SRIGAYATRI EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS

INDIA

SR BIPC Date:24-04-2020 Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks:160

BOTANY 1. Elater mechanism of spore dispersal is found in

1) Liverworts 2) Mosses 3) Ferns 4) Cycads

2. In pinus, male cone is made up of

1) Microsporophylls 2) Megasporophylls 3) Anthers 4) Embryosae

3. Mannitol is food stored in

1) Porphyra 2) Polysiphoria 3) Fucus 4) Chara

4. Sex-organs of pteridophytes are

1) Multicellular and non jacketed 2) Multicellular and jacketed

3) Unicellular and jacketed 4) Unicellular and non jacketed

5. Tallest gymnosperm is

1) Sequoia 2) Ginkgo 3) Cedrus 4) Juniperus

6. Pteridophytes are called vascular cryptogams as they are non-seeded plants

containing

1) Only xylem 2) Only phloem

3) Neither xylem nor phloem 4) Xylem and phloem

7. Leaves of Fern are covered with

1) Ramenta 2) Spores 3) Wax 4) Indusium

8. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options

given

Column I Column II

a) Algae p) Gymnosperms

b) Riccia q) Pond scum

c) Spirogyra r) Autotrophic

d) Gnetum s) Liverwort

1) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p 2) a-p, b-s, c-q, d-r 3) a-s, b-p, c-r, d-q 4) a-r, b-q, c-s,

d-p

9. Which of the following groups of algae belongs to class Rhodophyceae?

1) Laminaria, Fucus, Porphyra, Volvox

2) Gelidium, Porphyra, Dictyota, Fucus

3) Gracilaria, Gelidium, Porphyra, Polysiphoria

4) Volvox, Spirogyra, Ulothrix

10. Prothallus of pteridophytes is

1) Inconspicuous, Small, Multicellular, Free living photosynthetic

2) Inconspicuous, Small, Multicellular, Free living non photosynthetic

3) Inconspicuous, Large, Unicellular, Free living photosynthetic

4) Conspicuous, Small, Multicellular, Free living photosynthetic

11. Which one of following is a rootless fossil plant

1) Lepidodendron 2) Rhynia 3) Williamsonia 4) Lyginopteris

PART TEST-6 (EAMCET MODEL ) MOMODEL EAEA

12. Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options

given

Column I ColumnII

a) Chlorophyta i) Equisetum

b) Lycopsida ii) Chara

c) Phaeophyta iii) Selaginella

d) Sphenopsida iv) Ectocarpus

1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv 4) a-iv, b-i, c-

iii, d-ii

13. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are

1) Haplontic, Diplontic 2) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic

3) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic 4) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic

14. Select the mismatch

1) Pinus-Dioecious 2) Cycas-Dioecious

3) Salvinia-Heterosporous 4) Equisetum-Homosporous

15. An example of colonial algae is

1) Chlorella 2) Volvox 3) Ulothrix 4) Spirogyra

16. Chief producers in the ocean relatively are

1) Diatoms 2) Green algae 3) Pteriodophytes 4) Bryophytes

17. Whirling whips are

1) Chrysophytes 2) Dinoflagellates 3) Euglenoids 4) Slime

moulds

18. Red tides in Medeterranian sea are because of

1) Gonyaulax 2) Trichodesmium 3) Fungi 4)

Actinomycetes

19. Rejuventory spores in diatoms are

1) Auxospores 2) Parthenospores 3) Akinetes 4) Conidia

20. Diatomaceous earth is indestructible due to cell walls embedded by

1) Calcium 2) Silica 3) zinc 4) Phosphorus

21. 5-kingdom classification was proposed by

1) Linnaeus 2) R.H whittaker 3) E. Haeckel 4)

Theophrastaus

22. Black rust of wheat is caused by

1) Alternaria solani 2) Ustilago tritici

3) Puccinia graminis tritici 4) Claviceps purpurea

23. Alginic acid is produced by

1) Green algae 2) Red algae 3) Brown algae 4) BGA

24. Edible part of mushroom is

1) Basidiocarp 2) Fungal hypae 3) Primary mycelium 4) Basidiospore

25. The fungus which grows on dung is called

1) Hamicolous 2) Lignicolous 3) Coprophilous 4) Fungicolous

26. Aflatoxins are produced by

1) Bacteria 2) Viruses 3) Fungi 4) Protista

27. Lichen is an association between

1) Fungi & Bryophyles 2) Fungi & Algae

3) Algae & Pteridophyte 4) Algae & Bacteria

28. Total number of aminoacids in capsid of TMV having 2130 capsomers is

1) 336540 2) 162622 3) 948 4) 387921

29. Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options

given

Column I Column II

a) Ernst Mayr i) Discovered viroids

b) Whittaker ii) Give the name of virus

c) Pasteur iii) Proposed five kingdom classification

d) Diener iv) Darwin of 20th century

1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i 3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 4) a-iv, b-iii, c-

i, d-ii

30. Association between roots of higher plants and fungi is

1) Mycorrhiza 2) Lichen 3) Fern 4) Moss

31. Order generally end with suffix

1) -eles 2) –ales 3) –aceae 4) –both 1&2

32. National Botanical Research Institute (NBRI) situated in

1) Lucknow 2) England(kew) 3) Kolkata 4) Howrah

33. Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options

given

Column I Column II

a) Man i) Poaceae

b) Datura ii) Anacardiaceae

c) Mango iii) Solanaceae

d) Wheat iv) Homonidae

1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii 3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-

iii, d-i

34. Herbarium is a

1) Sheet of paper on which dried plants are sticked

2) Store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on tick

paper sheets

3) Museum for dead plants

4) Museum for live plants

35. The material available for observation and study in Museums is called

1) Herbarium 2) Key 3) Collection 4) Formalin

36. Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order

i) Order ii) Class iii) Family iv) Species iv) Genus

1) v, iv, ii, i, iii 2) iv, v, i, iii, ii 3) iv, v, iii, i, ii 4) iv, v, ii, iii, i

37. Basic unit of classification

1) Genus 2) Species 3) Family 4) Order

38. Who is the father of Indian Taxonomy

1) Linnaeus 2) Santapau 3) John Ray 4) Swanson

39. The term ‘Systematics’ refers to:

1) Identification and classification of plants and animals

2) Nomenclature and identification of plants and animals

3) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship

4) Different kinds of organisms and their classification

40. Scientific names of plants are based on principles and criteria agreed by

1) ICNB 2) ICZN 3) ICBN 4) ICTV

ZOOLOGY 41. While travelling to higher altitudes, people can feel pain in the ear and dizziness.

Which part among the following is involved?

1) Cochlea

2) Tympanic membrane

3) Eustachian tube, Utricle, Saccule and Semicircular canals

4) None of the above

42. Which of the following is not involved in Knee-Jerk reflex?

1) Muscle spindle 2) Motor neuron 3) Brain 4) Inter neurons

43. The organ of corti is a structure present in

1) External ear 2) Middle ear 3) Semicircular canal 4) Cochlea

44. Maeula maintains

1) Static equilibrium 2) Dynamic equilibrium

3) Both 1) and 2) 4) None of these

45. Hypoglosal nerve controls the movements of

1) Ear 2) Heart 3) Tongue 4) Limbs

46. A typical value of resting membrane potential

1) 100 mv− 2) 70 mv− 3) 40 mv− 4) 60 mv−

47. The primary visual area is located in

1) Temporal lobe 2) Occipital lope 3) Frontal lobe 4) Parietal lobe

48. Which of the following parts of human brain is also called emotional brain

1) Corpus callosam 2) Limbic system 3) Epithalamus 4) Broca’s area

49. Which one is an incorrect match

1) Myopia – Biconvex lens

2) Olfactory – Smell

3) Algeri receptor – Pain

4) Organ of corti cells – Sensory and supporting

50. The cavity of di-encephalon is known as

1) First ventricle 2) Second ventricle 3) Third ventricle 4) Fourth

ventricle

51. Excessive stimulation of vagus nerve in human may lead to

1) hoarse voice 2) Peptic ulsers

3) Efficient digestion of proteins 4) irregular contraction of diaphragm

52. Which of the following cranial nerves of both sensory and motor?

1) Olfactory 2) Optic 3) Trigeminal 4) Vagus

53. Sympathetic nerves in mammals arise from

1) Sacral region 2) Cervical region

3) 3rd, 7th, 9th, 10th cranial nerves 4) Thoroco-lumbar system

54. The part of the ear where sound is Transduced is

1) Tympanic membrane 2) Ear ossicles 3) Semiicircular canals 4) Cochlea

55. Internal ear is filled with

1) Perilymph 2) Endolymph 3) Lymph 4) Both 1) and

2)

56. Blind spot in vertebrate eye is the place where

1) There are no cones 2) There are no rods

3) There are neither rods nor cones 4) Retina is absent

57. The fluid filled in the space between lens and cornea is termed as

1) Vitreous humor 2) Aqueous humor 3) Synovial fluid 4) CSF

58. Wax gland present in the ear canal is called

1) Sweat gland 2) Prostate gland 3) Cowper’s gland 4) Ceruminous

gland

59. The brain disease caused due to the accumilation of Amyloid B-peptide is

1) Addison’s disease 2) Huntington’s disease

3) Parkinson’s disease 4) Alzhemer’s disease

60. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected this is because

1) It is composed of enucleated cells

2) It is a non living layer

3) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria

4) It has no blood supply

61. The amino acids derivative among the following hormone is

1) Insulin 2) Testosterone 3) Oestradiol 4) Epine phrine

62. Conn’s disease is caused by the over secretion of

1) ADH 2) ACTH 3) Oxytocin 4) Aldosterone

63. Match the column I with Column II and select the correct option from the codes given

below

Column I Column II

a. ANF i. Regulates blood calcium levels

b. MSH ii. Decrease blood pressure

c. GIP iii. Pigmentation

d. CT iv. Inhibits gastric secretion

1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

3) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

64. Which of the following hormone never reaches to cytoplasm

1) Estrogen 2) FSH 3) Progesterone 4) Testosterone

65. Insulin receptors are

1) Extrinsic proteins 2) Intrinsic proteins 3) G-proteins 4) Trimeric

proteins

66. Which of the following hormone is a steroid ?

1) Epinephrine 2) Thyroxine 3) Estrogen 4)

Gonadotropin

67. Which of the following hormones is not a poly-peptide

1) LH 2) FSH 3) Insulin 4) Thyrozine

68. The source of somatostatin is same as that of

1) Thyrozine and calcitonin 2) Insulin and glucagon

3) Somatotropin and prolactin 4) Vasopressin and oxytocin

69. To yield more milk, cow is injected with

1) Sorbitol 2) Prolactin 3) Gonadotrophs 4) Stilbesterol

70. Addison’s disease result from

1) Hyposecretion of gonads 2) Hyposecretion of adrenal

3) Hypertrophy of kidney 4) Hyposecretion of pitutary gland

71. The development of adult characteristic in a moulting insect is promoted by

1) Thyroxin 2) Ecdysone 3) Pheramone 4) Sex hormone

72. Damage of thymus gland in a child may lead to

1) A reduction in haemoglobin content of blood

2) A reduction in stem cell production

3) Loss of anti body- mediated immunity

4) Loss of cell mediated immunity

73. Heart beat increases at the time of interview because of the

1) Hypersecretion of rennin 2) Hyposecretion of rennin

3) Secretion of adrenaline 4) Secretion of insulin

74. Diabetes incipidus occurs due to the hyposecretion of

1) Thymosine 2) Oxytocin 3) Insulin 4) Vasopressin

75. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the sleep wake cycle is regulated by

the hormone

1) Calcitonin 2) Prolactin 3) Adrenaline 4) Melatonin

76. Steroid hormones are similar in structure to

1) Tyrosine 2) Cholestrol 3) Co enzyme-A 4) Glycerol

77. Exopthlmic goiter is also called

1) Addison’s disease 2) Diabetes incipidus 3) Graves disease 4) Acromegaly

78. The blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of

1) Thyroxine 2) Calcitonin 3) Parathormone 4) Both (1) and

(2)

79. Which one of the following is proteinaceous in chemical nature

1) Thyroxine 2) FSH 3) Progesterone 4) Oxytocin

80. Pregangloinic sympathetic fibres are

1) Synergic 2) Adrenergic 3) Hypergonic 4) Cholinergic

PHYSICS 81. If a body is charged by rubbing, its weight

1) Remains preceisly constant

2) Increase slightly

3) Decrease slightly

4) May increase slightly or may decrease slightly

82. There are two charges 1mc+ and 5mc+ . The ratio of forces acting on them will be

1) 1:5 2) 1:1 3) 5:1 4) 1:25

83. The path of a charged particle projected into a uniform transverse electric field is

1) Circle 2) Hyperbola 3) Parabola 4) Ellipse

84. The force ‘f’ experienced by a charge q placed in a electric field of strength ‘E’ is

given by

1) E

fq

= 2) q

fE

= 3) f qE= 4) f E q= −

85. A force ‘F’ is acting between two charges in air. If the space between them will be

completely filled within the medium having a dielectric constant 4k = , the force will

be

1) F 2) 4F 3) 4

F 4) 2F

86. In the region of space, the electric field is given by 8 4 3E i j k= + + , the electric flux

through a surface are 100 unit in XY plane is

1) 300 units 2) 800 units 3) 400 units 4) 1200 units

87. A charge of 5c is placed at the centre of a spherical gaussian surface of radius 5cm.

The electric flux through the surface is 0

1

time of

1) 20.1 N-m / c 2)

20.5 N-m / c 3) 21 N-m / c 4)

25 N-m / c

88. An - particle and a - particle are projected into the same electric field. The ratio

of forces on them is

1) 2:1 2) 1:2 3) 2:3 4) 3:2

89. Two point charges 4c+ and 6c+ repel each other with a force ‘F’. If a charge 5c− is

given to each of these charges, the force becomes

1) Repulsive force of 24

F 2) Attractive force of

24

F

3) Repulsive force of 24F 4) Attractive force of 24F

90. A copper rod AB of length l is rotated about an end A with a constant angular

velocity . Find electric field at a distance x from the axis of rotation

1) 2m x

e

2)

m x

el

3)

2

mx

l 4)

2

me

x

91. A point source of light is located 20cm in front of a convex mirror with 15f cm= .

Determine the position and nature of the image point

1) 8.6 cmv = , the image is located behind the mirror

2) 7.6 cmv = , the image is located back the mirror

3) 5.4 cmv = , the image is located behind the mirror

4) 8.6 cmv = , the image is located back the mirror

92. When white light enters a prison, its gets splits into its constituent colours. This is due

to

1) High density of prison material

2) Because it is different for different wave length

3) Diffraction of light

4) Interference of light

93. The image of an object formed on the retina of the eye is

1) Virtual and inverted 2) Virtual and erect

3) Real and erect 4) Real and inverted

94. Two plane mirrors are at 045 to each other. If an object is placed between them, then

the number of images will be

1) 5 2) 9 3) 7 4) 8

95. The angle of incidence on the surface of a diamond of refractive index 2.4, if the angle

between the reflected and refracted rays is 090 is

1) ( )1tan 2.4− 2) 1 1sin

2.4

−

3) 1 1tan

2.4

−

4) 1 1cos

2.4

−

96. Two thin lenses of powers 2D and 3D are placed in contact. An object is placed at a

distance of 30cm from the combination. The distance in cm of the image from the

combination is

1) 30 2) 40 3) 50 4) 60

97. A prison has a retracting angle of 060 when placed in the position of minimum

deviation, it produces a deviation of 030 . The angle of incidence is

1) 030 2)

045 3) 015 4)

060

98. A thin prism 1p of angle 04 and refractive index 1.54 is combined with another thin

prism 2P of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The angle

of 2P is

1) 04 2) 05.33 3)

02.6 4) 03

99. The far point of a nyopic eye is 10cm from the eye. The focal length of a lens for

reading at normal distance (25cm) is

1) 8.35cm− 2) 16.7cm− 3) 35.4cm− 4) 32.7cm−

100. Which of the following quantities can be measured using only a travelling

microscope?

1) R.I of glass slab

2) R.I of a prism

3) Refracting angle of prism

4) Refractive index of small drop of water

101. When two light waves meet at a place

1) Their displacements add up 2) Their intensities add up

3) Both will add up 4) Energy becomes zero

102. Which of the following is conserved when light waves interfere

1) Momentum 2) Amplitude 3) Energy 4) Intensity

103. Waves that cannot be polarized are

1) Longitudinal 2) Transverse 3) Electromagnetic 4) Light

104. The displacement of two interfering light waves are 1 24 sin wt y 3 cos wty = = . The

amplitude of the resultant wave is

1) 5 cm 2)7 cm 3) 1 cm 4) zero

105. First diffraction minima due to a single slit diffraction is at 030 = for a light of

wavelength 06000A . The width of slit is

1) 61 10 cm− 2)

61.2 10 m− 3) 62 10 cm− 4)

62.4 10 m−

106. The least resolvable angle by a telescope using objective of aperture 5m is nearly

( )04000A =

1) 0

1

50 2)

1

50 minute 3)

1

50 sec 4)

1

500 sec

107. A light ray is incident on a transparent medium of 1.732 = at the polarizing angle.

The angle of refraction is

1) 060 2)

030 3) 045 4)

090

108. Two coherent sources of different intensities send waves that interfere the ratio of

maximum to minimum intensity is 25. The intensity ratio of the sources is

1) 25:1 2) 5:1 3) 9:4 4) 625:1

109. Red shift is an illustration of

1) Low temperature emission 2) High frequency absorption

3) Doppler effect 4) Unknown phenomenon

110. Transverse wave nature is established by

1) Interference 2) Diffraction 3) Polarization 4) All the

above

111. The time period of an earth’s satellite in circular orbit is independent of

1) The mass of the satellite

2) Radius of its orbit

3) Both the mass and radius of the orbit

4) Neither the mass of the satellite nor the radius of its orbit

112. If the area swept by the line joining the sun and the earth from Feb 1 to Feb 7 is A,

then the area swept by the radius vector from Feb ‘8’ to Feb 28 is

1) A 2) 2A 3) 3A 4) 4A

113. A person will get more quantity of matter in kg-wt at

1) Poles 2) A latitude of 060 3) Equator 4) Satellite

114. The ratio of the escape velocity and the orbital velocity is

1) 2 2) 1

2 3) 2 4)

1

2

115. An artificial satellite of mass ‘m’ is revolving round the earth in a circle of radius R.

Then work done in one revolution is

1) mgR 2) 2

mgR 3) 2 R mg 4) zero

116. If ‘A’ is areal velocity of a planet of mass M, its angular momentum is

1) M

A 2) 2MA 3) 2A M 4) 2AM

117. If ‘g’ on the surface of the earth is 9.8 2/m s its value at a height of 6400 km is

( )6400R km=

1) 24.9 m/s 2)

29.8 m/s 3) 22.45 m/s 4)

219.6 m/s

118. Masses 2 kg and 8 kg are 18 cm apart. The print where the gravitational field due to

them is zero is

1) 6 cm from 8 kg mass 2) 6 cm from 2 kg mass

3) 1.8 cm from 8 kg mass 4) 9 cm from each mass

119. The escape velocity from the surface of the earth of radius R and density ' '

1) 2

23

GR

2)

22

3

G 3) 2

R

g 4)

2

2 G

R

120. A satellite moves around the earth in a circular orbit with speed ‘V’. If ‘m’ is mass of

the satellite then its total energy is

1) 21

2mv 2)

2mv 3) 21

2mv− 4)

23

2mv

CHEMISTRY

121. For a first order reaction at 027 C the ratio of time required for 75% completion to 25%

completion of reaction is

1) 3.0 2) 2.303 3) 4.8 4) 0.477

122. The rate constants of a first order reaction is 10.0693min−. What is the time required in

minutes for reducing an initial concentration of 120 mol.lit− to

12.5 mol.lit−

1) 40 2) 30 3) 20 4) 10

123. Observe the following reaction ( ) ( ) ( )3 2g g g

A B C+ → the rate of this reaction d A

dt

−

is 3 1 13 10 . .minmol lit− − − . What is the value of

d B

dtin

1 1. .minmol lit− −

1) 33 10− 2)

39 10− 3) 310− 4)

31.5 10−

124. Observe the following reaction 2A B C+ → the formation of ‘C’ is

3 1 12.2 10 . .minmol lit− − − . What is the value of ( )d A

dt− ( )1 1in mol.lit .min− −

1) 32.2 10− 2)

31.1 10− 3) 34.4 10− 4)

35.5 10−

125. For a chemical reaction ____________ can never be a fractional number

1) Order 2) Half life 3) Molecularity 4) Rate

constant

126. The rate constant of first order reaction at 027 C is

3 110 min− − the temperature

coefficient of this reaction is 2. What is the rate constant ( )1in min− at 017 C for this

reaction

1) 310− 2)

45 10− 3) 32 10− 4)

210−

127. If wM is the weight. Average molecular weight and

nM is number average molecular

weight of a polymer the Poly Dispersity Index (PDI) of the polymer is given by

1) n

w

M

M 2) w

n

M

M 3)

w nM M 4) 1

w nM M

128. Natural rubber is a polymer of

1) 1,3-butadiene 2) 2-methyl 1,3-butadiene

3) 2,3-dimethyl 1,3-butadiene 4) 1-butene

129. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer

1) Polythene 2) Bakelite 3) PHBV 4) PVC

130. The raw material used in Nylon -6 is

1) Adipic acid 2) Pthalic acid 3) Ethylene glycol 4) Capro

lactum

131. What happens when Benzene diazoniumchloride is boiled with water?

1) Benzene 2) Aniline 3) Phenol 4)

Chlorobenzene

132. Nitro benzene undergoes reduction with Zn/Alcoholic KOH to form a compound ‘A’

the number of sigma and pi bonds in ‘A’ respectively are

1) 17, 6 2) 27,6 3) 27, 8 4) 17, 8

133. In the series of reactions 2 20 0

2

/

6 5 2 20 5

NaNO HCl HNO

Cu OCC H NH X Y N HCl

−⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯→ + + , X and Y are

respectively

1) 6 5 6 5 6 5 2,C H H N C H C H N Cl+ −− = − 2) 2OH COOH CH OH− − −

3) 6 5 2 6 5 2,C H N Cl C H NO+ − 4) 6 5 2 6 6,C H NO C H

134. Which of the following is used to convert Nitro benzene to Azobenzene

1) 4LiAlH 2) /Zn NaOH 3) 4/Zn NH Cl 4) SnlHCl

135. The extent of physisorption of an Adsorbate increases with

1) Increase in temperature 2) Decrease in surface area of the

adsorbate

3) Decrease in pressure of adsorbate 4) Decrease in temperature

136. Which one of the following is an example of Auto catalysis

1) 3 22 2 3ASH AS H→ + 2) ( )

2 2 33 2Fe sN H NH+ ⎯⎯⎯→

3) ( ) ( ) ( )

2 2 32 2g g g

SO O SO+ → 4) AgCN

137. Which of the following is not correct

1) Milk is naturally occurring emulsion

2) Gold is Lyophilic solution

3) Physical adsorption decreases with rise in temperature

4) Chemical adsorption is not uni layered

138. Which of the following is correct

1) Catalyst undergoes permanent chemical change

2) Particle size of solute in true solution is 310 m−

3) Starch solution is Hydrosol

4) Hydrolysis of liquid ester in the presence of mineral acid is an example of hetegeneous

catalysis reactions

139. Which one of the following equation represents Freundlich adsorption isotherm

1) x

kpm= 2)

nxkp

m= 3) log nx

kpm= 4)

log logx

kn pm=

140. Which one of the following salts forms a micelle

1) Sodium Formate 2) Sodium acetate 3) Sodium stearate 4)Sodium

chloride

141. Which one of the following statement is true for the optical rotation exhibited by

(2R,3R) and (2S,3S) dibromo butene

1) The direction and magnitude are same

2) The direction is opposite but magnitude is different

3) The direction is same but magnitude different

4) Both the direction magnitude are different

142. Which of the following do not obey Huckelis rule for aromaticity

1) All the above 2) I, II 3) III, IV 4) I, IV

143. Which of the following compound(s) has Z-configuration

1) I only 2) II only 3) III only 4) I and III only

144. According to Cohn-Ingold-Prelog sequence rules the correct order of priority for the

given groups.

1) 2COOH CH OH OH CHO− − − − 2)

2COOH CHO CH OH OH− − − −

3) 2OH CH OH CHO COOH− − − − 4) 2OH COOH CH OH− − −

145. Identify ‘B’ in the following reaction

1) 4CH 2) 2 6C H 3) 2 5C H Cl 4) 2 5C H OH

146. The compound formed at anode in the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of

potassium acetate are

1) 2 6 2 and COC H 2) 2 4 2 and COC H 3) 4 2 and HCH 4)

4 2 and COCH

147. The chemicals and the reaction conditions required for the preparation of Ethane

1) 2 5 2 5, /C H I Zn Cu C H OH− 2) 3 2, ,CH Cl Na H O

3) , electrolysisKOOC CH CH COOK− = − 4) 3 2 , , ,CH CO Na NaOH CaO

148. Wet Ether is not used as a solvent in wurtz reaction, because the water present in it

1) Hydrolyses Rx to RH 2) Reduces Rx to RH

3) Destroy the Na metal 4) Reacts with R-R

149. Which one of the following gas is liberated when Ethyl Alcohol is heated with Methyl

magnesium iodide

1) Methane 2) Ethane 3) Propane 4) 2CO

150. Wurtz reaction of methyl iodide yields an organic compound ‘X’ which one of the

following reactions also yields ?

1) dry ether

2 5C H Cl mg+ ⎯⎯⎯→ 2) 2 5 4C H Cl LiAlH+ ⎯⎯→

3) 2 5 2 5C H Cl C H ONa+ ⎯⎯→ 4) Aq powder

3CHCl

⎯⎯⎯⎯→

151. In the following reaction ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are /

2 6 2 5

A Zn HClC H C H Cl B⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯→

1) 2 2 6/ light and CCl UV H 2) 3 2 4 and CPCl H

3) 2 6 and CHCl H 4) 2 2 2 and CCl H

152. In the following reaction X and Y are 2 6 22 7 combustionC H O x y heat+ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ + +

1) 2 5 22 ,6C H OH O 2) 24 ,5HCHO H O

3) 2 24 ,10CO H O 4) 2 24 ,6CO H O

153. What is the minimum quantity of methyl iodide required for preparing one mole of

Ethane by wurtz reaction (At wt of iodine = 127)

1) 142 grams 2) 568 grams 3) 326 grams 4) 289 grams

154. Cyanides and Isocyanides are isomers of the type

1) Position isomers 2) Tautomers 3) Functional group 4) None of

these

155. Dipole moments of Alkyl cyanides and alkyl isocyanides are related as

1) RCN RNC = 2) RCN RNC 3) RCN RNC 4)

Unpredictable

156. Halo Alkanes react with KCN to form Alkyl cyanides as main product. When it reacts

with AgCN the main product is

1) Alkyl Isocyanides 2) Alkyl cyanide 3) Alkane 4) Alkyl halide

157. Phenyl Isocyanides are prepared from which of the following reaction

1) Rosenmundis reaction 2) Carbyl amine reaction

3) Reimer – Tiemann reaction 4) Wurtz reaction

158. ( )2 2

xR CO NH R C N H O− − ⎯⎯→ − + . What is ‘x’ in the above reaction

1) ( )2 5 2PO or SOCl 2) 2 /NaNO HCl 3) Alcoholic KOH 4) Aq KOH

159. IUPAC name of 3CH NC

1) Methyl isocyanide 2) Methyl cyanide 3) Methyl carbyl amine 4) None of the

above

160. ( )

1

|

2/ mgBr

R

H H OEtherR C N R mgx R C N A+

− + − ⎯⎯⎯→ − = ⎯⎯⎯⎯→

. What is ‘A’ in the above

reaction

1) Alkyl halide 2) Aryl halide 3) Aldehyde 4) Ketone