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1. When a sugar cube is added to water, it dissolves. This occurs because the sugar molecules are A. small and can move between the water molecules. B. in constant random motion and separate from each other. C. more attracted to each other than to water. D. breaking apart into smaller molecules. 2. I. temperature II. pressure III. surface area The process of a solid dissolving into a liquid is affected by A. I and II. B. II and III. C. I and III. D. I, II, and III. 3. Many common drinks are weakly acidic. What is the typical taste of a weak acid solution? A. bitter B. salty C. sour D. sweet 4. Mr. Smith lists five household items and asks his students to classify them into acidic, basic, and neutral substances. The table below shows the classification of the items made by four of his students. Which student correctly classifies the items?

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1. When a sugar cube is added to water, it dissolves. This occurs because the sugar molecules are

A. small and can move between the water molecules.B. in constant random motion and separate from each other.C. more attracted to each other than to water.D. breaking apart into smaller molecules.

2. I. temperature II. pressure III. surface area The process of a solid dissolving into a liquid is affected by

A. I and II.B. II and III.C. I and III.D. I, II, and III.

3. Many common drinks are weakly acidic. What is the typical taste of a weak acid solution?

A. bitterB. saltyC. sourD. sweet

4. Mr. Smith lists five household items and asks his students to classify them into acidic, basic, and neutral substances. The table below shows the classification of the items made by four of his students. 

   Which student correctly classifies the items?

A. DickB. JanetC. JoeD. Mary

5. The rate at which a solid dissolves in a liquid can be increased by increasing the temperature, by increasing the speed of stirring, or by decreasing the particle size of the solid. How do ALL THREE of these changes act to increase the rate of solution?

A. They all decrease the size of the solute molecules.B. They all increase the velocity of the solvent molecules.C. They all increase the rate at which solvent molecules come in contact with solute molecules.D. They all reduce the activation energy needed to make the solution process proceed beyond a high-

energy barrier.

6. Dentists use mixtures of liquid mercury (Hg) and solid silver (Ag) for fillings in teeth. A typical composition is 4.0 grams mercury and 50.0 grams of silver. The mercury would be called the

A. solvent.B. solution.C. solute.D. dissolving medium.

7. The graph below shows the solubility curves of various compounds at different temperatures. 

   Which compound forms a saturated solution at with the maximum amount of solute?

A.B.C.D.

8. The solubility of some common compounds at various temperatures is shown in the following graph. 

 Which pair of compounds has the same solubility at ?

A. and B. and C. and D. and

 9. Which energy transformation takes place in a working solar cell?

A. chemical energy into potential energyB. chemical energy into electrical energyC. solar energy into electrical energyD. solar energy into chemical energy

10. Ms. Greer told the students that food transfers energy to the body, where it is transformed into heat and motion. In which form is energy stored when it is in food?

A. chemicalB. electricalC. kineticD. mechanical

11. During the process of photosynthesis, plants absorb sunlight and convert carbon dioxide and water into sugar and oxygen. What is the basic energy transformation that takes place during photosynthesis?

A. electrical energy to heat energyB. chemical energy to electrical energyC. heat energy to electromagnetic energyD. electromagnetic energy to chemical energy

12. Ms. Pierre explains to her class that in a hydroelectric power station, water is allowed to fall from a great height through a turbine. As a result, the blades of the turbine rotate and current is produced. Which sequence of energy transformation can be identified in Ms. Pierre’s explanation?

A.B.C.D.

 

13. Rainwater falling at higher elevations causes erosion as it flows downhill. Which form of energy in the water is responsible for soil erosion?

A. chemicalB. heatC. kineticD. potential

14. An electric heating coil consumes a certain amount of electrical energy and converts it to a smaller amount of heat energy. What happens to the remaining amount of electrical energy consumed?

A. It is converted to matter.B. It is converted to light energy.C. It is destroyed during the conversion.D. It returns to the electrical power plant.

 15. Isabel studies a pendulum in a lab activity, as shown below. 

   Which energy change occurs when the pendulum moves from point B to point A?

A. Kinetic and potential energy both increase.B. Kinetic and potential energy both decrease.C. Kinetic energy converts into potential energy.D. Potential energy converts into kinetic energy.

16. Electricity was transferred from a generator to an incandescent light bulb. After five minutes the bulb was still lit and also became very hot. Which BEST explains why the bulb became hot?

A. The energy was converted into light and heat energy.B. The light energy given off by the bulb caused the bulb to heat up.C. The energy transferred from the generator was at too high an efficiency.D. The energy transferred from the generator was transferred at a very low efficiency.

17. The picture below shows how a power plant operates. 

 Which energy transformation takes place in the generator of the plant?

A. chemical energy into electrical energyB. electrical energy into mechanical energyC. chemical energy into mechanical energyD. mechanical energy into electrical energy

18. Which of these BEST illustrates the transformation of energy from one form to another?

A. a glowing light bulbB. a compressed springC. a child sleeping on a bedD. a suitcase sitting at the top of the stairs

19. The specific heat of iron is 0.45 J/gK. What is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 12 g of iron by exactly 15 K?

A. 6.8 JB. 27 JC. 81 JD. 400 J

20. The specific heat of aluminum is . How much heat is given off when  grams of aluminum is cooled from to ?

A.B.C.D.

21. The cooling curve below shows that the temperature of a material remained constant at 30°C for some time and then continued to cool. 

 Which property of the material was changing during this time period of constant temperature? 

A. massB. phaseC. melting pointD. kinetic energy

22. The diagram below shows different phases of water as ice is heated in an isolated system. 

 Though heat is added continuously to water, the temperature does not increase between points A and B. What happens to the added heat energy between these two points?

A. Heat is absorbed by water molecules, and their kinetic energy increases.B. Heat is absorbed by water molecules, and their potential energy increases.C. Heat is absorbed by water molecules, and intermolecular distances decrease.

D. Heat is absorbed by water molecules, and new bonds are formed between molecules. 23. During which portion of the graph is a phase change occurring?

    A. I and III

B. I, III, and VC. II and IV

D. III, IV, and V

24. Phases of matter are based on molecular motion at different temperatures. Which phases of matter show decreasing molecular motion at a fixed temperature?

A. gas, liquid, solidB. liquid, solid, gasC. solid, gas, liquidD. solid, liquid, gas

25. Four substances of equal volumes need to be used in an experiment. The substances are: wood, water, helium, iron All the substances exist at the same room temperature and atmospheric pressure. Which sequence shows them in the order of decreasing molecular motion?

A. helium, water, wood, ironB. iron, wood, water, heliumC. water, helium, iron, woodD. wood, iron, water, helium

26. Melissa is comparing the molecular motion of different materials. She keeps the following containers open.

A. A cylinder containing hydrogen sulfideB. A bottle containing surgical spiritC. A plate containing stale food

She can smell hydrogen sulfide at a farther distance than surgical spirit and stale food. What is the BEST conclusion about the molecular motion of these materials?

D. Molecular motion is the same in surgical spirit and stale food.B. Molecular motion is greater in stale food than in surgical spirit.C. Molecular motion is the same in surgical spirit and hydrogen sulfide.D. Molecular motion is greater in hydrogen sulfide than in surgical spirit.

27. Helen is comparing two substances, and . She writes down the properties of the two substances with respect to their molecular motion. 

 In which phases do the substances and exist?

A. , B. , C. , D. , Z = liquid

28. The diagram below shows a piston in three different positions as it moves down in a cylinder containing a gas. 

 How is the piston affecting the pressure and volume of the gas?

A. The piston is decreasing the pressure and the volume.B. The piston is increasing the pressure and the volume.C. The piston is decreasing the pressure and increasing the volume.D. The piston is increasing the pressure and decreasing the volume.

 29. A can filled with air is heated to force some of the air out of the can. When the can is capped and cooled it will crush because the pressure inside has __________ due to __________ molecules colliding against the surface.

A. increased; moreB. decreased; moreC. increased; fewerD. decreased; fewer

30. Gas pressure can be measured on a surface because gas molecules will _________ on the surface.

A. floatB. collideC. mixD. diffuse

31. As molecules collide with the surface of a container, they create

A. density.B. potential energy.C. pressure.D. mass.

32. A liquid substance is heated above room temperature. Which statement correctly describes the substance’s molecules after they were heated?

A. They have slower speeds.B. They have the same speed.C. They move with less kinetic energy.D. They move with greater kinetic energy.

33. The frying pan in the diagram below is made completely of iron. 

 How does heat move from the bottom of the pan to the handle?

A. Free electrons move from atom to atom.B. Heat flows through the empty space between atoms.C. Iron atoms transfer kinetic energy from atom to atom.D. Rapidly vibrating atoms move away from the source of heat.

34. Sample X of argon gas has a temperature of 400 K. Sample Y of argon gas has a temperature of 1,000 K. What is the ratio of the average translational kinetic energies of the atoms of X to the atoms of Y?

A. 4:25B. 2:5C. 5:2D. 25:4

35. Manuel is studying several different samples of gas. How can he find which gas sample has molecules with the highest average kinetic energy?

A. by finding the temperature of each sampleB. by finding the heat content of each sampleC. by finding the pressure and volume of each sampleD. by finding the average molecular weight of each sample

36. A mass of gas is enclosed in a vessel with a fixed volume. How would an increase in the thermal energy of the system affect the gas molecules?

A. The molecules would move to the top of the vessel.B. The distance between the molecules would increase.C. The average velocity of the molecules would increase.D. The molecules would strike the walls of the vessel less often.

37. Mark was playing with a spiral made of aluminum foil. He observed that the spiral twirled when he held it over a warm toaster that he just used and then unplugged. 

 What is the reason for his observation?

A. pull of gravityB. force from a magnetic fieldC. heat transfer by conductionD. formation of convection currents

38. Mr. Schmitt draws a graph to show his class how a material undergoes phase changes with increasing temperature. 

 What does the long, flat portion of the curve between the liquid phase and the gaseous phase represent?

A. stable potential energy and stable kinetic energyB. increase in potential energy and stable kinetic energyC. stable potential energy and increase in kinetic energyD. increase in potential energy and increase in kinetic energy

39.

 During which portion of the graph is a phase change occurring?

A. I and IIIB. I, III, and VC. II and IVD. III, IV, and V

40. Linda is working on the structural representation of an isotope of carbon,  , as a part of her project on isotopes. Which representation correctly identifies the structure of the isotope?

A.

B.

C.

D.

 

Periodic Table – Use the one in your text 

41. Which statement describes the number and location of protons, electrons, and neutrons in potassium, which has an atomic mass number of 39?

A. 19 protons within the nucleus, 19 electrons outside the nucleus, and 20 neutrons within the nucleusB. 20 protons within the nucleus, 20 electrons within the nucleus, and 19 neutrons outside the nucleusC. 20 protons within the nucleus, 20 electrons outside the nucleus, and 19 neutrons within the nucleusD. 19 protons outside the nucleus, 19 electrons within the nucleus, and 20 neutrons outside the

nucleus 42. An element has 17 electrons, 17 protons, and 18 neutrons. What is the name of this element?

A. argonB. chlorineC. phosphorusD. sulfur

 43. Which type of ion MOST LIKELY will be formed by group 16 elements of the periodic table?

B. an ion with a chargeC. an ion with a chargeD. an ion with a chargeD. an ion with a charge

 44. Which statement BEST explains the elements found in group 17 of the periodic table?

A. Elements of a metallic nature are in this group.B. Elements with the same valence are in this group.C. Elements with the same atomic number are in this group.D. Elements with the same atomic mass number are in this group.

 45. Which statement BEST describes the elements in group 14 of the periodic table?

A. All the elements are metallic in nature.B. All the elements are nonmetallic in nature.C. All the elements have similar chemical properties.D. All the elements have similar atomic mass numbers.

 Directions: Please choose the best answer choice for each of the following questions.

46. A helium atom has an atomic number of 2 and an atomic mass of 4 amu (atomic mass units). How many protons and neutrons does a helium atom have?

B. 2 proton, 0 neutronsC. 2 protons, 2 neutronsD. 4 protons, 0 neutronsD. 4 protons, 2 neutrons

 47. Fredrick studied an element and drew the following electronic configuration for that element in his notes. 

 What is the atomic mass number of the element Fredrick is studying?

A. 9B. 10C. 18D. 19

  

48. The diagram below shows an atom.

  Which of the following diagrams shows another isotope of the same element?

A.

B.

C.

D.

 

49. Clara is comparing the atomic structure of two isotopes of the element chlorine, Cl-35 and Cl-37. Which statement explains how to distinguish between the isotopes and their element?

A. Isotopes have the same number of electrons but a different atomic number.B. Isotopes have the same number of neutrons but a different atomic number.C. Isotopes have the same number of electrons and protons but a different number of neutrons.D. Isotopes have the same number of neutrons and electrons but a different number of protons.

 50. Which of these represents a pair of isotopes?

A.

B

C.

D.

 51. Which of the following represents a Cl atom?

A. protons = 17neutrons = 18electrons = 17

B. protons = 17neutrons = 18electrons = 18

C. protons = 18neutrons = 17electrons = 17

D. protons = 18neutrons = 17electrons = 18

 52. The table below shows some information about a particular element. 

 What is element X?

A. nickel (Ni)B. silicon (Si)C. nitrogen (N)D. molybdenum (Mo)

 

53. If one element is directly above another on the periodic table, what is true about the elements?

A. They have the same number of isotopes.B. They have the same number of neutrons.C. They have the same number of electron shells.D. They have the same number of valence electrons.

 54. How does the structure of the atoms of the noble gases prevent them from forming compounds with other elements?

A. All of their orbitals are full of electrons.B. They do not have protons for forming bonds.C. The number of protons equals the number of neutrons.D. They have no valence electrons in which to form bonds.

 55. An element belongs to group 17 (VIIA) of the periodic table. Which type of ion will it MOST LIKELY form?

B. an ion with a chargeC. an ion with a chargeD. an ion with a chargeD. an ion with a charge

 56. Sodium is classified as which type of element?

B. MetalloidC. Non-metalD. Noble gasD. Metal

 57. Lithium, sodium, and potassium are all found in group IA in the periodic table. Which type of ion do they usually form?

A.B.C.D.

 58. Robert identifies an element forming an ion with a charge of –2. In which group does the element MOST LIKELY belong?

A. group IAB. group IIAC. group VIAD. group VIIIA

  59. Marina is researching elements with four valence electrons. In which group in the periodic table will she find these elements?

A. group 13B. group 14C. group 15D. group 16

 60. The graph below shows the distance-time graph of a car moving in the same direction.  

 What is the velocity of the car as it travels from B to C?

A. 0.50 km/minB. 0.67 km/minC. 1.5 km/minD. 2.0 km/min

61. The table below shows the velocity of a car at regular time intervals. 

 Which of these conclusions can be drawn about the motion of the car?

A. The car moves with a uniform velocity.B. The car moves with a uniform acceleration.C. The acceleration of the car increases with time.D. The rate of change of velocity decreases with time.

 62. Which of these would cause the LEAST acceleration?

A. a 5-newton force acting on a 5-kilogram objectB. a 10-newton force acting on a 5-kilogram objectC. a 5-newton force acting on a 10-kilogram objectD. a 10-newton force acting on a 10-kilogram object

63. Why is it difficult to send objects with more mass into space?

A. Objects with more mass lose mass when accelerated.B. Objects with more mass gain mass when accelerated.C. Objects with more mass cannot accelerate by force.D. Objects with more mass require a greater force to accelerate.

64. You push on a box with a force of . The force of friction on the box pushes back with a force of . If the mass of the box is , what is the acceleration of the box?

A.B.C.D.

 65.

 A metal block is pulled along a metal surface. Which of the following conditions will change the motion of the block?

A. increasing the amount of time the block is pulledB. increasing the distance the block is pulledC. decreasing the force of friction and the pulling force equallyD. decreasing the force of friction OR the pulling force

66.

 Which floor safe would require the greatest force to move because of its mass?

A. safe 1B. safe 2C. safe 3D. All 3 would be the same since all are at rest.

67. According to Newton’s Third Law, the downward force of Earth’s gravity affects all objects on Earth including bugs, rocks, humans, cars, and even the atmosphere. In all of these cases the

A. Earth exerts an equal and opposite downward force on the objects.B. Earth exerts unequal but opposite downward force on the objects.C. objects exert an unequal but opposite upward force on the Earth.D. objects exert an equal and opposite upward force on the Earth.

68. In which situation is a person doing work on an object?a. A school crossing guard raises a stop sign that weighs 10 N.b. A student walks while wearing a backpack that weighs 15 N.c. A man exerts 350 N force on a rope attached to a house.d. A worker holds a box 1 m off the floor.

69. By comparing the mechanical advantage of two machines that have the same output force, what can you tell about the machine?a. Which is bigger.b. Which has a larger input force.c. Which has a larger output force.d. Which makes work easier.

70. Which of the following is a compound machine?a. First class leverb. Block and tacklec. Wheel and axled. Screw

71. When a machine increases the size of the force exerted, what happens to the distance?

a. It must increaseb. It must decreasec. It must stay the samed. It must double

72. What type of simple machine is a screw?a. Inclined planeb. Wheel and axle

c. Leverd. Pulley

73. Pulling down on a rope to hoist a sail on a sailboat is an example of a machine a.multiplying the force you exert. b.multiplying the distance over which a force is exerted. c. changing the direction over which a force is exerted. d.reducing friction.

74. The mechanical advantage of a machine is the number of times a machine increases a.the distance an object is moved. b.the amount of friction. c. the change in direction. d.the force exerted on the machine.

75. Without friction there would be a. less machine efficiency. b.greater output work than input work. c. greater input work than output work. d.equal input and output work.

76. The ideal mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle is equal to the a.radius of the wheel divided by the radius of the axle. b.radius of the axle divided by the radius of the wheel. c. radius of the wheel divided by the length of the axle. d.length of the axle divided by the radius of the wheel.

77. Clara uses a glass rod and a piece of silk cloth to demonstrate the charging of bodies by friction. If the glass rod acquires a charge of units when rubbed with the silk cloth, what is the charge that the piece of silk cloth acquires?

A. unitsB. unitsC. unitsD. units

 78. Beth rubs an ebonite rod with wool. She finds that the wool acquires a positive charge. Which conclusion can BEST be drawn from her observation?

A. Many positively charged particles moved from the wool to the ebonite rod.B. Many positively charged particles moved from the ebonite rod to the wool.C. Many negatively charged particles moved from the wool to the ebonite rod.D. Many negatively charged particles moved from the ebonite rod to the wool.

 

79. Diagram 1 and Diagram 2 show bar magnets with their poles in different alignment as they pass through coils. 

  In which direction does induced current act in relation to the direction of a magnetic field?

A. at a angle from one anotherB. at a angle from one anotherC. in the same direction as one anotherD. in the opposite direction from one another

80. A balloon acquires a charge when rubbed across fur. Why does the electrically charged balloon now attract small bits of paper?

A. Excess charges on the balloon jump to the bits of paper.B. The charge on the balloon polarizes the charge on the bits of paper.C. Charges on the balloon attract charges of like sign on the bits of paper.D. The electrical charge on the balloon induces magnetic attraction with bits of paper.

81. Particles A and B have equal positive charges and are held two meters apart. Where could a negatively charged particle, C, be placed so that it receives no net electrostatic force?

A. exactly one meter from both A and BB. exactly two meters from both A and BC. anywhere on the line containing both A and BD. anywhere with an equal distance to both A and B

82. Strong magnets of equal mass are dropped through a plastic tube and an aluminum tube of equal lengths, as shown in the diagram below. 

Which statement BEST describes where an induced electric current will be established as the magnets are dropped down the tubes?

B. only in Tube 1C. only in Tube 2D. in both Tube 1 and Tube 2D. in neither Tube 1 nor Tube 2

83. Marlene rubbed a metal ball with a cloth and found that the metal ball became positively charged. Which of these BEST explains how the ball became charged?

A. Protons from the ball moved to the cloth.B. Protons from the cloth moved to the ball.C. Electrons from the ball moved to the cloth.D. Electrons from the cloth moved to the ball.

 84. What are two ways to make the field of  an electromagnet stronger?

A. increase the voltage, decrease the currentB. wrap more wire around the iron core, increase the voltageC. wrap more wire around the iron core, decrease the currentD. replace the iron core with copper, increase the voltage

 85. A solid metal cube hangs from a thread and is negatively charged. Two other neutral cubes are hanging close to the first cube and are in contact with each other. Which diagram represents the cubes and their distribution of charges?

A.

B.

C.

D. 86. The diagram below shows a positively charged aluminum plate in contact with an uncharged metal sphere, X. 

 Which change takes place when the plate and the sphere come in contact?

A. The metal sphere becomes negatively charged.B. The aluminum plate becomes negatively charged.C. Electrons move from the metal sphere to the aluminum plate.D. Electrons move from the aluminum plate to the metal sphere.

 87. Sarah wraps a coil of insulated copper wire around an iron rod. She then passes a current through the wire. What happens to the iron bar when current is passed through the coil?

A. It becomes electrically charged.B. It becomes an electrical insulator.C. It becomes temporarily magnetized.D. It becomes permanently magnetized.

88. William is constructing an electric motor. What does he observe about the current flow while constructing the motor?

A. The current in the coil reverses every full turn.B. The current in the coil reverses every half turn.C. The current in the coil is moving in a clockwise direction.D. The current in the coil is moving in an anticlockwise direction.

 89. A stereo speaker vibrates in and out because it is attached to an electromagnet that is moving in and out. The electromagnet is alternately attracted to and repelled from a permanent magnet. What causes the electromagnet to be first repelled from and then attracted to a permanent magnet?

A. The poles of the permanent magnet reverse.B. The permanent magnet is affected by an electrical field.C. The electrical field of the electromagnet changes strength.D. The electrical current to the electromagnet changes direction.

 90. Permanent magnets are used in generators to induce current in a coil. What determines the direction of the induced current?

A. movement of the magnetB. strength of the magnetC. size of the magnetD. type of the magnet

 91. Which type of wave can transmit energy in a vacuum?

A. lightB. waterC. soundD. seismic

92. The rays listed below are arranged in increasing order of their energies. infrared rays, visible rays, ultraviolet rays, gamma rays Which rays will have the lowest frequency?

A. infrared raysB. visible raysC. ultraviolet raysD. gamma rays

 93. The list below shows the frequency of four waves.

A. Wave

B. Wave C. Wave D. Wave

Which sequence lists the waves in their increasing order of energy?

B. wave , wave , wave , wave C. wave , wave , wave , wave D. wave , wave , wave , wave

D. wave , wave , wave , wave 94. Maria is studying the relationships among frequency, wavelength, and the energy of an electromagnetic wave. Which of these BEST describes the relationships among these wave characteristics?

A. The energy of electromagnetic waves is directly proportional to the frequency and inversely proportional to the wavelength.

B. The energy of electromagnetic waves is inversely proportional to the frequency and directly proportional to the wavelength.

C. The energy of electromagnetic waves is directly proportional to both the frequency and the wavelength.

D. The energy of electromagnetic waves is inversely proportional to both the frequency and the wavelength.

95. A sound wave travels from point A to point B with increasing energy. Which conclusion can be drawn about this sound wave?

A. The speed of the sound wave decreases as it moves from point A to point B.B. The amplitude of the sound wave decreases as it moves from point A to point B.C. The frequency of the sound wave increases as it moves from point A to point B.D. The wavelength of the sound wave increases as it moves from point A to point B.

 96. Beth lists the various forms of energies coming from the Sun: gamma rays, x-rays, ultraviolet rays, visible rays, infrared rays, microwaves, radio waves Which characteristic of waves helps her to identify these energies?

A. amplitudeB. crestC. frequencyD. speed

 97. The electromagnetic spectrum below arranges four waves, 1, 2, 3, and 4, in decreasing order of their wavelengths. 

 Which wave has the maximum energy?

A. Wave 1B. Wave 2C. Wave 3D. Wave 4

 98. A certain wave, , of an electromagnetic spectrum is moving with a wavelength . How will its energy change if the wavelength is doubled?

A. Energy will be doubled.B. Energy will be the same.C. Energy will be reduced to half.D. Energy will be reduced to one-fourth.

 99. Tara studies the wavelengths of different colors of visible light in an electromagnetic spectrum. Based on the wavelength for different colors, which sequence arranges the colors in INCREASING order of their energies?

A. violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, redB. violet, green, yellow, indigo, blue, orange, redC. red, orange, indigo, blue, green, yellow, violetD. red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet

 100. Conan is making a presentation on the characteristics of waves for a science project. Which point can he include in his presentation?

A. The greater the speed of the wave, the lower its energy will be.B. The greater the amplitude of the wave, the lower its energy will be.C. The greater the frequency of the wave, the greater its energy will be.D. The greater the wavelength of the wave, the greater its energy will be.

 101. In which example will the wave MOST LIKELY become diffracted?

A. sound passing through an open windowB. sound traveling through air over an open fieldC. light traveling from a star toward a distant planetD. light striking a medium that does not transmit light

 102. The diagram below shows the behavior of water waves when they encounter a gap in a harbor wall. 

 What will MOST LIKELY happen to the waves if the size of the gap in the wall increases?

B. Diffraction will decrease.C. Diffraction will increase.D. Refraction will decrease.D. Refraction will increase.

 103. Andrew hears a marching band that is approaching him from around the corner of a building. What allows Andrew to hear the sound of the band around the corner?

A. reflection of sound wavesB. refraction of sound wavesC. diffraction of sound wavesD. interference of sound waves

 

104. Melita observes a sunset. She is able to see the sunlight even after the Sun drops below the horizon. 

   What causes this phenomenon to occur?

B. absorptionC. interferenceD. reflectionD. refraction

 105. Helen attends a musical concert held in an auditorium. Although speakers are spaced evenly around the auditorium, the sound is much louder at some spots than others. Which property of waves MOST LIKELY explains this variation in loudness?

A. absorptionB. diffractionC. interferenceD. refraction

 106. Which diagram shows a ray of light passing through two mediums with the MOST similar indices of refraction?

A. B.

C. D.

107. Sound waves are generated in four different media–air, water, wood, and nitrogen gas. In which medium do the sound waves travel the fastest?

A. airB. waterC. woodD. nitrogen gas

108. When Michelle steps into a swimming pool, she notices that the floor of the pool appears to be higher than it actually is. Which property of light waves causes the pool to appear shallower than it is?

A. Light waves are absorbed as they enter the water.B. Light waves are refracted as they leave the water.C. Light waves are reflected at the surface of the water.D. Light waves are diffracted at the surface of the water.

109. Sodium reacts with chlorine to form sodium chloride (NaCl). How many electrons does sodium contribute to the bond in NaCl?

A. 1B. 2C. 11D. 17

 110. The bond in potassium chloride (KCl) is formed by the exchange of electrons. Which type of bond does KCl have?

A. covalentB. ionicC. metallicD. nonmetal

 111. Hydrocarbons are molecules of hydrogen and carbon atoms bonded together by covalent bonds. Which statement BEST describes the electrons in these bonds?

A. are lost from both hydrogen and carbonB. are gained in both hydrogen and carbonC. are shared between hydrogen and carbonD. are transferred between hydrogen and carbon

 112. Which element has only three electrons available to form bonds?

B. BC. CD. LiD. Mg

 113. Calcium and bromine react to form calcium bromide . How many electrons does calcium have available for bonding with bromine?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4

 

114. How will and   MOST LIKELY form bonds to make ?

A. Ca removes electrons from F.B. F removes electrons from Ca.C. Ca and F share electrons equally.D. Ca and F share electrons unequally.

 115. Which of these is the correct number of electrons that boron (B) has available for bonding?

B. 1C. 3D. 5D. 8

 116. Which statement correctly describes the bond between potassium and chlorine in KCl?

A. K loses an electron to Cl as they form an ionic bond.B. K gains an electron from Cl as they form a covalent bond.C. K and Cl share a pair of electrons as they form an ionic bond.D. K and Cl share a pair of electrons as they form a covalent bond.

.117. A molecule with covalent bonds forms when atoms

A. share electrons.B. fuse nuclei.C. split nuclei.D. exchange electrons.

 118. Ionic bonds form when two atoms

A. exchange outer shell electrons.B. exchange inner shell electrons.C. share inner shell electrons.D. share outer shell electrons.

 119. An ionic bond involves

A. sharing of electrons.B. exchange of electrons.C. sharing of metallic bonds.D. exchange of protons.

 120. Ms. Adams writes a reaction on the board that involves the transfer of electrons from calcium, with two electrons in the valence shell, to chlorine, with seven electrons in the valence shell. What is the formula of the ionic compound that is the product of this reaction?

A. CaCl B. CaCl2

C. Ca2ClD. 2CaCl

 

121. Magnesium oxide is formed when a magnesium ion bonds with an oxygen ion. What is the chemical formula for magnesium oxide?

A. MgOB. MgO2

C. Mg2OD. Mg2O2

 122. Lithium, sodium, and potassium are all found in group IA in the periodic table. Which type of ion do they usually form?

A.B.C.D.

 123. Cesium belongs to group 1 of the periodic table. How is cesium classified?

A. halogenB. noble gasC. transition metalD. alkali earth metal

 124. Which pair of elements would be expected to have similar chemical properties based on their location in the periodic table?

A. boron and siliconB. hydrogen and heliumC. chlorine and bromineD. potassium and calcium

 

125. Which statement BEST describes the elements in group 14 of the periodic table?

B. All the elements are metallic in nature.C. All the elements are nonmetallic in nature.D. All the elements have similar chemical properties.D. All the elements have similar atomic mass numbers.

126. Iron rusts in the presence of oxygen to form a coating of ferric oxide. This reaction is represented by the equation below.  

 Which statement correctly describes the mass of the reactants and the mass of the product?

A. The mass of the product is greater because it is a synthesis reaction.B. The mass of the product is less because there are more molecules of reactant.C. The mass of the iron decreases, but the mass of the oxygen increases during the reaction.D. The mass of the reactants consumed equals the mass of the ferric oxide produced.

 

127. The balanced equation below represents the reaction between iron and chlorine that forms iron (III) chloride. 

 Which quantity is NOT the same in the reactants and the products?

A. massB. net chargeC. number of atomsD. number of molecules

 128. Which of these chemical equations is balanced correctly?

A.B. C.D.

 129. Potassium chlorate decomposes on heating into potassium chloride and oxygen. Which of these equations shows the decomposition of potassium chlorate correctly balanced?

B.C.D.D.

 130. In an experiment, Robert dips a copper wire in a colorless solution of a metal nitrate. He observes that the solution gradually turns blue and the copper wire slowly disappears. A white metal starts appearing instead. The unbalanced single-replacement reaction is shown below. 

 Which of these represents the coefficients in the balanced chemical equation?

A.

B.

C.

D.

 131. Ms. Laurent assigned the following equations for single replacement reactions to her students. (i) (ii) (iii)                                    She asked the students to identify the equations that support the law of conservation of matter. Which of the equations should the students identify?

A. onlyB. onlyC. and D. and

 132. When lead nitrate reacts with sodium iodide, lead iodide and sodium nitrate are formed. Which of these equations correctly balances this reaction?

A. B. C. D.  133. The equation below shows the reaction between potassium sulfate and calcium chloride. 

 If  grams of potassium chloride are formed when grams of potassium sulfate react completely with grams of calcium chloride, how many grams of calcium sulfate are produced?

A. 8.6 gramsB. 13.6 gramsC. 21.2 gramsD. 43.4 grams

 134. Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce calcium hydroxide. Which chemical equation shows the correctly balanced reaction?

A.B.C.D.

 135. The chemical reaction below shows an unbalanced equation. 

 Which of these represents the balanced form of this chemical equation?

A.

B.C.D.

 136. Kevin is completing an assignment on different types of chemical equations. Which equation will he include in his assignment as an example of a balanced decomposition reaction?

A.B.C.D.

 137. Compound  decomposes into and when heated. Which equation represents the balanced decomposition reaction?

A.B.C.D.

 138. Which chemical equation is a balanced decomposition reaction?

A

B.

C.

D. 139. Some naturally produced enzymes can break down hydrogen peroxide  into water and oxygen . Which of these is the balanced chemical equation for this reaction?

A.B.C.D.

 140. Which single replacement reaction is correctly balanced?

A.B.C.D.

 141. Ms. Simpson is listing single-replacement reactions to discuss in her class. Which reaction can be included in the list?

A.B.

C.D.

 

142. In a double replacement reaction of aluminum nitrate and sodium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide and sodium nitrate are obtained. Which equation shows the balanced form of this reaction?

A.

B.

C.

D. 143. A chemistry class is performing a reaction using silver nitrate and sodium chloride as shown below. 

  Which type of reaction is this?

A. synthesis reactionB. combustion reactionC. single-replacement reactionD. double-replacement reaction

 144. Ms. Lopez wrote four chemical equations on the blackboard and asked the students to identify the balanced equation representing the combustion reaction. Which balanced equation correctly represents a combustion reaction?

A. B. C. D.  145. The equation below represents the combustion of acetone. 

 Which coefficient for oxygen (O2) is needed to balance this equation?

A. 3B. 4C. 5B. 6

 146. The nuclear equation below shows indium-116 decaying into tin-116 and a radioactive emission x. 

 What type of radioactive emission is represented by x?

A.

B.

C.

D. 147. An element undergoes radioactive decay in which the mass number and atomic number are unchanged. What type of radioactive emission MOST LIKELY occurred?

A. beta decayB. delta decayC. alpha decayD. gamma decay

 148. ________ radiation does not change the composition of the nucleus of the atom but emits high energy photons

A. Non-ionizing radiationB. AlphaC. BetaD. Gamma

 149. The most penetrating form of radiation is

B. ultra violet.C. alpha.D. beta.D. gamma.

 150. Radioactive elements are the sources of high energy particles such as alpha and beta particles, and gamma radiation. Alpha radiation has the least potential penetrating power of the three types of radiation because it

A. travels at high speed.B. travels at the lowest speed.C. has the greatest mass and a postive charge.D. has the smallest mass and no charge.

 151. Beta radiation can be blocked by

A. thin cardboard.B. paper.C. skin.D. Thick wood.

 

152. Arrange the forms of radiation from longest to shortest penetration range.

B. alpha, beta, gammaC. alpha, gamma, betaD. gamma, alpha, betaD. gamma, beta, alpha

 153. In nuclear fusion, two positive nuclei must touch and bind together. This requires that the nuclei approach each other at

A. low temperatures and low velocity.B. low temperatures and high velocity.C. high temperatures and high velocity.D. high temperatures and low velocity.

 

154. The nuclear equation below shows radon-222 undergoing alpha decay. 

 What is x?

A.

B.

C.

D.

 155. Which naturally occurring isotope would be BEST able to help date items that were created in the relatively recent past? 

A. carbon-14, because it has a short half-lifeB. uranium-235, because it has a high massC. potassium-40, because it has a low massD. thorium-232, because it has a long half-life

 156. Iodine-131 is a radioactive isotope with a half-life of 8 days. How much of a 40-gram sample of iodine-131 would remain after 24 days?

A. 3 gramsB. 5 gramsC. 10 gramsD. 20 grams

 157. Nitrogen-13 is a radioactive isotope. After undergoing radioactive decay for 20 minutes, a 16-gram sample of nitrogen-13 was reduced to 4 grams. What is the half-life of nitrogen-13?

A. 4 minutesB. 5 minutesC. 10 minutesD. 20 minutes

 158. Radon-222 is a naturally occurring isotope with a half-life of 3.8 days. If 4.0 g of radon-222 gas were pumped into a container, then how much radon-222 would be in the container 7.6 days later?

A. 0.2 gB. 1.0 gC. 1.9 gD. 2.0 g

 159. If a 100-gram sample of uranium-235 decays, what is the amount of uranium-235 left after three half lives?

A. 0.0 gramsB. 12.5 gramsC. 25.0 gramsD. 87.5 grams

 160. The half-life of technetium-99 is 6.0 hours. From a 20.0 gram sample, what mass remains after 12 hours?

A. 2.5 gramsB. 3.3 gramsC. 5.0 gramsD. 10.0 grams