassess their present strategies of op-

erating to _________

(A) retain their customeRs (B)keep pace with

changing consumer preferences as they have access

to multiple media channels

(C)make more cost-effective decisions.

(1) Only A (2) Only B

(3) All the three A, B and C

(4) Only C

(5) Only A and B

10. Which of the following is true in the context of

the passage?

(1) In the U.S., during the three year period after

2009, small manufacturers did not fare well as

compared to their larger counterparts.

(2) Impact on disposable incomes of people barely

affects the CPG manufacturing industry.

(3) Post-tax wages, especially for the middle class,

are one of the critical factors which have reduced

spending behaviour of consumers.

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(4) CPG have always been a favourite among con-

sumers.

(5) None of the given options is true.

11. Which of the following correctly explains the

meaning of used in the

passage ?

(1) Boundless (2) Planned

(3) Satisfactory (4) Limited

(5) Imperfect

12. As mentioned in the passage, one of the most

critical factors that aids in catering to the needs of

consumers is

(1) persuading them to purchase goods produced by

the organization.

(2) assess their requirements and appropriately plan

to meet them.

(3) offering them products that an organization reg-

ularly manufactures.

(4) concentrating only on being aware about chang-

ing preferences of consumers.

(5) None of the given options.

13. Which of the following is most nearly the

SAME in meaning to the word

used in the passage ?

(1) Developing (2) Annoying

(3) Narrowing (4) Wasting

(5) Rising

14. Which of the following is most nearly the

SAME in meaning to as

used in the passage ?

(1) Diverse (2) Composite

(3) Strong (4) Narrow

(5) Valued

15. Which of the following is most nearly the OP-

POSITE in as

used in the passage ?

(1) Closed (2) Retail

(3) Flourished (4) Gratified

(5) Nearest

Directions (16-20) : In the following questions,

some parts of the sentences have errors and some

are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an

error. The number of that part is the answer.

If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (5)

i.e. No error. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

16. After his term in the Department of Defence

(1)/ he was appointed Secretary of Energy (2)/a job

in which he was strongly supported the use (3)/ of

alternate sources of energy such as nuclear energy.

(4)/ No error (5)

17. As GDP growth is half of what it (1)/ is just a

few years ago, the country (2)/ desperately needs to

cut red tape and improve (3)/ infrastructure to boost

investment and growth (4)/ No error (5)

18. When elections in the country are due shortly

(1)/ people are determined to register as voters and

to vote for (2)/ candidates based on their track rec-

ord and the programmes (3)/ that they intend to

implement for the betterment of the country. (4)/

No error (5)

19. At least a quarter of the

lost (1)/ over the past twenty-five years and as cli-

mate change warms (2)/ the oceans the additional

carbon dioxide will make (3)/ the water more acidic

further destroying coral reefs. (4)/ No error (5)

20. laid out how (1)/ it

is important to encourage female participated (2)/ in

the economy yet the percentage of female lawmak-

ers in (3)/ the lower house of parliament has fallen

to 8 percent. (4)/ No error (5)

Directions (21-25) : The question has two blanks

each blank indicating that something has been omit-

ted. Choose the set of words for each blank that

best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. Three unknown assailants _____ on motorcy-

cles and opened _______ barely a few metres from

where the actor was shooting, (1) came, shooting

(2) rode, rounds

(3) arrived, fire (4) approached, hitting

(5) climbed, shots

22. The police _____ in _______ a car theft case

within a matter of two hours of registration of the

complaint.

(1) achieved, solving

(2) victorious, catching

(3) famed, arresting

(4) succeeded, cracking

(5) failed, assigning

23. The health ministry has approved major expan-

sion of post-graduate seats in key departments of

AI IMS to ________ the severe ________ of spe-

cialists across the country.

(1) address, dearth

(2) correct, loss

(3) improve, damage

(4) rectify, limits

(5) good, shortage

24. With the _______ wedding season, people are

leaving no stone unturned to make their wedding

cards look _________.

(1) prolonged, beyond

(2) ongoing, special

(3) instant, great

(4) sudden, while

(5) estimated, legible

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25. The tourism data ______ that Indians are

______ the biggest spenders while on holidays.

(1) says, within (2) reveal, amongst

(3) proclaims, between

(4) states, surrounded

(5) speaks, amid

Directions (26 30) : In the following passage

some of the words have been left out. Read the pas-

sage carefully and choose the correct answer to

each question out of the five alternatives and fill in

the blanks. A strong economy would improve live-

lihoods and give hope for the future, but the lack of

reliable electricity in the country has contributed to

holding back prosperity.

Over the past five years, GDP growth has averaged

3 per cent, too (26) to fight poverty and create jobs.

Demand for power outstrips what the country can

produce and (27). Planned and unplanned electrici-

ty outages of 12 to 16 hours daily nationwide (28)

business, aggravate unemployment and spark angry

protests. The country has (29) energy resources- an

estimated 186 billion tonnes of coal, over 100,000

megawatts of hydro potential and wind potential of

upto 3,46,000 megawatts. But the technology and

investment to (30) these resources are limited. An

overreliance on imported fuel has exposed the

country to high oil

money to keep the system- a mix of private and

state run enter - prises- running or to fix faulty in-

frastructure that leaks electricity. A resolution of

power crisis is thus very critical to survival of the

country.

26. (1) much (2) low

(3) required (4) tough

(5) minimal

27. (1) represent (2) sufficient

(3) adequate (4) amount

(5) deliver

28. (1) run (2) happens

(3) plans (4) effect

(5) hurt

29. (1) ample (2) fix

(3) worst (4) frequent

(5) paucity

30. (1) lack (2) solve

(3) waste (4) exploit

(5) advantage

Quantitative Aptitude 31. AT present, Pia is 6 years older to Ray. The

respective ratio between the present ages of Pia and

Mini is 3 : 4. At present Ray is 14 years younger to

present age ?

(1) 16 years (2) 20 years (3) 14 years (4) 18 years

(5) 24 years

Directions (32 36) : In each of the following

questions, two equations numbered I and II are giv-

en. You have to solve both the equations and give

answer

(1) if x > y (2) if x < y

(3) if x > y (4) if x < y

(5) if relationship between x and y cannot be estab-

lished

32. I. 4x2 + 17x + 15 = 0

II. 3y2 + 19y + 28 = 0

33. I. 3x2 17x + 22 = 0

II. 5y2 21y + 22 = 0

34. I. 3x2 + 11x + 10 = 0

II. 2y2 + 13y + 21 = 0

35. I. 3x2 + 13x + 14 = 0

II. 8y2 + 26y + 21 = 0

36. I. 3x2 14x + 15 = 0

II. 15y2 34y + 15 = 0

Directions (37 41) : Study the table to answer the

given questions.

Data related to expenses by companies A, B, C, D

and E in the April 2012 Companies Total Expenses

(in lakh rupees)

Expenses (in percentage)

Marketing Legal

A 90 24 18

B 80 23 8

C 74 30 25

D 65 20 10

E 70 15 9

Note : Other than the mentioned expenses under

the given heads, there may also be some other ex-

pense. For calculation purposes, please consider the

given expense heads only

37. what is the respective ratio between the market-

ing expense of company A and the marketing ex-

penses of company C ?

(1) 34 : 35 (2) 32 : 33

(3) 35 : 36 (4) 36 : 37

(5) 37 : 38

38. Total expenses of Company E in October 2012

was 20% more than the total given expenses of the

same company in April 2012. How much was the

Marketing expenses of the same Company in Octo-

ber 2012, if it was 25% of the total expenses of the

same month ?

(in Rs. Lakhs)

(1) 27 (2) 24

(3) 26 (4) 21

(5) 18

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39. Marketing expenses of company D is less than

marketing expenses of Company B, by approxi-

mately what percent ?

(1) 20 (2) 40

(3) 39 (4) 59

(5) 29

40. what is the average total expense of all the

companies ? (in Rs. Lakhs)

(1) 75.25 (2) 75.8

(3) 75 (4) 72.8

(5) 72.25

41. What is the difference between the total ex-

penses made by company C in legal and marketing

together and the total expenses made by company E

in legal and marketing together ? (in Rs. Lakhs)

(1) 24.5 (2) 23.5

(3) 22.9 (4) 23

(5) 23.9

Directions (42 46) : What approximate value will

come in place of the question mark (?) in the given

questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the

exact value)

42. 6399 ×

+ 353 ÷ ? = 10444

(1) 14 (2) 22

(3) 2 (4) 16

(5) 8

43. √ × 14.02 + √ × 15.97 = ?

(1) 670 (2) 570

(3) 710 (4) 510

(5) 610

44. 8461 ÷ 11.99 24.01 ÷ 5/100 = ?

(1) 625 (2) 400

(3) 25 (4) 900

(5) 225

45. 14.85% of 679 + 19.9% of 219.89 = ?

(1) 115 (2) 145

(3) 65 (4) 105

(5) 85

46. 1441 ÷ ? + 149.98 × 14.99 = 3006 254.91

(1) 35 (2) 15

(3) 25 (4) 45

(5) 3

Directions (47 51) : What will come in place of

the question mark

(?) in the following number series.

47. 19 30 44 67 117 ?

(1) 236 (2) 272

(3) 264 (4) 248

(5) 254

48. 7 9 18 46 111 ?

(1) 245 (2) 229

(3) 233 (4) 248

(5) 237

49. 7 24 58 109 ? 262

(1) 183 (2) 189

(3) 171 (4) 163

(5) 177

50. 19 20 16 25 9 ?

(1) 32 (2) 38

(3) 34 (4) 42

(5) 48

51. 7.4 9.2 11.4 14 17 ?

(1) 19.8 (2) 22.6

(3) 23 (4) 21

(5) 20.4

52. A bag contains 5 red balls, 6 yellow and 3 green

balls. If two balls are picked at random, what is the

probability that both are red or both are green in

colour ?

(1) 3/7 (2) 5/14

(3) 1/7 (4) 2/7

(5) 3/14

53. In a 140 litres of mixture of milk and water,

precentage of water is only 30%. The milkman

gave 20 litres of this mixture to a customer. Then

he added equal quantities of pure milk and water to

the remaining mixture. As a result the respective

ratio of milk and water in the mixture became 2 : 1.

What was the quantity of milk added ? (in litres)

(1) 12 (2) 16

(3) 18 (4) 8

(5) 10

54. Aboat can travel 4.2 km upstream in 14

minutes. If the respective ratio of speed of the boat

in still water and speed of the stream is 7 : 1. How

much time will the boat take to cover 17.6 km

downstream ? (in minutes)

(1) 52 (2) 44

(3) 48 (4) 36

(5) 54

55. A starts a business with a capital of Rs. 15000.

B joins the business 6 months later from the start of

the business and C joins the business 8 month later

from the start of the business.

End of the year their respective share in profit was

in ratio of 5 : 3 : 3. What is the sum of amount put

in the business by B and C together ?

(1) Rs. 3300 (2) Rs. 3500

(3) Rs. 4200 (4) Rs. 4800

(5) Rs. 4500

56. The length of a rectangle is 4m more than the

side of a square and the breadth of the rectangle is

4m less than side of the same square. The area of

the square is 567 square metre, what is the area of

the rectangle ? (in square metre)

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(1) 549 (2) 545

(3) 557 (4) 559

(5) 551

57. A sells an item at 20% profit to B. B sells it to

C at 10% profit. C sells it to D at Rs 116 profit.

Difference between the cost price of D and Cost

price of A was Rs. 500. How much did B pay to A

for the item ?

(1) Rs. 1,240 (2) Rs. 1,250

(3) Rs. 1,440 (4) Rs. 1,450

(5) Rs. 1,400

58. 10 men can finish a piece of work in 15 days. 8

women can finish the same piece of work in 25

days. Only 10 women started working and in few

days completed certain amount of work. After that

3 men joined them. The remaining work was com-

pleted by 10 wome and 3 men together in 5 days.

After how many days 3 men joined 10 women ?

(1) 11 (2) 13

(3) 15 (4) 10

(5) 12

59. Rs. 16,000 was invested for three years, partly

in Scheme A at the rate of 5% Simple Interest per

annum and partly in scheme B at the rate of 8%

Simple Interest per annum.

Total interest received at the end was Rs. 3480.

How much sum of money invested in Scheme A ?

(1) Rs. 6,000 (2) Rs. 6,500

(3) Rs. 4,500 (4) Rs. 4,000

(5) Rs. 8,000

Directions (60-64) : In the following questions

based on the graph given below.

Data related to number of hats sold by two

stores (M and N) during six given months :

60. Number of hats sold by store M during January

is what percent of the total number of hats sold by

the store N during March and April together ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

61. What is the average number of hats sold by

store N during January, March, May and June ?

(1) 535 (2) 525

(3) 515 (4) 500

(5) 530

62. Stores M and N sells only two types of hats :

Fedora Hats and Trilby Hats. If the respective ratio

of total number of Fedora hats to total number of

Trilby hats sold by stores M and N together during

March is 9 : 5, what is the total number of Fedora

hats sold by stores M and N together during March

?

(1) 990 (2) 900

(3) 720 (4) 630

(5) 810

63. If the total number of hats sold by stores M and

N together in July is 15% more than the total num-

ber of hats sold by the same stores together during

June, what is the total number of hats sold by tha

same stores together during July ?

(1) 1298 (2) 1316

(3) 1356 (4) 1284

(5) 1334

64. Number of hats sold by store M increased by

what percent from February to May ?

(1) 75 (2) 55

(3) 65 (4) 70

(5) 60

65. Monthly salary of Dex is 1/4 th

is 2/5

monthly sal pays

Rs. 12,800, which is 1/4 th of her monthly salary as

study loan. Savings and expenses made out of the

monthly salary, by Dex is in the respective ^ratio 3

: 5. How much does Dex save each month ?

(1) Rs. 12,000 (2) Rs. 10,600

(3) Rs. 10,400 (4) Rs. 12,600

(5) Rs. 12,400

Reasoning Directions (66 70) : Study the following infor-

mation carefuly and answer the questions given

below :

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting

around a circular area of equal distances between

each other, but not necessarily in the same order.

Some of the people are facing the centre while

some face outside. i.e. in a direction opposite to the

centre

(NOTE : Same direction means if one person is

facing the centre then the other also faces the centre

and vice-versa. Opposite direction means that if one

person is facing the centre then the other person

faces outside and vice-versa)

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8

D sits third to the right of B. E sits second to the

left of B. Immediate neighbours of B face the same

direction (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre the

other neighbour also faces the centre and vice-

versa)

C sits second to the left of E. E faces the centre. F

sits third to the right of C. G sits second to the left

of H. H is not an immediate neighbour of B. G fac-

es the same direction as D. Immediate neighbours

of E face opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbour

faces the centre the other neighbour faces outside

and viceversa.)

Immediate neighbours of F face opposite directions

(i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre the other

neighbour faces outside and viceversa).

66. How many persons in the given arrangement

face the centre ?

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) One (4) Four

(5) Five

67. Which of the following is true regarding A as

per the given seating arrangement ?

(1) H sits second to the left of A

(2) A faces outside

(3) Only two persons sit between A and B.

(4) C is one of the immediate neighbours of A.

(5) Only three persons sit between A and G.

68. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way based on the given seating arrangement and so

form a group. Which is the one that does not belong

to that group ?

(1) F (2) B

(3) H (4) G

(5) D

69. to H ?

(1) Third to the left

(2) Second to the right

(3) To the immediate right

(4) To the immediate left

(5) Third to the right

70. Who sits second to the left of G ?

(1) H (2) A

(3) B (4) Other than those giv-

en as options

(5) F

Directions (71 75) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Seven persons A, B, C, D, K, L and M live on sev-

en different floors of a building but not necessarily

in the same order. The lowermost floor of the build-

ing is numbered one, the one above that is num-

bered two and so on till the topmost floor is num-

bered seven. Each one of them also likes different

games namely Snooker, Badminton, Chess, Ludo,

Cricket, Hockey and Polo (but not necessarily in

the same order.) Only three persons live between B

and K. B lives on one of the floors above K. K does

not live on the lowermost floor.

Only one person lives between B and the one who

like Chess. The one who likes Polo lives on one of

the even numbered floors above the one who likes

Chess.

Only two persons live between M and the one who

likes Chess. The one who likes Snooker lives im-

mediately above M. A lives immediately above L.

A does not like Chess.

The one who likes Ludo lives on one of the odd

numbered floors below L. M does not like Ludo. D

lives on one of the floors above C. Only one person

lives between the one who likes Cricket and the one

who likes Hockey. D does not like Cricket. M does

not like Badminton.

71. Which of the following games does B like ?

(1) Snooker (2) Ludo

(3) Polo (4) Badminton

(5) Chess

72. Who amongst the following lives on the floor

numbered 4 ?

(1) The one who likes Hockey

(2) The one who likes Chess

(3) A

(4) L

(5) B

73. Which of the following statements is true with

respect to the given arrangement ?

(1) Only two persons live between K and M.

(2) The one who likes Hockey lives immediately

above K.

(3) C likes Chess (4) C lives on an even

numbered floor.

(5) None of the given options is true.

74. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical

order from top to bottom, the positions of how

many people will remain unchanged ?

(1) None (2) Three

(3) Two (4) One

(5) Four

75. Which of the following combinations is true

with respect to the given arrangement ?

(1) Polo-C (2) Ludo-B

(3) Cricket-K (4) Snooker-A

(5) Chess-L

Directions (76 80) : In each of the following

questions, two/ three statements followed by two

conclusions numbered I and II have been given.

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9

You have to take the given statements to be true

even if they seem to be at variance form the cdom-

monly known facts and then decide which of the

given conclusions logically follows from the given

statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows

Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II follows

Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-

sion II follows.

Give answer (4) if both the Conclusion I and Con-

clusion II follow

Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-

clusion II follows

(76 77) :

Statements :

Some wins are trophies.

Some trophies are cups.

No cup is a prize.

76.

Conclusions I. Atleast some cups are wins.

II. All prizes being trophies is a possibility.

77.

Conclusions I. No trophy is a prize.

II. No prize is a win.

78. Statements No layer is a coat.

All coats are deposits.

All deposits are sheets.

Conclusions I. All coats are sheets.

II. All deposits can never be layers.

79. Statements Some flats are apartments.

No apartment is a hall.

Some halls are rooms.

Conclusions I. Atleast some rooms are flats.

II. No apartment is a room.

80. Statements Some codes are secrets.

All secrets are puzzles.

Conclusions I. All secrets being codes is a possibil-

ity.

II. Atleast some puzzles are coses.

81. A person starts walking from his office towards

a party hall.

He walks for 30m towards East. He takes a 90°

right turn and walks for 15m. He again takes a 90°

right turn, and walks for another 20m. He then

walks for 25m after taking a 90° left turn. Turining

90° towards his right he walks for 10m to reach the

party hall. How far and in which direction is the

party hall from his office ?

(1) 40m towards West

(2) 40m towards South

(3) 45m towards South

(4) 45m towards North

(5) 40m towards North

82. Point A is 40m to the north of point B. Point C

is 20m to the west of point A. Point D is 30m to the

south of point C. Point E is exactly midway be-

tween points D and F in such a manner that Point

D, E and F form a horizontal straight line of 40m.

Point F is to the east of point D. Point G is 30m to

the north of point F. How far and in which direction

is point G from point A ?

(1) 30m towards West

(2) 40m towards North

(3) 20m towards West

(4) 20m towards East

(5) 30m towards East

Directions (83 85) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

J is the sister of T. T is married to D. D is the father

of R. M is the son of H. T is the mother- in-law of

H. D has only one son and no daughter. J is married

to B. L is the daughter of B.

83. How is L related to T ?

(1) Niece (2) Sister

(3) Cannot be determined

(4) Daughter

(5) Mother

84. How is M related to D ?

(1) Nephew (2) Uncle

(3) Brother (4) Son

(5) Grandson

85. How is J related to R ?

(1) Sister (2) Aunt

(3) Mother-in-law (4) Mother

(5) Cannot be determined

Directions (86 90) : In each of the following

questions, relationship between different elements

is shown in the statements. The statements are fol-

lowed by two Conclusions numbered I and.

II. Study the Conclusions based on the given state-

ment(s) and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true

Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true

Give answer (3) If either Conclusion I or Conclu-

sion II is true

Give answer (4) if both the Conclusion I and Con-

clusion II are true

Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-

clusion II is true

(86 87) :

Statements L = P < W < V < K > Q; B < L; K = M

86.

Conclusions I. B < V

II. M > P

87.

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10

Conclusions I. L > Q

II. W = M

88. Statements R < U = B < S; B < X

Conclusions I. X > R

II. X = R

(89 90) :

Statements C > U < S < T = O > D > Y; Z = O < P

89.

Conclusions I. U > D

II. S < P

90.

Conclusions I. Z > Y

II. C < O

Directions (91 95) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

In a certain code language,

is

(All codes are two letter codes only)

91. In the the given code language, what does the

stand for ?

(1) in

(3)

(4) task

(5) huge

92. in the given

code language ?

(1) hy (2) te

(3) op (4) Other than those giv-

en as options

(5) kj

93. the given code

language ?

(3) dp (4) Other than those giv-

en as options

(5) re

94.

code language ?

(1) te hy (2) dp kj

(3) ba kj (4) Other than those giv-

en as options

(5) ba te

95. What may be the possible code

given code language ?

(1) uc ba re (2) gr uc re

(3) op uc gr (4) op kj hy

(5) op gr kj

Directions (96 100) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight persons E, F, G, H, L, M, N and O are seated

in a straight line, facing North, but not necessarily

in the same order. O sits at the extreme right end of

the line. Only four persons sit between O and G.

Both F and M are immediate neighbours of G. Only

two persons sit between M and L. L is not an im-

mediate neighbour of O. N sits second to left of E.

96. What is the position of L with respect to G ?

(1) Third to the right

(2) To the immediate left

(3) Second to the right

(4) Fourth to the right

(5) Second to the left

97. Based on the given arrangement, which of the

following is true with respect to N ?

(1) Only three persons sit between N and O.

(2) None of the given options is true

(3) Only one person sits to the right of N.

(4) E sits to immediate right of N.

(5) Both L and F are immediate neighbours of N.

98. Who amongst the following persons represents

the person seated at the extreme left end of the line

?

(1) L (2) N

(3) E (4) F

(5) H

99. How many persons are seated between O and E

?

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) None

(5) One

100. Who amongst the following sit exactly be-

tween M and L ?

(1) E,N (2) F,O

(3) F,G (4) E,G

(5) H,N

Answer Key 1. (2) 2. (5) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (5) 6. (5) 7. (5) 8. (1) 9.

(3) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16.

(3) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (3) 22. (4) 23.

(1) 24. (2) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (5) 28. (5) 29. (1) 30.

(4) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (4) 36. (1) 37.

(4) 38. (4) 39. (5) 40. (2) 41. (5) 42. (5) 43. (1) 44.

(5) 45. (2) 46. (5) 47. (4) 48. (5) 49. (5) 50. (3) 51.

(5) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (2) 55. (5) 56. (4) 57. (3) 58.

(2) 59. (4) 60. (4) 61. (2) 62. (5) 63. (5) 64. (3) 65.

(1) 66. (5) 67. (2) 68. (3) 69. (4) 70. (1) 71. (4) 72.

(1) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (5) 76. (2) 77. (5) 78. (4) 79.

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11

(5) 80. (4) 81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (1) 84. (5) 85. (2) 86.

(4) 87. (5) 88. (3) 89. (2) 90. (1) 91. (2) 92. (4) 93.

(1) 94. (5) 95. (3) 96. (5) 97. (2) 98. (1) 99. (4) 100.

(3)

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Solutions: 8. (1) Depressing (Adjective) = mak-

ing you feel very sad and without

enthusiasm. Encouraging (Adjective)

= giving somebody support, courage

or hope. Look at the sentences :

Looking for a job these days can be

n-

employment figures are not very

encouraging.

11. (4) A handful of = small number

of people or things, limited. Look at

the sentences : Only a handful of

people came at the meeting.

13. (3) Shrink (Verb) = become

smaller/make smaller in size or

amount. Look at the sentence : Tele-

vision in a sense has shrunk the

world.

14. (1) Variegated (Adjective) =

consisting of many different types of

things or persons; having different

colours; diverse.

15. (3) Shutter (Verb) = close. Flour-

ish (Verb) = to develop quickly;

thrive.

16. (3) Here, not Passive but Active

voice should be used. Hence, a job

which he strongly supported the use

..... should be used

17. (2) The clause shows past time.

Hence, was just a few years ago ......

should be used.

18.

improper. Hence people are deter-

mined to register themselves as vot-

ers and vote for should be used. 19

(1) Here, Passive i.e., At least a

quar

been lost ...... should be used.

20. (2) Here, Reporting verb is in

Past tense. Hence, it was important

...... should be used.

22. (4) Crack (Verb) = to find a solu-

tion to a problem.

25. (2) Reveal (Verb) = disclose; to

make something known.

31.

6)

years

According to the question, 4x (3x

6) = 14

4x 3x + 6 = 14

x + 6 = 14

x = 14 6 = 8 years

\ 6

= 3 × 8 6 = 24 6 = 18 years

32. (3) I. 4x2 + 17x + 15 = 0

4x2 + 12x + 5x + 15 = 0

4x (x + 3) + 5 (x + 3) = 0

(x + 3) (4x + 5) = 0

x = 3 or, -5/4

II. 3y2 + 19y + 28 = 0

3y2 + 12y + 7y + 28 = 0

3y (y + 4) + 7 (y + 4) = 0

(y + 4) (3y + 7) = 0

y = 4 or, -7/3

Clearly, x > y

33. (1) I. 3x2 17x + 22 = 0

3x2 6x 11x + 22 = 0

3x (x 2) 11 (x 2) = 0

(x 2) (3x 11) = 0

x = 2 or, 11/3

II. 5y2 21y + 22 = 0

5y2 10y 11y + 22 = 0

5y (y 2) 11 (y 2) = 0

(y 2) (5y 11) = 0

y = 2 or, 11/5

Clearly, x > y

34. (3) I. 3x2 + 11x + 10 = 0

3x2 + 6x + 5x + 10 = 0

3x (x + 2) + 5(x + 2) = 0

(x + 2) (3x + 5) = 0

x = 2 or, -5/3

II. 2y2 + 13y + 21 = 0

2y2 + 6y + 7y + 21 = 0

2y (y + 3) + 7 (y + 3) = 0

(y + 3) (2y + 7) = 0

y = 3 or, -7/2

Clearly, x > y

35. (4) I. 3x2 + 13x + 14 = 0

3x2 + 6x + 7x + 14 = 0

3x(x + 2) + 7(x + 2) = 0

(x + 2) (3x + 7) = 0

x = 2 or, -7/3

II. 8y2 + 26y + 21 = 0

8y2 + 12y + 14y + 21 = 0

4y (2y + 3) + 7 (2y + 3) = 0

(2y + 3) (4y + 7) = 0

y = -3/2 or, -7/4

Clearly, x < y

36. (1) I. 3x2 14x + 15 = 0

3x2 9x 5x + 15 = 0

3x (x 3) 5 (x 3) = 0

(3x 5) (x 3) = 0

x = 5/3 or, 3/II. 15y2 34y + 15 =

0

15y2 25y 9y + 15 = 0

5y (3y 5) 3 (3y 5) = 0

(3y 5) (5y 3) = 0

y = 5/3 or, 3/5

Clearly, x > y

37. (4) Required ratio

:

38. (4) Total expense of company

in October 2012

(

) lakhs

. 84 lakhs.

Marketing expenses in Octo‐ ber

. 21 lakh

39. (5) Marketing expenses :

Company

(

) lakhs

. 13 lakh

Company

(

) lakhs

. 18.4 lakhs

Required per cent

. (2) Required average

(90 80 74 65

70) lakhs

(

) lakhs

lakhs

41. (5) Marketing and legal ex‐ penses :

Company

. 40.70 lakhs

Company

. 16.80 lakhs

Required difference

lakhs

lakhs

42. (5)

?

43. (1)? √ √

44. (5)?

45. (2)

Required Answer l45

46. (5)

?

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13

47. (4) The pattern is, 19 + 11 = 30

30 + 14 (= 11 + 3) = 44

44 + 23 (= 14 + 32) = 67

67 + 50 (= 23 + 33) = 117

? = 117 + (50 + 34)

= 117 + 50 + 81 = 248

48. (5) The pattern is, 7 + 13 + 1 = 7

+ 2 = 9

9 + 23 + 1 = 9 + 9 = 18

18 + 33 + 1 = 18 + 28 = 46

46 + 43 + 1 = 46 + 65 = 111

111 + 53 + 1 = 111 + 126 = 237

49. (5) The pattern is, 7 + 1 × 17 = 7

+ 17 = 24

24 + 2 × 17 = 24 + 34 = 58

58 + 3 × 17 = 58 + 51 = 109

109 + 4 × 17 = 109 + 68 = 177

177 + 5 × 17 = 177 + 85 = 262

50. (3) The pattern is, 19 + 12 = 19 +

1 = 20

20 22 = 20 4 = 16

16 + 32 = 16 + 9 = 25

25 42 = 25 16 = 9

9 + 52 = 9 + 25 = 34

51. (5) The pattern is, 7.4 + 1.8 = 9.2

9.2 + 2.2 = 11.4

11.4 + 2.6 = 14

14 + 3 = 17

17 + 3.4 = 20.4

52. (3) Total number of balls in the

bag

Total possible outcomes

selection of 2 balls out of 14

balls

Favourable outcomes Selec‐ tion of 2 balls out of 5 red balls

selection of 2 balls out of 3

green balls

Required probability

53. (1) In 120 litres of mixture, Milk

litres

Water

litres

Let litres of milk and litres

of water are mixed.

According to the question,

litres

54. (2) Speed of current kmph

Speed of boat in stillwater

kmph.

Rate upstream

kmph.

Time

Rate down stream

kmph.

Time taken in covering 17.6

km.

hour

(

) minutes

minutes

55. (5) Rs. Rs. Ratio of equivalent capitals of

A and for 1 month

. 1800

Again ratio of equivalent cap‐ itals of A and

. 2700

. (1800 2700)

. 4500

56. (4) Side of square √ metre

Length of rectangle metre

Its breadth metre

Area Sq. metre

57. (3) C.P. for

C.P for

According to the question,

. 1200

C.P. for

. 1440

58. (2) men

women

men women

3 women

women women

part

part

Remaining work

This part of work is done by

10 women.

Required time

days.

59. (4) Investment in scheme

Investment in scheme

S.I.

. 4000

. (4) Required per cent

(

)

61. (2) Required average

(380 480 520 720)

62. (5) Hats sold by stores and

in March

Number of Fedora hats sold

63. (5) Number of hats sold by

stores and in July

of (440 720)

64. (3) Required per cent

65. ‐ ary

. 51200

(

)

. 128000

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14

. 32000

(

)

. 12000

71. 75.

Floo

r No.

Per-

son

Games Alphabeti-

cal Order

7 B Badmin-

ton

A

6 A Polo B

5 L Chess C

4 D Hockey D

3 K Snooker K

2 M Cricket L

1 C Ludo M

83. 85. : T is wife of D. T is moth-

er of R. J is wife of B. H is wife of

R. L is the daughter of B and J. (86

87) : L = P < W < V < K > Q B < L ;

K = M B < L = P < W < V L = P <

W < V < K = M

86. (4) Conclusions I. B < V : True

II. M > P : True

87. (5) Conclusions I. L > Q : Not

True II. W = M : Not True

88. (3) R < U = B < S ; B < X R < U

= B < X Conclusions I. X > R : Not

True II. X = R : Not True X is either

greater than or equal to R. Therefore,

either Conclusion I or Conclusion II

is true.

89. 90. : C > U < S < T = O > D >

Y Z = O < P C > U < S < T = O = Z

< P Z = O > D > Y

89. (2) Conclusions I. U > D: Not

True II. S < P : True

90. (1) Conclusions I. Z > Y: True II.

C < O : Not True

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15

RBI Asst. Pre 2017 (Sitting-2)

English Language Directions (1 10) : Read the following passage carefully

and answer the questions. Certain words/ phrases have

been given in bold to help you locate them while answer-

ing some of the questions.

Over the past few days alone,

has pumped extra cash into the financial system and cut

interest rates.

The aim is to free more cash for banks to lend and pro-

vide a boost for banks seeking to improve the return on

their assets. The official data, though, suggested that bad

loans make up only 1.4 % of their balance sheets. How to

explain the discrepancy? One possible answer is that bad

loans are a tagging indicator, i.e. it is only after the econ-

omy has struggled for a while that borrowers began to

suffer. Looked at this way, China is trying to anticipate

problems, keeping its banks in good health by sustaining

growth of nearly 7% year on year. Another more worry-

ing possibility is that bad loans are worse than official

data indicate. This does not look to be a cause for con-

banks, which are managed con-

servatively and largely focus on the -

value and quality borrowers. But there is mounting evi-

dence that when it comes to smaller banks, especially

those yet to list on the stock market, bad loans are piling

up. That is important because unlisted lenders account for

just over a third of the Chinese banking sector, making

them as big a industry.

Although non-performing loans have edged up slowly,

the increase in special-mention loans (a category that

includes those overdue but not yet classified as impaired

loans.) has been much bigger. Special-mention loans are

about 2% at most of

that such loans must be much higher at their smaller,

unlisted peers. Many of these loans are simple bad debts

which banks have not yet admitted to. Another troubling

fact is that fifteen years ago, the government created

asset-management companies (often referred to as bad

banks) to take on the nonperforming loans of the lenders.

After the initial transfer these companies had little to pay.

But, last year, Cinda, the biggest of the bad banks, bought

nearly 150 billion Yuan ($24 billion) of distressed assets

last year, two-thirds more than in 2013. These assets

would have raised the bank (s) bad-loans ratio by a few

tenths of a percentage point.

Although such numbers do not seem very alarming, ex-

perts who reviewed

which only 20 are listed, found that

loans recorded as investments which may be a disguise

for bad loans have grown to as much as 5.7 billion

Yuan, or are heavily

concentrated on the balance sheets of smaller unlisted

banks, and at the very least, all this points to a need for

recapitalisation of small banks.

1. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in

meaning as the word given in bold as used

in the passage.

(1) delayed (2) breaking

(3) stopping (4) protecting

(5) tying

2. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the

word FREE given in bold as used in the passage?

(1) expensive (2) secret

(3) complimentary (4) restrict

(5) charged

3. According to the passage, which of the following can

be

(A) These are cautiously run.

(B) Their clients are mainly high-value.

(C) 2 per cent of their loans have been classified as over-

due but not impaired.

(1) Only (B) (2) Only (A)

(3) All (A) , (B) and (C)

(4) Only (A) and (C)

(5) Only (B) and (C)

4. Which of the following is the central idea of the pas-

sage?

(1) Small banks should be permitted to become listed on

the stock exchange.

(2) The government should do away with asset manage-

ment companies.

not as serious as it is being

made out to be.

failed out to predict and stop

the decline of its banks.

(5) There is trouble brewing in unlisted

banks.

5. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in

meaning POINTS bold as used in

the passage.

(1) peaks (2) moments

(3) arguments (4) indicates

(5) plugs

6. Which of the following is true in the context of the

passage?

(1) China has not implemented any resources to help its

banking sector in recent times.

banking sector is

unlisted.

plummeted in recent times.

is experiencing a boom

unlike that of China.

(5) None of the given options is true in the context of the

passage.

7. What does the example of Cinda convey?

(1) Many of the loans given by u-

ble.

(2) Many such large Chinese asset management compa-

nies are failing.

dependent on large banks.

(4) China is the ideal destination for small banks to flour-

ish.

(5) Such companies have become obsolete.

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8. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to

the word MOUNTING given in bold as used in the pas-

sage.

(1) melting (2) accumulating

(3) removing (4) submerging

(5) decreasing

9. Which of the following best describes

regarding shadow loans?

(1) Shadow loans have been steadily falling and are neg-

ligent at present.

(2) These are growing substantially and indicate the need

for reform of small banks.

(3) Shadow loans are unfairly being passed on to asset

management companies.

(4) These loans are inconsequential for the health of

banks.

(5) The findings are faulty as there include only a few

listed banks.

10. small banks?

(1) These have a better loan portfolio than large banks.

(2) These are in good health helping us to sustain eco-

nomic growth of 7 per cent.

(3) These should be merged with large banks to bail them

out of trouble.

(4) Regulations governing these banks should be relaxed.

(5) Other than those given as options.

Directions (11 20) : In the following passage, some of

the words have been left out, each of which is indicated

by a number. Find the suitable word from the options

given against each number and fill up the blanks with

appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.

Against the backdrop (11) of the attacks on Indian stu-

dents in Milan, the External Affairs Ministry has told

(12) citizens in Italy not to panic. External Affairs Minis-

ter Sushma Swaraj has received a detailed report on the

situation even as the students met Indian diplomats.

While mobilizing (13) the Indian students of their safety,

the Minister said she was overseeing the

have got the detailed report [on the attacks in Milan].

Please do not worry. I am adjudicating (14) the situation

Ms. Swaraj said in a social media message. The Indian

Students Association for Polimi (Politechnic University

of Milan) said two incidents took place over the past few

days in which a group of people beat up a student and

scraped (15) his mobile phone and another student was

scoured (16) by a gang. Following these incidents, the

Consulate General of India (CGI) in Milan on Monday

issued a/an induction (17) to Indian nationals and stu-

dents has re-

ceived reports of the unfortunate incidents of attacks on

Indian students in Milan. All Indian students are urged

not to panic.

The Consulate is taking up this matter with the highest

level of law and Consu-

late said in the advisory posted on social media plat-

forms. However, associa-

tion said the study (18) needs to be completed and avoid-

ed

reached out to us

offering to help.

Our community is widely targeted (19) in Milan; even the

media in the city has enquired and extended all sorts of

help to create awareness, so I want to state clearly that

Italy remains safe for Indians and Indian

Sandeep said while explaining that the attacks were likely

(20) to be part of a racist plot.

11. (1) rise (2) evidence

(3) increase (4) record

(5) No improvement

12. (1) endorsed (2) urged

(3) backed (4) reproached

(5) No improvement

13. (1) affirming (2) securing

(3) conjuring (4) assuring

(5) No improvement

14. (1) escalating (2) monitoring

(3) testing (4) leading

(5) No improvement

15. (1) plucked (2) secured

(3) snatched (4) obtained

(5) No improvement

16. (1) pelted (2) sweeped

(3) hurtled (4) assaulted

(5) No improvement

17. (1) checklist (2) ruling

(3) advisory (4) assistance

(5) No improvement

18. (1) investigation (2) research

(3) survey (4) observation

(5) No improvement

19. (1) condemned (2) appreciated

(3) criticized (4) ignored

(5) No improvement

20. (1) unlikely (2) thought

(3) guessed (4) sought

(5) No improvement

Directions (21 30) : Read each sentence to find out

whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.

The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The

number of that part is the answer.

as your answer.

21. A lots of real estate companies may come up (1) /

with tempting offers and discounts but buyers should (2) /

always keep their eyes open and must check (3) / whether

all approvals are in place or not. (4) / No error (5)

22. Before investing, (1) / you should look after the (2) /

overall business dynamics of the company (3) / along

with efficient management and good corporate govern-

ance. (4) / No error (5)

23. Unless (1) / he will not understand (2) / the concept

he will not be (3) / able to solve the questions. (4) / No

error (5)

24. The objective of facebook might (1) /be fair but there

are (2) / certain unintended consequences (3) /of what are

disguised as freebies. (4) / No error (5)

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25. This is a strange world (1) / where each one pursues

their (2) / own golden bubble (3) / and laughs at others

for doing the same. (4) / No error (5)

26. One of the major problems with (1) / representative

democracy is that (2) / the business of government has

(3) / become the privilege of few. (4) / No error (5)

27. If two types of economy exists in the country (1) /

either there should be conflict (2) /between the two or (3)

/ one will overwhelm the other. (4) / No error (5)

28. India is the second most populous (1) / country in the

world (2) / and is expected to (3) / take over China by

2030. (4) / No error (5)

29. Though these programmes have proved (1) / to be

extremely (2) / effective (3) / they do have certain draw-

backs (4) /No error (5)

30. Any failure (1) / to complicit (2) / with these funda-

mental (3) / regulations will result in a fine (4) / No error

(5) Quantitative Aptitude Directions (31 35) : Study the following table carefully

to answer the given questions.

Years Place

A B C D E

2011 5.3 3.8 1.5 2.7 1.1

2012 12.5 8.3 3.4 4.8 2.1

2013 16.7 11.7 5.5 6.6 1.8

2014 20.9 13.6 9.8 12.7 3.6

2015 25.8 14.5 11.5 14.1 5.5

2016 30.3 20.9 15.6 15.9 7.8

31. At which place did the monthly rent not increase

continuously from year 2011 to 2016?

(1) A (2) D

(3) C (4) B

(5) E

32. What was the difference between the monthly rent at

B in the year 2015 and D in the year 2013?

(1) Rs. 7600 (2) Rs. 7900

(3) Rs. 8100 (4) Rs. 8600

(5) None of these

33. In which year at A, the monthly rent increased more

than 100 per cent from the previous year?

(1) 2012 (2) 2013

(3) 2014 (4) 2015

(5) 2016

34. Monthly rent at C in the year 2014 was approximately

what per cent of the total monthly rent at E over all the

years together?

(1) 30 (2) 33

(3) 38 (4) 42

(5) 45

35. Which city was most expensive in terms of rent?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) E

36. A person started his journey in the morning. At 11 am

he covered

of his journey and on the same day at 4: 30

pm he covered

of the journey. At what time did he start

his journey?

(1) 6: 00 am (2) 5: 30 am

(3) 07: 00 am (4) 06: 30 am

(5) None of these

37. How much per cent above the cost price should a

shopkeeper mark his goods so as to earn a profit of 32%

after giving a discount of 12% on the marked price?

(1) 52% (2) 50%

(3) 55% (4) 56%

(5) None of these

38. A can do a work in 5 days less than the time taken by

B to do it. If both of them together take

days to

complete the whole work, then what will be the time

do the same work?

(1) 15 days (2) 20 days

(3) 25 days (4) 30 days

(5) None of these

39. Vessels A and B contain mixture of milk and water in

the ratios 4: 5 and 5: 1 respectively.

In what ratio should quantities of mixtures be taken from

A and B to form a mixture in which milk to water is in

the ratio 5: 4 ?

(1) 2: 5 (2) 4: 3

(3) 5: 2 (4) 2: 3

(5) 3: 4

40. Ratio of the earnings of A and B is 4: 7. If the earn-

ings of A is increased by 50% and that of B decrease by

25%, the new ratio of their earnings becomes 8: 7. What

a

(1) Rs. 21,000 (2) Rs. 26,000

(3) Rs. 28,000 (4) None of these

(5) Data inadequate

Directions (41 55) : What will come in place of question

mark (?) in the following questions?

41. 68% of 625 + ?% of 185 = 499

(1) 42 (2) 40

(3) 28 (4) 25

(5) None of these

42. (16 × 4) 3

÷ (4) 5

× (2 × 8) 2

= (4) ?

(1) 5 (2) 6

(3) 3 (4) 8

(5) None of these

43. 126 ÷ 14 × (9) 2

53 = (?) 2

(1) 26 (2) √

(3) 729 (4) 27

(5) √

44.

+

= ?

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(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5) None of these

45. 58.621 13.829 7.302 1.214 = ?

(1) 37.281 (2) 35.272

(3) 36.276 (4) 31.254

(5) None of these

46. ?% of 450 + 46% of 285 = 257.1

(1) 34 (2) 32

(3) 21 (4) 28

(5) None of these

47. 115% of 4880 85% of 1640 = ?

(1) 4218 (2) 4368

(3) 4448 (4) 4628

(5) None of these

48. 3251 + 587 + 369 ? = 3007

(1) 1250 (2) 1300

(3) 1375 (4) 1400

(5) None of these

49. 0.5% of 674 of 0.8% of 225 = ?

(1) 7.066 (2) 9.12

(3) 6.066 (4) 5.17

(5) None of these

50. 56% of 225 + 20% of 150 = ? + 109

(1) 49 (2) 103

(3) 53 (4) 47

(5) None of these

51.

× 2286 +

× 1397 = ?

(1) 916 (2) 1016

(3) 1216

(4) 1026

(5) 1256

52.

+

+

+

= ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5) None of these

53. 14.5% of 740 ?% of 320 = 87.3

(1) 6.75 (2) 6.25

(3) 12.5 (4) 14.75

(5) 8.25

54. (0.125) 3

÷ (0.25) 2× (0.5)

2= (0.5)

?–3

(1) 12 (2) 18

(3) 14 (4) 10

(5) None of these

55. 64.5% of 800 + 36.4% of 1500 = (?) 2

+ 38

(1) 32 (2) 38

(3) 42 (4) 48

(5) 34

56. A train travels 50% faster than a car. Both start from

point A at the same time and reach point B 75 kms away

from A at the same time. On the way, however, the train

lost about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the stations.

What will be the speed of the car?

(1) 100 kmph (2) 110 kmph

(3) 120 kmph (4) 130 kmph

(5) None of these

57. The difference between the S.I.

on a certain amount at the rate of 10% per annum and

compound interest which is compounded every 6 months

for 2 years is Rs. 124.05. What is the principal?

(1) Rs. 6,000 (2) Rs. 8,000

(4) Rs. 12,000 (4) Rs. 8,500

(5) None of these

58. While selling a watch, a shopkeeper gives a discount

of 5%.

If he gives a discount of 6%, he earns Rs. 15 less as prof-

it.

What is the marked price of watch?

(1) Rs. 1250 (2) Rs. 1400

(3) Rs. 1550 (4) Rs. 1350

(5) None of these

59. Walking at 5 kmph a student reaches his school from

his house 15 minutes early and walking at a speed of 3

kmph he is late by 9 minutes. What is the distance be-

tween his school and his house?

(1) 5 km (2) 8 km

(3) 3 km (4) 2 km

(5) None of these

60. A completes

part of a work in 20 days. Then he

completes the rest work with B in 3 days.

How much time will B take alone to complete this work?

(1)

days

(2) 37 days

(3) 40 days

(4) 23 days

(5) None of these

Directions (61 65) : What should come in place of ques-

tion mark (?) in the given number series?

61. 9 62 ? 1854 7415 22244

(1) 433 (2) 309

(3) 406 (4) 371

(5) None of these

62. 4 8 24 60 ? 224

(1) 178 (2) 96

(3) 109 (4) 141

(5) None of these

63. 8000 1600 320 64 12.8 ?

(1) 2.56 (2) 3.5

(3) 3.2

(4) 2.98

(5) None of these

64. 6 9 15 27 51 ?

(1) 84 (2) 99

(3) 123 (4) 75

(5) None of these

65. 7 8 18 ? 232 1165

(1) 84 (2) 42

(3) 57 (4) 36

(5) None of these Reasoning Directions (66 70) : In each of the following questions,

relationship between different elements is shown in the

statements. The statements are followed by two Conclu-

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19

sions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on

the given statements and mark the appropriate answer.

Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion

II are true

Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II

is true

Give answer (3) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion

II is true

Give answer (4) if only Conclusion I is true

Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II is true

66. Statements:

G < C; B > G; E > A > K; B < K

Conclusions:

I. E > C

II. B < C

67. Statements:

A > K; K < M > N; B > N

Conclusions:

I. A > N

II. K < B

68. Statements:

G > S; M > N > G; R > M

Conclusions:

I. G < R

II. S < M

69. Statements:

N > M < S; R > T < J; N > R

Conclusions:

I. S < R

II. S > T

70. Statements:

B < A < D; C > E; B > C

Conclusions:

I. A > E

II. E < A

Directions (71 75) : Study the following information

carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting

around a rectangular table but not necessarily in the same

order. Four persons who sit on each middle side of rec-

tangular table face towards the centre, while other four

persons who sit on the corner of table face outside the

centre. O faces Q. P sits 3rd to the right of R, who sits

2nd to the right of T. Only one person sits between P and

O. M sits 2nd to the right of Q. N sits 3rd to the right of

O.

71. Who among the following sits second to the right of

P?

(1) M (2) Q

(3) S (4)

(5) N

72. Who among the following faces M?

(1) N (2) R

(3) S (4) P

(5) Q

73. Who among the following sits second to the right of

the one who sits third to the left of R?

(1) Q (2) S

(3) P (4) N

(5) T

74. Who among the following sits diagonally opposite to

R?

(1) S (2) O

(3) M (4) N

(5) None of these

75. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way

and hence they form a group based on the given ar-

rangement.

Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) M (2) Q

(3) O (4) P

(5) N

76. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word

APPREHENSIVE, each of which has as many letters

between them in the word (in both forward and backward

directions) as they have between them in the English

alphabet?

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) More than three

(4) One

(5) None

77. from the right and

rank is 21st from the left but Amit who is two

places to the left of Rohit is sitting on the immediate right

of Monika, then how many students are there in the

class?

(1) 45 (2) 39

(3) 42 (4) 44

(5) 46

Directions (78 79) : Study the following information

carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are six boxes i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F which are of

different weight and no two boxes are of same weight.

Only two boxes are heavier than box F. Box A is heavier

than both E and D but is not the heaviest.

Box A is of 25 kg in weight. Box F is heavier than 25 kg.

Box B is heavier than box F but not the heaviest.

78. If box B is 28 kg in weight then what will be the pos-

sible weight of box F?

(1) 26 kg (2) 29 kg

(3) 24.5 kg (4) 33 kg

(5) 35 kg

79. Which of the following box is the lightest among all?

(1) C (2) D

(3) F (4) E

(5) Either (E) or (D)

80. Atul started walking in the east direction from point

P, after walking 4 km he takes a right turn and walks for

6 km to reach at point S, from point S, he takes a left turn

and walks for 4 km to reach point T, then what is the

shortest distance between points P and T?

(1) 11 km (2) 15 km

(3) 9 km (4) 10 km

(5) 12 km

Directions (81 85) : In each of the questions below,

some statements are given followed by Conclusions/

group of Conclusions numbered I and II. You have to

assume all the statements to be true even if they seem to

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be at variance from the commonly known facts and then

decide which of the given two Conclusions logically

follows from the information given in the statements.

Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion

II follow

Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II

follows

Give answer (3) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion

II follows

Give answer (4) if only Conclusion I follows

Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II follows

81. Statements:

All events are bikes.

No bike is race.

All races are laps.

Conclusions:

I. No event is a race.

II. Some events are not laps.

82. Statements:

All subjects are tools.

All tools are instruments.

Some instruments are books.

Conclusions:

I. Some books are subjects.

II. Some tools are books.

83. Statements:

All As are Bs.

Some Bs are Cs.

No C is D.

All Ds are Es.

Conclusions:

I. Some Bs are not Ds.

II. Some Es are not Cs.

84. Statements:

Some apples are oranges.

Some oranges are grapes.

No orange is banana.

Conclusions:

I. Some grapes are not bananas.

II. Some apples are not bananas.

85. Statements:

All notes are books.

No book is a bag.

Some bags are pens.

Conclusions:

I. Some pens are not books.

II. Some notes are pens.

Directions (86 90) : Study the following arrangement

carefully and answer the questions given below:

R 4 P I J M A 3 % T @ © U K 5 V 1 W $ Y 2 E 6 # 9 D

H 8 G & Z N

86. How many such symbols are there in the above ar-

rangement, each of which is immediately followed by a

vowel?

(1) One (2) Three

(3) Two (4) Four

(5) None

87. Which of the following element is exactly in the mid-

dle of 3rd element from the left end and the 10th element

from the right end of the arrangement?

(1) © (2) U

(3) K (4) 5

(5) @

88. How many such vowels are there in the above ar-

rangement each of which is immediately followed by a

number and also immediately preceded by a number?

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) None

(5) One

89. What should come in the place of question-mark (?)

in the following series ?

JAI @UT 1$V ?

(1) 69# (2) 69H

(3) 69E (4) 692

(5) 69Y

90. How many such consonants are there in the above

arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a

vowel and also immediately preceded by a number?

(1) Two (2) None

(3) Three (4) One

(5) More than three

Directions (91 95) : Study the following information

carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H who are

sitting in a row such that some are facing south direction

and some are facing north direction. No two friends are

sitting together according to the alphabetical order. F and

D face the same direction as B is facing. D sits 3rd to the

right of A. The number of persons sitting to the right of G

is equal to the number of persons sitting to the right of D.

A sits at one of the ends. C and E are immediate neigh-

bours but both face opposite directions with respect to

each other.

H sits 4th to the right of C. C does not sit to the left of G.

B sits to the left of C but does not face the same direction

as A. H faces the same direction as A and G are facing.

E does not face south direction.

91. Who among the following sits second to the right of

C?

(1) A (2) G

(3) B (4) D

(5) H

92. How many persons face south direction?

(1) Four (2) Three

(3) One (4) Two

(5) More than four

93. Who among the following sits to the immediate left

of A?

(1) B (2) D

(3) E (4) H

(5) No one

94. Who among the following sits to the immediate left

of B?

(1) C (2) G

(3) A (4) H

(5) No one

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21

95. A is related to F, in the same way as D is related to C

then following the same pattern E is related to:

(1) C (2) G

(3) H (4) B

(5) A

Directions (96 100) : Study the following information

carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are six lectures on different subjects i.e. Chemistry,

Biology, Physics, Maths, Economics and Polity which

are to be conducted on different days of the same week

starting from Monday but not necessarily in the same

order. One of the days is off day which is not Sunday.

There are two days gap between s-

The lecture of Physics is conducted on the day after the

lecture of Economics but not on Friday. There is one day

gap between lecture of Economics and the lecture of

Chemistry.

The lecture of Chemistry is conducted on the day imme-

diately before the lecture of Biology. The lecture of Poli-

ty is conducted on Saturday.

The lecture of Physics is not conducted on Sunday. Lec-

ture of Maths is conducted after the lecture of Physics.

96. Which day of the week is off day?

(1) Tuesday (2) Saturday

(3) Monday (4) Friday

(5) Thursday 97. The lecture of Economics is conducted on which day

of the week?

(1) Wednesday (2) Tuesday

(3) Friday (4) Saturday

(5) Sunday

98. The lecture of Maths is conducted on which day of

the week?

(1) Monday (2) Sunday

(3) Saturday (4) Thursday

(5) Wednesday

99. Which lecture is conducted on Thursday?

(1) Biology (2) Chemistry

(3) Economics

(4) None

(5) Physics

100.How many lectures are conducted before Chemistry?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) None (4) More than three

(5) Three

Answer Key

1. (5) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (5) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (5) 9. (2) 10. (5)

11. (5) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (1)

19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (1) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (2) 26. (4)

27. (1) 28. (4) 29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (5) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (5)

35. (1) 36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (5) 41. (2) 42. (4)

43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (5) 49. (3) 50. (4)

51. (2) 52. (5) 53. (2) 54. (4) 55. (1) 56. (3) 57. (2) 58. (5)

59. (3) 60. (1) 61. (4) 62. (5) 63. (1) 64. (2) 65. (3) 66. (3)

67. (3) 68. (1) 69. (3) 70. (5) 71. (2) 72. (4) 73. (3) 74. (1)

75. (5) 76. (3) 77. (4) 78. (1) 79. (5) 80. (4) 81. (4) 82. (3)

83. (1) 84. (1) 85. (4) 86. (1) 87. (2) 88. (5) 89. (3) 90. (4)

91. (4) 92. (1) 93. (5) 94. (5) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (1) 98. (2)

99. (5) 100. (3)

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22

Solutions: 1. (5) Tagging (Adjective) = adding

as an appendage; attaching; tying.

2. (4) Free (Verb) = release; exempt;

to remove the limits or controls on

something. Restrict (Verb) = keep

under control; put a limit on. Look at

the sentences : Her retirement from

politics will free her (= provide her

with enough time) to write her

memoirs. The government has re-

stricted freedom of movement into

and out of the country.

5. (4) Point (Verb) = indicate; show

the truth. Look at the sentence : The

evidence clearly points to her guilt.

8. (5) Mounting (Adjective) = grad-

ually increasing. Its antonym should

be decreasing.

11. (5) Backdrop (Noun) = the gen-

eral situation in which particular

events happen.

12. (2) Urge (Verb) = to strongly

advise or try to persuade someone to

do a particular thing.

13. (4) Mobilize (Verb) = to prepare

something, such as a group of peo-

ple, for a purpose. Assure (Verb) =

to tell something confidently that

something is true.

14. (2) Adjudicate (Verb) = judge,

adjudge; to act as judge in a compe-

tition or argument or argument.

Monitor (Verb) = to watch and

check a situation carefully for a pe-

riod of time.

15. (3) Scrape (Verb) = to remove an

unwanted covering or a top layer

from something. Snatch (Verb) = to

take hold of something suddenly and

roughly.

16. (4) Scour (Verb) = to remove dirt

from something by rubbing it hard.

Assault (Verb) = to attack someone

violently.

17. (3) Induction (Noun) = an occa-

sion when someone is formally in-

troduced into a new job or organisa-

tion. Advisory (Noun) = an official

announcement that contains advice,

information or a warning.

18. (1) Investigation (Noun) = the

act of examining a crime, problem

etc. carefully, especially to discover

the truth.

19. (2) Target (Verb) = select as an

object of attention or attack ; pick

out. Appreciate (Verb) = to recog-

nise how good something is and to

value it.

20. (1) Unlikely = not probable or

likely to happen. Look at the sen-

tence : The lack of evidence means

that the case is unlikely to go to

court.

21. (1) A lot of = lots of = a large

number or amount ; a great deal

Look at the sentences : She eats lots

of fruit. There were a lot of people

there. Hence, A lot of real estate.....

should be used here.

22. (2) Look after = take care of

Look at = used when you are telling

someone to be careful or to pay at-

tention Hence, you should look at

the .... should be used here.

23. (2) Unless = except if Look at

the sentence :

unless you have experience. Hence,

he understands (Pres ent Simple) ....

should be used here.

24. (4) Here, Past tense i.e. of what

were disguised as freebies should be

used.

25. (2) The possessive pronoun of

each one should be . Hence,

where each one pursues his ......

should be used here.

26. (4) Here, become the privilege of

the few .... should be used. the few =

rare. e.g. the few black rhino left.

27. (1) Here, If two types of econo-

my/ economics is a plural subject.

Hence, plural subject i.e. exist in the

country .... should be used.

28. (4) Take over = to take control of

Overtake = to go past something by

being a greater amount or degree.

Hence, overtake China by 2030

should be used here.

29. p-

er.

30. (2) Complicit (Adjective) = in-

volved in or knowing about a crime

or some activity that is wrong. Look

at the sentence : She was accused of

being complicit in her

death. Comply (Verb) = to act ac-

cording to an order, set of rules or

request. Look at the sentence : There

are serious penalties for failure to

comply with the regulations. Hence,

to comply .... should be used here.

31. (5) It is obvious from the table.

The montly rent at place E decreased

in 2013.

32. (2) Required difference

= Rs. (14.5 6.6) × 1000

= Rs. (7.9 × 1000) = Rs. 7900

33. (1) Percentage increase in

monthly rent in 2012 at place

(

)

34. (5) Total monthly rent at place Rs. thousand

. 21.9 thousand

Required per cent

35. (1) City A is the most expensi-

tive place. It is obvious from

the table.

36. (4) Period of time between

11 a.m. and 4:30

hours

Distance covered (

) part

(

) part

part

Time taken in covering

th part of distance

hours

Time taken in covering

th part of distance

hours

hours

Time when the journey was

started 37. (2) Let the C.P. of article be Rs.

100 and its marked price be Rs.

According to the question,

(100‐12) % of

. 150 i.e. 50% above the C.P.

38. (3) Let the time taken by be

days.

Time taken by days.

According to the question,

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23

because

39. (3) . (5) Rs. Rs.

According to the question,

No result is obtained.

41. (2)

100

42. (4)

43. (1)

44. (2) ?

(

)

(

)

45. (3) ? 7.302 1.214)

46. (4)

47. (1) ?

48. (5) 325

49. (3) ?

. (4)

51. (2)

52. (5) ?

(

)

(

)

53. (2)

54. (4) (0.5)

2

(0.5) 2

(0.5) 2

(0.5) 7

55. (1)

56. (3) Speed of car kmph.

Speed of train

kmph.

According to the question,

Time

kmph.

57. (2) Let the principal be Rs.

Case II,

Rate per half year

Time half‐ years

C.I. [(

)

]

*(

)

+

[(

) ] (

)

According to the question,

. 8000

58. (5) Marked price of watch

According to the question,

(95‐94) % of

. 1500

59. (3) Let the required distance be

km.

Difference in time minutes

hour

hour

According to the question,

km.

. (1) A does

th of work in 20

days.

Time taken by A in doing 1

work

days

Remaining work

Time taken by in

doing 1 work days

Required time

days

61. (4) The pattern is :

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24

62. (5) The pattern is :

124

63. (1) The pattern is :

64. (2) The pattern is :

9 6

15

27 24 99

65. (3) The pattern is :

57

66. (3) G < C; B > G; E > A > K; B

< K E > A > K > B > G < C Conclu-

sions I. E > C : Not True II. B < C :

Not True

67. (3) A > K; K < M > N; B > N A

> K < M > N K < M > N < B Con-

clusions I. A > N : Not True II. K <

B : Not True

68. (1) G > S; M > N > G; R > M R

> M > N > G M > N > G > S Con-

clusions I. G < R : True II. S < M :

True

69. (3) N > M < S; R > T < J; N > R

R < N > M < S T < R < N > M S

Conclusions : I. S < R : Not True II.

S > T : Not True

70. (5) B < A < D ; C > E ; B > C E

< C < B < A < D Conclusions I. A >

E : Not True Ii. E < A : True (91 95)

:

91. (4) D sits second to the right of

C.

92. (1) Four persons F, D,C and B

face the south direction.

93. (5) A faces north. A sits at the

west end.

94. (5) B faces south. B sits at the

east end.

95. (2) Only one person sits between

A and F. Only one person sits be-

tween D and C. Similarly, there is

only one person between E and G.

96. 100.

Day Subjects

Monday Chemistry

Tuesday Biology

Wednesday Economics

Thursday Physics

Friday HOLIDAY

Saturday Polity

Sunday Maths

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25

RBI Asst. 2017 (Sitting-3)

English Language Directions (1 5) : In each of the given sentences there

are two blank spaces. Below each sentence five pairs

of words have been given.

Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the

blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make

the sentence meaningfully complete.

1. The incident has _______ severe damage to the

______ of the employees.

(1) resulted optimism

(2) led emotions

(3) produced conduct

(4) contributed integrity

(5) caused morale

2. ______ investing in technology, the company has

been ______ to compete globally.

(1) For trying (2) Despite gradual

(3) While clear (4) Since enable

(5) By able

3. The root _______ of slow reduction in poverty is

_______ of investment in agriculture.

(1) purpose increase

(2) reason hike

(3) cause lack (4) effect incidence

(5) consequence plunge

4. You have unfairly _______ his success to the fact

that he is well _______.

(1) reduced behaved

(2) doubted adjusted

(3) excused educated

(4) attributed connected

(5) rated-known

5. To ________ the problems of the region it is

________ to interact with the local people.

(1) discover necessity

(2) understand essential

(3) rsearch advice

(4) manage needful

(5) focus better

Directions (6 10) : In each of the following ques-

tions, a sentence with four words in bold type is giv-

en.

One of these four words given in bold may be either

wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the

sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or

inappropriate, if any. That word is your answer. If all

the words given in bold are correctly spelt and also

appropriate in the context of

your answer.

6. The government has permitted foreign direct in-

vestment in digitail service providers upto a limit of

50 percent.

(1) permitted (2) digitail

(3) service (4) percent

(5) All correct

7. A bank gift card is usually a prepaid card which

can be used in an ATM to cheque the balance but one

cannot withdraw cash.

(1) usually (2) prepaid

(3) cheque (4) withdraw

(5) All correct

8. He first joinned the Board of Directors two years

ago and has expressed his concerns at various global

debates.

(1) joinned (2) ago

(3) various (4) global

(5) All correct

9. The waste amount of information available today

has created a more knowledgeable public.

(1) waste (2) amount

(3) information (4) public

(5) All correct

10. Some of the steps taken over the late few months

have made the tax return filing process simpler.

(1) steps (2) late

(3) filing (4) simpler

(5) All correct

Directions (11 18) : Read each of these sentences to

find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.

The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.

Select the part with the error as your answer. If there

is no error,

Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

11. The two-part documentary (1) / is a critique of the

education system (2) / and its impacting (3) / on up-

liftment of women. (4) / No error

(5)

12. All the Airlines is (1) / using the increased aware-

ness (2) / about security to impose a new (3) / code of

conduct among passengers. (4) / No error (5)

13. They treated themselves (1) / to ice creams (2) /

and were all set of explore (3) / the markets of the city.

(4) / No error (5)

14. He used to help his (1) /

and clean of the house (3) / at an incredible speed. (4)

/ No error (5)

15. One afternoon, the crocodile (1) / was resting be-

side a stone near (2) / the pond, when two fishermen

(3) / stopped there to drinking water. (4) / No error

(5)

16. My brother and I are (1) / going to tell her that

scientists (2) / are here to take crystals away, (3) /

which is how everyone is crying. (4) / No error (5)

17. All of them met after a hour (1) / at the same spot

and were (2) / counting money spread (3) / out on a

blanket. (4) / No error

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26

(5)

18. The fishermen took (1) / the foolish fishes to the

(2) / market and sale (3) / them for a good profit. (4) /

No error (5)

Directions (19 30) : Read the following passage and

answer the given questions. Certain words/ phrases are

given in bold to help you locate them while answering

some of the questions.

There was once a king who died leaving four sons.

The other three princes were extremely jealous of the

youngest and conspired against him making him leave

the palace. The queen went along with him (her be-

loved son) . Now one day they were by the river when

they spotted an abandoned boat.

The young prince saw it and immediately began to

plan a voyage.

His mother pleaded. But the young prince was deter-

mined to seek his fortune with or without her. So at

last the queen got into the boat.

They set sail and journeyed for days till the river met

the sea.

They journeyed on and on till land was no longer visi-

ble and came upon a whirlpool . Strange red rocks

were floating and disappearing from sight. As their

boat drew alongside one such rock they could see it

was ruby. The prince cast a net and drew in a dozen

large rubies.

As he drew them on board,

they belong to someone who was shipwrecked and

overboard, keeping just one which he hid among his

clothes from his mother. They sailed on and at last

came to a port. When they came ashore they realised it

was the capital of a great king. They took some cheap

rooms on the city outskirts.

Now the prince was still young and longed for compa-

ny of his age after working for a local merchant all

day. One day he came upon some youth of the town

playing marbles and they invited him to join them. But

in their game as he had no marbles of

his own. On the spur of the moment he used the red

ruby. Now it so happened that the princess was pass-

ing by and seeing the brilliant n-

chanted.

When she reached the palace she told her father that

she had never seen such a marble and would like to

possess it. The king ordered that the boy and the mar-

ble be brought to the the

brilliant stone he realised it was a so rare a gem that he

would be the envy of all.

He asked the boy how he had come upon it. The boy

said that he had got it from the sea. The king offered a

thousand rupees for the marble and the boy not realis-

ing its true value readily parted with it. He took the

money to his mother who was a little frightened won-

dering if he had stolen it for they had nothing of such

value to sell. On learning where he had got the money

she calmed down. Now at the palace the princess hap-

pily put the ruby in her hair but her

princess puts princess

went to her father in n-

other

The king sent for the boy. He was unable to describe

exactly where he had found the ruby but volunteered

to go in search of more. The king offered the boy a

handsome reward for he loved his daughter.

The boy went his home and told his mother that he

had to set off.

She was frightened but nothing could deter him. He

set off and finally after many days and getting out

several times he came upon the whirlpool. This time

though he wanted to discover the source of the rubies.

He dived into the gap in the middle of the whirlpool

and reached a beautiful palace. There he saw a young

girl imprisoned and as her tears fell on the beautiful

red corral these were transformed into rubies. Seeing

the plight of the girl he was moved and picked up one

of the golden rods lying outside her prison to break the

lock when the rod floated from his hand and touched

the bars which melted away. The girl was astonished

to see the boy and the two quickly ran from the palace

before the witch who had imprisoned her there real-

ised. The two made off with some of the rubies and

returned to the king who rewarded them. They were

married and lived happily ever after and the whirlpool

was never found again.

19. Which of the fol lowing is most nearly the OPPO-

SITE of the word TRUE as used in the passage?

(1) evil (2) disloyal

(3) untrustworthy

(4) wrong

(5) All the given options.

20. Which of the following can be said about the

(A) She loved her youngest son very much.

(B) She sometimes gave into her

(C) She was honest.

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (C)

(3) Only (A) and (B)

(4) Only (B) and (C)

(5) All (A) , (B) and (C)

21. How did the king react to the

(1) He himsel f set off in search of the rubies.

(2) He tried to distract her with other jewels.

(3) He banished her to her room with only her parrot

for company.

(4) He tried to meet them.

(5) Not mentioned in the passage.

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27

22. What made the boy pick up the golden rod?

(1) He wanted to take it back to the king and sell it.

(2) To rescue the girl trapped in the palace.

(3) To fish out more rubies from the whirlpool.

(4) To defend himself from

on him.

(5) Not mentioned in the passage

23. Why did the prince dive into the whirlpool?

(1) To discover the source of the rubies.

(2) To rescue the princess.

(3) To destroy the palace so that no one else would get

such rubies.

(4) He enjoyed swimming.

(5) None of the given options.

24. Why did the prince leave his palace/home?

(1) The king had banished him and the queen.

(2) His elder brothers plotted against him.

(3) He was adventurous and wanted to travel.

(4) He wanted to marry a princess from a distant land.

(5) None of the given options.

25. Which of the fol lowing is most nearly the OPPO-

SITE of the word BRILLIANT as used in the passage?

(1) dull (2) unintelligent

(3) foolish (4) unaware

(5) All the given options

26. Why did the boy play with the ruby?

(1) He knew the princess was passing by and wanted

to impress her.

(2) He wanted to participate in the game the other

boys were playing and used it as a plaything.

(3) he knew that it would fetch a handsome price.

(4) His mother would not allow him to sell it at any

cost.

(5) None of the given options.

27. Which of the fol lowing is most nearly the same in

meaning as the word CAST as used in the passage?

(1) actors (2) moulded

(3) stereotyped (4) threw

(5) selected

28. Which of the following is/are true in the context of

the story?

(1) The prince was foolish not to marry the princess.

(2) The rubies were cursed

(3) The king did not pay the boy the true worth of the

ruby the first time.

(4) The young prince was dishonest and untrustwor-

thy.

(5) All the given options are not true in the context of

the story.

29. Which of the fol lowing is most nearly the SAME

in meaning as the word SPOTTED as used in the pas-

sage?

(1) dirty (2) multicoloured

(3) saw (4) stained

(5) difficulty

30. Which of the following does not describe the prin-

cess?

(1) Stubborn (2) Demanding

(3) Determined (4) Malicious

(5) All the given options

Quantitative Aptitude 31. Rs. 4,800 was invested at 10 per cent per annum

compound interest (compounded annually) and a cer-

tain sum was invested at 20 per cent per annum com-

pound interest (compounded annually) .

After 2 years the total interest accrued from both the

schemes was Rs. 3472. What was the sum invested at

20 per cent per annum compound interest (compound-

ed annually) ?

(1) Rs. 6000 (2) Rs. 5800

(3) Rs. 5600 (4) Rs. 5200

(5) Rs. 6400

Directions (32 41) : What will come in place of ques-

tion mark

(?) in the given questions?

32. 34

× ? ÷ 9–2

= 311

(1) 36 (2) 144

(3) 9 (4) 81

(5) 729

33. √ √ =

of (?

2 ÷ 120)

(1) 60 (2) 36

(3) 40 (4) 30

(5) 20

34. 22% of 550 = (? 54) 2

(1) 69 (2) 75

(3) 68 (4) 65

(5) 72

35. 958 ?2

+ 50 = 684

(1) 20 (2) 24

(3) 22 (4) 16

(5) 18

36. ?% of (4.5 × 4 + 24) = 21

(1) 20 (2) 50

(3) 60 (4) 40

(5) 30

37. (32.5 7.5) × 5 = 50 × ?

(1) 1.5 (2) 2.5

(3) 3.5 (4) 0.5

(5) 2.4

38. ?% of 240 23 = 157

(1) 70 (2) 65

(3) 85 (4) 75

(5) 80

39. (

) ÷ ? =

(1)

(2)

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28

(3)

(4)

(5)

40. ? ÷ 7.5 × 4 121 = 79

(1) 364 (2) 375

(3) 372 (4) 381

(5) 365

41. ? ÷ 1.75 4.5 = √

(1) 21 (2) 42

(3) 35 (4) 14

(5) 28

42. Two pipes can fill a tank in 30 hours and 45 hours

respectively.

A third pipe (Z) can empty the tank in x hours. If all

the pipes are opened and function simultaneously,

50% of the tank will be full in

hours. What is the

value of x?

(1) 60 (2) 75

(3) 45 (4) 50

(5) 90

43. A, B and C started a business by investing Rs.

8400, Rs. 9600 and Rs. 14000 respectively.

All of them invested for

share in annual profit was Rs. 12,600, what was the

sum of profit?

(1) Rs. 16,200 (2) Rs. 16,900

(3) Rs. 23,400 (4) Rs. 15,600

(5) Rs. 14,300

44. Four years hence, Rashmi wil l be hal f of Jas-

present age. Two years ago, the ratio between

time was 1: 3

respectively. If Jasmine is 12 years elder to Anna,

3 years hence? (in years)

(1) 33 (2) 20

(3) 29 (4) 23

(5) 26

45. There was 96 litre of pure milk in a vessel. 12

litres of pure milk was taken out and replaced with

equal quantity of water. Again 16 litres of mixture was

taken out and replaced with x litre water.

After this, respective ratio of milk and water in the

resultant mixture became 10: 3.

What is the value of x?

(1) 13 (2) 11

(3) 15 (4) 14

(5) 7

46. The side of a square of area 196 cm2

is equal to the

breadth of a rectangle of perimeter equal to 60 cm.

What is the area of the rectangle?

(in cm2)

(1) 258 (2) 244

(3) 232 (4) 216

(5) 224

47. Item A was sold at 60% profit.

If it was marked 100% above its cost price, what was

the percentage discount offered?

(1) 10 (2) 12.5

(3) 17.5

(4) 20

(5) 25

48. 16 men or 20 women can finish a work in 25 days.

How many days 28 men and 15 women will take to

finish this job?

(1)

(2)

(3) 8 (4) 10

(5) None of these

49. The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the

average weight of A and B be 45 kg and that of B and

C be 43 kg, than the weight of B is

(1) 17 kg (2) 20 kg

(3) 26 kg (4) 31 kg

(5) None of these

Directions (50 54) : What will come in place of ques-

tion mark

(?) in the given number series?

52. 3328 832 208 52 ? 3.25

(1) 7.5 (2) 11

(3) 13 (4) 15

(5) 10

51. 9 22 37 55 77 ?

(1) 105 (2) 97

(3) 115 (4) 99

(5) 104

52. 7 6 8 15 29 ?

(1) 46 (2) 52

(3) 48 (4) 50

(5) 54

53. 3 8 23 68 ? 608

(1) 198 (2) 203

(3) 212 (4) 199

(5) 215

54. 31 58 122 247 463 ?

(1) 796 (2) 806

(3) 810 (4) 792

(5) 824

55. The time taken by a boat to cover 84 km down-

stream is 2 hours 48 minutes. The speed of the boat

upstream is 24 km/h. What is the total time taken to

cover 60 km upstream and the same distance down-

stream?

(1) 4 hrs. 20 mins.

(2) 4 hrs. 30 mins.

(3) 5 hrs. 50 mins.

(4) 5 hrs. 30 mins.

(5) 6 hrs. 30 mins.

Directions (56 60) : Study the table and answer the

given questions.

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29

Month

Gymnasium

May

June

July

August

September

A 160 170 150 180 180

B 240 200 210 240 250

C 220 280 250 260 225

D 180 195 200 190 185

56. What was the difference between total number of

people who visited Gymnasiums C and D together in

June and those who visited the same gymnasiums

together in August?

(1) 20 (2) 15

(3) 35 (4) 25

(5) 30

57. What was the average number of people who vis-

ited Gymnasiums A, B and D in September?

(1) 216 (2) 195

(3) 190 (4) 210

(5) 205

58. What was the respective ratio of number of people

who visited Gymnasium C in May to total number of

people who visited Gymnasium A in May and June

together?

(1) 5: 6 (2) 7: 8

(3) 3: 4 (4) 3: 5

(5) 2: 3

59. Out of the number of people who visited Gymna-

sium A in August, if

th were females, how many

were males?

(1) 84 (2) 96

(3) 80 (4) 100

(5) 128

60. Total number of people who visited Gymnasium B

in June and July together was what per cent more than

number of people who visited Gymnasium C in July?

(1) 48 (2) 56

(3) 36 (4) 44

(5) 64

61. The population of a village in 2013 was 3168. It

decreased from 2011 to 2012 by 20% and increased

from 2012 to 2013 by 10%. If in 2011 the number of

females was 1840, what was the respective ratio be-

tween the number of females and that of males in

2011?

(1) 25: 21 (2) 23: 21

(3) 26: 21 (4) 23: 22

(5) 25: 22

62. An interest of Rs. 1680 is earned when a certain

sum is invested for 5 years in Scheme-A offering sim-

ple interest at the rate of 12% per annum. If the same

sum was invested for 3 years in Scheme-B offering

simple interest at the rate of 14% per annum, what will

be the interest earned? (in Rs.)

(1) 1176 (2) 1088

(3) 1124 (4) 1512

(5) 1248

63. A man covers the first part of his journey by car-A

x x distance

at 85 km/h in 6 hours by car B. If the total distance

covered by him by both cars together was 750 km,

what is the total time taken by him to complete the

journey?

(1) 8 hours (2) 9 hours

(3) 10 hours (4) 6 hours

(5) 5 hours

64. The average scores of P, Q and R in Test-A was

80 marks. In Test-A, P scored 4 marks less than Q. In

Test-B, P got 6 marks less and Q got 4 marks more (as

compared to their respective scores in Test-A) ; and

scores was 144 marks. What

was the difference between

Test- A?

(1) 12 marks (2) 16 marks

(3) 14 marks (4) 18 marks

(5) 23 marks

65. Five tables and eight chairs corst Rs. 7350. Three

tables and five chairs cost Rs. 4475.

The price of a table is

(1) Rs. 950 (2) Rs. 325

(3) Rs. 925 (4) Rs. 350

(5) None of these

Reasoning 66. In the word CITRUS, the letter immediately be-

fore each vowel is replaced with the next alphabet (as

per the English alphabetical order) and all others re-

main unchanged.

Which of the following letters did not appear in the

word thus formed?

(1) I (2) V

(3) T (4) S

(5) D

67. In a certain code language, SHOUT is written as

*$59# and HATES is written as $4#6*. How will

HOUSE be coded in the same code language?

(1) $59#2 (2) 6$295

(3) #95$6 (4) Cannot be determined

(5) $59*6

Directions (68 70) : In each of the following ques-

tions, relationship between different elements is

shown in the statements.

The statements are followed by two Conclusions

numbered I and

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II. Study the Conclusions based on the given statement

and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclu-

sion II are true

Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion

II is true

Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I is true

Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true

Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclu-

sion II is true

68. Statements:

G < I = A < N < T

Conclusions:

I. G < T

II. G = T

69. Statements:

B < C = X > Y < Z

Conclusions:

I. B > Z

II. B = Z 70. Statements:

G < H < R > S = T > U

Conclusions:

I. R > G

II. H > U

Directions (71 72) : Study the following information

carefully and answer the questions given below:

A is 8m west of M. L is 9m north of A. Q is 3m west

of L. R is 14m south of Q. W is 15m east of R.

71. In which direction is M with respect to R?

(1) North-East (2) North-West

(3) North (4) South-East

(5) East

72. If C is 5m north of W, then what will be the dis-

tance between A and C?

(1) 15m (2) None of the given

options

(3) 12m (4) 5m

(5) 8m

Directions (73 75) : Study the following information

carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six people A, B, C, D, E and F bought different

number of books from a store. C bought more books

from only two people. A bought less books than only

F. E bought more books than both B and C. B did not

buy the least number of books. The one who bought

second lowest number of books bought 9 books.

73. If E bought 15 books, then how many books did C

possibly buy?

(1) 7 (2) 20

(3) 8 (4) 17

(5) 13

74. How many books did B buy?

(1) 16 (2) 7

(3) 9 (4) Cannot be determined

(5) 2

75. Who bought the third highest number of books?

(1) None of the given options

(2) E

(3) D (4) A

(5) C

Directions (76 80) : Study the following information

carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six people A, B, C, P, Q and R cleared their promo-

tion exam in different months of the same year- Janu-

ary, March, June, September, November and Decem-

ber. B cleared his exam after the eighth month of the

year but before November.

Only one person cleared the exam between B and C.

As many people cleared their exam before C as after

Q. A cleared his exam in one of the months between B

and

Q. Only two people cleared their exams between A

and R.

76. If X cleared his exam in one of the calendar

months between those of B and R, then in which

month did X clear is exam?

(1) February (2) Either April or May

(3) October (4) None of the given

options

(5) Either July or August

77. In which month did R clear his exam?

(1) March (2) December

(3) June (4) January

(5) November

78. As per the given arrangement, Q is related to P in

the same way as B is related to

C. Following the same pattern, to whom is A related?

(1) Either R or B

(2) B

(3) Either B or Q

(4) Q

(5) R

79. How many people have cleared their exam before

Q?

(1) Two (2) More than three

(3) One (4) None

(5) Three

80. Which of the following statements is true with

respect to the given arrangement?

I. C cleared his exam in a month having 31 days.

II. C cleared his exam in one of the months before B.

III. No one cleared an exam between B and R.

(1) Both I and III

(2) Only I

(3) Both II and III

(4) Only II

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31

(5) All I, II and III

81. of the number

4782659 and odd digits,

then which of the following digits will appear twice in

the new number thus formed?

(1) 7, 2 (2) 1, 5, 9

(3) 7, 9 (4) 1, 9

(5) 5, 3, 7

Directions (82 85) : In each of the following ques-

tions, two or three statements followed by two Con-

clusions numbered I and II have been given. You have

to take the given statements to be true even if they

seem to be at variance from the commonly known

facts and then decide which of the given Conclusions

logically follows from the given statements.

Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclu-

sion II follow

Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion

II follows

Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I follows

Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II follows

Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclu-

sion II follows

82. Statements:

Some sketches are paintings.

All paintings are drawings.

Some drawings are letters.

Conclusions:

I. Al l sketches can never be drawings.

II. No painting is a letter.

83. Statements:

All cubes are spheres.

Some spheres are triangles.

Conclusions:

I. No cube is a triangle.

II. All spheres are cubes.

(84 85) : Statements:

Some juices are drinks.

All drinks are snacks.

No snack is cookie.

84.

Conclusions:

I. All juices can never be cookies.

II. Atleast some juices are snacks.

85.

Conclusions:

I. No drink is a cookie.

II. Atleast some juices are cookies.

Directions (86 90) : The following questions are

based on five words given below:

CAR BET AIR PIE USE

(The new words formed after performing the men-

tioned operations may or may not necessarily be

meaningful English words)

86. If the first letter of the second, third and fourth

words

(from the left) are used to make a meaningful English

word, then which word will be formed?

(1) More than one word can be formed

(2) TUB

(3) No word can be formed

(4) RUB

(5) BAP

87. If all the letters in each of the given words are

rearranged in alphabetical order within the word, in

which of the following words will the last alphabet be

a vowel?

(1) Only USE (2) Both BET and AIR

(3) Only BET (4) Only CAR

(5) Both AIR and PIE

88. If in each of the given words, each of the conso-

nants is changed to the previous letter in the English

alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed

will all the letters be vowels (same or different vow-

els) ?

(1) Two (2) One

(3) All the given words

(4) Four

(5) Three

89. each of the given

words, how many meaningful English words will be

formed?

(1) One (2) Four

(3) Two (4) None

(5) Three

90. If the given words are arranged in the order as they

would appear in an English dictionary from left to

right, which of the following will be second from the

right?

(1) USE (2) CAR

(3) BET (4) PIE

(5) AIR

Directions (91 95) : Study the following arrangement

of letters, numbers and symbols carefully and answer

the questions given below:

V J T & 9 H % # Y 5 @ 7 P * A 2 π M 4 Φ K 6 F + 8

G

91. How many symbols are there between the fifth and

the sixteenth elements from the left end?

(1) Five (2) Two

(3) More than five

(4) Three

(5) Four

92. If only one meaningful English word can be made

using the letters between the seventh and the seven-

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32

teenth elements from the left end, what will be the last

letter of that word?

(1) Y (2) M

(3) P (4) More than one word

can be formed using the given letters

(5) H

93. If all the symbols are deleted, then which of the

following will be the tenth element from the right end?

(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 2 (4) P (5) A

94. If all letters and symbols are deleted, then what

will be the sum of the first, third and fifth elements

from the left end?

(1) 17 (2) 10

(3) 20 (4) 14

(5) None of the given options

95. Which of the following is the eighth element to the

right of 7?

(1) F (2) Φ

(3) π (4) 6

(5) M

96. If it is possible to make only one meaningful Eng-

lish word with the first, the fourth, the fifth and the

seventh letters from the left of the word EVACUA-

TION, using all the letters but each letter only once,

which would be the second letter of the word from the

left end? If more than one such word can be formed,

give word can be

as your answer.

(1) Y (2) Z

(3) U (4) T

(5) C

97. In a straight line of 17 people

(all facing north) , B sits fifth from the right end of the

line.

Only six people sit between B and L. Q is an immedi-

ate neighbour of L. T sits fifth to the left of Q. The

number of people sitting between T and B is double of

that between Q and C. What is the position of C from

the left end of the line?

(1) Cannot be determined

(2) Ninth

(3) Twelfth (4) Fourth

(5) First

Directions (98 100) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given be-

low:

B is married to S. G is the brother of B. A is the father

of G. R is the only daughter of A. R is the mother of P.

G is married to E.

98. How is B related to P?

(1) Uncle (2) Aunt

(3) Cousin (4) Brother-in-law

(5) Sister-in-law

99. If Q is the mother-in-law of S, then how is Q relat-

ed to R?

(1) Sister-in-law

(2) Mother-in-law

(3) Grandmother (4) Aunt

(5) Mother

100. How is A related to E?

(1) Brother (2) Uncle

(3) Grandfather (4) Father-in-law

(5) Father Answer Key

1. (5) 2. (5) 3. (3) 4. (5) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (1) 10.

(2) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (4) 16. (4) 17. (1) 18.

(3) 19. (4) 20. (5) 21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26.

(2) 27. (4) 28. (5) 29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (3) 32. (5) 33. (1) 34.

(4) 35. (5) 36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42.

(1) 43. (1) 44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (5) 47. (4) 48. (4) 49. (4) 50.

(3) 51. (5) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (2) 56. (4) 57. (5) 58.

(5) 59. (3) 60. (5) 61. (4) 62. (1) 63. (1) 64. (5) 65. (1) 66.

(2) 67. (5) 68. (2) 69. (5) 70. (3) 71. (1) 72. (3) 73. (5) 74.

(3) 75. (2) 76. (3) 77. (5) 78. (2) 79. (4) 80. (1) 81. (5) 82.

(5) 83. (5) 84. (1) 85. (1) 86. (5) 87. (1) 88. (2) 89. (3) 90.

(4) 91. (5) 92. (1) 93. (4) 94. (3) 95. (2) 96. (3) 97. (5) 98.

(1) 99. (5) 100. (4)

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33

Solutions: 1. (5) Cause (Verb) = make some-

thing happen. Morale (Noun) = the

amount of confidence felt by a per-

son.

2. (5) Able (Adjective) = having the

means to do something.

3. (3) Lack (Noun) = not sufficient or

enough; deficiency

4. (5) Rate (Verb) = consider to be of

a certain quality or standard.

5. (2) Understand (Verb) = to know

why or why something happens.

6. (2) The correct spelling is digi-

tal.

7. (3) The appropriate word is

check (= examine)

8. (1) The correct spelling is

joined. Join (Verb) = to become a

member of an organisation.

9. (1) Waste (Adjective) = useless;

discarded. Vast (Adjective) = ex-

tremely big Hence, the appropriate

word is vast.

10. (2) The appropriate word is

last.

11. (3) Here, after its, Noun i.e. and

its impact..... should be used.

12. (1) All the Airlines is a Plural

Subject. Hence, Plural Verb i.e. All

the Airlines are..... should be used.

13. (3) Infinitive = to + V1 Hence,

and were all set to explore..... should

be used here.

14. (3) The use of preposition of is

superfluous.

15. (4) Infinitive = to + V1 Hence,

stopped there to drink water.....

should be used here.

16. (4) Which is why is used to in-

troduce a sub-ordinate clause.

Hence, which is why..... should be

used here.

17. (1) Hour Vowel sound Hence,

All of them met after an hour.....

should be used here.

18. (3) The sentence shows past

time. Hence, Past Simple i.e., market

and sold..... should be used here.

19. (4) True (Adjective) = accurate or

exact. Its antonym should be wrong.

25. (1) Brilliant (Adjective) = very

bright; shining. Its antonym should

be dull which means : lacking

brightness.

27. (4) Cast (Verb) = throw some-

thing forcefully. Look at the sen-

tence : He cast the book down on to

the chair angrily.

29. (3) Spot (Verb) = see, notice,

observe. Look at the sentence : The

police spotted him driving a stolen

car.

(3) Case I,

C.I. [(

)

]

[(

) ]

[(

) ]

. 1008

Case II,

Principal

C.I. [(

) ]

[(

) ]

[(

) ]

(

) Rs.

According to the question,

Rs. 5600

32. (5) √ (3)

33. (1) √ √

√ √

34. (4)

35. (5) 1008 ?2

36. (2)

37. (2) ?

?

38. (4)

39. (2) (

)

(

)

40. (2) ?

121 79

41. (1)

42. (1) Time taken in filling half

of the tank

hours

Time taken in filling the

tank fully

hours

According to the question,

hours

43. (1) Ratio of the shares of

and : 9600: 14000

. 16200

44. (4) Two years ago

years

years

years

4 years hence from today,

years

According to the question,

2

years

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34

years

years

45. (2) Case I,

Milk: Water : : 1

In 16 litres of mixture,

Milk

litres

Water litres

According to the question,

litres

46. (5) Perimeter of rectangle

cm.

cm. (i)

Side of square √ cm.

Width of rectangle cm.

cm.

Area of rectangle sq. cm.

47. (4) C.P. of article . 100

Its marked price

S.P. of article Rs. 160

Discount . (200 160)

If discount , then

48. (4) 16 men women

4 men women

28 men women

men men

days

49. (4) A + B + C = 45 × 3 = 135 kg

... (i)

A + B = 2 × 40 = 80 kg .... (ii)

B + C = 2 × 43 = 86 kg. .... (iii)

By equatino (ii) + (iii) (i) ,

= (86 + 80 135) kg

= 31 kg.

50. (3) The pattern is :

3328 ÷ 4 = 832

832 ÷ 4 = 208

208 ÷ 4 = 52

52 ÷ 4 = 13

13 ÷ 4 = 3.25

51. (5) The pattern is :

9 + 13 = 22

22 + 15 (= 13 + 2) = 37

37 + 18 (= 15 + 3) = 55

55 + 22 (= 18 + 4) = 77

77 + 27 (= 22 + 5) = 104

52. (2) The pattern is :

7 1 = 6

6 + 2 (= 1 + 3) = 8

8 + 7 (= 2 + 5) = 15

15 + 14 (= 7 + 7) = 29

29 + 23 (= 14 + 9) = 52

53. (2) The pattern is :

3 × 3 1 = 9 1 = 8

8 × 3 1 = 24 1 = 23

23 × 3 1 = 69 1 = 68

68 × 3 1 = 204 1 = 203

203 × 3 1 = 609 1 = 608

54. (2) The pattern is :

31 + 33 = 31 + 27 = 58

58 + 43 = 58 + 64 = 122

122 + 53 = 122 + 125 = 247

247 + 63 = 247 + 216 = 463

463 + 73 = 463 + 343 = 806

55. (2) 2 hours 48 minutes

hours

hours

hours

Rate downstream of boat

(

) kmph

(

) kmph

kmph

Required time

(

) hours

(

) hours

(

) hours

hours 30 minutes

56. (4) Required difference

57. (5) Required average

58. (5) Required ratio

:

59. (3) Number of people whc

come to gmnasium A in August

Number of men

(

) of 180

60. (5) Required percent

(

)

(

)

61. (4) Let the population of village

in 2011 be According to the question,

(

) (

)

(

) (

)

Females

Males

Required ratio : 1760

62. (1) Case I,

Principal

. 2800

Case II,

S.I.

. 1176

63. (1) Distance Speed Time

According to the question,

√ Time taken in the first part

of journey hours

Required total time

hours hours

64. (5) In Test (i)

(ii)

In Test

In Test

Required difference

65. (1) C.P. of 1 table

C.P. of 1 chair

According to the question.

(i)

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35

(ii)

By equation (i) equation

(ii)

68. (2) G < I = A < N < T G = I = A

= N = T or, G < I = A < N < T or, G

< I = A < N < T Conclusions : I. G <

T : Not True II. G = T : Not True G

is either smaller than or equal to T.

Therefore, either Conclusion I or

Conclusion II is true.

69. (5) B < C = X > Y < Z Conclu-

sions : I. B > Z : Not True II. B = Z :

Not True

70. (3) G < H < R > S = T > U Con-

clusions : I. R > G : True II. H > U :

Not True

76. 80.

Month Person

January Q

March A

June P

September B

November R

December C

98. 100. B and S are married cou-

ple. A is the father of B, G and R. R

is the only daughter of A. Therefore,

B is the son of A. Now, B is the

husband of S. G is the husband of E.

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36

RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-

2) English Language

Directions (1 5) : Each sentence given below has

two blanks. Each blank indicates that something

has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits in

the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

1. Realistically, however this disconnect cannot

_______ itself very long, sooner rather than

_______ the whole will no doubt converge.

(1) sustain, later

(2) sustained, later

(3) submerge, latter

(4) harmonize, lately

(5) mend, lately

2. Digitisation will _______ a couple of billion

dollars in pay revenues, bring more taxes choice

and clean out black money _______ cable.

(1) realise, from (2) replenish, off

(3) release, from (4) revive, with

(5) supply, with

3. Public sector infrastructure financing companies

could _______ ng

_______ of guaranteed returns on investments.

(1) opt for, crisis

(2) opt out, lack

(3) prefer, excess

(4) select, lack

(5) opt, cause

4. Looks like the oil markets are not only showing

_______ between the physical and the financial

perspectives from time to time but also _______

between the short term view and the long term real-

ities.

(1) disconnect, convergence

(2) disconnect, divergence

(3) connection, difference

(4) supply, demand

(5) similarity, contrast

5. Top global oil exporter Saudi Arabia _______ its

crude production in April to a record high, _______

its flourishing Asian market share.

(1) rose, feed (2) risen, collecting

(3) raised, lead (4) raised, feeding

(5) increased, healing

Directions (6 15) : Read the following passage

carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you

locate them while answering some of the questions.

Core competencies and focus are now the mantras

of corporate strategists in Western economies. But

while managers in the West have dismantled many

conglomerates assembled in the 1960s and 1970s,

the large, diversified business group remains the

dominant form of enterprise throughout most

emerging markets. Some groups operate as holding

companies with full ownership in many enterprises,

others are collections of publicly traded companies,

but all have some degree of central control.

As emerging markets open up to global competi-

tion, consultants and foreign investors are increas-

ingly pressuring these groups to conform to West-

ern practice by scaling back the scope of their busi-

ness activities. The conglomerate is the dinosaur of

organizational design, they argue, too unwieldy and

fast-paced markets. Al-

ready a number of executives have decided to break

up their groups in order to show that they are focus-

ing on only a few core businesses.

There are reasons to worry about this trend. Focus

is good advice in New York or London, but some-

thing important gets lost in translation when that

advice is given to groups in emerging markets.

Western companies take for granted a range of in-

stitutions that support their business activities, but

many of these institutions are absent in other re-

gions of the world. Without effective securities

regulation and venture capital firms, for example,

focused companies may be unable to raise adequate

financing; and without strong educational institu-

tions, they will struggle to hire skilled employees.

Communicating with customers is difficult when

the local infrastructure is poor, and unpredictable

government behavior can stymie any operation.

Although a focused strategy may enable a company

to perform a few activities well, companies in

emerging markets must take responsibility for a

wide range of functions in order to do business ef-

fectively.

In the case of product markets, buyers and sellers

usually suffer from a severe dearth of information

for three reasons. First, the communications infra-

structure in emerging markets is often under-

developed. Even as wireless communication

spreads throughout the West, vast stretches in coun-

tries such as China and India remain without tele-

phones. Power shortages often render the modes of

communication that do exist ineffective. The postal

service is typically inefficient, slow, or unreliable;

and the private sector rarely provides efficient cou-

rier services. High rates of illiteracy make it diffi-

cult for marketers to communicate effectively with

customers.

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37

Second, even when information about products

does get around, there are no mechanisms to cor-

roborate the claims made by sellers. Independent

consumer-information organizations are rare, and

government watchdog agencies are of little use.

The few analysts who rate products are generally

less sophisticated than their counterparts in ad-

vanced economies.

Third, consumers have no redress mechanisms if a

product does not deliver on its promise. Law en-

forcement is often capricious and so slow that few

who assign any value to time would resort to it.

Unlike in advanced markets, there are few extraju-

dicial arbitration mechanisms to which one can

appeal.

As a result of this lack of information, companies in

emerging markets face much higher costs in build-

ing credible brands than their counterparts in ad-

vanced economies. In turn, established brands

wield tremendous power. A conglomerate with a

reputation for quality products and services can use

its group name to enter new businesses, even if

those businesses are completely unrelated to its

current lines. Groups also have an advantage when

they do try to build up a brand because they can

spread the cost of maintaining it across multiple

lines of business. Such groups then have a greater

incentive not to damage brand quality in any one

business because they will pay the price in their

other businesses as well.

6. Which of the following sentence(s) is/are correct

in the context of the given passage ?

I. Consultants and foreign investors argue that the

conglomerate is the dinosaur of organisational de-

sign too unwieldly and slow to compete s

fast-paced markets.

II. Core competencies and focus are now the man-

tras of corporate strategists in western economies.

III. Due to lack of information required, companies

in emerging markets face much higher costs in

building credible brands in comparison to their

counterparts in advanced economies.

(1) Only I (2) Only II and III

(3) Only I and III

(4) Only I and II

(5) All I, II and III

7. What suggestions have been cited by the writer

in regard to raising adequate financing and hiring

skilled employees ?

(1) Effective securities regulation

(2) Effective securities regulation and venture capi-

tal firms

(3) Effective securities regulation and venture capi-

tal firms and strong educational institutions

(4) Both (1) and (3)

(5) None of these

8. The writer has cited some hurdles in the case of

product markets regarding shortage of information.

Which of the following statement(s) in this regard

is/are true ?

I. Communications infrastructure in emerging mar-

kets is often under developed.

II. Postal service is typically inefficient, slow or

unreliable.

III. High rates of illiteracy make it difficult for

marketers to communicate effectively with custom-

ers.

(1) Only I (2) Only III

(3) Only II and III

(4) Only I and II

(5) All I, II and III

9. Which of the following statements is correct in

regard to the given passge ?

(1) The few analysts in emerging markets who rate

products are generally less sophisticated than their

counterparts in advanced economies.

(2) Unlike in advanced markets there are few extra-

judicial arbi trat ion mechanisms in emerging mar-

kets to which one can appeal.

(3) Even as wireless communication spreads

throughout the West, vast regions of China and

India remain without telephones.

(4) Unpredictable government behaviour can sty-

mie any operation.

(5) All are correct

10. Established brands can wield tremendous power

in emerging markets because

(1) a conglomerate with a reputation for quality

products and services can use its group name to

enter new businesses.

(2) they have much political nexus and strong man

power

(3) they have excess of money and customeRs (4)

they have greater incentive to damage brand quality

in any one business

(5) None of these

11. What should be the most appropriate title of this

passage ?

(1) Hurdles in Emerging markets

(2) What is an Emerging market

(3) Lack of Information in Emerging Markets

(4) Advanced Markets Eat Emerging Markets

(5) None of these

Directions (12 13) : Choose the word/group of

words which is most similar in meaning to the

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word/group of words printed in bold as used in the

passage.

12. CONFORM TO

(1) comply (2) conflict between

(3) confirm (4) confiscate

(5) confine to

13. DISMANTLE

(1) take together (2) hold

(3) take apart (4) disorder

(5) dismount

Directions (14 15) : Choose the word which is

MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed

in bold as used in the passage.

14. CAPRICIOUS

(1) unpredictable (2) predictable

(3) changeable (4) captive

(5) reasonable

15. DEARTH

(1) scarcity (2) Shortage

(3) paucity (4) abundance

(5) debility

Directions (16 20) : Rearrange the following six

sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the

proper sequence to form meaningful paragraph;

then answer the questions given below them

as dramatic as

the declines associated with Colony Collapse Dis-

order (CCD), which was first identified in October

2006

(B) Beekeepers tapped for the survey manage a

total of 400,000 colonies, representing about 14.5

percent of the

(C) Overall, colony losses during the 12-month

period that ended in April reached 42.1 percent

the second-highest annual loss to date

(D) Summer colony losses reached 27.4 percent,

exceeding winter losses that came in at 23.7 percent

(E) For the first time, beekeepers watched more of

their colonies disappear during the summer than in

winter

(F) A new survey outlining honeybee colony losses

in the U.S. has scientists scratching their heads.

16. Which of the following should be the FIRST

sentence after rearrangement ?

(1) A (2) B

(3) F (4) E

(5) D

17. Which of the following should be the SECOND

sentence after rearrangement ?

(1) E (2) F

(3) A (4) B

(5) C

18. Which of the following should be the SIXTH

sentence after rearrangement.

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) E

19. Which of the following should be the

FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) E

20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH

sentence after rearrangement ?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) E

Directions (21 25) : Read each sentence to find

out whether there is any grammatical error or idio-

matic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one

part of the sentence. The number of that part is the

answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ig-

nore errors of punctuation, if any.)

21. Profitability of fleet operators (1)/ have im-

proved due to a decline (2)/ in fuel prices during

(3)/ the last two months. (4)/ No error (5).

22. We are a young country, (1)/ a brash country, a

forward (2)/ looking country, and (3)/ true history

interest us a lot. (4)/ No error

(5).

23. The joint statement included (1)/ just three lines

on military (2)/ cooperation, restriction itself for

(3)/ exercise and ship visits. (4)/ No error (5).

24. In a country currently there is (1)/ absolute no

shortage in fact (2)/ there is an abundance of pilots

holding (3)/ a valid licence but unable to find a job.

(4)/ No error (5).

25. WPI might have turned negative primarily (1)/

due to a steep decline in the prices (2)/ of non-food

articles (3)/ raising vegetable prices keep food arti-

cles firm during this month. (4)/ No error (5)

Directions (26 30) : In the following passage

there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.

These numbers are printed below the passage and

against each, five words are suggested, one of

which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the

appropriate word in each case.

There is plenty written about the wealth divide in

the U.S. economy. But there is another important

divide the one between consumers and corpora-

tions.

If you look at how U.S. households have been be-

having (26) think it was all blue skies. Con-

sumer confidence is at a five-year high, thanks to

higher stock prices and a (27) in the housing mar-

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ket. Home prices have had their biggest jump since

2005

Consumers, finally feeling more (28) are buying

that new car or electronic gadget and bolstering

GDP growth a bit. The wealth gap between Ameri-

high income group and everyone else has (29)

record high levels since the economic recovery

from the Great Recession of 2007-09, with a clear

(30) of increasing wealth for the upper-income fam-

ilies and no wealth growth for the middle- and low-

er-income families.

26. (1) late (2) lately

(3) uniformly (4) eager

(5) earnestly

27. (1) discovery (2) growing

(3) recovery (4) delivery

(5) depletion

28. (1) flush (2) happy

(3) satisfied (4) flung

(5) flunk

29. (1) reach (2) reached

(3) delivered (4) targeted

(5) subjugated

30. (1) target (2) projection

(3) trajectory (4) tarnation

(5) temptation.

Directions (31 35) : Study the following table

carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Number of students enrolled in 4 different

courses of a college during the given years Years

2010 2011 2012 Courses Total Total Total Total

Total Total No. of Female No. of Femal No. of

Female Students Students Students Students Stu-

dents Students

2010 2011 2012

Courses Total Female Total Female Total Female

A 840 378 820 553 800 432

B 1200 660 1200 660 1250 750

C 952 342 900 360 980 441

D 900 540 860 602 700 525

31. What was the average number of boys studying

in all four courses of the college in the year 2010 ?

(1) 493 (2) 480

(3) 439 (4) 468

(5) None of these

32. What was the average number of female stu-

dents studying in all four courses of the college in

the year 2012 ?

(1) 573 (2) 537

(3) 437 (4) 473

(5) None of these

33. By what percent approximately is the number

of boys studying in all four courses of the college in

the year 2011 less than that of the girl students

studying in all four courses in the same year ?

(1) 32 (2) 30

(3) 26 (4) 22

(5) None of these

34. What is the difference between the number of

girls studying in all four courses in the year 2010

and that of boys studying in all four courses in the

year 2011 ?

(1) 205 (2) 215

(3) 305 (4) 315

(5) None of these

35. What is the respective ratio between the total

number of boys in courses B and D together in

2010 and that of all students in courses A and D in

2012 ?

(1) 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 3

(3) 3 : 7 (4) 4 : 5

(5) None of these

36. A dealer allowed a discount of 25% on the

marked price of Rs. 12000 on an article and in-

curred a loss of 10%. What discount should he al-

low on the marked price so that he gains Rs. 440 on

the article ?

(1) 11% (2) 13%

(3) 19% (4) 15%

(5) None of these

Quantitative Aptitude Directions (37 41) : Study the following line graph

carefully to answer the given questions.

Number of projects handled by 6 companies

during 6 years

37. What is the average number of projects handled

by company A during all the given years ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5) None of these

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38. What is the respective ratio between the total

number of projects handled by both companies in

the years 2002 and 2003 ?

(1) 4 : 5 (2) 5 : 9

(3) 7 : 9 (4) 5 : 7

(5) None of these

39. By what per cent is the number of projects han-

dled by company B in the year 2006 more than that

handled in the year 2002 by the same company ?

(1) 84% (2) 86%

(3) 72% (4) 76%

(5) None of these

40. What is the average number of projects handled

by company B during all the given years ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5) None of these

41. What is the difference between the total number

of projects handled by company A and company B

in the years 2001, 2003 and 2006 taken together ?

(1) 250 (2) 230

(3) 260 (4) 240

(5) None of these

42. A man gave 20% of his salary to his only son

and only daughter.

The ratio of amount given to son and daughter is 3 :

2 respectively.

Twice the amount what he gave to his daughter, he

invested in LIC. Out of the remaining amount he

gave one fourth to his wife.

After that he was left with Rs 16800. Find out the

amount invested in LIC.

(1) Rs. 5600 (2) Rs. 5400

(3) Rs. 5800 (4) Rs. 6200

(5) None of these

43. In a vessel there is 40 litres mixture of milk and

water. There is 15% water in the mixture. The

milkman sells 10 litres of mixture to a customer and

thereafter adds 12.5 litres of water to the remaining

mixture. What is the respective ratio of milk and

water in the new mixture ?

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2

(3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3

(5) None of these

44. A boat covers a distance of 2.75 km upstream in

11 minutes. The ratio between speed of current and

that of boat downstream is 1 : 7 respectively. The

boat covers distance between A and B downstream

in 52 minutes. What is the distance between point

A and point B ?

(1) 19.2 km. (2) 17.2 km.

(3) 18.2 km. (4) 16.5 km.

(5) None of these

Directions (45-49) : What will come in place of the

question mark (?) in each of the following number

series ?

45. 125 128 119 146 65 ?

(1) 308 (2) 316

(3) 298 (4) 294

(5) 264

46. 8 17 30 47 68 ?

(1) 83 (2) 93

(3) 98 (4) 95

(5) 96

47. 24 12 12 18 ? 90

(1) 40 (2) 38

(3) 36 (4) 45

(5) None of these

48. 5 16 49 104 ? 280

(1) 165 (2) 160

(3) 171 (4) 181

(5) 175

49. 13 19 30 48 75 ?

(1) 107 (2) 108

(3) 116 (4) 112

(5) 113

50. A and B together can complete a piece of work

in

days white B and C together can complete

the same work in

days. B is 25% more effi-

cient than C. In how many days will A and C to-

gether complete the same work ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5) None of these

51. The sum of present ages of Ria and Abby is 48

years. Today Abby is 4 years older than Shweta.

The respective ratio of the present ages of Ria and

Shweta is 4 : 7

ago ?

(1) 32 years (2) 30 years (3) 28 years (4) 34 years

(5) None of these

Directions (52 56) : What approximate value will

come in place of the question mark (?) in the fol-

lowing questions ? (You are not expected to calcu-

late the exact value).

52. 52.02% of 749 + 45% of 419.98 ? = 152

(1) 354 (2) 364

(3) 370 (4) 368

(5) None of these

53. 349.98 × 19.99 + ?2 × 180.16 = 11500

(1) 3 (2) 5

(3) 4 (4) 9

(5) 25

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54. e1800 √ 29.99j ÷ 15.02

(1) 12 (2) 25

(3) 625 (4) 144

(5) 169

55. (52.022 34.012) ÷ 17.99 × √

= 1720

(1) 400 (2) 20

(3) 25 (4) 625

(5) None of these

56. (340 × 9.98) ÷ 6.4001 + 1245.15 = ?

(1) 1766 (2) 1776

(3) 1676 (4) 1876

(5) 1806

57. A, B and C together start a business.

The ratio of the investments of A, B and C is 0.125

: 0.75 :

0.25. After 8 months A adds thrice amount of his

earlier investment and C withdraws half of his ear-

lier investment. At the end of the year, they earn a

total profit the

profit ?

(1) Rs. 3400 (2) Rs. 3200

(3) Rs. 3600 (4) Rs. 3800

(5) None of these

58. In a bag there are 4 white, 4 red and 2 green

balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the

probability that at least one ball is of green colour ?

(1) 4/5 (2) 3/5

(3) 1/5 (4) 2/5

(5) None of these

59. Equal amounts are invested in two schemes A

and B for 6 years and 8 years respectively. Scheme

A offers interest at the rate of 12% per annum and

scheme B offers interest at the rate of 8% per an-

num.

The difference between the interests earned is Rs.

1280

What is the amount invested in each scheme ?

(1) Rs. 16000 (2) Rs. 16500

(3) Rs. 17000 (4) Rs. 18000

(5) None of these

60. The area of a rectangle is equal to the area of a

square whose diagonal is 12 √ metre. The differ-

ence between the length and the breadth of the rec-

tangle is 6 metre.

What is the perimeter of rectangle ? (in metre).

(1) 160 metre (2) 80 metre

(3) 82 metre (4) 84 metre

(5) None of these

Directions (61 65) : In the following questions two

equations numbered I and II are given. You have to

solve both the equations and

Give answer (1) if x > y

Give answer (2) if x > y

Give answer (3) if x < y

Give answer (4) if x < y

Give answer (5) if x = y or the relationship cannot

be established.

61. I. 3x2 + 14x + 15 = 0

II. 6y2 + 17y + 12 = 0

62. I. 3x2 17x + 24 = 0

II. 4y2 15y + 14 = 0

63. I. 2x2 + 11x + 14 = 0

II. 2y2 + 17y + 33 = 0

64. I. 3x2 + 13x + 12 = 0

II. 2y2 + 15y + 27 = 0

65. I. x2 22x + 121 = 0

II. y2 = 121

Reasoning Directions (66 70) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight friends C, D, E, F, N, O, P and Q are

sitting in a straight line facing north but not neces-

sarily in the same order. O is sitting second to the

right of P. E is sitting third to the left of Q. F is sit-

ting fourth to the left of P. E does not sit on the

extreme end of the line. D is immediate neighbour

of neither F nor P. C is not an immediate neighbour

of P.

66. Which of the following pairs represents the two

persons sitting at the extreme ends of the line ?

(1) F, C (2) D, F

(3) C, Q (4) N, D

(5) O, F

67. Which of the following statements is definitely

true as per the given arrangement ?

(1) F and E are immediate neighbours of P.

(2) C is sitting third to the right of Q.

(3) There are only three persons between D and E.

(4) N is sitting to the immediate left of P.

(5) All the given statements are true

68. Who among the following is sitting third to the

right of N ?

(1) O (2) D

(3) C (4) E

(5) Q

69. What is the position of C with respect to Q ?

(1) Fourth to the right

(2) Third to the right

(3) Fourth to the left

(4) Third to the left

(5) Second to the right

70. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way based on the given arrangement and hence

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they form a group. Which one of the following does

not belong to that group ?

(1) FN (2) PD

(3) EQ (4) CP

(5) NQ

Directions (71 73) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

S is the daughter of U. V has only two children S

and Y. Y is married to D. P is the brother of B. V

has only two daughters. J is the mother of U. J is

married to L. P is married to S. V is the son of T.

71. Who among the following is the sister in law

of B ?

(1) Y (2) S

(3) U (4) J

(5) T

72. Who among the following is the father of U ?

(1) J (2) T

(3) V (4) L

(5) None of these

73. How is V related to P ?

(1) Father in law (2) Mother in law

(3) Father (4) Mother

(5) Brother

74. Point A is 30 metres to the east of point B.

Point C is 10 metres to the south of Point A. Point

D is 15 metres to the west of Point C. Point E is

exactly in the middle of the Points D and F. Points

D, E and F lie in a straight line.

The length of the line DEF is 20 metres. Point F is

to the north of Point D. Point G is 15 metres to the

east of Point F. How far and in which direction is

Point G from Point A ?

(1) 10 metres, South

(2) 15 metres, North

(3) 10 metres, North

(4) 15 metres, South

(5) 10 metres, East

75. A person starts from his house and moves to-

wards the market. He walks 40 metres towards

south and takes a right turn. After walking 30 me-

tres he takes a left turn and walks 20 metres. Finally

he takes a left turn and reach the market after walk-

ing 30 metres. How far and in which direction is his

house from the market ?

(1) 60 metres, South

(2) 60 metres, North

(3) 70 metres, North

(4) 70 metres, South

(5) 90 metres, North

Directions (76 80) : In each question given below

two or three statements followed by two Conclu-

sions numbered I and II have been given.

You have to take the given statements to be true

even if they seem to be at variance from the com-

monly known facts and then decide which of the

following Conclusions logically follows from the

given statements, disregarding commonly known

facts.

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows

Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II follows

Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-

sion II follows

Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-

clusion II follows

Give answer (5) if both the Conclusions I and II

follow

(76 77) : Statements All magazines are journals.

Some journals are periodicals.

All periodicals are bulleteins.

76.

Conclusions I. Some periodicals are definitely not

journals.

II. All periodicals being magazines is a possibility.

77.

Conclusions I. At least some bulleteins are jour-

nals.

II. No bulletein is a magazine.

78. Statements All turns are loops.

No loop is a bend.

Some bends are curves.

Conclusions I. At least some curves are loops.

II. No bend is a turn.

79. Statements No country is a village.

All villages are districts.

Conclusions I. All countries are districts.

II. All districts are villages.

80. Statements All progress are growth.

All developments are growth.

No growth is an evolution.

Conclusions I. All developments being progress is

a possibility.

II. No evolution is a progress.

Directions (81 85) : In each of the following ques-

tions, relationship between different elements is

shown in the statements. The statements are fol-

lowed by two Conclusions numbered I and.

II. Study the Conclusions based on the given state-

ments and select the appropriate answer :

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true.

Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true

Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-

sion II is true

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Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-

clusion II is true

Give answer (5) if both the Conclusions I and II

are true

(81 82) : Statements Y < K < D = S ; D < V < O ;

G > D < Q

81.

Conclusions I. G > V. II. Y < Q

82.

Conclusions I. K < O. II. G = V

83. Statements D < L < F = N ; L = A

Conclusions I. N > D. II. A < F

(84 85) : Statements B > Z = R > M < J < H ; J >

P ; K < Z

84.

Conclusions I. H < P. II. B > M

85.

Conclusions I. K < J. II. R > H

Directions (86 90) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

In a certain code language,

86. given code lan-

guage ?

(1) ge (2) kw

(3) nj (4) sy

(5) bo

87. in the given

code language ?

(1) bo kw (2) kw nj

(3) rd bo (4) rd nj

(5) Cannot be determined

88.

the given code language ?

(1) sy bo ux fp (2) fp ta rd kw

(3) ge fp ta bo (4) mr ta sy fp

(5) bo nj ta ge

89. What is th the given code

language ?

(1) fp (2) rd

(3) kw (4) bo

90.

the given code language ?

(1) sy bo mr fp (2) ta nj kw rd

(3) ta fp ux nj (4) mr sy bo ta

(5) ux ge nj sy

Directions (91 95) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are

sitting around a circular table at equal distance be-

tween each other, but not necessarily in the same

order. Some of them are facing the centre while

some others are facing outside (i.e., in a direction

opposite to the centre) Note : Facing the same di-

rection means if one faces the centre then the other

also faces the centre and vice versa. Facing oppo-

site directions means if one person faces the centre

then the other person faces outside and vice versa.

R is sitting second to the right of Q. Only three per-

sons are sitting between R and S. T is sitting second

to the right of R. T faces the centre. R and S face

opposite directions. P and S face opposite direc-

tions. N is sitting second to the left of P. P is not an

immediate neighbour of Q. Only one person is sit-

ting between P and O. O is not an immediate

neighbour of Q. M is sitting third to the left of T.

The immediate neighbours of T face opposite direc-

tions. M and R face opposite directions. N faces the

same direction as that of O.

91. Which of the following statements is true re-

garding T according to the given seating arrange-

ment ?

(1) T is sitting second to the left of S.

(2) T is sitting exactly between O and P.

(3) T is sitting just opposite to N.

(4) There are four persons between T and Q.

(5) T faces the opposite direction as that of M.

92. How many persons in the given seating ar-

rangement face outside?

(1) Three (2) Four

(3) Five (4) Six

(5) Two

93. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way based on the given seating arrangement and

hence they form a group. Which is the one that does

not belong to that group ?

(1) O (2) S

(3) M (4) Q

(5) N

94. Who among the following sits exactly between

S and Q when counted from the left of S ?

(1) None (2) O

(3) M (4) N

(5) T

95. What is the position of M with respect to R ?

(1) Other than those given as options

(2) Third to the right

(3) Second to the left

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(4) Second to the right

(5) Third to the left

Directions (96 100) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Seven persons M, N, O, P, Q, R and S live on

separate floors of a seven storeyed building, but

not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor

of the building is numbered 1, the floor above it 2

and so on until the topmost floor is numbered 7.

Each person likes differnt cartoon characters, viz,

Chipmnuk, Flinstone, Jetson, Popeye, Scooby Doo,

Simpson and Tweety, but not necessarily in the

same order.

The person who likes Popeye lives on floor num-

bered 4. Only two persons live between P and the

one who likes Popeye. M does not live on the low-

ermost floor. M lives on any odd numbered floor

below the one who likes Popeye. S lives on an even

numbered floor but neither immediately above nor

immediately below the floor of M. Only two per-

sons live between M and the person who likes

Tweety.

Only one person lives between N and R. R lives on

an even numbered floor and does not like Popeye.

Only three persons live between the persons who

like Chipmnuk and Jetson respectively.

The person who likes Chipmnuk live on any floor

The person who likes Chipmanuk does not live on

the topmost floor. O does not like Chipmnuk or

Jetson. The person who likes Scooby Doo lives on

the floor immediately above the floor of the perosn

who likes Simpson.

96. How many persons live between the floors on

which S and P live ?

(1) Three (2) Two

(3) Four (4) Five

(5) No One

97. Which of the following statements is/are true

according to the given information?

(1) Q lives on floor numbered 5 and he does not

like Popeye

(2) M likes Scooby Doo and he does not live on

floor numbered 4.

(3) O likes Flinstone and he lives on the topmost

floor

(4) Only two persons live between the floors of Q

and R

(5) All the statements are true

98. Who among the following lives on the floor

immediately above the floor of M ?

(1) N (2) R

(3) S (4) O

(5) No One

99. Who among the following lives exactly be-

tween the floors on which S and N live ?

(1) P (2) R

(3) M (4) Q

(5) No one

100. Who among the followimg does like cartoon

character Jetson ?

(1) R (2) P

(3) N (4) Q

(5) S

Answer Key 1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (5) 7. (3) 8. (5) 9.

(5) 10. (1) 11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (4) 16.

(3) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (2) 22. (4) 23.

(3) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30.

(3) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (1) 36. (2) 37.

(2) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (1) 41. (2) 42. (1) 43. (2) 44.

(3) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (5) 50. (1) 51.

(2) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (2) 57. (3) 58.

(4) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (3) 62. (1) 63. (1) 64. (2) 65.

(5) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (1) 69. (3) 70. (5) 71. (2) 72.

(4) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (1) 78. (2) 79.

(4) 80. (5) 81. (2) 82. (1) 83. (5) 84. (2) 85. (4) 86.

(3) 87. (1) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (5) 91. (2) 92. (1) 93.

(4) 94. (3) 95. (5) 96. (3) 97. (5) 98. (1) 99. (4) 100.

(2)

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Solutions: 12. (1) Conform to (Verb) = to agree

with or match something; comply ;

to obey. Look at the sentence : It did

not conform to the usual stereotype

of an industrial city.

13. (3) Dismantle (Verb) = to take

apart ; to end an organisation or

system gradually in an organised

way. Look at the sentence : The

government was in the process of

dismantling the state owned indus-

tries.

14. (2) Capricious (Adjective) =

unpredictable, changeable ; changing

suddenly and quickly.

15. (4) Dearth (Noun) = a lack of

something ; the fact of there not

being enough of something; scarcity.

Abundance (Noun) = in large quanti-

ties ; more than enough. Look at the

sentences : There was a dearth of

reliable information on the subject.

Fruit and vegetables grow in abun-

dance on the island.

21. (2) Here, subject (profitability of

fleet operators) is singular. Hence,

has improved due to a decline ....

should be used.

22. (4) Here, subject (true history) is

singular. Hence, true history inter-

ests us a lot .... should be used.

23. (3) Here, cooperation, restricting

(Gerund) itself to .... should be used.

24. (2) Here, it is Preposition/Adverb

related error. Hence, absolutely (Ad-

verb) no shortage of .... should be

used.

25. (4) Raise = to increase the level

or amount of something. Rise = to

reach a higher level ; move upwards.

Hence, rising vegetable prices kept

(V2) ....... should be used here. Past

time is evident.

31. (1) Number of boys in 2010 :

Course A 840 378 = 462

Course B 1200 660 = 540

Course C 952 342 = 610

Course D 900 540 = 360

Required average

32. (2) Required average

33. (3) Number of Uoys in 2011 :

Course

Course

Course

Course

Their total number

Total number of girls Required percent

34. (4) Total number of girls in 2010

Total number of boys in 2011

Required difference

35. (1) Number of Uoys in courses

and in 2010

Required ratio

: : : 5

36. (2) C.P. of article (let).

Rs. 10000

Again, profit . 440

S.P. Rs. 10440

Discount 2000 10440

Rs. 1560

If discount , then

37. (2) Number of projects handled

By

company

38. (3) Required ratio

: (550 350)

: : 9

39. (4) Required percent

. (1) Average number of projects

handled By company

41. (2) Number of projects handled

in

the years 2001 , 2003 and 2006:

Company 190 350 570

Company Required difference

42. (1) Initial amount with the per-

son

(let)

Amount given to the son and the

daughter

Amount given to daughter

Rs.

Amount invested in LIC

Remaining amount

Rs. (

)

Rs. (

)

Rs.

Amount given to wife

Rs.

Remaining amount

Rs.

. 35000

Amount invested in LIC

. 5600

43. (2) In 30 litres of mixture, Milk

litres

Water litres

On adding 12.5 litres of water

Total quantity of water

litres

Required ratio of milk and

water

: : : 2

44. (3) Speed of boat in still water

kmph

Speed of current kmph.

Rate downstream

kmph.

Rate upstream kmph.

Again,

kmph.

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46

kmph

Rate downstream

kmph

Distance between points A and

Rate downstream Time

km.

45. (1) The pattern is :

125 + 3 = 128

128 32 = 128 9 = 119

119 + 33 = 119 + 27 = 146

146 34 = 146 81 = 65

65 + 35 = 65 + 243 = 308

46. (2) The pattern is :

8 + 9 = 17

17 + 13 (= 9 + 4) = 30

30 + 17 (=13 + 4) = 47

47 + 21 (=17 + 4) = 68

68 + 25 ( = 21 + 4) = 93

47. (3) The pattern is :

24 × 1/2= 12

12 × 1 = 12

12 × 3/2 = 18

18 × 2 = 36

36 × 5/2= 90

48. (4) The pattern is :

5 + 11 (= 11 × 1) = 16

16 + 33 (= 11 × 3) = 49

49 + 55 (= 11 × 5) = 104

104 + 77 (= 11 × 7) = 181

181 + 99 (= 11 × 9) = 280

49. (5) The pattern is :

13 + 6 = 19

19 + 11 (= 6 + 5) = 30

30 + 18 (= 11 + 7) = 48

48 + 27 (= 18 + 9) = 75

75 + 38 (= 27 + 11) = 113

(1) is 25% more efFlcient than C.

Ratio of time taken by and : : 5

Time taken by days

Time taken by days

Time taken By days

Time taken By days

If the time taken by A be days,

then

Time taken By A and together

days

51. years

years

llx

years

years

52. (1)

?

53. (2)

54. (3)

55. (1) √

56. (2)?

57. (3) Initial investments of A, B

and

C respectively

= Rs. 125, Rs. 750 and Rs. 250

(let)

Ratio of their equivalent capitals

for 1 month

= (125 × 8 + 500 × 4) : (750 × 12)

: (250 × 8 + 125 × 4)

= (1000 + 2000) : (9000) : (2000

+ 500)

= 3000 : 9000 : 2500

= 30 : 90 : 25

= 6 : 18 : 5

Sum of ratios = 6 + 18 + 5 = 29

\

= Rs. 3600

58. (4) Total number of balls in the

bag

Total possible outcomes Selec‐ tion of 2 Ualls out of 10 Ualls

avourable outcomes green

ball and 1 ball of other colour

green balls

59. (1) Invested amount (let)

S.I.

According to the question,

. 16000

. (2) Area of square

√ √

sq. metre

Area of rectangle

sq. metre

Breadth of rectangle metre

Length metre

metre

Perimeter of rectangle

metre

61. (3) I.

or,

II.

Clearly,

62. (1) I.

or, 3

II.

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47

or, 2

Clearly,

63. (1) I.

or

II.

or,

Clearly,

64. (2)

I.

or,

II.

or,

Clearly,

65. (5)

I.

II.

71. 73. : S is the daughter of U and

V. Y is also daughter of U and V. Y

is the wife of D. P is the husband of

S. S is the sister in law of B. V is

the husband of U. L is the husband

of J. L is the father of U.

81. 82. Y < K < D = S D < V < O

G > D < Q Y < K < D = S < V < O

Y < K < D < G Y < K < D = S < Q

G > D < V < O

81. (2) Conclusions I. G > V : Not

True II. Y < Q : True

82. (1) Conclusions I. K < O : True

II. G = V : Not True

83. (5) D < L = A < F = N Conclu-

sions I. N > D : True II. A < F : True

(84 85) : B > Z = R > M < J < H J >

P ; K < Z P < J < H K < Z = R > M <

J

84. (2) Conclusions I. H < P : Not

True II. B > M : True

85. (4) Conclusions I. K < J : Not

True II. R > H : Not True

96. 100.

Floor

Number

Person Cartoon Char-

acter

7 O Flinstone

6 S Tweety

5 Q Chipmunk

4 N Popeye

3 M Scooby Doo

2 R Simpson

1 P Jetson

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RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-

1) English Language

Directions (1 10) : Read the following passage

carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Certain words are given in bold to help you locate

them while answering some of the questions.

Over a couple of days in February, hundreds of

thousands of point-of-sale printers in restaurants

around the world began behaving strangely. Some

churned out bizarre pictures of computers and giant

the hacker God him-

self. Some informed

God, please close

the hacker God gave an interview

to Motherboard, a technology website, he claimed

to be a British secondary- school pupil by the name

of parlous

state of computer security, he had, he claimed, de-

cided to perform a public service by demonstrating

just how easy it was to seize control.

Not all hackers are so publicspirited, and 2016 was

a bonanza for those who are not. In February of that

year cyber -crooks stole $81m directly from the

central bank of Bangladesh and would have got

away with more were it not for a crucial typo. In

National Security Agency (NSA)

saw its own hacking tools leaked all over the inter-

net by a group calling themselves the Shadow Bro-

keRs (The C1A suffered a similar indignity this

March,) In October a piece of software called Mirai

was used to flood Dyn, an internet infrastructure

company, with so much meaningless traffic that

websites such as Twitter and Reddit were made

inaccessible to many users. And the hacking of the

Democratic National -mail servers

and the subsequent leaking of embarrassing com-

munications seems to have been part of an attempt

to influence the outcome of the American elections.

Away from matters of great scale and grand strate-

gy, most hacking is either show-off vandalism or

simply criminal. It is also increasingly easy. Ob-

scure forums oil the trade in stolen credit-card de-

tails, sold in batches of thousands at a time. Data-

dealers hawk

malicious attackers to subvert systems.

with which to

encrypt photos t-

ers before charging them for the key that will un-

scramble the data.

So sophisticated are these facilitating markets that

coding skills are now entirely optional. Botnets

flocks of compromised computers created by soft-

ware like Mirai, which can then be used to flood

websites with traffic, knocking them offline until a

ransom is paid can be rented by the hour. Just like

a legitimate business, the bot-herders will, for a few

dollars extra, provide technical support if anything

goes wrong. The total cost of all this hacking is

small attacks, and many big

ones, go unreported). But all agree it is likely to

rise, because the scope for malice is about to ex-

pand remarkably

-sized

Schneier, a security analyst, in the shape of the n-

buzz-phrase used to

describe the computerisation of everything from

toys, medi-

cal devices and light bulbs. In 2015 a group of

computer- security researchers demonstrated that it

was possible to take remote control of certain Jeep

cars.

When the Mirai malware is used to build a botnet it

seeks out devices such as video recorders and

webcams; the botnet for fridges is just around the

corner.

1. Which of the following is the most appropriate

title for the passage?

(1) Public spirited HackeRs

(2) Broken Computer Security

(3) Hacking: The Criminal Offence

(4) The Internet of Things

(5) The Growing Artificial Intelligence

2. According to the paragraph,

to perform a public service?

(1) To hack the NSA server

(2) To show the people that hacking was very easy

(3) To influence the outcome of the American elec-

tions

(4) To aware the people about the computer securi-

ty threats.

(5) None of these

3. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the

context of the passage?

(1) The lot is a buzz-phrase used to describe the

computerisation of everything from cars and elec-

toys, medical devices

and light bulbs.

(2) The hacking of the Democratic National Com-

e-mail servers was per - formed with the

help of a

hacking tool Security

Agency all over the internet.

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49

(4) Obscure forums oil the trade in stolen credit-

card details, sold in batches of thousands at a time.

(5) All of these are true in the context of the pas-

sage.

4. According to the paragraph, what caused the

websites like to the

users?

(1) It was caused due to hacking of the security

contents of the website.

(2) Due to unscramble of the encrypted data on the

websites.

(3) Due to Dyn, an infrastructure company.

(4) Due to surge in the worthless traf fic which was

forced by the hackers.

(5) All are correct

5. Which of following statement(s) is/are correct

(A) To take remote control of all digital devices

(B) A world sized Robot

(C) It means computerization of everything.

(1) Only (A) is correct (2) Only (B) is correct

(3) Both (A) and (C) are correct (4) Both (B)

and (C) are correct

(5) All are correct

Directions (6 7) : Choose the word/group of words

which is most opposite in meaning to the word/

group of words printed in bold as used in the pas-

sage.

6. Malice

(1) Antipathy (2) Malevolence

(3) benignity (4) Audacity

(5) Valour

7. Parlous

(1) adventurous (2) fatal

(3) terrible (4) innocuous

(5) risky

Directions (8 10) : Choose the word/group of

words which is most similar in meaning to the

word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the

passage.

8. Subsequent

(1) consequent (2) direct

(3) anterior (4) foregoing

(5) prior

9. Subvert

(1) vitiated (2) comply

(3) undermine (4) betray

(5) overwhelm

10. Typo

(1) advantage (2) defeat

(3) strength (4) bug

(5) stain

Directions (11 20) : Which of the phrases (1), (2),

(3) and (4) given below each sentence should re-

place the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to

make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is

correct as it is given and no correction is required,

mark (5) as the answer.

11. In the modern day, it is common to say you are

bored to death if someone or something is incredi-

bly uninteresting.

(1) bored of death

(2) bored from death

(3) bored till death

(4) bored until death

(5) No correction required

12. We advised them to going to a hill station dur-

ing the summer vacation.

(1) for going to (2) that they go to

(3) to go to (4) that they should have

to go to

(5) No correction required

13. They failed in their attempt to repair the de-

molished portion of the building.

(1) for their attempt

(2) in their attempting

(3) with their attempt

(4) on their attempt

(5) No correction required

14. In Indian democracy, It is necessary for the citi-

zens to beware of all the political facts about every

political party.

(1) be aware of (2) be aware for

(3) beware for (4) be aware to

(5) No correction required

15. put down our summer

vacation until July because of the bad weather con-

ditions.

(1) put off (2) put across

(3) put out (4) put back

(5) No correction required

16. We called on able to find the

car part we needed to fix the gear system.

(1) called off (2) called back

(3) called around (4) called up

(5) No correction required

17. If everyone chips in they can get the whole

kitchen painted by today afternoon.

(1) chips on (2) chips up

(3) chips off (4) chips towards

(5) No correction required

18. Hang up find a better job

very soon because you are very sincere.

(1) hang on (2) hang back

(3) hang out (4) hang in

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50

(5) No correction required

19. When I think of on my youth, I wish I had

studied harder and had secured good grades.

(1) think over (2) think about

(3) think out (4) think back

(5) No correction required

20. A stranger cut through with unsolicited advice

on how we could fix our relationship.

(1) cut out (2) cut about

(3) cut back (4) cut in

(5) No correction required

Directions (21 30) : In the given passage there are

words/group of words highlighted in bold and un-

derlined.

You have to decide if the words given is correct (in

terms of grammar and context). If not, find out the

appropriate word/group of words from the given

options. In case, the suggested word/group of words

is correct, select the option

your answer.

As a nation, we are in a great dilemma on the fi-

nancing of public higher educational institutions.

Highly subsidised quality higher education, with

admissions based strictly on merit, continues to be a

great hope for upward socioeconomic (21) alter-

nate. This public demand has also ensured that

there is consensus across the political spectrum on

the need for setting up new IITs, IIMs, AIIMSs,

NITs, etc. On the other hand, as the number of such

institutions increases, the (22) main requirements

for supporting them will prove to be a challenge.

What are the alternatives? Globally there is a shift

towards charging a higher (23) fraction of educa-

tion costs as fees even in European countries

where, traditionally, higher education was com-

pletely free. For the purpose of inclusion of stu-

dents from economically weaker sections, there is

the provision of education loans, often at lower than

commercial rates. This has resulted in education-

loan-driven higher education, which has clear (24)

explicit for blocking the socio-economic mobility

of poor people, even in an affluent country like the

United States.

In a country like India, publicfunded institutions

where the full fee is financed through loans are un-

desirable for many reasons. One, it will make edu-

cation inaccessible to many who cannot afford to be

(25) casted with such large loans.

Second, heavy debt would result in higher educa-

tion being seen more as capital investment. It would

lead to the clear (26) graduation objective of get-

ting a quick return on investment.

The net result would be that graduates would opt

for safe career options even more than they cur-

rently do that provide the

not those choices that may be low-paying but have

greater social value and impact and which the grad-

uate may (27) needlessly want to pursue.

Medical education in India has already fallen into

this trap; with high cost of education in private and

foreign institutions, the increase in volume is not

resulting in (28) producing access for a significant

section of the population. Further, in the Indian

socio-economic context where, even today, most

students pursue academic programmes and careers

that are forced on them by family and not out of

their own choice, there is another great disad-

vantage.

Just when we were seeing some change in at

least a small fraction of students the increase in

fees or a greater loan burden would put the clock

back. The (29) attenua-

tions in the public (100) regard in India primarily

driven by the stories of high-paying jobs for IIT

graduates.

21. (1) structure (2) fabric

(3) good (4) mobility

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.

22. (1) basic (2) finance

(3) budgetary (4) ordinary

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.

23. (1) rate (2) part

(3) portions (4) wealth

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.

24. (1) targets (2) implications

(3) incarnation (4) forms

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.

25. (1) demanded (2) debited

(3) forced (4) burdened

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.

26. (1) main (2) achievable

(3) financial (4) accessible

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.

27. (1) affordably (2) alternatively

(3) not (4) genuinely

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.

28. (1) cutting (2) providing

(3) enhanced (4) fabricating

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.

29. (1) focused (2) success

(3) traction (4) force

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct.

30. (1) discourse (2) domain

(3) bodies (4) opinions

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct

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51

Quantitative Aptitude Directions (31 35) : What will come in place of

the question mark

(?) in each of the following number series ?

31. 14, 8, 9, 14.5, 30, ?

(1) 75 (2) 76

(3) 60 (4) 65

(5) 80

32. 20, 29, 54, 103, 184, ?

(1) 310 (2) 350

(3) 305 (4) 315

(5) 320

33. 7, 8, 18, 57, ?, 1165

(1) 250 (2) 234

(3) 230 (4) 232

(5) 235

34. 5, 7, 18, 47, 103, ?

(1) 195 (2) 210

(3) 200 (4) 190

(5) 220

35. 77, 85, 69, 101, 37, ?

(1) 180 (2) 165

(3) 170 (4) 120

(5) 175

Directions (36 40) : Read the following line graph

and answer the following questions.

There are two car manufacturing companies

(Company X and Company Y). The sale of cars

by these two different companies is given in dif-

ferent years

There are two car manufacturing companies

(Company X and Company Y). The sale of cars

by these two different companies is given in dif-

ferent years Number of cars sold

36. If the sale of company X in year 2016 is in-

creased by 20% with respect to year 2015 and the

sale of company Y in year 2016 with respect to

year 2015 is decreased by 10% then find the total

sale of the company X and Y together in year

2016?

(1) 7200 (2) 9600

(3) 8400 (4) 5600

(5) 8800

37. Find the ratio of the sales of company X in

years 2011, 2013 and 2015 together to the total sale

of company Y in years 2012 and 2014 together?

(1) 23 :14 (2) 14 : 23

(3) 11 : 29 (4) 29 : 11

(5) 23 : 11

38. Total cars sold by both companies in year 2012

are what percent more/less than the total cars sold

by both companies in year 2013?

(1) 28% (2) 18%

(3) 25% (4) 20%

(5) 21%

39. Find the difference between the average number

of cars sold by company X from 2011 to 2015 and

the average number of cars sold by company Y

from 2011 to 2015?

(1) 750 (2) 900

(3) 800 (4) 850

(5) 830

40. Find the total number of cars sold by both com-

panies from year 2012 to 2014?

(1) 23000 (2) 21000

(3) 22500 (4) 21500

(5) 22000

Directions (41 45) : Read the following table and

answer the following questions

Districts Museum

Total visitors (Male

& Female)

Percentage of male

out.

of total visitors

P 250 40%

Q 350 44%

R 375 60%

S 450 56%

T 300 55%

U 525 32%

41. Total number of female visitors from districts Q

and R together to see the museum are how much

more/less than total number of male visitors from

districts R and S together to see the museum?

(1) 142 (2) 126

(3) 128 (4) 131

(5) 136

42. Average number of visitors from districts P, Q

and R together to see the museum are approximate-

ly what percent of the average number of visitors

from districts S, T and U together to see the muse-

um?

(1) 71% (2) 76%

(3) 78% (4) 74%

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52

(5) 85%

43. Find the ratio of the male visitors from districts

T and U together to see the museum to the female

visitors from districts R and S together to see the

museum?

(1) 107 : 117 (2) 106 : 111

(3) 111 : 116 (4) 117 : 107

(5) 117 : 106

44. Male visitors from district R to see the museum

are what percent more/less than the female visitors

from district T to see the museum?

(1)

% (2)

%

(3)

% (4)

%

(5) 50%

45. Find the difference between the total number of

male visitors from districts Q, R and S together to

see the museum and the total number of female

visitors from districts S, T and U together to see the

museum?

(1) 25 (2) 75

(3) 60 (4) 50

(5) 59

Directions (46 50) : In each of these questions,

two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to

solve both the equations and give answer

(1) if x > y (2) if x > y

(3) if x < y (4) if x < y

(5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot

be established.

46. I. x2 3x + 2 = 0

II. 2y2 7y + 6 = 0

47. I. 3x2 + 4x + l = 0

II. y2 + 5y + 6 = 0

48. I. 2x2 + 5x + 2 = 0

II. y2 + 9y + 20 = 0

49. I. x2 7x + 10 = 0

II. y2 12y + 35 = 0

50. I. (x 12)2 = 0

II. y2 = 144

Directions (51 55) : What approximate value

should come in place of the question mark (?) in the

following questions? (Note: You are not expected

to calculate the exact value.)

51. 23.001 × 18.999 × 7.998 = ?

(1) 4200 (2) 3000

(3) 3500 (4) 4000

(5) 2500

52. 33.99 × √ + 42.032 × √ =

× (?)

(1) 81 (2) 72

(3) 169 (4) 121

(5) 144

53. 94.95 × 13.03 + √ × 14.99 = 53 × √

(1) 25 (2) 144

(3) 225 (4) 625

(5) 900

54. 1884.88 ÷ 144.921 + 6.99 + (?)2 = 69.09

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 7 (4) 6

(5) 5

55. 41% of 601 250.17 = ? 77% of 910

(1) 800 (2) 500

(3) 690 (4) 760

(5) 550

56. An article is marked up 40% higher than cost

price but it was sold on x% discount. The shop-

keeper thus gains 12%. What would be the S.P. of

the article with C.P. of Rs. 120 and sold on x%

profit?

(1) Rs. 134.50 (2) Rs. 144

(3) Rs. 128 (4) Rs. 148

(5) Rs. 157

57. There are 27 cards having numbers from 1 to

27. Two cards are picked at random one by one

without replacement. What is the probability that

sum of numbers on these two cards is odd ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

58. B is 20% more efficient than A. B started the

work and did it for x days. And then B is replaced

by A. A completed the remaining work in (x + 8)

days. Ratio of work done by A and B is 3 : 2. In

how many days will A and B working together

complete the whole work?

(1)

days (2)

days

(3)

days (4)

days

(5)

days

59. A sum of Rs. 91,00 is borrowed at 20% per

annum compounded annually. If the amount is to be

paid in two years, what will be the total amount?

(1) Rs. 13,104 (2) Rs. 13,280

(3) Rs. 13,250 (4) Rs. 14,230

(5) Rs. 13,514

60. A man spends 28% of his salary on food. From

the remaining he spent

th on rent and sent

th to

his mother. If he is left with Rs. 5280, what amount

does he send to his mother?

(1) Rs. 4230 (2) Rs. 4320

(3) Rs. 4580 (4) Rs. 4420

(5) Rs. 4570

61. The average age of a husband and wife was 23

years when they were married 5 years ago.

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53

The average age of the husband, the wife and a

child who was born during the interval, is 20 years

now. How old is the child now?

(1) 9 months (2) 1 year

(3) 3 years (4) 4 years (5) 6 years

62. The ratio between the ages of a father and a son

at present is 5 : 2 respectively. Four years hence the

ratio between the ages of the son and his mother

will be 1 : 2 respectively.

What is the ratio between the present ages of the

father and the mother respectively?

(1) 3 : 4 (2) 5 : 4

(3) 4 : 3 (4) Cannot be deter-

mined

(5) 6 : 5

63. Total distance between A and B is d km. The

distance travelled along the stream is three times of

the total distance and the distance travelled against

the stream is two times of the total distance. The

time taken to cover distance along the stream is

10% less than the time taken to cover the distance

against the stream. If a person covers a distance of

21 km in 1 hour 24 minutes along the stream, then

find the rate of current?

(1) 2 km./h. (2) 3 km./h.

(3) 1 km./h. (4) 4 km./h.

(5) 5 km./h.

64. P and Q started a business by investing Rs.

15,000 and Rs.18,000 respectively. After four

months R joined them with a capital of Rs. 10,000.

After two more months Q left the business with his

capital. At the end of the year P got a share of Rs.

4,500 in the profit. What is the total profit earned?

(1) Rs. 6800 (2) Rs. 7600

(3) Rs. 8600 (4) Rs. 9200

(5) Rs. 9600

65. Inside a square plot a circular garden is devel-

oped which exactly fits in the square plot and the

diameter of the garden is is equal to the side of the

square plot which is 28 metre. What is the area of

the space left out in the square after developing the

garden?

(1) 98 metre2 (2) 146 metre2

(3) 84 metre2 (4) 168 metre2

(5) 115 metre2

Reasoning Directions (66 70) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

In an apartment, eight persons, i.e., D, E, F, G, H, I,

J and K live on different floors but not necessarily

in the same order. The lowermost floor of the build-

ing is numbered 1 and the topmost floor of the

building is numbered 8. They are from different

stream of Engineering i.e., Chemical Engineering

Instrumentation Engineering, Software Engineer-

ing, Aeronautical Engineering, Mechanical Engi-

neering, Electrical Engineering, Automobile Engi-

neering, and Civil Engineering.

The one who lives on fourth floor is specialized in

Mechanical Engineering. D lives on odd numbered

floor but above 3rd floor. The number of persons

between D and the one who is specialized in Elec-

trical Engineering is same as number of persons

between D and I. The one who is specialized in

Instrumentation Engineering lives on lowermost

floor. K lives on an even numbered floor and he is

specialized in Automobile Engineering.

There are two floors between E and H and E lives

above to H. E is specialized in Aeronautical Engi-

neering. J lives just above the one who is special-

ized in Aeronautical Engineering.

The number of floors between the one who is spe-

cialized in Aeronautical Engineering and Mechani-

cal Engineering is two. The one who is specialized

in Civil Engineering lives on odd numbered floor.

The number of floors between the one who is spe-

cialized in Chemical Engineering and J is four. The

one who is specialized in Aeronautical Engineering

lives on an odd numbered floor. The number of

floors between the one who is specialized in Civil

Engineering and the floor on which F lives is same

as the number of floors between F and G. I lives

below the floor on which D lives.

66. How many persons live between the person

who is specialized in Chemical Engineering and the

one who is specialized in Electrical Engineering?

(1) Six (2) One

(3) Four (4) Two

(5) None of these

67. J is specialized in which of the following stream

of engineering?

(1) Aeronautical Engineering

(2) Electrical Engineering

(3) Civil Engineering

(4) Instrumentation Engineering

(5) Mechanical Engineering

68. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way and hence they form a group.

Which one of the following does not belong to that

group?

(1) G (2) K

(3) H (4) I

(5) J

69. D lives on which floor?

(1) 1 (2) 3

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54

(3) 4 (4) 5

(5) 7

70. G is related to Mechanical Engineering, in the

same way as F is related to Automobile Engineer-

ing.

Then, which of the following is H related to? (Fol-

lowing the same pattern)

(1) Mechanical Engineering

(2) Electrical Engineering

(3) Civil Engineering

(4) Instrumentation Engineering

(5) Aeronautical Engineering

71. Which of the following symbols should replace

the sign ($) and

(#) in the given expression in order to make the

expressions P > C and C < B definitely true?

(1) >, > (2) >, <

(3) >, = (4) =, >

(5) <, <

72. Five persons namely A, B, C, D and E are going

to the school on different days of the week, starting

from Monday to Friday. Two persons are going

between C and B. C is going before Wednesday. D

is going to the school immediately after E. A is not

going on Friday. Then who among the following

persons is going to school on Wednesday?

(1) B (2) C

(3) D (4) E

(5) A

73. Q is the daughter of A. J is the brother of Q. J is

the son of R. J is the father of S. If it is given that A

is mother of Q, then what is the relation of R with

respect to S?

(1) Father (2) Mother-in-law

(3) Mother (4) Father-in-law

(5) Grandfather

74. In a certain code language

is ex-

x-

pected then what is

?

(1) lo (2) pr

(3) qi (4) ve

(5) jo

75. If 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the

number 7493652 and 3 is added to each even digit

in number then which of the following digit is re-

peated in the new number so obtained?

(1) 9, 4 (2) 6, 5

(3) 5, 4 (4) 5, 9

(5) 5, 7

Directions (76 80) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight people viz. A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are sit-

ting in a straight line. They all are facing north.

Each one of them has a different age i.e

14,16,17,19, 21, 23, 26 and 31 year, but not neces-

sarily in the same order.

B sits at one of the extreme end of the row. There

are three persons sitting between C and Q. Q is of

neither 14 nor 19 years old. There are two persons

sitting between D and the person whose age is 23

years. Neither Q nor D is the oldest person. Age

difference of immediate neighbours of D is 5 years.

A sits to the right of R, but not immediate right.

There are three persons sitting between B and the

one whose age is 16 years. The one whose age is 19

years sits third to the right of C. R sits to the right

of B. Q sits second to the right of the person whose

age is 23 years. P sits immediate left of the person

whose age is 14 years. Q is not youngest person.

The one, whose age is 31 years is not an immediate

neighbour of the youngest person. C is not the

fourth oldest person.

76. Who sits second to the right of D?

(1) A (2) S

(3) P (4) R

(5) None of these

77. How many persons sit between the persons

whose age is 31 years and S?

(1) Four (2) Five

(3) Three (4) One

(5) None of these

78. Who among the following persons is 26 years

old?

(1) R (2) D

(3) C (4) S

(5) None of these

79. If P is related to 16 years in the same way as B

is related to 26 years, then which of the following is

R related to, following the same pattern?

(1) 19 year (2) 17 year

(3) 21 year (4) 31 year

(5) None of these

80. What is the age difference of

neighbours?

(1) Three (2) Seven

(3) Five (4) Six

(5) None of these

Directions (81 85) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

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55

There are seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V who

were born on the same day of the same month of

different years i.e., 1984, 1946, 1967, 1972, 1982,

1989 and 1992 but not necessarily in the same or-

der.

Note : (A) All calculations are done with respect to

the present year 2017 assuming the month and date

to be the same as that of the years of birth as men-

tioned above

(B) Each person is assumed to be born on the same

date and same month of the respective years.

The difference between the ages of Q and R is

twice the square root of the age of one of the any

seven persons. Difference between the ages of R

and S is the same as the number obtained by divid-

ing ages of any of the other five persons. Age of P

is greatest amongst those whose ages are multiples

of five. T is older than V who is not the youngest. R

is not youngest person. S was not born in 1992.

81. Who amongst the following persons is the old-

est?

(1) P (2) V

(3) U (4) T

(5) None of these

82. What is the age of R?

(1) 33 years (2) 35 years (3) 25 years (4) 45 years

(5) 50 years 83. How many persons are younger

than U?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

(5) None of these

84. What is the age of S?

(1) 45 years (2) 35 years (3) 33 years (4) 50 years

(5) 28 years

85. Who was born in 1989?

(1) V (2) U

(3) T (4) P

(5) Q

Directions (86 87) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

There are four boxes i.e. J, K, L and M in which

four types of fruits are stored. Fruits are Litchi, Ap-

ple, Grapes and Mango. Boxes are arranged in a

manner from top to bottom. There are two boxes

between K and L. The box in which Grapes are

stored is above L, but not immediately above. The

box in which Apple is stored is immediately below

M, but not stored in box L. Litchi box is above the

Mango box, but not immediately above Apple box.

86. In which of the following boxex, Litchi is

stored?

(1) J (2) M

(3) K (4) L

(5) Either J or M

87. Which of the following fruits is stored in se-

cond lowest Box?

(1) Grapes (2) Apple

(3) Mango (4) Litchi

(5) Cannot be determined

Directions (88 89) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

There are six family members A, B, C, D, E and F

and all of them are of different age. A is younger

than only one person. E is older than B and D but

not as old as A. D is older than only one person. F

is youngest in the family. The age of D is 25 year

and the age of person who is second oldest is 40

year.

88. Who is the oldest in the family?

(1) C (2) B

(3) D (4) E

(5) A

89. What is the possible age of B?

(1) 42 years (2) 20 years (3) 55 years (4) 19 years

(5) 30 years 90. Which of the following statements

(1) B < C = A > K = R

(2) C = K > B < R > A

(3) C > B > A > K = R

(4) B = K < C < R = A

(5) None of these

Directions (91 95) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight persons M, N, O, V, W, X, Y and Z attend

seminars on different months of the year viz.

March, June, October tmd November, such that not

more than two persons attend their seminars in each

of the months. Seminars can be held on either 10th

or 27th day of the month. No two seminars can be

held on the same day. W and N attend the seminars

on the same month. There are three seminars be-

tween the seminars of X and O. W does not attend

their seminar in November. Z attends his seminar

immediately after N. V attends his seminar in the

month of November. The number of persons who

attend their seminars between the seminars of Y

and Z respectively is the same as the number of

persons who attend their seminars between the sem-

inars of N and V respectively.

X does not attend the seminar on October. W at-

tends his seminar before N.

91. M attends his seminar on which of the follow-

ing dates?

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56

(1) 10th October (2) 27th November

(3) 10th November (4) 10th March

(5) None of these

92. Which of the following persons attends his sem-

inar on 27th March?

(1) W (2) X

(3) M (4) N

(5) None of these

93. How many persons attend the seminar after W?

(1) 5 (2) 4

(3) 6 (4) 3

(5) None of these

94. Who among the following persons attends the

seminar on 10th October?

(1) W (2) M

(3) Z (4) V

(5) None of these

95. How many persons attended seminar after V?

(1) 5 (2) 4

(3) 7 (4) No one

(5) None of these

Directions (96 98) : In these questions, relation-

ship between different elements is shown in the

statements. The statements are followed by two

Conclusions numbered I and.

II. Study the Conclusions based on the given state-

ments and select the appropriate answer :

Give answer (1) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-

clusion II is true.

Give answer (2) if both the Conclusion I and Con-

clusion II are true.11

Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I is true.

Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true.

Give answer (5) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-

sion II is true.

96. Statements :

M > U > L < N; L > Y > A

Conclusions :

I. Y < N

II. Y = N

97. Statements :

J > A > D = E; L < A < M

Conclusions :

I. M < J

II. J > L

98. Statements :

M < K > L = Y; P < T > M

Conclusions :

I. P > Y

II. T < L

99. In a vertical row 13 persons are sitting. A is

seventh from the beginning and two persons sits

between G and A. The number of persons between

A and L is same as the number of persons between

G and Q. Then what is the position of Q from the

beginning?

(1) Fourth (2) Eighth

(3) Sixth (4) Ninth

(5) Cannot be determined

100.A man walks 12 metre east from point A and

reaches point B. From point B he takes left turn and

walks 4 metre and then he takes right turn and

walked 6 metre and again he takes right turn and

walks 7 metre and again takes right turn and reach-

es point M. If it is given that point B is in north

from point M, then what is the distance between B

and M?

(1) 7 metre (2) 6 metre

(3) 5 metre (4) 4 metre

(5) 3 metre

Answer Key 1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (5) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (1) 9.

(3) 10. (4) 11. (5) 12. (3) 13. (5) 14. (1) 15. (1) 16.

(3) 17. (5) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (4) 21. (4) 22. (3) 23.

(5) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (5) 27. (4) 28. (3) 29. (3) 30.

(1) 31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (1) 35. (2) 36. (2) 37.

(1) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (5) 41. (4) 42. (2) 43. (3) 44.

(4) 45. (5) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (4) 50. (5) 51.

(3) 52. (3) 53. (4) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (2) 57. (4) 58.

(3) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (4) 62. (4) 63. (2) 64. (4) 65.

(4) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (4) 70. (5) 71. (2) 72.

(4) 73. (5) 74. (5) 75. (5) 76. (4) 77. (1) 78. (3) 79.

(2) 80. (4) 81. (4) 82. (2) 83. (5) 84. (3) 85. (1) 86.

(3) 87. (2) 88. (1) 89. (5) 90. (3) 91. (4) 92. (2) 93.

(1) 94. (3) 95. (5) 96. (5) 97. (4) 98. (1) 99. (5) 100.

(5)

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57

Solutions: 6. (3) Malice (Noun) = a feeling of

hatred for somebody that causes a

desire to harm them. Benignity

(Noun) = kindness; unhurting, toler-

ance towards others. Look at the

sentences : He sent the letter out of

malice. He has a face of great benig-

nity set on a gangling body.

7. (4) Parlous (Adjective) = full of

danger or uncertainty; precarious;

dreadful; risky; unsafe. Innocuous

(Adjective) = harmless; safe; non

dangerous. Look at the sentences :

Relations between the two countries

have been in a parlous state for some

time. Some mushrooms look innoc-

uous but are in fact poisonous.

8. (1) Subsequent (Adjective) = fol-

lowing; upcoming; consequent; en-

suing. Look at the sentence : The

book discusses his illness and subse-

quent resignation from politics.

9. (3) Subvert (Noun) = to try to

destroy or damage something; un-

dermine; vitiate. Look at the sen-

tence : The rebel army is attempting

to subvert the government.

10. (4) Typo (Noun) = a small mis-

take in a text made when it was

typed or printed; faults and mistakes.

11. (5) Bored to death = completely

bored.

12. (3) Here, infinitive i.e., to go to

...... should be used. Infinitive = to +

v1

13. (5) To fail in attempt = not suc-

ced.

14. (1) Be aware of = be conscious

of , be mindful of . Beware (used

only in infinitive) = to warn against

danger. Look at the sentence : Be-

ware of dogs.

15. (1) Put of f = postpone Here, put

off should be used.

16. (3) Call around = phone many

different places/people Call on =

visit somebody Hence, call around

should be used here.

17. (5) Chip in help

18. (4) Hang in = stay positive Hang

up = end a phone call Hence, hang in

should be used here.

19. (4) Think back = remember

Hence, think back should be used

here.

20. (4) Cut in = interrupt Hence, cut

in should be used here.

21. (4) Mobility = flexibility

24. (2) Implications (Noun) = infer-

ences; conclusions; involvements.

25. (4) Burdened = loaded

29. (3) Traction = grip; resistance

30. (1) Discourse = written or spo-

ken communication

31. (2) The pattern is :

14.5

76

32. (3) The pattern is :

184

33. (4) The pattern is :

7 × 1 + 1 =7 + 1=8

8 × 2 + 2= 16 + 2= 18

18 × 3 + 3=54 + 3=57

57 × 4 + 4=228 + 4=232

232 × 5 + 5= 1160 + 5= 1165

34. (1) The pattern is :

5 + 2=7

7 + 11 (=2 + 9) = 18

18 + 29(= 11 + 18) =47

47 + 56(=29 + 27) = 103

103 + 92 (=56 + 36)=195

35. (2) The pattern is :

77 + 8=85

85-2 × 8=85-16=69

69 + 2 × 16=69 + 32= 101

101-2 × 32= 101-64=37

37 + 2 × 64=37 + 128=165

36. (2) Number of cars sold in 2016 :

Company

Company

Required answer

6000

37. (1) Required ratio

:

(2500 : 7000

: 14

38. (4) Number of cars sold by

both companies :

Year Year

Percentage decrease

(

)

39. (3)Average number of cars

sold :

Company X

Company

Required difference

. (5) Required answer

. (4) Female visitors :

District

District

Their Sum

Male visitors :

District

District

Their sum

Required difference

42. (2) Required average number

of visitors from districts and

Required average number of

visitors from districts and

Required percent

43. (3) Male visitors :

District

District

Their sum l65

Female visitors :

District

District

Their sum l50

Required ratio : 348

: 116

44. (4) Male visitors from district

Female visitors from district

Required percentage increase

(

)

%

45. (5) Male visitors :

District

District

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58

District

Their sum l54

Female visitors :

District

District

District

Their sum

46. (4) I. x2 3x + 2 = 0

x2 x 2x + 2 = 0

x (x 1) 2 (x 1) = 0

(x 2) (x 1) = 0

x = 1 or 2

II. 2y2 7y + 6 = 0

2y2 4y 3y + 6 = 0

2y (y 2) 3 (y 2) = 0

(y 2) (2y 3) = 0

y = 2 or, 3/2

Clearly, x < y

47. (1) I. 3x2 + 4x + 1 = 0

3x2 + 3x + x + 1 = 0

3x (x + 1) + 1 (x + 1) = 0

(x + 1) (3x + 1) = 0

x = 1 or, 1/3

II. y2 + 5y + 6 = 0

y2 + 2y + 3y + 6 = 0

y (y + 2) + 3 (y + 2) = 0

(y + 2) (y + 3) = 0

y = 2 or, 3

Clearly, x > y

48. (1) I. 2x2 + 5x + 2 = 0

2x2 + 4x + x + 2 = 0

2x (x + 2) + 1 (x + 2) = 0

(x + 2) (2x + 1) = 0

x = 2 or, 1/2

II. y2 + 9y + 20 = 0

y2 + 4y + 5y + 20 = 0

y (y + 4) + 5 (y + 4) = 0

(y + 4) (y + 5) = 0

y = 4 or, 5

Clearly, x > y

49. (4) I. x2 7x + 10 = 0

x2 2x 5x + 10 = 0

x (x 2) 5 (x 2) = 0

(x 5) (x 2) = 0

x = 5 or, 2

II. y2 12y + 35 = 0

y2 5y 7y + 35 = 0

y (y 5) 7 (y 5) = 0

(y 5) (y 7) = 0

y = 5 or, 7

Clearly, x < y

50. (5) I. (x 12)2 = 0

(x 12) (x 12) = 0

x = 12, 12

II. y2 = 144

y = ± 12

51. (3)?

Required answer

52. (3) √ √

?

?

?

53. (4) √

54. (3)

55. (3)

Required answer

56. (2) Let the C.P. of article be Rs.

100.

Marked price Rs. 140

S.P. . 112

Discount Rs. Rs. 28

Case II, S.P. of article Rs.

(

)

. 144

57. (4) From 1 to 27 :

Odd numbers

Even numbers

The sum of numbers appear‐ ing at both cards will be odd

if one card has odd number, other

card has even number.

Required probability

when first card is even and

second card is odd when

first card is odd, other card is

even

58. (3) Work done by

Work done by

Time taken by A in doing 1

work

Time taken by in doing 1

work

days

is 20% more efficient than

A.

Time taken by

days

Time taken by days

Work done by both in 1 day

Required time

days

59. (1) (

)

(

)

(

)

. 13104

. (2) Expenditure on rent and

money given to mother out of

72% of salary

Remaining part

part . 5280

part

Rs. 4320

61. (4) Sum of present ages of

husband and wife

years

years

Sum of present ages of hus‐ band, wife and child

years

years

62.

years

years

4 years hence,

years

years

Father : Mother

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59

:

63. (2) Rate downstream

*

+ kmph.

kmph.

If the speed of current be

kmph, then

Rate upstream kmph.

According to the question,

kmph.

64. (4) Ratio of the equivalent cap‐ itals of and for 1 month

: :

: : : 27 : 20

Sum of the terms of ratio

If total annual profit be Rs. then

Rs. 9200

65. (4) AB = 28 metre

Radius of circle = 14 metre

Area of circular garden = pr2

=

× 14 × 14

= 616 sq. metre

Area of square plot = 28 × 28

= 784 sq. metre

\ Area of shaded region

= (784 616) sq. metre

= 168 sq. metre

(66 70) :

Floor

Number

Person Specialisation

8 J Electrical

Engineering

7 E Aeronautical

Engineering

6 K Automobile

Engineering

5 D Civil

Engineering

4 H Mechanical

Engineering

3 F Chemical

Engineering

2 I Software Engi-

neering

1 G Instrumentation

Engineering

76-80

B P D C R S A Q

31 21 14 26 16 23 19 17

81-85

Year Person Age in years

1946 T 71

1967 P 50

1972 Q 45

1982 R 35

1984 S 33

1989 V 28

1992 U 25

86-87

Box Fruit

K Litchi

M Grape

J Apple

L Mango

91-95

Month Date Person

March 10th M

27th X

June 10th W

27th N

October 10th Z

27th O

November 10th V

27th Y

96. (5) M > U > L < N

L > Y > A

Y < L < N

Conclusions :

I. Y < N : Not True

II. Y = N : Not True

Y is either smaller than or

equal to N. Therefore, either

Conclusion I or Conclusion II

is true.

97. (4) J > A > D = E

L < A < M

J > A < M

J > A > L

Conclusions :

I. M < J : Not True

II. J > L : True

98. (1) M < K > L = Y

P < T > M

P < T > M < K > L = Y

T > M < K > L

Conclusions :

I. P > Y : Not True

II. T < L : Not True

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60

RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-

3) English Language

Directions (1 10) : Which of the phrases given

against the sentences should replace the word/

phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it

grammatically correct?

If the sentence is correct as it is given and no cor-

rection is required,

as the answer.

1. Progress is necessary, but by responsibly devel-

opment, we will be the agents of our own destruc-

tion.

(1) without responsible development

(2) despite of responsible development

(3) for responsible develop

(4) following responsibility development

(5) No correction required

2. Plucking and feast from fresh, detectable berries

favourite childhood memory.

(1) feasting (2) feasting on

(3) feast upon (4) feasted with

(5) No correction required

3. The indigenous and ingenious boat-making tradi-

tion that once thrived in India, is now well its way

by.

(1) on its way out.

(2) its way to

(3) its way over

(4) is on its way

(5) No correction required

4. The research team, which includes some well-

known names, is very optimistic, in the process.

(1) by the process

(2) about the process

(3) beyond the process

(4) through the process

(5) No correction required

5. Curiosity has played important role around ad-

vancement of the human species.

(1) feasting

(2) to advance the

(3) of the advanced

(4) in the advancement

(5) No correction required

6. The role of banks in economic development is to

removed deficit of capital by stimulating savings

and investment.

(1) have removed deficiency

(2) remove the deficiency

(3) remove away deficient

(4) removing deficit

(5) No correction required

7. During the carnival anyone can set up a tempo-

rary restaurant in their backyard or at street and

sell their specialities to passers-by.

(1) down the street

(2) before street

(3) by the street

(4) across street

(5) No correction required

8. A team of European scientists placed a spacecraft

into orbit around Mars to hunt for signs of life

below.

(1) as to hunt sign

(2) hunting about signs

(3) be hunted by signs

(4) hunt following sign

(5) No correction required

9. The public sector banks exercise a degree of dis-

crimination of optimum utilise of the financial

resources of the community.

(1) on optimising utility

(2) by optimally utilising

(3) to optimum utilise

(4) for optimum utilisation

(5) No correction required

10. Observing that when the markets are in a

buoyant state, the retail investor tends to jump in

and invest in the market.

(1) To observe

(2) An observation

(3) It is observed

(4) By observing

(5) No correction required

Directions (11 20) : Read the following passage

and answer the given questions. Certain words or

phrases are given in bold to help you locate them

while answering some of the questions.

Stocks of grain and other foods are high, with an-

other bumper harvest due in the northern hemi-

sphere this year. The number of hungry people has

been falling too, by 167 million in the past decade,

according Organ-

isation (FAO), chiefly thanks to progress in China

and India. Yet that leaves nearly 800 million, a

third of which are in Africa, The UN reckons that

one measure,

has the dropped from 18.6% of the world popula-

tion in 1990-92 to 10.9% now. That broadly meets

a target the world set itself in 2000, in the Millenni-

um Development Goals. But international bodies

such as the G7 are worried about the coming dec-

population will exceed nine bil-

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61

lion in 2050, with most of the growth in developing

countries. The United States Department of Agri-

culture reckons that the number of hungry

-Saharan Africa will

rise by a third. The FAO reckons that food produc-

tion will need to increase by 70%. Worries abound.

Crop yields are flat.

And many trends are negative : new crop diseases,

urbanisation, desertification, salinisation and soil

erosion, which outstrips renewal even in developed

countries.

That does not mean disaster is looming. Agricultur-

al productivity is i-

tion- plenty of

room for improvement. But in most kinds of agri-

culture, scarce water can be used more sensibly. A

Mechanical Engi-

neers estimated that 550 billion litres are wasted

annually in crop production. Eliminating waste, for

example by dripfeed irrigation, could raise food

production by 60% or more. Phosphorus {a finite

resource, unlike water) is wasted too : only a fifth

of the phosphorus mined actually ends up in food.

Climate change will indeed hurt some farmers but

help otheRs (so, perhaps, does more carbon dioxide

in the atmosphere). Genetically Modified (GM)

crops (such as drought-resistant rice, heat-resistant

maize or blight-resistant wheat) have huge poten-

tial. Technology is only part of the solution.

The food chain lacks resilience to other forms of

disruption too, from political strife to consumer

panics.

Panics about contamination (real or imagined), for

example, can send food flying off the shelves. A

new report by Lloyds of London insurance market

highlights the need for more innovation to help

farmers and food manufacturers deal with adverse

weather and other potential risks.

The Gulf countries have long been preoccupied by

the question of how to feed their people. The re-

population is expected to grow by 40% be-

tween 2010 and 2030. Some gulf countries import

as much as 10% of their food. Their governments

have been unsure of the best way to keep everyone

fedand content. Qatar reportedly declared that it

would produce 70% of its food at home by 2023, by

adopting new technologies of desalination and hy-

droponics. Adding a layer of the hydroponic sand

under the topsoil stops water from reaching away,

making it easier to grow crops in odd climates or in

waterscarce lands. Agricultural entrepreneurs reck-

on that such innovation could allow the country to

grow more of its own food. That idea was soon

dropped. Saudi Arabia, with the busiest farm sec-

tor among the six countries of the Gulf Co-

operation Council, scaled back wheat grown by

irrigation because it was draining non-renewable

aquifers.

Heavy reliance on imports is problematic when

countries such as Argentina suddenly restrict their

exports in response to rising prices.

Buying farmland in countries such as Sudan, Tan-

zania and Pakistan is another Gulf ploy. The UAE

and Saudi Arabia are among the top ten investors in

land abroad, according to Land Matrix, a body that

tracks such deals. But this has drawbacks, too.

Getting big projects off the ground in places that

lack infrastructure

rulers are now considering investing in food com-

panies abroad, often in more developed countries.

which works

closely with the government and owns land abroad,

recently bought eight farm companies in Serbia for

$400m. It has also invested in an Indian rice pro-

ducer. In addition, countries like Saudi Arabia are

looking at ways of keeping strategic food reserves.

Gulf rulers may end up following a mixture of such

strategies to fill

should at least be commended for grappling with

the problem, says a regional food expert. Poorer

and hungrier Arab countries, like Egypt and Yem-

en, are far less willing to address it.

11. Why has the author mentioned the example of

Qatar in the passage?

(A) To illustrate how increased dependence on for-

eign food imports backfires

(B) It demonstrates the tremendous impact climate

change has on agriculture which is going unnoticed

(C) To show that some countries are innovative and

making tremendous efforts to improve agriculture.

(1) Only A (2) Only C

(3) Only B and C (4) Only A and C

(5) All three A, B and C

12. Which of the following is the SAME in mean-

ing as the word FLAT as used in the passage?

(1) categorical (2) totally

(3) unvarying (4) pre-determined

(5) All the given options

13. Which of the following can be said about agri-

culture in Gulf countries?

(A) Though genetically modified such food has

proven more nutritious

(B) Some countries are highly dependent on food

imports

(C) It is a tricky issue to address and needs a variety

of remedies.

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62

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)

(3) Only C (4) Only A and C

(5) All three A, B and C

14. Which of the following is the OPPOSITE of the

word DROPPED as used in the passage?

(1) upheld (2) sustained

(3) supported (4) backed

(5) All the given options

15. Which of the following is/are

(a) theme(s) of the passage?

(1) Factors impacting food production

(2) Food security in gulf countries

(3) Challenges to agricultural productivity even in

developed countries

(4) Wastage of water resources

(5) All the given options are themes

16. Which of the following best describes the au-

the global food situation?

(1) The world has been successful to an extent in

addressing the issue of hunger.

(2) There is a food crisis imminent in the coming

decades.

(3) Countries cannot rely solely on imports to meet

their food needs.

(4) Technology can be har - nessed to address the

issue of food security.

(5) All the given options

17. Which of the following is/are the argument(s) in

favour of investing in agriculture abroad?

(A) It is a means to boost food security in countries

which invest

(B) Agriculture at home is too costly in terms of

scarce natural resources

(C) It will help countries which do so to address

discontent at home.

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)

(3) All (A), (B) and (C) (4) Only (B) and (C)

(5) Only (A) and (C)

18. Which of the following is the OPPOSITE of the

word POTENTIAL as used in the passage?

(1) inept (2) unthinkable

(3) impending (4) incapable

(5) None of the given options

19. Which of the following is not true in the context

of the passage?

(1) Gulf countries are rich on account of vast soil

reserves and food needs are easily met through im-

ports.

(2) China, India have made strides in addressing

food security.

(3) Drip-feed irrigation is an efficient means of

irrigation.

(4) The population is growing in gulf countries.

(5) All the given options are true in the context of

the passage.

20. Which of the following is the SAME in mean-

ing as the word TRACKS as used in the passage?

(1) paths (2) monitoRs

(3) prints (4) captures

(5) None of the given options

Directions (21 30) : In the given passage there are

words/group of words highlighted in bold and un-

derlined. You have to decide if the word/group of

words given is correct (in terms of grammar and

context). If not, find out the appropriate word/group

of words from the given options. In case, the sug-

gested word/group of words is correct, select the

answer.

Ergonomics is the science of studying how efficient

people are in their work environment, as well as

(21) to analysing what could be done to make them

more productive throughout the day. In simple

terms, an ergonomic study is conducted to (22)

established if all employees are working to their

full efficiency with the office supplied to them cur-

rently. If the study concludes that productivity

would increase and the employees would benefit

from a change in supplies such as a different chair,

desk, mouse, monitor, etc., the needed changes are

made to (23) ensure that employees do not sustain

any injury and are able to work at their full produc-

tivity level from then on.

Unfortunately, in many workplaces ergonomics is a

little thought about subject, resulting in employees

developing long term issues such as back pain, car-

pal tunnel syndrome, neck pain, vision problems,

etc. The benefits of working in an economic envi-

ronment are (24) Infinity, but some of the major

benefits are attractive to employers as well as em-

ployees, such as reducing costs, increasing produc-

tivity, increasing employee morals and improving

the quality of work.

The more people working in an ergonomic envi-

ronment will result in less and less risk factors and

in compensation

claims a business faces. (25) Accommodate em-

ployees with a comfortable work space reduces the

risk of their obtaining injuries during their career,

and gives them a sense of importance within the

company to know they are being taken care of and

their best (26) concern are being looked out for by

their employer. Statistics show that many adults

spend up to 70% of their waking hours sitting down

and have little to no physical activity in their daily

lives. The introduction of the computer led to a (27)

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63

dissolution in physical activity due to the fact that

many adults hold office jobs which require them to

sit at a desk to work. Leading ergonomic furniture

supplier, ISE Group, offers a complete line of ergo-

nomic office furniture allowing consumers to (28)

manufacture which pieces and styles they would

like and customize their office to (29) met their

needs, as well as any accessories that may come in

handy such as laptop and tablet drawers.

employer to put

employees an ergonomic environment. There are

small things employees can do each day to improve

their work environment, take (30) strain off their

back and improve their productivity.

21. (1) spelling (2) reciting

(3) accounting (4) detailing

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct

22. (1) determine (2) drive

(3) incline (4) figure

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct

23. (1) guard (2) ascertained

(3) provide (4) doubt

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct

24. (1) ultimate (2) endless

(3) halting (4) ornamental

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct

25. (1) Affording (2) Administering

(3) Catering (4) Providing

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct

26. (1) interests (2) enthusiasm

(3) wishes (4) activities

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct

27. (1) weaken (2) decent

(3) decline (4) diminish

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct

28. (1) align (2) choose

(3) elect (4) prefer

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct

29. (1) ensemble (2) correspond

(3) attune (4) fit

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct

30. (1) constrict (2) wetness

(3) afflicted (4) afflicting

(5) The given word(s) is/are correct

Quantitative Aptitude Directions (31 35) : Study the table and answer

the given questions

School Number of females

who appeared

Ratio of number of

females and males

who appeared

A 520 13 : 10

B 450 3 : 2

C 330 3 : 5

D 420 7 : 6

E 300 4 : 5

31. What was the respective ratio of the difference

between the number of students (males and fe-

males) appearing from Schools A and C and those

appearing from Schools B and D?

(1) 4 : 3 (2) 6 : 5

(3) 7 : 6 (4) 5 : 3

(5) 5 : 4

32. In School B, if the number of males and fe-

males who failed x re-

spective ratio between the number of males and

females who passed the test was 5 : 8, what was the

value of x ?

(1) 75 (2) 60

(3) 45 (4) 80

(5) 50

33. Total number of students

(males and females) appearing from School D was

by what per cent more than those from School E?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

34. What was the average number of males who

appeared from Schools B, D and E?

(1) 350 (2) 345

(3) 355 (4) 340

(5) 335

35.What was the difference between the total num-

ber of females appearing from Schools A and C

together and that of males appearing from the same

Schools together?

(1) 120 (2) 100

(3) 90 (4) 130

(5) 110

Directions (36 40) : What approximate value will

come in place of the question mark (?) in the given

questions? (You are not expected to calculate the

exact value.)

36. 1440 ÷ √ + 44.85 ?

= 21.92 × 5.04

(1) 55 (2) 60

(3) 75 (4) 70

(5) 65

37. 59.94% of (? × 8.03) √ = 6.92

(1) 8 (2) 10

(3) 15 (4) 28

(5) 22

38.

√ ´ = 52

(1) 625 (2) 25

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64

(3) 1225 (4) 35

(5) 1025

39. 3089.92 930.02 ? = 21.92 × 49.93

(1) 1030 (2) 900

(3) 1060 (4) 1080

(5) 920

40.

(1) 28 (2) 20

(3) 18 (4) 16

(5) 14

41. Radha invests certain sums in scheme A (for 6

years) and B (for 5 years) both offering simple in-

terest. The sum invested in scheme B was 25% less

than that in scheme A. The interests received from

both the schemes are equal. If the interest offered

by scheme A is 10% per annum what is the rate of

interest (per annum) offered by scheme B?

(1) 12% (2) 20%

(3) 16% (4) 15%

(5) 18%

42. The present age of B is three years more than

six years ago. The respective ratio

years

years present age ?

(1) 14 years (2) 32 years (3) 19 years (4) 22 years

(5) 18 years 43. Jar A has x litre milk and jar B has

y litre water. 80% milk and 20% water was taken

out from the respective jars and were mixed in jar

C. The respective ratio between milk and water in

jar C was 2 : 1. When 28 litre pure milk was added

to jar C, the total quantity of mixture in jar C be-

came 76 litre. What was the value of x ?

(1) 90 (2) 50

(3) 60 (4) 80

(5) 40

Directions (44 48) : What should come in place of

question mark (?) in the given number series ?

44. 5 9 35 209 ? 16709

(1) 1711 (2) 1574

(3) 1627 (4) 1671

(5) 1681

45. 5 12 23 43 79 ?

(1) 130 (2) 110

(3) 140 (4) 160

(5) 150

46. 256 252 225 209 84 ?

(1) 48 (2) 42

(3) 44 (4) 40

(5) 50

47. 8 3 2 2 3 ?

(1) 5.5 (2) 5

(3) 4.5 (4) 6.5

(5) 6

48. 17 18.6 15.4 21.8 9 ?

(1) 34.8 (2) 34.6

(3) 32.2 (4) 36.2

(5) 33.8

Directions (49 53) : Refer to the graph and answer

the given questions

Data regarding the number of students opting

for one of the five games at a Sports Academy

(having a total strength of 1400 students)

49. What is the difference between the total number

of students opting for Cricket and Volleyball to-

gether in 2012 and those opting for the same games

together in 2013?

(1) 110 (2) 160

(3) 130 (4) 100

(5) 120

50. What is the respective ratio between the total

number of students opting for Cricket in 2012 and

2013 together and those opting for Volleyball in the

same years together ?

(1) 6 : 7 (2) 8 : 9

(3) 7 : 8 (4) 4 : 5

(5) 5 : 6

51. At the end of 2013, the total strength of the

sports Academy increases by 5%. The new joiners

opt for Cricket and Tennis only, in the respective

ratio of 3 : 4.What is the new respective ratio of the

number of students opting for Cricket and Tennis ?

(1) 3 : 2 (2) 6 : 5

(3) 5 : 4 (4) 4 : 3

(5) 7 : 6

52. In 2012, number of students opting for football

is what per cent less than those opting for swim-

ming ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

53. What is the average number of students opting

for Cricket, Swimming and Volleyball in 2013?

(1) 300 (2) 320

(3) 290 (4) 310

(5) 280

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65

54. A bag contains 25 cards (numbered 1, 2, 3, 4,

______, 25) Two cards are picked at random from

the bag (one after another and without replacement)

What is the probability that the first card drawn has

a prime number and the second card drawn has a

number which is multiple of 12?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

55. The sum of radius and height of right circular

cylinder is 29 metre. If the total surface area of the

cylinder is 1276 square metre, what is the volume

of the cylinder? (in cubic metre)

(1) 3340 (2) 3442

(3) 3774 (4) 3308

(5) 3388

Directions (56 60) : In the following questions,

two equations numbered I and II are given. You

have to solve both the equations and

Give answer If

(1) x < y (2) x > y

(3) x < y (4) x > y

(5) x = y or the relationship cannot be established

56. I. x2 3x 40 = 0

II. y2 15y + 54 = 0

57. I. 2x2 + 7x + 5 = 0

II. 5y2 + 9y + 4 = 0

58. I.x2 21x + 38 = 0

II. y2 11y + 28 = 0

59. I.(x + 13)2 = 0

II. y2 + y 56 = 0

60. I.9x2 18x + 8 = 0

II. 3y2 10y + 8 = 0

61. A and B together can finish a piece of work in

20 days. B and C can together finish the same piece

of work in 30 days If A is twice as efficient as C, in

how many days can C alone finish the same piece

of work?

(1) 36 (2) 40

(3) 42 (4) 60

(5) 48

62. Out of their respective monthly salaries, Sonia

and Tina spend 76% and 68% on various household

expenses. The sum of remaining salary with Sonia

30% less tha

monthly salary?

(1) Rs. 28,000 (2) Rs. 29000

(3) Rs. 25000 (4) Rs. 30000

(5) Rs. 32000

63. A, B and C started a business with investments

of Rs. 1200, Rs. 400 and Rs. 300 respectively. At

the end of 6 months from the start of the business,

A invested an additional amount x

total annual profit was 5 3 4 in an-

nual profit, what was the value of x ?

(1) 1200 (2) 1000

(3) 900 (4) 800

(5) 850

64. The distance covered upstream

a boat is equal to the distance covered downstream

in (T 1) hours. The speed of the boat upstream is

16 km/h and that downstream is 20 km/h. What is

the distance covered by the boat downstream? (in

km)

(1) 80 (2) 120

(3) 72 (4) 85

(5) 100

65. Renu sold article A at a loss of 10%. She sold

article B at a price which was 25% more than the

selling price of article A. If she made a profit of

20% on article B, by what per cent is the cost price

of article A more than that of article B?

(1)

(2) 4

(3) 5 (4)

(5)

Reasoning 66. C is the mother-in-law of Z. Z is the only child

of P. P is the grandfather of S. S is the niece of T. If

C has only one daughter, how is T definitely related

to Z?

(1) Daughter-in-law

(2) Brother-in-law

(3) Sister

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) Sister-in-law

67. In a vertical queue of 15 people all facing north

with equal distance between each other, P stands

third from one of the extreme ends of the queue.

Only six people stand between P and A. The num-

ber of people standing before A is same as that

standing after G. Q stands exactly between A and

G. How many people stand after Q?

(1) Seven (2) Four

(3) Twelve (4) Six

(5) Eight

Directions (68 70) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Each of the six stores D, E, F, G, H and I sold dif-

ferent number of fruits in one day. Only two stores

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66

sold less fruits than I. F sold less fruits than D but

more than G and I. G sold less fruits than I. H sold

more fruits than D. The store which sold the third

highest number of fruits sold 62 fruits (Note : the

number of fruits sold is in whole numbers).

68. If the total number of fruits sold by E is 60,

with reference to the total number of fruits sold, E +

D = 135, then D + F = _______ ?

(1) 122 (2) 111

(3) 129 (4) 139

(5) 137

69. If the total number of fruits sold by E is 60, then

who amongst the following sold the lowest number

of fruits?

(1) G (2) D

(3) F (4) Cannot be deter-

mined

(5) E

70. How many fruits did H probably sell ?

(1) 61 (2) 54

(3) 81 (4) 49

(5) 30

Directions (71 75) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight people J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q were

born in different years, viz. 1955, 1963, 1977,

1982, 1988, 1993, 2000 and 2006 but not necessari-

ly in the same order.

Note :

(A) All calculations are done with respect to the

present year, 2017 assuming the month and date to

be the same as that of the years of birth as men-

tioned above.

(B) Each person is assumed to be born on the same

date and same month of the respective years M was

born after 1993. The sum of the present ages of M

and Q is 46. The difference between the present

ages of Q divisible by

9. The difference between the present ages of N and

J is less than 6. J is older than N. O was born in an

even numbered year. O is not 11 year old.

71. How many person(s) is/are younger than M?

(1) Three (2) None

(3) Two (4) One

(5) More than three

72. Which of the following statements is true re-

garding K as per the given arrangement?

(1) The difference between the present ages of K

and P is less than 12.

(2) K was born in an even numbered year.

(3) None of the given statements is true.

(4) K is younger than L

(5) K is 11 years old.

73. If N is older than O but younger than J, then

which of the following can possibly be the present

age of N (in years)?

(1) 24 (2) 17

(3) 29 (4) 35

(5) 40

74. Who amongst the following was born in the

year 1977?

(1) J (2) K

(3) L (4) N

(5) P

75. Which of the following represents the present

ages of J and L (in years) respectively?

(1) 35, 54 (2) 24, 40

(3) 24, 62 (4) 29, 54

(5) 29, 40

76. In a certain code language,

. How

code language? (All the

given codes are two letter codes only)

(2) dc

(3) st

(4)

(5) gf

77. What should come in place of $ and # respec-

tively in the expressions V > U > L > T $ R; M > O

# V > P, so that the expression R < M definitely

holds true?

(1) >, > (2) <, <

(3) <, < (4) None of those given

as options

(5) <, <

Directions (78 80) : In these questions, relation-

ship between different elements is shown in the

statements. The statements are followed by two

Conclusions numbered I and.

II. Study the Conclusions based on the given state-

ments and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer (1) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-

clusion II is true

Give answer (2) if both the Conclusion I and Con-

clusion II are true

Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I is true

Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true

Give answer (5) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-

sion II is true

78. Statements :

S < P < A > R > O; E > L > A < W < Y

Conclusions :

I. E > S

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67

II. O < Y

(79 80) :

Statements :

C > R > E < A < P; G > I > C < O < N

79. Conclusions :

I. N > P

II. G > A

80. Conclusions :

I. I > R

II. I = R

Directions (81 85) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight persons A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S have a

party in either April or December of the same year

which will be organised only on the four days viz.,

4th, 17th, 20th and 29th of each month. No two

people have a party on the same day. A has a party

in December on an odd numbered date. Only three

people have to attend a party between A and C. The

number of people having a party after C is same as

those having a party before B. Only one person has

a party between P and B. P does not have to attend

a party in April. Both S and R have to attend a party

on the same date. S has to party on one of the days

after R. Only two people have to attend a party be-

tween S and Q.

81. How many people have to attend a party be-

tween Q and D?

(1) None (2) One

(3) Three (4) Two

(5) More than three

82. When does Q have to attend a party ?

(1) 4th April (2) 29th December

(3) 17th December (4) Cannot be deter-

mined

(5) 20th April

83. Who among the following have to attend a par-

ty on 4th April and 4th December ?

(1) B, C (2) R, S

(3) P, B (4) B, D

(5) P, C

84. Which of the following statements is true with

respect to the given information?

(I) S has to attend a party on 4th December

(II) Only two people have to attend a party between

A and Q

(III) C has to attend a party on one of the days after

R.

(1) None of the given statements is true

(2) Both (I) and (II)

(3) Only (III)

(4) Only (I)

(5) Both (II) and (III)

85. In the given arrangement, if Q and A inter-

change their positions and so do C and P, then how

many people will have to attend a party between A

and C?

(1) Three (2) Two

(3) One (4) More than three

(5) None

Directions (86 90) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight persons A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S all of

them facing north are sitting in a straight line.

Each person is having different age viz., 14, 16, 21,

26, 28, 17, 29 and 31 but not necessarily in the

same order. B sits at one of the extreme ends of the

number. There are three

persons sitting between one whose age is 16 and B.

One whose age is 29 sits second to the left of C. C

sits to the right of one whose age is 16 but not im-

mediately. D sits at the third position from the left

end. The one who is the eldest among all is not an

immediate neighbour of D, who is not the youngest

among all. P sits to the immediate right of one who

nor 17. Differ-

are two persons sitting between one whose age is

26 and S, who sits to the right of one whose age is

26. R is not to the immediate left of S. Q sits third

to the right of A.

86. Who among the following persons sits second

to the right of S?

(1) B (2) C

(3) Q (4) A

(5) None of these

87. What is the age of one who sits to the immedi-

ate right of P?

(1) 17 (2) 28

(3) 14 (4) 26

(5) Cannot be determined

88. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way based on the given arrangement and hence

they form a group.

Which one of the following does not belong to that

group?

(1) 14, R (2) P, 29

(3) 26, B (4) Q, 29

(5) S, 21

89. Who among the following persons are immedi-

ate neighbours of one whose age is 14?

(1) P and Q (2) C and S

(3) S and B (4) R and C

(5) None of these

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68

90. Which of the following statement is/are defi-

nitely true?

(1) One who sits third to the right of S is Q, whose

age is 14.

ages are consecutive

numbers.

(3) R is an immediate neighbour of S and C.

a prime number.

(5) Both (2) and (4)

91. A person starts from Point A, walks 7m towards

north and reaches Point B. He then takes a right

turn, followed by a right turn and walks for 10m

each time. He then takes a right turn and walks

14m. He takes a final left turn, walks 3m and

reaches Point C. Point Z is 10m to the north of

Point C. Point Z is in which direction with respect

to Point B?

(1) North-West (2) South-East

(3) South-West (4) North-East

(5) South

92. Five movies D, E, F, G and H are to be

released on five different days of the same week

starting from Monday and ending on Friday, but not

necessarily in the same order. E will be released on

one of the days after Tuesday but not on Wednes-

day. Only two movies will be released between E

and F. D will be released immediately before F.

Only one movie will be released between D and H,

which movie is released immediately after G?

(1) Cannot be determined

(2) H

(3) E (4) D

(5) F

93. In the number 2698345, three is subtracted from

each digit greater than five. Five is added to each

digit less than four.

All other digits are kept unchanged.

In the new number thus formed, which of the fol-

lowing digits will appear more than once ?

(1) None (2) Only 3

(3) Both 3 and 6 (4) Both 3 and 4

(5) Only 5

94. Leena placed four envelopes A, B, C and D

above one another but not necessarily in the

same order. She kept one of the items in each of the

envelopes Tickets, Passport, Marksheets and

Stationery but not necessarily in the same order.

The envelope containing Passport is kept immedi-

aely below A. No envelope is kept between A and

C. The envelope containing Tickets is kept imme-

diately above the envelope containing Marksheets.

A does not contain Marksheets. What is the posi-

tion of the envelope containing Stationery from the

top of the stack ?

(1) Fourth (2) Cannot be deter-

mined

(3) Second (4) First

(5) Third

95. In which of the following expression does the

expression K > N definitely holds false ?

(1) Q < U = B < K; N < T < Q < R

(2) Q = U = B < K; N < T < Q > R

(3) Q < U < B > K; N = T < Q > R

(4) Q = U < B < K; N < T < Q > R

(5) Q = U < B < K; N < T < Q > R

Directions (96 100) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight people viz. Z, V, N, E, L, Q, H and U live on

eight different floors of a building. The ground

floor of the building is numbered one, the one

above that is numbered two and so on till the top-

most floor is numbered eight. All of them play a

different video games viz., Batman, Darkstone,

Gothic, Magicka, Jurassic Park, Rayman, Payday

and Victoria

(Note : None of the given information is necessari-

ly in the same order.) E lives on floor number two.

No one lives between E and the one who plays

Batman. Only four people live between U and the

one who plays Batman. Only one person lives be-

tween U and the one who plays Magicka.

The one who plays Magicka does not live on the

topmost floor.

As many people live between the one who plays

Batman and Magicka as between L and Q. L lives

on an odd numbered floor above Q. As many peo-

ple live between the one who plays Batman and Q

as between the one who plays Darkstone and Q.

The one who plays Payday lives on an even num-

bered floor immediately above the one who plays

Victoria but on floor above two. Only two people

live between H and Z. H lives on one of the floors

above Z. The one who plays Rayman lives immedi-

ately below the one who plays Gothic. Only one

person lives between V and N. V lives on one of

the floors above N.

96. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way based on the given arrangement and thus they

form a group. Which one of the following does not

belong to the group?

(1) V Floor Number Six

(2) Q Victoria

(3) Z Magicka (4) U Floor Number

Five

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69

(5) H Darkstone

97. Who plays Jurassic Park ?

(1) E (2) Q

(3) L (4) H

(5) N

98. Which of the following statements is true as per

the given arrangement ?

(1) Z lives on floor number five.

(2) Q plays Magicka.

(3) Only one person lives between U and H.

(4) V lives immediately above E.

(5) All the given statements are true

99. Which game does U play ?

(1) Victoria (2) Payday

(3) Rayman (4) Gothic

(5) Batman

100. How many people live between the one who

plays Gothic and U ?

(1) Three (2) One

(3) Two (4) Four

(5) None

Answer Key 1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (5) 9.

(4) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (5) 14. (2) 15. (5) 16.

(5) 17. (3) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (4) 22. (1) 23.

(5) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (2) 29. (4) 30.

(5) 31. (1) 32. (5) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (2) 36. (1) 37.

(3) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (2) 41. (3) 42. (5) 43. (5) 44.

(4) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (5) 50. (3) 51.

(5) 52. (1) 53. (1) 54. (1) 55. (5) 56. (5) 57. (3) 58.

(5) 59. (1) 60. (3) 61. (4) 62. (4) 63. (4) 64. (1) 65.

(1) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (5) 69. (1) 70. (3) 71. (2) 72.

(3) 73. (1) 74. (5) 75. (4) 76. (4) 77. (1) 78. (2) 79.

(1) 80. (5) 81. (2) 82. (5) 83. (4) 84. (3) 85. (1) 86.

(3) 87. (1) 88. (2) 89. (4) 90. (5) 91. (3) 92. (3) 93.

(5) 94. (2) 95. (3) 96. (1) 97. (4) 98. (5) 99. (2) 100.

(3)

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70

Solutions: 1. (1) But shows contrast. Hence,

without responsible development

.....should be used here.

2. (2) Feast on something = to eat a

lot of good food and enjoy it very

much. Hence, feasting on should be

used here.

3. (1) On its way out = going out of

fashion; in the process of becoming

redundant or obsolete. Hence, on its

way out should be used here.

4. (2) Optimisitic (Adjective) = ex-

pecting good things to happen : posi-

tive. Look at the sentence : She is

not very optimisitic about the out-

come of the talks. Hence, about the

process should be used.

5. (4) In the advancement = in the

progress. Hence, in the advancement

..... should be used here.

6. (2) Here, remove the deficiency

(Noun) .....should be used.

7. (1) Down the street = a short dis-

tance away on the same street

9. (4) Here, for optimum utilisation

(Noun) .....should be used.

10. (1) Generality is evident. Hence,

It is observed ..... should be used.

12. (3) Flat (Adjective) = complete

or certain, and not likely to change;

unvarying.

14. (2) Drop (Verb) = to stop doing

or discussing something; to not con-

tinue with something doing or dis-

cussing something; to not continue

with something. Sustain (Verb) = to

make something continue for some-

time.

18. (5) Potential (Noun/Adjective) =

develop, achieve or succeed. Look at

the sentence : The region has enor-

mous potential for economic devel-

opment.

20. (2) Track (Verb) = to record the

progress ; monitor. Look at the sen-

tence : The study tracked the careers

of 100 doctors who trained at the

Medical school.

21. (4) Detail (Verb) = give full

information about

22. (1) Determine (Verb) = to dis-

cover the facts about something.

23. (5) Ensure (Verb) = make sure.

24. (2) Endless = very large in size;

limitless.

25. (4) Interest = advantage

27. (3) Decline = to become weaker

31. (1) Males who appear in the

test :

School

School

School

School

Difference between the

number of students from

schools A and who appear

in test

Difference between the number of

students from schools

and who appear in test

Required ratio

32. (5) School

Males who appear in test

According to the question,

33. (2) Males from school who

appear in test

Total number of students who

appear in test :

School

School

Required per cent

(

)

%

34. (2) Required average

35. (2) Required difference

36. (1) √

37. (3)

38. (3) √

39. (3) 3090 930−?

. (2)

41. (3) Let the investment in

scheme A be Rs. 100.

Investment in scheme S.I.

According to the question,

per annum

42. (5) Let

years.

(

) years

(

) years

years

According to the question,

years

43. (5) Case I, Quantity of milk in

vessel

litres

Quantity of water

litres

According to the question,

(i)

Case II, On adding 28 litres of milk,

litres

44. (4) The pattern is :

5 × 2 1 = 10 1 = 9

9 × 4 1 = 36 1 = 35

35 × 6 1 = 210 1 = 209

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71

209 × 8 1 = 1672 1 = 1671

1671 × 10 1 = 16710 1

= 16709

45. (3) The pattern is :

5 + 7 = 12

12 + 11 (= 7 + 22) = 23

23 + 20 (=11 + 32) = 43

43 + 36 (= 20 + 42) = 79

79 + 61 (= 36 + 52) = 140

46. (1) The pattern is :

256 22 = 256 4 = 252

252 33 = 252 27 = 225

225 42 = 225 16 = 209

209 53 = 209 125 = 84

84 62 = 84 36 = 48

47. (4) The pattern is :

6.5

48. (2) The pattern is :

17 + 1.6 = 18.6

18.6 2 × 1.6 = 18.6 3.2

= 15.4

15.4 + 2 × 3.2 = 15.4 + 6.4

= 21.8

21.8 6.4 × 2 = 21.8 12.8 = 9

9 + 12.8 × 2 = 9 + 25.6 = 34. 6 .

49. (5) Required difference

= (320 + 340) (240 + 300)

= 660 540 = 120

50. (3) Required ratio

= (240 + 320) : (300 + 340)

= 560 : 640

= 7 : 8

51. (5) In the end of 2013, Number

of new students

Cricket

Tennis

Required ratio

: (260 40)

52. (1) Required per cent

(

)

%

53. (1) Required average

54. (1)

55. (5) According to the question,

metre

Total surface area of cylinder

metre

metre

Volume of cylinder

cubic metre

56. (5) I. x2 3x 40 = 0

x2 8x + 5x 40 = 0

x (x 8) + 5 (x 8) = 0

(x 8) (x + 5) = 0

x = 8 or, 5

II. y2 15y + 54 = 0

y2 9y 6y + 54 = 0

y (y 9) 6 (y 9) = 0

(y 9) (y 6) = 0

y = 9 or, 6

57. (3) I. 2x2 + 7x + 5 = 0

2x2 + 2x + 5x + 5 = 0

2x (x + 1) + 5 (x + 1) = 0

(x + 1) (2x + 5) = 0

x = 1 or, 5/2

II. 5y2 + 9y + 4 = 0

5y2 + 5y + 4y + 4 = 0

5y (y + 1) + 4 (y +1) = 0

(y + 1) (5y + 4) = 0

y = 1 or, 4/5

Clearly, x < y

58. (5) I. x2 21x + 38 = 0

x2 2x 19x + 38 = 0

x (x 2) 19 (x 2) = 0

(x 2) (x 19) = 0

x = 2 or, 19

II. y2 11y + 28 = 0

y2 4y 7y + 28 = 0

y (y 4) 7 (y 4) = 0

(y 4) (y 7) = 0

y = 4 or, 7

59. (1) I. (x + 13)2 = 0

x = 13, 13

II. y2 + y 56 = 0

y2 + 8y 7y 56 = 0

y (y + 8) 7 (y + 8) = 0

(y 7) (y + 8)

y = 7 or, 8

Clearly, x < y

60. (3) I. 9x2 18x + 8 = 0

9x2 6x 12x + 8 = 0

3x (3x 2) 4 (3x 2) = 0

(3x 2) (3x 4) = 0

x = 2/3 or, 4/3

II. 3y2 10y + 8 = 0

3y2 6y 4y + 8 = 0

3y (y 2) 4 (y 2) = 0

(y 2) (3y 4) = 0

y = 2 or, 4/3

Clearly, x < y

61. (4)

If time taken by be days, then

[A is twice

as efficient as ].

days

62.

. 100

Monthly savings of both

(

)

If savings

salary . 75

If savings

salary

(

)

. 30000

63. (4) Ratio of the equivalent cap‐ itals of and for 1 month

:

According to the question,

64. (1) According to the question,

hours

Distance covered down‐ stream km.

65. (1) C.P. of article . 100

Its S.P. . 90

S.P. of article

. 112.5

C.P. of article

(

)

. 93.75

Required per cent

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71. 75.

Year Person

Case-I Case-II

1955 K

1963 L L

1977 J P

1982 N Q

1988 Q J

1993 P N

2000 M O

2006 M

77. (1) V > U > L > T > R M > O >

V < P M > O > V > U > L > T > R R

< M : True

78. (2) S < P < A > R > O E > L > A

< W < Y S < P < A < L < E Y > W >

A > R > O

Conclusions : I. E > S : True II. O <

Y : True (79 80) : C > R > E < A <

P G > I > C < O < R P > A > E < R

< C < O < N G > I > C > R > E < A I

> C > R

79. (1) Conclusions : I. N > P : Not

True II. G > A : Not True

80. (5) Conclusions : I. I > R : Not

True II. I = R : Not True I is either

greater than or equal to R. Therefore,

either Conclusion I or Conclusion II

is true.

81. 85.

Month Date Person

Case-I Case-II

April 4th D

17th C R

20th Q

29th R C

December 4th P B

17th A S

20th B P

29th S A

Floor

Number

Person Video Game

8 H Jurassic Park

7 L Darkstone

6 U Payday

5 Z Victoria

4 Q Magicka

3 V Gothic

2 E Rayman

1 N Batman

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73

RBI ASST. Pre 2016 (Sitting-

4) English Language

Directions (1 10) : Which of the phrases given

against the sentences should replace the word/

phrase given in bold in each sentence to make it

grammatically correct?

If the sentence is correct as it is given and no cor-

rection is required,

as the answer.

1. The presence of new players on the basketball

team is to additionally attract for the audience.

(1) with add attraction

(2) for adding attractive

(3) an added attraction

(4) of adding attraction

(5) No correction required

2. The dire need of amusement to escape boredom

made him cultivate various hobbies.

(1) escaped boredom

(2) as escaping boredom

(3) escapes bored (4) for escape being

bored

(5) No correction required

3. We were credibly informed that the Conman has

gave himself to the police.

(1) given over (2) give himself in

(3) given himself over

(4) given himself up

(5) No correction required

4. We tempted Karen with many promises but noth-

ing would worked her up.

(1) working with her

(2) works her over

(3) works upon her

(4) work on her

(5) No correction required

5. The soil of India saw growths of one of the old-

est culture in the world that is the Harappan Civili-

zation.

(1) seen the growth

(2) saw the growth

(3) had saw growing

(4) see the growths

(5) No correction required

6. A renowned organisation has recent appointed a

highly acclaimed scientist to head new research and

development assistant.

(1) recently appointed

(2) a recent appointed

(3) is to appoint (4) to recently appointed

an

(5) No correction required

7. The serene lush green slope of the hill station

make it up ideal venue for the meditation camp.

(1) making so ideal

(2) is ideal for

(3) makes it an ideal

(4) as of ideal

(5) No correction required

8. Taking good care of yourself is paramount for

succession of your goals.

(1) about being a success

(2) to the success

(3) about being successful

(4) to succeed

(5) No correction required

9. The tambourine to gain popularity in the mid

18th century in Western Europe as an orchestral

instrument.

(1) was been popular

(2) have popularity

(3) has being popular

(4) gained popularity

(5) No correction required

10. Varun advised Aman that give off wrong pleas-

ure is not selfsacrifice but self-culture.

(1) gave up (2) gives away

(3) giving through

(4) giving up

(5) No correction required

Directions (11 20) : Read the following passage

and answer the given questions. Certain words/

phrases are given in bold to help you locate them

while answering some of the questions.

There is a market failure in cyber security. Solu-

tions being suggested or tried include increasing

transparency about data losses, helping consumers

and firms to make more informed decisions about

cyber-security; shedding more light on how inter-

net-service provideRs (ISPs) tackle malware infec-

tions and using

liability laws to force software companies to pro-

duce safer code. On transparency, America has led

the way. Almost all American states now have data-

breach laws that require firms to reveal any loss of

sensitive customer information.

In Europe telecoms firms have been obliged to noti-

fy customers of breaches for some time now, and

there are plans to extend reporting to a wider range

of industries.

Breach laws have encouraged insurance companies

to offer coverage against potential losses. This is

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74

helpful because they are in a position to gather and

share information about best practices across a wide

range of companies. A cyberinsurer advises com-

panies on defensive tactics, and also on how to

minimise the damage if something goes wrong. The

American government should create a cyber-

equivalent of the National Transportation Safety

Board, which investigates serious accidents and

shares information about them. Such a body could

look into all breaches that cost over, $50m and

make sure the lessons are shared widely. But insur-

ers are likely to remain wary of taking on broader

risks because the costs associated with a serious

cyber- incident could be astronomic.

Insurers can deal with acts of God, but not acts of

Anonymous (hacking groups or acts of state spon-

sored overall cyber-insurance market is still small.

Governments are weighing in, too, not least by

supporting private-sector efforts to clean up t-

computers con-

trolled by hackers. These networks, which are prev-

alent in countries such as America and China, can

be used to launch attacks and spread malware.

In Germany an initiative called Bot- Frei, which

helps people clean up their infected computers,

received government support to get started, though

it is now self-financing. The American government

has also worked closely with private firms to bring

down large botnets. Another strategy involves issu-

ing standards to encourage improved security.

Standards and

Technology published a set of voluntary guidelines

for companies in critical-infrastructure sectors such

as energy and transport. Britain has also launched a

scheme called - under which firms

can apply for a certificate showing they comply

with certain minimum security standards. Appli-

cants undergo an external audit and, if successful,

are awarded a badge which they can use on market-

ing materials.

Whether governments are best placed to set mini-

mum standards is debatable, but they have certainly

raised awareness of cyber-security as an issue that

needs attention.

They could also help to get more information into

the public domain.

Researchers have argued persuasively that collect-

ing and publishing data about the quantity of spam

and other bad traffic handled by ISPs could encour-

age the worst performers to do more to tackle the

problem, thus improving overall security.

Another debate has revolved around getting soft-

ware companies to produce code with fewer flaws

in it. One idea is to make them liable for damage

caused when, say, hackers exploit a weakness in a

software program. Most software companies cur-

rently insist customers accept end-user licensing

agreements that specifically protect firms from le-

gal claims unless local laws prohibit such exclu-

sions. The snag is that imposing blanket liability

could have a chilling effect on innovation.

Companies that are selling millions of copies of

programmes might take fright at the potential expo-

sure and leave the business. Strict liability be ap-

plied only to firms which produce software that

cannot be patched if a security flaw is found.

There is quite a lot of that sort of code around.

11. Which of the following is the SAME in mean-

ing as the word BROADER as used in the passage?

(1) spacious (2) subtle

(3) weaker (4) comprehensive

(5) approximate

12. Which of the following is/are the argument(s) in

favour of cyber- essentials?

(A) It boosts transparency and promotion of firms

(B) The certification is given by hackers which

makes it authentic

(C) Firms benefit from paying attention to cyber-

security and so do users.

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)

(3) Only (A) and (C) (4) Only (B) and (C)

(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

13. Which of the following is the SAME in mean-

ing as the word TRIED as used in the passage?

(1) convicted (2) accused

(3) attempted (4) exasperated

(5) None of the given options

14. Which of the following is the OPPOSITE of

the word SERIOUS as used in the passage?

(1) genuine (2) witty

(3) noisy (4) insignificant

(5) irresistible

15. Which of the following is the OPPOSITE of

the word CHILLING as used in the passage?

(1) promoting (2) reassuring

(3) encouraging (4) fostering

(5) All the given options

16. Which of the following best describes the au-

laws?

(1) These will act as incentives for computer firms

to produce more secure software.

(2) These are pointless as they cannot be uniformly

or strictly implemented.

(3) These will not greatly impact computer firms as

the financial profits from software are huge.

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75

(4) These are not an appropriate approach to cyber

security.

(5) None of the given options

17. Which of the following can be said about gov-

ernment efforts with regard to cyber security?

(A) Government efforts have been coupled with

private sector cooperation

(B) Government efforts have been focused on de-

stroying botnet infrastructure

(C) These are not worth while and too small in

magnitude.

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)

(3) Only (A) and (B) (4) Only (B) and (C)

(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

18. Why has the author mentioned the National

Transportation Security Board in the passage?

(A) To urge America to set up a body to share data

in cyberrelated instances

(B) To monitor cyber security episodes whose loss-

es are over a certain sum

(C) To publish and enforce standards for cyber-

security for sectors like energy.

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (A) and (B)

(3) Only (B) (4) Only (B) and (C)

(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

19. Which of the following is/are

(a) theme(s) of the passage?

(1) Holding cyber firms accountable for flaws in

their products.

(2) Cyber-crime infrastructure in certain countries.

(3) Ways to secure cyber - space.

(4) Limits of cyber-insurance.

(5) All the given options are themes.

20. Which of the following is/are true in the context

of the passage?

(1) Breach laws can be helpful for organisations.

(2) America is leading the way in terms of laws for

disclosure of cyber-breaches.

(3) Pressure is increasing on software companies to

produce safer products.

(4) Varied efforts are being made to create a market

which values cyber-security.

(5) All the given options are true in the context of

the passage.

Directions (21 30) : In the given passage there are

words/group of words highlighted in bold. You

have to decide if the word/group of words given is

correct (in terms of grammar and context). If not,

find out the appropriate word/group of words from

the given options. In case, the suggested

word/group of words is correct, mark the option

your answer.

Everyone knows that (21) sustenance brainboxes is

good for an economy. In Thailand, school reform-

ers have an extra incentive to narrow (22) con-

trasting between rich people in cities and their

poorer rural cousins, which have (23) fulfilled to a

decade of political tension and occasional eruptions

of violence.

For years shoddy teaching has favoured urban chil-

dren whose parents can afford to send them to

cramming schools or to study abroad. Dismal in-

struction in the countryside has made it easier for

city slickers from posh colleges to paint their politi-

cal opponents as pliable bumpkins.

The dangerous social divide is all the more reason

to (24) worry

educational league table published in December.

Thailand limped into the bottom quarter of 70

countries whose pupils participated in the mathe-

matics, reading and science tests organised under

the Programme for International Student Assess-

ment (PISA). Its scores (25) been crushed since a

previous assessment in 2012, when researchers

found that almost one-third of -year

-olds were al-

most half of those studying in rural schools.

(26) error performance is not dramati-

cally out of step with countries of similar incomes.

But it is strange given its unusually generous (27)

allocation of on education, which in some years

has hoovered up more than a quarter of the budget.

Rote learning is common. There is a shortage of

maths and science teachers, but a (28) overflow of

physical-education instructors. Many head teachers

lack the authority to hire or fire their own staff. A

big problem is that Thailand spends too much mon-

ey teaching is

the poorest. Almost half of Thailand schools have

fewer than 120 students, and most of those have

less than one teacher per class.

Opening lots of village schools once helped Thai-

land (29) achieve impressive attendance rates, but

roadbuilding and other improvements in infrastruc-

ture mean most schools are now within 20 minutes

of another.

Over the next ten years falling birth rales will re-

duce school rolls by more than 1m, making it ever

more (30) fulfilled for tiny institutions to provide

adequate instruction at a reasonable cost.

21. (1) diluting (2) nurturing

(3) alleviating (4) ornamental

(5) The given option(s) is/are correct

22. (1) contracts (2) characteristic

(3) distinct (4) differences

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76

(5) The given option(s) is/are correct

23. (1) preceded (2) managed

(3) compelled (4) led

(5) The given option(s) is/are correct

24. (1) concern (2) apprehension

(3) fearful (4) distress

(5) The given option(s) is/are correct

25. (1) deteriorated (2) sink

(3) decomposed (4) declining

(5) The given option(s) is/are correct

26. (1) extreme (2) cheerful

(3) dismal (4) inauspicious

(5) The given option(s) is/are correct

27. (1) employed (2) investing

(3) spending (4) setting

(5) The given option(s) is/are correct

28. (1) satiety (2) surplus with

(3) saturated (4) surfeit

(5) The given option(s) is/are correct

29. (1) complete (2) conclude

(3) acquired (4) adhere

(5) The given option(s) is/are correct

30. (1) difficult (2) ambition

(3) troubling (4) doubtful

(5) The given option(s) is/are correct

Quantitative Aptitude Directions (31 35) : What approximate value will

come in place of the question mark (?) in the fol-

lowing questions? (You are not expected to calcu-

late the exact value).

31. ?2 137.99 ÷ 6 = 21.99 × 23.01

(1) 23 (2) 50

(3) 42 (4) 29

(5) 35

32. ?% of 400.02 + 12. 932 = 285

(1) 18 (2) 15

(3) 24 (4) 34

(5) 29

33. (3327. 99 27. 93) ÷ ? = 110 ×

5.99

(1) 9 (2) 1

(3) 19 (4) 15

(5) 5

34. 5520 ÷ 12.01 + √ × 5.99 =?

(1) 350 (2) 550

(3) 500 (4) 450

(5) 250

35. 160.01 + 40 ÷ (16.5 ÷ 33) = ?

(1) 310 (2) 290

(3) 250 (4) 350

(5) 240

Directions (36 40) : Refer to the graph and answer

the given questions. A B Number of students who

opted for two courses A and B from 2010 to

2014

36. Number of students who opted for Course B in

2013 was what per cent more than that who opted

for course A in 2013?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

37. What is the difference between the total number

of students who opted for Courses A and B together

in 2012 and that who opted for both the courses

together in 2014?

(1) 50 (2) 30

(3) 60 (4) 40

(5) 45

38. x Courses A and B

each and the ratio of number of students that failed

Courses A and B respectively was 5 : 2, what is the

x

(1) 190 (2) 220

(3) 160 (4) 150

(5) 180

39. What is the average number of students who

opted for Course A in 2010, 2011 and 2012?

(1) 225 (2) 250

(3) 230 (4) 240

(5) 260

40. The number of students who opted for Courses

A and B in 2011 was respectively 25% more and

35% less than that in 2009. What was the total

number of students who opted for Courses A and B

together in 2009?

(1) 600 (2) 540

(3) 575 (4) 560

(5) 584

41. The respective ratio between numerical values

of curved surface area and volume of right circular

cylinder is 1 : 7. If the respective ratio between the

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77

diameter and height of the cylinder is 7 : 5, what is

the total surface area of the cylinder? (in metre2)

(1) 2992 (2) 3172

(3) 2882 (4) 3576

(5) 3992

42. The time taken by the boat to cover a distance

of (D 56) km upstream is half of that taken by it

km downstream. The

respective ratio between the speed of the boat

downstream and that upstream is 5 : 3. If the time

taken to cover (D 32) km upstream is 4 hours,

what is the speed of water current? (in km./h.)

(1) 5 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 16

(5) 8

43. Poonam invests Rs. 4200 in scheme A which

offers 12% per annum of simple interest. She also

invests Rs. (4200 P) in scheme B offering 10%

per annum of compound interest (compounded an-

nually). The difference between the interests Poo-

nam earns from both the schemes at the end of 2

years is Rs. 294, what is the value of P?

(1) 1500 (2) 800

(3) 600 (4) 1000

(5) Other than those given as options

44. Man sold two articles A (at a profit of 40%)

and B (at a loss of 20%). He incurred a total profit

of Rs. 18 in the whole deal. If article A costs Rs.

140 less than article B, what is the price of article

B?

(1) Rs. 380 (2) Rs. 280

(3) Rs. 340 (4) Rs. 375

(5) Rs. 370

45. B is eighteen years older than A. The respective

ratio of age six years present age

is 3 : 2. If at of A,

years ago?

(1) 24 years (2) 28 years

(3) 29 years (4) 26 years

(5) 16 years

46. Time taken by A alone to finish a piece of work

is 60% more than that taken by A and B together to

finish the same piece of work. C is twice as effi-

cient as B. If B and C together can complete the

same piece of work in

days, in how many days

can A alone finish the same piece of work?

(1) 36 (2) 24

(3) 16 (4) 28

(5) Other than those given as options

47. Out of her monthly salary, Ridhi spends 34%

various expenses. From the remaining, she gives

1/6 th to her brother, 2/3 rd to her sister and the

remaining she keeps as savings. If the difference

between the amounts she gave to her sister and

brother was Rs. 10,260,

(1) Rs. 3,740 (2) Rs. 3,420

(3) Rs. 4,230 (4) Rs. 3,230

(5) Other than those given as options

48. A bag contains 63 cards (numbered 1, 2, 3, .......

63). Two cards are picked at random from the bag

(one after another and without replacement), what

is the probability that the sum of numbers of both

the cards drawn is even?

(1) 11/21 (2) 34/63

(3) 7/11 (4) 11/63

(5) Other than those given as options

Directions (49 54) : In the following questions,

two equations numbered I and II are given. You

have to solve both the equations and select the ap-

propriate answer

(1) if x < y (2) if x > y

(3) if x < y (4) if x > y

(5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot

be established

49. I. 2x2 + 11x + 14 = 0

II. 4y2 + 12y + 9 = 0

50. I. 3x2 4x + 1 = 0

II. 15y2 8y + 1 = 0

51. I. x2 + 14x + 45 = 0

II. y2 + 19y + 88 = 0

52. I. x2 2x 8 = 0

II. y2 + 15y + 54 = 0

53. I. 2x2 9x + 9 = 0

II. y2 7y + 12 = 0

54. I. x2 = 121

II. y2 23y + 132 = 0

55. A jar contains mixture of milk and water in the

respective ratio of 3 : 1.

th of the mixture is taken

out and 24 litre water was added to it. If the result-

ant ratio between milk and water in the jar was 2 :

1, what was the initial quantity of mixture in the

jar? (in litre)

(1) 160 (2) 180

(3) 200 (4) 250

(5) None of these

Directions (56 60) : What will come in place of

the question mark

(?) in the following number series?

56. 17 9 10 16.5 ? 90

(1) 44 (2) 35

(3) 48 (4) 38

(5) 33

57. 7 6 10 27 ? 515

(1) 112 (2) 104

(3) 114 (4) 96

(5) 108

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58. 33 40 29 42 25 ?

(1) 40 (2) 44

(3) 52 (4) 48

(5) 46

59. 316 307 282 233 152 ?

(1) 35 (2) 25

(3) 31 (4) 41

(5) 47

60. 5 9 33 72 121 ?

(1) 169 (2) 163

(3) 171 (4) 184

(5) other than those given as options

Directions (61 65) : Study the table and answer

the given questions Centre Total Number

of registered Voters

Per ce n t ag e of.

people who voted

(out of the t otal

number of r e g i s t e r

e d voters)

A 2100 80

B 1750 80

C 3000 70

D 2400 76

E 2000 85

61. What is the average number of people who

voted at centres B, D and E?

(1) 1700 (2) 1641

(3) 1720 (4) 1740

(5) 1560

62. What per cent of the total number of registered

voters cast invalid votes at centre D, if the number

of invalid votes cast at centre D was 10% of the

number of votes cast?

(1) 5.5 (2) 8.5

(3) 7.5 (4) 6.5

(5) Other than those given as options

63. At centre F, the total number of registered vot-

ers was 25% less than that at centre C. At centre F,

number of people who voted was 450 less than that

at centre C and 150 votes cast were declared inva-

lid. What was the respective ratio between the

number of valid votes cast and the total number of

registered voters at centre F ?

(1) 4 : 5 (2) 3 : 4

(3) 2 : 3 (4) 6 : 1

(5) 5 : 8

64. Number of people who did not vote at centre D

was what per cent more than that who did not vote

at centre A?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5) Other than those given as options

65. What is the difference between the total number

of people who did not vote at centres A and B to-

gether and that who did not vote at centres D and E

together?

(1) 80 (2) 60

(3) 50 (4) 70

(5) 106

Reasoning 66. Five movies D, E, F, G and H are released

on five different days of the same week starting

from Monday and ending on Friday, but not neces-

sarily in the same order. F is released on one of the

days before Thursday. Only two movies are re-

leased between F and G. H is released immediately

before G. D is released on one of the days after H.

Which movie was released on Wednesday ?

(1) E (2) Either G or D

(3) G

(4) D

(5) H

67. Four cartons A, B, Y and Z are placed

above one another but not necessarily in the same

order. Each carton contains a different drink

Pepsi, Coffee, Frooti and Milkshake, but not neces-

sarily in the same order. Only carton B is kept be-

tween the cartons of Pepsi and Frooti. Carton of

Coffee is kept immediately below carton of Frooti.

Carton of Coffee is kept at one of the positions be-

low Z. What is the position of the carton of

Milkshake in the stack?

(1) Cannot be determined

(2) Immediately below the carton of Frooti

(3) First from the bottom

(4) First from the top

(5) Second from the top

Directions (68 70) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Each of the six stores P, Q, R, S, T and U sold dif-

ferent number of books in one day. Only three

stores sold less books than U. P sold more books

than R. T did not sell the highest number of books.

S sold more books than R and P but less than U.

The store which sold the second highest number of

books sold 72 books.

68. How many books did Q probably sell?

(1) 43 (2) 58

(3) 71 (4) 65

(5) 89

69. Which of the following stores sold the second

lowest number of books?

(1) T (2) P

(3) S (4) R

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79

(5) Q

70. If the total number of books sold by P and T is

125, then how many books did P sell?

(1) 51 (2) 76

(3) 53 (4) 45

(5) 68

71. In a vertical queue of 13 people, all facing east,

K stands exactly at the centre of the queue. No one

stands between K and W. Only five people stand

between W and P. L stands at one of the positions

before P but not at the beginning of the queue. How

many people stood after W?

(1) Three (2) None

(3) Five (4) Six

(5) Seven

72. In which of the given expressions, does the ex-

pression

(1) P > A > L < E; C > L > O > N

(2) P < A < L > E; C > L < O < N

(3) P = A > L = E; C = L > O < N

(4) P > A > L > E; C < L < O < N

(5) P = A > L < E; C < L > O > N

73. A person starts from Point A, walks 30 metre

towards south and reaches Point B. He then takes a

right turn, walks 7 metre, followed by a right turn,

and walks for 6 metre. He then takes a right turn

and walks 7 metre. He takes a final left turn, walks

a certain distance and reaches Point R. Point R is 17

metre to the north of Point B. What is the distance

between Point A and Point R?

(1) 18 metre (2) 23 metre

(3) 21 metre (4) 27 metre

(5) 13 metre

74. S is the only son of V. V is married to R. M is

the daughter of R. R is the grandmother of A. How

is S definitely related to A?

(1) Uncle (2) Cannot be deter-

mined

(3) Father (4) Grandfather

(5) Cousin

75. What should come in place of $ and # respec-

tively in the expression:

P > A $ R < O < T; S < L < A # M, so that the ex-

pression T > M definitely holds true?

(1) >, < (2) <, =

(3) <, < (4) <, <

(5) >, >

Directions (76 80) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight persons C, D, E, F, W, X, Y and Z have

to attend a wedding in January, April, September

and December months of the same year. In each

month the wedding is on either the 11th or the 24th

of the month. Not more than two of the given peo-

ple have to attend a wedding in the same month. W

has to attend a wedding on the 11th of the month

which has only 30 days. Only three people have to

attend a wedding between W and Y. C and Y have

to attend a wedding neither on the same date nor in

the same month. C does not have to attend a wed-

ding in April. Only two people have to attend a

wedding between C and F. X and F does not have

to attend a wedding on the same date. D has to at-

tend a wedding on one of the days before X. Only

one person has to attend a wedding between D and

E. Less than four people have to attend a wedding

between E and Z.

76. How many people have to attend a wedding

between F and Z?

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) None (4) More than three

(5) One

77. When does X have to attend a wedding?

(1) 24th April

(2) Cannot be determined

(3) 11th January

(4) 24th September

(5) 11th December

78. If all the people are made to attend the wedding

in alphabetical order starting from 11th January and

ending on 24th December, the schedule of how

many people will remain unchanged?

(1) Three (2) Two

(3) Five (4) None

(5) One

79. Who among the following has to attend a wed-

ding before Y?

(1) Both C and X (2) Only W

(3) None (4) Both F and W

(5) Only F

80. As per the given arrangement, four of the fol-

lowing five are alike in a certain way and so they

form a group. Which of the following does not be-

long to the group?

(1) W (2) Z

(3) F (4) Y

(5) X

Directions (81 83) : In these questions, relation-

ship between different elements is shown in the

statements. The statements are followed by two

Conclusions numbered I and.

II. Study the Conclusions based on the given state-

ments and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer (1) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-

sion II is true

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80

Give answer (2) if both the Conclusion I and Con-

clusion II are true

Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I is true

Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true

Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-

clusion II is true

(81 82) : Statements :

M < O < U < R > T; P > R < I < C < L

81.

Conclusions :

I. L > M

II. O < C

82.

Conclusions :

I. P > T

II. P = T

83. Statements :

C < L = I < N > G; I < M > O > R > T

Conclusions :

I. C < O

II. G > T

84. In the number 7853921, one is added to each

digit exactly divisible by two. Two is subtracted

from each digit exactly divisible by three. All other

digits are kept unchanged. In the new number thus

formed, which of the following digits will appear

twice?

(1) None (2) Only 5

(3) Both 2 and 3 (4) Only 3

(5) Both 1 and 7

85. In a certain code language, r-

written as

that code language? (All the given codes are two

letter codes only)

(1) si

(2)

(4) dm

(5) bo

Directions (86 90) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight people viz. X, G, T, C, P, J, A and M live on

different floors of a building. The ground floor of

the building is numbered one, the one above that is

numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is

numbered eight. All of them can perform a different

form of dance viz., Kathak, Garba, Dandiya, Bhan-

gra, Lavani, Odissi, Mohiniattam and Sattriya

(Note : None of the given information is necessari-

ly in the same order) T lives on an even numbered

floor below floor number five. Only three people

live between T and the one who performs Garba.

As many people live below T as above the one who

performs Lavani. Number of people living between

the one who performs Garba and Lavani is equal to

the number of people living between C and P. C

lives on an even numbered floor above P. Neither C

nor P performs Garba or Lavani. The one who per-

forms Kathak lives on an odd numbered floor be-

low floor number four. P does not perform Kathak.

The number of people between T and the one who

performs Kathak is same as the number of people

living between X and the one who performs Lavani.

X lives on one of the floors above the one who per-

forms Lavani. Number of people living between C

and X is equal to the number of people living be-

tween T and M. The one who performs Odissi lives

on an even numbered floor immediately above the

one who performs Bhangra. Only three people live

between G and J. G lives on one of the floors above

J. The one who performs Bhangra lives immediate-

ly above the one who performs Sattriya. C neither

likes Odissi nor Dandiya.

86. Which of the following statements is true as per

the given arrangement?

(1) C performs Odissi.

(2) The one who performs Garba lives on floor

number six.

(3) T lives immediately above J.

(4) None of the given statements is true.

(5) Only two people live between M and G.

87. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way based on the given arrangement and thus they

form a group. Which one of the following does not

belong to the group?

(1) M Bhangra (2) C Dandiya

(3) P Odissi (4) G Floor number

eight

(5) T Floor number five

88. How many people live between the one who

performs Lavani and Bhangra?

(1) More than three

(2) Three

(3) One (4) Two

(5) None

89. Who performs Dandiya?

(1) G (2) A

(3) P (4) T

(5) C

90. Which dance M performs?

(1) Sattriya (2) Lavani

(3) Odissi (4) Mohiniattam

(5) Kathak

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81

Directions (91 95) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight people A, B,C, D, E, F, G and H were

born in different years, viz. 1961, 1970, 1974,

1980, 1983, 1987, 1996 and 2000 but not necessari-

ly in the same order.

Note : (A) All calculations are done with respect to

the present year 2017 assuming the month and date

to be same as that of the years of birth as mentioned

above

(B) Each person is assumed to born on the same

date and same month of the respective years D was

born after 1983 but not in the year 2000. The sum

of the present ages of A and D is 64. The difference

between the present ages of A and G is less than 5.

B was born in an odd numbered year. B is older

than G. The sum of present ages of F and C is 68. F

is younger than C. H is not the youngest.

91. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way as per the given arrangement and hence they

form a group.

Which of the following does not belong to the

group?

(1) E (2) B

(3) C (4) F

(5) G

92. How many persons is/are younger than E?

(1) Two (2) More than three

(3) None (4) Three

(5) One

93. Who amongst the following was born in the

year 1996?

(1) F (2) C

(3) A (4) G

(5) E

94. years older than A, then how

at present (in years)?

(1) 77 (2) 68

(3) 89 (4) 56

(5) 85

95. Which of the following represents the differ-

ence between the present ages of B and H

(in years)?

(1) 22 (2) 9

(3) 25 (4) 32

(5) 13

Directions (96 100) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight persons F, G, H, I, O, P, Q and R are seated

in a straight line facing north. Each of them works

on different floors of an office building viz. 7th,

16th, 18th, 23rd, 31st, 35th, 44th, 47th. None of the

given information is necessarily in the same order.

O sits fourth to the right of the one who works on

the 31st floor. The one who works on the 23rd floor

sits second to the right of O.

Q sits third to the left of I. I is not an immediate

neighbour of O. Q does not sit at any of the extreme

ends of the line.

Only two people sit between Q and P. The one who

works on the 44th floor sits to the immediat right of

H. H is not an immediate neighbour of P.

The difference between the numerical values of

floor numbers in which P and the one to the imme-

diate right of P work is 13.

Only one person sits between F and the one who

works on the 35th floor. F is not an immediate

neighbour of I. More than two people sit between R

and the one who works on the 16th floor. O does

not work on the 16th floor. H works on a floor low-

er than O.

96. Which of the following pairs represents the per-

sons seated at the two extreme ends of the line?

(1) G and the one working on the 7th floor.

(2) I, R

(3) The ones working on the 18th and 44th floors.

(4) P and the one working on 16th floor

(5) The ones working on the 31st and 23rd flooRs

97. What is the difference between the floor num-

bers on which P and R work?

(1) 4 (2) 31

(3) 3 (4) 16

(5) 15

98. F is related to the one working on the 47th floor

following a certain pattern based on the given ar-

rangement. In the same pattern, P is related to the

one working on the 44th floor. To who amongst the

following is H related to following the same pat-

tern?

(1) The one working on the 35th floor

(2) The one to the immediate left of R.

(3) The one sitting second to the left of O.

(4) The one working on the 16th floor.

(5) O

99. Fill in the blanks (respectively in the same or-

der) in order to make the statement correct based on

the given arrangement. G _______ and O

__________.

(1) works on the 47th floor, sits to the immediate

left of Q.

(2) works on one of the floors above H, works on

one of the floors below F.

(3) sits to immediate left of I, works on the 44th

floor.

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82

(4) sits second to the right of Q, works three floors

above I.

(5) Other than those given as options.

100. How many people sit to the left of the one

working on the 35th floor?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) None (4) Four

(5) Three

Answer Key 1. (3) 2. (5) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9.

(4) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (5) 16.

(1) 17. (5) 18. (3) 19. (5) 20. (5) 21. (2) 22. (4) 23.

(4) 24. (5) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (2) 29. (5) 30.

(1) 31. (1) 32. (5) 33. (5) 34. (2) 35. (5) 36. (3) 37.

(4) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (3) 43. (2) 44.

(5) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (5) 49. (1) 50. (4) 51.

(5) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (2) 57. (2) 58.

(2) 59. (3) 60. (5) 61. (2) 62. (5) 63. (3) 64. (5) 65.

(5) 66. (5) 67. (1) 68. (5) 69. (2) 70. (3) 71. (5) 72.

(4) 73. (5) 74. (2) 75. (2) 76. (4) 77. (5) 78. (1) 79.

(3) 80. (2) 81. (2) 82. (1) 83. (5) 84. (5) 85. (4) 86.

(5) 87. (4) 88. (3) 89. (2) 90. (1) 91. (2) 92. (3) 93.

(1) 94. (4) 95. (5) 96. (2) 97. (1) 98. (4) 99. (5) 100.

(3)

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83

Solutions: 1. (3) Add = to give a particular qual-

ity to an event, a situation etc. Look

at the sentence : The suite will add a

touch of class to your bed room.

Additionally = In addition, extra.

Hence, an added attraction .....

should be used here.

3. (4) Give yourself/somebody up to

somebody = to of fer yourself/

somebody to be captured. Hence,

given himself up .... should be used

here.

4. (4) Work on somebody = to try to

persuade somebody to agree to

something or to do something.

Hence, work on her ..... should be

used here.

5. (2) Here, saw the growth .....

should be used. Growth is followed

of

6. (1) To modify a verb, an adverb

should be used. Hence, recently

(Adverb) appointed .... should be

used.

7. (3) Here, Present Simple i.e.,

makes it an ideal .... should be used.

Subject is singular.

8. (2) Paramount = more important

than anything else. Here, to the suc-

cess .... should be used.

9. (4) The sentence shows past time.

Hence, Past Simple i.e. gained popu-

larity ..... should be used.

10. (4) Give up = (to stop doing)

Hence, Gerund i.e. giving up ....

should be used.

11. (4) Broader (Adjective) = com-

plete; general; including almost all;

comprehensive.

13. (3) Try (Verb) = to make an at-

temp or effort to do or get some-

thing.

14. (4) Serious (Adjective) = that

must be treated as important; signifi-

cant. Look at the sentences : We

need to get down to the serious busi-

ness of working out costs. He made

her insignificant and stupid.

15. (5) Chilling (Adjective) = fright-

ening; discouraging; terrifying. Look

at the sentence : The monument

stands as a chilling reminder of

21. (2) Nurture = to care for and

protect somebody/something while

they are growing or developing.

25. (1) Deteriorate (Verb) = to be-

come worse.

26. (3) Dismal (Adjective) = gloomy;

miserable; not skilful.

28. (2) Surplus (Adjective) = extra;

additional.

31. (1)

23 23

32. (5)

33. (5)

34. (2)? √

35. (5)?

36. (3) Required per cent

(

)

37. (4) Required difference

38. (2) Students who passed in

course Students who passed

in course

According to the question,

39. (4) Required average

. (4) Number of students in 2009 :

Course

Course

Required answer

41. (1) According to the question,

Let, metre

10x metre

Curved surface area

Volume of cylinder

metre

metre

Total surface area

(14 20)

square metre

42. (3) Let rate downstream of boat

be kmph.

Rate upstream kmph.

According to the question,

(D 56) 10D 560

km.

Case II, Time taken in covering (D‐32)

km. i.e., km. in

upstream hours

Speed of current

(Rate

downstream Rate upstream)

km./hour

43. (2) S.I. from scheme

. 1008

C.I. from scheme

*(

)

+

[(

) ]

[(

) ]

(

)

According to the question,

44. (5) Let cost price of article be

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84

Rs. Cost price of article According to the question,

45. (4) years

years

years

According to the question,

3

years

years

. (2) is twice as good as B.

If time taken by be days, Time

taken by days

Time taken by days

If A takes days, then

(

)

days.

: 1

Time taken by both in doing

work

Time taken by

days

Time taken by

days

: 3

Time taken by

days (inverse ratio)

47. (2) Of the remaining salary, Sav-

ings

th part

(

)

. 3420

48. (5) The sum of numbers on both

cards will be even if both cards

bear either even or odd numbers.

Even numbers from 1 to Odd numbers

When both cards are odd, Required

probability

When both cards are even, Required

probability

Required total probability

49. (1) I. 2x2 + 11x + 14 = 0

2x2 + 4x + 7x + 14 = 0

2x (x + 2) + 7 (x + 2) = 0

(x + 2) (2x + 7) = 0

x = 2 or, 7/2

II. 4y2 + 12y + 9 = 0

(2y)2 + 2 × 2y × 3 + (3)2 = 0

(2y + 3)2 = 0

2y + 3 = 0

y = 3/2

Clearly, x < y

50. (4) I. 3x2 4x + 1 = 0

3x2 3x x + 1 = 0

3x (x 1) 1 (x 1) = 0

(x 1) (3x 1) = 0

x = 1 or, 1/3

II. 15y2 8y + 1 = 0

15y2 5y 3y + 1 = 0

5y (3y 1) 1 (3y 1) = 0

(3y 1) (5y 1) = 0

y = 1/3 or,1/5

Clearly, x > y

51. (5) I. x2 + 14x + 45 = 0

x2 + 5x + 9x + 45 = 0

x (x + 5) + 9 (x + 5) = 0

(x + 5) (x + 9) = 0

x = 5 or, 9

II. y2 + 19y + 88 = 0

y2 + 8y + 11y + 88 = 0

y (y + 8) + 11 (y + 8) = 0

(y + 8) (y + 11) = 0

y = 8 or, 11

52. (2) I. x2 2x 8 = 0

x2 4x + 2x 8 = 0

x (x 4) + 2 (x 4) = 0

(x 4) (x + 2) = 0

x = 4 or, 2

II. y2 + 15y + 54 = 0

y2 + 6y + 9y + 54 = 0

y (y + 6) + 9 (y + 6) = 0

(y + 6) (y + 9) = 0

y = 6 or, 9

Clearly, x > y

53. (3) I. 2x2 9x + 9 = 0

2x2 3x 6x + 9 = 0

x (2x 3) 3 (2x 3) = 0

(x 3) (2x 3) = 0

x = 3 or,3/2

II. y2 7y + 12 = 0

y2 3y 4y + 12 = 0

y (y 3) 4 (y 3) = 0

(y 3) (y 4) = 0

y = 3 or 4

Clearly, x < y

54. (3) I. x2 = 121

x = √ = ± 11

II. y2 23y + 132 = 0

y2 12y 11y + 132 = 0

y (y 12) 11 (y 12) = 0

(y 12) (y 11) = 0

y = 11 or, 12

Clearly, x < y55. (3) Initial quantity

of milk

litres

Initial quantity of water

litres

According to the question, In

litres of mixture

Quantity of milk

litres

Quantity of water

litres

On adding 24 litres of water,

(

)

Initial quantity of mixture

litres

Let initial quantity of mixture

litre

In 24 litres, Milk litres

Water litres

When,3 litres water is added, Milk:

Water : 1

If 3 litres of water is added

total mixture litre

If 24 litres of water is added

total quantity

litres

56. (2) The pattern is :

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85

35

57. (2) The pattern is :

58. (2) The pattern is :

29

25 44

Note: 7, 11, 13, 17, 19 are con‐ secutive prime numbers.

59. (3) The pattern is :

152 31

. (5) The pattern is :

9 24

33 39

72 49

61. (2) Number of voters who cast

their votes :

Centre

Centre

Centre

Required average

62. (5) Total votes polled at centre

Invalid votes

Required per cent

63. (3) Total registered voters at cen‐

tre

Votes polled at centre

Total votes polled at centre

Total valid votes l50

Required ratio : 2250

64. (5)Voters who do not vote at

centre

Voters who donot vote at centre

Required per cent

(

)

%

65. (5)Voters who donot vote at

centre A and

Voters who donot vote at cen‐ tres and

Required difference

76. 80.

Month Dat

e

Per-

son

Alphabeti-

cal order

January 11th Y C

24th D D

April 11th F E

24th E F

Septem- 11th W W

ber 24th C X

Decem-

ber

11th X Y

24th Z Z

81. 82. : M < O < U < R > T P > R

< I < C < L M < O < U < R < I < C

< L O < U < R < I < C P > R > T

81. (2) Conclusions : I. L > M : True

II. O < C : True

82. (1) Conclusions : I. P > T : Not

True II. P = T : Not True P is either

greater than or equal to T. Therefore,

either Conclusion I or Conclusion II

is true.

83. (5) C < L = I < N > G I < M > O

> R > T C < L = I < M > O G < N >

I < M > O > R > T Conclusions : I.

C < O : Not True II. G > T : Not

True

84. (5) 7 8 5 3 9 2 1

86. 90.

Floor

Number

Person Dance

8 X Garba

7 A Dandiya

6 C Mohiniattam

5 G Lavani

4 T Odissi

3 P Bhangra

2 M Sattriya

1 J Kathak

95. 90.

1961 B

1974 H

1983 A

1996 F

1970 C

1980 G

1987 D

2000 E

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86

RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-

2) English Language

Directions (1 5) : Read the following passage

carefully and answer the questions. Certain words/

phrases are given in bold to help you locate them

while answering some of the questions.

Until the 1960s boys spent longer and went further

in school than girls, and were more likely to gradu-

ate from university. Now, across the rich world and

in a growing number of poor countries, the balance

has tilted the other way.

policymakers once fretted about n-

fidence in science but this is changing. Sweden has

commissioned research s-

tralia has devised a reading programme called

of generations, one gender gap has closed, only for

another to open up.

The reversal is laid out in a report published on

March 5th by the OECD, a Paris-based rich-country

think- about endures in

maths; at age 15 they are, on average, the equiva-

lent of girls. In

science the results are fairly even. But in reading,

where girls have been ahead for sometime, a gulf

has appeared. In all G4 countries and economies in

the study, girls outperform boys. The average gap is

equivalent to an extra year of schooling. The OECD

deems literacy to be the most important skill that it

assesses, since further learning depends on it. Sure

enough, teenage boys are 50% more likely than

girls to fail to achieve basic proficiency in any of

maths, reading and science.

Youngsters in this group, with nothing to build on

or shine at, are prone to drop out of school alto-

gether.

To see why boys and girls fare so differently in the

classroom, first look at what they do outside it. The

average 15-year old girl devotes fiveand- a-half

hours a week to homework, an hour more than the

average boy, who spend more time playing video

games and trawling the internet. Three-quarters of

girls read for pleasure, compared with little more

than half of boys. Reading rates are falling every-

where as screens draw eyes from pages, but boys

are giving up faster. The OECD found that, among

boys who do as much homework as the average

girl, the gender gap in reading fell by nearly a quar-

ter.

Once in the classroom, boys long to be out of it.

They are twice as likely as girls to report that

often turn up

late. Just as a teacher used to struggle to persuade

girls that science is not only for men, the OECD

now urges parents and policymakers to steer boys

away from a version of masculinity that ignores

for school

might have been less irrational when there were

plenty of jobs for uneducated men. But those days

have long gone. It may be that a bit of swagger

helps in maths, where confidence plays a part in

to delu-

sion : 12% of boys told the OECD that they are

familiar with the mathematical concept of b-

junc that fooled only 7%

of girls.) But their lack of self-discipline drives

teachers crazy. The OECD found that boys did

much better in its anonymised tests than in teachers

assessments. What is behind this discrimination?

One possibility is that teachers mark up students

who are polite, eager and stay out of flights, all

attributes that are more common among girls. In

some countries, academic points can even be

docked for bad behaviour.

1. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in mean-

ing to the word DOCKED given in bold as used in

the passage.

(1) raised (2) stopped

(3) widened (4) flown

(5) cut short

2. According to the passage, what can be said about

the school education today ?

(1) Science education is deteriorating rapidly.

(2) Online education can easily address its prob-

lems such as shortage of teaching staff.

(3) It fosters rote learning instead of creative think-

ing.

(4) The amount of homework for children is pro-

hibitive.

(5) Girls are doing better at school as compared to

boys on some parameters.

3. Choose the word/group of words which is most

nearly the SAME in meaning as the word DRAW

given in bold as used in the passage.

(1) sketch (2) tie

(3) raffle (4) represent

(5) divert

4. Which of the following is TRUE in the context

of the passage ?

(1) Boys perform better than girls on subjective

teacher assessments.

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87

(2) Efforts to improve representation of girls in

education have had success.

(3) By and large teachers are female and they dis-

criminate against boys.

(4) Education in rich countries needs to be subsi-

dised to reduce dropout numbers.

(5) None of the given statements is true in the con-

text of the passage.

5. Choose the word/group of words which is most

nearly the SAME in meaning as the word PRONE

given in bold as used in the passage.

(1) unconscious (2) flat

(3) likely (4) lifeless

(5) opinionated

6. Which of the following factors can have an im-

pact on results of boys in school ?

(A) Perceptions of teacheRs (B) Societal attitude

towards educational achievement and boys

(C) Overconfidence of male students.

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)

(3) All (A), (B) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (C)

(5) Only (A) and (B)

7. What do the OECD statistics in the passage indi-

cate ?

(1) Schools dropout rates among boys are higher in

developing countries than in rich ones.

(2) Despite the perception that girls are doing better

than boys in school, the same is not true.

(3) Today boys are more at risk than girls in terms

of educational achievement in developed countries.

(4) Enrolment of girls in schools has doubled while

that of boys has fallen.

(5) By and large teenagers have very low educa-

tional achievement in rich countries.

8. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in mean-

ing to the word DELUSION given in bold as used

in the passage.

(1) myth (2) superstition

(3) precipitating (4) reality

(5) familiarity

9. Which of the following best describes the au-

(1) It is not as much of a problem as it is made out

to be.

(2) Policymakers should address d-

boys as it will impact boys employment

subsequently.

(3) It can be addressed by implementing quotas at

university level.

(4) It is a rich country phenomenon and can be easi-

ly addressed through increased funding for schools.

(5) None of the given options.

10. Which of the following is an appropriate title

for the passage ?

(1) Finding the Glass Ceiling

(2) Men Storming Up the Irony Tower

(3) Pay and Job Flexibility

(4) Attention! A New Gender Gap

(5) A Broken Safety Net

Directions (11 15) : Read each sentence to find

out whether there is any grammatical error in it.

The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.

Select the part with the error as your answer. If

there is answer.

(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

11. The fare will be calculated (1)/ on the basis of

(2)/ expected travel time distance (3)/ and traffic

where applied. (4)/ No error (5)

12. Junior colleges sees (1)/ marginal violations in

(2)/ minimum score cap for arts, (3)/ science and

commerce streams. (4)/ No error (5)

13. The actor has (1)/ filed a case (2)/ against the

director and (3)/ has sought a written apology (4)/

No error (5)

14. The practice of big pharma companies (1)/ of-

fering kickbacks to (2)/ prescribing physicians may

not be (3)/ a breach of ethics. (4)/ No error (5)

15. The government has narrowed (1)/ its list of

candidates (2)/ to become the next (3)/ governor of

the RBI. (4)/ No error

(5)

Directions (16 20) : Rearrange the given six sen-

tences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

and

(F) in proper sequence as to form a meaningful par-

agraph and then answer the given questions

(A) Others were shown advertisements of more

affordable stuff, such as smartphones

(B) This experience shows the complexities of ad-

vertising today, when it is so easy for dissatisfied

customers to make their voices heard

(C) Moreover, some of those not shown the adver-

tisement complained, referring to themselves as, or

(putting it politely) loseRs (D) But its advertise-

ment was shown only to those whose profiles sug-

gested they were potential buyers of expensive

caRs (E) Eventually, this bruised a few egos

(F) Earlier this year a carmaker advertised on

WeChat, a popular messaging app in China with

around 550m monthly users.

16. Which of the following should be the FIRST

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A (2) C

(3) B (4) F

(5) E

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17. Which of the following should be the SECOND

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B

(3) F (4) D

(5) C

18. Which of the following should be the

FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?

(1) A (2) E

(3) C (4) F

(5) D

19. Which of the following should be the SIXTH

(LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?

(1) B (2) D

(3) A (4) C

(5) E

20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) E (2) D

(3) A (4) F

(5) C

Directions (21 25) : In the following questions,

each sentence has two blanks, each blank indicating

that something has been omitted.

Choose the set of words for the blanks which best

fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. find the econo-

my in a much better _______ than what it was in

______ three years ago.

(1) condition, holding

(2) turmoil, over

(3) shape, charge (4) characters, reigns

(5) position, duty

22. consolidate

public sector banks (PSBs) could create _______ in

the current environment where stressed assets

across banks are high.

(1) actions, exposed

(2) intend, uncertainty

(3) proposal, secure

(4) strategise, havoc

(5) plans, risks

23. The IT firm may be _________ out as clients

shifts to cloud services _________ by rivals.

(1) venting, existing

(2) losing, offered

(3) close, provided

(4) locking, promising

(5) shutting, delivered

24. Inspite of _______ , social performs are likely

to _______ an budg-

et.

(1) pitfalls, receive

(2) hazards, getting

(3) negative, share

(4) drawbacks, obtained

(5) fallen, have

25. Litigation and hurdles in a potential sale to a

Chinese partner have __________ the company to

_______ the closing of one of its plants.

(1) raised, changing

(2) denying, choose

(3) forced, defer (4) enable, modify

(5) compelled, defeat

Directions (26 30) : In the following passage,

there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.

Against each, five words are suggested, one of

which fits the blank appropriately.

Find out the appropriate word in each case.

around the not-so-

new idea that emerging technology is destroying

jobs and will (26) destroy the middle class. Fears

about a shrinking job pool are (27) : our economy is

still recovering from the recession, and jobs have

not returned to prerecession levels. Meanwhile,

technology is (28) some low-skilled jobs.

Yet, changes to the job landscape, while they may

require some adjustments, are not bad news for the

middle class. (29), advances in innovation and

technology promise to make life better for every-

one, both professionally and (30).

26. (1) not (2) ultimately

(3) securely (4) publicly

(5) demandingly

27. (1) understandable

(2) weird

(3) unjust (4) remanded

(5) wrong

28. (1) dicing (2) acquiring

(3) replacing (4) lifting

(5) paying

29. (1) But (2) Instead

(3) Fact (4) Since

(5) However

30. (1) workplace (2) shortly

(3) personally (4) morosely

(5) environmental

Quantitative Aptitude 31. C is 20% more efficient than A. A and B to-

gether can finish a piece of work in 16 days. B and

C together can do it in 15 days. In how many days

A alone can finish the same piece of work?

(1) 42 (2) 48

(3) 54 (4) 36

(5) 45

32. A started a business with an investment of Rs.

16,000. After 6 months from the start of the busi-

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89

ness, B and C joined with Rs. 12,000 and Rs.

18,000 respectively and A invested an additional

amount of Rs 4000. If the difference between

annual profit is Rs. 6000,

what was the annual profit received?

(1) Rs. 17,600 (2) Rs. 13,200

(3) Rs. 14,300 (4) Rs. 16,500

(5) Rs. 11,000

33. Shiva gives 20% of his monthly salary to his

mother, 50% of the remaining salary he invests in

an insurance scheme and PPF in the respective ratio

of 5 : 3 and the remaining he keeps in his bank ac-

count. If the sum of the amount he gives to his

mother and that he invests in PPF is Rs 12,600,

monthly salary?

(1) Rs. 36,000 (2) Rs. 64,000

(3) Rs. 42,000 (4) Rs. 40,000

(5) Rs. 35,000

34. The respective ratio of radii of two right circu-

lar cylinders (A and B) is 4 : 7. The respective ratio

of the heights of cylinders A and B is 2 : 1. What is

the respective ratio of volumes of cylinders A and

B?

(1) 25 : 42 (2) 23 : 42

(3) 32 : 49 (4) 30 : 49

(5) 36 : 49

35. At present, Aanshi is five years younger to Bin-

twenty years hence will be equal

five years ago. What will

be years hence?

(1) 42 years (2) 35 years (3) 30 years (4) 48 years

(5) 50 years

Directions (36 40) : In each equation two equa-

tions numbered I and II are given. You have to

solve both the equations and mark the appropriate

option

(1) Relationship between x and y cannot be estab-

lished

(2) x < y (3) x > y (4) x < y (5) x > y

36. I. 9x2 37x + 30 = 0

II. 3y2 19y + 30 = 0

37. I. 2x2 17x + 36 = 0

II. 5y2 33y + 40 = 0

38. I. 12x2 23x + 11 = 0

II. 21y2 20y + 4 = 0

39. I. x2 + 12x + 35 = 0

II. 7y2 + 32y + 16 = 0

40. I. 25x2 + 20x + 3 = 0

II. 4y2 + 11y + 6 = 0

41. A number is such that when it is multiplied by

6, it gives another number which is more than 168

as the original number itself is less than 168. What

is 15% of the original number?

(1) 8.4 (2) 7.8

(3) 6.6 (4) 8.8

(5) 7.2

42. Dharma invested Rs. P for 3 years in scheme A

which offered 12% per annum simple interest. She

also invested Rs (P + 400) in scheme B which of-

fered 10% compound interest

(compounded annually), for 2 years. If the amount

received from scheme A was less than that received

from scheme B, by Rs. 304, what is the value of P?

(1) Rs. 1400 (2) Rs. 1000

(3) Rs. 1500 (4) Rs. 900

(5) Rs. 1200

Directions (43 47) : Study the following table

carefully and answer the questions

Dance

Schools

Total num-

ber of stu-

dents who

have en-

rolled in the

schools

Percentage of

enrolled stu-

dents who are

learning free-

style dance

Respective

ratio of male

and female

students learn-

ing freestyle.

dance

A 200 25 2 : 3

B 400 28 7 : 9

C 150 30 2 : 7

D 300 24 9 : 3

43. The number of students (both male and female)

who are learning freestyle in schools C and D to-

gether is what percent less than the number of stu-

dents

(both male and female) who are learning the same

in schools A and B together?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

44. What is the average number of students learning

dance forms (other than freestyle) in schools B, C

and D?

(1) 206 (2) 207

(3) 204 (4) 205

(5) 201

45. Out of the number of students

(both male and female) learning freestyle in school

B, 5 8 of them are 15 years old or above. If out of

the total students who are 15 years old or above,

30% are females, what is the number of female

students learning freestyle who are below 15 years?

(1) 35 (2) 42

(3) 32 (4) 46

(5) 40

46. What is the respective ratio between the total

number of male students learning freestyle in

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90

schools A and C together and the total number of

female students learning the same in the same

schools together?

(1) 6 : 39 (2) 6 : 13

(3) 12 : 13 (4) 6 : 11

(5) 12 : 35

47. What is the difference between the number of

male students studying freestyle in schools B and D

together and the total number of female students

studying the same in the same schools together?

(1) 22 (2) 18

(3) 26 (4) 20

(5) 12

48. The percentage profit earned when an article is

sold for Rs 558 is double the percent profit earned

when the same article is sold for Rs. 504. If the

marked price of the article is 30% above the cost

price, what is the marked price of the article?

(1) Rs. 585 (2) Rs. 595

(3) Rs. 624 (4) Rs. 590

(5) Rs. 546

Directions (49 53) : What will come in place of

the question mark

(?) in the given number series?

49. 150 102 70 46 26 ?

(1) 7 (2) 13

(3) 8 (4) 2

(5) 12

50. 10 14 24 52 134 ?

(1) 351 (2) 302

(3) 368 (4) 341

(5) 378

51. 24 11 10 14 27 ?

(1) 67.5 (2) 60.5

(3) 66.5 (4) 61.5

(5) 62.25

52. 4500 900 90 6 ? 0.012

(1) 0.3 (2) 0.09

(3) 0.9 (4) 0.015

(5) 0.03

53. 8 7 12 33 128 ?

(1) 672 (2) 684

(3) 635 (4) 620

(5) 692

Directions (54 58) : What approximate value will

come in place of the question mark (?) in the fol-

lowing questions? (You are not expected to calcu-

late the exact value.)

54. 3? × √ = 183.998 ÷ 8.001 + 328.02

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 1 (4) 5

(5) 3

55. ? % of (230.02 × 7.89 559.85) = 960

(1) 20 (2) 80

(3) 50 (4) 70

(5) 75

56. 518.002 44.99 + 8.998 8.012 = ?

(1) 650 (2) 350

(3) 418 (4) 550

(5) 600

57. 358.98 ÷ 15.02 + 450.15 ÷ 8.992 + 56.02 = ?

(1) 230 (2) 200

(3) 180 (4) 150

(5) 130

58. 25% of 459 + 65.01 ÷ 5.02 =?

(1) 109 (2) 128

(3) 234 (4) 80

(5) 186

Directions (59 63) : Refer to the following bar

graph and answer the given questions

Data related to number of applications received

by a University for Masters program for two

subjects (A and B) during 5 years Number of

applications received

59. In 2005, out of total number of applications

received for subjects A and B together, only 30%

were accepted. What was the total number of appli-

cations accepted for subjects A and B together in

2005?

(1) 121 (2) 123

(3) 129 (4) 132

(5) 131

60. In 2004, 30% of applications received for sub-

ject A and 20% of applications received for subject

B were from international students. What was the

total number of International applicants for subjects

A and B together in 2004?

(1) 91 (2) 97

(3) 89 (4) 93

(5) 87

61. If the respective ratio of total number of appli-

cations received for subjects A and B together in

2008 and 2009 is 3 : 4, what was the total number

of applications received for subjects A and B to-

gether in 2009?

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91

(1) 500 (2) 560

(3) 400 (4) 520

(5) 500

62. What is the average number of applications

received for subject A in 2005, 2007 and 2008?

(1) 190 (2) 180

(3) 170 (4) 200

(5) 160

63. Number of applications received for subject B

increased by what percent from 2004 to 2006?

Directions (69 70) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Vansh starts walking from Point E and walks 25m

towards the north. He then takes a right turn and

walks for 15m. He makes a left turn and stops at

Point M after walking for 20m, Point K is 30m to

the west of Point M. Point K is 45m to the north of

Point J. Point J is 10m to the east of Point L.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

64. In a bag, there are 8 red balls and 7 green balls.

Three balls are picked at random. What is the prob-

ability that two balls are red and one ball is green in

colour?

(1) 28/65 (2) 22/65

(3) 37/65 (4) 3/13

(5) 1/13

65. A vessel contains 120 litres of mixture of milk

and water in the respective ratio of 11 : 4

Forty five litres of this mixture was taken out and

replaced with 5 litres of water.

What is the percentage of water in the resultant

mixture?

(1) 35 (2) 31.25

(3) 25 (4) 20

(5) 15

Reasoning Directions (66 68) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

S is the mother of D. K is the brother of D. K is the

only son of M. M is the son of U. U is the husband

of T. T is the mother of Y.

66. If D is married to X, then how is X related to

M?

(1) Son in law (2) Daughter in law

(3) Son (4) Niece

(5) Daughter

67. How is T related to K?

(1) Mother (2) Aunt

(3) Granddaughter (4) Grandmother

(5) Mother in law

68. How is S related to Y?

(1) Sister (2) Cousin

(3) Mother in law (4) Niece

(5) Sister-in-law

69. How far and in which direction is Point E with

respect to Point L?

(1) 30m towards West

(2) 25m towards East

(3) 20m towards East

(4) 20m towards West

(5) 25m towards West

70. If Neha is standing at Point D which is 20m to

the north of Point L, in which direction will she

have to walk in order to reach Point M?

(1) North-west (2) East

(3) South-east (4) North-east

(5) North

Directions (71 75) : In these questions, relation-

ship between different elements is shown in the

statements. The statements are followed by two

Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclu-

sions based on the statements and select the appro-

priate answer.

Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Con-

clusion II are true

Give answer (2) if only Conclusion I is true

Give answer (3) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-

clusion is II true

Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true

Give answer (5) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-

sion II is true

71. Statements R > S = T > U; S > A > V

Conclusions I. A < R

II. V < U

(72-73) :

Statements B > E > A > T = H < I < M

72. Conclusions I. H < E

II. B > T

73. Conclusions I. E < I

II. M < A

74. Statements S < M < I < T; R > J > I

Conclusions I. R = S

II. S < R

75. Statements D < O < L > C > E

Conclusions I. O < E

II. L > D

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92

Directions (76 78) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Each of the six sections, U, V, W, X, Y and Z of

the same class has different number of students.

Only Z has more number of students than X. V has

more number of students than Y but less than U. W

has more number of students than both the both Y

and U. The section having the third highest number

of students has 39 students. Y has 24 students.

76. If the number of students in sections W + Z is

sixty six more than the number of students in sec-

tion Y, how many of students are there in section

Z?

(1) 31 (2) 46

(3) 51 (4) 55

(5) 45

77. How many students does section V possibly

have?

(1) 39 (2) 43

(3) 55 (4) 31

(5) 14

78. Which of the following statements is true re-

garding the number of students in section U?

(1) No other section has less students than U.

(2) X has more number of students than U.

(3) U possibly has 45 students.

(4) U has more number of students than only three

sections

(5) None of the given statements is true

Directions (79 84) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Seven persons, namely A, B, C, D, E, F and G have

an appointment but not necessarily in the same or-

der, on seven different months (of the same year)

namely January, February, April, June, August,

October and December. Each of them also likes a

different activity namely Drawing, Singing, Paint-

ing, Boxing, Karate, Craft and Running but not

necessarily in the same order.

The one who likes Craft has an appointment on one

of the months before April. Only two persons have

an appointment between the one who likes craft and

the one who likes painting. Only one person has an

appointment .between the one who likes painting

and the one who likes running. The one who likes

running has an appointment in a month which has

31 days. Only three persons have an appointment

between the one who likes running and E. G has an

appointment on one of the months before E. G does

not have an appointment in the month which has

the least number of days. Only three persons have

an appointment between G and C. Only one person

has an appointment between C and the one who

likes Karate. The one who likes Karate has an ap-

pointment before C. The one who likes singing has

an appointment immediately before B. B has an

appointment in a month which has less than 31

days.

Only one person has an appointment between A

and F. A has an appointment before F. Only one

person has an appointment between F and the one

who likes drawing.

79. Who amongst the following has an appointment

immediately before the one who has an appoint-

ment in December?

80. In which of the following pairs, both the per-

sons have an appointment in months which have

less than 31 days?

(1) A, F (2) F, D

(3) B, A (4) E, D

(5) B, F

81. Which of the following combinations is cor-

rect?

(1) G-Singing (2) A-Painting

(3) F-Running (4) B Karate

(5) D-Painting

82. As per the given arrangement Craft is related to

April and Karate is related to June following a cer-

tain pattern, which of the following is Drawing

related to following the same pattern?

(1) February (2) October

(3) December (4) August

(5) January

83. Who amongst the following likes Running?

(1) F (2) D

(3) A (4) B

(5) Other than those given as options

84. How many persons have an appointment be-

tween the one who has an appointment in February

and A?

(1) Three (2) None

(3) More than three

(4) One

(5) Two

Directions (85 90) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Seven persons namely A, B, C, D, E, F and G teach

seven different subjects namely, Mathematics, Eng-

lish, Chemistry, History, Accountancy, Physics and

Biology. Each of them works in either of the three

institutes viz. Paramount, Brilliant and Embibe with

atleast two of them in a institute

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93

(Note : None of the information given is necessarily

in the same order.) G works in Brilliant with the

one who teaches Accountancy. The one who teach-

es Biology works in an institute with only the one

who teaches Chemistry. B teaches English. B does

not work with G. D works with F but not in

Embibe.

Neither D nor F teaches Accountancy. F does not

teach Chemistry. C works with only the one who

teaches Mathematics. E works with the one who

teaches History.

85. Who amongst the following teaches Physics?

(1) F (2) E

(3) C (4) D

(5) G

86. Which of the following combinations represents

the institute in which C works and the subject he

teaches?

(1) Brilliant Accountancy

(2) Embibe Accountancy

(3) Paramount Biology

(4) Brilliant History

(5) Paramount Chemistry

87. Which of the following subjects does A teach?

(1) Biology (2) Chemistry

(3) Mathematics (4) Accountancy

(5) History

88. Which of the following statements is true?

(1) D teaches Biology

(2) None of the given statements is true

(3) Only two persons work in Brilliant

(4) Both E and G work in the same institute

(5) A teaches Mathematics.

89. Which of the following combinations represents

the combination of persons working in Paramount?

(1) D and the one who teaches English

(2) E, A

(3) G, C, E

(4) F and the one who teaches Chemistry

(5) A, B

90. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way based on the given arrangement and hence

form a group. Which of the following does not be-

long to that group?

(1) BE (2) GC

(3) EA (4) FG

(5) AB

Directions (91 95) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below:

Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one

above the other, but not necessarily in the same

order.

Each box contains different items- Shoes, Papers,

Bands, Medicines, Ribbons, Creams and Phones,

but not necessarily in the same order.

Only three boxes are kept between D and G, The

Ribbon box is kept immediately above G. Only one

box is kept between the Ribbon box and A. The

Ribbon box is not the second from the bottom of

the stack. Only one box is kept between E and A. E

is kept above A. The Medicine box is kept immedi-

ately above E. Only three boxes are kept between

the Medicine box and the Shoe box. The Paper Box

is kept immediately above the Phone box. G is not

the Paper box. F is kept immediately below the

Cream box.

Only one box is kept between B and the Cream

box.

91. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way and hence form a group. Which of the follow-

ing does not belong to the group?

(1) G Creams (2) E Bands

(3) C Shoes (4) D PapeRs (5) A

Bands

92. Which of the following boxes contains bands?

(1) D (2) C

(3) A (4) Other than those giv-

en as options

(5) G

93. What is the position of F in the given stack of

boxes?

(1) Second from the top

(2) Third from the bottom

(3) First from the top

(4) Fifth from the bottom

(5) Fourth from the top

94. Which of the following boxes is kept immedi-

ately below G?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) The Shoe box

(5) The Paper Box

95. How many boxes are kept between B and the

Ribbon box?

(1) Two (2) One

(3) None (4) Three

(5) More than three

Directions (96 100) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight friends, C, D, E, F, L, M, N and O are seated

in a straight line, but not necessarily in the same

order.

Some of them are facing north while some face

south. Only three persons sit to the right of M. E

sits second to the left of M. F sits third to the right

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94

of O. O is not an immediate neighbour of M. O

does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.

Both the immediate neighbours of O face south. D

sits second to the right of N. As many people sit

between M and D as between M and L.

Immediate neighbours of F face opposite directions

(i.e. if one person faces north then the other person

faces south and viceversa.) l L and F face direction

opposite to C (i.e. If C faces north then both L and

F face south and vice-versa.) l Persons sitting at

extreme ends face opposite directions (i.e., if one

person faces north then the other person faces south

and vice versa)

96. Which of the following statements true, based

on the given arrangement?

(1) D faces north.

(2) Only three persons face south.

(3) L sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.

(4) O and E face the same direction

(5) None of the given options is true

97. How many persons sit to the left of O?

(1) Three (2) More than four

(3) One (4) Four

(5) Two

98. Who amongst the following faces north?

(1) E (2) M

(3) F (4) N

(5) D

99. Who amongst the following sits second to the

left of L?

(1) O (2) No one as less than

two persons sit to the left of L

(3) N

(4) F

(5) D

100.Who among the following represent the per-

sons sitting at extreme ends of the line?

(1) D, N (2) O, D

(3) L, N (4) D, L

(5) D, C

Answer Key 1. (1) 2. (5) 3. (5) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9.

(2) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. (3) 16.

(4) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (3) 22. (5) 23.

(2) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30.

(3) 31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (4) 36. (4) 37.

(1) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (3) 41. (5) 42. (5) 43. (4) 44.

(2) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (3) 50. (5) 51.

(3) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (5) 55. (5) 56. (3) 57. (5) 58.

(2) 59. (2) 60. (1) 61. (2) 62. (1) 63. (3) 64. (1) 65.

(2) 66. (1) 67. (4) 68. (5) 69. (2) 70. (4) 71. (2) 72.

(1) 73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (4) 76. (3) 77. (4) 78. (2) 79.

(5) 80. (3) 81. (1) 82. (4) 83. (2) 84. (4) 85. (2) 86.

(1) 87. (5) 88. (3) 89. (4) 90. (4) 91. (3) 92. (5) 93.

(2) 94. (1) 95. (4) 96. (4) 97. (3) 98. (1) 99. (2) 100.

(5)

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95

Solutions: 1. (1) Dock (Verb) = cut short; to

remove part of something. Raise

(Verb) = increase; improve. Look at

the sentences : As a punishment, the

15% and took away their leave. They

raised their of fer to $ 400.

3. (5) Draw (Verb) = distract; to take

attention away; divert. Look at the

sentence :

attention away from the economic

situation.

5. (3) Prone (Adjective) = likely to

suffer from something; liable. Look

at the sentence : Working without a

break makes you more prone to er-

ror.

8. (4) Delusion (Noun) = a false

belief or opinion; not real or not true;

deception Reality (Noun) = the true

situation Look at the sentences :

n-

deur. You are out of touch with re-

ality.

11. (4) Here, and traffic where appli-

cable/ wherever applicable should be

used. Applicable (Adjective) = that

can be said to be true in the case of

something; relevant. Look at the

sentence : Give details of children

where applicable.

12. (1) Plural subject agrees with

plural verb. Hence, Junior colleges

see should be used.

13. (4) Repetition of has is not need-

ful as has has been used earlier with

subject. Hence, sought (for) a written

apology .... should be used.

14. (3) Here, prescribed physicians

may not be .... should be used. Look

at the sentence : The prescribed

form must be completed and re-

turned to the of fice.

15. (3) Here, to select/appoint the

next .... should be used. Select = to

choose from a group of people.

21. (3) Charge = responsibility for

something. Look at the sentence : He

took charge of the farm after his

22. (5) Risk = a situation that can be

dangerous.

23. (2) Lose out = to not get business

that you expected.

24. (1) Pitfall = a danger or difficul-

ty.

25. (3) Force (Verb) = compel Defer

(Verb) = put of f ; delay.

31. (2) is 20% more efficient than

A.

Time taken by days

Time taken by days

.. (i)

(ii)

By equation (ii) (i),

Time taken by

32. (4) Ratio of the equivalent cap‐ itals of and for 1 month

:

(12000

: : 72: 108

: 72 : : 2 : 3

Sum of the terms of ratio

If the total annual profit be Rs.

, then

According to the question, Differ-

ence between the shares

of A and . 6000

. 16500

33.

Amount given to the mother

Remaining amount

(

)

Amount spent in insurance ̇

Amount deposited in

According to the question,

. 36000

34. (3) Cylinder A Cylinder

35.

years

years

According to the question,

years

36. (4)

I.

or

II.

or

Clearly,

37. (1)

I.

or

II.

or

38. (3)

I.

or

II.

or

Clearly,

39. (2)

I.

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96

or

II.

or

Clearly, . (3)

I.

II.

or

Clearly,

41. (5) Let the original number

be According to the question,

15% of

42. (5) S.I.

Amount

Again, (

)

(

)

(

)

(

)

According to the question,

. 1200

43. (4) Students who are learning

freestyle dance :

Dance School

Dance School

Their sum

Dance School

Dance School

Their sum

Required percent

(

)

44. (2) Students who are learning

dance forms other than free‐ style :

Dance school

Dance School

Dance School

Required average

45. (2) Students enrolled in

School to learn freestyle

Girls

Students of age 15 years or

above

Girls

Girls who are below 15

years

46. (2) Number of boys :

School

School

Number of girls :

School

School

Required ratio

: (30 35)

: 13

47. (1) Number of students who

are learning freestyle :

School

School

Number of girls :

School

School

Required difference

48. (1) Difference of S.P.S.

C.P. of article

. (504 54)

Marked price of article

(

)

49. (3) The pattern is :

150 48 = 102

102 32 (= 48 16) = 70

70 24 (= 32 8) = 46

46 20 (= 24 4) = 26

26 18 (= 20 2) = 8

50. (5) The pattern is :

10 + 4 = 14

14 + 10 (= 4 + 6) = 24

24 + 28 (= 10 + 18) = 52

52 + 82 (= 28 + 54) = 134

134 + 244 (= 82 + 162)

= 378

51. (3) The pattern is :

24 × 0.5 1 = 12 1 = 11

11 × 1 1 = 11 1 = 10

10 × 1.5 1 = 15 1 = 14

14 × 2 1 = 28 1 = 27

27 × 2.5 1 = 67.5 1

= 66.5

52. (1) The pattern is :

4500 ÷ 5 = 900

900 ÷ 10 = 90

90 ÷ 15 = 6

6 ÷ 20 = 0.3

0.3 ÷ 25 = 0.012

53. (3) The pattern is :

8 × 1 1 = 8 1 = 7

7 × 2 2 = 14 2 = 12

12 × 3 3 = 36 3 = 33

33 × 4 4 = 132 4 = 128

128 × 5 5 = 640 5 = 635

54. (5) √

55. (5)?% of

56. (3)?

57. (5)?

58. (2)?

59. (2) Number of application

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97

forms accepted for subjects

and in 2005

of (130 280)

. (1) Number of international

applications received for sub‐ jects A and in 2004

61. (2) Number of applications re‐ ceived for subjects A and in

Total number of applica‐ tions received for both subjects

in

62. (1) Required average

63. (3) Applications received for

subject :

Years

Years

Percentage increase

(

)

64. (1) Total number of balls in the

bag

Total possible outcomes

Selection of 3 balls out of 15

balls

Total possible outcomes Se‐ lection of 2 balls out of 8 red

balls Selection of 1 ball out

of 7 green balls

Required probability

65. (2) In remaining

litres of mixture, Quantity of water

litres

5 litres of additional water is

added.

Required percentage of wa‐

ter

66. 68. : S is the mother of D and

K. D is the daughter of M and S. M

is the husband of S. U is the father of

M and Y.

71. (2) R > S = T > U S > A > V R >

S > A V < A < S = T > U Conclu-

sions : I. A < R : True II. V < U :

Not True (72-73) : B > E > A > T =

H < I < M

72. (1) Conclusions : I. H < E : True

II. B > T : True

73. (3) Conclusions : I. E < I : Not

True II. M < A : Not True

74. (4) S < M < I < T R > J > I S <

M < I < J < R Conclusions : I. R = S

: Not True II. S < R : True

75. (4) D < O < L > C > E Conclu-

sions : I. O < E : Not True II. L > D :

True

79. 84.

Month Person Activity

January G Singing

February B Craft

April E Karate

June A Drawing

August C Painting

October F Boxing

December D Running

85. - 90.

Person Subject Institute

A History Embibe

B English Embibe

C Accountancy Brilliant

D Chemistry Paramount

E Physics Embibe

F Biology Paramount

G Mathematics Brilliant

91. 95.

Box Item

C Medicines

E Ribbons

G Bands

A Creams

F Shoes

B Papers

D Phones

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98

RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-

1) English Language

Directions (1 5) : Rearrange the given six sentenc-

es/ group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and

(F) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful

paragraph and then answer the given questions

(A) This lack of concern comes from the fact that

companies do not hire managers that are experts at

managing

(B) Too many managers focus on the daily minuti-

ae aimed at making sure the employee is following

path towards results

(C) Instead, they hire managers who reward indi-

vidual contributors by promoting them into man-

agement positions

(D) However, their role can be enhanced if such

managers, can be hired who change from being

supervisors who monitor work to facilitators who

help subordinates release their full potential

(E) They take this path because results are proof of

productivity and how the employee achieves it is

not a concern for the manager

(F) This faulty hiring has devalued their role.

1. Which of the following should be the FIFTH

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) E (2) D

(3) A (4) F

(5) C

2. Which of the following should be the SECOND

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B

(3) F (4) D

(5) E

3. Which of the following should be the FOURTH

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) B (2) D

(3) A (4) F

(5) C

4. Which of the following should be the FIRST

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A (2) C

(3) B (4) F

(5) E

5. Which of the following should be the SIXTH

(LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A (2) E

(3) C (4) F

(5) D

Directions (6 15) : Read the following passage

carefully and answer the questions. Certain words/

phrases are given in bold to help you locate them

while answering some of the questions.

What is immediately needed today is the establish-

ment of a World Government or an International

Federation of mankind. It is the utmost necessity of

the world today, and all those persons who wish to

see all human beings happy and prosperous natural-

ly feel it keenly. Of course, at times we feel that

many of the problems of our political, social, lin-

guistic and cultural life would come to an end if

there were one Government all over the world.

Travellers, businessmen, seekers of knowledge and

teachers of righteousness know very well that great

impediments and obstructions are faced by them

when they pass from one country to another, ex-

change goods, get information, and make an effort

to spread their good gospel among their fellow-

men. In the past, religious sects divided one set of

people against another, colour of skin or shape of

the body set one against the other.

But today when philosophical light has exploded

the darkness that was created by religious differ-

ences, and when scientific knowledge has falsified

the superstitions, they have enabled human beings

of all religious views and of all races and colours to

come in frequent contact with one another.

It is the governments of various countries that keep

people of one country apart from, those of another.

They create artificial barriers, unnatural distinc-

tions, unhealthy isolation, unnecessary fears and

dangers in the minds of common men who by their

nature want to live in friendship with their fellow-

men. But all these evils would cease to exist if there

were one Government all over the world.

6. What divides people of a country against anoth-

er?

(1) Different religions

(2) Different language

(3) Different social and political systems of differ-

ent people

(4) Governments of various countries

(5) None of these

7. What is the urgent need of the world today?

(1) The establishment of an international economic

order

(2) The establishment of a world government

(3) The creation of a cultural international social

order

(4) The raising of an international spiritual army

(5) None of these

8. What will the world Government be expected to

do?

(1) it will arrange for interplanetary contacts

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99

(2) it will end all wars for all time to come

(3) it will bring about a moral regeneration of man-

kind

(4) it will kill the evil spirit in man

(5) None of these

9. Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning

as the word passage.

(1) rectitude (2) religiosity

(3) requirement (4) scrupulousness

(5) Immorality

10. Which of the following problems has not been

mentioned in the passage as likely to be solved with

the establishment of world Government?

(1) Social Problems

(2) Political Problems

(3) Cultural Problems

(4) Economic Problems

(5) None of these

11. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in

meaning to the the

passage.

(1) handicaps (2) furtherance

(3) providence (4) hindrances

(5) obstacles

12. The most appropriate title of the above passage

may be

(1) The evils of the world order

(2) The man can make his destiny

(3) The need of world Government

(4) The role of Religion in the Modern Times

(5) None of these

13. What was the factor, according to the passage,

that set one man against another?

(1) Material prosperity of certain people in the

midst of grinding poverty.

(2) Superior physical strength of some persons.

(3) Colour of skin or shape of the body.

(4) Some people being educated and other illiterate.

(5) None of these

14. The theory of racial superiority stands falsified

today by

(1) knowledge derived from scientific advances

(2) the ascendancy of people who were here to fore

considered of inferior racial stock

(3) the achievements of the so called backward

countries in every field of life

(4) the precedence given to the physical powers of

different races

(5) None of these

15. In the past religious sects

(1) united the people with one another

(2) interfered in political affaiRs (3) did a good job

by way of spreading message of love and peace

(4) divided one set of people from another

(5) None of these

Directions (16 20) :Read each sentence to find out

whether there is any grammatical error in it. The

error, if any, will be in one part of \the sentence.

Select the part with the error as your answer. If

there is

(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. Since the films are (1)/ so similar, it is (2)/ you

who has infringe (4)/ No

error (5)

17. The company has been (1)/ testing upfront fares

for (2)/ a small segment of (3)/ riders across five

cities. (4)/ No error (5)

18. Over 2 lakh students (1)/ had applied, seeking

enter (2)/ to various streams (3)/ in junior colleges

in the city. (4)/ No error (5)

19. Analysts said (1)/ that a lack of (2)/ transparen-

cy in the selection process (3)/ was a worry (4)/ No

error (5)

20. The growing fixation on super speciality doc-

tors (1)/ has meant a proportionate (2)/ dwindling

on the ranks of (3)/ the good old fashioned general

practitioners. (4)/ No error (5)

Directions (21 25) : In the following questions,

each sentence has two blanks, each blank indicating

that something has been omitted.

Choose the set of words for the blanks which best

fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. The _________ of the latest policy is set to

_______ demand for automobiles.

(1) practice, creating

(2) application, rise

(3) purpose, hike

(4) implementation, boost

(5) employ, increase

22. Last year, vehicles _______ for the highest

share of the amount Indian households _______ on

consumer durables.

(1) accounted, spent

(2)amounted, disbursed

(3) explain, shared

(4) consumed, lost

(5) departed, bestowed

23. The airline, which is the official airline partner

for the recent blockbuster has ________ a special

aircraft for this purpose ________ images of the

lead actor.

(1) set, posed

(2) dedicating, displaying

(3) devoted, bearing

(4) alleged, carrying

(5) donated, addressing

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100

24. While the technology and state of knowledge in

medicine allows the gadgets to _____ data and give

recommendation, it will be a while before we are

ready to _____ doctors for serious illnesses.

(1) estimate, credit

(2) evaluate, credence

(3) analyse, trust

(4) describe, distrust

(5) figure out, confidence

25. transferring kids to

the adult criminal justice system for trial and con-

viction has _____ to prevent repeat offences.

(1) data, declined

(2) information, rise

(3) disproof, developed

(4) indication, finished

(5) evidence, failed

Directions (26 30) : In the following passage,

there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.

Against each, five words are suggested, one of

which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the

appropriate word in each case.

Technology has had an (26) on relationships in

business, education and social life. Firstly, tele-

phones and the Internet allow business people in

different countries to interact without ever (27)

each other. Secondly, services like Skype create

new (28) for relationships between students and

teachers. For (29), a student can now take video

lessons with a teacher in a different city or country.

Finally, many people use social networks, like Fa-

cebook, to make new friends and find people who

share common interests, and they interact through

their computeRs (30) than face to face.

26. (1) control (2) impact

(3) intervention (4) influenced

(5) issue

27. (1) meeting (2) looking

(3) impersonating (4) being

(5) listening

28. (1) outlooks (2) fortunes

(3) respect (4) possibilities

(5) associates

29. (1) example (2) instant

(3) true (4) learned

(5) sake

30. (1) but (2) apart

(3) against (4) rather

(5) and

Quantitative Aptitude Directions (31 35) : In the following questions,

two equations numbered I and II are given. You

have to solve both the equations and

Give answer If

(1) x < y (2) x > y

(3) x < y (4) x > y

(5) x = y or the relationship cannot be established

31. I. x2 + 18x + 72 = 0

II. y2 + 6y + 8 = 0

32. I. 8x2 22x + 15 = 0

II. 3y2 13y + 14 = 0

33. I. 9x2 26x + 16 = 0

II. 3y2 16y + 20 = 0

34. I. 10x2 17x + 7 = 0

II. 15y2 19y + 6 = 0

35. I. 12x2 + 19x + 5 = 0

II. 5y2 + 16y + 3 = 0

36. The respective ratio of radii of two right circu-

lar cylinders (A and B) is 2 : 5. The respective ratio

of the heights of cylinders A and B is 3 : 1. What is

the respective ratio of volumes of cylinders A and

B?

(1) 12 : 25 (2) 9 : 25

(3) 9 : 20 (4) 3 : 5

(5) 12 : 35

37. Raja gives 30% of his salary to his mother, 40%

of the remaining salary he invests in an insurance

scheme and PPF in the respective ratio of 4 : 3 and

the remaining he keeps in his bank account. If the

difference between the amount he gives to his

mother and that he invests in insurance scheme is

Rs

(1) Rs. 60,000 (2) Rs. 62,000

(3) Rs. 64,000 (4) Rs. 65,000

(5) Rs. 54,000

38. C is 40% efficient less than A. A and B together

can finish a piece of work in 10 days. B and C to-

gether can do it in 15 days. In how many days A

alone can finish the same piece of work?

(1) 18 (2) 12

(3) 14 (4) 20

(5) 15

Directions (39 43) : What approximate value will

come in place of question mark (?) in the given

questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the

exact value.)

39. 619.002 134.99 14.998 9.012 = ?

(1) 355 (2) 360

(3) 350 (4) 400

(5) 388

40. 439.97 ÷ 15.02 + 208.08 ÷ 8.01 16.01 = ?

(1) 120 (2) 60

(3) 100 (4) 80

(5) 40

41. 4? × √ = 245.998 ÷ 8.001 + 929.99

(1) 4 (2) 5

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101

(3) 2 (4) 3

(5) 1

42. ?% of (140.06 × 7.99 679.92) = 330.01

(1) 75 (2) 90

(3) 80 (4) 50

(5) 60

43. 40% of 859 + 86.01 ÷ 7.99 = ?

(1) 398 (2) 286

(3) 412 (4) 215

(5) 355

44. In a bag there are 7 red balls and 5 green balls.

Three balls are picked at random. What is the prob-

ability that two balls are red and one is green in

colour?

(1) 29/44 (2) 21/44

(3) 27/44 (4) 23/44

(5) 19/44

45. Shyama invested Rs. P for 2 years in scheme A

which offered 11% per annum simple interest. She

also invested Rs (600 + P) in scheme B which of-

fered 20% compound interest

(compounded annually), for 2 years. If the amount

received from scheme A was less than that received

from scheme B, by Rs. 1216, what is the value of P

?

(1) Rs. 1,500 (2) Rs. 1,400

(3) Rs. 2,000 (4) Rs. 1,600

(5) Rs. 1,800

46. A vessel contains 180 litres of mixture of milk

and water in the respective ratio of 13 : 5

Fifty four litres of this mixture was taken out and

replaced with 6 litres of water, what is the approx-

imate percentage of water in the resultant mixture?

(1) 41 (2) 31

(3) 24 (4) 9

(5) 17

47. A started a business with an investment of Rs.

28,000. After 5 months from the start of the busi-

ness, B and C joined with Rs. 24,000 and Rs.

32,000 respectively and A withdrew Rs 8000 from

the business. If the

and profit is Rs. 2,400, what

was the annual profit received?

(1) Rs. 15,600 (2) Rs. 14,400

(3) Rs. 14,040 (4) Rs. 15,360

(5) Rs. 13,440 schools together?

Directions (48 52) : Read the following table care-

fully and answer the questions

Dance

Schools

Total number

of students

who have

enrolled in

Percentage

of enrolled

students who

are learning

Respective

ratio of male

and female

students learn-

the schools Kathakali ing Kathakali

A 450 30 7 : 8

B 200 38 9 : 10

C 500 24 5 : 19

D 400 18 5 : 7

48. What is the respective ratio between the total

number of male students learning Kathakali in

schools A and D together and the total number of

female students learning Kathakali in the same

schools together?

(1) 30 : 37 (2) 31 : 38

(3) 31 : 44 (4) 36 : 37

(5) 36 : 39

49. In school B, out of the number of students (both

male and female) learning Kathakali, 5/19 are be-

low 15 years of age.

If out of the total students who are below 15 years

of age, 60% are female, what is the number of fe-

male students learning Kathakali who are 15 years

or above?

(1) 24 (2) 29

(3) 26 (4) 25

(5) 28

50. What is the difference between the total number

of male students learning Kathakali in schools B

and C together and the total number of female stu-

dents learning the same in the same

51. What is the average number of students learning

dance forms (other than Kathakali) in schools A, B

and C?

(1) 289 (2) 297

(3) 285 (4) 283

(5) 273

52. The number of students (both male and female)

who are learning Kathakali in schools B and D to-

gether is approximately what percent less than the

number of students

(both male and female) who are learning the same

in schools A and C together?

(1) 18 (2) 42

(3) 22 (4) 51

(5) 33

53. At present, Akki is seven years younger to Bin-

ny. age sixteen years hence, will be equal

age two years ago. What will be

the sum of their present ages?

(1) 72 years (2) 61 years (3) 54 years (4) 62 years

(5) 46 years

Directions (54 58) : Refer to the bar graph and

answer the given questions

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102

Data related to number of applications received

by a University for Masters Programe in two

subjects (A and B) during 6 years Number of

applications received

54. In 2008, 20% of the applications received for

subject A and 15% of applications received for sub-

ject B were from International students. What was

the total number of international applications for

subjects A and B together in 2008?

(1) 62 (2) 78

(3) 72 (4) 60

(5) 76

55. In 2010, out of toal number of applications re-

ceived for subjects A and B together, only 40%

were accepted. What was the total number of appli-

cations accepted for subjects A and B together in

2010?

(1) 158 (2) 168

(3) 178 (4) 172

(5) 162

56. The number of applications received for subject

B increased by what percent from 2010 to 2011?

(1) 41.5 (2) 40.5

(3) 45.25 (4) 40.75

(5) 43.75

57. What is the average number of applications

received for subject A in 2008, 2009 and 2011?

(1) 250 (2) 220

(3) 210 (4) 240

(5) 230

58. If the respective ratio of total number of appli-

cations received for subjects A and B together in

2012 and 2013 is 4 : 5, what was the total number

of applications received for subjects A and B to-

gether in 2013?

(1) 625 (2) 750

(3) 600 (4) 650

(5) 700

59. A number is such that when it is multiplied by

number which is as much more

than 153 as the original number itself is less than

153. What is 25% of the original number?

(1) 8 (2) 7.5

(3) 10 (4) 8.5

(5) 6.5

Directions (60 64) :What will come in place of the

question mark

(?) in the given number series?

60. 476 472 462 434 352 ?

(1) 192 (2) 164

(3) 108 (4) 112

(5) 176

61. 45000 1800 90 6 0.6 ?

(1) 0.012 (2) 1.2

(3) 0.03 (4) 0.024

(5) 0.12

62. 9 8 14 39 152 ?

(1) 755 (2) 628

(3) 772 (4) 720

(5) 684

63. 192 108 64 40 26 ?

(1) 21 (2) 17

(3) 13 (4) 19

(5) 15

64. 18 8 7 9.5 18 ?

(1) 50.5 (2) 46

(3) 48.25 (4) 44

(5) 52

65. Percent profit earned when an article is sold for

Rs. 546 is double the percent profit earned when

the same article is sold for Rs. 483. If the marked

price of the article is 40% above the cost price,

what is the marked price of the article?

(1) Rs. 588 (2) Rs. 608

(3) Rs. 616 (4) Rs. 596

(5) Rs. 586

Reasoning Directions (66 68) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Each of the six translators, L, M, N, O, P and Q

translates different number of books in a year. O

translated more books than only two people and M

is one of them. N translated more books than P but

less than L. L did not translate the highest number

of books. P translated more books than M. The one

who translated second highest number of books

translated 32 books. P translated 15 books.

66. How many books has N possibly translated?

(1) 33 (2) 36

(3) 23 (4) 12

(5) 14

67. Which of the following statements is true re-

garding the number of books translated by Q?

(1) No other translator has translated less books

than Q.

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103

(2) Q has translated less number of books than N.

(3) Q translated less books than only two persons.

(4) Q possibly translated 45 books.

(5) The difference between number of books trans-

lated by P and Q is less than 17.

68. How many books has M possibly translated?

(1) 30 (2) 10

(3) 24 (4) 36

(5) 32

Directions (69 70) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Gauri starts walking from Point M and walks 20m

towards the south. She then takes a right turn and

walks for 30m. She takes a left turn and stops at

Point O after walking for 15m. Point R is 10m to

the east of Point O. Point J is 35m to the north of

Point R. Point S is 5m to the west of Point J.

69. If Pooja is standing at Point W which is 10m to

the north of Point S, in which direction will she

have to walk in order to reach Point O?

(1) North east (2)West

(3) South west (4) South

(5) South east

70. How far and in which direction is Point S with

respect to Point M?

(1) 25m towards West

(2) 20m towards East

(3) 25m towards East

(4) 20m towards West

(5) 25m towards North

Directions (71 76) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Seven people, namely, J, K, L, M, N, O and P like

seven different cartoon characters namely, Tweety,

Wiene, Superman, Garfield, Jerry, Ariel and Pop-

eye. Each of them studies in either of the three

standards viz. IV, VIII, XI with atleast two of them

in a standard

(Note : None of the information given is necessari-

ly in the same order.) Only one person studies with

M in XI standard. K studies with the one who likes

Ariel. M does not like Ariel. P studies with only the

one who likes Garfield. Neither K nor M likes Gar-

field. J likes Popeye. J does not study with K. The

one who likes Tweety studies with J. N studies with

the one who likes Jerry. N does not study in IV

standard. Neither K nor O likes Jerry. The one who

likes Superman studies with N.

71. Who amongst the following likes Wiene?

(1) N (2) O

(3)M (4) P

(5) K

72. Which of the following cartoon characters does

L like?

(1) Superman (2) Ariel

(3) Tweety (4) Jerry

(5) Garfield

73. Which of the following statements is true?

(1) Both M and J study in the same standard

(2) K studies in IV standard

(3) J studies with the one who likes Wiene

(4)More than two people study in the standard in

which O studies

(5) None of the given statements is true

74. Which of the following combinations represents

the combination of people studying in VIII stand-

ard?

(1) N and the one who likes Wiene

(2) J, O

(3) K, L, N (4) K and the one who

likes Tweety

(5) Other than those given as options

75. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way based on the given arrangement and hence

form a group.

Which of the following does not belong to that

group?

(1) LK (2) PM

(3) KN (4) LN

(5) OP

76. Which of the following combinations represents

the standard in which O studies and the cartoon

character he likes?

(1) VIII Garfield (2) VIII Superman

(3) XI Tweety (4) IV Ariel

(5) IV Garfield

Directions (77 82) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Seven people, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V have

a meeting but not necessarily in the same order on

seven different months (of the same year) namely

January, February, April, May, July, August and

September. Each of them also likes a different fit-

ness activity namely Yoga, Gym Training, Zumba,

Mountaineering, Bicycle, Running and Surfing but

not necessarily in the same order.

The one who likes Gym Training has a meeting on

one of the months before May. The one who likes

Gym Training has a meeting in the month which

has less than 31 days. Only three people have a

meeting between the one who likes Gym training

and T. Only two people have a meeting between T

and the one who likes running.

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104

The one who likes Mountaineering has a meeting

on one of the months after the one who likes Run-

ning. The one who likes Mountaineering has a

meeting in the month which has only 30 days. V

has a meeting on one of the months before the one

who likes Gym Training. V does not have a meet-

ing in the month which has least number of days.

More than three people have a meeting between V

and R. Only two people have a meeting between R

and Q. The one who likes Yoga has a meeting im-

mediately before U. U does not have a meeting in a

month which has 31 days. Only one person has a

meeting between the one who likes Surfing and S.

S has a meeting after the one who likes Surfing. R

does not like Zumba.

77. In the given arrangement Yoga is related to

February and Gym Training is related to May fol-

lowing a certain pattern, with which of the follow-

ing is Zumba related to following the same pattern?

(1) July (2) September

(3) April (4) August

(5) January

78. Who amongst the following has a meeting im-

mediately before the one who has a meeting in Ju-

ly?

(1) The one who likes Zumba

(2) The one who likes Surfing

(3) S

(4) R

(5) Q

79. Which of the following combinations is cor-

rect?

(1) S Zumba (2) V Yoga

(3) R Running (4) T Bicycling

(5) U Gym Training

80. Who amongst the following likes Surfing?

(1) U (2) Q

(3) R (4) T

(5) Other than those given as options

81. How many people have a meeting between the

one who has a meeting in February and R?

(1) More than three

(2) None

(3) One (4) Two

(5) Three

82. In which of the following pairs, both the per-

sons have a meeting in the months which has less

than 31 days?

(1) R, S (2) R, Q

(3) U, Q (4) T, P

(5) S , U

Directions (83 87) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight friends, C, D, E, F, K, L, M and N are seated

in a straight line, but not necessarily in the same

order. Some of them are facing north while some

are facing south. Only one person sits to the left of

K. E sits third to the right of K. C sits second to the

left of E. C is not an immediate neighbour of K. C

faces a direction opposite to that of E (i.e. if E faces

north then C faces south and viceversa.) Both the

immediate neighbours of D face south. D is not at

any of the extreme ends of the line. F sits third to

the right of N. Both the immediate neighbours of C

face north. L is not an immediate neighbour of E.

Immediate neighbours of K face opposite directions

(i.e. if one neighbour faces north then the other fac-

es south and viceversa.)

83. Who amongst the following sits second to the

right of L?

(1) C (2) N

(3) E (4)M

(5) No one as less than two people sit to the right of

L.

84. Which of the following statements is true, based

on the given arrangement?

(1) M and E face opposite directions.

(2)M sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.

(3) Only four people face south.

(4) None of the given options is true

(5) K faces north.

85. Who among the following represents the per-

sons sitting at extreme ends of the line?

(1) L, M (2) L, N

(3) F, M (4) M, N

(5) F, N

86. How many people sit between C and K?

(1) Four (2) Three

(3) More than four

(4) Two

(5) One

87. Who among the following are immediate

neighbours of F?

(1) Other than those given as options

(2) E and M

(3) D and K (4) D and N

(5) E and D

Directions (88 90) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

is the sister of D. D is the mother of U. U is married

to T. T is the only son of Z. Z is the son of R. R is

the husband of Q.

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105

88. If Z is the father of X, then how is X related to

U?

(1) Brother (2) Sister-in-law

(3) Cousin (4) Brother-in-law

(5) Sister

89. How is U related to L?

(1) Son-in-law (2) Daughter

(3) Daughter-in-law

(4) Niece

(5) Nephew

90. How is Q related to T?

(1) Sister-in-law (2) Mother-in-law

(3) Grandmother (4)Mother

(5) Aunt

Directions (91 95) : In these questions, relation-

ship between different elements is shown in the

statements. The statements are followed by two

Conclusions numbered I and.

II. Study the Conclusions based on the statements

and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true

Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true

Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-

sion II is true

Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-

clusion II is true

Give answer (5) if both Conclusion I and Conclu-

sion II are true

(91 92) :

Statements :

M < J < B = L < T > P < S

91.

Conclusions :

I. J < T

II. L > S

92.

Conclusions :

I. B > P

II. M < L

93. Statements :

D < R < I < L; I < F < S

Conclusions :

I. D < F

II. S > R

94. Statements :

R > I > S > K; V > O > S

Conclusions :

I. O < R

II. K > V

95. Statements :

D > R > A < F < T

Conclusions :

I. R < T

II. D > F

Directions (96 100) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Seven boxes M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are kept one

above the other, but not necessarily in the same

order. Each box is of a different shape. Square, Tri-

angular, Rectangular, Hexagonal, Conical, Pentag-

onal and Octagonal, but not necessarily in the same

order.

The hexagonal box is kept immediately below M.

Only two boxes are kept between the Hexagonal

box and the square box. More than two boxes are

kept above the square box. Only one box is kept

between the square box and R. O is kept immedi-

ately above R. Neither O nor S is a hexagonal box.

S is kept immediately above the Pentagonal box. S

is not a square box. N is kept immediately above Q.

Only one box is kept between the N and the trian-

gular box. N is kept above the triangular box.

Only two boxes are kept between the Triangular

and the Octagonal box. The Rectangular box is kept

neither at the top nor at the bottom of the stack.

96. Which of the following is kept immediately

below R?

(1) S

(2) The Triangular Box

(3) P

(4) N

(5) The Conical Box

97. Which of the following boxes is rectangular in

shape?

(1) R (2) N

(3)M (4) O

(5) Other than those given as options

98. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way and hence form a group. Which of the follow-

ing does not belong to that group?

(1) M Triangular (2)M Hexagonal

(3) O Octagonal (4) S Square

(5) S Conical

99. What is the position of S in the given stack of

boxes?

(1) Second from the top

(2) Fourth from the top

(3) Third from the bottom

(4) Third from the top

(5) Second from the bottom

100. How many boxes are kept between the P and

the Square box?

(1) Two (2) One

(3) None (4) Three

(5) More than three

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106

Answer Key 1. (4) 2. (5) 3. (5) 4. (3) 5. (5) 6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9.

(1) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (4) 16.

(3) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (5) 21. (4) 22. (1) 23.

(4) 24. (3) 25. (5) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30.

(4) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (5) 36. (1) 37.

(1) 38. (4) 39. (5) 40. (5) 41. (4) 42. (1) 43. (5) 44.

(2) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (5) 50. (2) 51.

(5) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (5) 55. (4) 56. (5) 57. (5) 58.

(4) 59. (4) 60. (3) 61. (5) 62. (1) 63. (2) 64. (4) 65.

(1) 66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (1) 71. (4) 72.

(4) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (5) 77. (4) 78. (3) 79.

(2) 80. (1) 81. (5) 82. (3) 83. (4) 84. (3) 85. (2) 86.

(1) 87. (5) 88. (2) 89. (4) 90. (3) 91. (1) 92. (2) 93.

(5) 94. (4) 95. (4) 96. (4) 97. (2) 98. (5) 99. (3) 100.

(1)

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107

Solutions: 6. (4) Look at the sentence : It is the

governments of various countries

that keep people of one country apart

from, those of another.

7. (2) It is obvious from the first

sentence of the passage.

8. (3) Look at the sentence : It is the

utmost necessity of the world today

and all those persons who wish to

see all human beings mankind.

9. (1) Righteousness (Noun) = mor-

ally right and good; moral ac-

ceptance; fairness; great concern for

morals and ethics; propriety; scrupu-

lousness; rectitude. Immorality

(Noun) = not considered to be good

or honest. Look at the sentences :

Lord Buddha believed in righteous-

c-

cept men of immorality.

11. (2) Impediment (Noun) = some-

thing that delays or stops the pro-

gress of something; obstacle; hin-

drance. Furtherance (Noun) = the

process of helping something to

develop or to be successful. Look at

the sentences : The level of inflation

is a serious impediment to economic

recovery. He took these actions

purely in the furtherance of his own

career.

16. (3) The antecedent of relative

you. Hence, Plural

Verb i.e., you who have infringed

(V3) should be used.

17. (2) It is preposition related error.

Hence, testing upfront fares on ...

should be used here. Look at the

sentence : Children were tested on

core subjects.

18. (2) Here, have applied, seeking

admission (Noun) ..... should be

used. The Past relates to Present.

Moreover, gerund should be fol-

lowed by a Noun.

19. (2) Here, that the lack of .......

should be used. Certainty is evident.

21. (4) I m p l e m e n t a t i o n

(Noun) = making something start

Boost (Verb) = to make something

increase or become better.

22. (1) Account for = to be a part of

something

23. (4) Allege (Verb) = to state

something as a fact but without giv-

ing proof.

24. (3) Analyse = to examine the

nature of something

25. (5) Evidence (Noun) = the facts

that make you believe that some-

thing is true.

28. (1) Outlooks = prospect, the

probable future.

31. (1)

I. x2 + 18x + 72 = 0

x2 + 6x + 12x + 72 = 0

x (x + 6) + 12 (x + 6) = 0

(x + 6) (x + 12) = 0

x = 6 or 12

II. y2 + 6y + 8 = 0

y2 + 2y + 4y + 8 = 0

y (y + 2) + 4 (y + 2) = 0

(y + 2) (y + 4) = 0

y = 2 or 4

Clearly, x < y

32. (1)

I. 8x2 22x + 15 = 0

8x2 12x 10x + 15 = 0

4x (2x 3) 5 (2x 3) = 0

(4x 5) (2x 3) = 0

x = 5/4 or 3/2

II. 3y2 13y + 14 = 0

3y2 6y 7y + 14 = 0

3y (y 2) 7 (y 2) = 0

(y 2) (3y 7) = 0

y = 2 or 7/3

Clearly, x < y

33. (3)

I. 9x2 26x + 16 = 0

9x2 18x 8x + 16 = 0

9x (x 2) 8 (x 2) = 0

(x 2) (9x 8) = 0

x = 2 or\8/9

II. 3y2 16y + 20 = 0

3y2 6y 10y + 20 = 0

3y (y 2) 10 (y 2) = 0

(y 2) (3y 10) = 0

y = 2 or 10/3

Clearly, x < y

34. (2)

I. 10x2 17x + 7 = 0

10x2 10x 7x + 7 = 0

10x (x 1) 7 (x 1) = 0

(x 1) (10x 7) = 0

x = 1 or 7/10

II. 15y2 19y + 6 = 0

15y2 10y 9y + 6 = 0

5y (3y 2) 3 (3y 2) = 0

(3y 2) (5y 3) = 0

y =2/3 or 3/5

Clearly, x > y

35. (5)

I. 12x2 + 19x + 5 = 0

12x2 + 4x + 15x + 5 = 0

4x (3x + 1) + 5 (3x + 1) = 0

(4x + 5) (3x + 1) = 0

x = 5/4 or 1/3

II. 5y2 + 16y + 3 = 0

5y2 + 15y + y + 3 = 0

5y (y + 3) + 1 (y + 3) = 0

(y + 3) (5y + 1) = 0

y = 3 or 1/5

36. (1) Cylinder‐A Cylinder units

units

units units

..

(

)

(

)

(

) (

)

37.

Amount given to the mother

Rs.

Remaining amount

(

) Rs.

Amount invested in insurance

and PP 40% of Rs.

(

) Rs.

Investment in insurance

Rs. (

)

According to the question,

38. (4) Time taken by days

is 40% less efficient than A.

Time taken by days

(i)

(ii)

Equation ,

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108

days

39. (5)?

Required answer

41. (4) √

42. (1)

43. (5)?

44. (2) Total number of balls in

the bag

Total possible outcomes

lection of 3 balls out of 12

balls

Total favourable outcomes

Selection of 2 balls out of 7

red balls and selection of 1 ball

out of 5 green balls

Required probability

45. (4) S.I. received from the

scheme

Rs.

Amount Rs. (

)

(

) Rs.

Amount received from the

scheme (

)

(

)

(

)

(

)

(

)

According to the question,

. 1600

46. (2) Remaining mixture

litres

Quantity of water

(

) litres

litres

On adding 6 litres of water, Total

quantity of water

41litres

Quantity of mixture litres

Percentage of water

47. (2) Ratio of the equivalent

capitals of and for 1

month

: : :

: :

Sum of the terms of ratio

Total annual profit Rs.

(let)

According to the question, (

)

. 14400

48. (2) School Students who are

learning

Kathakali

Boys

Girls

School Students who are learning

Kathakali

Boys

Girls

Required ratio

: (72 42)

:

49. (5) In school Students who are

learning

Kathakali

Students who are below 15

years of age

Girls

Girls who are learning

Kathakali

Girls who are 15 years old

or above

50. (2) In School Students who

are learning

Kathakali

Boys

Girls

In School Students who are learn-

ing

Kathakali

Boys

Girls

Required difference

51. (5) Students who are learning

dance forms other than Kathaka‐ li:

School

School

School

Required average

52. (2) Students who are learning

Kathakali :

School

School

Their sum

School

School

Their sum

Required percent

(

)

53.

years

years

According to the question,

years

Required sum years

years

years years

54. (5) Applications received from

international students in the

year 2008:

Subject

Subject

Required answer

55. (4)Applications accepted in

2010

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109

of

56. (5)Required percentage

(

)

57. (5)Required average

58. (4)Applications received for

both subjects in 2012

Total applications received

in

59. (4) Let the number be According to the question,

25% of

60. (3) The pattern is :

472 10

462 28

434 82

352 244

61. (5) The pattern is :

62. (1) The pattern is :

63. (2) The pattern is :

64. (4) The pattern is :

9.5

44

65. (1) Profit on selling the arti‐ cle for Rs. C.P. of article

Marked price of article

(

) Rs. 588

71. 76.

Person Standard Cartoon

Character

J XI Popeye

K VIII Superman

L VIII Jerry

M XI Tweety

N VIII Ariel

O IV Garfield

P IV Wiene

77. 82.

Month Person Activity

January V Yoga

February U Surfing

April Q Gym Training

May S Running

July P Zumba

August R Bicycle

September T Mountaineering

91. 92. : M < J < B = L < T > P <

S

91. (1) Conclusions : I. J < T : True

II. L > S : Not True

92. (2) Conclusions : I. B > P : Not

True II. M < L : True

93. (5) D < R < I < L I < F < S D <

R < I < F D < R < I < F < S Conclu-

sions : I. D < F : True II. S > R :

True

94. (4) R > I > S > K V > O > S R >

I > S < O < V V > O > S > K Con-

clusions : I. O < R : Not True II. K >

V : Not True

95. (4) D > R > A < F < T Conclu-

sions : I. R < T : Not True II. D > F :

Not True

96. 100.

Box Shape

O Conical

R Octagonal

N Rectangular

Q Square

S Triangular

M Pentagonal

P Hexagonal

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110

RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-

2) English Language

Directions (1 10) : Read the following passage

carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to

help you locate them while answering some of the

questions.

first appeared in

the Wall Street Journal in 1986 and was then used

in the title of an academic article by A.M. Morrison

and others published in 1987. Entitled

the Glass Ceiling: Can Women Reach the Top of

looked at the

persistent failure of women to climb as far up the

corporate ladder as might be expected from their

representation in the working population as a

whole. The idea behind the expression was that a

transparent barrier, a glass ceiling, blocked them.

Invisible from the bottom, when women started

their careers, it was steely strong in stopping them

attaining equality with men later on.

It helped explain the fact that in large corporations

in Europe and North America women rarely came

to account for more than 10% of senior executives

and 4% of CEOs and chairmen. A secondary issue

is that of that even

when women do reach the highest levels of corpo-

rate management, they do not receive the same pay

as men for the same job; a figure of 75% is often

quoted.

And rather than getting better over time, the posi-

tion seems to be deteriorating. One survey found

that women executives in the United States were

earning an even lower percentage of their male

in 2000 than they were

in 1995

So worried was the American government about the

issue that in 1991 it set up something called the

Glass Ceiling Commission, a 21-member body ap-

pointed by the president and Congress and chaired

by the labour secretary.

The commission focused on barriers in three areas :

the filling of management and decision-making

positions; skills-enhancing activities; and compen-

sation and reward systems.

The Glass Ceiling Commission

and was disbanded. Needless to

say, the problem did not disappear with it. One of

the first women to head a major Japanese company,

when asked in 2005 what had changed least in Jap-

anese business in the previous 20 years

Several theories

have been presented to explain the glass ceiling :

The time factor : One theory is that the cohorts of

first-class female graduates have not yet had time to

work through the pipeline and reach the top of the

corporate hierarchy. Qualifications for a senior

management post usually include a graduate degree

and 25 years of continuous work experience.

In the early 1970s, when

were graduating, fewer than 5% of law and MBA

degrees were being awarded to women. Nowadays,

women gain over 40% of all law degrees in the

United States and 35% of MBAs. Motherhood :

Sometimes the blame for the glass ceiling is laid at

the door of motherhood.

Women are distracted from their career path by the

need to stay at home and rear children.

They are unable to undertake the tasks required to

reach the top; for example, extended trips abroad,

wearing air miles like battle medals, long evenings

clients and changing plans at short

notice. Lack of role models : In her 1977 book

n

Moss Kanter suggested that because managerial

women are so often a token female in their work

environment they stand out from the rest. This

makes them (and their failures) much more visible,

and exaggerates the differences between them and

the dominant male culture.

Some authors recently have gone so far as to chal-

lenge the metaphor of the glass ceiling, arguing that

it presents the image of a one-off blockage some-

where high up the career ladder, whereas in reality

there is a whole series of obstacles along the way

that hold women back.

1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in

the context of the given article?

I. The American government formed a Glass Ceil-

ing Commission in 1991 regarding

participation in corporations.

II. Rosabeth Moss Kanter wrote

Women of

III. Now a days women gain over 40% of all law

degrees in the United States and 35% of MBAs.

(1) Only I (2) Only II

(3) Only I and II (4) Only II and III

(5) All three I, II and III

2. Worried by the poor participation of women in

largest corporations, the government

appointed a 21 member body chaired by the la-

bour secretary. Which of the following area(s)

was/were of their focus?

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111

I. Employment for management and decision mak-

ing positions.

skills III. How to

presence in duty and their work-

ing hours.

(1) Only I (2) Only II

(3) Only I and III

(4) Only I and II

(5) All three I, II and III

3. What should be the most appropriate title of the

given passage?

(1) Breaking the wooden ceiling.

(2) Breaking the glass ceiling

corporations

(4) Global participation of women

(5) None of these

4. Which of the following statements is not true in

the context of the given passage?

(1) In large corporations in Europe and North

America women rarely come to account for more

than 10% of senior executives and 4% of CEOs and

chairmen.

in the title of an academic article by A.M. Morri-

son.

(3) The idea behind the expression l-

was that a transparent barrier blocked women

in their progress.

(4) According to a survey, women executives in the

United States were earning an even lower percent-

age of their male counterparts remuneration in 2000

than they were in 1995.

(5) None of these

5. Several theories have been presented to explain

the glass ceiling. Which of the following is/are cor-

rect in this regard?

I. Because managerial women are so often a token

female in their work environment they stand out

from the rest.

II. Sometimes the blame for glass ceiling is laid at

the door of motherhood.

III. The cohorts of first class female graduates have

not yet had time to work through the pipeline and

reach the top of the corporate hierarchy.

(1) Only I (2) Only II

(3) Only I and II (4) Only II and III

(5) All three I, II and III

6. Select the correct statement in the context of the

given passage.

(1) In early 1970, fewer than 6% of law and MBA

degrees were being awarded to women.

(2)Women are not distracted from their career path

by the need to stay at home and rear children.

(3) The women get same pay for same job as com-

pared to men.

(4) The Glass ceiling commission completed its

mandate in 1996 and was disbanded.

(5) None of these

Directions (7 8) : Which one of the following

words is most similar in meaning to the word given

in bold letters in the passage?

7. Persistent

(1) relenting (2) perquisite

(3) unrelenting (4) transient

(5) perseverance

8. Stand out

(1) to be noticeable

(2) watch

(3) remain valid (4) isolate

(5) support

Directions (9 10) : Which one of the following

words is most opposite in meaning to the word giv-

en in bold letters in the passage?

9. Distracted

(1) diverted (2) distressed

(3) inattentive (4) distinguished

(5) attentive

10. Deteriorate

(1) to become worse

(2) decline

(3) degrade (4) improve

(5) retrogress

Directions (11 15) : Rearrange the given six sen-

tences/ group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

and (F) in a proper sequence so as to form a mean-

ingful paragraph and then answer the given ques-

tions

(A) And the number four, Humana, has been look-

ing at selling itself to either Aetna or Cigna

(B) The second largest, Anthem, is trying to buy

the number five, Cigna which on June 21st reject-

billion bid

(C) The largest insurer, United- Health, has ap-

proached the number three, Aetna

(D) A similar consolidation among health insurers

was also predicted.

But since the new insurance exchanges set up under

Obama care only went into operation last year, it

has taken until now for it to be clear how big the

merger wave may be

(E) Sure enough, one of the more immediate effects

was a frenzy of hospital mergers, as providers

sought to raise their efficiency in response to

measures in the Affordable Care Act of 2010, alias

Obamacare, designed to curb their cost increases

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112

(F) Reform of American health care was always

expected to have an enormous impact on the sector.

11. Which of the following should be the FIRST

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A (2) F

(3) B (4) C

(5) E

12. Which of the following should be the LAST

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) E

13. Which of the following should be the SECOND

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) F (2) E

(3) A (4) B

(5) C

14. Which of the following should be the

FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) E

15. Which of the following should be the FIFTH

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) E

Directions (16 25) : In the following passage,

some of the words have been left out, each of which

is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word

from the options given against each number and fill

up the blanks with appropriate words to make the

paragraph meaningful.

New technologies (16) cause stress and suffering,

because of a

During this session, Delphine Remy-Boutang

the founder and CEO of The Social Bureau and

Christophe Aguiton researcher at the Orange

Labs (17) that due to the acceleration of our lives

led by the acceleration of technology, we (18)

changed the way we consume and generate infor-

mation.

People are trying to live 10 lives at once and a lot

of stress and anxiety occurs from that. The two

speakers even argue that we are (19) from digital

bulimia, meaning that we take in a lot of infor-

mation at once, without really processing it for our-

selves, and in turn (20) a lot of new information.

Thus, as Christophe Aguiton says, the

same time creators and victims of information over-

Thus, it is obvious that technological ad-

vancement has failed (21) its mission of making

life easier, as many people are reacting

negatively to it. As Dolphine Remy-Boutant put it :

is really a (22) : On the one hand, the technolo-

gy we are surrounding ourselves which is designed

to give us more time for ourselves which is

something we all want.

However, today, while technology is as developed

as ever before, we are living in a time with the (23)

explained

this phenomenon by (24) of the car

allowed us to save time,when compared to walking.

However, it also made us want to go further by giv-

ing us this option, so overall we spend more time

getting to places. The same is true for other tech-

nologies we want to travel to more countries,

learn more, fall in love more often. The search for

content and experience has become the (25) of life

for many.

16. (1) actual (2) actually

(3) rarely (4) fundamental

(5) are

17. (1) argued (2) rejected

(3) amplified (4) ameliorated

(5) deteriorated

18. (1) has (2) will

(3) should (4) have

(5) should be

19. (1) suffered (2) suffering

(3) going (4) running

(5) suffocating

20. (1) creating (2) create

(3) created (4) destroy

(5) destroying

21. (1) of (2) with

(3) at (4) off

(5) after

22. (1) paradox (2) truth

(3) orthodox (4) lie

(5) indeed

23. (1) big (2) bigger

(3) biggest (4) small

(5) smaller

24. (1) inventing (2) invention

(3) discovery (4) reach

(5) manufacturing

25. (1) meaning (2) means

(3) source (4) pleasant

(5) curse

Directions (26-30) : Read each sentence to find out

whether there is any grammatical error in it. The

error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The

number of that part is the answer. If there is no er-

ror, the answer is (5) i.e., No error

(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

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113

26. However, while the younger generations are

often accusing for (1)/ actively adhering to this

technology (2)/ based lifestyle, the study showed

(3)/ that 38% of 10 18 year olds claim to feel

overwhelmed. (4)/ No error (5)

27. The economy of a country is literary (1)/ a

backbone to its existence and it helps (2)/ determine

overall health (3)/ and growth of a nation. (4)/ No

error (5)

28. A thief runs away from a police station with a

uniform (1)/ speed of 100m/minute and after one

minute a policeman runs behind the (2)/ thief to

catch him at speed of 100m/ minute in first (3)/

minute and increases his speed 10m each succeed-

ing minute. (4)/ No error (5)

29. Now-a-days people are really (1)/ afraid of the

terrorism and terrorists (2)/ attack all time. It has

become a warm (3)/ topic as it is a big social issue.

(4)/ No error (5)

30. With the decline of cottage (1)/ and handicraft

industries, the traditional (2)/ economy base of

country (3)/ was in bad shape. (4)/ No error (5)

Quantitative Aptitude Directions (31 35) : What approximate value will

come in place of the question mark (?) in each of

the following questions?

(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

31. (20.1% of 375.2) + (39.98% of 440.002) = ?

(1) 251 (2) 260

(3) 241 (4) 261

(5) 240

32. ?% of 450.15 ÷ 5.99 + 150.25 = 180

(1) 35 (2) 40

(3) 45 (4) 46

(5) 44

33. 499.998 ÷ 19.992 + 43.001 ×1.992 = ?

(1) 185 (2) 190

(3) 197 (4) 180

(5) 186

34. (174.95 + 350.05) × √ + 125.11 = ?

(1) 2800 (2) 2450

(3) 2650 (4) 2750

(5) 2600

35. 47.94 + 2240.02 ÷ (14.01 × 79.9) = ?

(1) 50 (2) 55

(3) 45 (4) 40

(5) 56

36. The ratio of the heights of two cylinders A and

B is 5 : 4 respectively and the respective ratio of

their volumes is 5 : 36. What is the respective ratio

between their radii?

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2

(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 3

(5) 3 : 2

37. On selling an article for Rs 756, a loss of 68%

is incurred.

To gain 30%, the selling price of the article will be

(1) Rs. 3171.25 (2) Rs. 3071.25

(3) Rs. 3107.25 (4) Rs. 3200

(5) None of these

38. A and B start a business with respective in-

vestments of Rs 10000 and Rs. 18000. After 8

months from the start of the business, B quits and C

joins with Rs. 24000. If annual profit be Rs. 38250,

share in the profit?

(1) Rs. 13000 (2) Rs. 11750

(3) Rs. 12750 (4) Rs. 12000

(5) None of these

39. Ali deposited Rs. P in scheme A for 3 years at

the rate of 10% per annum simple interest. He in-

vested the amount received after 3 years in scheme

B for 2 years which offered compound interest at

the rate of 10% per annum. If the interest earned

from scheme B was Rs. 819, what is the value of P?

(1) Rs. 2880 (2) Rs. 3000

(3) Rs. 3050 (4) Rs. 3125

(5) None of these

40. In a box there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green

balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is the

probability that it is neither red nor green?

(1) 1/3 (2) 3/4

(3) 7/19 (4) 8/21

(5) 9/21

Directions (41 45) : What will come in place of

the question mark (?) in the following number se-

ries?

41. 5 3 4 7.5 17 45 ?

(1) 138 (2) 135

(3) 140 (4) 142

(5) 136

42. 9 16 25 38 57 ?

(1) 81 (2) 84

(3) 82 (4) 83

(5) 86

43. 8 5 6 10 21 ?

(1) 51.5 (2) 52.25

(3) 53.5 (4) 54.5

(5) 53.25

44. 8 ? 116 152 176 188

(1) 45 (2) 68

(3) 60 (4) 48

(5) 50

45. 25 26 30 39 55 ?

(1) 80 (2) 75

(3) 85 (4) 90

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(5) None of these

Directions (46 50) : Study the following table

carefully and answer the questions given below it

Company Total num-

ber.

of employ-

ees

Marketing.

Department

H.R.

Department

Males Females Males Females

A 200 15 13 5 8

B 550 24 12 4 6

C 600 18 20 3 5

D 400 22 19 2 4

46. What is the apporximate average number of

female employees in H.R. department taking all

companies together?

(1) 24 (2) 17

(3) 18 (4) 19

(5) 20

47. What is the approximate average number of

male employees in the Marketing department tak-

ing all companies together?

(1) 88 (2) 90

(3) 91 (4) 92

(5) 87

48. What is the difference between the number of

male employees in Marketing department of com-

panies A and B together and that of female employ-

ees in H.R. department of companies C and D to-

gether?

(1) 114 (2) 115

(3) 116 (4) 118

(5) 120

49. By what per cent approximately is the number

of male employees in marketing department of

company C less than that of male employees in the

same department of company B?

(1) 19% (2) 20%

(3) 16% (4) 18%

(5) 21%

50. What is the respective ratio between the number

of female employees in the marketing department

of company A and company D?

(1) 13 : 38 (2) 13 : 21

(3) 19 : 27 (4) 27 : 19

(5) 2 : 3

Directions (51 55) : Two equations I and II are

given in each question. You have to solve these

equations. On the basis of these equations, you

have to decide the relation between x and y and

give answer

51. I. 4x2 + 7x + 3 = 0

II. 2y2 + 5y + 3 = 0

52. I. 2x2 9x + 10 = 0

II. 9y2 27y + 20 = 0

53. I. 3x2 7x + 2 = 0

II. 6y2 19y + 13 = 0

54. I. 5x2 + 18x + 9 = 0

II. 15y2 + 11y + 2 = 0

55. I. 6x2 5x + 1 = 0

II. 10y2 13y + 4 = 0

Directions (56 60) : Study the following table

carefully and answer the given questions.

Members in two gymnasiums A and B during 5

years Gymnasium A Gymnasium B

Total M : F Total M : F

2010 120 7 : 5 180 11 : 7

2011 140 9 : 5 200 3 : 2

2012 220 6 : 5 230 14 : 9

2013 190 9 : 10 360 5 : 4

2014 170 9 : 8 260 7 : 6

56. What is the respective ratio between the number

of male members in gymnasium A in the year 2010

and that of female members in gymnasium B in the

year 2014?

(1) 7 : 12 (2) 3 : 7

(3) 7 : 3 (4) 5 : 9

(5) 9 : 5

57. What is the average number of female members

in gymnasium B taking all the years together?

(1) 105 (2) 104

(3) 106 (4) 107

(5) 108

58. What is the average number of male members

in gymnasium A taking all the years together?

(1) 91 (2) 90

(3) 92 (4) 93

(5) 94

59. By what per cent is the number of male mem-

bers in gymnasium A in 2012 more than that of

female members?

(1) 20% (2) 21%

(3) 22% (4) 18%

(5) 19%

60. What is the difference between the total number

of members in gymnasium A and B taking all the

years together?

(1) 360 (2) 390

(3) 385 (4) 380

(5) 395

61. At peresent Anu is six years younger than

Charu and Charu is 10 years younger than Bilal.

Six years hence, the respective ratio between Bi-

2.

present age.

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115

(1) 32 years (2) 30 years (3) 34 years (4) 26 years

(5) 22 years

62. Two trains, one from Howrah to Patna and the

other from Patna to Howrah start simultaneously.

After they meet, the trains reach their destinations

after 9 hours and 16 hours respectively. The ratio of

their speeds is

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 4 : 3

(3) 6 : 7 (4) 9 : 16

(5) None of these

63. 10 men and 15 women together can complete a

work in 6 days. It takes 100 days for one man alone

to complete the same work. How many days will be

required for one woman alone to complete the same

work?

(1) 90 (2) 125

(3) 145 (4) 150

(5) 225

64. Salaries of Ravi and Sumit are in the ratio 2 : 3.

If the salary of each is increased by Rs 4000, the

new ratio becomes 40 : 57. What is

salary?

(1) Rs. 17000 (2) Rs. 20000

(3) Rs. 25500 (4) Rs. 38000

(5) None of these

65. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels, how many

words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be

formed?

(1) 210 (2) 1050

(3) 25200 (4) 21400

(5) None of these

Reasoning Ability Directions (66 71) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Seven persons, viz, J, K, L, M, N, O and P attend

wedding ceremony in seven different months of the

same year, viz., February, March, May, June, Au-

gust, November and December, but not necessarily

in the same order. Each one of them also likes dif-

ferent fruits viz., Apple, Mango, Banana, Strawber-

ry, Cherry, Grapes and Orange, but not necessarily

in the same order.

J attends a wedding ceremony in a month which has

only 30 days. Only two persons attend wedding

ceremonies between J and the one who likes Man-

go. The person who likes Mango does attend a

wedding ceremony in a month which has 31 days.

K attends a wedding ceremony immediately before

the one who likes Mango. Only three persons attend

wedding ceremonies between K and the one who

likes Cherry. P attends a wedding ceremony before

K. P does not attend a wedding ceremony in the

month which has more than 30 days. Only two per-

sons attend wedding ceremonies between P and the

one who likes Banana. O attends a wedding cere-

mony immediately after the one who likes Banana.

N attends a wedding ceremony immediately before

M. Only one person attends a wedding ceremony

between M and the one who likes Apple. The one

who likes Apple attends a wedding ceremony be-

tween the persons who likes Apple an Strawberry

respectively. The one who likes Grapes attends a

wedding ceremony in any month before the one

who likes Strawberry.

66. Who among the following likes Strawberry?

(1) N (2) K

(3) O (4) J

(5) M

67. Who among the following attends a wedding

ceremony immediately before the one who attended

a wedding ceremony in the month of June?

(1)M (2) P

(3) O (4) L

(5) K

68. In the given arrangement Apple is related to

March and Banana is related to August following a

certain pattern, with which of the following is Cher-

ry related to following the same pattern?

(1) February (2) June

(3) November (4) May

(5) December

69. Which of the following combinations is correct

as per the given arrangement?

(1) N Grapes (2) June Banana

(3) O Cherry (4) November Apple

(5) December K

70. How many persons attended wedding ceremo-

nies between N and the one who attended a wed-

ding ceremony in the month of November?

(1) More than three

(2) None

(3) One (4) Two

(5) Three

71. In which of the following pairs, both the per-

sons attended wedding ceremonies in the months

each of the which has less than 31 days?

(1) P and M (2) J and L

(3) P and K (4) L and O

(5) K and N

Directions (72 77) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight friends viz., G, H, I, J, W, X, Y and Z are

sitting in a straight line, but not necessarily in the

same order. Some of them are facing North while

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116

some others are facing South. J sits third to the right

of W.

W sits at any extreme and of the line. Both the im-

mediate neighbours of J face North. Only one per-

son sits between J and H. H is not an immediate

neighbour of W. I sits second to the left of Y. Y is

not an immediate neighbour of J. Both the immedi-

ate neighbours of Y face South. G does not sit at

any extreme end of the line. G is not an immediate

neighbour of J. More than one person are sitting

between I and X. The immediate neighbours of Z

face a direction opposite to Z (i.e., if Z faces North,

the immediate neighbours of Z face South and

vice versa)

The immediate neighbours of Y face the same di-

rection as that of Y (i.e., if Y faces North, both the

immediate neighbours of Y also face North and

vice versa).

72. Who amongst the following sits third to the

right of I?

(1)W (2) X

(3) H (4) G

(5) Z

73. How many persons sit between G and H?

(1) Three (2) More than three

(3) None (4) One

(5) Two

74. Which of the following statements is true based

on the given arrangement?

(1) Only three persons face North.

(2) H and J face opposite directions

(3) X sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.

(4) Z faces South

(5) None of the given statements is true

75. Who amongst the following are immediate

neighbours of H?

(1) X and Y (2) I and Z

(3) Y and Z (4) Other than those giv-

en as options

(5) Y and I

76. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way based on the given arrangement and hence

they form a group.

Which one of the following does not belong to that

group?

(1) Y, J (2) H, G

(3) X, I (4)W, J

(5) I, G

77. In the given arrangement X is related to H and

Z is related to I following a certain pattern, with

which of the following W is related to, following

the same pattern?

(1) H (2) J

(3) Y (4) Z

(5) G

Directions (78 83) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F borrowed different

number of books from their libraries. D borrowed

more number of books than both C and F. D bor-

rowed less number of books than A. A did not bor-

rowed the highest number of books. C borrowed

neither the lowest nor the second lowest number of

books. B borrowed neither the lowest nor the high-

est number of books. The one who borrowed the

second highest number of books, borrowed 34

books. The one who borrowed second lowest num-

ber of books borrowed 19 books.

78. Who amongst the following did borrow the

highest number of books?

(1) D (2) E

(3) C (4) F

(5) None of these

79. What number of books did F possibly borrow?

(1) 36 (2) 27

(3) 23 (4) 21

(5) 14

80. Who amongst the following did borrow more

number of books than B but less number of books

than D?

(1) C (2) F

(3) A (4) E

(5) None of these

81. What number of books did A definitely borrow?

(1) 36 (2) 28

(3) 34 (4) 30

(5) 21

82. Who amongst the following did borrow more

number of books than only F?

(1) E (2) F

(3) C (4) B

(5) None of these

83. If C borrowed 26 books then D might have bor-

rowed what number of books?

(1) 38 (2) 24

(3) 30 (4) 22

(5) 36

84. N is the sister of T. T is the only son of Y. Y is

the mother of K. J is the daughter of K. J is the sis-

ter of M. D is married to K. If X is the wife of M,

how D is related to X?

(1) Father (2) Father in law

(3)Mother (4) Mother in law

(5) Cannot be determined

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117

85. Ravi starts walking from point D and walks 20

metres towards north. He takes a left turn and walks

15 metres.

Then he takes a right turn and stops at point B after

walking 5 metres.

Mohit is standing at point Z which is 30 metres to

the east of point B. He walks 25 metres towards

south. He takes a left turn and stops at point X after

walking 10 metres.

How far and in which direction is point X from

point D?

(1) 25 metres West

(2) 25 metres South

(3) 25 metres East

(4) 30 metres East

(5) 20 metres West

Directions (86 90) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Seven boxes M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are kept

one above the other and are of seven different col-

ours viz., Yellow, Brown, Pink, Green, Silver, Or-

ange and White, but not necessarily in the same

order.

Only three boxes are kept between M and S. The

orange box is kept immediately below the box M.

Only two boxes are kept between orange box and

pink box. More than three boxes are kept above the

pink box. Box Q is kept immediately below the

pink box. Only one box is kept between R and Q.

Box R is not of orange colour. Box N is kept below

Box R but not immediately below R. Brown box is

kept immediately above box P. Only two boxes are

kept between brown box and silver box. Yellow

box is kept immediately above the white box.

86. How many boxes are kept between Brown Box

and Box S?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) None (4) More than three

(5) Three

87. Which of the following boxes is kept immedi-

ately below the Box R?

(1) White Box (2) Box S

(3) Yellow Box (4) Green Box

(5) Box P

88. Which of the following boxes is of green col-

our?

(1) Box M (2) Box P

(3) Box R (4) Box O

(5) Box Q

89. What is the position of Box R in the given stack

of boxes?

(1) Fourth from the bottom

(2) Third from the top

(3) Second from the top

(4) Third from the bottom

(5) Fifth from the top

90. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way and hence form a group. Which of the follow-

ing does not belong to the group?

(1) P Silver (2) S White

(3) M Yellow (4) O Pink

(5) R Orange

Directions (91 95) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Seven persons namely, A, B, C, D, E, F and G like

seven different fruits viz., Apple, Banana, Guava,

Orange, Litchi, Mango and Watermelon, but not

necessarily in the same order. Each of them works

in either of the three departments of the same com-

pany viz., Marketing, Production and Research &

Development, with atleast two of them in a depart-

ment. B works in the Research & Development

department with the one who likes Banana. E works

with only one who likes Litchi. E does not like Ba-

nana. F works with only G. F does not work with

the one who likes Litchi. The one who likes Apple

works with the only one who likes Guava. G does

not like Guava. A likes orange. The one who likes

Mango does not work with the one who likes Gua-

va. C does not work with the one who likes Litchi.

D does not work in the Marketing department. The

one who likes Watermelon does not work in the

Production department.

91. Which of the following represents the combina-

tion of that persons who work in the Research &

Development department?

(1) The ones who like Banana, Apple and Guava

(2) The ones who like Litchi, Banana and Water-

melon

(3) The ones who like Banana, Watermelon and

Orange

(4) B and the ones who like Banana and Mango

(5) The ones who like Mango, Banana and Guava

92. Which of the following statements is not true as

per the given arrangement?

(1) D works in the Research & Development de-

partment and he likes Banana

(2) G likes Apple and works in the Marketing de-

partment

(3) Only two persons work in the Production de-

partment

(4) C works in the Research & Development de-

partment while F works in the Marketing depart-

ment

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118

(5) A works with the ones who like Watermelon

and Banana.

93. Which of the following combinations represents

the department in which F works and the fruit he

likes?

(1) Production, Guava

(2) Production, Apple

(3) Research & Development, Watermelon

(4) Marketing, Watermelon

(5) Marketing, Guava

94. Four of the following five are alike in certain

way as per the given arrangement and hence form a

group. Which of the following does not belong to

that group?

(1) A, B (2) D, E

(3) F, G (4) C, E

(5) B, C

95. Who amongst the following likes Banana?

(1) F (2) C

(3) G (4) D

(5) None of these

Directions (96 100) : In these questions, relation-

ship between different elements is shown in the

statements. The statements are followed by two

Conclusions numbered I and.

II. Study the Conclusion based on the statements

and select the appropriate answer :

Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Con-

clusion II are true

Give answer (2) if only Conclusion I is true

Give answer (3) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-

clusion II is true

Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true

Give answer (5) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-

sion II is true

96. Statement :

J > V > D < L < C

Conclusions :

I. J > L

II. C > D

97. Statements :

B > E > U < F; L = A < U

Conclusions :

I. L < F

II. B > A

(98 99) : Statement :

> G > O < H = A < V < Q

98.

Conclusions :

I. H < L

II. A > G

99.

Conclusions :

I. O < V

II. G > Q

100. Statements :

R < P = N < S; Y > Q < S

Conclusions :

I. R < S

II. P > Y

Answer Key 1. (5) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (5) 6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9.

(5) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16.

(2) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (2) 21. (3) 22. (1) 23.

(3) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (3) 29. (5) 30.

(3) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (1) 36. (1) 37.

(2) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (1) 41. (1) 42. (2) 43. (3) 44.

(2) 45. (1) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (4) 50. (1) 51.

(3) 52. (1) 53. (5) 54. (2) 55. (4) 56. (1) 57. (2) 58.

(3) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (5) 64. (4) 65.

(3) 66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (4) 69. (2) 70. (5) 71. (3) 72.

(4) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (5) 76. (2) 77. (4) 78. (2) 79.

(5) 80. (1) 81. (3) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. (2) 85. (3) 86.

(5) 87. (2) 88. (4) 89. (1) 90. (3) 91. (3) 92. (1) 93.

(5) 94. (4) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (1) 98. (3) 99. (2) 100.

(2)

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119

Solutions: .

7. (3) Persistent (Adjective) = con-

tinuing for a long time without inter-

ruption; unrelenting. Look at the

sentence : Persistent rain has caused

flood like situation in the streets of

my city.

8. (1) Stand out = to be easily seen;

to be noticeable. Look at the sen-

tence : The lettering stood out well

against the dark background.

9. (5) Distracted (Adjective) = una-

ble to pay attention to something

because you are worried; inattentive.

Look at the sentence : I was distract-

ed a bit by noise.

10. (4) Deteriorate (Verb) = to be-

come worse; decline; degrade. Im-

prove (Verb) = to become better than

before. Look at the sentences : The

discussion quickly deteriorated into

an angry argument. His quality of

life has improved dramatically since

the operation.

16. (2) Actually (Adverb) = used in

speaking to emphasize a fact or a

comment.

17. (1) Argue (Verb) = to give rea-

sons why you think that something is

right/wrong.

22. (1) Paradox = a situation or

thing that has two opposite features

and therefore seems strange.

25. (1) Meaning = the real im-

portance of a feeling or experience.

26. (1) Here, ...... are of ten accused

of ..... should be used. Clearly, pas-

sive voice should be used.

27. (1) Here, an Adverb i.e., The

economy of a country is literally ....

should be used. Literally = in a lit-

eral way; exactly. Look at the sen-

tence :

28.

i.e., thief to catch him at the speed of

100m/minute in the first ..... should

be used.

30. (3) Here Adjective i.e., economic

be used.

An adjective is used to qualify

a noun.

31. (1)?

82. (2)

33. (3)?

34. (4)?

35. (1)?

36. (1) Cylinder A Cylinder units units

cubic cubic

units units

37. (2) C.P. of article (let).

. 2362.5

For a gain of 30%, S.P.

. 3071.25

38. (3) Ratio of the equivalent cap‐ itals and for 1 month

: :

:

Sum of the terms of ratio

(

)

Rs. 12750

39. (2) S.I.

Rate

Rs.

Amount Rs. (

)

C.I.

[(

)

]

[(

) ]

[(

) ]

(

)

. 3000

40. (1) Total number of balls

Total possible outcomes

Selection of 1 ball out of 21

balls

Total favourable outcomes

Selection of a blue ball

Required pobability

41. (1) The pattern is :

5 × 0.5 + 0.5 = 2.5 + 0.5 = 3

3 × 1 + 1 = 3 + 1 = 4

4 × 1.5 + 1.5 = 6 + 1.5 = 7.5

7.5 × 2 + 2 = 15 + 2 = 17

17 × 2.5 + 2.5 = 42.5 + 2.5

= 45

45 × 3 + 3 = 135 + 3 = 138

42. (2) The pattern is :

9 + 7 = 16

16 + 9 (= 7 + 2) = 25

25 + 13 (=9 + 4) = 38

38 + 19 (=13 + 6) = 57

57 + 27 (= 19 + 8) = 84

43. (3) The pattern is :

8 × 0.5 + 1 = 4 + 1 = 5

5 × 1 + 1 = 5 + 1 = 6

6 × 1.5 + 1 = 9 + 1 = 10

10 × 2 + 1 = 20 + 1 = 21

21 × 2.5 + 1 = 52.5 + 1

= 53 5 .

44. (2) The pattern is :

188 12 = 176

176 24 = 152

152 36 = 116

116 48 = 68

68 60 = 8

45. (1) The pattern is :

25 + 12 = 25 + 1 = 26

26 + 22 = 26 + 4 = 30

30 + 32 = 30 + 9 = 39

39 + 42 = 39 + 16 = 55

55 + 52 = 55 + 25 = 80

46. (1) Female employees in H.R

department :

Company

Company

Company

Company

Required average

47. (2) Male employees in mar keting department :

Company

Company

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120

Company

Company

Required average

48. (3) Required difference

49. (4) Required per cent

50. (1) Females in marketing de partment :

Company

Company

Required ratio : 76

51. (3)

I.

or

II.

or,

Clearly

52. (1)

I.

or 2

II.

or

Clearly

53. (5)

I.

or 2

II.

or

54. (2)

I.

or

II.

Clearly;

55. (4)

I.

or

II.

or

Clearly;

56. (1) Required ratio

: : 12

57. (2) Number of female mem‐ bers in gymnasium :

Year

Year

Year

Year

Year

Required average

58. (3) Number of male members

in gymnasium :

Year

Year

Year

Year

Year

Required average

59. (1) Required per cent

60. (2) Required difference

61.

years

years

years

According to the question, After 6

years

years

62. (2) Ratio of

speed √

63.

women)

work

Required time days

64. (4) Let the original salaries of

Ravi and Sumit be Rs. and

Rs. respectively

11& 228000

. 38000

65. (3) Number of ways of select‐ ing 3 consonants out of 7 and

2 vowels out of

Each group has 5 letters.

Required number of words

66. 71.

Month Person Fruit

February P Apple

March N Cherry

May M Grapes

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121

June J Banana

August O Strawberry

November K Orange

December L Mango

86. 90.

Box Colour

Box M Brown

Box P Orange

Box O Green

Box R Silver

Box S Pink

Box Q Yellow

Box N White

91. 95.

Person Fruit Department

A Orange Research &

Development

B Water-

melon

Research &

Development

C Banana Research &

Development

D Litchi Production

E Mango Production

F Guava Marketing

G Apple Marketing

96. (4) J > V > D < L < C Conclu-

sions : I. J > L : Not True II. C > D :

True

97. (1) B > E > U < F; L = A < U L

= A < U < F B > E > U > A = L

Conclusions : I. L < F : True II. B >

A : True (98 99) : L > G > O < H =

A < V < Q

98. (3) Conclusions : I. H < L : Not

True II. A > G : Not True

99. (2) Conclusions : I. O < V : True

II. G > Q : Not True

100. (2) R < P = N < S; Y > Q < S R

< P = N < S > Q < Y Conclusions :

I. R < S : True II. P > Y : Not True

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122

RBI ASST. Pre 2015 (Sitting-

3) English Language

Directions (1 10) : Read the following stroy care-

fully and answer the questions given below it.

Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to

help you locate them while answering some of the

questions.

On January 19th every year, Americans celebrate

the life and achievements of Dr. Martin Luther

King Jr., (MLK), a Baptist clergyman turned activ-

ist, who is often credited with spearheading the

vil rights movement It is thanks to his

efforts that America is today a nation where every-

one has equal rights, regardless of race, color or

creed. MLK who would have celebrated his 86th

birthday on January 15th, 2015, was born in Atlan-

ta, Georgia, in 1929, a city where racial divide was

a way of life. Blacks and whites lived totally dis-

parate lives. They went to different schools, ate at

different restaurants and even sat on specially des-

ignated seats on buses and trains. Though this did

not seem right to the young boy, just like the others,

he accepted it as a way of life. Things started to

change in the summer of 1944 when 15-year-old

MLK left Atlanta to work in the tobacco fields of

Simsbury, Connecticut. To his surprise, the black

residents in the Northern states were not subjected

to the same kind of racial injustice.

The young boy expressed his astonishment in a

letter he wrote to his father in June saying,

we passed Washington there was no discrimination

at all. The white people here are very nice.

We go to any place we want to and sit any where

end of the summer, the seeds

of what would transform MLK into

influential civil rights leader had been firmly plant-

ed. In 1954, MLK who was by now an ordained

Minister and married chose to become pastor of a

church in Montgomery, Alabama, a city that was

notorious for its racial discrimination. His foray

into activism began gradually - by encouraging

Montgomery residents to register to vote and join

the NAACP, the n largest civil

rights organization.

However, his passive stance changed on December

1st, 1955, after fellow activist Rosa Parks was ar-

rested for refusing to vacate her seat on a public bus

for a white passenger. Enraged, MLK asked the

black residents of Montgomery to boycott all public

transportation.

This was no easy request.

The buses were the only commute mode for the

residents, whose jobs often entailed traveling long

distances.

But they took the challenge not for just one day or

month, but a full year! As the news of the boycott

spread, black people from other parts of the nation

that had similar laws, joined in! In 1956, the activ-

ists won their first battle when the Supreme Court

of the United States passed a ruling that abolished

the transportation segregation law. But MLK was

just getting started. He decided to dedicate his life

to the cause and spent the next decade traveling

around the country, spurring all Americans to

stand up to segregation in a non-violent peaceful

manner by organizing sit-ins, boycotts and protest

marches. While he gave many inspiring speeches,

his most memorable one was delivered on August

28th, 1963. The events leading to the oft-

have a that year

when President John F. Kennedy asked the US

Congress to pass a civil rights bill - one that would

give all Americans equal access to public places.

To convince government officials to pass the bill,

MLK along with other civil rights leaders asked

people to demonstrate their support by staging

a.peaceful march in Washington D.C. Over 250,000

Americans from all over the country flew, drove,

rode buses and even walked, to participate in what

the history books now call the March on Washing-

ton! It was at this event while standing on the steps

of the Lincoln Memorial, that MLK articulated his

dream of living in a country where everyone was

treated equally. Unfortunately, the civil rights activ-

ist was killed while on a trip to Memphis, Tennes-

see in 1968, and did not live long enough to see it

come true.

But had MLK been alive, he sure would have been

proud to see how far the country has come in rec-

ognizing that everyone is equal - regardless of race,

color or creed!

1. Why did he initially accept discrimination as a

way of life?

(1) As he was afraid of the whites.

(2) As his father wanted him to accept that as a

form of life.

(3) So as to save himself from the abuses and the

beatings by the whites.

(4) Because he lacked decision making capabilities

as he was young, (5) As he was ignorant to the

cause of the blacks.

2. What happened when he went to Simsbury in the

summer of 1944?

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123

(1) It was the first time he saw specially designated

seats on buses and trains for blacks.

(2) His passive stance changed.

(3) He was stupefied by what he saw there.

(4) He encouraged the residents there to vote.

(5) He gave his famous speech

3. Why MLK was enraged?

(1) Because of specially designated bus seats for

black people in Montgomery

(2) As a fellow activist was apprehended.

(3) Racial injustice in Washington.

(4) Different schools on the basis of race.

(5) He was enraged with how people accepted the

discrimination.

4. What was the first victory won by the activists?

(1) Passing of the civil rights bill.

(2) The voting rights granted to the black people.

(3) Abolishment of transportation segregation law.

(4) Boycotting public transportation by the black

people.

(5) Right to vote.

5.

(1) The arrest of the activist named Rosa Parks.

(2) Kenned congress to pass the

civil rights bill.

(3) Transportation segregation law.

pass the bill.

(5) None of these.

6.

(1) Abolition of public transportation segregation

law.

(2) Right to vote.

(3) Equal access in all public places.

(4) To exonerate Rosa parks from the accusation of

violating civil rights, (5) He wanted a person who is

black to be the next U.S president.

Directions (7 8) : Which of the following words is

nearest in the meaning to the word as given in bold

letters in the passage?

7. ENTAIL

(1) Involve (2) Prohibit

(3) Exclude (4) Feign

(5) Dissuade

8. FORAY

(1) Exodus (2) Retreat

(3) Incursion (4) Disengagement

(5) Detachment

Directions (9 10) : Which one of the following

words is most opposite in meaning to the word giv-

en in bold letters in the passage?

9. ORDAIN

(1) Appoint (2) Consecrate

(3) Sanctify (4) Abrogate

(5) Enact

10. SPURRING

(1) Incentive (2) Stimulant

(3) Inducement (4) Impetus

(5) Deterrent

Directions (11 15) : Rearrange the given seven

sentences/ group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D),

(E), (F) and (G) in a proper sequence so as to form

a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given

questions

(A) One is the adverse global environment

(B) But the second can be tackled and should have

been tackled by now. Unfortunately, precious time

has been lost for want of clarity on the way forward

(C) It will be up to the incoming RBI governor,

therefore, to show the way. The bulk of the bad

loans is with public sector banks (PSBs)

(D) As bad loans mounted and banks had to make

provisions for these, profits fell at PSBs or losses

mounted. PSB performance suffered in comparison

with private banks

(E) The other is a banking sector weighed down by

bad loans. There can do about the

first

(F) The Reserve Bank of India

(RBI) is better placed than anybody else to feel the

pulse of the banking sector

to accelerate

growth and realise the promise of achche din face

two formidable obstacles today.

11. Which of the following should be the SECOND

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B

(3) F (4) D

(5) E

12. Which of the following should be the FIRST

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A (2) C

(3) B (4) G

(5) E

13. Which of the following should be the FIFTH

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) E (2) D

(3) B (4) F

(5) A

14. Which of the following should be the

FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) F

(5) E

15. Which of the following should be the SIXTH

sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) C (2) D

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124

(3) A (4) B

(5) E

Directions (16 20) : The Following questions have

two blanks, each blank indicating that something

has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each

blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a

whole.

16. Though the country has, ____ free medical ser-

vice for the poor, it is_____.

(1) stopped; unaffordable

(2) rendered; essential

(3) maintained; admirable

(4) favoured; appreciable

(5) instituted; inadequate

17. If India is ____ on protecting its resources, in-

ternational business appears equally ___ to safe-

guard its profit, (1) dreaded , fragile, (2) stubborn

weak, (3) bent, determined, (4) approaching, set-

tled, (5) obsessed, prepared.

18. Obesity and uncontrolled diet ____ together to

____ the risk of liver disease in both men and

women.

(1) act, increase, (2) result, aggravate, (3) taken,

arrest, (4) put, heighten, (5) mix, lower.

19. The blame game for the air tragedy is already in

full ____ with the authorities involved making at-

tempts to ____ themselves up.

(1) sway, defend, (2) view, try.

(3) fledged, protect, (4) swing, cover.

(5) roll, hide.

20. Human beings are biological ______ they need

to struggle in order to _____.

(1) things, forward.

(2) souls, back, (3) organisms, survive, (4) features,

undone, (5) creatures, again.

Directions (21 25) : Read each sentence to find

out whether there is any grammatical error in it.

The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.

The number of that part is the answer. If there is no

error, the answer is (5) i.e., No error

(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

21. In India working woman (1)/ lead a life of dual

responsibilities (2)/ if they are married (3)/ and

have a family, (4)/ No error (5)

22. Though, she has aptitude (1)/ in mathematics I

(2)/ her to take it up as a subject of

Degree (3)/ because I know

the labour involved will tell upon her health. (4)/

No error (5)

23. The RBI has proposed to introduce (1)/ polymer

notes after taking into considering (2)/ the cost and

longevity (3)/ associated with their manufacturing.

(4)/ No error

(5)

24. Over the next five years (1)/ the government

needs to invest (2)/ at less 350 billion dollars (3)/ in

rural infrastructure (4)/ No error (5)

25. Money from poor countries (1)/ is flowing into

richer ones (2)/ in large part due to the active pur-

chase (3)/ of foreign assets by central banks, (4)/

No error

(5)

Directions (26-30) : In the following passage,

some of the words have been left out, each of which

is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word

from the options given against each number and fill

up the blanks with appropriate words to make the

paragraph meaningful.

Rural healthcare in India is

(26) by a huge gap between supply and demand.

Currently, rural healthcare needs met either by lim-

ited government facilities and private nursing

homes, which have not been able to keep pace with

increasing demand or by a number of quacks who

practise medicine in rural areas. The quality of in-

frastructure is usually poor and people end up hav-

ing to go to nearby large cities if they need high

quality care. Rural India deserves, better, since the

ability to pay has gone up over the last few years,

driven by growth in income penetration of govern-

ment healthcare programmes. Increasing demand

(27) with the failure of existing infrastructure to

scale, has resulted in rural healthcare (28) a large

under served market. Absence of a viable business

model (29) conversion of the huge rural expendi-

ture on health into an economic activity that gener-

ates income and serves the poor. It is this

(30) that entrepreneurs are looking to plug.

26. (1) performed (2) displayed

(3) furthered (4) characterised

(5) male

27. (1) couple (2) combined

(3) mentioned (4) engaged

(5) resulting

28. (1) become (2) happening

(3) being (4) exists

(5) is

29. (1) to (2) makes

(3) so (4) ceasing

(5) prevents

30. (1) gap (2) truth

(3) progress (4) catastrophes

(5) divides

Quantitative Aptitude Directions (31 35) : There are five companies and

the number of employees working in different

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125

companies is given. In the table the percentage of

male and female employees in HR and Marketing

departments is also given. Study the table carefully

and answer the questions

Company Number

of Em-

ployees

HR Marketing

Male Female Male Female

P 450 12 14 6 6

Q 850 18 10 12 14

R 400 28 14 4 7

S 525 20 8 8 4

T 375 12 20 4 8

31. What is the ratio between the number of female

employees in HR department of companies S and T

together to that of male employees in Marketing

department in companies P and Q together?

(1) 41 : 55 (2) 43 : 39

(3) 55 : 41 (4) 39 : 43

(5) None of these

32. What is the difference between the number of

male employees of marketing department in all

companies together (excluding company T) and

that of the female employees of HR department in

all companies together (excluding companies Q and

T)?

(1) 21 (2) 26

(3) 31 (4) 36

(5) None of these

33. Total number of Marketing employees in com-

panies Q and S together what percent more than the

total number of marketing employees in company

R?

(1) 536.76% (2) 526.67%

(3) 576.76% (4) 546.67%

(5) 545.45%

34. If 40% of the employees of company T in HR

department have graduation degree and 60% of the

employees of the same company in the Marketing

department have graduation degree, then how many

employees have graduation degree in company T in

both departments together?

(1) 75 (2) 108

(3) 106 (4) 92

(5) 66

35. What is the ratio of female employees of com-

panies P and Q together in HR department to the

male employees of companies S and R together in

marketing department?

(1) 41 : 13 (2) 74 : 29

(3) 22 : 59 (4) 29 : 74

(5) None of these

36. A quantity of eight litres is drawn from a cask

full of wine and then cask is filled with water.

This operation is performed three more times. The

ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that

of water is 16 : 65. How much wine did the cask

hold originally?

(1) 18 litres (2) 24 litres

(3) 32 litres (4) 42 litres

(5) None of these

37. A and B can complete a piece of work in 80

days and 120 days respectively. They started work-

ing together but A left after 20 days. After another

12 days C joined B and they completed the remain-

ing work in 28 more days. In how many days can C

alone complete the work?

(1) 110 days (2) 112 days

(3) 114 days (4) 120 days

(5) None of these

38. A man sets out on cycle from Delhi to Farida-

bad, and at the same time another man starts from

Faridabad on cycle for Delhi. After passing each

other. they complete their journeys in

and

hours respectively. At what rate does the second

man cycles if the first man cycles at 14 kmph?

(1) 10 kmph (2) 5 kmph

(3) 7 kmph (4) 8 kmph

(5) None of these

39. What would be the compound interest accrued

on an amount of Rs. 8400 at the rate of 12.5% per

annum compounded annually at the end of 3 years?

(Rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(1) Rs. 4205.62 (2) Rs. 2584.16

(3) Rs. 3560.16 (4) Rs. 3820.14

(5) None of these

40. The average age of all the 100 employees in an

office is 29 years, where 2/5 employees are ladies

and the ratio of average age of men to women is 5 :

7. The average age of female employees is :

(1) 18 years (2) 35 years (3) 25 years (4) 30 years

(5) None of these

Directions (41 45) : Two equations I and II are

given in each question. On the basis of these equa-

tions, you have to decide the relation between x and

y and give answer

(1) if x > y (2) if x < y

(3) if x > y (4) if x < y

(5) if x = y, or no relation can be established be-

tween x and y.

41. I. 5x2 87x + 378 = 0

II. 3y2 49y + 200 = 0

42. I. 10x2 x 24 = 0

II. y2 2y = 0

43. I. x2 5x + 6 = 0

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126

II. 2y2 15y + 27 = 0

44. I. 3x + 2y = 301

II. 7x 5y = 74

45. I. 14x2 37x + 24 = 0

II. 28y2 53y + 24 = 0

Directions (46 50) : In the following bar chart, the

number of total members enrolled in different years

from 1990 to 1994 in two gymnasiums A and B is

given. Study the bar chart and solve the following

questions based on this bar chart

46. The total number of members enrolled in gym-

nasium B from 1991 to 1994 is approximately

what percent more than the total number of mem-

bers enrolled in gymnasium A in 1993 and 1994

together is?

(1) 175% (2) 180%

(3) 170% (4) 75%

(5) 185%

47. If from the year 1989 to 1990, there was 30%

increase in total number of members enrolled in

both gymnasiums, then find the total number of

members enrolled in 1989.

(1) 282 (2) 296

(3) 292 (4) 286

(5) 319

48. The respective ratio between total members in

both gymnasiums in 1992 to total members in both

gymnasium in 1993 is :

(1) 11 : 16 (2) 21 : 11

(3) 11 : 21 (4) 25 : 13

(5) 27 : 22

49. The number of members of gymnasium A in

1993 is what percent of the number of members of

gymnasium B in 1990?

(1) 60.98% (2) 55.75%

(3) 95.55% (4) 93.85%

(5) None of these

50. Total members enrolled in gymnasium A in the

years 1991, 1992 and 1994 together is what percent

less than the members enrolled in gymnasium B in

the years 1990 and 1993 together?

(1) 30% (2) 35%

(3) 32.5% (4) 31.5%

(5) 38.77%

Directions (51 55) : What will come in place of

the question mark (?) in each of the following num-

ber series?

51. 17 52 158 477 ? 4310

(1) 1433 (2) 1432

(3) 1435 (4) 1434

(5) None of these

52. 3 22 ? 673 2696 8093

(1) 133 (2) 155

(3) 156 (4) 134

(5) None of these

53. 6 7 15 42 106 231 ?

(1) 440 (2) 441

(3) 447 (4) 461

(5) None of these

54. 286 142 ? 34 16 7

(1) 66 (2) 72

(3) 64 (4) 74

(5) None of these

55. 17 9 ? 16.5 35 90

(1) 5 (2) 15

(3) 10 (4) 20

(5) None of these

56. A man sells two articles at Rs 12 each. He gains

20% on one and loses 20% on the other.

In the whole transaction, there is

(1) Neither loss nor gain

(2) Profit of Re. 1

(3) Loss of Re. 1 (4) Profit of Rs. 2

(5) None of these

57. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for

every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every

wrong answer. A student attempted all the 200

questions and scored in all 200 marks. The number

of questions, he answered correctly was :

(1) 82 (2) 80

(3) 68 (4) 60

(5) None of these

58. A copper wire is bent in the form of an equilat-

eral triangle and has area 121 √ cm2. If the same

wire is bent into the form of a circle, the area (in

cm2) enclosed by the wire is (take = 22/7 )

(1) 364.5 (2) 693.5

(3) 346.5 (4) 639.5

(5) None of these

59. What will be the ratio of petrol and kerosene in

the final solution formed by mixing petrol and ker-

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127

osene that are present in three identical vessels in

the ratio 4 : 1, 5 : 2 and 6 : 1 respectively?

60. Mrs. Sharma invests 15% of her monthly salary,

i.e., Rs 4428 in Mutual Funds. Later she invests

18% of her monthly salary on Pension Policies and

she also invests another 9% of her salary on Insur-

ance Policies. What is the total monthly amount

invsested by Mrs. Sharma?

(1) Rs. 113356.8 (2) Rs. 12398.4

(3) Rs. 56678.4 (4)

(5) None of these

Directions (61 65) : What approximate value

should come in place of question mark (?) in the

following questions? (You are not expected to cal-

culate the exact value).

61. 23.999 × 9.904 × 16.997 = ?

(1) 3200 (2) 4100

(3) 2700 (4) 3700

(5) 4500

62.

= ?

(1) 490 (2) 590

(3) 540 (4) 460

(5) 520

63. 5940 ÷ 28 ÷ 6 = ?

(1) 40 (2) 35

(3) 46 (4) 52

(5) 27

64. 15.5% of 850 + 24.8% of 650 = ?

(1) 295 (2) 330

(3) 270 (4) 375

(5) 220

65. 3 √ = ?

(1) 45 (2) 59

(3) 41 (4) 37

(5) 47

Reasoning Ability Directions (66 68) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Seven persons A, B, C, D, K, L and N are seat-

ed in ascending order of their salaries. N earns

more than L and D. N earns more than A but he

does not earn the highest. A earns more than L. The

person who earns the second highest receives a

salary of Rs. 35,000 while the third lowest earner

receives Rs. 23,000. K earns less than L but more

than D. C earns Rs 18,000. D is not the lowest

earner.

66. Who among the following earn(s) more than

Rs. 23,000 but less than Rs. 35,000?

(1) Only A (2) Only L

(3) A and L (4) K and L

(5) A and N

67. Who among the following may earn Rs.

21,000?

(1) K (2) D

(3) L (4) C

(5) N

68. Who among the following earns Rs. 35,000?

(1) A (2) L

(3) B (4) K

(5) N

Directions (69 74) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Seven representatives of a company P, Q, R, S, T,

U and V travelled to three different countries i.e.

South Africa, Australia and France. Each of them

travelled on different days of the week (no two per-

sons travelled on the same day), starting on Mon-

day and ending on Sunday. Minimum two persons

travelled to each country and South Africa is the

only country to which three persons travelled. P

travelled to South Africa on Monday. U travelled to

Australia but neither on Tuesday nor on Saturday.

V travelled on Sunday but not to France. The one

who travelled to Australia travelled on Tuesday and

the one who travelled to France travelled on Satur-

day. T travelled on Wednesday. R travelled to

South Africa but not on Thursday. Q did not travel

to France.

69. by one day, who

will be travelling on Wednesday?

(1) U (2) R

(3) Q (4) T

(5) None of these

70. Who amongst the seven representatives trav-

elled on Saturday?

(1) S (2) Q

(3) R (4) Cannot be deter-

mined

(5) None of these

71. Which one of the following combinations is

true according to the given information?

(1) U Thursday South Africa

(2) S Wednesday France

(3) V Monday South Africa

(4) R Friday Australia

(5) None of these

72. To which country and on which day did Q trav-

el?

(1) South Africa, Wednesday

(2) Australia, Friday

(3) Australia, Thursday

(4) Australia, Tuesday

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128

(5) None of these

73. Who was the last one to travel?

(1) P (2) R

(3) V (4) S

(5) None of these

74. Who amongst the following representative trav-

el to South Africa?

(1) Q (2) V

(3) S (4) U

(5) None of these

Directions (75 80) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Eight persons H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O are

standing in a straight line at equidistant. Some of

them are facing north while others are facing south.

M is standing third to the right to H. M is standing

at one of the extreme ends. L is standing third to the

left of H. The immediate neighbours of J face north.

N is not an immediate neighbour of H. The persons

standing at the extreme ends face the same direc-

tion (both are facing either North or South). The

immediate neighbours of H face just opposite direc-

tion as that of M. The immediate neighbours of O

face opposite direction with respect to each other. K

is one of the immediate neighbours of L and is fac-

ing north. I is standing between J and M. Not more

than four persons are facing north. L is to the im-

mediate right of K.

75. Who among the following is third to the left of

N?

(1) K (2) J

(3) H (4) I

(5) O

76. The immediate neighbours of L are :

(1) M and N (2) N and O

(3) K and N (4) N and H

(5) J and H

77. How many persons are standing exactly be-

tween I and O?

(1) Three (2) Four

(3) One (4) Two

(5) None

78. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way based on the above arrangement and hence

form a group.

Which of the following does not belong to that

group?

(1) N (2) L

(3) O (4) J

(5) K

79. Who among the following is exactly between L

and J?

(1) O (2) N

(3) H (4) I

(5) None

80. Who among the following is fourth to the right

of J?

(1) N (2) I

(3) H (4) L

(5) K

Directions (81 85) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Seven persons, namely L, M, N, O, P, Q and R will

appear for a different exam but not necessarily in

the same order, in seven different months (of the

same year) namely January, February, April, May,

July, September and December.

Each of them also likes a different genre of TV

shows namely Family, Action, Comedy, Reality,

Animated, History and Thriller but not necessarily

in the same order. O will appear for an exam in a

month which has only 30 days.

Only one person will appear between the one who

likes Animated Shows and O. The one who likes

Action will appear for an exam immediately before

the one who likes Animated Shows. The one who

likes Thriller will appear for an exam neither in the

month which has 31 days nor in the month which

has 30 days. Only two persons will appear for an

exam between the one who likes Thriller and Q. M

will appear for an exam immediately after Q and

does not likes Action Shows. R will appear for an

exam immediately before N. P likes History Shows

and appear for an exam in December.

The one who likes Family Shows will appear for an

exam in a month which has 31 days. O does not

like Comedy Shows.

81. Which of the following genres of TV shows

does O like?

(1) History (2) Thriller

(3) Family (4) Action

(5) Reality

82. How many persons will appear for an exam

between the months on which N and L will appear

for an exam?

(1) One (2) None

(3) Three (4) Two

(5) More than three

83. As per the given arrangement, January is related

to Reality Shows and February is related to Action

Shows following a certain pattern, with which of

the following is July related to following the same

pattern?

(1) Family Shows (2) Thriller Shows

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129

(3) Comedy Shows (4) History Shows

(5) Animated Shows

84. Which of the following represents the month in

which L will appear for an exam?

(1) December (2) May

(3) July (4) September

(5) Cannot be determined

85. Which of the following represents the persons

who will appear for an exam in January and De-

cember respectively?

(1) N, P (2) N, M

(3) R, P (4) R, M

(5) M, P

Directions (86 90) : In these questions, relation-

ships between different elements is shown in the

statements. These statements are followed by two

conclusions numbered I and II.

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows.

Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II follows.

Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclu-

sion II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Con-

clusion II follows.

Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II fol-

low.

86. Statements :

G < F = L < J; J < K = H

Conclusions : I. H = G

II. G < H

87. Statement :

P < R < S < T > U

Conclusions : I. U < R

II. T > P

88. Statements :

T > U > V > W; X < Y = W >Z

Conclusions : I. Z < U

II. W< T

89. Statements :

K < L < M < N; M < O < P

Conclusions : I. P > K

II. N > O

90. Statements :

B < A < C; A > D < E

Conclusions : I. B < E

II. C > E

Directions (91 95) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are seven different bowls

of different fruits i.e. Apple, Banana, Orange, Li-

tchi, Pineapple, Grapes and Cherry but not neces-

sarily in the same order. Bowl which is of Apple

fruit is immediately above T. There are only two

bowls between W and the bowl which is of Apple

fruit. Bowl which is of Orange fruit is above W but

not immediately above W. Only three bowls are

between V and the bowl which is of Orange fruit.

The bowl which is of Cherry fruit is immediately

above V. The bowl which is of Litchi fruit is im-

mediately above the bowl Z. Only one bowl is there

between U and X. Bowl U is above X. Neither

bowl U nor T is of Pineapple fruit. T is not of Ba-

nana fruit.

91. How many bowls is/are there between W and

Z?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

(5) None

92. W

(1) Cherry (2) Apple

(3) Litchi (4) Orange

93. Find the pair of fruit and bowls which is not

correct?

(1) U Litchi (2) Y Orange

(3) T Grapes (4) Z Apple

(5) None of these

94. Which of the following condition is correct

regarding Pineapple fruit with respect to X?

(1) There is one bowl between X and Pineapple

fruit

(2) X is immediately above of Pineapple fruit

(3) Pineapple fruit is related to the bowl immediate-

ly above X

(4) All of the above is true

(5) None of the above is true

95. Which of the following fruit

(1) Apple (2) Litchi

(3) Pineapple (4) Banana

(5) None of these

Directions (96 98) : Study the following infor-

mation and answer the questions given below :

Q is the sister of M. P is wife of M. P has only one

son R. S is mother of P. S is married to T. T has

only one son and only one daughter

96. If P is sister of J, how is J related to M?

(1) Sister in law (2) Cannot be deter-

mined

(3) Brother (4) Brother in law

(5) Uncle

97. As per the given information, how is M related

to S?

(1) Son (2) Son in law

(3) Niece (4) Nephew

(5) Daughter in law

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130

98. As per the given information, how is R related

to Q?

(1) Nephew (2) Cannot be deter-

mined

(3) Uncle (4) Niece

(5) Aunt

Directions (99 100) : Study the following infor-

mation carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Ashish starts running from point P and runs 10 km

towards North. He takes a right turn and runs 15

km. He now runs 6 km.

after taking a left turn. He takes a left turn, runs 15

km. Finally he takes right turn and runs 5 km.

99. respect to point P?

(1) 16 km. (2) 25 km.

(3) 4 km. (4) 21 km.

(5) None of these

100. Towards which direction was the Ashish run-

ning before he

(1) North (2) East

(3) South (4)West

(5) North West

Answer Key 1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9.

(4) 10. (5) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (1) 16.

(5) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (3) 21. (1) 22. (2) 23.

(2) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30.

(1) 31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (5) 34. (1) 35. (2) 36. (2) 37.

(2) 38. (1) 39. (3) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42. (5) 43. (4) 44.

(2) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (5) 48. (1) 49. (3) 50. (5) 51.

(3) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (5) 55. (3) 56. (3) 57. (2) 58.

(3) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (2) 62. (3) 63. (2) 64. (1) 65.

(1) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (5) 69. (3) 70. (1) 71. (5) 72.

(4) 73. (3) 74. (2) 75. (2) 76. (3) 77. (4) 78. (5) 79.

(1) 80. (4) 81. (5) 82. (1) 83. (4) 84. (2) 85. (3) 86.

(3) 87. (2) 88. (5) 89. (1) 90. (4) 91. (2) 92. (4) 93.

(1) 94. (3) 95. (5) 96. (4) 97. (2) 98. (1) 99. (4) 100.

(1)

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131

Solutions: 7. (1) Entail (Verb) = to involve

something that cannot be avoided;

involve. Look at the sentence: The

job entails a lot of hard work.

8. (3) Foray (Noun) = an attempt to

become involved in a different activ-

ity or profession.

9. (4) Ordain (Verb) = to make

somebody a priest, minister or

RABBI. Abrogate (Verb) = repeal;

to of ficially end an agreement. Look

at the sentence: He was ordained

(as) a priest last year.

10. (5) Spur (Verb) = to encourage

somebody to do something. Deter

(Verb) = to make somebody decide

not to do something.

Look at the sentences : Her difficult

childhood spurred her on to succeed.

The high price of the service could

deter people from seeking advice.

Hence, spurring and deterrent are

antonymous.

16. (5) Institute (Verb) = to introduce

a system, policy or start a process

Inadequate (Adjective) = not enough

not good enough.

17. (3) Bent on doing something =

determined to do something.

18. (1) Act together = perform ; to do

something.

19. (4) In full swing = having

reached a very lively level. Cover up

= to try to stop people from knowing

the truth about a mistake, a crime

etc.

20. (3) Survive (Verb) = to continue

to live or exist.

21. (1) Here, plural subject i.e. In

India working women... should be

used. The sentence shows plural

sense.

22. (2) It is preposition related error.

allow.... should be used. Look at the

sentence : She showed a natural

aptitude for the work.

23. (2) Here, polymer notes after

taking into consideration (Noun)...

should be used. Take something into

consideration = to think about and

include a particular thing when you

are making a decision.

24. (3) Here, at least 350 billion

dollars... should be used. At least =

not less than.

25. (3) Here, in large amount...

should be used.

26. (4) Characterise (Verb) = to give

somebody/something its most no-

ticeable qualities or features.

28.

should be used.

31. (4) Females in HR depart‐ ment :

Company

Company

Males in Marketing department:

Company

Company

Required ratio

:

32. (2) employees in the

Marketing department of

companies and

(

)

Female employees in the HR

department of companies and

(

)

Required difference

33. (5) Total number of employees

in Marketing department :

Company

Company

Their sum

Total number of employees in

Marketing department of

company

Required percent

(

)

545.45%

34. (1) Graduate employees in the

HR department of company

(

)

Graduate employees in Mar‐ keting department of company

(

)

Required answer

S5. (2)Female employees in the

HR department of companies

and

Male employees in Marketing

department of companies

and

Required ratio : 58

S6. (2) Initial quantity of wine

litres

Remaining quantity of wine

Initial quantity

(

)

(

)

(

)

(

) (

)

litres

S7. (2) Work done by A and in

20 days (

)

(

)

Work done by in 12 days

Remaining work

Let alone do the work in

days.

days

speed

38 (1) speed

kmph

39. (3) C.I. [(

)

]

[(

) ]

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132

(1.125)3

. 3560.16

40. (2) Female employees

= 100 × 2/5

= 40

Male employees = 60

According to the question, 40 × 7x +

60 × 5x

= 29 × 100

14x + 15x = 29 × 5

29x = 29 × 5

x = 5

Average age of female

employees = 7x = 7 × 5

= 35 years

41. (1)

I. 5x2 87x + 378 = 0

5x2 45x 42x + 378 = 0

5x (x 9) 42 (x 9) = 0

(5x 42) (x 9) = 0

x = 42/5 or, 9

II. 3y2 49y + 200 = 0

3y2 24y 25y + 200 = 0

3y (y 8) 25 (y 8) = 0

(3y 25) (y 8) = 0

y = 25/3 or, 8

Clearly, x > y

42. (5)

I. 10x2 x 24 = 0

10x2 + 15x 16x 24 = 0

5x (2x + 3) 8 (2x + 3) = 0

(5x 8) (2x + 3) = 0

x = 8/5 or, 3/2

II. y2 2y = 0

y (y 2) = 0

y = 0 or, 2

43. (4)

I. x2 5x + 6 = 0

x2 3x 2x + 6 = 0

x (x 3) 2 (x 3) = 0

(x 2) (x 3) = 0

x = 2 or, 3

II. 2y2 15y + 27 = 0

2y2 9y 6y + 27 = 0

y (2y 9) 3 (2y 9) = 0

(y 3) (2y 9) = 0

y = 3 or, 9/2

Clearly, x < y

44. (2) By equation I

From equation I,

Clearly

45. (3)

I.

,

or

II.

or,

Clearly

46. (2) Members enrolled in gym‐ nasium from 1991 to 1994:

185 265 125

Members enrolled in gymna‐ sium A in the years 1993 and

Required percent

47. (5) Total number of members

enrolled in both gymnasiums

in 1989

(190 225)

48. (1) Required ratio

: (215 265)

: 16

49. (3) Required per cent

50. (5) Members enrolled in gym‐ nasium A taking years 1991, 1992

and 1994 together

Members enrolled in gymna‐ sium taking years 1990 and

1993 together 225 265

Required percent

38.77%

51. (3) The pattern is :

17 × 3 + 1 = 51 + 1 = 52

52 × 3 + 2 = 156 + 2 = 158

158 × 3 + 3 = 474 + 3 = 477

477 × 3 + 4 = 1431 + 4 = 1435

1435 × 3 + 5 = 4305 + 5 = 4310

52. (4) The pattern is :

3 × 7 + 1 = 21 + 1 = 22

22 × 6 + 2 = 132 + 2 = 134

134 × 5 + 3 = 670 + 3 = 673

673 × 4 + 4 = 2692 + 4 = 2696

2696 × 3 + 5 = 8088 + 5 = 8093

53. (3) The pattern is :

6 + 13 = 6 + 1 = 7

7 + 23 = 7 + 8 = 15

15 + 33 = 15 + 27 = 42

42 + 43 = 42 + 64 = 106

106 + 53 = 106 + 125 = 231

231 + 63 = 231 + 216 =447

54. (5) The pattern is :

55. (3) The pattern is :

16.5

56. (3) C.P. of first article

. 10

C.P. of second article

Rs. 15

Total C.P.

Loss . 1

57. (2)Number of correct an swers

Number of wrong answers

According to the question,

58. (3) Area of equilateral trian.

(Side)2

√ cm.

Length of wire cm.

Circumference of circle

cm.

cm.

Area of circle

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133

sq. cm.

59. (2) Mixture in each cask

units

In first cask, Petrol

; Kerosene

In second cask, Petrol

; Kero-

sene

In third cask, Petrol

, Kerosene

On adding, Required ratio

(

) (

)

:

(

)

60. (2)

salary Rs. 15% of

. 29520

Total investment

18 9 % of 29520

. 12398.40

61. (2)?

62. (3)?

63. (2)?

64. (1)?

65. (1)? √

69. 74.

Day Repres-

entative

Country

Monday P South Af-

rica

Tuesday Q Australia

Wednesday T France

Thursday U Australia

Friday R South Af-

rica

Saturday S France

Sunday V South Af-

rica

81. 85.

Month Person Favourite TV

Shows

January R Family

Shows

February N Thriller

Shows

April O Reality

Shows

May L Action

Shows

July Q Animated

Shows

September M Comedy

Shows

December P History

Shows

86. (3) G < F = L < J J < K = H G <

F = L < J < K = H Conclusions : I. H

= G : Not True II. G < H : Not True

G is either smaller than or equal to

H. Therefore, either Conclusion I or

Conclusion II is true.

87. (2) P < R < S < T > U Conclu-

sions : I. U < R : Not True II. T > P :

True

88. (5) T > U > V > W X < Y = W >

Z T > U > V > W > Z Conclusions :

I. Z < U : True II. W < T : True

89. (1) K < L < M < N M < O < P K

< L < M < P O > M < N Conclusions

: I. P > K : True II. N > O : Not True

90. (4) B < A < C A > D < E B < A

> D < E C > A > D < E Conclusions

: I. B < E : Not True II. C > E : Not

True

91. 95.

Fruit Bowl

Orange Bowl Y

Banana Bowl U

Pineapple Bowl W

Cherry Bowl X

Litchi Bowl V

Apple Bowl Z

Grapes Bowl T

96. 98. : M is the husband of P. P

is the sister-in-law of Q. R is the son

of M and P. S is the mother-in-law

of M. T is the husband of S. P is the

only daughter of S and T

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135