university of health sciences (uhs), lahore – ark...

UNIT WISE TESTS 1

University of Health Sciences (UHS), Lahore – ARK Cumulative Test Series - 4

ARK Cumulative Test

Series ~ 4

Total MCQs: 170 Max. Marks: 850 Time Allowed: 125 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS i. Read the instructions on the MCQs Response Form carefully.

ii. Choose the Single Best Answer for each question.

iii. Candidates are strictly prohibited from giving any identification mark except Roll No. and Signature in the specified columns only.

COMPULSORY QUESTION FOR IDENTIFICATION Q-ID. What is the Colour of your Question Paper? A) White B) Blue C) Orange D) Green

Ans: Colour of your Question Paper is White. Fill the Circle Corresponding to Letter ‘A’ against ‘ID’ in your MCQ Response Form (Exactly as shown in the diagram).

SYLLABUS PHYSICS Unit 9: ELECTRONICS

Unit 10: CURRENT ELECTRICITY

CHEMISTRY Unit 1C: FUNDAMENTAL PRINCIPLES Unit 2C: HYDROCARBONS

Unit 3C: ALKYL HALIDES Unit 4C: ALCOHOLS AND PHENOLS

ENGLISH GRAMMAR

VOCABULARY

BIOLOGY Unit 6G: HORMONAL CONTROL (ENDOCRINE GLANDS)

Unit 6H: IMMUNITY

Unit 7: BIOTECHNOLOGY Unit 8: BIOENERGETICS

A B C D

ID 1 2 3 4

UNIT WISE TESTS 2


PART I - PHYSICS Q.1 The charging or discharging rate of a capacitor depends upon

A) Resistance R C) Produce of resistance and capacitance B) Capacitance C D) Current and resistance

Q.2 Ohm’s law establishes a relation between A) Current and voltage C) Charge and voltage B) Resistance and voltage D) Current and resistance

Q.3 Semiconductor is an example of A) Non-Ohmic device C) Neutral device B) Ohmic device D) Charge device

Q.4 Which does not affect the value of resistance of a wire A) Change in length C) Change in temperature B) Change in diameter D) None of these

Q.5 If a dielectric of relative permittivity εr between the plates of a charge capacitor is

placed its capacitance. A) Decreases C) Remains same B) Increase D) Sometime increase then decrease

Q.6 Energy stored in a unit volume of the dielectric between parallel plate of a capacitor is A) Energy density = ½ E2 εo εr C) Energy density = ½ E2 εo εr B) Energy density = ½ εr E2/ εo D) Energy density = ½ εo E2/ εr

Q.7 Three resistance each of one ohm are connected to form triangle. The resistance

between any two terminal is A) Ω C) 2/3 Ω

B) 3/2 Ω D) 1 Ω

Q.8 In combination of resistor the equivalent resistance is higher than any of the resistance used in circuit then it consists of A) Parallel combination C) Both parallel and series combination B) Series combination D) Information is not complete

Q.9 Resistance of a conductor depend upon A) Nature C) Physical state B) Dimension D) All of these

Q.10 The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor is εo = A/d it is also written as

A) a/4πKd C) KA/4πd B) A/4πd D) 4π0A/d

Q.11 Charge on a capacitor is 50 C. if voltage applied across its plates is 10 V then its capacitance A) 5 F C) 0.02 F B) 500 F D) 0.2 F

Q.12 A capacitor has charge 5 x 10-5 and voltage applied is 10 V. Capacitance is A) 5 μF C) 20 μF B) 50 μf D) 10 μF

UNIT WISE TESTS 3


Q.13 Two resistances R1 and R2 are connected with two identical batteries 9 volts if R1 = 2R2 then current through R1 is A) Twice that through R2 C) Half than that R2 B) Equal to that through R2 D) One fourth of R2

Q.14 If the current in two straight current carrying conductors, distant d apart, are i1 and i2

respectively in the same direction then they will. A) Rotate about a central axis C) Attract each other B) Repel each other D) Neither attract nor repel each other

Q.15 X = A + B, to mathematical expression for

A) OR gate C) NOR gate B) AND gate D) NAND gate

Q.16 If a voltage of 3.5 V is applied one a gate it will recognize it as logic _______

A) High C) Between high and low B) Low D) None

Q.17 The mathematical used for digital systems is called _____

A) Algebra C) Binary Algebra B) Digital algebra D) Boolean algebra

Q.18 A logic gate which has only one input is _________ A) OR C) XOR B) AND D) None

Q.19 You have to design a control system for a car door look the condition is that, when any

of the doors is opened, alarm beeps, suppose they do alarm works when it is given 1, the preferred logic gate is A) AND C) NOR B) OR D) NAND

Q.20 CRO can display ______ voltage form

A) DC B) A + B B) AC D) None

Q.21 Saw-tooth is generated by _______

A) Frequency generator C) Time back generator B) AC Generator D) None

Q.22 External voltage signal is always applied on _____ deflection plates

A) X C) Both A and B B) Y D) None of these

Q.23 The display on screen would be stationary only if both voltages are _______

A) Equal C) Integrated multiple B) Synchronized D) None

Q.24 We can display on CRO due to _______

A) Luminance C) Fluorescence B) Phosphorescence D) Plastic

UNIT WISE TESTS 4


Q.25 The horizontal axis on CRO is calibrated for _______ A) Voltage C) Time B) Frequency D) Phase

Q.26 A wire of uniform area of cross-section is cut into 2 halves; the resistance of each part is, A) Doubled C) Remains the same B) Halved D) None of these

Q.27 The value of temperature co-efficient of resistance of most thermistors is, A) Negative C) Zero B) Positive D) always in fraction

Q.28 What is always present in the cell? A) Potential difference C) Both A and B B) Emf D) None of these

Q.29 Potentiometer is the application of A) Wheatstone bridge C) Galvanometer B) Voltmeter D) None of these

Q.30 For a potentiometer, A) Ex = Er / R =EL / l C) Ex = ER / r = EL / l B) Ex = Er / R = El / L D) Ex = ER / r = El / L

Q.31 Two cells of 1.5 V and 1.0 V are connected in parallel the effective voltage will be, A) 0.75 V C) 2.00 V B) 1.25 V D) 0.50 V

Q.32 A law said to be the generalization of Ohm’s law is A) Boyle’s law C) Joule’s law B) Newton’s law D) Kirchhoff’s rule

Q.33 A carbon resistance has colour band in order yellow, brown, red. Its resistance is.

A) 41 C) 41 × 103

B) 41 × 102 D) 4.2

Q.34 The resistivity of a wire depends on its. A) Length C) Resistance B) Area of cross-section D) Material

Q.35 Electric current due to 107 electrons passing through a conductor in 1 μ s is ____ A.

A) 1.6 x 10-3 C) 1.6 x 10-9

B) 1.6 x 10-6 D) 1.6 x 10-12

Q.36 Mathematical form of Joule’s law is ________.

A) H = Pt C) Q = CV B) V = IR D) P = VI

Q.37 Cu+++ 2e- __________.

A) Cu C) 2 Cu B) Cu-- D) None

UNIT WISE TESTS 5


Q.38 _______ is a process of coating a thin layer of some expensive metal on an article of some cheap metal. A) Electric polarization C) Electrostatic induction B) Electro plating D) Electrical conduction

Q.39 Resistivity of a wire is ________ Ω m if 0.75 A current flows through it by applying 1.5

V potential difference, take length and cross section area of wire as 5 m and 2.5 10-7

m2.

A) 1.7 10-8 C) 19 10-8

B) 2.63 10-8 D) 7.85 10-8

Q.40 Colour bands of (2.7 20%) Ω resistance are _______

A) Red Violet Gold C) Red Violet Gold Gold B) Red Blue Silver D) Red Violet Silver Silver

PART II - CHEMISTRY Q.41 The compound C4H10O can show

A) Metamerism C) Functional isomerism B) Position isomerism D) All of the three

Q.42 Which of the following acts as “blistering agent”?

A) Acetylene C) Phosgene B) Phosphine D) Mustard gas

Q.43 Dehydration of alcohol involves:

A) Free radical C) Carbanion B) Carbocation D) Carbene

Q.44 After fermentation of molasses, the fermented liquid appears like boiling, it is due to

A) Presence of bacteria C) Formation of alcohol B) Evolution of CO2 D) Presence of enzymes

Q.45 Geometrical isomers differ in:

A) Position of functional group C) Position of atoms B) Spatial arrangement of atoms D) Length of carbon chain

Q.46 Which of the following will show geometrical isomerism?

A) C2H5Br C) (CH)2(COO)2 B) CH2(COOH)2 D) C6H6

Q.47 In carbocation, the carbon atom bearing the positive charge shows orbital hybridization

A) sp3-hybridized C) dsp2-hybridized B) sp-hybridized D) sp2-hybridized

Q.48 The reaction conditions leading to the best yield of C2H5Cl is

A) C2H6(excess) + Cl2UV C) C2H6 + Cl2

dark

room temp

B) C2H6 + Cl2(excess)UV D) C2 H6 + Cl2

UV

UNIT WISE TESTS 6


Q.49 )B()A(BrHCHydrolsisKCN

52 The compound (B) in the above reaction is

A) Ethylene chloride C) Acetic acid B) Propionic acid D) Ethyl nitrile

Q.50 Alkyl halides are used for the preparation of

A) Alkanes C) Alcohols B) Alkenes D) All of these

Q.51 Phenol do not react with;

A) Sodium bicarbonate C) Potassium hydroxide B) Sodium hydroxide D) Ferric chloride

Q.52 Which of the following compounds would undergo nitration with greatest ease

A) Benzene C) Nitrobenzene B) Phenol D) Benzoic acid

Q.53 )C()B()A(OHCH

HydrolysisKCHPl

33 The compound is (C) is

A) CH3OH C) HCOOH B) CH3CHO D) CH3COOH

Q.54 Ethyl alcohol is obtained when ethyl chloride is boiled with

A) Water C) Alcoholic KOH B) Aqueous KOH D) H2SO4

Q.55 Which is not an aromatic compound

A) Pyridine C) Naphthalene B) Xylene D) Cyclohexane

Q.56 Which of the following compounds reacts slower than benzene in electrophilic

bromination?

A)

CH3

C)

NO2

B)

OH

D)

Cl

Q.57 Which substance in a vehicle exhaust results from incomplete combustion og a hydrocarbon fuel? A) CO C) N2 B) H2O D) NO

UNIT WISE TESTS 7


Q.58 Oxidation of an alkene gives a diol; further oxidation gives diketone. Which one of the following could be X?

A)

C C

CH3

CH3

CH3

CH3

C)

C C

H

HC(H3C)2

H

H

B)

C C

CH3

CH3

H

CH3

D)

C C

H H

Q.59 Which of the following chloro-compounds is least easily hydrolysed by OH ion to give the production indicated?

A) C2H5Cl C2H5OH C) CH3COCl CH3CO2H B) CH3CHClCH3 CH3CH(OH)CH3 D) C6H5Cl C6H5OH

Q.60 Alcohols show all of the isomerism except A) Chain isomerism C) Metamerism B) Position isomerism D) Functional group

Q.61 For the formation of alkene from alkyl halide, alkyl halide must have A) α hydrogen C) neither α nor β hydrogen B) β hydrogen D) γ hydrogen

Q.62 The correct order of preference of functional group according to IUPAC when they are

attached with the benzene ring A) –CN, –OH, –NH2 C) –NH2, –CN, –OH B) –NH2, –OH, –CN D) –OH, –CN, –NH2

Q.63 The correct name of this structure is

CH3 C CH2 CH3

CH3

Br A) 3-bromo pentane C) 2-bromo-2-methylbutan B) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane D) 1-Bromo-2-dimethylpropane

Q.64 Which one of the following pairs of reaction type is included in the reaction sequence below?

HI in CH3CO2H NaOH(aq) CH3CH ═ CHCH3 CH3CH2CHICH3 CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3

A) Electrophilic addition and electrophilic substitution B) Electrophilic addition and nucleophilic substitution C) Free radical addition and nucleophilic substitution D) Nucleophilic addition and electrophilic substitution

UNIT WISE TESTS 8


Q.65 Which of the following state is incorrect? A) Bromomethane, chloromethane are gases while iodomethane is liquid B) Boiling point in the halogens is in the following order: Fluoro < Chloro < Bromo < Iodo C) Boiling point in the alkyl halide is in the order: Primary < Secondary < Tertiary D) Order of reactivity in alkyl halide: Tertiary > Secondary > Primary

Q.66 Which of the following compounds could be prepared by reacting bromomethane with KCN and then reacting the product A) CH3CH3 C) CH3CH2CH2NH2 B) CH3CH2NH2 D) CH3CH2CH3

Q.67 Which of the following statement is correct when we move from fluoromethane to

iodomethane A) The C-X bond length increases C) The dipole moment decreases B) The C-X bond energy decreases D) All of these

Q.68 An amine is produced in the following reaction.

C2H5 + 2NH3 C2H5NH2 + NH4I What is this mechanism A) Electrophilic addition C) Nucleophilic addition B) Electrophilic substitution D) Nucleophilic substitution

Q.69 Chloroform has all of the following uses except A) As an anesthetic C) As a preservative B) As a solvent D) As an extinguisher

Q.70 Which of the following statement is incorrect? A) Reaction of alcohol with sodium is the rupture of OH bond B) Reaction of alcohol with PCl3 is the rupture of CO bond C) Dehydration of alcohol involves lone pair on oxygen D) Lucas test involves rupture of OH bond

Q.71 Which of these always applies to a nucleophile? A) It attacks a double bond C) It has a single atom B) It has a lone pair of electron D) It is negatively charged

Q.72 When bromomethane is hydrolysed by aqueous NaOH, which ion brings the first stage of the substitution? A) The electrophile Na+ C) The electrophile OH- B) The nucleophile Na+ D) The nucleophile OH-

Q.73 Which alcohol is most acidic?

A) Methanol C) Isopropyl alcohol B) Ethanol D) t-butyl alcohol

Q.74 Ethanol can be distinguished from methanol by the use of A) Tollen’s reagent C) Fehling’s solution B) I2 + NaOH D) AgNO3 (aq)

Q.75 Alcohols on heating with conc. H2SO4 at 140 oC yield ether. For maximum yield of ether

which alcohol should be used A) 10 C) 20 B) 30 D) all of them

UNIT WISE TESTS 9


Q.76 Ethyl amine reacts with nitrous acid to form: A) Methyl alcohol C) Ethyl alcohol B) Ethane D) Ethyl nitrate

Q.77 Numbers of isomers represented by molecular formula C4H10O is: A) 3 C) 4 B) 7 D) 10

Q.78 On treatment with Lucas reagent, there is an appearance of precipitate at once. This is A) Primary alcohol C) Tertiary alcohol B) Secondary alcohol D) None

Q.79 Ethyl iodide on treatment with dry Ag2O will yield A) Ethyl alcohol C) Diethyl ether B) Ethyl methyl ether D) Ethylene

Q.80 Diethyl ether may behave as A) Lewis acid C) Lewis base B) Oxidizing agent D) Reducing agent

Q.81 Methanol and Ethanol are soluble due to: A) Their acidic character C) Dissociation in water B) Hydrogen bonding D) Alkyl group

Q.82 Fermentation is: A) Reversible process C) Irreversible B) Exothermic process D) Endothermic process

Q.83 When CH3MgI is made to react with acetone and addition product is hydrolysed we get: A) Primary alcohol C) An aldehyde B) Secondary alcohol D) Tertiary alcohol

Q.84 The hindered rotation about two double bond in 2-butene gives rise to two A) Tautomers C) Enantiomorphs B) Geometrical isomers D) None

Q.85 Methane react with oxygen at 100 atm and 300° C in the presence of copper as a catalyst to give A) Ethanal C) Methanol B) Ethanoic acid D) Ethanol

Q.86 The number of isomers of C6H14 is A) 4 C) 7 B) 6 D) 5

Q.87 A mixture of ethyl iodide and n-propyl iodide is subjected to Wurtz reaction. The hydrocarbon that will not be formed is A) n-hexane C) n-propane B) n-pentane D) n-butane

Q.88 Which alkene givesCH3CHO on ozonolysis A) Hexane-2 C) Butane-2 B) Propene D) 1.2-butadiene

UNIT WISE TESTS 10


Q.89 Which of the following does not give acetaldehyde on ozonolysis A) 3-hexane C) 2-butane B) Propene D) 1.3-butadiene

Q.90 Alkenes readily undergo: A) Substitution reactions C) Elimination reactions B) Addition reactions D) Rearrangement reactions

PART III – ENGLISH

Q.91 Any attempt to influence the judges will be seen as a(n) _____ of the rules.

A) Waiver C) Inversion B) Compliance D) Infraction

Q.92 Pretending to be an _____, he slept while in the field on a mat of straw that he had

himself woven. A) Ascetic C) Ingenious B) Epicure D) Optimist

Q.93 We are doing a good job but we must not be _____.

A) Ambitious C) Concerned B) Wary D) Complacent

Q.94 She has the _____ innocence of a child.

A) Childish C) Irascible B) Guileless D) Contrived

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.

Q.95 It is recommended that this office be responsible for preparing the statements. A) B) C) D)

Q.96 Because of the approaching storm, the wind began to blow hard and the sky became dark as

A) B) C) D) evening.

Q.97 Pasteur discovered a method whereby France might produce beer as good as Germany.

A) B) C) D) Q.98 Discovery Channel last night showed an informative program about new innovations in medical

A) B) C) D) imaging. Q.99 We’ve got enough to eat; the fridge is full with food.

A) B) C) D) Q.100 Aircrafts can avoid each other by going up and down, as well as by altering course to left or right.

A) B) C) D)

UNIT WISE TESTS 11


In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

Q.101 A) It ought to be her with whom you share your secrets, not me. B) It ought to be she with whom you share your secrets, not me. C) It ought to be she with whom you share your secrets, not I. D) It ought to be her with whom you share your secrets, not I.

Q.102

A) A dry, cold climate is not suitable for beautiful skin, and neither a hot climate. B) A dry, cold climate is not suitable for beautiful skin, and neither is a hot climate. C) Neither a dry, cold climate is suitable for beautiful skin nor a hot climate. D) A dry, cold climate is not suitable for beautiful skin, and nor a hot climate is.

Q.103

A) Whenever I go to bank I often get rattled. B) When I go into a bank I get rattle. C) When I go into a bank I get rattled. D) Whenever I go into bank I get rattled.

Q.104

A) Griffin set up a new website; it combined creativity with ease of use. B) Griffin set up a new website combined creativity with ease of use. C) Griffin set up a new website; combining creativity with ease of use. D) Griffin set up a new website, it combined creativity with ease of use.

Q.105

A) This morning the boxer met the opponent who has beaten him three months earlier. B) This morning the boxer has met the opponent who had beaten him three months earlier. C) This morning the boxer had met the opponent who beat him three months earlier. D) This morning the boxer will meet the opponent who had beaten him three months earlier.

Q.106 A) Today there are too many people for too little jobs. B) Today there are too many people for so less jobs. C) Today there are so many people for too few jobs. D) Today there are too many people for too few jobs.

Q.107

A) A subject of great interest is rainforests. B) The subject of the great interest is rainforests. C) A subject of great interest are rainforests. D) A subject of the great interest are rainforests.

Q.108

A) The bus station was located by a river which was made of red brick. B) The bus station which was made of red brick was located by a river. C) The bus station was located by a river made of red brick. D) The bus station which located by a river was made of red brick.

UNIT WISE TESTS 12


Q.109 A) It is not only important to be on time, but also is it desirable being courteous. B) It is not only important to be on time, but is it also desirable to be courteous. C) It is not only important to be on time, but also desirable to be courteous. D) It is not only important to be on time, but also it is desirable to be courteous.

Q.110

A) Christopher spent hours bathing in a little pool half kilometer from the centre of the town. B) Christopher spent hours bathing in a little pool half a kilometer from the centre of the town. C) Christopher spent hours bathing in little pool half a kilometer from the centre of the town. D) Christopher spent hours bathing in a little pool half a kilometer from centre of town.

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Bubble / Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

Q.111 IMPROVISE

A) Ignore C) Contrive

B) Mar D) Strengthen

Q.112 DALE

A) Glen C) Ditch

B) Cave D) Crust

Q.113 ABNEGATE

A) Claim C) Relinquish

B) Worsen D) Anticipate

Q.114 GRAPEVINE

A) Orchard C) Gambit

B) Gossip D) Nectar

Q.115 FOP

A) Revolutionary C) Orthodox

B) Beau D) Discreet

Q.116 DISCRETION

A) Secrecy C) Choice

B) Discourtesy D) Depravity

Q.117 EXCAVATE

A) Treasure C) Cherish

B) Expel D) Unearth

Q.118 CRASS

A) Apt C) Sophisticated

B) Vulgar D) Supercilious

UNIT WISE TESTS 13


Q.119 CONTUMELY

A) Protraction C) Reverence

B) Incontinence D) Impudence

Q.120 BONK

A) Caress C) Bludgeon

B) Amass D) Challenge

PART IV – BIOLOGY Q.121 _________may either stimulate or inhibit a function.

A) Releasing factor C) Inhibiting factor B) Hormone D) All of these

Q.122 Oxytocin and ADH are released from their storage after receiving A) Releasing factor from hypothalamus C) Nerve impulses from the hypothalamus B) Inhibiting factor from hypothalamus D) Negative feedback

Q.123 Symptoms associated with lack of thyroid and adrenal hormone are produced by A) Over secretion of TSH C) Over secretion of STH B) Under secretion of STH D) Under secretion of TSH

Q.124 TSH directly acts on the cells of thyroid gland, increasing A) Their secretory activity only C) Both their number and secretory activity B) Their number only D) Both their size and secretory activity

Q.125 Release of corticotrophin releasing factor from the hypothalamus is controlled by A) The steroid levels in the blood B) By direct nervous stimulation of the hypothalamus C) As a result of stress D) All of these

Q.126 The cells that cling to an egg after ovulation are A) Cumulus cells C) Sperms B) Zygote D) All of these

Q.127 Excess and deficiency of _______ results in disturbance of normal adrenal functions A) TSH C) ACTH B) STH D) GH

Q.128 Prolactin stimulates A) Milk ejection C) Both A and B B) Lactation D) Milk production

Q.129 ADH is secreted in response to A) Internal stimuli C) Both A and B B) External sensory stimuli D) Increase in blood pressure

Q.130 Release of oxytocin is stimulated by A) Neural stimuli B) Distention of cervix C) Decrease in progesterone level in the blood D) All of these

UNIT WISE TESTS 14


Q.131 A presidential order prohibits cloning of __________ in USA. A) Mammals C) Humans B) Reptiles D) Fishes

Q.132 The primary action of _______ is on A) Skeletal muscle C) Smooth muscle B) Cardiac muscle D) All of these

Q.133 Principal mineralocorticoid is A) Cortisol C) Aldosterone B) Corticosterone D) Androgenic hormone

Q.134 The destruction of the adrenal cortex results in A) Addison’s disease C) Less production of cortical hormone B) Cushing’s disease D) All of these

Q.135 Stress situation may lead to collapse and death as a result of A) Immune deficiency B) Production of too much cortical hormone C) Destruction of adrenal cortex D) Destruction of adrenal cortex

Q.136 The insertion of genetic material into human cells for the treatment of a disorder is called A) Cloning C) Gene sequencing B) Gene therapy D) All

Q.137 Islets of Langerhans A) Work as exocrine glands C) Have more number of α cells B) Work as endocrine glands D) Have less β cells

Q.138 Insulin stimulates liver, muscles and adipose cells for A) Uptake of glucose C) Hydrolysis of glycogen B) Formation of glycogen D) All of these

Q.139 The repair and healing up of uterine wall after menstruation is assisted by A) Oxytocin C) Estrogen B) Progesterone D) None of these

Q.140 Testosterone raises its level, fairly constantly A) Until puberty C) Throughout life B) After puberty D) Until death

Q.141 Children suffering from (SCID) lack an enzyme A) Adenosine triaminase C) Adenosine triphosphate B) Adenosine deaminase D) Adenosine diphosphate

Q.142 Sex derive is promoted at puberty by A) ICSH C) Testosterone B) Androgens D) Amygdale

Q.143 Antibodies circulate freely, into the A) Blood C) Lymph and blood B) Lymph D) All body fluids

UNIT WISE TESTS 15


Q.144 B- cells synthesize and liberate antibodies into the A) Blood plasma C) Lymph B) Tissue fluid D) All of these

Q.145 Antivenom serum is injected into a person A) During snake bite C) Against snake bite B) After snake bite D) Against rabies

Q.146 ADA is involved in the maturation of A) T-cells C) T and B cells B) B-cells D) Blood protein

Q.147 The response of _________ is immediate, but not long lasting A) Anti- tetanus vaccine C) Anti snake bite vaccine B) Anti-rabies vaccine D) All of these

Q.148 Lymphoid structures not associated with immunity is/are A) Bursa of Fabricius C) Thyroid B) Thymus D) None of these

Q.149 Hydrocarbon tail of chlorophyll called phytol consists of A) 39 carbon, 20 hydrogen C) 25 carbons, 39 hydrogen B) 20 carbon, 39 hydrogen D) 20 carbon, 49 hydrogen

Q.150 _______ provides energized Electrons and H+ A) ATP C) FAD B) NADPH2 D) NADP

Q.151 In treatment of SCID, bone marrow stem cells are removed from the blood and infected with normal gene carrying A) Retro virus C) Adenovirus B) Bacteriophage D) Bacteria

Q.152 Calvin cycle may also be called as A) C3 pathway C) Photophosphorylation B) Phosphorylation D) All of these

Q.153 The difference between cyclic and non-cyclic phosphorylation is that of A) Photosystems involved C) Path acquired by electrons B) Energy being synthesized D) All of these

Q.154 In glycolysis of one glucose molecule, during anaerobic respiration in bacteria, the net energy formed is A) 4 ATPs C) 10 ATPs B) 8 ATPs D) 2 percent of the total potential energy

Q.155 Which one of the electron carrier is not involved in cyclic phosphorylation A) Pq C) Pc B) Fd D) Primary electron acceptor

Q.156 High level of blood cholesterol make the patient subject to A) Fatal heart attacks at old age C) Fatal brain tumor formation B) Fatal heart attacks at a young age D) Fatal blood clotting in capillaries

UNIT WISE TESTS 16


Q.157 Which reaction is involved only in cyclic phosphorylation? A) Reduction of NADP C) Photophosphorylation B) Photolysis of water D) Both A and B

Q.158 The total number of carbon dioxide molecules, NADPH molecules and ATP molecules required for synthesis of one maltose by Calvin cycle is as under A) 3:6:9 C) 12:24:36 B) 6:12:18 D) 24:48:72

Q.159 ____step of glycolysis is reversible A) 4 C) 6 B) 5 D) 7

Q.160 Pyruvate is converted into acetyl Co-A by A) Decarboxylation C) Condensation B) Oxidation D) All of these

Q.161 Gene therapy for the treatment of familial hypercholesterolemia may result in A) Increasing serum cholesterol level C) Removing all cholesterol from blood B) Lowering serum cholesterol level D) All of these

Q.162 Phosphorylation occurs ____times in glycolysis A) 1 C) 3 B) 2 D) 4

Q.163 How many times oxidation takes place in Glycolysis A) 1 C) 3 B) 2 D) 4

Q.164 In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATPs are synthesized in between A) NADH and FADH C) Cytochrome a3 and oxygen B) Cytochrome b and cytochrome c D) All of these

Q.165 Antithrombin III (as biotechnology product) is produce in A) Sheep C) Mice B) Goat D) Cow

Q.166 Which of the following is common method to get transgenic animals? A) Maxam-Gilbert method C) Vortex method B) Microinjection D) None of these

Q.167 Bovine growth hormones are obtained from A) Transgenic bacteria C) Transgenic animals B) Transgenic plants D) Both B and C

Q.168 Following does not prevents blood clotting A) Heparin C) Prothrombin B) Antithrombin D) Both B and C

Q.169 The disease in which transmembrane carrier for chloride ions is not produced is A) Hypercholesterolemia C) Severe combined immunodeficiency B) Cystic fibrosis D) Hemophilia

Q.170 Cystic fibrosis patient lack a gene that codes for a trans membrane carrier of the A) Chloride ion C) Calcium ion B) Sodium ion D) Bromide ion

UNIT WISE TESTS 17


MCQs Response Form

university of health sciences (uhs), lahore – ark...

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