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Book Title: Marketing Research: An applied Orientation (5th Edition)

Author: Naresh K. Malhotra

Chapter 1

Introduction to Marketing Research

True/False Questions

1. Boeing commissioned Harris Interactive, Inc. to conduct a study to determine the aircraft preferences of fliers. Boeing did this because they understood the importance of continuously monitoring the dynamic marketplace and understanding the needs and priorities of Boeing customers.(True, moderate, page 3)

2. Informative capitalizes on the need for “recent” marketing research by providing clients with data on a weekly basis.(False, difficult, page 5)

3. Toyota conducted a secret market research project code-named Genesis which led to the development of the Scion line of cars.(True, moderate, page 5)

4. The Scion line of cars was advertised through traditional channels such as network television and magazines.(False, moderate, page 6)

5. Quick-Track® is a syndicated market research project conducted quarterly to track key consumer behavioral and attitudinal measures for all major fast food and pizza chains in individual markets.(True, difficult, page 6)

6. Marketing research is the systematic and objective identification, collection, analysis, dissemination, and use of information for the purpose of assisting management in decision making related to the identification and solution of problems (and opportunities) in marketing.

(True, easy, page 7)

7. Marketing research is classified into two areas—problem identification and problem solving research.(True, easy, page 8)

8. Sales analysis research is a type of problem solving research. (False, difficult, page 8)

9. Once a problem or opportunity has been identified, market potential research is undertaken to arrive at a solution.(False, moderate, page 9)

10. Problem identification research provides information about the marketing environment and helps diagnose a problem.(True, moderate, page 9)

11. The findings of problem solving research are used in making decisions that will solve specific marketing problems.(True, moderate, page 9)

12. In the Kellogg’s example given in your text, as a result of problem-solving research, Kellogg’s found out that it was not being creative in introducing new products to meet the needs of the adult market.(False, difficult, page 10)

13. The task of marketing research is to assess the information needs and provide management with relevant, accurate, reliable, cheap, and current information.(False, easy, page 13)

14. Marketing management decisions are complicated by interactions between the uncontrollable marketing variables and the uncontrollable environmental factors.(False, difficult, page 13)

15. Marketing researchers are becoming more involved in decision making, whereas marketing managers are not becoming more involved with research.(False, moderate, page 13)

16. Effective competitive intelligence is a continuous process involving the legal and ethical collection of information, analysis that avoids unwelcome conclusions, and controlled dissemination of actionable intelligence to decision makers.(False, difficult, page 16)

17. It is best to do marketing research even if the resources are not available to conduct a quality project.(False, moderate, page 16)

18. If a firm lacks the resources to implement the findings arising from marketing research, spending the resources to conduct the research may not be warranted.(True, moderate, page 16)

19. Marketing research suppliers can be classified as internal or external.


20. Field service organizations are limited service suppliers that specialize in interviewing or specialize in collecting data through the mail or though personal or telephone interviewing. (True, moderate, page 20)

21. Analytical services include designing and pretesting questionnaires, determining the best means of collecting data, designing sampling plans, and conducting statistical analysis of quantitative data.(False, difficult, page 20)

22. Coding and data entry services are full service companies whose primary service offering is their expertise in converting completed surveys or interviews into a usable database for conducting statistical analysis.(False, moderate, page 20)

23. Branded marketing research products and services are specialized problem identification, data collection and analysis procedures developed to address specific types of marketing research problems. These procedures are patented, given brand names, and marketed like any other branded products.(False, difficult, page 21)

24. Operational supervisor, project manager, research director, analyst, and statistician/data processing specialist are all positions in the marketing research field.(True, moderate, page 22)

25. More information can be obtained from MIS than from ad hoc marketing research projects, but MIS is limited in the amount and nature of information it provides and the way this information can be used by the decision maker.(True, moderate, page 24)

26. DSS differs from MIS in that the DSS is more rigidly structured than the MIS.(False, moderate, page 24)

27. When conducting international research, the environment prevailing in the countries, cultural units, or international markets that are being researched, influences the way the six steps of the marketing research process should be performed.(True, easy, page 26)

28. International marketing research is much simpler to conduct than domestic research.(False, easy, page 26)

29. Companies that base their business on the Web do not have international marketing problems.(False, easy, page 26)

30. International marketing research is expected to grow at a faster rate than domestic research.(True, moderate, page 27)

31. Most marketing research is conducted for clients representing commercial firms.(True, moderate, page 28)

32. Ethical issues arise when the interests of the stakeholders are in conflict and when one or more of the stakeholders are lacking in their responsibilities.(True, easy, page 28)

33. Marketing research has often been described as having three stakeholders.(False, moderate, page 28)

Multiple Choice Questions34. NBC utilized Informative services to obtain feedback from viewers. Which of the

following is true about their relationship?a. It helps the network to learn what viewers are looking for.b. NBC created the show “Will and Grace” as a result of the research results.c. Viewer feedback has been instrumental in composing and modifying scripts and

storylines.d. all of the above(d, moderate, page 5)

35. According to the text, marketing research has become _____.a. globalb. real timec. more integrative with marketing and product developmentd. all of the above(d, difficult, page 7)

36. Marketing Research, as defined by the author, is everything except _____.a. systematicb. politically biasedc. objectived. useful for the purpose of improving decision-making(b, moderate, page 7)

37. The procedures followed at each stage of marketing research are methodologically sound, well documented, and, as much as possible, planned in advance. The previous statement defines the _____ aspect of the definition of marketing research. a. systematicb. accuracyc. identification of informationd. collection of information(a, moderate, page 8)

38. Each phase of the marketing research process is important. If in the first phase of the process the problem is identified, what is done after that but before data is collected? a. Determine the solution to the problem, identify relevant information sources

and evaluate data collection methods b. Determine what information is needed, identify relevant information sources,

and evaluate data collection methodsc. Determine the solution to the problem, determine what information is needed,

and identify relevant information sources.d. Determine what information is needed, evaluate data collection methods, and

analyze the data(b, difficult, page 8)

39. _____ is undertaken to help identify problems that are perhaps not apparent on the surface and yet exist or are likely to arise in the future.a. Problem identification researchb. Segmentation researchc. Problem solving researchd. Marketing information systems(a, moderate, page 8)

40. _____ is a type of problem identification research.a. Distribution researchb. Pricing researchc. Market characteristics researchd. Promotion research(c, difficult, page 8)

41. Which of the issues listed below would be addressed using problem-solving research?a. the need to understand market potentialb. the need to understand current cultural trendsc. the need to understand changes in consumer behaviord. the need to determine where to locate retail outlets(d, difficult, page 9)

42. In the Kellogg’s example given in your text, Kellogg’s performed several tasks to identify their problem. Which of the tasks below was not used by Kellogg’s to identify their problem?a. They spoke to decision makers within the company.b. They developed and tested several new flavors of cereal using mall intercept

interviews with adult customers c. They interviewed industry experts.d. They surveyed customers about their perceptions and preferences for cereals.(b, difficult, pages 9-10)

43. _____ is conceptualized as consisting of six steps which include problem definition, developing an approach to the problem, research design formulation, field work, data preparation and analysis, and report generation and presentation. a. The marketing research processb. Marketing information systemsc. Marketing researchd. A decision support system(a, moderate, page 10)

44. Which of the tasks below might be conducted by the researcher during the “problem definition” and the “development of an approach to the problem” steps of the marketing research process?a. analysis of secondary datab. interviews with industry expertsc. qualitative researchd. all of the above(d, difficult, page 10)

45. Which of the tasks below might be conducted by the researcher during the “problem definition,” the “development of an approach to the problem,” and the “research design formulation” steps of the marketing research process?a. analysis of secondary datab. interviews with industry expertsc. qualitative researchd. all of the above(c, difficult, pages 10-11)

46. The emphasis in marketing is on the identification and satisfaction of _____.a. business needsb. marketing goalsc. market needsd. customer needs(d, easy, page 12)

47. In order to determine customer needs and to implement marketing strategies and programs aimed at satisfying those needs, marketing managers need information about _____.a. customersb. competitorsc. other forces in the marketplaced. all of the above(d, easy, pages 12- 13)

48. Marketing managers need the information provided by marketing research for many reasons. Which of the following is not a reason to need information provided by marketing research?

a. Firms have become national and international in scope.b. Consumers have become more affluent and sophisticated.c. Competition has become more intense.d. All of the above are reasons to need information provided by marketing research.

(d, easy, page 13)

49. Marketing research helps the marketing manager link the _____with the _____and the customer groups.a. marketing variables; environmentb. marketing variables; marketing information systemc. marketing information system; environmentd. none of the above(a, difficult, page 13)

50. _____ may be defined as the process of enhancing marketplace competitiveness through a greater understanding of a firm’s competitors and the competitive environment.a. Market intelligence b. Competitive intelligencec. A marketing information systemd. A decision support system(b, moderate, page 15)

51. Competitive intelligence _____.a. enables senior managers in companies to make informed decisions about

everythingb. consists of integrated systems of hardware, communications networks, and

software c. is a continuous process involving the legal and ethical collection of information d. a and c are both correct(d, difficult, page 16)

52. Which of the following is not a consideration when making the decision to conduct marketing research?a. the consumer’s attitude toward researchb. the costs versus the benefits of researchc. the resources available to conduct the researchd. the resources available to implement the research findings(a, difficult, page 16)

53. Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning big firms?a. Many firms maintain in-house marketing research departments.b. The marketing research department’s place in the organizational structure may

vary considerably.c. Firms with in-house research departments never use external research suppliers.d. Both a and b are correct.(d, moderate, page 17)

54. External research suppliers can be classified as _____ and _____.a. limited-service; partial-service b. full-service; partial-servicec. full-service; limited-serviced. none of the above(c, easy, page 18)

55. Which of the following is not an example of a full-service supplier (Figure 1.5 in text)?a. syndicated servicesb. customized servicesc. Internet servicesd. analytical services(d, moderate, page 18)

56. The Nielsen Television Index is a set of information of known commercial value that is provided to multiple clients on a subscription basis. The Nielsen Index is an example of _____. a. syndicated servicesb. customized servicesc. standardized servicesd. analytical services(a, difficult, page 18)

57. Syndicated services _____.a. specialize in one or a few phases of the marketing research projectb. are research studies conducted for different client firms but in a different wayc. are companies that collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve

information needs shared by a number of clientsd. offer a wide variety of marketing research services customized to suit a client’s

specific needs(c, difficult, page 18)

58. Customized services _____.a. specialize in one or a few phases of the marketing research projectb. are research studies conducted for different client firms but in a different wayc. collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs

shared by a number of clientsd. offer a wide variety of marketing research services tailored to suit a client’s

specific needs(d, moderate, page 20)

59. Limited-service suppliers _____.a. specialize in one or a few phases of the marketing research projectb. are research studies conducted for different client firms but in a different wayc. collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs

shared by a number of clients.d. offer a wide variety of marketing research services tailored to suit a client’s

specific needs (a, easy, page 20)

60. Synovate (www.synovate.com) offers several products under the TeleNation® family. One of their products, TeleNation, is a twice-a-week multi-client telephone study among households selected at random from the U.S. population. Clients are charged based on the number of questions they ask. TeleNation® is a _____.a. field serviceb. branded market research productc. data analysis serviced. analytical service(b, moderate, page 21)

61. When a firm cannot conduct an entire marketing research project in house, it must select an external supplier for one or more phases of the project. One of the things that the firm does not need to consider or do when selecting an external research supplier is _____.a. compile a list of prospective suppliersb. realize that the cheapest bid is not always the best bidc. develop criteria for selecting an outside supplier

d. all of the above must be considered or done(d, easy, page 21)

62. There are many entry level marketing research positions available for persons with BBAs or MBAs. Which one of the following is not an entry-level position?a. operational supervisorb. senior analystc. junior research analystd. research analyst (b, moderate, page 22)

63. A _____ is a formalized set of procedures for generating, analyzing, storing, and distributing pertinent information to marketing decision makers on an ongoing basis.a. marketing information system b. management information systemc. decision support systemd. none of the above(a, moderate, page 24)

64. The definition of a(n) _____ is similar to marketing research, except that a(n) _____ provides information continuously rather than on the basis of ad hoc research studies.a. marketing information system (MIS); MIS b. management information system (MIS); MISc. decision support system (DDS); DSSd. none of the above(a, moderate, page 24)

65. _____ are integrated systems including hardware, communications network, data base, model base, software base, and the _____ user (decision maker) that collect and interpret information for decision making.a. Marketing information systems (MIS); MIS b. Management information systems (MIS); MIS c. Decision support systems (DSS); DSSd. none of the above(c, moderate, page 24)

66. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a decision support system?a. rigidly structured problemsb. “what-if” analysis availablec. easy-to-use interactive moded. all of the above(a, moderate, page 24)

67. Which of the following is true about a decision support system?a. DSS can enhance decision-making effectiveness by using “what if” analysis.b. DSS have been further developed to expert systems that utilize artificial

intelligence procedures to incorporate expert judgment.c. The information provided by a DSS is rigidly structured and cannot be easily

manipulated.d. Both a and b are correct.(d, moderate, page 24)

68. According to the author of the text, international research refers to which of the following types of research? a. foreign researchb. multinational researchc. cross-cultural researchd. all of the above(d, moderate, page 26)

69. Marketing research has often been described as having four stakeholders. These stakeholders have certain responsibilities to each other and to the research project. Which of the following is not one of the stakeholders?a. the marketing researcherb. the respondentc. the publicd. the environment(d, easy, page 28)

70. _____ features statistical programs such a Missing Values, SamplePower, Decision Time and Data Entry.a. SASb. MINITABc. SPSS d. EXCEL(c, moderate, page 29)

Chapter 2Defining the Marketing Research Problem and Developing an Approach


1. Problem definition is the most important step in the marketing research project. (True, easy, page 37)

2. Better communication and more involvement in problem definition are the most frequently mentioned ways of improving the usefulness of research.(True, moderate, page 37)

3. The organizational status of the researcher or the research department may make it easy to reach the key DM in the early stages of the project.(False, difficult, pages 38-39)

4. The problem audit provides a useful framework for interacting with the researcher and identifying the underlying causes of the problem.(False, moderate, page 39)

5. DMs tend to focus on symptoms rather than causes.(True, easy, page 39)

6. “The DM and the researcher must interact continually rather than sporadically” is an explanation of one of the 7 Cs known as continuity.(True, easy, page 40)

7. The purpose of interviewing experts is to help define the marketing research problem rather than to develop a conclusive solution.(True, moderate, page 41)

8. Analysis of available secondary data is a non-essential step in the problem definition process. (False, moderate, page 42)

9. Information obtained from the DM, industry experts, and secondary data may not be sufficient to define the research problem. (True, easy, page 42)

10. To understand the background of a marketing research problem, the researcher must understand the client’s firm and industry.(True, easy, page 43)

11. Past information and forecasts of trends with respect to sales, market share, profitability, technology, population, demographics, and lifestyle can help the researcher understand the underlying marketing research problem.

(True, moderate, page 43)

12. Where appropriate, analysis of past information and forecasts of trends should be carried out at the firm’s department level.(False, moderate, page 43)

13. In instances where the resources are too limited to allow a high-quality project, the firm should be advised not to undertake formal marketing research. (True, moderate, page 45)

14. “The number and geographical location of the buyers and non-buyers” is a factor that should be considered in the ‘objectives’ component of the environmental context of the problem. (False, difficult, page 45)

15. The economic environment includes public policies, laws, government agencies, and pressure groups that influence and regulate various organizations and individuals in society.(False, difficult, page 47)

16. The economic environment component of the environmental context is comprised of purchasing power, gross income, disposable income, discretionary income, prices, savings, credit availability, and general economic conditions.(True, moderate, page 47)

17. The marketing research problem asks what the DM needs to do, whereas the management decision problem asks what information is needed and how it can best be obtained (Table 2.1 in text).(False, moderate, page 48)

18. The management decision problem is action oriented.(True, easy, page 48)

19. The marketing research problem is information oriented.(True, easy, page 48)

20. To properly identify the marketing research problem, it is best to state the problem in narrow, specific terms and identify its broad concepts.(False, moderate, page 49)

21. The second part of the marketing research problem definition is specific components. The specific components focus on the key aspects of the problem and provide clear guidelines on how to proceed further.(True, moderate, page 49)

22. Verbal, graphical, and mathematical models depict the same phenomenon or theoretical framework in different ways.(True, moderate, page 52)

23. Graphical models are analytical models that provide a visual picture of the relationships between variables.(True, moderate, page 52)

24. Research questions ask what general information is required with respect to the problem components.(False, difficult, page 53)

25. Hypotheses go beyond research questions because they are statements of relationships or propositions rather than merely questions to which answers are sought.(True, moderate, page 54)

26. Being too familiar with the environmental factors of the country where the research is being conducted can greatly increase the difficulty of understanding the problem’s environmental context and uncovering its causes.(False, moderate, page 57)

27. SPSS can be used to perform forecasts and “what-if” analyses to help the researcher in isolating the underlying causes, identifying the relevant variables that should be investigated, and formulating appropriate research questions and hypotheses.(True, moderate, page 60)

Multiple Choice Questions

28. In the example given in your text, the Harley Davidson management decision problem and the marketing research problem were defined with the help of all of the following except _____.a. discussions with industry expertsb. discussions with a committee of top managementc. secondary data on motorcycle owners d. focus groups with motorcycle owners(b, difficult, page 35)

29. According to the Chain Restaurant Study in your text, the researcher had collected data but did not know _____.a. the marketing research problemb. the management decision problemc. the data collection processd. the approach to the problem(a, moderate, page 37)

30. The _____ is a broad statement of the general problem and identification of the specific components of the marketing research problem. a. problem auditb. management problemc. problem definitiond. none of the above(c, moderate, page 37)

31. According to the problem definition and approach development process as shown in Figure 2.1 in the text, the tasks involved in problem definition consist of all of the following except _____.a. discussions with the decision makersb. interviews with industry experts c. analysis of project costsd. analysis of secondary data(c, difficult, page 38)

32. According to Figure 2.1 in the text, the components of the _____ consist of: objective/theoretical foundations, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of the information needed.a. approach to the problemb. management decision problemc. marketing research problemd. environmental context of the problem(a, difficult, page 38)

33. The need for the researcher to understand the nature of what decision managers face and what they hope to learn from research is one of the reasons to conduct _____. a. discussions with decision makers b. interview with experts c. secondary data analysisd. qualitative research(a, difficult, page 38)

34. To identify the management problem, the researcher must possess considerable skill in interacting with the DM. Which of the following is a factor that might complicate this interaction?a. Access to the DM may be difficult and some organizations have complicated protocols

for access to top executives.b. The organizational status of the researcher or the research department may make

it difficult to reach the key DM in the early stages of the project.c. There may be more than one key DM and meeting with them collectively or

individually may be difficult.d. All of the above are correct.(d, difficult, pages 38-39)

35. The _____ provides a useful framework for interacting with the DM and identifying the underlying causes of the problem. a. problem auditb. management problemc. problem definitiond. none of the above(a, moderate, page 39)

36. The _____ is a comprehensive examination of a marketing problem with the purpose of understanding its origin and nature.a. problem auditb. management problemc. problem definitiond. none of the above(a, moderate, page 39)

37. It is important to perform a problem audit because _____.a. the DM knows the cause of the problemb. DMs tend to focus on symptoms rather than on causesc. the DM, in most cases, has only a vague idea of what the problem isd. both b and c are correct(d, moderate, page 39)

38. The interaction between the DM and the researcher should be characterized by the seven Cs. Which of the following is not one of the seven Cs?a. continuityb. communicationc. causalityd. candor(c, moderate, page 40)

39. As one of the seven Cs that characterize the interaction between the DM and the researcher, confidence is best defined as _____.a. there should not be any hidden agendas, and an attitude of openness should prevailb. the interaction between the DM and the researcher should be guided by mutual

trustc. marketing research is a team project in which both parties (DM and researcher)

must cooperated. the interaction between the DM and the researcher should be creative rather than

formulaic(b, moderate, page 40)

40. Interviews with industry experts—individuals knowledgeable about the firm and the industry—may help formulate the marketing research problem. Which of the following statements is true about interviews with industry experts?a. These experts may be found both inside and outside the firm.b. Typically, expert information is obtained by unstructured personal interviews

without administering a formal questionnaire.c. It is helpful to prepare a list of topics to be covered during the interview.d. All of the above are true.(d, moderate, page 40-41)

41. Because of potential difficulties when seeking advice from experts, it is best to use interviews with experts when conducting marketing research _____.a. for industrial firmsb. for products of a technical naturec. in situations where little information is available from other sourcesd. all of the above(d, difficult, page 41)

42. Which of the following statements about secondary data is true?a. Secondary data are originated by the researcher for the specific purpose of addressing

the research problem at hand.b. Secondary data are an economical and quick source of background information.c. Primary data should not be collected until the available secondary data have been

fully analyzed.d. Both b and c are true.(d, easy, page 42)

43. _____ is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples intended to provide insight and understanding of the problem setting.a. Primary researchb. Qualitative researchc. Secondary researchd. Quantitative research(b, moderate, page 42)

44. _____ is not a qualitative research technique. a. Depth interviewb. Word associationc. Focus groupd. Conclusive research(d, moderate, page 42)

45. _____ consists of the factors that have an impact on the definition of the marketing research problem, including past information and forecasts, resources and constraints of the firm, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.a. The approach to the problemb. Research designc. The environmental context of the problemd. Problem definition(c, moderate, page 43)

46. Many factors have an impact on the definition of the marketing research problem. These factors encompass the environmental context of the problem. Which of the following is not one of the factors?a. marketing and technological skills of the firmb. objectives c. past information and forecasts pertaining to the industry and the firmd. political environment(d, moderate, page 43)

47. To formulate a marketing research problem of appropriate scope, it is necessary to take into account both the resources available, such as money and research skills, and the constraints on the organization, such as cost and time. These considerations refer to which of the factors related to the environmental context of the problem?a. resources and constraintsb. buyer behaviorc. legal environmentd. economic environment(a, easy, page 45)

48. Media consumption behavior and response to promotions, price sensitivity, and retail outlets patronized are factors that should be considered in the _____ component of the environmental context of the problem.a. objectives b. legal environmentc. economic environment d. buyer behavior(d, moderate, page 45)

49. The “Got Milk?” campaign sponsored by the California Milk Processor Board and mentioned in your text, used and understanding of _____ to identify the real causes that led to the decline in milk consumption. a. objectives b. the legal environmentc. the economic environment d. buyer behavior(d, difficult, page 46)

50. Regulatory policies and norms within which organizations must operate, refer to the _____ factor of the environmental context of the problem. a. legal environmentb. economic environmentc. objectivesd. buyer behavior(a, moderate, page 47)

51. _____ is the problem confronting the decision maker. It asks what the decision maker needs to do.

a. The environmental context of the problemb. The management decision problemc. The marketing research problemd. Problem definition(b, easy, page 48)

52. _____ is a problem that entails determining what information is needed and how it can be obtained in the most feasible way. a. The environmental context of the problemb. The management decision problemc. The marketing research problemd. Problem definition(c, moderate, page 48)

53. The management decision problem focuses on _____, while the marketing research problem focuses on _____.a. symptoms; solutionsb. symptoms; underlying causesc. solutions; underlying causesd. none of the above(b, difficult, page 48)

54. Based on Table 2.1 in the text, which statement is true about the management decision problem?a. It asks what information is needed and how it should be obtained.b. It is information oriented.c. It asks what the decision maker needs to do.d. It focuses on the underlying causes.(c, easy, page 48)

55. Based on Table 2.1 in the text, which statement is true about the marketing research problem?a. It focuses on underlying causes.b. It focuses on symptoms. c. It is information oriented.d. Both a and c are correct.(d, moderate, page 48)

56. If the management decision problem is: “Should a new product be introduced?” what is the most appropriate marketing research problem?a. determining the price elasticity of demand and the impact on sales and profits of various

levels of price changesb. determining consumer preferences and purchase intentions for the proposed new

productc. determining the effectiveness of the current advertising campaignd. determining the impact of new distribution outlets(b, moderate, page 49)

57. Which statement is true concerning defining the marketing research problem?a. The definition should allow the researcher to obtain all the information needed to

address the management decision problem.b. The definition should guide the researcher in proceeding with the project.c. The marketing research problem should be stated in broad, general terms with

specific components identified. d. All of the above are correct.(d, moderate, page 49)

58. The outputs of the approach development process should include all of the following components except _____. a. objective/theoretical frameworkb. analytical modelsc. hypothesesd. all of the above(d, difficult, page 51)

59. A conceptual scheme based on foundational statements called axioms, which are assumed to be true, is _____. a. objective evidenceb. a theoryc. an analytical modeld. none of the above(b, difficult, page 51)

60. Unbiased evidence that is supported by empirical findings is _____.a. objective evidenceb. a theoryc. an analytical modeld. none of the above(a, moderate, page 51)

61. In the process of developing an approach, research should be based on objective evidence and supported by theory. A theory _____. a. serves as a foundation on which the researcher can organize and interpret the findingsb. also plays a vital role in influencing the research procedures adopted in basic

researchc. is incompleted. all of the above(d, moderate, page 51)

62. The researcher should rely on _____ to determine which variables should be investigated.a. objective evidenceb. theoryc. an analytical modeld. none of the above(b, difficult, page 51)

63. A(n) _____ is a set of variables and their interrelationships designed to represent, in whole or in part, some real system or process.a. mathematical modelb. graphical modelc. verbal modeld. analytical model(d, moderate, page 52)

64. _____ are refined statements of the specific components of the problem.a. Hypothesesb. Research questionsc. Marketing research problemsd. Analytical models(b, difficult, page 53)

65. Which statement about hypotheses is not true?a. A hypothesis is an unproven statement or proposition about a factor or phenomenon

that is of interest to the researcher.b. Hypotheses are declarative and can be tested empirically.c. It is possible to formulate hypotheses in all situations.d. An important role of a hypothesis is to suggest variables to be included in the

research design.(c, difficult, pages 53-54)

66. Before defining the problem, the researcher must isolate and examine the impact of the self-reference criterion (SRC), or the unconscious reference to one’s own cultural values. Which of the following steps does not help researchers account for environmental and cultural differences when defining the problem in an international marketing context?a. Define the marketing research problem in terms of domestic environmental and cultural

factors. This involves an identification of relevant American (domestic country) traits, economics, values, needs, or habits.

b. Define the marketing research problem in terms of foreign environmental and cultural factors. Make no judgments. This involves an identification of the related traits, economics, values, needs, or habits in the proposed market culture. This task requires input from researchers familiar with the foreign environment.

c. Isolate the self-reference criterion (SRC) influence on the problem and examine it carefully to see how it complicates the problem.

d. All of the above are correct.(d, difficult, page 57)

67. Ethical issues arise if the process of defining the problem and developing an approach is compromised by the personal agendas of the client (DM) or the researcher. Which of these statements concerning ethics in marketing research is not true?a. The DM has the obligation to be candid and disclose to the researcher all the relevant

information that will enable a proper definition of the marketing research problem.b. The researcher is ethically bound to offer the most expensive set of services to

each client. c. The problem definition process is adversely affected when the DM has hidden

objectives such as gaining a promotion. d. The researcher is ethically bound to define the problem so as to further the best

interest of the client, rather than the interest of the research firm.(b, moderate, pages 58-59)

68. Which of the following ethical issues is/are pertinent in developing an approach?a. When a client solicits proposals, not with the intent of subcontracting the research, but

with the intent of gaining the expertise of research firms without pay, an ethical breach has occurred.

b. The research firm has the ethical obligation to develop an appropriate approach.c. Proprietary models and approaches developed by a research firm are the property of

that firm and should not be reused by the client in subsequent studies without the permission of the research firm.

d. All of the issues are pertinent.(d, moderate, page 59)

Chapter 3Research Design


1. A research design is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project.(True, moderate, page 78)

2. Specifying the measurement and scaling procedures is one of the components involved in research design.(True, difficult, page 78)

3. Specifying the format of t he marketing research proposal is one of the components involved in research design.(False, easy, page 78)

4. There are three main types of research designs employed in marketing research: exploratory, descriptive, and conclusive.(False, moderate, page 79)

5. Exploratory research is used in cases when you must define the problem more precisely, identify relevant courses of action, or gain additional insights before an approach can be developed.


6. The insights gained from exploratory research might be verified or quantified by causal research.(False, moderate, page 79)

7. The objective of conclusive research is to test specific results and examine specific relationships.

(False, moderate, page 79)

8. Conclusive research is typically more formal and structured than exploratory research.


9. The objective of exploratory research is to explore or search through a problem or situation to provide insights and understanding (Table 3.2 in text).


10. Identifying alternative courses of action and establishing priorities for further research are purposes for which exploratory research is used.

(True, difficult, page 80)

11. When conducting exploratory research, the focus of the investigation may shift constantly as new insights are discovered.

(True, difficult, page 80-81)

12. Shorter Labs is conducting experiments to see if shoppers will buy unknown products if they are sent coupons. Shorter Labs is conducting causal research.


13. One reason to conduct causal research is to determine the degree to which marketing variables are associated. For example, to what extent is shopping at department stores related to eating out?

(False, difficult, page 82)

14. A major difference between exploratory and descriptive research is that exploratory research is characterized by the prior formulation of specific hypotheses.


15. A descriptive design requires a clear specification of the who, what, when, where, why, and way (the six Ws) of the research.


16. The cross-sectional study is the least used descriptive design in marketing research.(False, moderate, page 84)

17. Cross-sectional designs involve the collection of information from any given sample of population elements only once.


18. In single cross-sectional designs, there are two or more samples of respondents, and information from each sample is obtained only once.


19. Cohort analysis is a type of multiple cross-sectional design that consists of a series of surveys conducted at appropriate time intervals, where the cohort serves as the basic unit of analysis.


20. In cohort analysis, it is likely that many of the individuals studied at time one will also be in the sample at time two.


21. A longitudinal design differs from a cross-sectional design in that the sample or samples remain the same over time.


22. Sometimes, the term sample survey is used interchangeably with the term longitudinal design.


23. A major advantage of longitudinal design over the cross-sectional design is the ability to detect change as a result of repeated measurement of the same variables on the same sample.


24. Longitudinal data enable researchers to examine changes in the behavior of individual units and to link behavioral changes to marketing variables, such as changes in advertising, packaging, pricing, and distribution.


25. Marketing managers continually make decisions based on assumed causal relationships. Because these assumptions may are justifiable, the validity of the causal relationships need not be examined via formal research.


26. According to the text, the combination of research designs employed depends on the nature of the results desired.


27. The total error is the variation between the true mean value in the population of the variable of interest and the observed mean value obtained in the marketing research project.


28. In formulating a research design, the researcher should attempt to minimize a particular source of error, not just the total error.


29. Random sampling error has been found to be the major contributor to total error, whereas non-sampling error is relatively small in magnitude.


30. A useful approach for managing a project is the critical path method (CPM), which involves dividing the research project into component activities, determining the sequence of these activities, and estimating the time required for each activity.


31. The marketing research proposal contains the essence of the project and serves as a contract between the researcher and the respondent.

(False, easy, page 96)

32. Budgeting and scheduling management tools help ensure that the marketing research project is completed within the available resources.


33. The marketing research proposal does not include a reporting section because a separate final report of the research project findings is provided at the end of the project.


34. The research design suitable for one country may not be suitable in another country.(True, easy, page 97)

35. The example given in the text stated that focus groups conducted in Saudia Arabia to determine attitude towards major appliances could be conducted the same as in the U.S. Men and women could participate jointly in the focus group.


36. The client should not take undue advantage of the research firm to solicit unfair concessions for the current project by making false promises of future research contracts.



37. Which statement is not true about research design?a. Research design is a framework for conducting the marketing research project.b. Research design specifies the measurement and scaling procedures.c. Research design is undertaken before developing the approach to the problem.d. Research design is undertaken after the marketing research problem is defined.(c, difficult, pages 77-78)

38. _____ is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project. It specifies the details of the procedures necessary for obtaining the information needed to structure and/or solve marketing research problems.a. Research classificationb. Research design c. Design formulation d. None of the above(b, moderate, page 78)

39. Typically, a _____ involves the tasks of designing the information needed, specifying the measurement and scaling procedures, and developing a plan of data analysis. a. research classificationb. research designc. design formulationd. none of the above

(b, difficult, page 78)

40. Which of the following tasks is not a component of research design?a. Design the exploratory, descriptive, and/or causal phases of the research.b. Construct and pretest a questionnaire (interviewing form) or an appropriate form

for data collection.c. Specify the sampling process and sample size.d. Develop hypotheses.

(d, difficult, page 78)

41. Research designs may be broadly classified as _____ or _____ (Figure 3.1 in text).a. exploratory; causalb. conclusive; causalc. exploratory; conclusived. conclusive; descriptive

(c, moderate, page 79)

42. Exploratory research is used in all of the following cases except _____.a. selecting the cause of action to take in a given situationb. when you must define the problem more preciselyc. when you must identify relevant causes of actiond. when you must gain additional insights before an approach can be developed(a, difficult, page 79)

43. The primary objective of _____ is to provide insights into, and an understanding of, the problem confronting the researcher.a. exploratory researchb. conclusive research c. causal researchd. descriptive research

(a, moderate, page 79)

44. _____ is research designed to assist the decision maker in determining, evaluating, and selecting the best course of action to take in a given situation.e. Exploratory researchf. Conclusive research g. Causal researchh. Descriptive research(b, moderate, page 79)

45. Cross-sectional and longitudinal designs are types of _____ (Figure 3.1 in text). a. causal research b. exploratory research c. descriptive research d. none of the above


46. Joan needs to determine which variables and relationships she should examine further as part of the research she is conducting for the Flager Truck Company. Joan is about to embark on what type of research? a. simple researchb. exploratory researchc. descriptive researchd. causal research


47. Which of the objectives below would best represent exploratory research? a. Describe market characteristics or functions.b. Determine cause and effect relationships.c. Provide insights and understanding.d. Test specific hypotheses and examine relationships.


48. Which of the objectives below would best represent conclusive research?a. Describe market characteristics or functions.b. Determine cause and effect relationships.c. Provide insights and understanding.d. Test specific hypotheses and examine relationships.

(d, moderate, page 80)

49. If there were a need to isolate key variables and relationships for further examination, it would be best to perform _____. a. descriptive research b. causal researchc. exploratory research d. conclusive research


50. Which of the following statements is not true about exploratory research? a. It is flexible.b. It is a pre-planned and structured design.c. It is versatile.d. It is often the front end of total research design.

(b, moderate, page 81)

51. Which data collection method is used in causal research? e. experimentsf. surveysg. expert surveysh. panels(a, moderate, page 81)

52. Jerry and the team working on the Roger Tire Company marketing research project are developing ways to test their hypothesis that drivers of larger trucks prefer dual belted radial tires. What type of research are they conducting?a. simple researchb. exploratory researchc. descriptive researchd. causal research

(c, difficult, page 81)

53. You work for Innovative Focus, an internationally recognized consulting firm. You are working on the Waterpik account to help them with finding their next successful product. You are meeting with the Waterpik marketing professionals tomorrow to conduct a trends meeting to list and prioritize key consumer wants and needs. You have also scheduled a meeting with the Waterpik engineers to uncover applicable technologies and the company’s internal competencies. What type of research are you conducting in your meetings with Waterpik?a. simple researchb. exploratory researchc. descriptive researchd. causal research(b, difficult, page 81-82)

54. _____ is a type of conclusive research that has as its major objective the description of something—usually market characteristics or functions. e. Exploratory researchf. Conclusive research g. Causal researchh. Descriptive research(d, moderate, page 82)

55. Descriptive research is conducted for all of the following reasons except:e. to describe the characteristics of relevant groups, such as consumers,

salespeople, organizations, or market areasf. to determine the degree to which marketing variables are associatedg. to understand which variables are the cause and which variables are the effect of a

phenomenonh. to determine the perceptions of product characteristics(c, moderate, page 82)

56. A formal research design specifies the methods for selecting the sources of information and for collecting data from those sources. A _____ design requires a clear specification of the who, what, when, where, why, and way (the six Ws) of the research. a. descriptiveb. causalc. exploratoryd. none of the above(a, moderate, page 82)

57. Descriptive research, in contrast to exploratory research, is marked by all of the following except:a. a clear statement of the problemb. specific hypothesesc. detailed information needsd. flexibility(d, difficult, page 82)

58. _____ designs involve the collection of information from any given sample of population elements only once.e. Exploratoryf. Causalg. Cross-sectional h. None of the above(c, moderate, page 84)

59. _____ is a cross-sectional design in which one sample of respondents is drawn from the target population and information is obtained from this sample once.a. Multiple cross-sectional designb. Single cross-sectional designc. Cohort analysisd. None of the above(b, moderate, page 84)

60. _____ is the most used descriptive design in marketing research.e. Longitudinal designf. Exploratory designg. Cross-sectional designh. none of the above(c, moderate, page 84)

61. Single cross-sectional designs are also called_____. e. experiment designsf. sample survey research designsg. qualitative research designsh. none of the above(b, moderate, 84)

62. _____ is a cross-sectional design in which there are two or more samples of respondents and information is obtained from each sample only once.e. Multiple cross-sectional designf. Single cross-sectional designg. Cohort analysish. None of the above(a, moderate, page 85)

63. _____ is a multiple cross-sectional design consisting of a series of surveys conducted at appropriate time intervals, where the cohort serves as the basic unit of analysis.a. Multiple cross-sectional designb. Single cross-sectional designc. Cohort analysisd. None of the above(c, moderate, page 85)

64. Which of the following statements is true about cohort analysis?a. A cohort is a group of respondents who experience the same event within the

same time interval.b. It is unlikely that any of the individuals studied at time one will also be in the

sample at time two.c. The term cohort analysis refers to any study in which there are measures of some

characteristics of one or more cohorts at two or more points in time.d. All are correct.(d, easy, page 85)

65. _____ is a type of research design involving a fixed sample of population elements that is measured repeatedly. The sample remains the same over time thus providing a series of pictures which, when viewed together, portray a vivid illustration of the situation and the changes that are taking place over time.e. Exploratory research designf. Causal research designg. Cross-sectional research design h. Longitudinal research design(d, moderate, page 86)

66. The question, “How did the American people rate the performance of George W. Bush immediately after the war in Afghanistan?” would be addressed using a _____. However, a _____ would be used to address the question, “How did the American people change their view of Bush’s performance during the war in Afghanistan?”e. longitudinal design; multiple cross-sectionalf. cross-sectional design; longitudinal designg. longitudinal; cross-sectional designh. none of the above(b, difficult, page 86)

67. Sometimes the term _____ is used interchangeably with the term longitudinal design. a. experimentb. panelc. surveyd. none of the above(b, moderate, page 86)

68. _____ refers to a sample of respondents who have agreed to provide information at specified intervals over an extended period. e. Experimentf. Surveyg. Panelh. None of the above(c, moderate, page 86)

69. A major advantage of _____ over the cross-sectional design is the ability to detect change as a result of repeated measurement of the same variables on the same sample.a. longitudinal designb. descriptive research designc. causal research designd. conclusive research design(a, moderate, page 87)

70. All of the following are advantages of longitudinal designs over cross-sectional designs (Table 3.4 in text) except:e. detecting changef. accuracyg. large amount of data collectionh. representative sampling(d, difficult, page 88)

71. Which of these statements is true about panels? e. Relatively large amounts of data can be collected.f. Panel data can be more accurate than cross-sectional data.g. Panels may not be representative.h. All of the above statements are correct.(d, moderate, page 88)

72. According to your text, non-representativeness in panels may arise because of all of the following except: e. respondent intelligencef. mortalityg. refusal to cooperateh. payment(a, difficult, pages 88-89)

73. When trying to determine which research design is best to choose, it is best to begin with exploratory research if the objective of the research is to _____.a. test hypothesesb. conduct an annual customer satisfaction surveyc. define the problem more preciselyd. quantify the relative salience of social causes that businesses should be concerned

about(c, moderate, page 90)

74. _____ is the variation between the true mean value in the population of the variable of interest and the observed mean value obtained in the marketing research project.e. Measurement errorf. Recording errorg. Total errorh. Cheating error(c, moderate, page 93)

75. _____ is the error due to the particular sample selected being an imperfect representation of the population of interest. It may be defined as the variation between the true mean value for the sample and the true mean value of the population. a. Random sampling errorb. Non-response errorc. Non-sampling errord. Response error(a, moderate, page 93)

76. _____ are errors that can be attributed to sources other than sampling, and they can be random or nonrandom.e. Random sampling errorf. Non-response errorg. Non-sampling errorh. Response error(c, moderate, page 93)

77. _____ is a type of non-sampling error arising from respondents who do respond but give inaccurate answers, or their answers are mis-recorded or mis-analyzed. It may be defined as the variation between the true mean value of the variable in the net sample and the observed mean value obtained in the marketing research project.e. Random sampling errorf. Non-response errorg. Non-sampling errorh. Response error(d, moderate, page 94)

78. _____ is a type of non-sampling error that occurs when some of the respondents included in the sample do not respond. This error may be defined as the variation between the true mean value of the variable in the original sample and the true mean value in the net sample.a. Random sampling errorb. Non-response errorc. Non-sampling errord. Response error(b, moderate, page 94)

79. The variation between the population defined by the researcher and the population as implied by the sampling frame (list) used is _____.a. questioning errorb. unwillingness errorc. sampling frame errord. recording error(c, easy, page 95)

80. Error that arises from the respondent’s unwillingness to provide accurate information is _____. Respondents may intentionally misreport their answers because of a desire to provide socially acceptable answers, avoid embarrassment, or please the interviewer.a. questioning errorb. unwillingness errorc. sampling frame errord. recording error

(b, easy, page 95)

81. In a recent study, the population of the affluent households was defined in four different ways: (1) households with income of $50,000 or more; (2) the top 20 percent of households, as measured by income; (3) households with net worth over $250,000; and (4) households with spendable discretionary income 30 percent higher than that of comparable households. The number and characteristics of the affluent households varied depending upon the definition, underscoring the need to avoid _____.a. sampling frame errorb. respondent selection errorc. measurement errord. population definition error(d, difficult, page 95)

82. Which of the following is not a budgeting and scheduling approach for managing a project?e. program evaluation and review technique (PERT) f. critical evaluation and review technique (CERT)g. critical path method (CPM)h. graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT)(b, moderate, page 96)

83. _____ is defined as the official layout of the planned marketing research activity for management. It describes the research problem, the approach, the research design, data collection methods, data analysis methods, and reporting methods.a. Research designb. The critical path methodc. The marketing research proposald. The marketing research problem(c, moderate, page 96)

84. The marketing research proposal consists of many sections. The _____ section is normally a statement of the problem, including the specific components.a. problem definition/objectives of the researchb. approach to the problemc. executive summaryd. research design(a, moderate, page 96)

85. The _____ section of the marketing research proposal should discuss how the data will be collected and who will collect it. The _____ section of the proposal discusses the kind of data analysis that will be conducted and how the results will be interpreted should be described. a. appendices; data analysisb. fieldwork/data collection; reportingc. research design; data analysisd. fieldwork/data collection; data analysis(d, easy, page 96)

Chapter 4Exploratory Research Design: Secondary Data


69. Secondary data are originated by a researcher for the specific purpose of addressing the problem at hand. (False, easy, page 106)

70. Primary data are data that have already been collected for purposes other than the problem at hand.(False, easy, page 106)

71. As compared to primary data, secondary data are collected rapidly and easily, at a relatively low cost, and in a short time.(True, easy, page 106)

72. Examination of available primary data is a prerequisite to the collection of secondary data.(False, moderate, page 107)

73. Secondary data can help you develop an approach to the problem, answer certain research questions and test some hypotheses, and interpret primary data more insightfully.(True, moderate, page 107)

74. It is easy to evaluate the accuracy of secondary data because the researcher did participate in the research.(False, easy, page 109)

75. One of the problems when evaluating secondary data is that the data may be updated too frequently for the purpose of the problem at hand. (False, easy, page 109)

76. Data collected with a specific objective in mind is always appropriate in another situation.(False, moderate, page 110)

77. Secondary data may be measured in units that may not be appropriate for the current problem.(True, moderate, page 110)

78. It is not possible to reconfigure the available data, for example, convert the units of measurements, so that the resulting data are more useful to the problem at hand.(False, difficult, page 110)

79. Data published anonymously or in a form that attempts to hide the details of the data collection methodology and process should be viewed with suspicion.(True, moderate, page 110)

80. Secondary data may be classified as either internal or extant.(False, easy, page 112)

81. Internal sources should be the starting point in the search for external data.(False, easy, page 112)

82. External data are those generated within the organization for which the research is being conducted.(False, easy, page 112)

83. Before collecting external secondary data, it is useful to analyze internal secondary data.(True, easy, page 112)

84. DiamlerChrysler’s Personal Information Centers collect data from car owners on all aspects of buying a car. These PICs give the company the ability to engage in customized marketing. DiamlerChrysler is using internal secondary data in its database marketing efforts.(True, moderate, pages 112-113)

85. Secondary internal data have two significant advantages. They are easily available and inexpensive.(True, easy page 113)

86. Secondary internal sources of data are often not fully exploited by organizations. (True, moderate, page 113)

87. Private sources update census data at a detailed geographic level for between-census years.(True, moderate, page 116)

88. Directory databases provide information on individuals, organizations, and services.(True, moderate, page 118)

89. Syndicated sources, also referred to as syndicated services, are companies that collect and sell common pools of data of known commercial value, designed to serve information needs shared by a number of clients.(True, moderate, page 119)

90. Syndicated sources collect data for marketing research problems specific to individual clients.(False, difficult, page 119)

91. Syndicated services data are not collected for the purpose of marketing research problems specific to individual clients.(True, difficult, page 119)

92. Syndicated sources can be classified based on the unit of measurement (households/consumers or institutions).(True, moderate, pages 119-220)

93. When institutions are the unit of measurement, the data may be obtained from retailers, wholesales, or households.(False, difficult, page 120)

94. A lifestyle may be defined as a distinctive pattern of living that is described by the activities people engage in, the interests they have, and the opinions they hold of themselves and the world around them (AIOs).(True, moderate, page 121)

95. Surveys are the primary means of obtaining information about consumers’ motives, attitudes, and preferences.(True, moderate, page 123)

96. The distinguishing feature of purchase and media panels is that the respondents record specific behaviors as they occur.(True, moderate, page 123)

97. Scanner data is obtained by passing merchandise over a laser scanner that reads the UPC code from the packages.(True, easy, page 126)

98. Scanner data have an obvious disadvantage over surveys and purchase panels, because they reflect purchasing behavior that is not subject to interviewing, recording, memory, or expert biases.(False, moderate, page 127)

99. An advantage of scanner data is that in-store variables like pricing, promotions, and displays are part of the data set.(True, moderate, page 127)

100. Audits can help consumer product firms determine the size of the total market and distribution of sales by type of outlet and by different regions. (True, moderate, page 128)

101. Financial, operating, and employment data are also collected by industry services’ syndicated research firms for one in 10 North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) industrial categories. (False, difficult, page 129)

102. The range and sources of syndicated data available for industrial goods firms are more limited than those available to consumer goods firms.(True, moderate, page 129)

103. Maps that solve marketing problems are called thematic maps.(True, difficult, page 130)

104. Ethical issues also arise if the users of secondary data are unduly critical of the data that do not support their interests and viewpoints.(True, moderate, page 133)


105. As compared to primary data, secondary data are collected _____.a. rapidly and easilyb. at a relatively low cost c. in a short time d. all of the above(d, moderate, page 106)

106. The _____ for primary data is very involved and the _____ is high. i. collection purpose; collection timej. collection process; collection costk. collection process; collection timel. collection cost; collection time(b, moderate, page 107)

107. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of secondary data? a. The objectives, nature, and methods used to collect the secondary data may not

be appropriate to the present situation. b. Secondary data may be lacking in accuracy.c. Secondary data may be expensive and time consuming.d. Secondary data may not be completely current or dependable.(c, moderate, page 107)

108. Which of the following statements refer to the currency criteria when evaluating secondary data?i. Data should be reliable and generalizable to the problem at hand.j. Syndicated firms periodically update census data.k. The objective will determine the relevance of the data. Reconfigure the data to

increase their usefulness, if possible.l. Assess accuracy by comparing data from different sources. (b, moderate, page 108)

109. Which of the following statements refer to the objective criteria when evaluating secondary data?i. Data should be reliable and generalizable to the problem at hand.j. Syndicated firms periodically update census data.k. The objective will determine the relevance of the data. Reconfigure the data to

increase their usefulness, if possible.l. Assess accuracy by comparing data from different sources.(c, easy, page 108)

110. Based on the criteria for evaluating secondary data shown in Table 4.2, the data collected by Nielsen Media Research may be suspect because of all of the following criteria except _____. a. specification/methodologyb. error/accuracyc. objectived. dependability(c, moderate, page 108)

111. Errors in the approach, research design, sampling, data collection, analysis, and reporting stages of the project refer to the _____ criteria for evaluating secondary data. i. nature j. objective k. error/accuracyl. currency(c, easy, page 109)

112. Which of the following statements is not true about the currency of secondary data?i. The time lag between data collection and publication may be long.j. The value of secondary data is diminished as it becomes dated. k. The data may not be updated frequently enough for the problem at hand.l. All of the above are correct.(d, easy, pages 109-110)

113. When evaluating secondary data, the _____ criteria asks the question of “why the data were collected in the first place.” a. nature b. objectivec. error/accuracyd. currency(b, moderate, page 110)

114. If the key variables have not been defined or are defined in a manner inconsistent with the researcher’s definition, then the usefulness of the data is limited. This statement refers to the _____ criteria for evaluating secondary data. a. nature b. objective c. error/accuracyd. currency(a, moderate, page 110)

115. You are reviewing secondary data to help with a project concerning consumer preferences for television programs based on viewer income. Which of the following statements would not be of concern when considering the nature criteria for evaluating secondary data?i. The relationships examined should be taken into account.j. Secondary data may be measured in units that may not be appropriate for the

current problem.k. The researcher must determine if the data are accurate enough for the purpose of

the present study.l. It is possible to reconfigure the available data so that the resulting data are more

useful to the problem at hand.(c, difficult, page 110)

116. An overall indication of the dependability of data may be obtained by examining the _____, credibility, reputation, and _____ of the source. i. accuracy; trustworthinessj. trustworthiness; expertisek. expertise; accuracyl. None of the above is correct.(b, difficult, page 110)

117. Which of the following classifications of secondary data is not a classification for external secondary data (Figure 4.1 in text)? i. published materialsj. computerized databasesk. ready-to-usel. syndicated services(c, moderate, page 112)

118. Creating a marketing database involves all of the following steps except: i. transferring raw sales information to a microcomputer j. enhancing consumer purchase information by overlaying it with demographic

and psychographic information k. analyzing information in terms of a customer’s activity over the life of the

business relationshipl. none of the above(d, difficult, page 113)

119. The CRM system used by DaimlerChrysler is an example of _____. e. directory databases f. database marketingg. auditsh. none of the above (b, moderate, pages 113-114)

120. Caterpillar needed to know what truck fleets should test their two new engines; how they could get a marketing strategy that could be measures; and how to adjust for the coming downturn in sales. To answer these questions, they gave their salesforce laptops and paid them to enter customer information related to each sale they made. Caterpillar analyzed the newly acquired customer data and developed strategies to address their marketing questions. Caterpillar utilized _____.

e. secondary marketingf. external marketingg. database marketingh. internal marketing


121. _____ are an excellent source of standard or recurring information.i. Directoriesj. Indexesk. Guidesl. Statistical published data(c, moderate, page 115)

122. Published external secondary data sources may be broadly classified as _____ or _____ sources (Figure 4.2 in text).i. public business; government j. general business; government k. general business; federal l. public business; federal (b, moderate, page 115)

123. _____ are helpful for identifying individuals or organizations that collect specific data.a. Directoriesb. Indexesc. Guidesd. Statistical published data(a, moderate, page 115)

124. It is possible to locate information on a particular topic in several different publications by using _____.a. directoriesb. indexesc. guidesd. statistical published data(b, moderate, page 115)

125. Examples of other government publications published by the federal government include all of the following except:a. Periodical Abstractb. Business Conditions Digest c. Statistical Abstract of the United Statesd. Survey of Current Business(a, difficult, page 117)

126. _____ are databases stored in computers that require a telecommunications network to access.i. Offline databases j. Bibliographic databasesk. Online databases l. Internet databases(c, moderate, page 117)

127. You are researching secondary data on the shopping habits of households for your dissertation. A marketing research firm that had done research I the area has agreed to allow you to dial into their mainframe computer to access the data. You will be accessing a(n) _____. (Choose the best response). a. online database b. internet databasec. offline databased. customer database (a, difficult, page 117)

128. You are researching secondary data on the shopping habits of households for your dissertation. You found a data source available via CD-ROM at the library. You are about to check out a(n) _____. (Choose the best response). a. online database b. internet databasec. offline databased. customer database (c, moderate, page 117)

129. _____ are databases composed of citations to articles in journals, magazines, newspapers, marketing research studies, technical reports, government documents, and the like. a. Offline databases b. Bibliographic databasesc. Online databases d. Internet databases(b, moderate, page 118)

130. InfoUSA (www.infousa.com) is a leading provider of sales and marketing support data. InfoUSA provides data via a _____. a. offline database b. bibliographic databasec. online databased. internet database(d, moderate, page 118)

131. _____ databases provide information on individuals, organizations and services. is a leading provider of sales and marketing support data. a. Special purposeb. Bibliographic c. Directoryd. Numeric(c, moderate, page 118)

http://www.infousa.com/

132. Which of the following is a disadvantage of audit services (Table 4.3 in text)?a. interviewer errors; respondent errorsb. data is lacking in terms of content, quantity, and quality c. data may not be representative; quality of data limitedd. coverage may be incomplete; matching of data on the competitive activity may be

difficult(d, difficult, page 120)

133. Which of the following is a disadvantage of surveys (Table 4.3 in text)? a. interviewer errors; respondent errorsb. data is lacking in terms of content, quantity, and quality c. data may not be representative; quality of data limitedd. coverage may be incomplete; matching of data on the competitive activity may be

difficult(a, difficult, page 120)

134. Which of the following is a characteristic of purchase panels (Table 4.3 in text)?a. household purchases recorded through electronic scanners in supermarketsb. households provide specific information regularly over an extended period of

time; respondents asked to record specific behaviors as they occurc. verification of product movement by examining physical records or performing

inventory analysisd. data banks on industrial establishment created through direct inquiries of

companies, clipping services, and corporate reports (b, moderate, page 120)

135. Which of the following is a characteristic of audit services (Table 4.3 in text)?a. household purchases recorded through electronic scanners in supermarketsb. households provide specific information regularly over an extended period of

time; respondents asked to record specific behaviors as they occurc. verification of product movement by examining physical records or performing

inventory analysisd. data banks on industrial establishment created through direct inquiries of

companies, clipping services, and corporate reports(c, moderate, page 120)

136. Surveys can be used for which of the following purposes?a. to evaluate advertisingb. to examine purchase and consumption behaviorc. for market segmentationd. all of the above(d, easy, page 120)

137. Gallup and Robinson Magazine Impact Research Service (MIRS) test ads using an at-home in-magazine context among widely dispersed samples. Test ads may naturally appear in the magazine or are inserted as tip-ins. It provides strong, validated measures of recall, persuasion, and ad reaction with responsive scheduling. The MIRS is an example of surveys being used _____.a. to evaluate advertisingb. to examine purchase and consumption behavior c. for market segmentationd. all of the above(a, easy, page 122)

138. A data gathering technique that is comprised of samples of respondents whose television viewing behavior is automatically recorded by electronic devices, supplementing the purchase information recorded online or in a diary is referred to as _____.a. scanner diary panels/cable TVb. scanner panelsc. purchase panelsd. media panels(d, moderate, page 124)

139. According to your text, volume tracking data and scanner panels with cable TV are sources of scanner data. Which of the following is also a type of scanner data?e. grocery panels f. scanner panelsg. both a and b are correcth. none of the above(b, difficult, page 124)

140. Scanner data where panel members are identified by an ID card allowing each panel member’s purchases to be stored with respect to the individual shopper are referred to as _____.a. scanner panels with cable TVb. volume tracking datac. scanner panelsd. none of the above(c, moderate, page 124)

141. The different types of scanner data are useful for a variety of purposes. Which of the following purposes applies to scanner data? a. data used for market segmentationb. data used for establishing consumer profilesc. data used to determine customer motives d. making advertising decisions, including budget, copy and media, pricing(d, difficult, page 127)

142. The uses of retail and wholesale audit data include all of the following except:a. identifying shelf space allocation and inventory problemsb. establishing profiles of specific user groupsc. developing sales potentials and forecastsd. analyzing distribution problems(b, moderate, page 128)

143. Information provided by industry services is useful for which of the following?a. sales management decisions such as defining territories and setting quotasb. advertising decisions such as allocating advertising budgetsc. segmenting the market and designing custom products and services for important

segmentsd. all of the above (d, moderate, page 129)

144. _____ combines geography with demographic information and a company’s sales data or other proprietary information to develop thematic maps.a. Single-source datab. Demographic mappingc. Computer mappingd. Thematic mapping(c, moderate, page 130)

145. Sales & Marketing Management’s annual Survey of Buying Power provides data to help you analyze each of your U.S. markets, whether they are cities, counties, metro areas, or states. What of the following information is also true of the Survey of Buying Power?a. It features statistics, rankings, and projections for ever county and media market

in the United States with demographic broken out by age, race, city, county, and state.

b. It features information on retail spending; and projections for future growth in these areas.

c. It features a unique measure of spending power that takes population, EBI, and retail sales into account to determine a market’s ability to buy.

d. All of the above are true.(b, difficult, pages 131-132)

146. Which of the following practices might be unethical?a. the use of secondary data alone when the research requires primary data

collectionb. the client is billed a fixed fee for the projectc. the unnecessary collection of expensive primary data when the research

problem can be addressed based on secondary sources aloned. both a & c are correct(d, easy, page 134)

Chapter 5Exploratory Research Design: Qualitative Research


147. Qualitative research is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples that provides insights and understanding of the problem setting. (True, moderate, page 143)

148. Quantitative research seeks to quantify the data and, typically, applies some form of statistical analysis.(True, moderate, page 143)

149. The findings of qualitative research should be regarded as conclusive and used to make generalizations to the population of interest.(False, difficult, page 143)

150. Qualitative research procedures are classified as either descriptive or causal.(False, moderate, page 143)

151. Projective techniques are different from focus groups and depth interview techniques in that projective techniques attempt to disguise the purpose of the research.(True, moderate, page 145)

152. The main purpose of focus groups is to gain insights by listening to a group of people from the appropriate target market talk about issues of interest to the researcher.(True, moderate, page 145)

153. An indirect qualitative projective technique is best to use when conducting research to determine what milk drinkers prefer to eat with their milk. (False, moderate, page 145)

154. A focus group generally includes 10 to 16 members.(False, difficult, page 146)

155. A focus group should be homogeneous in terms of demographic and socioeconomic characteristics.(True, moderate, page 146)

156. Typical information obtained from the screening questionnaire includes product familiarity and knowledge, usage behavior, attitudes toward and participation in focus groups, and standard demographic characteristics.(True, moderate, page 148)

157. Use of a moderator’s outline reduces some of the validity problems inherent in focus groups, such as those caused by different moderators not covering the same content areas in comparable ways.(False, difficult, pages 148)

158. The number of focus groups that should be conducted on a single subject depends upon (1) the nature of the issue, (2) the number of distinct market segments, (3) the number of new ideas generated by each successive group, and (4) time and cost.(True, moderate, page 153)

159. Resources permitting, one should conduct additional focus groups until the participants can anticipate what will be said.(False, moderate, page 153)

160. Telesession groups are focus group sessions by Internet using chat rooms. (False, moderate, page 154)

161. Synergism, snowballing, simulation, and security are some of the advantages of focus groups.(False, difficult, page 154)

162. One advantage of focus groups is synergism which results because the participants’ feelings are similar to those of other group members; they feel comfortable and therefore willing to express their ideas and feelings. (False, difficult, page 154)

163. One advantage of focus groups is serendipity because ideas are more likely to arise out of the blue in a group than in an individual interview.(True, moderate, page 154)

164. Focus groups can be misused and abused by considering the results as conclusive.(True, moderate, page 154)

165. The quality of focus group results depends heavily on the skills of the moderator.(True, easy, page 154)

166. A disadvantage of focus groups is that the unstructured nature of the responses makes coding, analysis, and interpretation difficult. (True, easy, page 154)

167. Focus groups can be used to address substantive issues such as generating alternative courses of action.(False, difficult, page 155)

168. Unlike traditional focus groups, online focus group participation is by invitation only.


169. Participants in online focus groups receive a time, a URL, a room name, and a password via e-mail.(True, easy page 155)

170. The cost of online focus groups is much less than for traditional focus groups. Firms are able to keep costs between one-fifth and one-half the cost of traditional focus groups.(True, moderate, page 156)

171. Only audio and visual stimuli can be tested via online focus groups.(True, easy, page 156)

172. Online focus group participants don't have the potential to be distracted by external stimuli.(False, easy, page 156)

173. Online focus groups are appropriate for every research situation.(False, easy, page 156)

174. There are fewer people in an online focus group than in a traditional focus group (Table 5.3).(True, moderate, page 157)

175. During depth interviews, probing is of critical importance in obtaining meaningful responses and uncovering hidden issues.(True, easy, page 159)

176. Laddering requires interviewers to be trained in specific probing techniques in order to develop a meaningful “mental map” of the consumer’s view toward a target product.(True, moderate, page 159)

177. Symbolic analysis attempts to analyze the symbolic meaning of objects by comparing them with their opposites.(True, moderate, page 160)

178. Depth interviews uncover less depth of insights than focus groups.(False, difficult, page 161)

179. In role playing, the researcher assumes that the respondents will project their own feelings into the role.(True, moderate, page 167)

180. Projective techniques generally require personal interviews with highly trained interviewers. This is an advantage of projective techniques.(False, moderate, page 168)

181. Data determination is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing qualitative data. (False, difficult, page 170)

182. Qualitative research may reveal the differences between the foreign and domestic markets.(True, moderate, page 172)

183. To minimize negative effects that may arise from disguising the purpose of the qualitative research, the respondents should be informed up front that the true purpose of the research is being disguised so as not to bias the responses. (True, moderate, page 174)

184. Focus groups, depth interviews, and projective techniques can be implemented over the Internet.(True, moderate, page 176)


185. Baby boomers are a large consumer target for many products and “show and tell” focus groups are being used by consumer researchers. Which of the following statements is not true about “show and tell” focus groups?a. Respondents’ attitudes are uncovered by analyzing their responses to scenarios

that are deliberately unstructured, vague, and ambiguous.b. They provide the needed insight into the core values boomers hold close to their

hearts.c. Participants bring in three or four items that represent their ideal environment.d. Group discussion is centered on the items brought in for “show and tell” .(a, moderate, page 141)

186. Whenever a new marketing research problem is being addressed, _____ research must be preceded by appropriate _____ research.a. qualitative; quantitativeb. observational; experimental c. quantitative; qualitative d. experimental; observational(c, moderate, page 143)

187. According to Table 5.1, which of the following does not apply to qualitative research? a. a small number of nonrepresentative casesb. non-statistical data analysisc. unstructured form of data collectiond. outcome is used to recommend a final course of action(d, difficult, page 144)

188. There are several reasons to use qualitative research. Which of the following is not a reason to use qualitative research?a. It is not always possible, or desirable, to use fully structured or formal methods

to obtain information from respondents.b. People may be unwilling or unable to answer certain questions.c. People are unwilling to give truthful answers to questions that invade their

privacy, embarrass them, or have a negative impact on their ego or status.d. none of the above (d, moderate, pages 144-145)

189. The _____ is one type of qualitative research in which the purposes of the project are disclosed to the respondent or are obvious, given the nature of the interview.

a. indirect approachb. direct approachc. focus group approachd. descriptive approach

(b, easy, page 145)

190. An interview conducted by a trained moderator among a small group of respondents in an unstructured and natural manner is a(n) _____. a. depth interview b. projective technique c. association techniqued. focus group(d, moderate, page 145)

191. Focus groups are a(n) _____ research procedure and projective techniques are a(n) _____ research procedure.a. experimental; directb. indirect; direct c. direct; experimentald. direct; indirect(d, easy, page 145)

192. _____ are the most important qualitative research procedure. a. Focus groupsb. Depth interviewsc. Projective techniquesd. Association techniques(a, easy, page 146)

193. Which of the following is not one of the key qualifications of focus group moderators? a. jovialityb. kindness with firmnessc. flexibilityd. sensitivity(a, moderate, page 147)

194. The procedure for planning and conducting focus groups is described in Figure 5.3 in the text. Planning begins with _____.a. specifying the objectives of qualitative researchb. writing a screening questionnairec. developing a moderator's guided. determining objectives of the marketing research project and defining the problem(d, easy, page 148)

195. Constructing a detailed moderator’s outline for use during the focus group interviews involves extensive discussions among the _____, _____, and ____. a. researcher; moderator; and respondents.b. researcher; client; moderator.c. researcher; client; respondent.d. client; respondent; moderator.(b, moderate, page 148)

196. The Real Research Mall of Atlanta focus group example in the text used focus groups to uncover _____. a. information on the mall visit experienceb. information on mall brand identity versus other mallsc. information on the brand value of the malld. all of the above(d, moderate, page 151-152)

197. It is recommended that at least _____ focus groups be conducted. a. two b. threec. fourd. five(a, moderate, page 153)

198. A focus group interview conducted by two moderators where one moderator is responsible for the smooth flow of the session, and the other ensures that specific issues are discussed is called a _____.a. two-way focus groupb. dueling-moderator groupc. dual-moderator groupd. respondent-moderator group(c, difficult, pages 153)

199. Focus groups can use several variations of the standard procedure. Which of the following is not one of the variations mentioned in your text? a. respondent-moderator groupb. client-participant groupc. tag-team moderator groupd. mini-group(c, difficult, pages 153-154)

200. A focus group interview conducted by two moderators where the moderators deliberately take opposite positions on the issues to be discussed is called a _____. a. dueling-moderator groupb. two-way focus groupc. dual-moderator groupd. respondent-moderator group(a, difficult, page 154)

201. One of the findings of the Mall of Atlanta focus group research mentioned in the text, was that respondents who go to the mall for entertainment try to hold costs to under $30, except for special occasions. The client reviewed this information and decided to design a mall experience package that would cost $29.95 The client has fallen victim to which disadvantage of focus groups?a. misuseb. misrepresentationc. messyd. both a and b are correct(d, difficult, pages 154-155)

202. Which of the following is a methodological application of focus groups? a. obtaining impressions of new product concepts b. generating alternative courses of actionc. both b and d are correctd. generating hypotheses that can be tested quantitatively (c, difficult, pages 154-155)

203. Focus groups can be used to address substantive issues such as _____. a. defining a problem more precisely b. generating new ideas about older productsc. developing an approach to a problemd. interpreting previously obtained quantitative results(b, difficult, page 155)

204. Which statement is not true about online focus groups? a. The group interaction lasts for about an hour.b. The general practice is for moderators to pose their questions in all capital letters

and the respondents to respond using upper and lower case. c. The whole process is much faster than the traditional method.d. To enter the online focus group, participants must supply the room name, user

name, and password to the moderator via email.(d, moderate, page 155-156)

205. Which of the following statements is not an advantage of online focus groups?a. The researcher can reach segments that are usually hard to survey. b. Researchers can re-contact group participants at a later date.c. The cost of the online focus group is much less. d. Only people that have and know how to use a computer can participate.(d, moderate, page 156)

206. Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of online focus groups?a. Moderators may also be able to carry on side conversations with individual

respondents, probing deeper into interesting areas.b. It can be difficult to verify that a respondent is a member of a target group.c. Only audio and visual stimuli can be tested. d. Only people that have and know how to use a computer can participate.(a, moderate, page 156)

207. Which of the situations mentioned below is not suitable for online focus groups?a. highly emotional issuesb. companies that use the Internet to sell products or services and want to either gain

market share or gather intelligencec. corporations that want to gather feedback on workplace issues like downsizing,

job changes, and diversityd. none of the above(a, moderate, page 157)

208. A _____ is an unstructured, direct, personal interview in which a single respondent is probed by a highly skilled interviewer to uncover underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, and feelings on a topic.a. focus groupb. qualitative interviewc. projective interviewd. depth interview(d, moderate, page 158)

209. Depth interviews are like focus group in all of the following ways except:a. both are unstructured interviewsb. both are direct ways of obtaining informationc. both are qualitative research methodsd. both are one-on-one interviews(d, difficult, page 158)

210. “Why do you say that?”, “That’s interesting, can you tell me more?” or, “Would you like to add anything else?” are examples of _____.a. focusingb. projectingc. probingd. none of the above(c, easy, page 159)

211. _____ is a technique for conducting depth interviews in which a line of questioning proceeds from product characteristics to user characteristics.a. Hidden issue questioningb. Symbolic analysisc. Ladderingd. none of the above(c, moderate, page 159)

212. In a study the researcher was investigating attitudes toward airlines among male middle managers. Each airline attribute, such as wide-body aircrafts, was probed (why do you like to travel in wide-body aircrafts?) to determine why it was important (I can get more work done) and then that reason was probed (I accomplish more), and so on (I feel good about myself). The depth interview techniques used in the study is called _____. a. hidden issue questioningb. symbolic analysisc. ladderingd. none of the above(c, difficult, page 160)

213. In a study the researcher was investigating attitudes toward airlines among male middle managers. Questions asked included, “What would it be like if you could no longer use airplanes?” Responses like, “Without planes, I would have to rely on e-mail, letters, and telephone calls” were received. This suggests that what airlines sell to the managers is face-to-face communication. The depth interview techniques used in the study is called _____. a. hidden issue questioningb. symbolic analysisc. ladderingd. none of the above(b, difficult, page 160)

214. _____ is a type of depth interview that attempts to locate personal sore spots related to deeply felt personal concerns.a. Hidden issue questioningb. Symbolic analysisc. Ladderingd. None of the above(a, moderate, page 160)

215. _____ is a technique for conducting depth interviews in which the symbolic meaning of objects is analyzed by comparing them with their opposites.a. Hidden issue questioningb. Symbolic analysisc. Ladderingd. None of the above(b, moderate, page 160)

216. In a depth interview, the interviewer should_____. a. avoid appearing superior and put the respondent at easeb. be detached and objective, yet personablec. probe the respondentd. all of the above(d, easy, page 160)

217. In a depth interview, the interviewer should _____.a. not accept brief “yes” or “no” answers b. not probe the respondentc. ask questions in an informative manner d. a and c are both correct(d, easy, page 160)

218. Depth interviews suffer from many of the disadvantages of focus groups and often to a greater extent. Which of the following disadvantages is not shared with focus groups? a. Skilled interviewers capable of conducting depth interviews are expensive and

difficult to find.b. The lack of structure makes the results susceptible to the interviewer’s influence.c. The data obtained are difficult to analyze and interpret.d. All of the above are shared with focus groups.(d, difficult, page 161)

219. A(n) _____ is an unstructured, indirect form of questioning that encourages respondents to project their underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, or feelings regarding the issues of concern.a. projective techniqueb. focus groupc. association techniqued. depth interview(a, easy, page 163)

220. In _____, an individual is presented with a stimulus and asked to respond with the first thing that comes to mind.a. completion techniquesb. focus groupsc. association techniquesd. depth interviews(c, moderate, page 163)

221. Word association is the best known of the _____ techniques. a. expressiveb. associationc. completiond. construction(b, easy, page 163)

222. With _____ respondents are presented with a list of words, one at a time. After each word, they are asked to give the first word that comes to mind. a. word associationb. sentence completionc. story completiond. none of the above(a, moderate, page 163)

223. In word association, responses are analyzed by calculating _____.a. the frequency with which any word is given as a responseb. the amount of time that elapses before a response is givenc. the number of respondents who do not respond at all to a test word within a

reasonable period of timed. all of the above(d, moderate, page 163)

224. _____ is a projective technique that requires the respondent to complete an incomplete stimulus situation.a. Association techniqueb. Expressive techniquec. Construction techniqued. Completion technique(d, easy, page 164)

225. _____ is a projective technique in which respondents are presented with a number of incomplete sentences and asked to complete them.a. Word associationb. Sentence completionc. Story completiond. Expression completion(b, easy, page 164)

226. _____ is a projective technique in which the respondents are provided with part of a story and required to give the conclusion in their own words.a. Word associationb. Sentence completionc. Story completiond. Expression completion(c, easy, page 165)

227. _____ require the respondent to construct a response in the form of a story, dialogue, or description. a. Association techniquesb. Expressive techniquesc. Construction techniquesd. Impression techniques(c, easy, page 165)

228. In _____, cartoon characters are shown in a specific situation related to the problem. The respondents are asked to indicate what one cartoon character might say in response to the comments of another character.a. picture response techniquesb. cartoon testsc. third-person techniquesd. role playing(b, easy, page 166)

229. The two main expressive techniques are _____ and _____.a. role playing; word associationb. role playing; third-person techniquec. word association; sentence completiond. third-person technique; word association(b, moderate, page 166)

230. _____ is a projective technique in which the respondent is presented with a verbal or visual situation and asked to relate the beliefs and attitudes of a third person to the situation. a. Role playingb. Sentence completionc. Cartoon testd. Third-party technique(d, easy, page 167)

231. In _____, respondents are asked to play the role or assume the behavior of someone else.a. role playingb. sentence completionc. cartoon testd. third-party technique(a, easy, page 167)

232. Projective techniques are used less frequently than unstructured direct methods (focus groups and depth interviews). A possible exception may be _____, which is used commonly to test brand names and occasionally to measure attitudes about particular products, brands, packages, or advertisements.a. story completionb. word associationc. sentence completiond. cartoon tests(b, difficult, page 168)

233. Which of the following guidelines does not enhance the usefulness of projective techniques? a. Projective techniques should be used because the required information cannot

be accurately obtained by direct methods.b. Projective techniques should be used for exploratory research to gain initial

insights and understanding.c. Given their complexity, projective techniques should not be used naively.d. None of the above(d, difficult, page 168)

88. _____is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing qualitative data. In this step, the researcher chooses which aspects of the data are emphasized, minimized, or set aside for the project at hand.

a. Data displayb. Data reductionc. Data determinationd. Conclusion drawing and verification


89. _____ is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing qualitative data. In this step, the researcher develops a visual interpretation of the data with the use of such tools as a diagram, chart or matrix. a. Data displayb. Data reductionc. Data determinationd. Conclusion drawing and verification(a, easy, page 170)

90. _____ is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing qualitative data. In this step, the researcher considers the meaning of analyzed data and assesses its implications for the research question at hand. a. Data displayb. Data reductionc. Data determinationd. Conclusion drawing and verification(d, moderate, page 170)

91. When conducting international marketing research, focus group moderators should not only be trained in focus group methodology but should also be familiar with the _____ of the country.

a. languageb. culturec. patterns of social interactiond. all of the above(d, difficult, page 172)

92. Which of the following is not an ethical issue of concern to the researcher?a. disguising the purpose of the research and the use of deceptive procedures

b. videotaping and recording the proceedingsc. comfort level of the respondentsd. none of the above(d, moderate, page 173)

93. The 2000 and 2004 presidential elections were cited in your text for negative attacks by both the Republican and Democratic parties. The negative attacks were based on qualitative marketing research used to help design the messages. Which ethical concern is this use of marketing research related to?

a. disguising the purpose of the research and the use of deceptive procedures b. using qualitative research for questionable purposes c. comfort level of the respondentsd. none of the above(b, moderate, page 173)

Chapter 7Causal Research Design: ExperimentationTrue/False Questions

1. Causality refers to when the occurrence of X causes the occurrence of Y.(False, easy, page 220)

35. The everyday meaning of causality is more appropriate to marketing research than is the scientific meaning.(False, moderate, page 220)

36. The conditions of concomitant variation, time order of occurrence of variables and elimination of other possible causal factors, are necessary but not sufficient to demonstrate causality.(True, moderate, page 221)

37. Concomitant variation is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or vary together in the way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration.(True, moderate, page 221)

38. Evidence pertaining to concomitant variation can only be obtained in a qualitative manner.(False, moderate, page 221)

39. In an after-the-fact examination of a situation, we can confidently rule out all other causal factors. (False, moderate, page 222)

40. With experimental designs, it is possible to control for some of the other causal factors.(True, moderate, page 222)

41. Evidence of concomitant variation, time order of occurrence of variables, and elimination of other possible causal factors, when combined, demonstrate conclusively that a causal relationship exists.(False, difficult, page 223)

42. Price levels, package designs, and advertising themes are examples of independent variables manipulated by the researcher. (True, easy, page 223)

43. Independent variables are variables or alternatives that are manipulated and whose effects are measured and compared.(True, easy, page 223)

44. Test units are individuals, organizations, or other entities whose response to independent variables or treatments is being studied.(True, easy, page 223)

45. Independent variables are the variables that measure the effect of the dependent variables on the test units. (False, moderate, page 224)

46. Extraneous variables are all variables other than the independent variables that affect the response of the test units.(True, easy, page 224)

47. An experiment is formed when the researcher manipulates one or more dependent variables and measures their effect on one or more independent variables, while controlling for the effect of extraneous variables.(False, easy, page 224)

48. If the goal of the researcher is to make valid generalizations to a larger population of interest, then, the researcher is concerned with internal validity.(False, moderate, page 225)

49. There is no problem developing experimental designs that have high levels of both internal and external validity.(False, moderate, page 225)

50. To control for extraneous variables, a researcher may conduct an experiment in an artificial environment. This enhances external validity, but it may limit the generalizability of the results, thereby reducing internal validity. (False, moderate, page 225)

51. History (H) refers to the occurrence of events before the experiment.(False, moderate, page 226)

52. The longer the time interval between observations, the greater the possibility that history will confound an experiment.(True, easy, page 226)

53. Extraneous variables are also called confounding variables because unless they are controlled for, they affect the independent variable and thus confound the results.(False, moderate, page 228)

54. Matching is a method of controlling extraneous variables that involve matching test units on a set of key background variables before assigning them to the treatment conditions.(True, easy, page 228)

55. Experimental designs may be classified as preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, or post-statistical.(True, moderate, page 229)

56. Also known as the after-only design, the one-shot case study may be symbolically represented as: X 01.(True, difficult, page 230)

57. In practice, a control group is sometimes defined as the group that receives the current level of marketing activity, rather than a group that receives no treatment at all because it is difficult to reduce current marketing activities, such as advertising and personal selling, to zero.(True, moderate, page 231)

58. The distinguishing feature of the true experimental designs, as compared to preexperimental designs, is lack of randomization.(False, moderate, page 231)

59. Quasi-experimental designs are useful because they can be used in cases when true experimentation cannot, and because they are quicker and less expensive.(True, moderate, page 233)

60. Full experimental control is available in quasi-experimental designs; therefore, the researcher does not need to take into account the specific variables that are not controlled.(False, moderate, page 233)

61. Time series design is a quasi-experimental design that involves periodic measurements on the dependent variable for a group of test units.(True, moderate, page 234)

62. When more than one variable must be controlled, the researcher must use randomized block or factorial designs.(False, difficult, page 236)

63. A Latin square is conceptualized as a table, with the rows and the columns representing the blocks in the two external variables.(True, moderate, page 237)

64. Unlike the randomized block design and the Latin square, factorial designs allow for interactions between variables.(True, moderate, page 237)

65. Factorial design is a true experimental design that is used to measure the effects of two or more independent variables at various levels and to allow for interactions between variables.(False, moderate, page 238)

66. The main disadvantage of a factorial design is that the number of treatment combinations increases multiplicatively with an increase in the number of variables or levels. (True, difficult, page 238)

67. A field environment is synonymous with actual market conditions.(True, easy, page 238)

68. Field experiments have some advantages over laboratory experiments. The field experiment offers a high degree of control because it isolates the experiment in a carefully monitored environment.(False, easy, page 239)

69. The Internet can provide a mechanism for controlled experimentation, although in a laboratory type of environment.(True, difficult, page 239)

70. All of the types of experimental designs mentioned in the chapter on Causal Research Design (Latin Square, factorial, true experimental, and preexperimental designs for example) can be implemented on the Internet.(True, difficult, page 240)

71. Only causal designs are truly appropriate for inferring cause-and-effect relationships.(True, moderate, page 240)

72. Descriptive survey studies do not meet all conditions required for causality.(True, moderate, page 240)

73. Experimentation is becoming increasingly important in marketing research, but there are limitations of time, cost, and administration of an experiment.(True, moderate, page 240)

74. Standard text markets can cost as much as $1 million; simulated test markets cost less than 10 percent as much.(True, moderate, page 243)

75. In many countries, the marketing, economic, structural, information, and technological environments are not developed to the extent that they are in the United States.(True, moderate, page 243)

76. The internal and external validity of field experiments conducted overseas is generally lower than in the United States.(True, easy, page 244)

77. Debriefing occurs after the experiment and entails informing test subjects what the experiment was about and how the experimental manipulations were performed(True, easy, page 244)


78. The scientific concept of causality is complex. “Causality” means something very different to the average person on the street than to a scientist. If the ordinary meaning of a statement is “ X is the only cause of Y,” its related scientific meaning is: a. The occurrence of X makes the occurrence of Y.b. We can never prove that X is a cause of Y. At best, we can infer that X is a cause

of Y.c. X is only one of a number of possible causes of Y.d. None of the above is correct.(c, difficult, page 221)

47. The conditions that must be satisfied before making causal inferences include all of the following except _____.a. time order of occurrence of variablesb. role of evidencec. concomitant variationd. elimination of other possible factors(b, moderate, page 221)

48. _____ is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or vary together in the way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration.

a. The time order of occurrence of variablesb. The role of evidencec. Concomitant variationd. The elimination of other possible factors


49. The statement ‘An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the effect has taken place,’ refers to _____. a. the time order of occurrence of variablesb. the role of evidencec. concomitant variationd. the elimination of other possible factors(a, moderate, page 222)

50. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the time order of occurrence of variables?a. In an after-the-fact examination of the situation, we can never confidently rule

out all other causal factors.b. The causing event must occur either before or simultaneously with the effect; it

cannot occur afterwards.c. An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the effect has taken

place.d. It is possible for each event in a relationship to be both a cause and an effect of

the other event.(a, moderate, page 222)

51. _____ means that the factor or variable being investigated should be the only possible causal explanation.a. The time order of occurrence of variablesb. The role of evidencec. Concomitant variationd. The absence of other possible causal factors(d, moderate, page 222)

52. When considering _____, accumulated evidence from several investigations increases our confidence that a causal relationship exists.

a. the time order of occurrence of variablesb. the role of evidencec. concomitant variationd. the elimination of other possible factors

(b, moderate, page 223)

53. Experimental design is the set of experimental procedures specifying the test units and sampling procedures and all of the following except:

a. specifying the independent variablesb. specifying the dependent variablesc. specifying the plan for data analysisd. specifying how to control the extraneous variables


54. In the New York coupon experiment mentioned in your text, the experiment was conducted to test the effects of the face value of coupons on the likelihood of coupon redemption. Subjects were randomly assigned to 2 treatment groups. One group was offered 15-cent coupons and the other 50-cent coupons for four products. During the interviews, the respondents answered questions about which brands they used and how likely they were to cash coupons of the given face value the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the dependent variable that was _____. a. brand usageb. the value of the coupon (15-cent versus 50-cent coupon)c. the likelihood of cashing the coupond. individual shoppers(c, moderate, page 224)

55. In the New York coupon experiment mentioned in your text, the experiment was conducted to test the effects of the face value of coupons on the likelihood of coupon redemption. Subjects were randomly assigned to 2 treatment groups. One group was offered 15-cent coupons and the other 50-cent coupons for four products. During the interviews, the respondents answered questions about which brands they used and how likely they were to cash coupons of the given face value the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the independent variable that was manipulated was_____. a. brand usageb. the value of the coupon (15-cent versus 50-cent coupon)c. the likelihood of cashing the coupond. individual shoppers(b, moderate, page 224)

56. In the New York coupon experiment mentioned in your text, the experiment was conducted to test the effects of the face value of coupons on the likelihood of coupon redemption. Subjects were randomly assigned to 2 treatment groups. One group was offered 15-cent coupons and the other 50-cent coupons for four products. During the interviews, the respondents answered questions about which

brands they used and how likely they were to cash coupons of the given face value the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the test units were_____. a. brand usageb. the value of the coupon (15-cent versus 50-cent coupon)c. the likelihood of cashing the coupond. individual shoppers(d, moderate, page 224)

57. _____ is a measure of accuracy of an experiment. It measures whether the manipulation of the independent variables, or treatments, actually caused the effects on the dependent variable(s). a. External validityb. Extraneous validityc. Internal validityd. None of the above (c, moderate, page 225)

58. All of the following statements are true about external validity except _____. a. threats to external validity arise when the specific experimental conditions does

not realistically take into account the interactions of other relevant variables in the real world.

b. external validity is the basic minimum that must be present in an experiment before any conclusion about treatment effects can be made

c. factors that threaten internal validity may also threaten external validity, the most serious of these being extraneous variables.

d. a and c are true (d, difficult, pages 225-226)

59. _____ is a determination of whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the experiment can be generalized. Can the results be generalized beyond the experimental situation and if so, to what populations, settings, times, independent variables and dependent variables can the results be projected?a. External validityb. Extraneous validityc. Internal validityd. None of the above (c, moderate, page 225)

60. _____ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to changes in the test units themselves that occur with the passage of time.a. Mortalityb. Interactive testing effectc. Maturationd. Main testing effect(c, moderate, page 226)

61. _____ refers to an effect of testing occurring when a prior observation affects a latter observation. a. Mortalityb. Interactive testing effectc. Maturationd. Main testing effect(d, difficult, page 226)

62. _____ refers to an effect in which a prior measurement affects the test unit’s response to the independent variable. a. Mortalityb. Interactive testing effectc. Maturationd. Main testing effect(b, difficult, page 227)

63. _____ refers to an extraneous variable involving changes in the measuring instrument or in the observers or scores themselves.a. Instrumentation

b. Statistical regressionc. Selection biasd. None of the above (a, easy, page 227)

64. _____ refers to an extraneous variable that occurs when test units with extreme scores move closer to the average score during the course of the experiment.a. Instrumentationb. Statistical regressionc. Selection biasd. None of the above(b, difficult, page 227)

65. _____ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to the improper assignment of test units to treatment conditions.a. Instrumentationb. Statistical regressionc. Selection biasd. None of the above(c, moderate, page 227)

66. _____ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to the loss of test units while the experiment is in progress. a. Mortalityb. Interactive testing effectc. Maturationd. Main testing effect(a, difficult, page 227)

67. If the experimental design called for the respondents to be randomly assigned to one of three experimental groups and for one of three versions of a test commercial to be randomly administered to each group, this design would be using _____.a. design controlb. statistical controlc. randomizationd. matching(c, easy, page 228)

68. _____ involves measuring the extraneous variables and adjusting for their effects through statistical analysis.a. Design controlb. Statistical controlc. Randomizationd. Matching (b, easy, page 228)

69. If in test marketing a new product, the researcher ensures that the product is positioned in the correct aisle in each store and obtains the right level of store acceptance and all commodity volume distribution, more than likely, the researcher used _____ to help control for extraneous variables.a. design controlb. statistical controlc. randomizationd. matching(a, difficult, page 229)

70. The one-group pretest-posttest is a type of _____. These designs do not control for extraneous factors by randomization. a. quasi-experimental design b. true experimental designc. statistical designd. preexperimental design(d, moderate, page 229)

71. Pretest-posttest control group and Solomon four-group designs are _____distinguished by the fact that the researcher can randomly assign test units to experimental groups and also randomly assign treatments to experimental groups.a. quasi-experimental designs b. true experimental designsc. statistical designsd. preexperimental designs(b, moderate, page 229)

72. _____ result when the researcher is unable to achieve full manipulation of scheduling or allocation of treatments to test units but can still apply part of the apparatus of true experimentation. a. Quasi-experimental designs b. True experimental designsc. Statistical designsd. Preexperimental designs(a, moderate, page 229)

73. _____ allow for the statistical control and analysis of external variables.a. Quasi-experimental designs b. True experimental designsc. Statistical designsd. Preexperimental designs(c, moderate, page 229)

74. Which statement is not true about laboratory experiments?a. The laboratory environment offers a high degree of control because it isolates

the experiment in a carefully monitored environment.b. The artificiality of the environment may cause reactive error, in that the

respondents react to the situation itself, rather than to the independent variable.

c. Laboratory experiments are likely to have higher external validity than field experiments.

d. Laboratory experiments allow for more complex designs than field experiments. (c, difficult, page 239)

75. Which of the following statements is true when considering experimental versus non-experimental designs?a. It is difficult in descriptive studies to establish the prior equivalence of the

respondent groups with respect to both the independent and dependent variables. However, experiments can establish this equivalence.

b. Descriptive research offers little control over other possible causal factors.c. In descriptive research, it is also difficult to establish time order of occurrence of

variables. However, in an experiment, the researcher controls the timing of the measurements and the introduction of the treatment.

d. All of the above statements are correct. (d, moderate, page 240)

76. Which of the following is a reason why experiments may be hard to administer?a. It may be impossible to control for the effects of the extraneous variables.b. Competitors may deliberately contaminate the results of a field experiment. c. Both a and b are reasons why experiments may be hard to administer.d. Neither a nor b is a reason why experiments may be hard to administer.(d, easy, page 241)

77. ____ is a test market in which the product is sold through regular distribution channels.a. Simulated test marketb. Partial test marketc. Controlled test marketd. Standard test market (d, easy, page 241)

78. Which statement is not true concerning a standard test market?a. It is a one-shot case study.b. Test markets are selected and the product is sold through regular distribution

channels.c. Where external validity is important, at least four test markets should be used.d. All statements are correct. (d, moderate, pages 241-242)

79. _____ is a test marketing program conducted by an outside research company in

field experimentation. The research company guarantees distribution of the product in retail outlets that represent a pre-determined percentage of the market.a. Simulated test marketb. Partial test marketc. Controlled test marketd. Standard test market(c, moderate, page 243)

80. Which statement is not true about why it is difficult to conduct field experiments in the international arena?a. In many countries, the TV stations are owned and operated by the government

with severe restrictions on television advertising. This makes field experiments manipulating advertising levels extremely difficult.

b. The lack of major supermarkets in the Baltic states makes it difficult to conduct field experiments to determine the effect of in-store promotions on the sales of products.

c. Even when basic infrastructures such as roads, transportation, and warehouse facilities are adequate, they do not help in achieving desired levels of distribution.

d. Even when experiments are designed, it is difficult to control for the time order of occurrence of variables and the absence of other possible causal factors, two of the necessary conditions for causality.


81. Which of the following is an ethical concern associated with doing experiments?a. how to disguise the purpose of the research in a manner that does not violate

the rights of the respondentsb. how to find respondents for the experimentc. ensuring that the appropriate experimental design for the problem was usedd. both a and c are correct(d, moderate, page 244)

82. Which of the following is not true about the debriefing procedure?a. After the data have been collected, the true purpose of the study and the nature

of the disguise should be fully explained to the respondents and they should be given an opportunity to withdraw their information.

b. Debriefing can alleviate stress and make the experiment a learning experience for the respondents.

c. Inform the respondents at the beginning that the experiment has been disguised.

d. Both a and c are not true.(c, moderate, page 244)

Chapter 9Measurement and Scaling: Noncomparative Scaling TechniquesTrue/False Questions

1. A noncomparative scale is one of two scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independent of the other objects in the stimulus set.(True, moderate, page 272)

2. Noncomparative techniques are comprised of continuous and itemized rating scales.(False, moderate, page 272)

3. Non-comparative scales are often referred to as monadic scale.(True, moderate, page 272)

4. Respondents using a non-comparative scale employ whatever rating standard seems appropriate to them.(True, moderate, page 272)

5. The New York City Transit used Likert scales to determine people’s perceptions of the subway system and address their concerns, leading to increased ridership.(True, moderate, page 272)

6. In an itemized rating scale, the respondents are provided with a scale that has a number or brief description associated with each category.(True, moderate, page 274)

7. Itemized rating scales are widely used in marketing research and form the basic components of more complex scales.(True, moderate, page 274)

8. Typically, each Likert scale item has seven response categories, ranging from “strongly disagree” to “strongly agree.”(False, moderate, page 274)

9. Likert scale analysis can be conducted on an item-by-item basis (profile analysis). (True, moderate, page 275)

10. Profile analysis involves determining the average respondent ratings for each item.(True, moderate, page 275)

11. The Likert scale is also referred to as a summated scale.(True, moderate, page 275)

12. The negative adjective or phrase sometimes appears at the left side of the scale and sometimes at the right. This controls the tendency of some respondents, particularly those with very positive or negative attitudes, to mark the right-or-left-hand sides without reading the labels. (True, moderate, page 276)

13. The semantic differential is a five-point rating scale with endpoints associated with bipolar labels that have semantic meaning. (False, moderate, page 276)

14. Individual items on a semantic differential scale may be scored on either a -3 to +3 or a 1 to -7 scale.(True, moderate, page 277)

15. Although the mean is most often used as a summary statistic with semantic differential scale data, there is some controversy as to whether the data obtained should be treated as an interval scale.(True, moderate, page 277)

16. The Stapel scale is usually presented horizontally.(False, easy, page 277)

17. An advantage of the Stapel scale is it can be administered over the telephone.(True, difficult, page 278)

18. Of the three itemized rating scales considered, the semantic differential scale is used the least.(False, moderate, page 278)

19. The size of the correlation coefficient, a common measure of relationship between variables in itemized rating scales, is influenced by the number of scale categories. The correlation coefficient increases with a reduction in the number of categories.False, difficult, page 278)

20. The smaller the number of scale categories, the finer the discrimination among stimulus objects that is possible.(False, moderate, page 278)

21. When determining the number of scale categories to use in a non-comparative itemized rating scale, the nature of the object is relevant. (True, moderate, page 278)

22. When determining the number of scale categories to use in a non-comparative itemized rating scale, if individual responses are of interest, or the data will be analyzed by sophisticated statistical techniques, five or more scale categories may be required.(False, difficult, page 278)

23. The Likert scale is a balanced rating scale with an odd number of categories and a neutral point.(True, easy, page 279)

24. A forced rating scale forces the respondents to express an opinion because “no opinion” or “no knowledge” options are not provided.(True, easy, page 279)

25. In situations where the respondents are expected to have no opinions, as opposed to simply being reluctant to disclose it, the accuracy of data may be improved by a non-forced scale that includes a “no opinion” category.(True, easy, page 279)

26. It has been found that providing a verbal description for each scale category consistently improves the accuracy or reliability of the data.(False, moderate, page 279)

27. Non-comparative itemized rating scales with strong adjectives as anchors (1=generally disagree, 7=generally agree) result in less variable and more peaked response contributions.(True, difficult, page 279)

28. The number of scale categories used in noncomparative itemized scales is fixed at five.(False, easy, page 280)

29. A construct is the theory being measured.(False, moderate, page 282)

30. The scale development process is an iterative one.(True, easy, page 282)

31. Reliability refers to the extent to which a scale produces valid results if repeated measurements are made.(False, moderate, page 284)

32. Systematic sources of error do have an adverse impact on reliability because they affect the measurement in a constant way and do not lead to inconsistency.(True, moderate, page 284)

33. Reliability is assessed by determining the proportion of systematic variation in a scale.(True, moderate, page 284)

34. In alternative-forms reliability, the same respondents are measured at two different times, usually one to three weeks apart, with a different scale form being administered each time.(False, difficult, page 285)

35. With alternative forms reliability, a low correlation may reflect either an unreliable scale or nonequivalent forms.(True, moderate, page 285)

36. An important property of coefficient alpha is that its value tends to decrease with an increase in the number of scale items.(False, moderate, page 285)

37. Coefficient alpha assists in determining whether the averaging process used in calculating coefficient beta is masking any inconsistent items.False, moderate, page 285)

38. Perfect validity requires that there be no measurement error, therefore: (XO = XT, XR = 0, XS = 0).(True, difficult, page 286)

39. Given its subjective nature, content validity alone is a sufficient measure of the validity of a scale.(False, moderate, page 286)

40. Construct validity is the simplest and easiest type of validity to establish.(False, moderate, page 287)

41. Using several scale items to measure the characteristic of interest provides more accurate measurement than a single-item scale.(True, easy, page 288)

42. The semantic differential scale may be said to be pan-cultural or free of cultural bias.(True, moderate, page 288)

43. The researcher can bias the scales by either biasing the wording of the statements (Likert type scales), the scale descriptors, or other aspects of the scale. (True, easy, page 289)


46. In a _____, respondents rate the objects by placing a mark at the appropriate position on a line that runs from one extreme of the criterion variable to the other.

a. semantic differential scaleb. Likert scalec. continuous rating scaled. Stapel scale

(c, easy, page 272)

47. Scores assigned to continuous rating scales by the researcher are typically treated as _____ data.

a. nominalb. ordinalc. ratiod. interval


48. Which non-comparative scale has the advantage of being easy to construct and the disadvantage of cumbersome scoring unless the scoring is computerized (Table 9.1 in text)?a. semantic differential scaleb. Likert scalec. continuous rating scaled. Stapel scale(c, difficult, page 272)

49. Which scale is not an itemized rating scale (Table 9.1 in text)?a. Stapel scaleb. semantic differential scalec. Likert scaled. continuous rating scale

(d, easy, page 272)

50. Which of the following statements does not pertain to non-comparative scales? a. Comparative scales are often referred to as monadic scales.b. Respondents using a non-comparative scale employ whatever rating standard

seems appropriate. c. Data must be interpreted in relative terms and have only ordinal or rank order

properties. d. Non-comparative techniques consist of continuous and itemized rating scales.(c, moderate, page 272-273)

51. A _____ is a measurement scale with five response categories ranging from “strongly disagree” to “strongly agree,” which requires the respondents to indicate a degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements related to the stimulus objects.a. semantic differential scaleb. Likert scalec. continuous rating scaled. Stapel scale(b, easy, page 274)

52. The author of your text and his colleagues have developed a scale for measuring Internet users’ information privacy concerns. The Awareness (of Privacy Practices) scale uses seven-point scales anchored with “strongly disagree” and “strongly agree.” This is an example of a _____. a. continuous rating scaleb. staple scale.c. semantic differential scaled. Likert scale(d, moderate, page 275)

53.

54. Which non-comparative scale is analyzed using profile analysis?a. Likert scaleb. semantic differential scalec. Stapel scaled. all of the above(d, difficult, pages 275, 277, 278)

55. Which itemized rating scale takes longer to complete than other itemized rating scales because respondents have to read each statement?a. semantic differential scaleb. Likert scalec. continuous rating scaled. Stapel scale(b, difficult, page 275)

56. The Likert scale has several advantages. Which of the following is not an advantage?a. It does not require a pretest of the adjectives or phrases to ensure bipolarity. b. Respondents readily understand how to us the scale.c. It is suitable for mail, telephone, or personal interviews. d. It is easy to construct and administer.(a, difficult, page 275)

57. A _____ is a seven point rating scale with endpoints associated with bi-polar labels that have semantic meaning. a. semantic differential scaleb. Likert scalec. continuous rating scaled. Stapel scale(a, easy, page 276)

58. The _____ is known for its versatility and is very popular with marketing researchers.

a. continuous rating scaleb. Stapel scalec. semantic differential scaled. Likert scale(c, difficult, page 277)

59. A _____ is a scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the middle of an even-numbered range of values, from -5 to +5, without a neutral point (zero). a. semantic differential scaleb. Likert scalec. continuous rating scaled. Stapel scale (d, moderate, page 277)

60. Which scale asks the respondent to indicate how accurately or inaccurately each term describes the object by selecting an appropriate numerical response category?a. continuous rating scaleb. Stapel scalec. semantic differential scaled. Likert scale(b, difficult, page 277)

61. The data obtained by using a Stapel scale can be analyzed in the same way as a_____.a. continuous rating scaleb. Stapel scalec. semantic differential scaled. Likert scale(c, difficult, page 278)

62. The _____ is confusing and difficult to apply. It is the least used of the itemized scales.a. continuous rating scaleb. Stapel scalec. semantic differential scaled. Likert scale(b, difficult, page 278)

63. Which of the following statements is not a consideration when making non-comparative itemized rating scale decisions?a. the number of scale categories to useb. forced versus non-forced choicec. the order of the scale questionsd. balanced versus unbalanced scales(c, moderate, page 278)

64. Which statement is not true if deciding on the number of scale categories to use in a non-comparative itemized rating scale? a. Traditional guidelines suggest that the appropriate number of categories should

be seven plus or minus two: between five and nine.b. The smaller the number of scale categories, the finer the discrimination among

stimulus objects that is possible.c. If the respondents are not very knowledgeable or involved with the task, fewer

categories should be used. d. How the data are to be analyzed and used should also influence the number of

categories.(b, difficult, page 278)

65. Which statement is true if deciding on the number of scale categories to use in a non-comparative itemized rating scale? a. If the respondents are interested in the scaling task and are knowledgeable

about the objects, a larger number of categories may be employed.b. Space limitations may restrict the number of categories in mail questionnaires.c. If telephone interviews are involved, many categories may confuse the

respondents. d. All of the statement above are true.(d, moderate, page 278)

66. Which statement is not true when deciding on whether to use balanced or unbalanced scales when developing a non-comparative itemized rating scale?a. The scale should be balanced to obtain objective data.b. In a balanced scale, the number of favorable and unfavorable categories are

equal.c. If the distribution of responses is likely to be skewed, either positively or

negatively, a balanced scale with more categories in the direction of skewness may be appropriate.

d. If an unbalanced scale is used, the nature and degree of unbalance in the scale should be taken into account in data analysis.


67. Which statement is not true when deciding on whether to use an odd or even number of categories when developing a non-comparative itemized rating scale?

a. With an odd number of categories, the middle scale position is generally designated neutral or impartial.

b. The decision to use an odd or even number of categories depends on whether some of the respondents may be neutral on the response being measured.

c. A rating scale with an even number of categories should be used if the researcher wants to force a response.

d. All of the above statements are true.(d, easy, page 279)

68. Deciding whether to present scales as vertical or horizontal is related to which of the non-comparative itemized rating scale decisions? a. number of scale categoriesb. physical form or configurationc. odd or even number of categoriesd. nature and degree of verbal description(b, easy, page 280)

69. The scale descriptors ‘very bad,’ ‘bad,’ ‘neither bad nor good,’ ‘good,’ and ‘very good’ are commonly used when studying the _____ construct (Table 9.3 in text).a. attitudeb. satisfactionc. purchase frequencyd. purchase intent(a, moderate, page 281)

70. The scale descriptors ‘never,’ ‘rarely,’ ‘sometimes,’ ‘often,’ and ‘very often’ are commonly used when studying the _____ construct (Table 9.3 in text).a. attitudeb. satisfactionc. purchase frequencyd. purchase intent(c, moderate, page 281)

71. _____ is the first step in developing a multi-item scale. _____ is the last step.a. Generate an initial pool of item; Prepare the final scale b. Develop a theory; Prepare a final scalec. Develop a theory; Develop a purified scaled. Generate an initial pool of items; Develop a purified scale(b, moderate, page 282)

72. A multi-item scale should be evaluated for accuracy and applicability. This involves an assessment of all of the following except _____. a. reliability b. generalizabilityc. stability d. validity(c, moderate, page 283)

73. Validity can be assessed by examining all of the following except: a. item validity b. content validityc. criterion validityd. construct validity(a, moderate, page 283)

74. _____ is the variation in the information sought by the researcher and the information generated by the measurement process employed.

a. Systematic errorb. Measurement error c. Random error

d. Variable error(b, difficult, page 283)

75. Which of the following is not an approach to assess multi-item scale reliability? a. test-retest reliability b. construct reliabilityc. alternative forms reliabilityd. internal consistency reliability (b, moderate, page 284)

76. Situational factors, such as the lack of clarity of the scale, including the instructions or the items themselves and, analysis factors, such as differences in scoring and statistical analysis are both _____ in measurement.a. random errorb. potential sources of reliabilityc. potential sources of error d. systematic error(c, difficult, page 284)

77. _____ represents stable factors that affect the observed score in the same way each time the measurement is made, such as mechanical factors (see Fig. 9.6 in text). a. Systematic errorb. Measurement error c. Random errord. Variable error(a, moderate, page 284)

78. _____ is not constant. It represents transient factors that affect the observed score in different ways each time the measurement is made, such as transient personal or situational factors.a. Systematic errorb. Measurement error c. Random errord. Variable error(c, moderate, page 284)

79. _____ is the extent to which a scale produces consistent results if repeated measurements are made on the characteristic.a. validityb. generalizability c. reliabilityd. none of the above(c, difficult, page 284)

80. _____ is an approach for assessing reliability in which respondents are administered identical sets of scale items at two different times under as nearly equivalent conditions as possible.a. Internal consistency reliabilityb. Split-half reliabilityc. Test-retest reliabilityd. Alternative-forms reliability(c, moderate, page 284)

81. In _____ the degree of similarity between two measurements is determined by computing a correlation coefficient. The higher the correlation coefficient, the greater the reliability.a. test-retest reliabilityb. internal consistency reliabilityc. coefficient alphad. coefficient data(a, difficult, page 284, 285)

82. There are several problems associated with the test-retest approach to determining reliability. If measuring respondents’ attitude toward low-fat milk may cause them to become more health conscious and develop a more positive attitude toward low-fat milk, then there is a problem with _____.a. the time interval between testing.b. the initial measurement altering the characteristic being measured.c. it being impossible to make repeated measurements.d. the first measurement having a carryover effect to the second or subsequent

measurements.(b, difficult, pages 284-285)

83. Which of the following is not a problem with alternative-forms reliability?a. The results will depend on how the scale items are split. b. It is time consuming and expensive to construct an equivalent form of the scale. c. It is difficult to construct two equivalent forms of a scale.d. Both b and c are correct.(a, difficult, pages 284, 285)

84. _____ is an approach for assessing the internal consistency of the set of items when several items are summated in order to form a total score for the scale.a. Internal consistency reliabilityb. Split-half reliabilityc. Test-retest reliabilityd. Alternative-forms reliability(a, easy, page 285)

85. _____ is a form of internal consistency reliability in which the items constituting the scale are divided into two halves and the resulting half scores are correlated.a. Internal consistency reliabilityb. Split-half reliabilityc. Test-retest reliabilityd. Alternative-forms reliability(b, easy, page 285)

86. _____ is a measure of internal consistency reliability that is the average of all possible split-half coefficients resulting from different splittings of the scale items.a. Coefficient delta b. Coefficient alphac. Coefficient betad. Coefficient eta(b, moderate, page 285)

87. _____ is the extent to which differences in observed scale scores reflect true differences among objects on the characteristics being measured, rather than systematic or random errors. a. Validity b. Generalizability c. Reliability

d. None of the above (a, difficult, page 286)

88. _____ is a type of validity, sometimes called face validity, that consists of a subjective but systematic evaluation of the representativeness of the content of a scale for the measuring task at hand.a. Construct validity b. Content validity c. Criterion validityd. Internal consistency validity(b, difficult, page 286)

89. A scale designed to measure store image would be considered inadequate if it omitted any of the major dimensions (quality, variety, assortment of merchandise, etc.). This inadequacy would be reflected in the _____ of the scale.a. construct validity b. content validity c. criterion validityd. internal consistency validity(b, difficult, page 286)

90. _____ is a type of validity that examines whether the measurement scale performs as expected in relation to other variables selected as meaningful criteria.a. Construct validity b. Content validity c. Criterion validityd. Internal consistency validity(c, difficult, page 286)

91. _____ is assessed when the data on the scale being evaluated on the criterion variables are collected at the same time.a. Convergent validityb. Predictive validityc. Concurrent validityd. Discriminant validity (c, moderate, page 286)

92. To assess _____, a type of criterion validity, the researcher collects data on the scale at one point in time and data on the criterion variables at a future time.a. convergent validityb. predictive validityc. concurrent validityd. discriminant validity (b, moderate, page 286)

93. _____ is a type of validity that addresses the question of what construct or characteristic the scale is measuring. An attempt is made to answer theoretical questions of why a scale works and what deductions can be made concerning the theory underlying the scale.a. Construct validity b. Content validity c. Criterion validityd. Internal consistency validity(a, easy, page 287)

94. _____ is a measure of construct validity that measures the extent to which the scale correlates positively with other measures of the same construct.a. Convergent validityb. Discriminant validityc. Nomological validityd. Concurrent validity (a, difficult, page 287)

95. _____ is a type of construct validity that assesses the extent to which a measure does not correlate with other constructs from which it is supposed to differ.a. Convergent validityb. Discriminant validityc. Nomological validityd. Concurrent validity(b, difficult, page 287)

96. _____ is the a type of validity that assesses the relationship between theoretical constructs. It seeks to confirm significant correlations between the constructs as predicted by theory.a. Convergent validityb. Discriminant validityc. Nomological validityd. Concurrent validity(c, difficult, page 287)

97. Which statement is not true regarding the relationship between reliability and validity?a. If a measure is perfectly valid, it is also perfectly reliable.b. Unreliability implies invalidity.c. If a measure is perfectly reliable, it is perfectly valid.d. Reliability is a necessary, but not sufficient, condition for validity.(c, moderate, page 287)

98. _____ is the degree to which a study based on a sample applies to a universe of generalizations. a. Validityb. Generalizabilityc. Reliabilityd. None of the above (b, easy, page 287)

99. Which statement about generalizability is not true?a. The set of all conditions of measurement over which the investigator wishes to

generalize is the universe of generalizations.b. In generalizability studies, measurement procedures are designed to investigate

the universes of interest by sampling conditions of measurement from each of them.

c. To generalize to other universes, facet theory procedures must be employed.d. Traditional reliability methods can be viewed as single-facet generalizability

studies.(c, difficult, page 288)

100. When choosing a scaling technique, which of the following factors should be considered?a. the capabilities of the respondentsb. the levels of information needed (nominal, ordinal, interval, or ratio)c. the method of administrationd. all of the above(d, easy, page 288)

101. When developing scales for international research, the researcher must pay special attention to details that can make the measurement instrument specific to the country in which the instrument will be used. Which of the following should be of concern to the marketing researcher when developing scales for international research?a. Special attention should be devoted to determining equivalent verbal descriptors

in different languages and cultures.b. Scale endpoints and the verbal descriptors should be employed in a manner that

is consistent with the culture.c. It is critical to establish the equivalence of scales and measures used to obtain

data from different countries.d. All of the above are correct.(d, moderate, page 289)

102. A researcher developed scales using a 7-point scale with anchor descriptors of ‘horrible’ and ‘good’. This researcher has created an ethical violation in the area of _____?a. generalizabilityb. biasc. validityd. none of the above(c, moderate, page 289)

Chapter 10Questionnaire and Form DesignTrue/False Questions

79. A standardized questionnaire or form will ensure comparability of the data, increase speed and accuracy of recording, and facilitate data processing.(True, easy, page 299)

80. Another name for questionnaire is schedule instrument.(False, moderate, page 299)

81. A questionnaire is an informal set of questions for obtaining information from respondents.(False, easy, page 299)

82. Two apparently similar ways of posing a question always yields the same information.(False, easy, page 299)

83. A well-designed questionnaire can motivate the respondents and increase the response rate.True, easy, page 299)

84. A questionnaire is a major source of response error.(True, moderate, page 299)

85. The steps in the questionnaire design process are interrelated and the development of a questionnaire will involve some iteration and looping.(True, moderate, page 300)

86. The more diversified the respondent group, the more difficult it is to design a single questionnaire that is appropriate for the entire group.(True, easy, page 301)

87. All questions on a questionnaire should contribute to the information needed or serve some specific purpose.(True, easy, pages 302-303)

88. Respondents may not be able to respond because they are unable to articulate a response, they may not be informed, or they may not remember. (True, moderate, page 304)

89. Respondents do not answer questions on which they are not informed.(False, easy, page 304)

90. Filter questions enable the researcher to filter out respondents who are not adequately informed.(True, easy, page 304)

91. A “don’t know” option does not appear to reduce uninformed responses without reducing the overall response rate or the response rate for questions about which the respondents have information.(False, moderate, page 304)

92. Questions such as “What did you have for lunch a week ago?” are correct questions because consumers are very good at remembering quantities of products consumed.(False, easy, page 304)

93. Creation error is the inability to recall an event that actually took place.(False, difficult, page 305)

94. Research indicates that questions that rely on unaided recall can underestimate the actual occurrence of an event.(True, moderate, page 305)

95. Omission error takes place when a respondent “remembers” and event that did not actually occur.(False, moderate, page 305)

96. Omission, telescoping, and creation errors that may occur if the respondent has a problem remembering the information asked in the questionnaire.(True, moderate, page 305)

97. Respondents that are unwilling to give responses should be given aids such as pictures, maps, and descriptions to help them articulate their responses.(False, moderate, page 305)

98. Respondents with responses that are difficult to articulate should be given aids such as pictures, maps, and descriptions to help them articulate their responses.(True, moderate, page 305)

99. Respondents may be unwilling to answer a particular question because too much effort is required or they may not remember the information that is being asked.(False, difficult, page 305)

100. The researcher can manipulate the context in which the questions are asked so that the questions seem appropriate.(True, moderate, page 306)

101. Sensitive topics should be placed at the beginning of the questionnaire to get the difficult questions over with.(False, moderate, page 306)

102. “What is your occupation?” is a free-answer question.(True, moderate, page 307)

103. Free-response questions are good as first questions on a topic.(True, difficult, page 307)

104. A principal disadvantage of structured questions is that potential for interviewer bias is high.(False, moderate, page 308)

105. A principal disadvantage of unstructured questions is that potential for interviewer bias is high.(True, moderate, page 308)

106. Respondents exhibiting order or position bias tend to check the first or last statement in a list. (True, difficult, page 309)

107. To control for order bias, several forms of the questionnaire should be prepared with the order in which alternatives are listed varied from form to form.(True, easy, page 309)

108. Dichotomous questions cannot have neutral alternatives such as “don’t know” or “no opinion.”(False, moderate, page 309)

109. Choosing question structure is probably the most difficult task in developing a questionnaire.(False, moderate, page 311)

110. When developing questions, the researcher should avoid leading questions like “What is your favorite brand of toothpaste?”(False, moderate, page 313)

111. Mentioning the sponsor of a project in the question might bias the respondent towards the sponsor.(True, moderate, page 313)

112. An alternative that is not explicitly expressed in the options is an explicit alternative. (False, moderate, page 313)

113. There is evidence that the response to a question is influenced by the directionality of the question. (True, easy, page 314)

114. Opening questions should be used to get at the purpose of the questionnaire quickly.(False, easy, page 314)

115. Qualifying questions should not serve as opening questions.(False, easy, page 315)

116. Information should be obtained in the following order: basic, identification, classification.(False, moderate, page 315)

117. The inverted funnel is a strategy for ordering questions in a questionnaire in which the sequence starts with the general questions that are followed by progressively specific questions in order to prevent specific questions from biasing general questions.(False, moderate, page 315)

118. The inverted funnel approach is useful when respondents have no strong feelings or have not formulated a point of view.(True, moderate, page 315-316)

119. In questionnaire design, assigning a code to every conceivable response before data collection is called pre-coding.(True, easy, page 317)

120. All aspects of the questionnaire should be tested, including question content, wording, sequence, form and layout, question difficulty, and instructions.(True, easy, page 319)

121. Respondents for the pretest and for the actual survey should not be drawn from the same population.(False, easy, page 319)

83. Pretests are best done by personal interviews, even if the actual survey is to be conducted by mail, telephone, or electronic means.(True, moderate, page 319)

84. Protocol analysis and debriefing are two commonly used procedures in pretesting.(True, moderate, page 319)

85. The responses obtained from the pretest should be coded and analyzed.(True, moderate, page 319)

47. Forms for recording observational data are more difficult to construct than questionnaires.(False, moderate, page 322)

48. Observational forms and questionnaires require adequate pretesting.(True, easy, page 323)

49. The questionnaire or research instrument should be biased in terms of the country in which it will be used.(False, easy, page 323)

50. Information on demographic characteristics such as marital status, education, household size, occupation, income, and dwelling unit may have to be specified differently for different countries, as these variables may not be directly comparable across countries.(True, moderate, page 323)

51. Unstructured questions reduce cultural bias because they do not impose any response alternatives.(True, easy, pages 323-324)

52. To minimize discomfort, it should be made clear at the beginning of the interview that respondents are not obligated to answer question that makes them uncomfortable. (True, easy, page 325)

53. The researcher has the ethical responsibility of designing the questionnaire so as to obtain the required information in a biased manner.(False, moderate, page 325)

Multiple Choice Questions54. Typically, a questionnaire is only one element of a data-collection package that

might also include all of the following except _____.a. some rewardb. communication aidsc. a data code bookd. fieldwork procedures(c, difficult, page 299)

55. Which of the following is not an objective of a questionnaire? a. A questionnaire must translate the information needed into a set of specific

questions that the respondents can and will answer.b. A questionnaire must be easy to use.c. A questionnaire must uplift, motivate, and encourage the respondent to become

involved in the interview, to cooperate, and to complete the interview.d. A questionnaire should minimize response error.(b, moderate, page 299)

56. The great weakness of questionnaire design is lack of _____.a. precisionb. accuracyc. theoryd. consensus(c, moderate, page 300)

57. The first step in the questionnaire design process is _____.a. specify the type of interview methodb. identify the form and layoutc. specify the information neededd. determine the content of individual questions


58. When developing a questionnaire, to ensure that the information obtained fully addresses all components of the problem, the researcher should _____.a. review components of the problem and the approach.b. prepare a set of dummy tables.c. have a clear idea of the target population.d. all of the above(d, moderate, pages 300-301)

59. The type of method influences questionnaire design. Considering how the questionnaire is administered under each method, which method is most appropriate if lengthy, complex, and varied questions need to be asked?

a. mail questionnaireb. telephone interviewc. personal interviewd. Internet questionnaire


60. If you are deciding between personal interviews or computer-assisted interviewing, you are at which step of the questionnaire design process?a. Specify the type of interviewing method.b. Determine the content of individual questions.c. Arrange the questions in proper order.d. Eliminate bugs by pretesting.(a, easy, page 301)

61. Deciding if a question is necessary or if several questions are needed rather than one are decisions involved with _____.a. determining the order of scalesb. choosing question wordingc. choosing question structured. individual question content(d, moderate, pages 302, 303)

62. “Do you think Coca-Cola is a tasty and refreshing soft drink?” is an example of a _____.a. structured questionb. dichotomous questionc. double-barreled question d. branching question(c, moderate, page 303)

63. A _____ is a single question that attempts to cover two issues.a. structured questionb. dichotomous questionc. double-barreled question d. branching question

(c, easy, page 303)

64. When determining if a question is necessary, in some situations it may be necessary to ask questions that are not directly related to the information that is needed. Which of the reasons stated below were given in your text as reasons why questions not related to the information needed might be included in the questionnaire? a. to establish involvement and rapportb. to disguise the purpose or sponsorship of the projectc. to generate client support for the projectd. all of the above(d, difficult, page 303)

65. Most “why” questions about the use of a product or choice alternative involve two aspects: _____ and _____. a. attributes of the product; influences leading to knowledge of the productb. attributes of the product; how the product is usedc. how the product is used; influences leading to knowledge of the productd. none of the above(a, difficult, page 303)

66. _____ that measure familiarity, product use, and past experience should be asked before questions about the topics themselves. a. Branching questionsb. Filler questions c. Dichotomous questions d. Filter questions(d, moderate, page 304)

67. Is the respondent informed?, Can the respondent remember?, and Can the respondent articulate?, are all questions asked in the _____ stage of the questionnaire design process.a. overcoming unwillingness to answerb. specify the type of interviewing methodc. overcoming inability to answerd. choosing question wording(c, moderate, page 304-305)

68. Respondents’ inability to remember leads to three types of error. Which of the errors listed below is not mentioned in the text as one of the types of errors created by respondents? a. telescopingb. creation errorc. recall errord. omission error(c, difficult, page 305)

69. The respondents’ ability to remember an event is influenced by all of the following except: a. the event itselfb. the time elapsed since the eventc. the presence or absence of events that would aid memoryd. where you were when the event occurred (d, moderate, page 305)

70. Which of the following is not a reason why a respondent might be unwilling to answer a particular question?a. The respondent may not be informed.b. Too much effort is required.c. The situation or context may not seem appropriate for disclosure.d. No legitimate purpose or need for the information requested is apparent. (a, moderate, page 305)

71. When trying to overcome respondents’ unwillingness to answer, the researcher might list of the possible responses a respondent might make. More specifically, the list is an effort by the researcher to _____.

a. increasing the willingness of respondentsb. obtain sensitive informationc. put the information request in contextd. reduce the effort required of the respondents

(d, moderate, page 305-306)

72. Sally was reluctant to answer questions about her personal hygiene until she saw that the survey was sponsored by the American Medical Association. Sally’s understanding of who sponsored the survey helped with which aspect of ‘overcoming the respondent’s unwillingness to answer’? a. legitimate purpose

b. contextc. sensitive informationd. increasing the willingness of the respondent(a, moderate, page 306)

73. _____ refer to open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words.a. Dichotomous questionsb. Structured questionsc. Unstructured questionsd. Branching questions(c, easy, page 307)

74. “Describe your college experience” and “What is your occupation?” are _____ questions.a. dichotomousb. filterc. structuredd. unstructured(d, moderate, page 307)

75. Which of the following statements is not an advantage of unstructured questions? a. Unstructured questions are good as first questions on a topic.b. Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are

more articulate. c. Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than

structured questions.d. Unstructured questions are useful in exploratory research.(b, difficult, page 307)

76. Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of unstructured questions?a. Unstructured questions are not suitable for self-administered questionnaires.b. Coding of responses is costly and time consuming.c. Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than

structured questions.d. Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are

more articulate.(c, easy, page 308)

77. Which of the following statements is not true about unstructured questions?a. Open-ended questions are useful in exploratory research. b. Precoding can overcome some of the disadvantages of unstructured questions.c. Open-ended questions are useful as opening questions.d. Unstructured questions can suffer from order or position bias.(d, moderate, page 308)

78. _____ specify the set of response alternatives and the response format.a. Filter questionsb. Structured questionsc. Unstructured questionsd. Branching questions(b, easy, page 308)

79. Which of the following is not a type of structured question?a. multiple choiceb. dichotomousc. scaled. none of the above(d, easy, page 308)

80. When developing questionnaire questions, if you are considering order position bias and the set of all possible response alternatives, you are developing _____ questions. a. multiple choiceb. dichotomousc. scaled. branching(a, moderate, page 309)

81. Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of structured questions?a. Coding and processing of data are much less costly and time consuming. b. Considerable effort is required to design effective multiple choice questions.c. Showing respondents the list of possible answers produces biased responses.d. It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.(a, easy, page 309)

82. What is the one acute problem of dichotomous questions?a. There is potential for position bias. b. It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.c. The response can be influenced by the wording of the question.d. None of the above.(c, moderate, page 310)

83. _____ is the translation of the desired question content and structure into words that respondents can clearly and easily understand.a. The questionnaire design process b. Question wordingc. Overcoming inability to answerd. Determining the content of individual questions(b, moderate, page 311)

84. When developing a questionnaire, the following guidelines: (1) use positive and negative statements, (2) avoid implicit alternatives, and (3) avoid leading questions, are used when _____.a. arranging questions in proper order b. choosing question wordingc. designing questions to overcome the respondent’s inability to answerd. determining the content of individual questions(b, moderate, page 311)

85. When developing a questionnaire, the six Ws (who, what, when, where, why, and way) are used when _____.a. defining the issue b. choosing question wordingc. avoiding generalizations and estimatesd. determining the content of individual questions(a, moderate, page 311)

86. Choosing between the questions “Do you think the distribution of soft drinks is adequate?” (Incorrect) and “Do you think soft drinks are readily available when you want to buy them?” (Correct) are examples of situations that pertain to _____.

a. avoiding leading questionsb. avoiding ambiguous words c. using positive and negative statementsd. using ordinary words


87. Which of the words below is an ambiguous word? e. oncef. neverg. oftenh. none of the above(c, easy, page 311)

88. When developing a questionnaire, if the researcher is asking him/herself if the word means what he/she intended; if it has any other meanings; if the word has more

than one pronunciation; or if a simpler phrase is suggested then, he/she is probably concerned with _____.a. avoiding leading questionsb. avoiding ambiguous words c. using defining the issued. using ordinary words (b, difficult, page 312)

89. A _____ is a question that gives the respondent a clue as to what answer is desired or leads the respondent to answer in a certain way.a. leading questionb. implicit alternativec. filter questiond. structured question (a, difficult, page 312)

90. Which of the following statements is correct about implicit alternatives?a. Making an implied alternative explicit may increase the percentage of people

selecting that alternative.b. When alternatives are close in preference or large in number, the alternatives at

the end of the list have a greater chance of being selected. c. The split ballot technique should be used to rotate the order in which a list of

alternatives appear.d. All of the above are correct.(d, difficult, page 313)

91. “Do you like to fly when traveling short distances?” is an example of a(n) _____.a. implicit assumption b. implicit alternative c. generalizationd. All of the above are correct.(b, difficult, page 313)

92. “Are you in favor or a balanced budget?” is an example of a(n) _____.a. implicit assumption b. implicit alternative c. generalization

d. All of the above are correct.(a, difficult, page 313)

93. The statement “Questions should be specific, not general.” pertains to the _____ aspect of questionnaire development.a. avoid implicit assumptionsb. avoid implicit alternatives c. avoid generalizations and estimatesd. use unambiguous words(c, moderate, page 313)

94. The information that is of the most importance to the research project and should be obtained first is _____.a. qualifying informationb. identification informationc. basic informationd. classification information(c, difficult, page 313)

95. _____ is information that relates directly to the research problem.

a. Qualifying informationb. Identification informationc. Basic informationd. Classification information(c, moderate, page 315)

96. _____ is socioeconomic and demographic characteristics used to classify respondents.a. Qualifying informationb. Identification informationc. Basic informationd. Classification information(d, difficult, page 315)

97. _____ is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name, address, and phone number.a. Qualifying informationb. Identification informationc. Basic informationd. Classification information(b, difficult, page 315)

98. Which of the following statements is true about difficult questions?a. Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the section on basic

information. b. Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the identification section.c. Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the classification section.d. All of the statements are correct.(d, moderate, page 315)

103. Which statement is correct concerning the effect on subsequent questions?a. As a rule of thumb, general questions should precede specific questions to

prevent specific questions from biasing responses to general questions. b. The inverted funnel approach is useful when respondents have no strong

feelings or have not formulated a point of view. c. The inverted funnel approach is particularly useful when information has to be

obtained about respondents’ general choice behavior and their evaluations of specific products.

d. All are correct.(d, moderate, pages 315-316)

104. _____ are questions used to guide an interviewer through a survey by directing the interviewer to different spots on the questionnaire depending on the answers given.a. Leading questions b. Branching questions c. Opening questions d. Multiple choice questions(b, moderate, page 316)

105. Experiments on mail questionnaires for census of population revealed what about questionnaire form and layout?a. Questions at the top of the page received more attention than those placed at

the bottom.b. Sensitive information placed at the end of the questionnaire was answered more

frequently than sensitive information placed elsewhere.c. Instructions printed in red made little difference except that they made the

questionnaire appear more complicated to the respondents.d. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct.(d, moderate, page 317)

106. Which of the following practices should be avoided when reproducing the questionnaire?a. If the printed questionnaire runs to several pages, it should take the form of a

booklet. b. Sideways formatting and splitting should be done to conserve space. c. Directions or instructions should be placed as close to the questions as possible.d. Surveys directed at different respondent groups can be reproduced on different

colored paper.(b, moderate, pages 318-319)

107. _____ is the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents for the purpose of improving the questionnaire by identifying and eliminating potential problems.a. Funneling b. Telescoping c. Posttestingd. Pretesting(d, moderate, page 319)

108. Which statement is not true about pretests?a. To the extent possible, a pretest should involve administering the questionnaire

in an environment and context similar to that of the actual survey.b. A variety of interviewers should be used for pretests. c. The project director, the researcher who developed the questionnaire, and other

key members of the research team should conduct some pretest interviews.d. It is a good practice to employ only experienced interviewers to conduct

pretests.(d, difficult, pages 319-320)

109. Observational forms should specify the who, what, and when of the behavior to be observed. The forms should also specify all of the items below except: a. whereb. whetherc. whyd. way(b, moderate, page 323)

110. Which of the following statements are true concerning questionnaire design for international marketing research?a. The questionnaire may have to be suitable for administration by more than one

method. b. It is desirable to have two or more simple questions rather than a single complex

question.c. Unstructured or open-ended questions should be used with caution in countries

with high illiteracy rates.d. All of the above statements are true.(d, moderate, pages 323-324)

111. According to the guidelines of the Professional Marketing Research Society of Canada, with the exception of _____, questionnaires that take more than _____ minutes to complete are generally considered “overly” long?a. in-home personal interviews; 60b. computer-assisted personal interviews; 60c. in-home personal interviews; 30d. computer-assisted personal interviews; 30(c, difficult, page 325)

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