tests for pmt

Leader test series : class 12

Test 1:

Q No: 1

The average distance of sun from the earth is :-(1) 1 AU(2) 1 ly(3) 1 parsec(4) 1 fermi

Correct Answer: 1Q No: 2

Which of the following is correct order :-(1) 1 AU > 1 ly > 1 parsec > 1 fermi(2) 1 ly > 1 AU > 1 parsec > 1 fermi(3) 1 parsec > 1 ly > 1 AU > 1 fermi(4) 1 parsec > 1 AU > 1 ly > 1 fermi


The true value of certain length is near 3.567 cm. In experiment the measured value is found 3.5 cm, while in another experiment the measure value is 3.38 cm then :-(1) First measurement has more accuracy and more precision(2) Second measurement has more accuracy and more precision(3) First measurement has more accuracy and less precision(4) Second measurement has more accuracy and less precision

Correct Answer: 3 Q No: 4

Which of the following is correct :-(1) More precise measurement will always be more accurate(2) More accurate measurement will always be more precise(3) More accurate measurement may have less preciseon(4) None of the above

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 5

The innel diametal of hollow metal cylinder is (20 ± 0.5) mm and outer diameter is (21 ± 0.1) mm then thickness metal surface of cylinder with its error limits :-(1) (1 ± 0.6) mm(2) (1 ± 0.4) mm(3) (0.5 ± 0.3) mm(4) (0.5 ± 0.2) mm

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 6

The centripetal force acting on a particle of mass m moving with velocity v in a circle of radius r is

given by, FC = velocity is measured as v = (100 ± 1) m/s and radius as r = (20 ± 0.1) m then

maximum possible error in force measurement :- (1) 1.1% (2) 1.5% (3) 0.5% (4) 2.5%


Find the percentage error in Z, if Z = Given that percentage error in measurement of A, B, C and D is 2%, 1% , 4% and 2% respectively :-(1) 2% (2) 10% (3) 8% (4) 4%


Which of the following equation dimensionally correct (Symbol represent their usual meaning) :-(1)

(2) v = ut + at2

(3) v2 = u2 + 2at(4) s = u + at

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 9

Which of the following conversion is true :-(1) 1 Kgm2 S–2 = 105 gcm2 S–2

(2) 3 × 108 m/s = 3.00,000 km/h(3)

(4) 18 = 5 m/s2


Which of the following is not a relative term :-(1) Displacement(2) Velocity(3) Acceleration(4) None


Which position - time graph acceleration is negative :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


Uniform motion means :-(1) If an object covers equal distance in equal interval of time(2) If an object cover equal angle in equal interval of time(3) If an object cover equal magnitude of displacement in equal internal of time(4) If an object cover equal displacement in equal internal of time


The position of an object moving along x-axis is given by -x = a + bt2

where a = 10 m and b = 5 m/s2 then average velocity between t = 1.0 s and t = 3s(1) 40 m/s(2) 30 m/s(3) 27.5 m/s(4) 20 m/s


In which of the following velocity-time graph magnitude of displacement is maximum :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 15

Which of the following is example of free fall (neglecting air resistance) :-(1) A body is dropped from a building(2) A body is projected horizontally from a building(3) A body is projected at an angle 30º from horizontal from ground(4) All of the above


Two parallel rail tracks run north-south train A moves towards north with a speed of 54 km/h and train B moves towards south with speed of 90 km/h what is velocity of B with respect to A :-(1) 144 kmh–1 towards south(2) 144 kmh–1 towards north(3) 36 kmh–1 towards south(4) 36 kmh–1 towards north


Which of the following is correct for given position (x) and time (t) graph of two objects :-

(1) B has covered B more distance as compaired to A(2) B and A has same non zero acceleration(3) B and A finally reaches at same point(4) B is not moving relative to A


Which of the following is correct formula for average velocity for a particle starts its motion with velocity u and atteneds final velocity v in time t moving with uniform acceleration :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


For student safety traffic police want to form a speed breaker with having speed limit of 36 km/hr. If average deceleration caused by the breaking is 2.5 m/s2 then at what distance before the school the breakes should be form :-(1) 10 m (2) 5 m (3) 20 m (4) None


A stone is dropping from a building of height 125 m. A person is standing just below it. If the reaction time of this person is 1 second then to avoid collision at what minimum height the person should observe the stone (g = 10 m/s2) :-(1) 125 m(2) 80 m(3) 45 m

(4) NoneCorrect Answer: 3 Q No: 21

The velocity-time graph of a particle in one dimensional motion is shown is figure :

Which of the following formula is correct for describing the motion of the particle over the time interval t1 to t2.(1)

x(t2) = x(t1) = v1 + a(t2 – t1)2

(2) v2 = v1 + a(t2 – t1)(3)

vavg = (4)

x(t2) – x(t1) = vavg(t2 – t1) + aavg (t2 – t1)2


The speed time graph of a particle moving along a fixed direction is shown below :-

Then in the time interval of t = 0 to t = 10 sec the average speed will be :-(1) 12 m/s(2) 6 m/s(3) 0 m/s(4) None


Rain in falling vertically with speed 35 ms–1. A student rides a bicycle with a speed of 21 ms–1 in east to west direction. What is the direction in which he should hold the umbrella :-(1) 37º with vertical towards the west(2) 37º with vertical towards the east(3) 53º with vertical towards the west(4) 53º with vertical towards the east


A platform of length 10 m is placed on surface. A boy run on it with 1 m/s relative to ground and plat form also move with 1 m/s relative to ground in opposite direction then he crosses the platform in :-(1) 10 s (2) 5 s (3) 20 s (4) None

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 25

A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with a velocity (8î + 6ĵ) m/s and moves in x – y plane under action of force which produces constant acceleration of (–2î + 2ĵ) m/s2 then what is the y-coordinate of the particle at the instant its x-coordinate is 16 m :-(1) 16 m(2) 32 m(3) 40 m(4) 64 m


A particle starts its motion at t = 0 with velocity 8î m/s. In x – y plane a force act on it which produces 2ĵ m/s2 acceleration in it what is the speed of particle at the instant when x co-ordinate becomes 24 m :-(1) 10 m/s(2) 8 m/s(3) 6 m/s(4) None


In Translatory motion a body moves :-(1) Always along a straight line(2) Always along a circular path(3) Always along a parabolic path(4) Along any arbitrary path


The incorrect statement about distance is :-(1) Distance is the actual length covered along the path(2) Distance can never decrease(3) Distance can be negative(4) Distance cannot be zero for a moving body


Choose the correct statement :-(1) Average speed is equal to magnitude of average velocity.(2) Average velocity cannot be zero for a moving body.(3) The magnitude of average velocity is always less than or equal to the average speed.(4) Average velocity is not a vector quantity


A car starts travelling with constant acceleration along a straight track It travels 22 m distance in the sixth second. The constant acceleration of the car is :-(1) 8.8 m/s–2

(2) 4 m/s–2

(3) 2 ms–2

(4) Cannot be calculatedCorrect Answer: 2

Q No: 31

A particle moving along the x-axis travels with velocity 2 ms–1 for 1s and with velocity 1 ms–1 for 2s. The average velocity of the particle is :-(1) 1.5 ms–1

(2) 1 ms–1

(3) 1.33 ms–1

(4) None of theseCorrect Answer: 3 Q No: 32

A ball is dropped from the top of tower. During the last second of its fall it travels a distance of 55 m. Then the total time of its fall is :-(1) 5 s(2) 4 s(3) 6 s(4) None of these


Two balls A and B are thrown with same speed u from the top of a tower ball A is thrown vertically upwards and the ball B is thrown vertically downwards. If tA and tB are the respective time taken by the balls A and B to reach the ground then identify the correct statement :-(1) tA > tB

(2) tA = tB

(3) tA < tB

(4) Cannot be interpretedCorrect Answer: 1 Q No: 34

A ball is thrown vertically upward from top of a tower and it reaches at foot of the tower in 6s then the height of the tower is :-(1) 180 m(2) 120 m(3) 90 m(4) 60 m


A ball is thrown vertically downward from top of a tower with speed 20 m/s and it reaches the ground in just 4 seconds. If the same ball is thrown horizontally with same speed from the same position then time required to reach the ground :-(1) 16 s (2) 12 s (3) 8 s (4) 4 s


The velocity-time graph of a body shown then incorrect statement :-

(1) Average speed is Zero during BD(2) Average velocity is zero during BD(3) Average acceleration is zero during BD(4) All of the above


The displacement of a particle moving along a straight line as a function of time t is given by :-x = t3 + 2t2 + 3t + 4then which of the following statements is incorrect :-(1) The particle starts from origin(2) The initial velocity of the particle is 3 ms–1

(3) The acceleration of the particle is variable(4) The particle starts with an acceleration of 4 ms–2


A particle moves in a circle of radius 25 cm at two revolutions per second. The acceleration of the particle is ms–2 is :-(1) 0.25 π2

(2) 8 π2

(3) 4 π2

(4) 2 π2


If the equation for the displacement of a particle moving on a circular path is given by θ = 2t3 + 0.5 where θ is in radian and t in second, then the angular velocity of the particle at t = 2s is :-(1) 8 rad/s(2) 12 rad/s(3) 24 rad/s(4) 36 rad/s


A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration about its axis initially its angular velocity is zero. In the first 2s. It rotates through an angle θ1, in the next 2s. It rotates through an additional angle θ2. The ratio of θ2/θ1 :-(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 5

Correct Answer: 3Assertion :- The position time velocity-time and acceleration-time graph having sharp kinks at some points can not imply realistic situations.Reason :- Acceleration and velocity cannot change values abruptly at an instant. The changes are always continuous.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) DCorrect Answer: 1

Assertion :- In uniform circular motion , and represent radial vector, velocity vector and acceleration respectevely then ∙ < 0 and ∙ = 0.Reason :- In uniform circular motion radial vector is in radially outward direction velocity is tangential and acceleration is radially inwards.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) DCorrect Answer: 1

Assertion :- A particle is projected horizontally from top of a tower. It's motion is free fall under gravity.Reason :- Motion of a body is free fall if its initial vertical velocity is zero.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) DCorrect Answer: 3Assertion :- The displacement time graph can be symmetric about the displacement axis.Reason :- A particle can have same displacement at two different instant

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) DCorrect Answer: 1Assertion :- The area of velocity-time graph between the two instants always give the change in displacement between two instants

Reason :- S2 – S1 = . Here S1 and S2 represent displacement at time t1 and t2 respectively.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


has the IUPAC name :-(1) Cyclohex-1-en-3-ol(2) Cyclohex-1-en-6-ol(3) Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol(4) Cyclohex-5-en-1-ol


has the IUPAC name :-(1) 4-methyl-5-Chloro-1-nitrobenzene(2) 1-methyl-4-nitro-6-Chloro benzene(3) 2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene(4) 1-Chloro-2-methyl-5-nitrobenzene


The correct IUPAC name of is :-(1) Methyl ethanoate(2) Acetato ethanoate(3) Ethanoic anhydride(4) Ethanoyl ethanoate


The IUPAC name of the compound is :-

(1) 4-Methylcyclopent-1-en-2-amine(2) 2-Methylcyclopent-4-en-1-amine(3) 3-Methylcylopent-1-en-2-amine(4) 5-Methylcyclopent-2-en-1-amine


The IUPAC name of compound is :-

(1) 5-(2, 2-Dimethyl butyl)-3-ethyldecane(2) 5-(2-Ethylbutyl)-3,3-dimethyldecane(3) 5-(3-Ethylbutyl)-3,3-dimethyl decane(4) None of these


Correct resonating structure for acetate ion is :(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the aboveCorrect Answer: 1Q No: 52

Which of the following compounds does not show electromeric effect(1) CH3 – CN(2) CH3 – CHO(3) CH2 = CH2

(4) CH3 – ClCorrect Answer: 4 Q No: 53

Hyperconjugation is not present in(1)

(2) CH3 – CH = CH2

(3) (4) 1 and 3 both


Which of the following resonating structure is least stable :-

(1) I(2) II(3) III(4) All are equally stable


In which of the following resonance will be possible :-(1) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CHO(2) CH2 = CH – CH = O(3) CH3COOH(4) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH = CH2


In Which of the following, there is no change in the hybridisation :-(1) (2)

(3)

(4)


2-Hydroxybenzoic acid is the IUPAC name of :-(1) Meso-tartaric acid(2) Crotonic acid(3) Citraconic acid(4) Salicylic acid

Correct Answer: 4

CorrNo: 58

The hybridisation in 1, 2 Butadiene is :-(1) sp, sp2, and sp3

(2) sp2 and sp3

(3) sp2 and sp(4) sp and sp3


No. of σ and π bond in pent-1-en-4-yne is :-(1) 10, 3(2) 3, 10

(3) 4, 9(4) 9, 4


How many primary [P], secondary [S] and teritiary [T] free radicals can be written for C4H9 :-(1) P-1 S-1 T-2(2) P-2 S-1 T-1(3) P-2 S-0 T-1(4) P-1 S-2 T-1


Which of the following pair does not show equal percentage composition of C and H :-(1) Propene, α-Butylene(2) Ethene, Propene(3)

(4) 2-Butene, 2-butyneCorrect Answer: 4 Q No: 62

Hybridised carbon atoms used in the formation of the compound [CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH3] :-(1) sp and sp3

(2) sp2 and sp3

(3) sp and sp2

(4) only sp2


Minimum number of alkenyl radical will be formed by :-(1) Isobutylene(2) α-Butylene(3) Propylene(4) 2, 3-Dimethyl-2-butene


One-primary, five-secondary and one-teritiary carbons are present in this compound :-(1) Cyclohexane(2) Neohexane(3) Benzene(4) Toluene


What is the number of sp hybridised carbon atom in the compound :-

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1Correct Answer: 2 Q No: 66

In which of the following compounds all the atoms are present in the same plane :-

1. 2. CH2 = CH – CH = CH2

3. 4. HC ≡ CH5. CH3 – CH3Correct answer is(1) 2, 4 (2) 1, 5 (3) 3, 4 (4) 3, 5


In which of the following labelled atom represents correct electrophilic centre :-(1) (2) (3) (4)


Which of the following is true :(1) The molecule having more no. of important canonical structures generaly has more resonance

energy(2) Actual structure of a molecule has energy lower than that of any of resonating structures(3) Resonance energy is the difference of energies of most and the least stable canonical

structures(4) 1 and 2 Both

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 69

Which of the following structure is incorrect :-(1) CH3 – CH = O+ – H(2) CH3 – CH2 – NH¯(3)

(4) CH3 – O = N = OCorrect Answer: 4

Q No: 70

C – C bond length would be minimum in :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) ≡C–C≡Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 71

The stability of the compounds :-

(1) 1 > 3 > 2 > 4(2) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2(3) 4 > 1 > 3 > 2(4) 2 > 3 > 4 > 1

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 72

Arrange following carboanion in their stability order :-

(1) iv > ii > iii > i(2) i > iii > ii > iv(3) i > ii > iii > iv(4) ii > iii > iv > i


Arrange in increasing order of inductive effect for (CH3)3–C–, (CH3)2–CH–, CH3–CH2–, If these alkyl groups are attached with benzyl or unsaturated group(1) (CH3)3–C– < (CH3)2 – CH – < CH3 –CH2–(2) CH3–CH2– < (CH3)2 – CH – < (CH3)3 –C–(3) (CH3)2–CH– < (CH3)3 – C – < CH3 –CH2–(4) (CH2)3–C– < CH3 – CH2 – < (CH3)2 –CH–


Which of the following is least stable resonating structure of 1–methoxy-1, 3-butadiene :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Correct Answer: 3Q No: 75

Most stable carbonium ion is :-(1)

(2)

(3) (4)


Most stable carbanion is :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Correct Answer: 4Q No: 77

Bond angle of 120º is not present in the compound :-(1) Ethylene(2) Benzene(3) Isobutylene(4) Methyl acetylene

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 78

Proton donation tendency becomes minimum if E in the E–COOH is replaced by :-(1) –CHCl2(2) –CH2Cl(3) –CCl3(4) –CHF2


Which free radical is most stable :-(1) (CH3)2 – CH – H2

(2) (CH3)3 – C – H2

(3) CH3 H2

(4) All have equal stabilityCorrect Answer: 3Q No: 80

Singlet methylene is :-(1) Lewis base(2) Diamagnetic(3) Nucleophile(4) Paramagnetic

correct Answer: 2

CQ No: 81

Which of the following behave both as a nucleophile as well as an electrophile ?(1) CH3 – C ≡ N(2)

(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH3

(4) Both 1 and 2Correct Answer: 4Q No: 82

Positivly charged nucleophile is :-(1) (2)

(3)

(4) Correct Answer: 3 Q No: 83

In which of the following homolytic fission maximum energy will be absorbed :-(1) (CH3)2CH – CH2 – CH3 → (CH3)2CH – H – CH3 + H·

(2) (CH3)2CH – C2H5 → (CH3)2 – C2H5 + H·

(3) (CH3)2CH – CH3 → (CH3)2CH – CH·2 + H·

(4) (CH3)3C – CH2 – CH3 → (CH3)3C – H – CH3 + H·


Which of the following compound posses the C–H bond with the lowest bond dissociation energy(1) Toluene(2) Benzene(3) n-Pentane(4) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane


R – CH2 – Br when undergoes heterolytic cleavage of C – Br, we get :-(1) Two carbonium ion(2) Two carbanion(3) Two free radical(4) One cation + One anion

Correct Answer: 4

Assertion :- In the compound, the most electronegative carbon is II.Reason :- Carbon atom II has more s-character.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) DCorrect Answer: 1Assertion :- Carbocation (II) is more stable than carbocation (I).

Reason :- Carbocation (II) has more positive inductive effect of-CD3 group as compared to CH3 group.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Correct Answer: 4 Assertion :- PH3 is stronger nucleophile than NH3.Reason :- PH3 is stronger base than NH3.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Correct Answer: 3

Assertion :- The acidic strength of the following is HF > H2O > NH3 > CH ≡ CH.Reason :- More stable the conjugate base, of the corresponding acid, more the acidic strength.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) DCorrect Answer: 4Assertion :- Benzyl carbanion is more stable than n propyl carbanion.Reason :- The carbon atom in carbanion is trivalent.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) DCorrect Answer: 2Q No: 91

Which statement is incorrect :-(1) Mycoplasma, is the smallest cell(2) Only nucleic acids are genetical material(3) Nerve cells are longest cell(4) Organelles absents in prokaryotic cell


Cytoskeleton of Erythrocytic membrane is consists of :-(1) Ca-carbonate(2) Ca-pectate(3) Spectrins(4) Antibody


Kinetochore founds on :-(1) Telomere(2) Centromere(3) Nucleolus(4) Chromomere


Glyoxisomes occurs in :-(1) Rice grain(2) Wheat grain(3) Castor seeds(4) Vessels


Who state that ‘‘Omnis Cellula-e cellula’’ :-(1) Schleiden(2) Virchow(3) Schwann(4) Robert Hooke


Which pair is wrong :-

(1) Golgibody Formation of glycoprotein(2) S.E.R. Formation of Steroidal substances

(3) R.E.R. Ribosome formation(4) Golgi apparatus Cell plate formation(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4


Function of Endoplasmic reticulum is / are :-(a) Detoxification(b) Formation of cell wall(c) Formation of nuclear membrane(d) Intracellular exchange of material(1) a, b, d(2) a, c, b(3) a, c, d(4) a, b, c, d


Which statement is false :-(1) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in oxysome head(2) Cell wall material are synthesised in Dictyosomes(3) H2O2 degraded by peroxisomes(4) SER involve in protein synthesis


Which statement is wrong for prokaryotic cell :-(1) Histone protein are not associated with DNA(2) Cell wall consists of Mucopeptide(3) Mesosome is respiratory structure(4) Gametes produced by meiosis


Which of the following event is not correctly matched, during meiosis-I :-(1) Pairing in Homologous chromosomes → Zygotene(2) Exchange of gene or chromatid segments → Pachytene(3) Visible of Chiasmata → Diplotene(4) Spliting of centromere → Anaphase-I


Match the following pairs and give correct answer :-

A R. Virchow P “Omnis Cellulae Cellula”

B W. Waldayer Q Nucleosome ModelC H.G. Khorana R Term ‘Chromosome’D Kornberg & Thomas S Invitro “Gene

synthesis”(1) A → P B → Q C → R D → S(2) A → P B → R C → S D → Q(3) A → Q B → P C → R D → S(4) None of these


Which is known as organelle within an organelle :-(1) Lysosomes(2) Ribosomes(3) R.E.R.(4) S.E.R.


Which cell organelle has structure like piles of coin :-(1) Mitochondria(2) Ribosome(3) Chloroplast(4) Cilia

correct Answer: 3

Q No: 104

Which statement is incorrect :-(1) On the basis of nuclear organization cell are two types(2) Chromoplasts are coloured due to presence of xanthophyll & carotene(3) Cilia & Flagella are locomotion organelle(4) Both animal and plant cells have a well defined cell wall

Correct Answer: 4 Status: unattempted

Q No: 105

Which statement is wrong :-(1) Mitochondria and chloroplast both involved in phosphorylation(2) Chlorophyll - a is located in thylakoid membranes(3) Histone protein associated with chromosome of bacteria(4) Ribosome is without membrane organelle


Q No: 106

ER fused with ______ Face of golgi apparatus :-(1) Cis(2) Trans(3) Concave(4) Maturing


Mitoriobosomes are :-(1) 80-s type(2) 60-s type(3) 70-s type(4) 120-s type


First of all living cell was saw and described by :-(1) M. Schleiden(2) T. Schwann(3) Anton von leeuwenhock(4) R. Hooke


Various biochemical reactions or most cellular activities occurs in which arena of cell :-(1) Cell Membrane(2) Vacuole(3) Nucleolus(4) Cytoplasm


Centrosome is an organelle usually containing ____ cylindrical structures called ____ :-(1) Cisternae, crista(2) 9 + 0, Tubules(3) Two, Centrioles(4) 9 + 2, granna


Nucleus absents in :-(1) Neurons(2) Throcytes of mammals(3) WBCs(4) Chlamydomonas

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 112

Which cell Division produces haploid phase in life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms :-(1) Amitosis(2) Mitosis(3) Meiosis(4) Dinomitosis


What is the mean of A, B, and C in given diagram:-

Diagram(1) A Stroma lamella

B GranaC Ribosomes

(2) A StromaB RibosomesC Grana

(3) A RibosomesB StarchC Grana

(4) A GranaB StromaC Ribosomes


Which of the following is not a function of cytoskeleton :-(1) Shape of cell(2) Motility(3) Mechanical support(4) Photophosphorylation


What is the two structures, found in centrosome :-(1) Cisternae(2) Cristae(3) Centriole(4) Centromere


How many statements are corrects in a to d :-(a) Telocentric chromosome has a terminal centromere(b) Chromatin contains DNA and histone mainly(c) Kinetochore is a site of ATP synthesis, during divisions(d) RNA packaging in the form of nucleosome in a chromosome(1) Three(2) Four(3) Two(4) None of these


Study the following and choose the correct statements :-(i) Number of mitochondria per cell depends on activity of cell(ii) Mitochondria are site of aerobic respiration(iii) Mitochondria have their own DNA(iv) Mitochondria divided by Mitosis(1) i, ii are correct(2) i, iii, iv, are correct(3) i, ii, iii are correct(4) ii, iii, iv, are correct


Which pair is wrong :-(1) Anaphase Centromere spliting

(2) Telophase Reformation of nucleolus(3) Metaphase Duplication of cell organells(4) Cellplate Plant cell division


During cell division genetic material duplicates in :-(1) G1-Phase(2) S-Phase(3) G2-Phase(4) G0-Phase


Which pair is true :-

Structures Presence1 Cisternae Golgi complex, E.R.2 Grana Chromatophore3 Crista Nucleolus4 Spindles Undividing - Cells(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4


Cell theory was proposed by(1) Cell theory was proposed by(2) Australian Scientist; Beadle, Tatum(3) Scientist; Schlieden, Schwann(4) Dixon, Stephan Hales


Telomerase is an enzyme which is a :-(1) Simple protein(2) RNA(3) Ribonucleioprotein(4) Repetitive DNA


In G2 phase of cell cycle, DNA in diploid Cell is :-(1) 2n (2) n (3) 4n (4) 3n


Beside the nucleus eukaryotic cells have other membrane bound distinct structures called as :-(1) Protista(2) Monera(3) Organelle(4) Cristae


Non-Membranous organelle ribosomes founds in :-(1) Prokaryotes(2) Eukaryotes(3) Smooth ER(4) Both 1 and 2


Enzymes of TCA cycle founds in :-(1) Intermembrane space(2) Matrix(3) Oxysome(4) Cristae


Which one is not an example of prokaryote :-(1) Blue green Algae(2) Mycoplasma(3) Bacteria(4) Yeast


Synapsis occurs in :-(1) Leptotene(2) Zygotene(3) Pachytene(4) Diplotene


Which statement is wrong :-(1) Largest isolated single cell is the ostrich egg(2) Mitochondria not a part of endomembrane system of cell(3) Cells with membrane bound nucleus are called eukaryotic whereas cells that lacking a

membrane bound nucleus are prokaryotic(4) Lysosome is a double membrane organelle


How many types of spindles presents in stage of cell division shown in above diagram :-

(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) FiveCorrect Answer: 2Q No: 131

Frame work elements of plant cell

(1) Carbon, Hydrogen and Calcium(2) Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen(3) Carbon, Calcium and Nitrogen(4) Carbon, Hydrogen and Nitrogen


How many Universal (Main) element in the list given below present in protoplasm :-Oxygen, Zinc, Calcium, Iodine, Copper, Cobalt, Sulphur, Hydrogen, Carbon, Mangenese.(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 8


Which of the following are aldose sugar :-(1) Glyceraldehyde, Erythrose, Fructose(2) Dihydroxy acetone, Erythrulose, Ribulose(3) Glyceraldehyde, Erythrose, Ribose(4) Xylulose, Fructose, Glucose


Which of the following match is not correct :-(1) Galactose Brain sugar(2) Hexose Arabinose(3) Tetrose Erythrulose(4) Palmitic acid Saturated fatty acid


Match the column :-

A B

A Stearic acid 1 Mono unsaturated fatty acid

B Oleic acid 2 Compound lipidC Arachidonic acid 3 Chromo lipidD Phospholipid 4 Saturated fatE Steroids 5 Derived lipids

6 Poly unsaturated fatty acid(1) A-5 B-2 C-4 D-3 E-6(2) A-4 B-1 C-6 D-2 E-5(3) A-1 B-4 C-6 D-2 E-5(4) A-6 B-4 C-1 D-5 E-2


How many essential amino acids are present in the list given below :-Arginine, Serine, Aspartic acid, Valine, Leucine, Tyrosine, Proline, Phenylalanine, Cysteine, Alanine(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 10


Cellulose is :-1. Most abundant organic molecule on earth

2. Linear polymer of α-D-Glucose3. 90% in Cotton4. Main component of plant cell wall(1) 1, 2, 3(2) 1, 3, 4(3) 1, 2, 4(4) 1, 2, 3, 4


Match the column :-

A BA Maltose 1 PolysaccharideB Chitin 2 Aromatic amino acidC Serine 3 DisaccharideD Tryptophan 4 Primary protein

5 Alcoholic amino acid(1) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4(2) A-3 B-1 C-5 D-2(3) A-1 B-3 C-5 D-2(4) A-3 B-2 C-5 D-4


In Which amino acid molecular weight of side group (R) is minimum :-(1) Alanine(2) Valine(3) Glycine(4) Aspartic acid


Structure represent :-(1) Glycine(2) Alanine(3) Serine(4) Valine


Which of the following pair is incorrect :-(1) Trypsin – Enzyme(2) Insulin – Hormone(3) Collagen – Sensory receptors(4) Antibody – Fights infectious agents


Nucleotide has :-(1) One heterocyclic compound

(2) One phosphate(3) One monosaccharide(4) All


Erythrulose is :-(1) Ketose sugar(2) Aldose sugar(3) Tetrasaccharide(4) Both (1) and (3)


Which of the following statement is not correct :-(1) RNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins(2) Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate(3) DNA being unstable and mutate at a faster rate(4) AUG has dual function


Which of the following are pentose :-(1) Erythrose, Ribose, Arabinose(2) Ribose, Xylulose, Arabinose(3) Ribose, Deoxyribose, Rhamnose(4) Ribose, Xylulose, Erythrulose


Q No: 146

Which of the following sugar not found in free stage :-(1) Glucose(2) Galactose(3) Mannose(4) (2) and (3)


Haemoglobin is :-(1) Nucleoprotein(2) Chromoprotein(3) Lipoprotein(4) Fibrous protein


Which of the following is α-helix protein :-(1) Insulin(2) Haemoglobin(3) Keratin(4) Cellulose


Which of the following statement is not correct during protein synthesis :-(1) Tyrosine is coded by UAU and UAC codon(2) Cysteine is coded by UGU and UGC codon(3) UGG codon codes for Tryptophan(4) UAA codon codes for lysine


Which of the following is not involve in DNA replication process :-(1) DNA Polymerase(2) DNA primer(3) Helicase(4) RNA polymerase


According to wobble hypothesis anticodon AAG can recognise :-(1) UUU and UUG codon(2) GUU and UUU codon(3) TTC and TTT codon(4) UUU and UUC codon


Prokaryotic DNA is :-(1) Single stranded straight(2) Single stranded Circular(3) Double stranded straight(4) Double stranded Circular

Correct Answer: 4 Q No : 153

What is the similarity between DNA and RNA :-(1) Both are double stranded(2) Both are polymer of nucleotides(3) Both have identical pyrimidine bases(4) Both have identical sugar molecules


Hydrolysis of nucleotide does not give :-(1) Purine(2) Aminoacid(3) Pyrimidine(4) Pentose sugar

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 155

Nuclease enzyme is capable of :-(1) Breaking disulphide bond(2) Breaking all types of bond(3) Removing terminal amino acids

(4) Breaking phosphodiester bondCorrect Answer: 4 Q No: 156

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched :-(1) ATP Energy carrying compound in the cell(2) Purine Nitrogenous bases cytosine, thymine, and

uracil(3) r-RNA RNA molecules found in ribosome(4) Mutation Sudden changes occur in DNA sequence


How many double bonds are present between carbon atoms in a saturated fatty acid :-(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) More than 2


Which of the following statement is correct about unsaturated fat :-(1) Denature as they cool(2) Are made up of glucose and fructose(3) Are made up of amino acid + glycerol(4) Have double bond in their carbon chain


Which of the following are component of phospholipid :-(1) Phosphate group, Cholesterol, Monosaccharide(2) Fatty acid, Glycerol, phosphate group(3) Fatty acid, Glycerol, RNA(4) Fatty acid, Glycerol, Cholesterole


Match the coloumn :-

Column-I Column-IIA Cellulose 1 α-D-GlucoseB Starch 2 FructoseC Chitin 3 β-D-GlucoseD Inulin 4 N-acetyl-D-Glucosamine(1) A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2(2) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4(3) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2(4) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4


Peptide bond forms by :-(1) Condensation reaction(2) Dehydration synthesis(3) Formation of a covalent bond(4) All of these

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 162

A characteristic common to all lipids is :-(1) They contain long chains of C – H bonds(2) They are insoluble in water(3) They have a glycerol back bone(4) All of these


Carbohydrates have many functions in the cell which of the following is an incorrect match of the carbohydrate with its function :-(1) Sugar transport in plants - Disaccharides(2) Food storage in plants - Starch(3) Sugar transport in humans - Glucose(4) Energy transport in humans - Cellulose


A substance which helps maintain a constant pH in a solution is an :-(1) salt(2) acid(3) buffer(4) base


The bonding of a glucose molecule and a maltose molecule would result in a –(1) Triglyceride(2) Disaccharide(3) Phospholipid(4) Tri saccharide


Which of the following statement is true :-(1) DNA ligase repairs gaps in DNA(2) Pyrimidines are smaller than purines(3) The coding strands of DNA is transcribed into m-RNA(4) The total amount of purines are equal to pyrimidine in RNA


Match the following :-

A Chargaff 1 Uptake of lactoseB Permease 2 RibosomeC Split gene 3 MutationD r-RNA 4 hn - RNA

5 (A + G) = (C + T)(1) A-5 B-1 C-2 D-4(2) A-5 B-2 C-1 D-4(3) A-5 B-1 C-4 D-2(4) A-1 B-5 C-2 D-4


If the molecular mass of an amino acid is 150 daltone the molecular mass of tripeptide will be :-(1) 450 (2) 486 (3) 504 (4) 414


At isoelectric point, net mobility of an amino acid is :-(1) Towards cathode(2) Towards anode(3) Zero(4) None of these


An alpha helix represents :-(1) Primary structure of a protein(2) Secondary structure of a protein(3) Tertiary structure of a protein(4) Quaternary structure of a protein


These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these Questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

A. If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.B. If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.D. If both Assertion and Reason are False.

Assertion :- Membrane bound nucleus absent in prokaryotesReason :- The prokaryotic cell lack organelles(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D





Assertion :- Membrane bound nucleus absent in prokaryotesReason :- The prokaryotic cell lack organelles(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 173


A. If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

B. If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

D. If both Assertion and Reason are False.Assertion :- Rough E.R. is involved in protein synthesis.Reason :- Ribosomes found on surface of rough E.R.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Correct Answer: 1 Status: unattemptedQ No: 174




Assertion :- Ring chromosome in prokaryotes are naked DNA.Reason :- Histone proteins not associated with ring chromosome.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 175




Assertion :- Plastids are semi-autonomous organelle of cell.Reason :- Oil stored in elaioplasts(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 176




Assertion :- Topoisomerase enzyme prevents supercoiling of DNA.Reason :- Topoisomerase enzyme act on hydrogen bond.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 177



C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

D. If both Assertion and Reason are False.Assertion :- RNA is more reactive as compare to DNA.Reason :- In RNA every nucleotide residue has an additional OH group present at 2' position in ribose.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 178




Assertion :- All monosaccharides are reducing sugar.Reason :- Monosaccharides has free aldehyde or ketone groups.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 179




Assertion :- Protein molecule of secondary structure are spirally coiled.Reason :- Only hydrogen bond is present in secondary structure of protein molecule.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 180




Assertion :- One codon specifies only one amino acid and not any other.Reason :- Most of the amino acids can be coded by more than one codon.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Test 2 :

Q No: 1

The density of a non-uniform rod of length 1 m is given by λ(x) = a(1 + bx2) where a and b are constants and 0 ≤ x ≤ 1. The find position of centre of mass of rod :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


Velocity-time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg moving in a straight line as shown in figure. Find work done by all forces on the particle is :-

(1) 400 J(2) –400 J(3) –200 J(4) 200 J


Q No: 3

A force F varies with time as shown in figure. The average force over a complete cycle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 2F0

(4) ZeroCorrect Answer: 4 Status: unattempted

Q No: 4

The velocity of the α-particle emitted from uranium of atomic weight 238 is 1.4 × 107 m/s. The velocity of the remaining nucleus is :-(1)

× 4 m/s in the same direction(2)

× 4 m/s in same direction

(3) × 4 m/s in opposite direction

(4) × 4 m/s in opposite direction


The work done by the external forces on a system equals the change in :-(1) Total energy(2) Kinetic energy(3) Potential energy(4) None of these


A mass 10 kg moving with a speed 10 cm/s on a smooth horizontal surface hits a spring as shown in figure. Find work done by the spring force on the mass :-

(1) 0.05 J(2) –0.05 J(3) –0.1 J(4) 0.1 J


A particle of mass m is moving along x-axis under a force f = k . Find work done for the motion of particle from x = 4 m to x = 9 m is nearly :-(1) 19.2 k(2) 8.6 k(3) 32.3 k(4) 12.7 k


Q No: 8

There is a hemispherical bowl of radius R. A block of mass m slides from the rim of the bowl to the bottom as shown. The velocity of the block at the bottom will be :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)


Q No: 9

Consider the situation shown in figure. All the surfaces are frictionless and the string and the

pulley are light. Find the magnitude of the acceleration of the two blocks :

(1) 1 m/s2

(2) 2 m/s2

(3) 3 m/s2

(4) 4 m/s2


Q No: 10

A particle stays at rest as seen in a frame. We can conclude that :-(1) The frame is inertial(2) The frame may be inertial but the resultant force on the particle is zero(3) The frame may be non-inertial but there is a non-zero resultant force(4) Both (2) and (3) are correct


Q No: 11

In perfectly inelastic collisions, the relative velocity of the bodies :-(1) Before collision is zero(2) Before collision is equal to that after collision(3) After collision is zero(4) None of these


Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies with time as P = watt. Here t is in seconds. If velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0, the velocity at time t = 2 sec will be :-(1) 1 m/s(2) 4 m/s(3) 2 m/s(4) 2 m/s


Q No: 13

A body of mass m moves with the velocity v on a surface whose friction coefficient is μ. If the body covers distance s, then v will be :-(1) (2) (3)

(4) Correct Answer: 1 Status: unattemptedQ No: 14

Even if the force on the rocket remains same, its acceleration :-

(1) Increases(2) Decreases(3) Remains same(4) None


Q No: 15

An impulse is supplied to a moving object with the force at an angle of 120º with the velocity vector. What is the angle between the impulse and change in momentum ?(1) 0º (2) 30º (3) 60º (4) 120º

Correct Answer: 1 Status: unattemptedNo: 16

In conservative force fields, at equilibrium, potential energy :-(1) must be maximum(2) must be minimum(3) must be constant(4) may be maximum or minimum or constant


The force on a particle of mass 10 gm is (10î + 5ĵ)N. If it starts from rest, what would be its position at time t = 5 sec ?(1) = (12500î + 6250ĵ)m(2) = (500î + 250ĵ)m(3) = (100î + 50ĵ)m(4) = (20î + 40ĵ)m


Q No: 18

A body possessing kinetic energy T, moving on a horizontal rough surface is stopped in a distance y. The frictional force acting on the body is :-(1) Ty(2)

(3)

(4)


Q No: 19

5 discs each of mass m are placed one above the other. The force on the first from the bottom because of the remaining on the top is :-(1) mg(2) 2 mg(3) 3 mg(4) 4 mg


Q No: 20

A cricket ball of mass 150 gm has an initial velocity = (3î + 4ĵ) m/s and a final velocity = –(3î + 4ĵ) m/s after being hit. Find the change in momentum (in kg m/s) :-(1) Zero(2) –(0.45î + 0.6ĵ)(3) –(0.9î + 1.2ĵ)(4) –5(î + ĵ)


A ball is travelling with uniform translatory motion. This means that :-(1) It is at rest(2) The path can be straight line or circular and the ball travels with uniform speed(3) All parts of the ball have the same velocity (magnitude and direction) and the velocity is

constant(4) The centre of the ball moves with constant velocity and the ball spins about its centre

uniformlyCorrect Answer: 3 Status: unattemptedQ No: 22

A hockey player is moving northward and suddenly turns westward with the same speed to avoid an opponent. The force that acts on the player is :-(1) Frictional force along westward(2) Muscle force along southward(3) Frictional force along south-west(4) Muscle force along south-west


A car of mass m starts from rest and acquires a velocity along east. = vî(v > 0) in two seconds. Assuming the car moves with uniform acceleration, the force exerted on the car is :-(1)

eastward and is exerted by the car engine(2)

eastward and is due to the friction on the tyres exerted by the road.(3)

exerted by the engine(4) none of above


A particle of mass m strikes a wall at an angle of incidence 60º with velocity v elastically. Find the magnitude of impulse :-

(1) mv

(2)

(3) –2mv(4) Zero


Conservation of momentum in a collision between particles can be understood from :-(1) Conservation of energy(2) Newton's first law only(3) Newton's second law only(4) Both Newton's second and third law


Q No: 26

One man takes 1 minute to raise a box to a height of 1 metre and another man takes minute to do so. The energy of the two is :-(1) Different(2) Same(3) Energy of the first is more(4) Energy of the second is more


Q No: 27

When a spring is stretched by a distance x, it exerts a force given by F = (–5x – 16x3)N Find the work done when the spring is stretched from 0.1 m to 0.2 m is :-(1) 8.7 × 10–2 J(2) 12.2 × 10–2 J(3) 8.1 × 10–1 J(4) 12.2 × 10–1 J


A body is falling freely under the action of gravity alone in vacuum. Which of the following quantities remain constant during the fall :-(1) Kinetic energy(2) Potential energy(3) Total mechanical energy(4) Total linear momentum


The velocity of a body of mass 2 kg as a function of t is given by v(t) = 2tî + t2ĵ. Find the momentum at time t = 2 sec.(1) (8î + 8ĵ) kg m/s(2) 2(4î + 4ĵ) kg m/s(3) 2[2(2)î + (2)2ĵ) kg m/s(4) All of the above


A 100 kg gun fires a ball of 1 kg horizontally from a cliff of height 500 m. It falls on the ground at a distance of 400 m from the bottom of the cliff. Find the recoil velocity of the gun. (g = 10 m/s2) :-(1) 0.4 m/s(2) 4 m/s(3) 6 m/s(4) 2 m/s


A body of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with velocity V = ax3/2 where a = 5 m–1/2s–1. Find the work done by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 2 m is :-(1) 1.5 J(2) 50 J(3) 10 J(4) 100 J


An object is in equilibrium under four concurrent forces in the direction shown in figure. Find the magnitude of 1 and 2 :-

(1) Zero, 4 N(2) 4 N, Zero(3) 4 N, 4 N(4) Zero, zero


At the instant t = 0 a force F = kt (k is a constant) acts on a small body of mass m resting on a smooth horizontal surface. Find the time, when body leaves the surface :-

(1) mg k sin α(2)

(3) mg sin α/k(4) mg/k sin α


Q No: 34

A cork of mass 10 gm is floating on water. Net force on the cork is :-(1) 10 N

(2) 10–3 N(3) 10–2 N(4) Zero


In the arrangement coefficient of friction between the two blocks is μ = . Find the force of friction acting between the two blocks is :-

(1) 8 N (2) 6 N (3) 10 N (4) 12 NCorrect Answer: 1 Status: unattemptedQ No: 36

A car accelerates on a horizontal road due to the force exerted by :-(1) Driver of car(2) Engine of car(3) Car on earth(4) Road on the car


Q No: 37

A body of mass 2 kg rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle 30º with the horizontal. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the plane is 0.7. Find friction force on block :-(1) 9.8 N(2) 0.7 × 9.8 × N(3) 9.8 × N(4) 0.7 × 9.8 N


Q No: 38

If coefficient of friction between block A and surface is 0.2. Minimum value of mass of block B to just slide the system on the surface :-

(1) 0.6 kg(2) 0.8 kg(3) 0.10 kg(4) 0.2 kg


Q No: 39

Find the work done by a car against gravity in moving along a straight horizontal road. The mass of car is 400 kg and the distance moved is 2 m.

(1) 8000 J(2) Zero(3) 400 J(4) 20 J


Calculate the power of a crane in watts, which lifts a mass of 100 kg to a height of 10 m in 20 sec. :-(1) 600 W(2) 1000 W(3) 490 W(4) 10 W




C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is FalseD. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Assertion :- An athlete runs some distance, before taking a long jump.Reason :- It is due to inertia of motion.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 42




Assertion :- Static friction static = – applied.Reason :- Kinetic friction kinetic = μkN(– relative).(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D





Assertion :- A constant force is a conservative force.

Reason :- For a constant force work done in any closed path (i.e. ) is equal to zero.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 44




Assertion :- Work done by static friction may be positive.Reason :- Static friction may acts along the direction of motion of an object.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 45




Assertion :- The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x as shown in figure. The force acting on the particle is zero at points C and E.

Reason :- Potential energy is defined only for conservative force field.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Number of 1º, 2º and 3º hydrogen atoms in isopentane are respectively –(1) 9, 2, 1(2) 6, 3, 1(3) 6, 2, 0(4) 6, 1, 1


What should be the general formula of a cyclic hydrocarbon having one double bond –(1) CnH2n

(2) CnH2n–2

(3) CnH2n+2

(4) CnHn+1


No: 48

The systematic name of the above structure is –(1) 2-Methyl-3-ethyl-2-butene(2) 2-Ethyl-3-methyl-2-butene(3) 2,3-Dimethyl-2-pentene(4) 3,4-Dimethyl-3-pentene


Q No: 49

In the following reaction, the hybridization of carbon changes from : C2H4 C2H6

(1) sp2 to sp(2) sp to sp2

(3) sp3 to sp(4) sp2 to sp3


Q No: 50

Which of the following is not an isomer of 1-butyne –(1) but-2-yne(2) buta-1,3-diene(3) but-2-ene(4) methyl cyclopropene


Which of the following is the most preffered conformation of ethane molecule –(1) Eclipsed(2) Staggered(3) Skew(4) None of these


Q No: 52

Which of the following electrophilic species can nitrate benzene ring –(1) Nitric acid(2) Nitrite ion(3) Nitrate ion(4) Nitronium ion


Conversion of n–hexane to 3–methyl pentane is known as :(1) Addition(2) Isomerisation(3) Substitution(4) Methylation


The no. of isomeric sodium salt that is required to obtaine isopentane.

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1Correct Answer: 1 Status: unattempted

Q No: 55

Aqueous solution of which compound gave ethane on electrolysis –(1) Acetic acid(2) Acetamide(3) Potassium acetate(4) Ethyl acetate


Q No: 56

Alkyl halides on reduction with Zn-Cu couple and alcohol give –(1) Alkanes(2) Alkenes(3) Alkynes(4) Cyclic compounds


The organic reaction product from the reaction of methyl magnesium bromide and ethyl alcohol is –(1) Methane(2) Ethane(3) Propane(4) Butane


Which alkane will give only one monochlorinated product –(1) CH3CH2CH3

(2) CH3CH2CH2CH3

(3) (CH3)4C(4) CH3(CH2)3CH3


Q No: 59

What would be the product when propane is heated with nitrating mixture –(1) 1-nitro propane(2) 2-nitro propane(3) 1 and 2(4) 1-nitro propane + 2–nitro propane + nitro methane + nitro ethane


The reaction 2CnH2n+2 + 10O2 → 6CO2 + 8H2O is true for the alkane –(1) Butane(2) Ethane(3) Propane(4) All of the above


When n-butane is heated in the presence of AlCl3/HCl it will be converted into –(1) Ethane(2) Propane(3) Butene(4) Isobutane


Toluene is aromatisation product of –(1) n-hexane(2) n-heptane(3) n-octane(4) Iso-octane


The most volatile alkane is –(1) n-pentane(2) isopentane(3) neopentane(4) n-hexane


Q No: 64

Which compound does not give ethene on pyrolysis –(1) Ethane(2) Propane(3) Ethylacetate(4) Isobutene


Which reagent are not suitable for differentiation of ethane and ethene –(1) Baeyer reagent(2) Conc. H2SO4

(3) Br2 solution(4) Ammonical cuprous chloride


The intermediate during the addition of HCl to propene in the presence of peroxide is –(1) CH3 HCH2Cl(2)

CH3 H – CH3

(3) CH3 – CH2 – H2

(4) CH3 HCH3


Which compounds are formed in the oxidation of propene and 2–butene by acidic permanganate –(1) Formaldehyde(2) Acetic acid

(3) Acetaldehyde(4) Only formic acid


What is the position of double bond in the compound which on ozonolysis gives only ethyl methyl ketone –(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4


The applications of ethylene are –(A) Formation of Mustard gas(B) Repening of Fruits(C) Formation of Lewisite(D) Formation of Glycol(1) ABD (2) ABC (3) ACD (4) BCD


Q No: 70

The reaction of perbenzoic acid at β–butylene gives –(1) 2, 3–Butanediol(2) 1, 2–Epoxybutane(3) 2, 3–epoxypropane(4) 2, 3–Epoxybutane


Q No: 71

A mixture of ethyl iodide and n-propyl iodide is subjected to Wurtz reaction. The hydrocarbon that will not be formed is –(1) n-Butane(2) n-Heptane(3) n-Pentane(4) n-Hexane


Q No: 72

The compound with molecular formula C4H6 has –(1) One double bond(2) One triple bond or two double bonds(3) All single bonds(4) One triple bond and one double bond


In reaction C is –(1) Vic dihalide(2) Zemdihalide(3) Zem dibromide(4) α, ω–dihalide


Q No: 74

Which of the following gases, when passed through a warm dilute solution of H2SO4, gives acetaldehyde –(1) CH4

(2) C2H2

(3) C2H4

(4) C2H6


Q No: 75

Mesitylene is obtained by the polymerisation of –(1) Propyne(2) Propane(3) Propene(4) None of these


An aromatic compound contains ................. π electrons –(1) 4n(2) 4n + 1(3) 4n + 2(4) 4n + 3


Carbocations are formed by all of the following reactions except –(1) Addition of acid in an alkanol(2) Abstrcation of a halogen from an alkyl halide by Lewis acid(3) Pyrolysis of alkanes(4) Addition of a mineral acid to an alkene


Q No: 78

Which of the following groups of names refer to the same compound –(1) Lindane, Hexachlorocyclohexane, Benzene hexachloride(2) Hexachlorobenzene, Benzyl chloride, Benzotrichloride(3) Lindane, Benzylidene chloride(4) Gammexane, B.H.C., D.D.T.


Oxidation of which of the following arenes does not give benzoic acid –(1) Ethylbenzene(2) Cumene(3) Mesitylene(4) s-Butylbenzene


Q No: 80

Benzene on treatment with propyl chloride in presence of AlCl3 gives mainly –(1) toluene

(2) ethylbenzene(3) propylbenzene(4) isopropylbenzene


Q No: 81

Which of the following is not correctly matched –

(1) Deoxygenation of phenol – Benzene(2) Decarboxylation of paratoluic acid – Toluene

(3) Oxidation of benzene – Maleic anhydride(4) Oxidation of ethylbenzene – Phenol

(1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4)Correct Answer: 4 Status: unattempted

Q No: 82

The number of benzylic hydrogens in ethylbenzene is –(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 7


Q No: 83

Which one of the following alkenes will react faster with H2 under catalytic hydrogenation conditions –(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


Among the following compounds which can be dehydrated very easily is –(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2OH(2)

(3)

(4)


Compound 'C' can be distinguished from the other three compounds by the reagent –(A) CH3C ≡ C – CH3(B) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3(C) CH3CH2C ≡ CH(D) CH3CH = CH2

(1) Bromine in CCl4(2) Bromine in acetic acid

(3) Alkaline KMnO4

(4) Ammonical silver nitrateCorrect Answer: 4 Status: unattempted

Q No: 86



C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.D. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Assertion :- By pyrolysis of alkane fuel quality is increased.Reason :- By pyrolysis boiling point is decreased so fuel quality is increased.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 87




Assertion :- Reaction of 1, 3–Dichloropropane with Zn dust produces propadiene.Reason :- The reaction of dihalide with Zn dust is nucleophilic substitution.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D





Assertion :- Toluene when treated with Br2/Fe gives p-Bromotoluene as the major product.Reason :- CH3– group is ortho and para directing and deactivates the ring by hyperconjugation.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D





Assertion :- Ethyne when react with CH3OH gives methylal.

Reason :- Reaction is nucleophilic addition reaction.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 90




Assertion :- IUPAC name of simplest alkenyne is But–1–en–3–yne.Reason :- But–1–en–3–yne contain 7σ and 3π bonds.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 91

PASSAGEAfrican, Asian and european human beings have some permanent variations in some of the traits

like skin colour, hair styles, shape of nose, thickness of lips etc. Africans and europeans show extremes in these traits whereas the Asians are of intermediate types, for example, the skin

colour. Africans are black, europeans are white and Asians have brown skin.On the basis of above traits the Asians, African and europeans are :-(1) Three ecotypes of one species(2) Three biotypes of one species(3) Three ecads of some species(4) One sibling species


Q No: 92

PASSAGEAfrican, Asian and european human beings have some permanent variations in some of the traits

like skin colour, hair styles, shape of nose, thickness of lips etc. Africans and europeans show extremes in these traits whereas the Asians are of intermediate types, for example, the skin

colour. Africans are black, europeans are white and Asians have brown skin.On the basis of above characters African, Asian Europeans are :-(1) Two taxonomic species(2) Three taxonomic species(3) One taxonomic species(4) Three biological species


Q No: 93

Match the column–I with column–II

Column–I Column–IIA Systematics 1 MayrB Biological concept of species 2 BenthamC Five kingdom Classification 3 EichlerD New systematics 4 WhittakerE Taxonomy 5 Tippo

6 Linnaeus 7 Haeckel 8 A. P. de candolle 9 Copelandt 10 Huxley

(1) A-10 B-7 C-9 D-4 E-2(2) A-3 B-4 C-10 D-6 E-1(3) A-6 B-1 C-4 D-10 E-8(4) A-2 B-4 C-9 D-5 E-6


The system of classification, which employs numerical method to evaluate the similarities and differences among the species is known as :-(1) Bio systematics(2) Cytotaxonomy(3) Phenetics(4) Chemotaxonomy


Q No: 95

The main difference between photosynthetic and chemosynthetic bacteria is that :-(1) Water is used by photosynthetic bacteria, whereas it is rejected by chemosynthetic bacteria(2) Photosynthetic bacteria are seen as parasites within green plant cells, whereas

chemosynthetic bacteria are seen as saprophytes on other decaying food substances(3) Photosynthetic bacteria are seen in green plants, whereas chemosynthetic bacteria are seen

in chemical substances(4) Energy from sunlight is used in photosynthetic bacteria, while in chemosynthetic bacteria

energy is used by the oxidation of inorganic substancesCorrect Answer: 4 Status: unattemptedQ No: 96

Evolutionary relationship of three major group of organisms is shown in the occompanying diagram where A, B, C, D, E are liverworts, moss, fern, cycadales and gnetales respectively. In this diagram Funaria, Adiantum, Cycas and Ephedra will be placed respectively :-

(1) B, C, D, E(2) A, B, C, D(3) A, C, D, E(4) C, D, B, A


Bryophytes resemble algae on the following basis :(1) Differentiation of the plant body into root, stem and heterotrophic mode of nutrition

(2) Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissue, absence of roots and presence of autotrophic mode of nutrition

(3) Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and heterotrophic mode of nutrition(4) Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissue and autotrophic mode of nutrition


Q No: 98

Match the column–I to column–II.

Column–I Column–IIA Prokaryotic flagellum (i) NigrosinB Endospore (ii) ApotheciumC Dinoflagellates (iii) MesokaryoteD Heterocyst (iv) Flagellin protein

(v) Nitrogenase (vi) Fire algae (vii) Dipicolinic acid (viii) Cleistothecium (ix) Nitrogen fixation

(1) (A)–i, vii (B)–ii, iii (C)–viii (D)–ix(2) (A)–iv (B)–i, vii (C)–iii, vi (D)–ix, v(3) (A)–iv (B)–i, vii (C)–ix, v (D)–iii, vi(4) (A)–ix, viii (B)–i, vii (C)–i, ii (D)–iii


Q No: 99

A graph is given below exhibiting evolution of gametophyte of different plant groups at No. 1 to 6. Identify that number 1 representing which group of plant.

(1) Moss(2) Pteridophyta(3) Angiosperm(4) Liverwort


When certain bacteria are treated with an effective antibiotic, some cells do not die. What is the best explanation for this occurrence –(1) The antibiotic causes mutation for resistance to arise(2) Genes conferring resistance are already present in the population(3) The antibiotic prevents mutation for resistance from arising(4) The antibiotic reduces competition from other bacteria, increasing chances for survival


Q No: 101

Which is correct statement about flagellum of bacteria :-(1) L, P, S and M rings are present in Gram (–) bacteria(2) L, P, S and M rings are present in Gram (+) bacteria(3) Only L and P rings are present in Gram(+) bacteria(4) Only S and M rings are present in Gram (–) bacteria


Mosses are gregarious because they :-(1) Have vascular tissue(2) Have indirect germination of spores(3) Have direct germination of spores(4) Have spore mother cells


The root–like and leaf–like structure of a moss and the roots and leaves of a vascular plants are :(1) Analogous structures(2) Homologous structures(3) Vestigial structures(4) Embryonic structures


Q No: 104

Match the names of organism given in column–I with the product obtained from them in column–II and choose the correct combination :-

Column–I Column–IIA Claviceps 1 ClavatinB Clavatia 2 ProliferinC Aspergillus 3 ErgotinD Yeast 4 Vitamin B2

(1) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4(2) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4(3) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3(4) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4


Which of the following statement is not true :-(1) Basidiomycetes Bracket fungi are epixylic fungi i.e. these like to grow on wood(2) Basidiomycetes Puff balls are saprophytic Fungi. Fruiting body of puff ball bursts violently to

release black ascospores(3) Ascomycetes Neurospora is used for the study of genetics in plant kingdom(4) Ascomycetes Aspergillus flavus–It prefers to grow on stored food and secretes toxic

substances which are known as aflatoxinsCorrect Answer: 2 Status: unattempted

Q No: 106

Which of the following statement about Cycas is correct :-1. Its coralloid roots contain some blue green algae

2. It does not have a well organized female flower3. It has circinate vernation4. Its xylem is mainly composed of xylem vessels(1) 1, 2 and 3 are correct(2) 1 are correct(3) 2 and 4 are correct(4) 1 and 3 are correct


Those species which are found in different geographical regions and have geographical barrier among them are known as :-(1) Neontological species(2) Allochronic species(3) Allopatric species(4) Synchromic species


Q No: 108

Plant nomenclature refers to :-(1) Identification of plants according to known rules(2) Inclusion of plants in families in a definite system(3) A type of climate where particular plants are found(4) Correct identification and naming of the plants according to international rules


Q No: 109

Biosystematics aims at :-(1) Identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characteristics(2) The classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters(3) Delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships(4) The classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their

phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all the field of studiesCorrect Answer: 4 Status: unattempted

Q No: 110

Why is salt a good preservative to use for foods such as flash and fish ?(1) Prokaryotes living in the food product will take in excess water and explode(2) Salt is toxin to prokaryotic cells and leads to their death(3) Prokaryotic cells will shrink impacting their ability to reproduce(4) Salt breaks down the chitin material in the cell walls of prokaryotes


Q No: 111

Choose the correct option, that contains the substances required by typical nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria :-(1) Oxygen, sulphur, light, water and some minerals(2) Carbon dioxide, sulphur, light, water and some minerals(3) Carbon, nitrogen, light, water and some minerals(4) Carbon dioxide, nitrogen, water, light and some minerals


Q No: 112

What is the role of heterocyst in a cyanobacterial filament :(1) They carry out photosynthesis and nitrogen fixation(2) They carry out only nitrogen fixation(3) They carry out only photosynthesis(4) The oxidize inorganic substances to obtain energy


Q No: 113

In euglenoids, the stored food is paramylum, which is a :-(1) Conversion product of glycogen(2) Conversion product of starch(3) A type of lipid(4) A type of protein


In which bacteria Hydrogen donor is thiosulphate :(1) Chromatium, Thiothrix, Hydrogenomonas(2) Chromatium, Chlorobium, Leptothrix(3) Thiobacillus, Chromatium, Chlorobium(4) Chromatium, Chlorobium, Thiothrix


Q No: 115

Which of the following statements are correct ?(A) In mosses, Rhizoids are multicellular & branched(B) Rhizoids of mosses are unicellular and branched(C) Only capsule is a fertile part in moss sporophyte(D) On the basis of dependence moss gametophyte is similar to Hornwort gametophyte.(1) A, B, C, D(2) A, B, D(3) A, C, D(4) B, C, D


During rust disease which type of spores produced by Puccinia in wheat plant :-1. Uredospores2. Teleutospores3. Aeciospores4. Pycniospores(1) 1, 2 and 3 are correct(2) 1 and 2 are correct(3) 2 and 4 are correct(4) 1 and 3 are correct


Q No: 117

Gymnosperms are –(1) Annual plants(2) Biennial plants

(3) Perennial plants(4) Both (1) and (2)


Thermal algae are those which grow –(1) In deserts where temperature is around 80 °C(2) On rocks exposed to high temperature(3) Tropical regions(4) In hot springs where temperature is around 85 °C


Q No: 119

Gametes without gametangia are produced in(1) Male gametophyte of gymnosperm(2) Female gametophyte of gymnosperm(3) Prothallus of ferns(4) Mosses


Q No: 120

Severe famine of west Bengal 1942–1943 was due to the destruction of rice crop by a fungus called(1) Helminthosporium(2) Penicillium(3) Rhizopus(4) Puccinia


Pyrenoids are made up of –(1) Core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein(2) Core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath(3) Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath(4) Core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein


Q No: 122

Which of the following eucaryotes are devoid of histone proteins ?(1) Golden algae(2) Euglenoids(3) Fire algae(4) Irish moss


Q No: 123

B.C.G. is the vaccine of tuberculosis. What does B.C.G. indicate ?(1) Name of scientists(2) Name of bacteria

(3) Name of antibiotics(4) Name of diseases


Q No: 124

Which group shows gradual reduction of sexual reproduction ?(1) Fungi(2) Algae(3) Red algae(4) Angiosperms


Q No: 125

Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column–I Column–IIA Pinus (i) AlginatesB Sphagnum (ii) Peat mossC Brown algae (iii) PhycocolloidsD Trichodesmium (iv) Leafy algaeE Phytopthora (v) Red sea

(vi) Siphonogamy (vii) Zoodiosiphonogamy (viii) Cleavage

polyembryony (ix) Famine of Ireland

(x) Turpentine(1) A–iv, vi, x B–v, ii, C–i, vi D–iii, ix, E–viii(2) A–viii, x, vi B–ii, C–iii, iv, i, D–v, E–ix(3) A–v, vii, B–i, ii C–vi, ix D–iii, x, E–iv, viii(4) A–iv, vi B–viii, x C–vi, ix D–iii, ix E–ii


Statement–I : 'A' is the group of plant kingdom. Characters of plants included in 'A' group are –(i) Land plants(ii) Sporophyte is divided in root, stem and leaves(iii)Vascular tissue is present(iv)Seeds are present(v) Fruits are absentStatement–II : 'B' is the group of plants, characters of plants included in 'B' group are.(i) Land plants(ii) Gametophyte is differentiated in rhizoids, stem like and leaf like structure(iii)Vascular tissue is absent(iv)Sporophyte is differentiated in foot, seta and capsule(v) Sporophyte is not completely dependent on its gametophyteOn the basis of statement I and II identify the group A and B.(1) A = Gnetales, B = Hornoworts(2) A = Psilopsida, B = Gymnosperm(3) A = Gymnosperm, B = Moss(4) A = Gymnosperm, B = Liverworts


Q No: 127

What change occured during evolution of sporophyte in plant kingdom :-(1) Gradual sterilisation of gametophytic tissues(2) Gradual sterilisation of sporophytic tissues(3) Gradual reduction of sporophyte(4) Gradual increase of fertile part of sporophytic tissues


Q No: 128

Fungi can be distinguished from algae by the fact that :-(1) Mitochondria are absent(2) Cell wall is cellulosic and chlorophyll is absent(3) Nucleus is present(4) Cell wall is chitinous and chlorophyll is absent


Q No: 129

Who suggested that there should be a separate kingdom for archaebacteria :-(1) Carl Woose(2) Haeckel(3) Whittaker(4) Copeland


Which statement is true for Gram positive bacteria(1) Basal body of the flapellum contains 4 rings(2) Cell wall is bilayered(3) Teichoic acid present in cell wall(4) Teichoic acid absent in cell wall


Q No: 131

Tubular bridge between two adjacent cells in mycelium of basidiomycetes, meant for dikaryotisation are called :-(1) Conjugation tube(2) Fertilisation siphon(3) Sex pilus(4) Clamp connection


A botanist discovered three plants A, B, and C. He studied their characters, which are given below in table. Study the following characters and give the answer of following questions.

A B C

(i) Plant body thallus like Stem aerial and erect Stem aerial and erect

(ii) Scales absent Photosynthetic leaves

(Tropophylls) externally similar to leaves of moss

Sporophylls non-photosynthetic

(iii) Rhizoids unicellular

Sporangia aggregated in cones and sporophylls photosynthetic

Sporangia aggregated in cones

(iv) Rhizoids unbranched Roots adventitious Fruits absent

(v) Male sex organs antheridia and

female archegonia Male sex organs antheridia and

female archegonia Antheridia &

archegonia absent

Identify that A plant belongs to which plant group ?(1) Horn worts(2) Psilopsida(3) Gentales(4) Moss


Q No: 133

A botanist discovered three plants A, B, and C. He studied their characters, which are given below in table. Study the following characters and give the answer of following questions.

A B C

(i) Plant body thallus like Stem aerial and erect Stem aerial and erect

(ii) Scales absent Photosynthetic leaves

(Tropophylls) externally similar to leaves of moss

Sporophylls non-photosynthetic

(iii) Rhizoids unicellular

Sporangia aggregated in cones and sporophylls photosynthetic

Sporangia aggregated in cones

(iv) Rhizoids unbranched Roots adventitious Fruits absent

(v) Male sex organs antheridia and

female archegonia Male sex organs antheridia and

female archegonia Antheridia &

archegonia absent

In which plant vessels are present ?(1) B (2) A (3) C (4) All


Q No: 134

A cladogram showing evolution of plants given below. Study it carefully and give the answer of following question.

Number 3 representing the which group of plants :-(1) Dinoflagellates(2) Moss(3) Diatom(4) Red algae


Q No: 135

Mycelium of basidiomycetes is :(1) Branched and septate(2) Unbranched and aspeptate(3) Branched and coenocytic(4) Unbranched and coenocytic


Q No: 136

Which fungi belongs to class basidomycetes :(1) Alternaria(2) Colletotrichum(3) Trichoderma(4) Agaricus


Q No: 137

Cytotaxonomy is based on :(1) Cytological information(2) Chromosome number(3) Chromosome structure and behaviour(4) All


Oogamous type of sexual reproduction found in which algae :-(1) Volvox and Fucus(2) Spirogyra and Ulothrix(3) Ecotocarpus and Albugo(4) Albugo and Pythium


Morels and buffles are edible fungi belongs to which class :-(1) Basidiomycetes(2) Ascomycetes(3) Deuteromycetes(4) Phycomycetes


Agar used to grow microbes and in preparations of ice creams and jellies obtained from :-(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria(2) Spirulina and Oscillatoria(3) Fucus and Polysiphonia(4) Vaucheria and Brown algae


Cell wall of green algae made up of :-(1) Inner layer of cellulose and outer layer of pectose(2) Outer layer of cellulose and inner layer pectose(3) Outer layer of chitin and inner layer cellulose(4) Outer layer of cellulose and inner layer chitin


Stored food in brown algae is/are :-(1) Glycogen and oil(2) Laminarin and mannitol(3) Floridean starch(4) Cellulose


Asexual reproduction in most brown algae is by :(1) Biflagellates aplanospores(2) Biflagellates conidia(3) Biflagellates zoospores(4) Biflagellates sporangiospores


In brown algae asexual spores are :-(1) Pear-shaped and two unequal flagella(2) Pear-shaped and two unequal cilia(3) Oval-shaped and two unequal flagella(4) Comma-shaped and biflagellate


Stored food of red algae is similar to :-(1) Chitin(2) Mannitol(3) Amylopectin and glycogen(4) Glycogen and chitin


Complex post fertilization development is seen in which algae :-(1) Green algae(2) Brown algae(3) Yellow green algae(4) Red algae


Q No: 147

In sexual reproduction, this must have been the most primitive combination :(1) Autogamy and Isogamy(2) Allogamy and Merogamy(3) Hologamy and Anisogamy(4) Allogamy and Oogamy


Fungi resemble monerans on the basis of :-(1) Structure of fruiting body

(2) Mycelium(3) Absorptive heterotrophy(4) Cellular structure


Q No: 149

Brown algae (Fucus) show various adaptations that help their survival. Mark the correct statements :-1. Branched thallus minimizes resistance to water2. High solute potential prevents water loss from the body3. Secretion of mucilage prevents dessication4. Chloroplasts absent in cells5. Air bladders helps in buoyancy(1) 1, 2 and 3(2) 1, 3 and 5(3) 1, 2, 3 and 5(4) 1, 3, 4 and 5


Q No: 150

Solid culture medium (Agar) for cell culture owes to :(1) Green algae(2) Brown algae(3) Red algae(4) Blue green algae


Q No: 151

In the following, which statement is correct :-(1) When volution granules stained by basic dyes, these granules show different colours. There

fore they are also termed as metachromatic granules.(2) The volutin granules are phosphate polymers and function as a storage reservoir for

phosphate.(3) Bacterial DNA is attached to cell membrane and the membrane may be involved in separation

of duplicated DNA into daughter cells during division.(4) All of the above


Q No: 152

In oogamy fertilization involves :-(1) A large non motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete(2) A large motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete(3) A small non motile female gamete and a large motile male gamete(4) A large non motile female gamete and a small motile male gamete


Which Pteridophytes show seed habit :-(1) Selaginella and Salvinia(2) Pteris and Adiantum(3) Selaginella and Lycopodium(4) Dryopteris and Adiantum


During a microbial study, a spore was observed which is thick walled, highly resistant and gets surrounded by different layers. These can withstand temperature as high as 100°C or as low as –100°C, so they can remain unharmed during pasteurisation. From these characters spore must be :-(1) Exospore(2) Endospore(3) Auxospore(4) Statospore


Q No: 155

A plant is known as walking fern because :(1) Its spores reach one place to other through wind(2) It is dispersed through the agency of walking animals(3) It propagates vegetatively by its leaf tips(4) Its antherozoids are motile


Q No: 156

The figures (a), (b) and (c) are of ?

(1) (a) – A B.G.A – Nostoc(b) – A phycomycete–Aspergillus(c) – A basidiomycete-Agaricus

(2) (a) – A green Alga – Nostoc(b) – A deuteromycete–Aspergillus(c) – A basidiomycete-Agaricus

(3) (a) – A red alga – Nostoc(b) – An ascomycete–Aspergillus(c) – A phycomycete-Agaricus

(4) (a) – A B.G.A – Nostoc(b) – An ascomycete–Aspergillus(c) – A basidiomycete-Agaricus


Q No: 157

Identify the (X), (Y) and (Z) in these figures(1) X–DNA, Y–Sex organ, Z-Gemma cup(2) X–RNA, Y–Daughter colony, Z-Air bladder(3) X–DNA/RNA, Y–Oogonium, Z-Frond(4) X–RNA, Y–Archegonium, Z-Stipe


No: 158

First of all identify the A and B then their correct function and they are made for which type of organisms. Which one of these options is most correct with respect to identification, uses and about the organisms :-

Identification Uses Made for(1) A Herbarium For taxonomy of plants only Plant species

B Zoological park For taxonomy of animals only Animal species(2) A Zoological park For taxonomy of animals Animal species

B Herbarium For taxonomy of plants Plant species(3) A Herbarium For taxonomy of both plants

and animals For both plants and

animals B Zoological park For taxonomy of both plants


animals(4) A Museum For taxonomy of both plants


animals B Zoological park For taxonomy of both plants


animals(1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4)


Study the table given below and identify the correct option which correctly includes the (A), (B), (C) and (D)

S.N. Character Dino flagellates

Chry sophytes Euglenoids Slime

moulds

(i) Occur as/in –Both in fresh water marine

waterMainly in

Fresh water (A)

(ii) Cell wall Present Present (B) –

(iii)Photo

synthetic pigments

chloro- a & c phyll (C) chloro- a & c

phyllNo photo synthetic pigmetns

(iv) Number of flagella (D) No any Two –

Options

A B C D

(1) Parasites Present chlorophyll a & e

chlorophyll a & b

(2) Autotrophs Absent chlorophyll a & e

chlorophyll a & b

(3) Saprotrophs on decaying matter Absent chlorophyll a &

c Two

(4) Parasites in livings Present chlorophyll a &

d No

photosynthetic pigments

(1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4)Correct Answer: 3 Status: unattemptedQ No: 160

Some structures are given below they are produced during life cycle of different plant groups :-(i) Gemmae(ii) Protonema(iii) Prothallus(iv) Haploid endosperm(v) Archegonium(vi) Pollen grains(vii) Double fertilization

(viii) Fruit formation(ix) Ovule formation(x) Vascular tissuesWhat structures can be observed in the life cycle of vascular cryptogames :-(1) Gemmae, Prothallus, Archegonium(2) Vascular tissue, Prothallus, Ovule formation(3) Double fertilisation, Haploid endosperm, Vascular tissue(4) Prothallus, Archegonium, Vascular tissue


How many plants in the list given below are the members of non vascular embryophytes :-Spirogyra, Volvox, Ficus, Polysiphonia, Polytrichum, Sphagnum, Marchantia, Funaria, Selaginella, Equisetum.(1) Six (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five


Q No: 162

Two kingdom classification system used for a long time was inadequate, so a need was felt for including besides gross morphology, other characteristics also. Which of the following characters were the base of five kingdom :-(a) Cell structure(b) Mode of nutrition(c) Methods of reproduction(d) Evolutionary relationships(1) a & b(2) a, b & c(3) a, c & d(4) a, b, c & d


Q No: 163

Identify A, B, C & D from the given diagram :-

A B C D1 Pili Cell wall Cell wall Cell membrane2 Flagellum Mucilagenous

sheath cell membrane DNA3 Flagellum Slime layer DNA RNA4 Pili Cell membrane RNA Nuclear membrane

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4Correct Answer: 2 Status: unattemptedQ No: 164

Some characters/structures are given below. How many of them are found in both bryophyta and pteridophyta ?(A) Archegonium(B) Protonema(C) Embryo(D) Ovule(E) Vascular tissue(F) Antheridium(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five


S.N. Character Bryophyta Pteridophyta Gymnosperms

(I) Main plant body Gametophyte Sporophyte (A)(II) Vascular tissue Absent (B) Present(III) Embryo

formation (C) Occurs Occurs(IV) (D) Archegonium Archegonium Megasporophyll

Identify A, B, C & D in the above table :-

A B C D

1 Sporophyte Absent does not occur Female

reproductive organ

2 Gametophyte Absent does not occur female

reproductive organ

3 Sporophyte present occurs female

reproductive organ

4 sporophyte present does not occur male

reproductive organ

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4Correct Answer: 3 Status: unattemptedQ No: 166

In the given figure (a) and (b) identify the correct form of bacteria :-

(1) Cocci, Bacilli(2) Spirilla, Cocci(3) Spirilla, Bacilli(4) Bacilli, Vibrio


The given figure representing :-

(1) a bacterial cell(2) endospore of bacteria(3) binary fission in bacteria(4) budding in bacteria


Q No: 168

Match the column A with column B and find out the correct answer :-

Column-A Column-BA Bacteria 1 Soap boxB BGA 2 Mucilagenous sheathC Dinoflagellates 3 Red tideD Crysophyte 4 Plasmid(1) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2(2) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1(3) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4(4) A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1


Match the column-A with column-B and select the correct answer :-

Column-A Column-BA Linnaeus 1 Group of individualB Bentham and

Hooker 2 Natural system of classificationC Whittaker 3 Five kingdom classificationD Taxon 4 Two kingdom classification

(1) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1(2) A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3(3) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3(4) A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1


Q No: 170

Match the column-A with column-B and find the correct answer :-

Column-A Column-BA Wheat rust 1 Yeast

B Antibiotics 2 PenicilliumC Mushroom 3 PucciniaD Unicellular fungi 4 Gill fungi(1) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4(2) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3(3) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3(4) A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1





Assertion :- Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic autotrophs similar to higher plants.Reason :- Cyanobacteria have chlorophyll-a.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 172




Assertion :- Heterocysts are specialised cells of blue green algae for Nitrogen fixation.Reason :- In Heterocyst cells oxygen depleted conditions can be created, which is essential for Nitrogenase functioning.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 173




Assertion :- The cellwall of diatoms is indestructible.Reason :- The cell wall of diatoms is embedded with calcium carbonates.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 174




Assertion :- Fungi prefer to grow in cold and humid areas.Reason :- Low temperature favours the metabolic activities.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D





Assertion : According to Whittaker's classification dinoflagellates are included in kingdom Protista.Reason : Dinoflagellates have holophytic type of nutrition.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 176




Assertion :- Natural classifications are more accurate than artificial classifications.Reason :- They are based on natural affinities among organisms and consider only external feature not internal features.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 177




Assertion :- Algae are divided into three main classes, based on only cell wall composition.Reason :- Among members of algae composition of cell wall is extremely variable.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 178




Assertion :- Sporophyte of bryophytes is partially or completely dependent on gametophyte.Reason :- In mosses, sporophyte is differentiated into foot seta and capsule.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D





Assertion :- In pteridophyte well distinct alternation of generation is present.Reason :- In pteridophytes both gametophyte and sporophyte are found independently during life cycle.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D





Assertion :- Gametophyte of homosporous pteridophyte does not depend on sporophytic body.Reason :- In homosporous pteridophytes there is ex situ or exosporic spore germination.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Test 3 :Q No: 1

Under the influence of the Coulomb field of charge +Q, a charge-q is moving around it in an elliptical orbit. Find out the correct statement(s)

(1) The angular momentum of the charge-q is constant(2) The linear momentum of the charge-q is constant(3) The angular velocity of the charge-q is constant(4) The linear speed of the charge-q is constant


Q No: 2

A parallel plate condenser is filled with two dielectrics as shown. Area of each plate is A metre2 and the separation is t metre. The dielectric constants are k1 and k2 respectively. Its capacitance in farad will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


There are two metallic spheres of same radii but one is solid and the other is hollow, then(1) Solid sphere can be given more charge(2) Hollow sphere can be given more charge(3) They can be charged equally (maximum)(4) None of the above


Two point charges +3μC and +8μC repel each other with a force of 40N. If a charge of –5μC is added to each of the them, then the force between them will become

(1) –10N(2) +10N(3) +20N(4) –20N


A solid conducting sphere of radius a has a net positive charge 2Q. A conducting spherical shell of inner radius b and outer radius c is concentric with the solid sphere and has a net charge –Q. The surface charge density on the inner and outer surfaces of the spherical shell will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the aboveCorrect Answer: 1 Status: unattemptedQ No: 6

Three charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 'a' as shown in the following figure. The force experienced by the charge placed at the vertex A in a direction normal to BC is

(1) Q2/(4πε0a2)(2) –Q2/(4πε0a2)(3) Zero(4) Q2/(2πε0a2)


Q No: 7

Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having same radius as that of B but uncharged is brought in contact with B, then brought in contact with C and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is

(1) F/4 (2) 3F/4 (3) F/8 (4) 3F/8Correct Answer: 4 Status: unattemptedQ No: 8

Let P(r) = be the charge density distribution for a solid sphere of radius R and total charge Q. For a point 'p' inside the sphere at distance r1 from the centre of the sphere, the magnitude of electric field is :-

(1) 0(2)

(3)

(4)


Q No: 9

Two charged spheres of radii 10 cm and 15 cm are connected by a thin wire. No charge will flow, if they have(1) The same charge on each(2) The same potential(3) The same energy(4) The same field on their surfaces


Q No: 10

The electric potential V at any point O (x, y, z all in metres) in space is given by V = 4x2 volt. The electric field at the point (1m, 0, 2m) in volt/metre is :-

(1) 8 along negative X-axis(2) 8 along positive X-axis(3) 16 along negative X-axis(4) 16 along positive Z-axis


Four condensers are joined as shown in the adjoining figure. The capacity of each is 8μF. The equivalent capacity between the points A and B will be :-

(1) 32 μF(2) 2 μF(3) 8 μF(4) 16 μF


Q No: 12

Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b and c(a < b < c) and have surface charge densities, σ, –σ and σ respectively. If VA, VB and VC denote the potentials of the three shells, then for, c = a + b, we have :-

(1) VC = VA ≠ VB

(2) VC = VB ≠ VA

(3) VC ≠ VB ≠ VA

(4) VC = VB = VA


If E is the electric field intensity of an electrostatic field, then the electrostatic energy density is proportional to :-

(1) E(2) E2

(3) 1/E2

(4) E3


Q No: 14

A particle A has charge +q and a particle B has charge +4q with each of them having the same mass m. When

allowed to fall from rest through the same electric potential difference, the ratio of their speed will become:-

(1) 2 : 1(2) 1 : 2(3) 1 : 4(4) 4 : 1


Two identical capacitors, have the same capacitance C. One of them is charged to potential V1 and the other to V2. The negative ends of the capacitors are connected together. When the positive ends are also connected, the decrease in energy of the combined systme is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) C(V1 – V2)2

(4) C(V1 + V2)2


Q No: 16

In Millikan's oil drop experiment an oil drop carrying a charge Q is held stationary by a potential difference 2400 V between the plates. To keep a drop of half the radius stationary the potential difference had to be made 600V. What is the charge on the second drop :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Q(4)


Six capacitors each of capacitance of 2μF are connected as shown in the figure. The effective capacitance between A and B is :-

(1) 12 μF(2) 8/3 μF(3) 3 μF(4) 6 μF


Point charges +4q, –q and +4q are kept on the x-axis at points x = 0, x = a and x = 2a respectively, then :-

(1) Only q is in stable equilibrium(2) None of the charges are in equilibrium(3) All the charges are in unstable equilibrium(4) All the charges are in stable equilibrium


Q No: 19

Two metal spheres of radii R1 and R2 are charged to the same potential. The ratio of charges on the spheres is :-

(1)

(2) R1 : R2

(3) (4)


Two identical capacitors are joined in parallel charged to a potential V and then separated and then connected to negative of the other :-

(1) The charges on the free plates connected together are destroyed(2) The charges on the free plates are enhanced(3) The energy stored in the system increases(4) The potential difference in the free plates becomes 2V


Q No: 21

At a point 20 cm from the centre of a uniformly charged dielectric sphere of radius 10 cm, the electric field is 100 V/m. The electric field at 3cm from the centre of the sphere will be :-

(1) 150 V/m(2) 125 V/m(3) 120 V/m(4) Zero


If identical charges (–q) are placed at each corner of a cube of side b, then electric potential energy of charge (+q) which is placed at centre of the cube will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


A charged particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in a uniform electric field E. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the kinetic energy of the charged particle after 't' second is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


An electron enters in high potential region V2 from lower potential region V1 then its velocity:-(1) Will increase(2) Will change in direction but not in magnitude(3) No change in direction of field(4) No change in direction perpendicular to field


The wrong statement about electric lines of force is :-(1) These originate from positive charge and end on negative charge(2) They do not intersect each other at a point(3) They have the same form for a point charge and a sphere

(4) They have physical existenceCorrect Answer: 4 Status: unattemptedQ No: 26

The work done in carrying a charge of 5μC from a point A to a point B in an electric field is 10mJ. The potential difference (VB – VA) is then :-

(1) +2 kV(2) –2 kV(3) +200 V(4) –200 V


Plates of area A are arranged as shown. The distance between each plate is d, the net capacitance is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


To charges q1 and q2 are placed 30 cm apart, shown in the figure. A third charge q3 is moved along the arc of a

circle of radius 40 cm from C to D. The change in the potential energy of the system is k, where k is :-

(1) 8 q2

(2) 8 q1

(3) 6 q2

(4) 6 q1


An electric charge 10–3 μC is placed at the orign (0, 0) of X-Y co-ordinate system. Two points A and B are situated at

( , ), and (2, 0) respectively. The potential difference between the points A and B will be :-

(1) 9 volt(2) Zero(3) 2 volt

(4) 3.5 voltCorrect Answer: 2 Status: unattemptedQ No: 30

An electric dipole has a pair of equal and opposite point charges q and –q separated by a distance 2x. The axis of the dipole is defined as:-

(1) Direction from positive charge to negative charge(2) Direction from negative charge to positive charge(3) Perpendicular to the line joining the two charges drawn at the centre and pointing upward direction(4) Perpendicular to the line joining the two charges drawn at the centre and pointing downward direction


What is the angle between the electric dipole moment and the electric field strength due to it on the equatorial line :-

(1) 0°(2) 90°(3) 180°(4) None of these


Q No: 32

Two condensers of capacity 0.3 μF. and 0.6 μF respectively are connected in series. The combination is connected across a potential of 6 volts. The ratio of energies stored by the condensers will be :-

(1) 1/2 (2) 2 (3) 1/4 (4) 4Correct Answer: 2 Status: unattempted

Q No: 33

Four plates of equal area A are separated by equal distance d and are arranged as shown in the figure. The equivalent capacity is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


The electric charges are distributed in a small volume. The flux of the electric field through a spherical surface of radius 10 cm surrounding the total charge is 20 Vm. The flux over a concentric sphere of radius 20 cm will be :-

(1) 20 Vm(2) 25 Vm(3) 40 Vm(4) 200 Vm


If on the concentric hollow spheres of radii r and R(>r) the charge Q is distributed such that their surface densities are same then the potential at their common centre is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero(4)


Q No: 36

The charge on 500 cc of water due to protons will be :-(1) 6.0 × 1027C(2) 2.67 × 107C(3) 6 × 1023C(4) 1.67 × 1023C


Q No: 37

Four capacitors of equal capacitance have an equivalent capacitance C1 when connected in series and an equivalent capacitance C2 when connected in parallel. The ratio C1/C2 is :-

(1) 1/4 (2) 1/16 (3) 1/8 (4) 1/12Correct Answer: 2 Status: unattempted

Q No: 38

An elementary particle of mass m and charge +e is projected with velocity υ at a much more massive particle of charge Ze, where Z > 0. What is the closest possible approach of the incident particle :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


Four condensers each of capcity 4μF are connected as shown in figure. VP – VQ = 15 volts. The energy stored in the sytstem is :-

(1) 2400 ergs(2) 1800 ergs(3) 3600 ergs(4) 5400 ergs


Q No: 40

Four charges equal to –Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre. If the system is in equilibrium the value of q is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


Q No: 41


A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.D. If both Assertion & Reason are False.

Assertion :- A metallic shield in form of a hollow shell may be built to block an electric field.Reason :- In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside it is zero at every point.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) DCorrect Answer: 1 Status: unattempted

Q No: 42




Assertion :- Electrons move away from a low potential to high potential region.Reason :- Because electrons have negative charge.


Q No: 43




Assertion :- If a proton and an electron are placed in the same uniform electric field. They experience different acceleration.Reason :- Electric force on a test charge is independent of its mass.


Q No: 44




Assertion :- If a point charge q is placed in front of an infinite grounded conducting plane surface, the point charge will experience a force.Reason :- This force is due to the induced charge on the conducting surface which is at zero potential.


Q No: 45




Assertion :- For practical purpose, the earth is used as a reference at zero potential in electrical circuits.Reason :- The electrical potential of a sphere of radius R with charge Q uniformly distributed on the surface is

given by .(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 46

Arylhalide is :-(1)

CH2CH2Cl(2)

CH=CH–CH2–Cl(3)

CH2Cl(4)

ClCorrect Answer: 4 Status: unattempted

Q No: 47

(CH3)3C–Br + CH3ONa →The reaction gives main product are :-

(1) (CH3)3C–ONa + CH3Br(2) (CH3)3C–OCH3 + NaBr(3) (CH3)2C = CH2 + CH3OH + NaBr(4) (CH3)3C–CH2OH + NaBr


Q No: 48

Which of the following compounds are refrigerant ?(1) COCl2(2) CCl4(3) CF4

(4) CF2Cl2Correct Answer: 4 Status: unattemptedQ No: 49

When chloroform is heated with aqueous NaOH to form :-(1) CH3COONa(2) HCOONa(3) CH3OH(4) HCOOH


Q No: 50

For the preparation of DDT chlorobenzene is react with which of the following :-(1) Charcoal(2) Chloral(3) Naphthalene(4) Benzenoid


Q No: 51

Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


The structure of the major product formed in the following reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


Formaldehyde is react with CH3MgBr to give:-(1) C2H5OH(2) CH3COOH(3) CH3CHO(4) HCHO


Q No: 54

The product of acid catalysed hydration of 2-phenylpropene is :-(1) 3-Phenylpropan-2-ol(2) 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol(3) 2-Phenylpropan-2-ol(4) 2-Phenylpropan-1-ol


Q No: 55

The major organic product in the reaction :-CH3–O–CH(CH3)2 + HI → Product is

(1) CH3I + (CH3)2CHOH(2) CH3OH + (CH3)2CHI(3) ICH2OCH(CH3)2

(4)


The main product of the following reaction is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


Which of the compounds with molecular formula C5H10 gives acetone on ozonolysis?(1) 2-Methyl-1-butene(2) 2-Methyl-2-butene(3) 3-Methyl-1-butene(4) Cyclopentane


In the reaction :

Major product is :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


An organic compound C3H6O does not give a precipitate with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine and also does not react with metallic sodium. It could be :-

(1) CH3CH2CHO(2) CH2=CH–CH2OH(3) CH3COCH3

(4) CH2=CH–O–CH3


Base catalysed aldol condensation occurs with :-(1) Benzaldehyde(2) 2-Methylpropionaldehyde(3) 2,2-Dimethylpropionaldehyde(4) none of these


Q No: 61

The compound A is :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


Q No: 62

Among the following compounds, the most acidic is :-(1) p-nitrophenol(2) p-hydroxybenzoic acid(3) o-hydroxybenzoic acid(4) p-toluic acid


Q No: 62

Among the following compounds, the most acidic is :-(1) p-nitrophenol(2) p-hydroxybenzoic acid(3) o-hydroxybenzoic acid(4) p-toluic acid


Q No: 63

Which of the following are examples of aldol condensation ?(a) 2CH3CHO CH3CHOHCH2CHO(b) 2CH3COCH3 CH3–COH(CH3)CH2COCH3

(c) 2HCHO CH3OH + HCOOH(d) C6H5CHO + HCHO C6H5CH2OH

(1) a(2) b & c(3) a & b(4) b & d


Q No: 64

When sodium formate is heated with sodalime, it forms :-(1) Ethylene(2) Hydrogen(3) Ethane(4) Methane


Ethylester P, the product "P" is :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


The order of reactivity of the following compounds in SN1 reactions :-

(a) C6H5CH2Br(b) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br(c) C6H5CH(CH3)Br(d) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br

(1) d > b > c > a(2) c > a > d > b(3) b > a > d > c(4) d > a > b > c


Which of the following compound is not chiral :-(1) DCH2CH2CH2Cl(2) CH3CHDCH2Cl(3) CH3CHClCH2D(4) CH3CH2CHDCl


Q No: 68

The (R) and (S) enantiomers of an optically active compound differ in :-(1) their reactivity with a chiral reagents(2) their optical rotation of plane polarised light(3) their melting point(4) their solubility in a chiral regents


Which of the following compounds will give racemic mixture on nucleophilic substitution by OH– ion?

(1) a (2) a, b, c (3) b, c (4) a, cCorrect Answer: 1 Status: unattemptedQ No: 70

Which of the following alkylhalides will undergo SN1 reaction most readily :-

(1) (CH3)3C–F(2) (CH3)3C–Cl(3) (CH3)3C–Br(4) (CH3)3C–I


Which of the following is the correct structure of DDT :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


Q No: 72

Reaction of propanone with methylmagnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis gives :-(1) Butan-1-ol(2) Propan-2-ol(3) 2,2-Dimethylpropan-1-ol(4) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol


Q No: 73

Cumene is oxidised in the presence of air to give :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


Arrange the following compounds in order of their increasing boiling points :-(a) Pentan-1-ol(b) n-Butane(c) Pentanal(d) Ethoxyethane

(1) b < d < c < a(2) c < a < b < d(3) b < a < d < c(4) d < b < a < c


Q No: 75

Salicylic acid is react with acetic anhydride in the presence of conc. H2SO4 to gives :-(1) Acetophenone(2) Aspirin(3) Phthalic acid(4) Terpineol


What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the following reaction ?R–OH + HCl R–Cl + H2O

(1) 1° > 2° > 3°(2) 1° < 2° > 3°(3) 3° > 2° > 1°(4) 3° > 1° > 2°


CO + 2H2 It gives :-

(1) H–CHO(2) HCOOH(3) CH3COOH

(4) CH3–OHCorrect Answer: 4 Status: unattempted

Q No: 78

The reaction is :-(1) Rosenmond reaction(2) Gatterman-Koch reaction(3) Stephen reaction(4) Clemensen reaction


Q No: 79

Through which of the following reactions number of carbon atoms can be increased in the chain?(a) Grignard reaction(b) Cannizaro's reaction(c) Aldol condensation(d) HVZ reaction

(1) a and c(2) b & d(3) a(4) a, b, and c


Which has highest pka value ?(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


Q No: 81

The most suitable reagent for the conversion of RCH2OH → RCHO is :-(1) KMnO4

(2) K2Cr2O7

(3) CrO3

(4) PCC (Pyridiniumchlorochromate)Correct Answer: 4 Status: unattempted

Q No: 82

The IUPAC name of α-Methylcyclohexanone:-(1) 2-Methylcyclohexanone(2) 1-Methylcyclohexanone(3) 2-Methyloxocyclohexane(4) 2-Methyl-1-oxopentane


Q No: 83

Cannizaro's reaction is not given by :-(1)

(2)

(3) HCHO(4) CH3CHO


The product formed is :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


The main product of the reaction is :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering

these Questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.


C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.

Assertion :- Aldehydes and ketones, both react with Tollen's reagent to form silver mirror.Reason :- Both, aldehydes and ketones contain a carbonyl group.


Q No: 87




Assertion :- KCN reacts with methyl chloride to give methyl isocyanide.

Reason :- N is an ambident nucleophile(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Q No: 88




Assertion :- Ethers behave as bases in the presence of mineral acids.Reason :- Due to the presence of lone pairs of electrons on oxygen.


Q No: 89




Assertion :- In formaldehyde, all the four atoms are in the same plane.Reason :- The carbon atom in formaldehyde is sp2-hybridised.


Q No: 90

These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering

these Questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.



Assertion :- Equimolar mixture of HCl and ZnCl2 is known as Lucas reagent.Reason :- Lucas reagent can be used to distinguish between methanol and ethanol.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) DCorrect Answer: 3 Status: unattemptedQ No: 91

In cockroach oxygen from the air is transported to all the parts of body by :-(1) Diffusion through body wall(2) Tracheal tubes(3) Haemocyanin of plasma(4) Haemolymph


Which symmetry occurs in ctenophores.(1) Radial(2) Biradial(3) Bilateral(4) Asymmetrical


Which of the following are Uricotelic animals-(1) Rohu and Frog(2) Camel and Frog(3) Lizard and crow(4) Earthworm and Eagle


Q No: 94

Which one of the following option is correctly matched with its category- Group Type of circulation Blood get oxygenated by

(A) Fish Single circulation Skin(B) Amphibia Double circulation Gills(C) Reptiles Incomplete double circulation Lungs(D) Birds Incomplete double circulation Lungs


For which one of the following organisms its excretory organs are correctly stated ?(1) Earthworm – Pharyngeal, integumentary and septal nephridia(2) Cockroach – Hepatic-caeca only(3) Frog – Metanephric Kidney(4) Humans – Mesonephric Kidney


Q No: 96

In Periplaneta, all of the following structures are involved in formation of spermatophore except :-(1) Phallic Gland(2) Long tubules of mushroom gland(3) Collaterial gland(4) Ejaculatory duct


Q No: 97

Given below are mouth parts of cockroach, Identify them and find out the correct answer representing (i) to (iv) :-

(1) (i)-Mandible (ii)-Maxilla (iii)-Labrum (iv)-Labium(2) (i)-Mandible (ii)-Maxilla (iii)-Labium (iv)-Labrum(3) (i)-Maxilla (ii)-Mandible (iii)-Labium (iv)-Labrum(4) (i)-Maxilla (ii)-Mandible (iii)-Labrum (iv)-Labium


Q No: 98

Common characteristics of all vertebrates without exception is -(1) well developed skull & vertebral column(2) exoskeleton(3) Two pairs of functional appendages(4) Body is distinguished into head, neck, trunk & tail


Q No: 99

Which of the following statements are correct to urochordates-(A) Ciliary mode of feeding(B) Presence of Thyroid gland(C) Notochord only in tail of larva(D) Excretion by proboscis gland

(1) A & C(2) A & B(3) C & D(4) A & D


Which one is incorrect pair-(1) Psittacula-Parrot(2) Hemidactylis-wall lizard(3) Pavo-Pigeon(4) Bangarus-Krait


Q No: 101

An important character of arthropoda is :-(1) 3 pairs of legs(2) Unsegmented body(3) Shell over body

(4) Jointed legsCorrect Answer: 4 Status: unattemptedQ No: 102

Body is segmented in :-(1) Coelenterata(2) Annelida(3) Porifera(4) Mollusca


Phylum Arthopoda is characterized by :-(1) Chitinous exoskeleton, external segmentation & jointed appendages(2) Hairs, external segmentation, 3 pairs of legs(3) Exoskeleton of scales, metamerism, a pair of antennae(4) External segmentation, a pair of chelicerae a pair of pedpalpi


Q No: 104

Dorsal tubular nerve cord found is in :-(1) Some chordates(2) All chordates(3) All invertebrates(4) Some invertebrates


Pearls are produced in an oyster around the :-(1) Tears of sea mermaids falling into the oyster(2) First drops of rain falling into the oyster is mouth(3) Eggs of oyster which fail to leave its body(4) Some external particles becoming embedded in the skin of oyster


Body is not segmented in :-(1) Tapeworms & Scorpions(2) Earthworms & Mosquitoes(3) Shipworm, Ascaris & Starfish(4) Glow-worms, Locusts, Centipedes


Coelenterates differ from other animals in having:-(1) Polymorphism(2) Nematocysts(3) Bilateral symmetry(4) Skeleton


Animals of which set belong to the same phylum:-

(1) Scorpion, Cockroach, Prawn(2) Scorpion, Cockroach, Earthworm(3) Cockroach, Leech, Prawn(4) Prawn, Earthworm, Leech


Which one is a fundamental character of chordates, distinguishing these from nonchordates :-(1) Brain(2) Coelom(3) Notochord(4) Ganglionated nerve cord


Water vascular system is found in :-(1) Cnidarians(2) Echinoderms(3) Sponges(4) Arthropods


Given below is the diagram of an animal. What is its name and the phylum it belongs to :-

(1) Echinus, mollusca(2) Ophiura, Echinodermata(3) Antedon, Hemichordata(4) Cucumaria, Echinodermata


Class of phylum protozoa to which amoeba belongs :-(1) Rhizopoda(2) Sporozoa(3) Ciliata(4) Flagellata


Eumetazoa include :-(1) Protista(2) Protozoa(3) Sporozoa(4) Coelenterata


Which are radially symmetrical animals :-(1) Coelenterata(2) Echinodermata(3) Both(4) Mollusca


Q No: 115

What is common in Tapeworm, Liverfluke & Planaria :-(1) All are segmented(2) All are gut parasites(3) All have a coelom(4) All have flat body


All chordates possess some fundamental characters in some or the other stages of their life cycle. Which is not of these characters :-

(1) Dorsal & hollow tubular nerve cord(2) Notochord(3) Gills(4) Post anal tail


A post anal tail is absent in :-(1) Rabbit(2) Lizard(3) Earthworm(4) Snake


Q No: 118

Blood in Arthropods may be blue or green in colour due to presence of :-(1) Haemoglobin(2) Chlorocruorin(3) Haemocyanin(4) Erythrocruorin


Q No: 119

Coral reefs are formed by :-(1) Molluscs(2) Coelenterates(3) Echinoderm(4) Protozoans


Amoeba is placed in the phylum protozoa because of :-(1) Presence of cell wall(2) Acellular body

(3) Phagocytic mode of nutrition(4) Presence of contractile vacuole


Q No: 121

In which phylum; adults show radial symmetry, but their larva are bilateral symmetric ?(1) Echinodermata(2) Coelenterata(3) Hemichordata(4) Mollusca


Roundworms differ from flatworms in having a :-(1) Circulatory system(2) Pseudocoel(3) Dorsal nerve cord(4) Circular muscle layer in body wall


Tubefeet for locomotion are found in :-(1) Cnidarians(2) Echinoderms(3) Sponges(4) Some annelids


"Aristotle lantern" is characteristic of class :-(1) Ophiuroidea(2) Asteroidea(3) Echinoidea(4) Holothuroidea


Q No: 125

A suctorial mouth is found in :-(1) Snail(2) Taenia(3) Leech(4) Earthworm


Q No: 126

Eyes of which group of mollusca resemble with vertebrate eyes :-(1) Cephalopoda(2) Gastropoda(3) Pelecypoda(4) Bivalvia


Q No: 127

Most important character of all sponges :-(1) Herbivorous nutrition(2) Choanocytes(3) Coelenteron cavity(4) Only sexual reproduction


Q No: 128

Correct set in classification is :-(1) Platyhelminthes – Taenia, Flatworms, Liver fluke(2) Arthropoda – Centipede, Millipede, Jelly fish(3) Cnidaria – Cuttlefish, Silver fish, Sea urchin(4) Annelida – Earthworm, Leech, Liver fluke


Animals having pseudocoelomic cavity are included in phylum :-(1) Platyhelminthese(2) Aschelminthese(3) Arthropoda(4) Echinodermata


Which phylum represents the starting of triploblastic condition :-(1) Arthropoda(2) Platyhelminthese(3) Aschelminthes(4) Annelids


Which phylum represent Acoelomate condition:-(1) Platyhelminthes(2) Annelida(3) Aschelminthes(4) Chordata


Which cells line the cavity of spongocoel :-(1) Pinacocyte(2) Porocyte(3) Choanocyte(4) Cnidocyte


Q No: 133

Match the column – Column-I Column-IIA Euspongia 1 Sea fanB Meandrina 2 Portuguese man of warC Pennatula 3 Bath sponge

D Gorgonia 4 Brain coralE Physalia 5 Sea pen(1) A–3 B–4 C–1 D–2 E–5(2) A–3 B–4 C–5 D–1 E–2(3) A–2 B–4 C–5 D–1 E–3(4) A–3 B–5 C–4 D–1 E–2


Which of the following animal represents metagenesis :-(1) Obelia(2) Aurelia(3) Pennatula(4) Adamsia


Bioluminescence is the property of phylum :-(1) Ctenophora(2) Annelida(3) Aschelminthes(4) Arthropoda


Statocysts in phylum mollusca are responsible for :-(1) Balancing(2) Auditory(3) Vision(4) Both (1) & (2)


Radula in Mollusca is :-(1) Larval stage(2) Respiratory organ(3) Rasping organ(4) Excretory organ


Q No: 138

Which animal can not be taken as vector :-(1) Anopheles(2) Culex(3) Aedes(4) Apis


Which respiratory organs is absent in Arthropoda :-(1) Tracheae(2) Book Gills(3) Book Lungs

(4) Pharyngeal gill slitsCorrect Answer: 4 Status: unattemptedNo: 140

Which one of the following animals is exceptioally an oviparous mammal ?(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


A schematic representation of a chordate embryo is shown in the above figure. The structures marked as A, B, C and D are respectively :-

(1) Notochord, Nervecord, Gill slits, Post anal Tail(2) Post anal Tail, Notochord, Nervecord and Gill slits.(3) Post anal Tail, Gill slits, Nervecord and Notochord.(4) Post anal Tail, Nervecord, Notochord and Gill slits.


Match the Column-I with the Column-II and find out the correct answer :- Column-I Column-IIA Spongocoel 1 ArthropodaB Dorso-ventrally flattened body 2 CnidariaC Coelenteron 3 PoriferaD Chitinous exoskeleton 4 Platy helminthes(1) A–3 B–4 C–1 D–2(2) A–4 B–3 C–2 D–1(3) A–3 B–4 C–2 D–1(4) A–2 B–4 C–3 D–1


Which type of locomotory organ are found in soft bodied animals ?(1) Cilia(2) Tubefeet(3) Tentacles(4) Muscular Foot


Which of the following group of the animals belongs to the same class ?(1) Chelone, Corvus(2) Macropus, Myxine(3) Crocodilus, Salamandra(4) Aptenodytes, Neophron


Reptiles are the most successful terrestrial animals in vertebrate. Which type of locomotion is found in them ?

(1) Jumping(2) Saltotorial(3) Crawling(4) None of the above


Q No: 146

The biological name and the popular common name of animals are given below, select the correctly matched among the following :-

(1) Pinctada – Chiton(2) Dentalium – Squid(3) Pristis – Sting ray(4) Neophron – Vulture


The members of phylum Aschelminthes are called round worms, having numerous distinguishiable character but which of the following can not be considered as their character ?

(1) They are monoecious(2) They are bilaterally symmetrical(3) Organ system level of body organisation(4) These are pseudocoelomate animals


Distinguishing characters of hemichordates are :-(1) Open circulatory system(2) Excretory organ is proboscis gland(3) They are dioecious(4) All of the above


Which one is common in Nereis, Prawn, Octopus and Cockroach :-(1) Aquatic habitat(2) Closed circulatory system(3) Ventral nerve cord(4) Malpighian tubules


Q No: 150

Which one of the following group of animals is schizocoelomate and triploblastic ?(1) Round worms(2) Molluscans(3) Echinodermates(4) Flat worms


Select the incorrect statement from the following:-(1) Members of phylum ctenophora are commonly known as “Comb-Jellies”(2) When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, is

called radial symmetry(3) Earthworm and Nereis are monoecious(4) Balanoglossus body is composed of proboscis, collar and trunk.


Q No: 152

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?(A) Flame cells – Taenia, Fasciola(B) Notochord – Balanoglossus(C) Metagenesis – Adamsia, Obelia(D) Open circulatory system – Apis, Pila

(1) A, B and C(2) A and D(3) Only A and C(4) Only A and B


Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?(1) Canal system – Asterias(2) Metagenesis – Aurelia(3) Ventral Nervecord – Pheretima(4) Muscular pharynx – Taenia


Which one of the following is a living fossil ?(1) Echinus(2) Pinctada(3) Hirudinaria(4) Limulus


Which one of the following is a matching pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibits :-(1) Sepia – Metamerism(2) Hydra – Metagenesis(3) Ascaris – Sexual dimorphism(4) All of the above


Q No: 156

Which one of the following pair of animals are "Cartilaginous fishes" ?(1) Labeo, Catla(2) Pristis, Scoliodon(3) Carcharodon, Petromyzon(4) Myxine, Pterrophyllum


Q No: 157

Select the incorrect statement from the following:-(1) All chordates are vertebrates(2) Reptiles are poikilotherms(3) Cyclostomates have an elongated body bearing 6-15 pairs of gill slits.(4) Bony fishes have four pairs of gills with operculum


Q No: 158

Which one of the following is a correct matching set of class and its examples ?(1) Osteichthyes – Clarias, Pterophyllum, Catla(2) Mammalia – Ornithorhynchus, Pteropus, Aptenodytes(3) Reptilia – Chameleon, Calotes, Neophron(4) Amphibia – Rana, Icthyophis, Crocodilus


Q No: 159

Which one of the following character is not typical of the class Aves ?(1) The long bones are hollow with air cavities.(2) They are oviparous and development is direct(3) Air sacs connected to lung supplement respiration(4) The avian skin is moist with scales


Reptiles are considered as the first amniotes animals. They possess which of the following common characters ?(1) Tympanum represent ear(2) Heart is usually four chambered(3) Both 1 and 2(4) They are oviparous and development is indirect.


Q No: 161

Which of the following statements regarding mammals are correct ?(A) Delphinus and Balaenoptera are aquatic mammals.(B) Ornithorhynchus is oviparous

(C) Mammals have double occipital condylesSelect the correct answer :-

(1) A, B and C(2) A only(3) A and B(4) B and C


Members of class reptilia, Aves and mammalia are amniotes and have lot of common feature, but they differ each other remarkably, select the common features among them :-

(1) They have 12-pairs of cranial nerves(2) One pair of metanephric kidney help in excretion(3) They are dioecious and fertilisation is internal(4) All of these


Q No: 163

Which one of the following statements about all the four of Salamandra, Elephas, Canis and Delphinus is correct ?

(1) All poikilotherms(2) All have 12 pairs of cranial nerve(3) All have one occipital condyles(4) Sexes are separate and fertilisation is internal


Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? A. Protochordates – LanceletB. Amniotes – Struthio, Aptenodytes, Chelone, EquusC. Cartilaginous fishes – Scoliodon, Trygon, HippocampusD. Tunicates – Salpa, Doliolum, Ascidia

(1) A, B and D(2) A, C and D(3) A, B and C(4) Only A and B


Study the following statements and select which are not correct regarding earthworm :-(a) Locomotion is carried out by setae and sucker(b) Four pairs of spermathecal pores are present at mid-ventral of the 5th to 9th segments(c) Setae is absent in first, Last and clitellar segments(d) Circular muscle is absent in body wall of clitellar segements

(1) a, b & c(2) a, b & d(3) b, c & d(4) a, c & d


Q No: 166

The malpighian tubules in cockroach open at the junction of :-(1) Gizzard and Midgut(2) Midgut and Ileum

(3) Ileum and Colon(4) Midgut and Foregut


Alary muscles in cockroach are related with :-(1) Brain(2) Heart(3) Gut(4) Wings


Find out correct statements about cockroach :-(A) Anal cerci is present in both male and female(B) Excretory organs are nephridia(C) Nocturnal and cursorial animal(D) 3-pair legs and 3 pair wings

(1) A, B, C(2) A, C(3) C, D(4) B, C, D


The head of the Cockroach is formed by the fusion of how many segments in embryonic stage ?(1) Five (2) Six (3) Nine (4) Ten


Q No: 170

In the posterior region of earthworm, the dorsal blood vessel receive blood from subneural vessel through :-(1) Dorso intestinal vessel(2) Commissural vessel(3) Septonephridial vessel(4) Supra oesophageal vessel





Assertion :- Ascaris has complete alimentary canal with muscular pharynx.Reason :- Ascaris is a flat worm.


Q No: 172




Assertion :- Rhineodon is a cold blooded animal.Reason :- It does not have capability to regulate its body temperature.





Assertion :- Mammals are generally viviparous.Reason :- Mammals are having mammary glands.





Assertion :- Body of the birds are covered by feathers.Reason :- Birds have four chambered heart.


Q No: 175




Assertion :- Maximum similar characters are found in class.Reason :- Class is a group of families.


Q No: 176


A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

D. If both Assertion & Reason are False.Assertion :- Contractile vacuole is present in sprorozoans.Reason :- Contractile vacuole help in osmo-regulation in sporozoans.


Q No: 177




Assertion :- Echinoderms are coelomate animals.Reason :- Water vascular system is characteristic feature of echinoderms.





Assertion :- Sponges are diploblastic animal.Reason :- Digestion take place in spongocoel.


Q No: 179




Assertion :- Body of fishes is stream lined.Reason :- Two chambered heart is found in fishes.


Q No: 180




Assertion :- Tympanum is absent in snakes.Reason :- Snakes are unable to hear sound from atmosphere through the ear.


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