university of health sciences (uhs), lahore – ark...

UNIT WISE TESTS 1

University of Health Sciences (UHS), Lahore – ARK Cumulative Test Series - 5

ARK Cumulative Test

Series ~ 5

Total MCQs: 170 Max. Marks: 850 Time Allowed: 125 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS i. Read the instructions on the MCQs Response Form carefully.

ii. Choose the Single Best Answer for each question.

iii. Candidates are strictly prohibited from giving any identification mark except Roll No. and Signature in the specified columns only.

COMPULSORY QUESTION FOR IDENTIFICATION Q-ID. What is the Colour of your Question Paper? A) White B) Blue C) Orange D) Green

Ans: Colour of your Question Paper is White. Fill the Circle Corresponding to Letter ‘A’ against ‘ID’ in your MCQ Response Form (Exactly as shown in the diagram).

SYLLABUS PHYSICS Unit 11: MAGNETISM AND ELECTROMAGNETISM

Unit 12: MODERN PHYSICS Unit 13: NUCLEAR PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY Unit 5C: ALDEHYDES AND KETONES Unit 6C: CARBOXYLIC ACIDS

Unit 7C: AMINO ACIDS Unit 8C: MACROMOLECULES

Unit 9C: ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY

ENGLISH GRAMMAR

VOCABULARY

BIOLOGY Unit 9: ECOSYSTEM

Unit 10: EVOLUTION AND GENETICS

A B C D

ID 1 2 3 4

UNIT WISE TESTS 2


PART I - PHYSICS

Q.1 The mass of α-particle is

A) 4Mp B) 4Mn

C) 2Mp + 2Mn D) 4Mp + 4Mp

Q.2 Gamma rays are:

A) Singly ionized gas atoms C) Fast moving electrons

B) Helium nuclei D) Electromagnetic waves

Q.3 Which one of following particles most early penetrates the nucleus of atoms?

A) A proton C) A deuteron

B) An -particle D) Neutron

Q.4 The potential difference between the top and bottom of a cloud chamber is of the order

of

A) 7 kV C) 1 kV

B) 10 kV D) 4 kV

Q.5 In Wilson cloud chamber the alpha particles leave

A) Thick tracks C) Continuous tacks

B) Straight tracks D) All of these

Q.6 228

88Ra is obtained through a series of transformations; the particles emitted in successive

transformations are αββαα

A) 228

88Ra C)

234

91U

B) 230

90Th D)

234

92U

Q.7 A Wilson cloud chamber uses

A) Super saturated vapours C) Saturated vapours

B) Vapours D) Saturated vapours

Q.8 Geiger counter is a device to detect

A) Optical experiments C) Mechanical experiments

B) Laser experiments D) Radioactivity experiments

Q.9 Quenching gas used in GM counter is

A) Noble gas C) Argon

B) Bromine D) Neon

Q.10 1 curie is equal to _______ disintegration per second

A) 3.7 x 1010 C) 3.7 x 1020

B) 5.7 x 1010 D) 3.7 x 1013

Q.11 I rad is equal to

A) 0.01 Gy C) 1.01 Gy

B) 0.09 Gy D) 0.001 Gy

UNIT WISE TESTS 3


Q.12 Radioactivity is a _______ A) Spontaneous activity C) Self disintegration property B) Chemical property D) Self disintegration property

Q.13 An α-particle is emitted for 228

88Ra . What is the mass and atomic number of the daughter

nucleus?

MASS NUMBER ATOMIC NUMBER

A) 224 84

B) 220 80

C) 222 86

D) 226 84

Q.14 The path of β-particle is ___________

A) Rectilinear C) Erratic B) Curved D) Elliptical

Q.15 If RBE factor = 10, De = 400 rem, does D = ________. A) 40 Gy C) 0.04 Gy B) 0.02 Gy D) 0.4 Gy

Q.16 One Joule of energy absorbed per Kg of body is A) Rem C) Becquerel B) Gray D) Rontgen

Q.17 Magnetic field does not cause deflection in

A) α-particle counting C) Beta-minus rays

B) γ-rays counting D) Gamma rays

Q.18 When a nucleus with atomic number Z and mass number A, undergoes a radioactive

decay process.

A) Both Z and A will decrease, if the process is α decay

B) Z will decrease but A will not change, if the process is β+ decay

C) Z will increase but A will not change, if the process is β− decay

D) All of these

Q.19 Period of metastable state is A) 10-8 sec C) 10-7 sec B) 10-5 sec D) 10-3 sec

Q.20 Three-dimensional image of object in a process is called A) Radiography C) Chemotherapy B) Sonography D) Holography

Q.21 Laser can be used in the field of ________ A) Telecommunication C) Navigation B) Medical D) All of these

Q.22 Laser beam is used as surgical tool for ______ detached retinas A) Welding C) Holography B) Molding D) None of these

UNIT WISE TESTS 4


Q.23 Red laser light have energy A) 1.90 eV C) 1.90 eV B) 1.86 eV D) 1.96 eV

Q.24 In Helium Neon laser, active medium is A) Ne gas C) He gas B) H gas D) Br gas

Q.25 Photon emitted in the direction of incident photon is known as A) Spontaneous emission C) Spontaneous absorption B) Induced emission D) Induced absorption

Q.26 KB characteristic x-rays are produced when electron jumps from A) L to K shell C) M to L shell B) M to K shell D) N to k shell

Q.27 Computerized axial tomography is A) BAT-scanner C) RAT-scanner B) CAT-scanner D) None of these

Q.28 For production of x-rays the anticathode should be bombarded with A) Protons C) X-Particles B) Neutrons D) Electrons

Q.29 Which of the following is not an application of LASER? A) Nuclear fusion C) Cutting B) Holography D) Nuclear fission

Q.30 If length of a solenoid is doubled, then magnetic field intensity A) Remains same C) Reduces to half of its initial values B) Becomes doubled D) Becomes four times

Q.31 In MRI, to visualize internal structure of body, we use A) X-rays C) raysγ

B) Ultrasonic rays D) Magnetic field

Q.32 In a long current carrying solenoid, the magnetic field produced does not depend upon A) Number of turns per unit length C) Current flowing B) Radius of solenoid D) All of the above

Q.33 The magnetic lines of force inside a current carrying solenoid are A) Along the axis and parallel to each other B) Perpendicular to the axis and parallel to each other C) Circular and do not intersect each other D) Circular and intersect each other

Q.34 When the current flowing through the wire is stopped, the magnetic field around the wire becomes. A) Doubles C) Half B) Remains same D) Zero

Q.35 The magnetic induction at a point P which is at the distance of 4 cm from a long current carrying wire is 10-3 T. the field of induction at a distance 12 cm from the wire will be? A) 3.33 x 10-4 T C) 1.11 x 10-4 T B) 3 x 10-3 T D) 9 x 10-3 T

UNIT WISE TESTS 5


Q.36 At what distance from a long straight wire carrying a current of 12 A will the magnetic field be equal to 3 x 10-6 Wb/m2. A) 8 x 10-2 m C) 12 x 10-2 m B) 8 x 10-1 m D) 24 x 10-2 m

Q.37 The magnetic field lines due to a current in a straight wire are nearly A) Straight C) Circular B) Parabolic D) Elliptical

Q.38 A straight wire of length 0.5 meter and carrying a current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction 2 Tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire is A) 2.4 N C) 1.2 N B) 3.0 N D) 2.0 N

Q.39 A rectangular coil has plane is at 60o with B. the torque experienced by the coil is ____

A) 2

NIAB C) 0.5 NIBA

B) 2

NIBA3 D) Both A and C

Q.40 In multi range ammeter, as the range increases A) Shunt value decreases C) Shunt value increases B) Shunt value remain same D) Range does not depend upon shunt

PART II - CHEMISTRY

Q.41 The back bone of each strand of DNA is formed by A) Nucleotides C) Sugar phosphate linkage B) Nucleosides D) None of these

Q.42 Which of the following is not present in RNA? A) Uracil C) Ribose B) Thymine D) Phosphate

Q.43 Simple lipids A) Triglycerides C) Phospho-triglycerides B) Ester of lower acids D) None

Q.44 Carboxylic acids have all the following properties except A) Solid at room temperature C) Giant ionic structure B) Dissolve in water D) Have low melting and boiling point

Q.45 Which of the following statement is not correct? A) Benzaldehyde give flavor of fresh almond C) Methanal is used as germicide and insecticide B) Amino acids are all optically active D) 2-heptanone give smell of blue cheese

Q.46 Which compound undergoes Cannizaro’s reaction A) Methanal C) Ethanal B) Acetone D) Phenol

Q.47 The most suitable reagent to distinguish an aldehyde from ketone is A) Semi-carbazide C) Ammonical AgNO3 B) DNP D) NH2OH

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Q.48 Methyl ketones usually characterized by A) Tollens tests C) Iodoform test B) Lucas test D) Fehling solution test

Q.49 When propan-1-ol is oxidized, the following product is formed A) CH3- CH2-CHO C) CH3-CO-CH3 C) CH3-O-CH2-CH3 D) CH3COOH

Q.50 Paraldehyde is polymer of A) HCHO C) CH3CHO B) CH3COCH3 D) CH3CH2CH2OH

Q.51 Formaldehyde undergoes all the reaction of aldehydes except A) Reduction C) Oxidation B) Aldol-condensation D) Polymerization

Q.52 Which one of the following will give ketone as a product on oxidation A) CH3CHO C) (CH3)3-C-OH B) CH3 – CHOH-CH3 D) CH3 – CH ═ CH3

Q.53 Propylene glycol is a

A) Polyhydric alcohol C) Dihydric alcohol B) Monohydric alcohol D) Trihydric alcohol

Q.54 Which of the following undergoes haloform reaction? A) CH3- CH2-CO- CH2-CH3 C) CH3- CH2-CO B) (CH3)2- CH-CHO D) CH3- CH═ CH3

Q.55 The general formula of homologous series of both aldehydes and ketones is

A) C2nHnO C) CnH2nO B) CnH2nOH D) CnHnO2n

Q.56 When an acyl chloride is heated with sodium salt of carboxylic acid, the compound

formed is an A) Ester C) Alkane B) Acid-anhydride D) Aldehyde

Q.57 Which is used as hypnotic drugs? A) Ethanol tetramer C) Ethanol trimer B) Chloral hydrate D) Both B and C

Q.58 Which one of the following compound will react easily with sodium hydroxide A) RNH2 C) RCOCl B) RCOOH D) RCH2OH

Q.59 Monocarboxylic acid can be obtained by hydrolyzing A) Alkyl cyanides B) Aldehydes B) Amide in presence of alkali D) Ethers

Q.60 Ketones are comparatively less reactive than aldehydes. It is due to A) Alkyl groups are electron donating C) Steric hindrance B) Positive inductive factor of alkyl group D) All of the above

UNIT WISE TESTS 7


Q.61 Di carboxylic acid having both the –COOH group linked to the same carbon atom on heating undergo A) Hydrolysis C) Dehydration B) Decomposition D) Decarboxylation

Q.62 Which of the following compounds will not give iodoform test (I2/NaOH)? A) Acetaldehyde C) Acetone B) 2-butanone D) 3-pentanone

Q.63 During esterification, conc. sulphuric acid acts as A) A catalyst C) Both A and B B) A dehydrating agent D) None of them

Q.64 Which of the followings alcohol is commonly used as anti-freeze in car radiators? A) Methanol C) Ethylene glycol B) Ethanol D) Glycerol

Q.65 Acyl chlorides on reduction with lithium hydride, followed by hydrolysis give A) Primary alcohol C) Secondary alcohol B) Carboxylic acids D) None of the above

Q.66 Which of the following gives the correct order of acid strength (strongest first) for ethanoic acid, chloroethanoic acid and phenol? A) CH3CO2H > C6H5OH > CH2ClCO2H C) CH2ClCO2H > C6H5OH > CH3CO2H B) CH3CO2H > CH2ClCO2H > C6H5OH D) CH2ClCO2H > CH3CO2H> C6H5OH

Q.67 Carboxylic acid are found commonly in nature. Their acidity is comparatively weak. Which of the following acid is present in Oranges and Lemons? A) 2-hydroxypropanoic acid C) Ethanedioicacid B) Methanoic acid D) 2hyroxypropane-1,2,3 tricarboxylic acid

Q.68 In carboxylic acid (RCOOH) only formic acid (H-COOH) acts as reducing agent because one H-atom is attached directly to carbon atom. It can reduce A) Fehling solution to red ppt. of Cu2O C) HgCl2 does not convert into white ppt. of Hg2Cl2 B) Tollens reagent to silver mirror D) Decolourizes acidified KMNO4

Q.69 Which of the following statement about carboxylic acid is incorrect? A) As number of (EWG) increase, acid strength increases B) As number of (ERG) increase, acidic strength increases C) Relative basic strength (of conjugate bases): RCOO- > PhO- > RO-

D) RCOOH are reduced to RCH2OH by LiAlH4 or H2/Copper

Q.70 Grignard Reagent easily reacts easily with A) Carbonyl compounds C) HCN B) CO2 D) All of the above

Q.71 In which of these processes are small organic molecules made into macromolecules A) The cracking of petroleum fractions C) Polymerization of ethene B) The fractional distillation of crude oil D) Hydrolysis of protein

Q.72 Fertilizer are classified according to type of: A) Cation present in them C) Anion present in them B) Elements present in them D) Both A and B

UNIT WISE TESTS 8


Q.73 Which of the following is not a hydroxy acid? A) Lactic acid C) Tartaric acid C) Citric acid D) Succinic acid

Q.74 Which of the following are generally used in the preparation of artificial flavors? A) Lower alcohol C) Ester of unsaturated fatty acid B) Ester of lower fatty acid D) Ester of higher fatty acid

Q.75 Which of the following will covert carboxylic acid to alkane with same number of carbon atom? A) H2/Adkin catalyst C) HI B) NaOH/CaO D) LiAIH4

Q.76 The pKa of which acid is lowest A) C6H5COOH C) CH3COOH B) CH3CH2COOH D) CH2FCOOH

Q.77 Which of the following is not a use of Phosphorus? A) Phosphorous stimulates the early growth of plants B) It increases the resistance to disease and frost C) Used always in the protein synthesis D) It accelerates the seed and fruit formation

Q.78 The increasing order of acid strength is correct in A) Phenol > Acetic Acid > Ethanol > Chloroacetic Acid B) Acetic Acid > Ethanol > Phenol >Chloroacetic Acid C) Ethanol > Phenol > Acetic Acid > Chloroacetic Acid D) Chloroacetic Acid > Acetic Acid > Ethanol > Phenol

Q.79 To avoid the formation of toxic compounds with chlorine which of the following is better used for the disinfectant of water A) HOCl C) ClO2 B) H2O2 D) NaClO

Q.80 Ecosystem is a small unit of A) Lithosphere C) Hydrosphere B) Atmosphere D) Biosphere

Q.81 Which of the following is secondary pollutant? A) Ammonia C) Sulphur tri-oxide B) Ozone D) Carbon monoxide

Q.82 Prilling of fertilizer increases: A) Its solubility C) It stability B) Its spreading power D) Its absorption

Q.83 Which statement is wrong A) The amount of ozone is greater in the region closer to the equator B) Ozone acts as filter for UV radiations C) In the polar region, it acts as pollutant D) CFC’s play effective role in removing O3 in the stratosphere

Q.84 Which method is used to remove permanent hardness of water? A) Aeration C) Coagulation B) Ion exchange method D) Chlorination

UNIT WISE TESTS 9


Q.85 Air pollution causes A) The greenhouse effect B) The depletion of the ozone layer C) Acid rain D) All of the above

Q.86 Which of the following diseases is not eradicated by the use of pesticides A) Malaria C) Yellow fever B) Small pox D) Sleeping sickness

Q.87 Glucose cannot be classified as A) A hexose C) An aldose B) A carbohydrate D) An oligosaccharide

Q.88 Sucrose is converted into glucose and fructose by an enzyme called A) Zymase C) Invertase B) Diastase D) Maltase

Q.89 Starch is hydrolyzed to maltose by an enzyme called A) Lipase C) Zymase B) Diastase D) Maltase

Q.90 The enzyme pepsin hydrolyses A) Protein to amino acid C) Fats to fatty acid B) Glucose to ethyl alcohol D) Polysaccharides to monosaccharides

PART III – ENGLISH

Q.91 The rest of Afghanistan, however, is ruled by warlords and _____ by factional fighting. A) Fumbled C) Crusaded B) Beset D) Disencumbered

Q.92 She could hear his voice, his ideas as _____ and clear as the waters of a mountain

spring. A) Evanescent C) Defiled B) Effervescent D) Brittle

Q.93 I had intended to adopt a more _____ approach, but his whole manner made me angry.

A) Aggressive C) Conciliatory B) Equivocal D) Inquisitive

Q.94 Both the brothers were naturally _____ without being bright enough to assess the risks

they took. A) Circumspect C) Audacious B) Ingenious D) Shrewd

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.

Q.95 If the elephant and the mouse had fallen in love, they would have many problems. A) B) C) D)

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Q.96 Courage is rightly esteemed the first of human qualities although it is the quality which guarantees A) B) C) D) all others.

Q.97 Hospital waste management means the management of waste produced by hospitals using such

A) techniques which will help to check the spread of diseases through it.

B) C) D) Q.98 The antagonism he felt toward his old enemies were still very strong.

A) B) C) D) Q.99 People usually wear cloths for two basic purposes - warmth and decoration.

A) B) C) D)

Q.100 As there is still need for improvement, we are now generally less fearful than our fathers and A) B) C) grandfathers were.

D)

In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

Q.101 A) The bang came suddenly, echoing across the buildings, and it shattered glass. B) Bang came suddenly, echoing across the buildings and it shattered glass. C) The bang came suddenly; echoing across the buildings and shattering glass. D) The bang came suddenly, echoing across buildings, and shattering glass.

Q.102 A) "Is the land belonging to you," she asked B) "Does the land belong to you," she asked? C) "Does the land belong to you?" she asked. D) "Is the land belonging to you?" she asked.

Q.103

A) They anticipated winning election. B) They anticipated winning the election. C) They anticipated to win the election. D) They anticipated to have election.

Q.104

A) There were musical instruments of different kind arranged in shelves round the walls. B) There were musical instruments of different kinds arranged at shelves around the walls. C) There were musical instruments of different kind arranged on shelves round the walls. D) There were musical instruments of different kinds arranged on shelves around the walls.

Q.105

A) Later, after the lecture is over, we would meet at the train station. B) Later, after the lecture is over, we will meet at the train station. C) Later, after the lecture was over, we had at the train station. D) Later, after the lecture had been over, we would meet at the train station.

UNIT WISE TESTS 11


Q.106 A) Each person will do the puzzle in his or her own way. B) Each person will do the puzzle in his own way. C) Each person will do the puzzle in one’s own way. D) Each person will do the puzzle in their own way.

Q.107

A) I'll give you a key because you can let yourself in. B) I'd give you key so you can let yourself in. C) I'll give you a key so that you can let yourself in. D) I'll give you a key so that you can let yourself into.

Q.108

A) The next waterhole was two days away and now travelers had neither food nor water. B) The next waterhole was two days away, and the travelers now had neither food nor water. C) The next waterhole was two days’ away, and the travelers now had neither food nor water. D) Next waterhole was two days away, and the travelers now had neither food nor water.

Q.109

A) Could you tell us what had you studied at university? B) Could you tell us what did you study at university? C) Could you tell us what did you study in university? D) Could you tell us what you studied at university?

Q.110

A) His new car is a hybrid: it gets fantastic mileage. B) His new car is a hybrid; it gets fantastic mileage. C) His new car is a hybrid, it gets fantastic mileage. D) His new car is a hybrid. it gets fantastic mileage.

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Bubble / Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

Q.111 LIGATURE A) Catholicity C) Division B) Bond D) Ramification

Q.112 MEDLEY

A) Refreshment C) Assortment B) Fecundity D) Tussock

Q.113 PRECIPITATE

A) Evaluate C) Hasten B) Slacken D) Intimate

Q.114 PENULTIMATE

A) First and foremost C) One and only B) Second to none D) Next to last

Q.115 PRECURSOR

A) Descendant C) Practitioner B) Forerunner D) Point

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Q.116 RESOUND A) Reread C) Rehabilitate B) Reverberate D) Reciprocate

Q.117 STIMULI

A) Incentives C) Posthaste B) Assiduousness D) Misgivings

Q.118 LACONIC

A) Sizzling C) Succinct B) Quaint D) Ornate

Q.119 QUERULOUS

A) Smug C) Discontented B) Quiescent D) Callous

Q.120 OTIOSE

A) Exotic C) Sequential B) Futile D) Fruitful

PART IV – BIOLOGY Q.121 Which one of the following is wrong about producers

A) They are photosynthetic B) They capture and bring the light energy into the ecosystem C) They are able to manufacture organic food D) None of the above

Q.122 All such organisms which obtain energy directly or indirectly from the producers as readymade organic food are called A) Decomposers C) Consumers B) Symbionts D) Recyclers

Q.123 And the organisms which obtain their energy from the dead and decaying plants and animals are called A) Bacteria C) Fungi B) Decomposers D) Algae

Q.124 The main processes occurring in an ecosystem are A) Feeding C) Circulation of chemical elements B) Energy flow through the ecosystem D) All of the above

Q.125 In ________ assemblages of plants and animals, replace the earlier ones in somewhat predictable manner A) Ecosystem C) Biosphere B) Community D) Succession

Q.126 Major forms of succession are A) Xerosere and hydrosere C) Primary succession and secondary succession B) Pioneer and climax communities D) Succession and community relay

Q.127 They can live in extreme conditions A) Crustose lichen C) Foliose lichen B) Moss stage D) Herbaceous stage

UNIT WISE TESTS 13


Q.128 They can absorb water during dry season A) Crustose lichen C) Foliose lichen B) Moss stage D) Herbaceous stage

Q.129 The example of foliose lichen is A) Lecanor C) Dermatocarpon B) Permelia D) Both B and C

Q.130 The growth crustose lichen is reduced by the shade of A) Moss C) Foliose lichen B) Herbaceous stage D) Shrub stage

Q.131 When the spoil become more porous with some litter of lichens, it is invaded by A) Moss C) Algae B) Fungi D) Tall trees

Q.132 Polytrichum and Tortula compete with _______ for water and penetrate much deeper into the soil as compared to the lichens, adding more humus to the soil. A) Moss C) Algae B) Lichen D) Tall trees

Q.133 The host to symbiotic bacteria are A) Pea C) Bean B) Legume plants D) All of these

Q.134 The relationship between insects and flowering plants is another example of A) Mutualism C) Commensalism B) Parasitism D) Predation

Q.135 The relationship between primary consumer and secondary consumer may be called as A) Mutualism C) Commensalism B) Parasitism D) Predation

Q.136 The variety of pathways in a food web A) Helps to maintain the stability of a food chain C) May disturb the stability of the ecosystem B) Helps to maintain the stability of the species D) Helps to maintain the species of the ecosystem

Q.137 The food webs A) Are as straight forward as food chain C) Are not as straight forward as food chain B) Are as straight forward as energy flow D) Are as straight backward as food chain

Q.138 The amount of energy left after plants have met their respiratory needs, which shows up plant biomass, is called A) Gross primary productivity C) Net primary productivity B) Gross secondary productivity D) Net secondary productivity

Q.139 About 1 % of the total solar energy, comes from the sun, is absorbed by the plants and rest of the 99% is A) Used to evaporate water C) Lost the outer space B) Used to heat up the soil D) All of these

Q.140 Early man had a niche as A) A primary consumer C) A tertiary consumer B) A secondary consumer D) A predator

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Q.141 Which one is true A) A long food chain of four or five links supports a community more efficiently B) A short food chain of two or three links supports a community less efficiently C) A short food chain of two or three links do not supports a community more efficiently D) A short food chain of two or three links supports a community more efficiently

Q.142 Overhunting and overfishing is the consequence of A) Dependence of many countries on the food from sea B) Man’s activities which result in extinction of species C) Deforestation and cutting down of natural woodlands D) Land clearance and destruction of natural habitats

Q.143 Man is ____________animal and his increasing population makes ___________, respectively A) Terrestrial, more use of land C) Both A and B are true B) Terrestrial, other animals deprived of land D) Using land, him terrestrial

Q.144 Reason for population explosion is A) Improved nutrition C) Starvation B) Overcrowding D) Destruction of countryside

Q.145 Deforestation results in A) Erosion C) High level of atmospheric CO2 B) Extreme temperature D) All of these

Q.146 ________________with high rainfall is suitable for tree growth. A) Regions with high rainfall C) Regions with medium rainfall B) Regions with low rainfall D) Regions with no rainfall

Q.147 Some genes have as many as A) 10 alleles C) 300 alleles B) 200 alleles D) 1000 alleles

Q.148 All such altered alternate forms of gene, whose number is more than two, are called A) Polygenic alleles C) Mutant alleles B) Multiple alleles D) All

Q.149 Maleness is determined in man by A) SRY gene C) Y-chromosome B) X- chromosome D) Autosome

Q.150 X-linked recessive trait is formed in A) Hypophosphatemic rickets C) Hemophilia B) Colour blindness D) Both B and C

Q.151 Chances for a man to be affected by hemophilia A and B are ________ than woman A) Double C) Less B) Equal D) 17 times more

Q.152 A man can suffer from hemophilia A and B when A) He is homozygous for recessive allele C) He has just one recessive allele B) He is heterozygous for recessive allele D) Both A and B

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Q.153 The single recessive allele for hemophilia expresses successfully in the hemizygous son because his Y- chromosome A) Does not carries its counterpart C) Has SRY gene for maleness B) Has only recessive gone D) All of these

Q.154 If a male suffers from hemophilia, then

A) His father will be normal C) His mother will be normal B) His mother will be carrier D) Both A and C

Q.155 True color blindness is

A) Monochromacy C) Trichromacy B) Dichromacy D) Tetrachromacy

Q.156 In case of blue cone monochromacy

A) Blue cone cell is absent C) Green cone cell is absent B) Red cone cell is absent D) Both red and green cone cells are absent

Q.157 Blue cone monochromacy is also called

A) Red green colour blindness C) Red blue colour blindness B) Blue green colour blindness D) Both A and B

Q.158 Testicular feminization syndrome is a

A) Common x linked recessive trait C) Rare X-linked recessive trait B) Rare X-linked dominant trait D) Both A and B

Q.159 X-linked dominant inheritance is more common in

A) Males C) Both A and B B) Females D) None

Q.160 Beard growth in human is a trait

A) X-linked C) Sex-limited B) Y-linked D) Sex-influenced

Q.161 Example of sex influenced trait is

A) Pattern baldness C) Color blindness B) Beard growth D) Anemia

Q.162 The origin of species convinced most biologists that species are products of

A) Inheritance C) Mutation B) Evolution D) All of the above

Q.163 Darwin’s theory was mainly based on the evidence from

A) The geographical distribution C) Both A and B B) The fossil record D) None of these

Q.164 Armadillos, the armored mammals, live only in

A) Africa C) Australia B) America D) Britain

Q.165 Organs which are functionally different but structurally alike are called

A) Analogous organs C) Homologous organs B) Vestigial organ D) All of these

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Q.166 Embryonic stages of development are similar in A) Fishes and frogs C) Human and mouse B) Snakes and birds D) All of these

Q.167 Similar changes occur in the embryonic development of A) Different species of organism C) All the organism B) Closely related organisms D) None of the above

Q.168 According to Darwin which thing accounts for the entire diversity of life? A) Natural selection C) Inheritance B) Artificial selection D) All of these

Q.169 Natural selection can amplify or diminish only those variations that are A) Heritable C) Continuous B) Non-heritable D) Discontinuous

Q.170 During energy transformation at different trophic levels, the energy lost as heat is in range: A) 10 – 20% C) 40 – 80% B) 20 – 40% D) 80 – 90%

UNIT WISE TESTS 17


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university of health sciences (uhs), lahore – ark...

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