safety final

8/18/2019 Safety Final

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6. Under OPA 90, who is responsible for mobilizing Oil Spill Removal Organization (OSRO), in the

event of spill of oil or Noxious liquid Substances?

A. Master

B. USCG

C. Qualified Individual

D. Technical Superintendent

7. As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a Crude oil tanker means a tanker designed to carry:

A. Crude oil and other dirty oils

B. Crude oil along with some refined products

C. Crude oil only

D. Crude oil, but alternatively may carry at times dirty and clean oil products also

8. Which of the following organs of IMO consists of all member states?

A. Council (executive organ of IMO, have 32 members elected by assembly)

B. Assembly (highest governing body, meets once in 2 yrs)C. Facilitation Committee (subsidiary body of the council)

D. None of the above

9. The maximum allowable weight of a portable fire extinguisher is ______________

A. 13.5 Kgs

B. 23 Kgs

C. 9 Kgs

D. 46 Kgs

10. Under which maritime instrument is a Certificate of Financial Responsibility (COFR) issued?

A. CLC 1992

B. Fund convention

C. LLMC

D. OPA 1990

11. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel

transfer operations on a MODU, which of the listed actions should be taken first?

A. Wait for the person-in-charge to act.

B. Notify the ballast control operator.

C. Shutdown the transfer operations

D. Sound the fire alarm.


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12. As per the definition of MARPOL, Annex-1, a combination carrier means a ship designed to carry:

A. Crude oil and refined oil products at the same time in different tanks

B. Refined oil products and chemical products at the same time in different tanks

C. A combination of different products at the same time, sometimes also known as a parcel

tankerD. Either oil or solid cargoes in bulk

13. As per Marpol requirements, Every crude oil tanker of ______________ tones deadweight

and above delivered after 1st June 1982, shall be fitted with a cargo tank cleaning system

using

_______________

A. 5000, Sea Water Washing

B. 10000, Fresh Water Washing

C. 20000, Crude Oil Washing

D. 30000, Bilge Water Washing

14. As per requirements of Marpol Annex -1, all ships of 400 gross tonnage and above:

A. Can carry fuel oil in fore peak, aft peak tanks and deep tanks

B. Cannot carry fuel oil in fore peak tank

C. Can carry fuel oil forward of collision bulkhead or aft of machinery space forward bulkhead,

but not in the cargo area in case of tankers

D. Cannot carry more than 600 m3 of oil fuel in any single fuel tank

15. Which of the following is a man overboard maneuver?

A. Neil Robertson turn

B. Williamson turn.

C. Hard port

D. Hard starboard.

16. The parent instrument of IMO is:

A. UNCLOS I, 1958

B. UNCLOS II, 1960

C. UNCLOS III, 1974

D. The IMO convention

17. After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, they should be

A. walked around until he is back to normal

B. given several shots of whiskey

C. kept lying down and warm

D. allowed to do as he wishes


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17. Dumping of wastes at sea is controlled by which of the following IMO conventions?

A. Marpol 73/78

B. London convention

C. Hongkong convention

D. Kenya convention

18. The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is

A. pitching

B. rolling

C. heaving

D. swaying

19. To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system,

you should FIRST

A. open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump

B. start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves

C. open block valves, then start the cargo pump

D. open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump

19. The horizontal port, or starboard movement of a vessel is called

A. yaw

B. sway

C. surge

D. heave

20.Prior to entering a cargo pump room, you should ensure that

A. the forced ventilating system is operating

B. the cargo pumps are secured

C. no mono carbon gases are present

D. the oily water separator is de-energized

21. Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the MARPOL convention?

A. IOPP certificate

B. Oil Record Book

C. SOPEP

D. Safety Management Certificate.


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22. When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the metacenter is called the

A. metacentric differential

B. height of the baseline

C. height of the metacenter

D. righting arm

23. Voyage data recorders (VDR) or simplified voyage data recorders (S-VDR) are required

to be installed on board certain ships as per_____________

A. ISPS code

B. ISM code

C. Chapter V of Solas


24. Which of the following is not found inside a lifeboat?

A. Sea anchor

B. Fishing tackle

C. Drinking water cans

D. Life Jacket

25. As per STCW code, the abilities specified under standards of competence are grouped under

_______ functions, for the purpose of issuing certificates of competency.

A. Seven

B. Four

C. SixD. Three

26. Under which IMO convention is Voyage Data Recorder- Certificate of compliance issued?

A. COLREG 1972

B. SAR 1979

C. SOLAS 1974

D. SALVAGE 1989

27. As required by Reg.31 of Annex 1 of Marpol the ODMCS should be provided with a

recording device for ____________ recording the discharge in litres per nautical mileand total quantity discharged. This discharge should be kept onboard at least for a

period of:

A. Intermittent, 1 year

B. Continuous, 1 year

C. Intermittent, 3 years

D. Continuous, 3 years


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28. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done

A. without losing the rhythm of respiration

B. only with the help of two other people

C. by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes

D. at ten minute intervals

29. As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a product tanker is one which can carry:

A. Oils and chemicals

B. Oils other than crude oils

C. Oil product and occasionally crude oils

D. Mainly chemical products but at times refined oil products

30. Which of the following statements is false?

A. A ship security plan is made by the CSO

B. A ship security plan is a confidential document.

C. A ship security plan needs to be approved by the flag state administration


31. In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are

A. thirsty

B. sick or injured

C. wet

D. awake

32. Which of the following conditions can lead to degradation of foam compounds?

A. Exposure to excessive heat.

B. Mixing of different grades of foam.

C. Exposure to air.

D. None of the above.

33. In which of the following conditions, the IG blower fans should shut down automatically?

A. Oxygen content above 8%

B. Low water level in deck seal

C. Low water level in the scrubber tower

D. High scrubber water level


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34. As regulation 12 of Annex 1 of MARPOL, all ships of __________ gross tonnage and above shall

be provided with a sludge tank for collection of oil residues

A. 150 tonnes deadweight

B. 150 gross tonnage

C. 400 tonnes deadweightD. 400 gross tonnage

35. Life buoy self-activating smoke signals should emit smoke of visible colour for at least

______________ in calm waters.

A. 5 minutes

B. 15 minutes

C. 30 minutes

D. 60 minutes

36. Emergency generators should be capable of being started at ambient temperature of ______________________ deg Centigrade. If lower temperatures are expected then

___________________should be provided.

A. zero, cold starting spray

B. -5, heating arrangements

C. Zero, heating arrangements

D. -5,cold starting spray

37. Divisions constructed of steel which can withstand a standard fire test for 30min without

passage of flame or smoke are classified as____________________

A. B class divisions

B. A class divisions

C. A30 class divisions

D. B 30 class divisions

38. When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should

be depressed about

A. 1/2 inch or less

B. 1/2 to 1 inch

C. 1 to 1 1/2 inches

D. 1 1/2 to 2 inches

39. As per requirements of Marpol, Annex 1, all ships delivered on or after 1st Aug. 2010 with

an aggregate oil fuel capacity 600 m3 and above, the oil fuel can be carried in:

A. Any of the tanks without any restriction


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B. Deep tanks and Double bottom tanks

C. Deep tanks in protective locations

D. Double bottom tanks not extending upto the ship???s side

40. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The installation of an IMO approved incinerator is mandatory on all ships.

B. The installation of an incinerator is mandatory on all ships above 400 GRT.

C. The installation of an incinerator is not a mandatory requirement(single ans)

D. The installation of incinerators is mandatory only for dry ships

41. The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to __________.

A. allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life

B. prevent outside air from entering the tank

C. provide increase in cargo discharge pressure

D. comply with double hull pollution prevention regulations

42. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when ________

a. you first start to receive fuel

b. hoses are being blown down

c. final topping off is occurring

d. hoses are being disconnected

43. An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to __________.

a. aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks

b. increase the rate of discharge of cargo

c. force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to the outside atmosphere

d. lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible

44. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the

surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?

a. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.

b. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.

c. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the

container.d. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.

45. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.

a. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the

LFL (LowerFlammable Limit)


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b. capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is above the

UFL (UpperFlammable Limit)

c. capable of supporting a fire once started

d. not safe for ballasting

46. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.

a. shape

b. shallow draft

c. large sail area

d. All of the above

47. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a

cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?

a. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank.

b. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.c. Enter the tank with an oxygen analyzer.

d. Use an explosimeter

48. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________.

a. secure the engine room ventilation

b. secure the machinery in the engine room

c. evacuate all engine room personnel

d. All of the above

49. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should securethe power, then__________.

a. use a portable foam extinguisher

b. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose

c. use a portable CO2 extinguisher

d. determine the cause of the fire

50. The minimum concentration of a vapour in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the

__________.

a. auto-ignition point

b. flash point

c. lower explosive limit (LEL)

d. threshold limit value (TLV)

51. The deck water seal of the inert gas system __________.


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a. cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering the cargo tanks

b. acts as an emergency system shutdown when the inlet pressures exceed the safe working

pressure inthe hazardous zone

c. prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into nonhazardous areas

d. relieves sudden large overpressures in the system

52. The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __________.

a. 0% to 1%

b. 1% to 10%

c. 10% to 15%

d. 12% to 20%

53. Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will stop __________.

a. oil from flowing out of the tank vent

b. air from entering the tank ventc. vapors from leaving the tank vent

d. flames on deck from entering the tank vent

SECTION - 2

1. Personnel who are moving or handling material aboard ship should NOT follow which of the

listed practices?

A. Signaling that all personnel are clear before lifting or lowering material.

B. Examining material for sharp edges or protruding points before handling.

C. Closing, tagging, or securing valves that permit entrance of steam, water, or air into a fitting

or other equipment.

D. Throwing materials from high places to the deck

2. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Ballast water exchange at mid ocean eliminates completely the risks associated with

introduction of non-native organisms and pathogens in alien habitats.

B. In the flow through method, the water pumped through a tank should be at least 3 times

the tank volume.C. Over pressurization of a tank cannot take place during the flow through method.

D. Air pipes on ballast tanks are designed for continuous overflow.

3. The most common cause of engine room fires is:

A. Spontaneous combustion of oily rags

B. Back fire of boilers


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C. Ignition sources coming in contact with stored fuel/lube

D. Oil leakage coming in contact with hot exposed surfaces

4. A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a marine chemist as being "Safe for Men" and

"Safe for fire". This condition may change if:

A. the ambient temperature changes

B. a product leaks into the certified tank

C. muck, sludge, or scale in the tank give off additional vapors

D. all of the above

5. As per MARPOL annex-1, the ???instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content??? means:

A. The rate of discharge of oil-water mixture in litres per hour at any instant divided by the

speed of the ship in knots at the same instant

B. The rate of discharge of oil in litres per hour at any instant divided by the speed of the ship

in knots at the same instant

C. The average rate of discharge of oil-water mixture in litres per hour divided by the average

speed of the ship in knots

D. The average rate of discharge of oil mixture in litres per hour divided by the average speed

of the ship in knots

6. Which of the following statements about LRIT is False?

A. Regulation on LRIT is included in Chapter V of SOLAS

B. LRIT has longer range than AIS

C. LRIT, like AIS, is a broadcast system that transmits information about ship's identity,

location date and time of position to all in range

D. LRIT and AIS should not have any interface

7. Pyrophoric ignition may occur_____________

A. On introduction of air in tanks deficient in oxygen.

B. In oxygen rich atmospheres.

C. In nitrogen rich atmospheres.

D. Only when an ignition source is introduced

8. Which of the following conditions need NOT be satisfied while discharging oil or oil mixtures


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from ships into the sea?

A. The ship must be proceeding en route

B. The ship must be at a distance of 12 nautical miles from the nearest land

C. The oily mixture is processed through an oil filtering equipment as per Reg. 14 of Annex-1

D. The oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed 15 ppm9.

As per MARPOL annex ???I requirements:

A. Only crudes and petrochemical products come within the definition of Oil

B. All items mentioned in Appendix 1 of annex 1 come under the category of oil

C. Only crude oil and black oils have restrictions on pumping out, the remaining products can

be pumped out at sea in limited quantities

D. Anything having viscosity greater than that of water is considered to be oil

10. As per Indian Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, which of the following entries should be made

in official log book of ships?

A. Every case of illness, hurt or injury to a member of the crew

B. Every case of death on board

C. Every birth happening on board

D. All of the above

11. Which of the following instruments set out carrier's obligations and liabilities with respect

to carriage of goods?

A. Hague Rules

B. Hamburg Rules

C. Hague- Visby rules

D. All of the above

12. Where would you find a list of the lifesaving equipment onboard your supply boat?

A. Ship's articles

B. Station bill

C. Certificate of Inspection

D. U. S. Coast Guard Regulations

13. Which of the following statements is false?

A. Purging is an essential operation to carry out before gas freeing is done prior to man entry.

B. Purging makes sure that the mixture in a cargo tank never enters the flammable range,

when air is introduced.

C. Purging can be carried out by both displacement and dilution methods.


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14. When administering artificial respiration, it is of the utmost importance to

A. use the mouth-to-mouth method

B. clear airways

C. use rhythmic pressure method


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e. know all approved methods

14. When two people are administering CPR to a victim, how many times per minute should the

chest be compressed? (accrding to uscg 127 ans is 60)

A. 15

B. 30

C. 45

D. 80

15. Which of the following codes has been issued under both SOLAS and MARPOL conventions?

A. STCW code

B. IMDG code

C. IGC code

D. ISM code

16. Dispatch means

A. A.owner to charter after

B. owner to charter before

C. C.Charter to owner after

D. Charter to owner before

17..convention not yet forced

A. .BWM

B. ……………..

C. ………….

D. ……………..

18.How many annex in MARPOL including newly added

A. 6

B. 8

C. 7

19.Who provide charter to ship

A. .Agent

B. .Broker

C. .Chandler

D. .None

20.Sewage (disinfected )and communited sewage can be discharged from how many Miles

A. 3 NM from land provided if enroute


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21. Helicopter convention

a. A.MARPOL

b. B.Indian aviation

c. C.SOLAS

22. Certificate of insurance on financial during bunkering oil spill damage comes under

A. A.CLC 1969 convention

B. B.Marpol convention

C. C.Bunker convention

D. D.CLC 1992

23. According to Indian merchant ship act 1958, registrar of ports of Mumbai,Chennai,kolkatta

A. A.DG shipping

B. B.MMD

C. C.Principle officer respective MMD

D. D.surveyer

24. International shore connection under which convention

A. A.ISPS

B. B.ISM

C. C.LLA

D. solas

25.What is the minimum percentage of oxygen required before making an entry into an enclosedspace?

A. 20%

B. 18%

C. 11%

D. 21%

26.Selective catalytic reduction is a secondary method for reduction of which of the following

emissions?

A. SOX

B. NOX

C. Carbon oxides

D. All of the above

27. Air is removed from refrigration sytem by (1)________ at reciver after (2)________(3)________

Gas in receiver. Humidificaton is process of adding water/moiture to discharged airof AC blower.


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Dehumidification is process of removing water/moisture from air supplied from AC system. For

collecting gas in receiver you need to close the outlet valve of receiver with compressor running

1. PURGING 2. COLLECTING 3. CONDENSATING

28. One of the important precautions against cold injuries and frost bite would be:

A. Wear several layers of light clothing rather than one heavy layer of clothing

B. Wear tight fitting gloves

C. Rub numb areas of body to warm them up

D. Work while facing the wind

29. Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire?

A. Ship's articles

B. Station bill

C. Certificate of Inspection

D. U.S. Coast Guard Regulations

30. Ship Security Alert System is a requirement under __________________

A. Part B of ISPS Code

B. SOLAS Chapter XI-2

C. SUA convention, 1988


31. When administering only mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, you should continue the

victim's ventilation rate at how many inflations per minute?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 12

D. 20

32. Freight paid by charterers on a quantity of cargo short-shipped, i.e quantity agreed upon but

not loaded by the charterer, is called:

A. Pro-rata freight

B. Back Freight

C. Dead freight


33. Which of the following extinguishing medium should never be used when fighting fire

involving magnesium?

a. Halon


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b. Dry Chemical powder

c. Water

d. CO2

34. Under which Convention is Oil Pollution Insurance Certificate (OPIC) a statutory oil pollution

insurance cover requirement?

A. CLCB. LLMC

C. Fund convention

D. Athens Convention

35. In refrigeration system vegetable room and meat rooms are maintained at different

A. Different expansion valves

B. By putting solenoid valves

C. By boiling the refrigerant at different pressures

D. By using smaller evaporator

36. The working duration of a 1200 litres SCBA bottle, after allowing for a reserve of 10 mins

is____________________ (if 1800litres =40mins)

A. 30 mins

B. 40 mins

C. 20 mins

D. 50 mins

37. Principle of fire fighting onboard is

A. * watering of fire

B. * starving of fire

C. * cooling

D. * smothering of fire

38. The number within bracket of a resolution, say A.526 (13) refers to ____.

a. The serial No. of the resolution.

b. The session No. in which the resolution was adopted.

c. The sub paragraph of the resolution.

d. The No. of clauses in the resolution (526 resolution or serial no. , 13 session, A assembly)

39. Certificate of insurance or other financial security in respect of civil liability for bunker oil

pollution damage is issued under what?

A. CLC 1969.

B. MARPOL convention.

C. Bunker convention 2001.


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D. CLC 1992

40. Cyclic Up & Down Movement of Vessel Along the VERTICAL AXIS…

a. Heaving,

b. yawing,

c. Swaying,

d. pitching

41. The stretcher normally used for rescue of casualties from engine room spaces, holds, pump-

rooms etc., is known as _____________________

A. Williamson stretcher

B. Neil Hobson stretcher

C. Neil Robertson stretcher

D. Stokes stretcher

42. Rolling is the angular motion of the vessel about what axis?

A. LongitudinalB. Transverse

C. Vertical

D. Centerline

43. When entering a compartment which is on fire,

A. you must wear rubber gloves

B. the flames should be beaten back from the door with water fog

C. a straight stream of water should be used to cool the door

D. a straight stream of water should be used to cool the fire fighters

44. When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity,

the metacentric height is equal to

A. height of the metacenter

B. height of the center of gravity

C. same as half the height of the metacenter

D. zero

45. The emergency generator should be capable of being started and be able to supply required

load within a maximum of ________________

A. 30 seconds

B. 1 min

C. 45 seconds


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D. 2 mins

46. Which of the following kinds of total flooding system is most suited for very large spaces like

car carrier car decks?

A. High pressure multi cylinder type CO2 installation

B. Low pressure bulk storage tank type CO2 installation

C. Low expansion foam systems

D. Fixed pressure water spraying systems

47. You are the 4th engineer of a ship. Your 3rd engineer handover the watch to you and informs

you that the OWS is running with the ppm showing as zero. After taking over the watch and

during your rounds you find out that the rinsing fresh water to 15 ppm device was crack open.

After closing the same you find that the ppm rose to 15 and the OWS stopped after giving

alarm. What should you do?

A. Nothing, as Marpol regulations are satisfied till the oily water is being pumped through OWSand oil content is below 15 ppm

B. Should suspend the operation immediately, inform the Chief engineer about the same and

take appropriate action to restore correct OWS operation

C. Should never touch OWS and any stoppages to be informed either to Chief Engineer or 2nd

engineer

D. If no visible traces of oil are seen on the sea surface and oily water mixture is being pumped

through an OWS, then there is no harm in pumping out with fresh water crack open, to keep

the OWS running as it may give false alarm without Fresh water. This is a practical approach

to run OWS without any trouble without violating Marpol regulations

48. All entries in the Oil record Book part-I are to be:

At least in English, Spanish or national language

At least in English, Spanish or French

At least in English or Spanish

At least in English or national language

49. Plasma reduction system is a secondary method of reduction of which of the following kinds of

emissions?

A. SOX

B. Greenhouse gases

C. NOX

D. All of the above


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50. Back flow towards machinery spaces of cargo vapours in an Inert gas system is

prevented by_____________________

A. Pressure vacuum breaker

B. High velocity vents

C. Deck water sealD. Pressure vacuum valves

51. Which of the following is not a requirement under MARPOL Annex VI, for new engines?

A. All engines above 130 KW to be tested and issued with EIAPP certificate and Nox Technical

file.

B. Life boat engines and emergency diesel engines to be also tested and issued with EIAPP

certificate and Nox Technical File

C. Periodical verification of EIAPP certificate is mandatory even when there has been no

modification in the engine

D. Engines installed prior to the Nox technical code being applicable will not be subject to

certification and testing unless they undergo major conversion

52. An oil record book Part-I shall be retained onboard for a period of:

A. 1 year since the last entry has been made

B. 1 year since the first entry has been made

C. 3 years since the first entry has been made

D. 3 years since the last entry has been made

53. The life boat engine should be capable of starting at _______________________

A. -15 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 2 mins

B. -5 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 5 mins

C. -5 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 2 mins

D. 0 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 2 mins

54. A straight stream of water should be used to extinguish

A. galley grease fires

B. fuel oil fires

C. burning bedding materials

D. a fire in the paint locker

55. The maximum capacity of an Oil fuel tank for any ship built on or after 1st Aug. 2010 as

restricted by Marpol, Annex 1 is: (minimum capacity 600m3)

A. 600 m3

B. 1200 m3


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C. 2500 m3

D. 3000 m3

56. Each fire pump on a MODU must have a pressure gage located

A. at the pump discharge

B. at the manifold connection

C. at each fire station discharge

D. at the pump station

57. Which of the devices listed must be used in conjunction with the portable in-line

foam proportioner to produce foam?

A. A plain or common fire hose nozzle

B. The mechanical foam nozzle

C. Any low velocity applicator

D. An all-purpose nozzle

58. As per the Indian Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, which of the following statements

about ownership of Indian Flag ships is False?

A. A company or body established by or under any Central or State Act, which has its principal

business in India, may be registered as owner by its name

B. Joint owners shall be considered as constituting one person

C. A person can be registered as owner of a fractional part of a share in a ship, the number of

shares being ten

D. Not more than the names of Ten individuals shall be entitled to registered at the same time as

joint owners of any one ship

59. The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated

A. before you enter the water

B. after you enter the water

C. after one hour in the water

D. after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy

SECTION -3

1. Following should not be done to a person in frostbite.

a. Rubbing effected area.

b. Ask him to rest.

c. Remove wet cloths

d. Give him something warm to drink.


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2. Procedure to obtain radio medical advice can be found in _____.

a. First aid box.

b. Code of safe working procedure.

c. Safety management manual.

d. The ship captain medical guide.

3. EEDI is the Technical measure adopted by IMO to reduce ___.

a. Greenhouse gas.

b. SOx

c. NOx

d. None of the above

4. What Agreement of hire called, in which the owner agreed to transport an agreed volume of

cargo over a specific period. The charter designates cargoes and loading date but owner

nominate suitable vessel which are not normally named in agreement.

a. Time charter.

b. Voyage charter.

c. Bare boat charter.

d. Contract of frightment.

5. When performing CPR, we must do chest compression_____.

a. 12 to 15 times/min.

b. 16 to 18 times/min.

c. 2 to 5 times/min.d. 18 to 19 times/min.

6. Movement of ship about an imaginary line joining aft and fore perpendicular is?

a. Pitching

b. Heaving

c. Sway

d. roll

7. Which of the following anti fouling paint is an accepted alternative to now banned TBT based

paint.

a. DOT based anti fouling paint.

b. Arsenic based anti fouling paint.

c. Mercury based anti fouling paint.

d. Copper based anti fouling paint.


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8. Oil or oily mixture discharge into the sea from E/R of ships of 10,000 GRT & above, in special

areas is _______.

a. Not allowed.

b. Allowed, provided ship is proceeding en route & discharge through oil filtering

equipment with oil content less than 15ppm except in Atlantic Ocean.c. Allowed, provided ship is proceeding en route & discharge through oil filtering

equipment with oil content less than 5ppm except in Atlantic Ocean.

d. Allowed but outside 12Nm from the Nearest Land.

9. Which of the following Convention is also known as Minimum Standard Convention?

a. Maritime Labor Convention.

b. ILO convention no. 147.

c. STCW Convention 1978.

d. STCW Convention 1995.

10. ORB has to be regularly updated without delay and each completed page has to be _____.

a. Signed by officer in charge and chief engineer.

b. Signed by officer in charge and Master.

c. Signed by chief engineer and master.

d. Signed by chief officer and chief engineer.

11. Number of maximum sprinkler head in a section should be _____.(minimum = 150)

a. 200

b. 150c. 100

d. 250

12. Each section on a sprinkler system should not contain more than _____sprinkler heads.

a. 200

b. 150

c. 100

d. 250

24. First rain water collected over canopy rain water harvesting arrangement has to be ____.

a. Rationed to each member.

b. Given to sick and injured.

c. Thrown overboard.

d. Given to any one member.


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25. In which of the following condition FD fan of Inert gas generator will be tripped?

a. Low sea water level in Deck water seal

b. Low sea water level in scrubber tower

(and two more options... there)

26. Under following,which is not mandatory

A. LSA

B. FSS

C. BLU

D. FTP

27. sewage air compressor, frequency of starting

A. A.every 18 hrs

B. B.Every 24 hrs

C. C.Continously

D. D.Once in two weeks

28. the resourse zone, not a security zone is

A. A.Inland water

B. B.terristrial water

C. C.Contigeous areas

D. D.Continental self

29. Demurrage means

A. A.Charter to owner before time expired

B. Charter to owner after time expired

C. C.owner to charter before time expired

D. owner to charter after time expired

30. What is to be checked 1st when entering into dry dock?

A. engine room crane

B. engine room lift

C. gantry crane

D. all of the above.

31. Intact capacity of foam min capacity.

A. 5lt.

B. 9lt.

C. 20lt.


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D. none

32. Intact stability book is provided by...:

A. a.. SOLAS

B. b.. MARPOL

C. c..Load Line Convention

D. d.. Load line Protocol

33. Shipboard incineration of which of the following substances is allowed?

A. Poly chlorinated Biphenyls(PCB s)

B. Refined petroleum products containing halogen residues

C. Sewage sludge

D. Cargo residues(of Annex I, II and III of MARPOL convention)

34. Compliance with which of the following ILO conventions is checked during Port StateControl Inspections?

A. ILO convention no.134-Prevention of accidents convention

B. ILO convention no.147- Minimum Standards Convention

C. ILO convention no.178 -Labor inspection convention

D. All of the above

35. A coastal can take necessary action on the high seas to mitigate, prevent or

eliminate danger of OIL pollution to its coastline following a maritime casualty.

Which IMO instrument guarantees this right to the coastal state?

A. UNCLOS

B. MARPOL 73/78

C. INTERVENTION 1969

D. London Convention

36. Probably the largest amount of information covering the various aspects of oil spill response

in one place on the net. Which of the following codes is mandatory for chemical tankers

constructed on or after 1July 1986? ( before July 1986 for BCH code)

A. IGC code

B. BCH code

C. IBC code

D. IMDG code

37. A clean ballast tank is one which:(if SBT option A)


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a. Is not allowed to carry any oil cargo and solely to be used for the purpose of carriage of

ballast water

b. Is used for the carriage of oil cargo, but has to be cleaned thoroughly prior carriage of

ballast water during ballast voyage

c. Is allowed to carry some white and clean oil cargoes and has to be cleaned up

thoroughly

for the carriage of ballast water

d. Is a tank which was previously being used for the carriage of oil cargo, but was

converted to a ballast tank during last dry-docking, but still has a common pumping

system

for remaining cargo tanks and the converted clean ballast tank

38. A representative sample of fuel oil delivered on board during bunkering is to be retained

on board ________________________

A. For a period of 6 months

B. Till the time the oil is substantially consumedC. For a period of 12 months

D. Till the time the oil is substantially consumed but not less than 12 months

39. The validity of which of the following certificates is not 5 years?

A. Safety equipment certificate

B. Load line certificate

C. Tonnage certificate

D. Safety radio telegraphy certificate

40. U r fighting with fire with jet hose and multiple fire where wil u first impinge water

a) Direct jet on mid of fire

b) Direct hog jet on mid of fire

c) Top of fire to absorb some heat

d) Bottom of bulkhead

41) Primary Element Of Isps Part A Mandatory Section Comes Under –

A. -SOLAS XI,

B. -MARPOL,

C. -SUA CONVENTION 1988..

42. anti – static additives in petroleum products.

A. Increase conductivity

B. Reduce conductivity


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C. Increase accumulation of charge

D. Reduce friction drag

(this r added to increase conductivity and to create less resistance transfer accumulated

charges)

43. what declare under SOLAS convention

A. CRB

B. ORB

C. Procedure and arrangement manual

D. Bulk carrier booklet

44.what coastal zone can extend beyond 200nm from baseline.

A. Exclusive economic zone

B. Continuers’ zone

C. Fisher zone

D. Continental zone

45. DPA requires under

A. STCW code

B. ISPC

C. MARPOL73/78

D. ISM code

46. latest annex VI incorporate the marpol convention

A. Annex 6B. Annex 7

C. Annex 8

D. Annex 9

47. minimum no of life bouys of cargo ship of 200m and more.

A. 12

B. 14

C. 18

D. 24

48. EEBD service time

A. 15

B. 10

C. 20

D. 30


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57. parent instrument for the mandatory ISM code

A. SOLAS CH-IV

B. SOLAS & MARPOL

C. SOLAS CH-XID. UNCLDS

58. A state party to treaty or convention after the convention been recognized and signed by other

parties and enter into force this action is called.

A. Ratification

B. Acceptance

C. Approval

D. Accusation

59. in special areas any discharge of oil and oil mixtures from machinery spaces

A. Prohibited

B. Enroute and min 12NM

C. En route and min 50NM

D. En route with oil filtering equipment

60. standard discharge connection flange as per MARPOL ANNEX I Regulation( od-pcd-th)

A. 200,185,15

B. 215,183,20

C. 205,185,50

D. 200,183,20

DG. SHIPPING SECTION - 4

1. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is

accomplished by ______________.

a. authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only

b. replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling it with pyrotechnic powder

c. puncturing the cartridge seal after installation

d. recharging the cartridge and then refilling it with powder

2. A load line for a ship is assigned by the ______________.

a. Port health inspector


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b. Assessors and Arbitrators

c. Institute of Marine Engineers

d. A recognized classification society approved by the Administration.

e. Company of Master Mariners.

3. In the event of a galley fire on board a general cargo ship, most dry chemical or carbon dioxideportable extinguishers are automatically activated through the action of a stainless steel cable,

spring and a ____________.

(a) fusible link of tritium, gallium arsenide alloy

(b) stack switch with sensors

(c) thermostat of bimetallic type

(d) pyrostat with activation of pyrotechnics

(e) none of the above

4. The stability of a vessel is normally the greatest when all fuel and water tanks are full because

the _____________.

(A) center of gravity is lowered

(B) center of buoyancy is lowered

(C) reserve buoyancy is unchanged

(D) hull freeboard is increased

5. To operate a portable foam fire extinguisher, you should _____________.

(a) puncture the CO2 cartridge

(b) open the handwheel

(c) pull the pin and squeeze the trigger

(d) turn it upside down and bump the deck

6. If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it _____________.

(a) is not higher than 30cm above the deck

(b) does not block access to the fire station hydrant

(c) will cover no more than 25 % of deck space

(d) will be easily visible from the bridge

(e) is sufficient to enable the cadet to stroll through

(f) gives a clear view to the bridge for navigation

7. Which of the listed systems related to an engineer's signal alarm panel is required to be

indicated by a continuously illuminated light?

(a) Deaerating tank low level

(b) Shaft alley bilge high level

(c) Port or starboard steering gear motor running

(d) No. 1 diesel generator low lube oil pressure


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8. Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?

(a) Halon 1211

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Foam

(d) Dry chemical

9. Bunker "C", a grade "E" combustible liquid, will _______.

(A) give off flammable vapors below 800F (26.70C)

(B) have a Reid vapor pressure of 14 psi (96.5 kPa) or more

(C) self-ignite at temperatures below 150˚F (65.50C)

(D) have a flash point of 150̊̊ F (65.5C̊) or more

10. Which of the following statements describes the advantage of using a Halon fire extinguisher

versus a CO2 fire extinguisher?

(A) Halon cools rather than smothers a fire.

(B) Halon is more effective than CO2.

(C) Halon can extinguish combustible metal fires.

(D) Halon is not toxic and safe to breathe under all conditions.

11. You may improve a vessel's stability by ___________.

(A) keeping the fuel tanks topped off

(B) increasing the free surface effect

(C) keeping the fuel tanks at least half full(D) keeping at least one fuel tank empty for slops

12. In order to find out which lifeboat you are assigned, you should look at the _____________.

(A) Certificate of Inspection

(B) Muster stations Chart

(C) Ship's Articles

(D)Fire Control Plan

13. Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301?

(A) The agent is extremely toxic in any concentration.

(B) The agent leaves no residue.

(C) The agent extinguishes a fire by smothering.


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(D) All of the above.

14. What is the usual effect of moving weight from the main deck to a position lower in the

vessel?

(A) The stability of the vessel is increased.

(B) The trim of the vessel is changed substantially.

(C) The stability of the vessel is significantly decreased.

(D) The vessel will list in proportion to the volume of the cargo shifted.

15. The inclining experiment conducted on a merchant ship is the method for determining the

exact location of the __________.

(A) ship's displacement in seawater

(B) position of the ship's center of gravity

(C) position of the ship's center of buoyancy

(D) position of the ship's metacenter

16. Vessel stability can be adversely affected by ___________.

A. increasing the free surface effect

B. decreasing the free surface effect

C. ballasting down by the bow

D. ballasting down by the stern

17. While wearing a demand-type self-contained breathing apparatus the alarm bell begins

ringing. Which of the following conditions does this indicate?

A.There is a 4-5 minute supply of air remaining in the air cylinder.

B. There is approximately 500 psi (3.5 MPa) of pressure left in the air cylinder.

C. The wearer should immediately leave the contaminated area.

D.All of the above.

18. You are replacing a section of heavy piping on deck and using a chain fall to lift the pipe.

Which of the following precautions should be taken to prevent personal injury?

A. Position several men under the pipe so they can catch it if it falls.

B. Attach lines to the ends of the pipe and have your helpers steady the load.

C. Place an old mattress under the hoist to prevent the load from hitting the deck.D. Have a first aid kit at the job site.

19. With regards to the load line marks, the reason for the placement of mark "WNA" is

______________.

A. more severe weather is expected in the North Atlantic in winter

B. more freeboard is required in the North Atlantic in winter


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C. less draft is allowed in the North Atlantic in winter

D. all of the above

20. Many uninspected vessels require load lines to indicate the maximum ______________.

A.reserve buoyancy under any condition

B. amidship's draft to which a vessel can be lawfully submerged

C. angle of reduced freeboard for subdivision calculations

D.freeboard for the light ship displacement

21. The safe and efficient use of the face piece of a demand-type self-contained breathing

apparatus is directly influenced by ____________.

A. the donning of the facepiece

B. the stowing of the facepiece

C. the maintenance of the facepiece

D. all of the above

22. immediately after abandon ship vessel, look out in life raft for

A. Survivors in water

B. Food and water

C. Land

D. none

23. What is placed on the underside of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded

by the wind or overturned?

A. A.Ballast bags

B. B.A keel

C. C.Strikes

D. D.Sea anchor

24. Highest body of IMO…

A. Council,

B. Assembly,

C. Safety Committee

D. Pollution prevention committee

25. Executive Body Of IMO…

A. Council,

B. Assembly,

C. Safety Committee

D. Pollution prevention committee


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NEW SECTION - 1

1. In the event of a collision, watertight integrity may be lost if _____________.

(A) the sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing

(B) the dogs on a manhole cover are secure

(C) you have recently replaced a gasket in a watertight door

(D) you operate the dewatering system from a flooded compartment

2.The hand break of a life boat which is ___________ ?

A.Manually disengaged when hoisting a boat

B. applied by dropping the counterweighted lever

C.controlled by the centrifugal brake mechanism

D.automatically engaged if lowering speed is excessive

3. During loading and discharging operation in addition o when the cargo tanks have been properly

filled each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of________.

a. 50 millimeters of water pressure

b. 25 millimeters of water pressure

c. 100 millimeters of water pressure

d. 5 millimeters of water pressure

4. The physical data term on a material safety data sheet (MSDS) ‘hat indicates if the vapour formed

by the material is lighter or heavier than air is called _______

A. Vapour pressure

B. Vapour gravity

C. Vapour level

D. Vapour density

Which of the following certificates issued to a ship does not have predetermined validity for

limited period?

A. International Load Line Certificate


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2. Jurisdiction over ships in high seas lies with

a. nearest coastal state

b. port state of last port

c. port state of next port

d. flag state

Every U.S crude oil tanker with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be equipped with an inert

gas system if the tonnage is more than

1.100,000 DWT (Long tons)

2. 100,000 DWT (metric tons)

3.50,000 DWT (Long tons)

4.50,000 DWT (metric tons)

Damage suffered by a passenger in vessel

1. LLMC 1976 Convention

2. LLC 1969

3. Athens convention

4. Fund 1971

Emergency Steering Test and pre- arrival/pre departure steering tests are requirements under: (solas

chapter v reg 26 para 4)

A. COLREG 72

B. SOLAS Chapter V

C. Under USCG rules only in US waters

D. INMARSAT C 1976

Which requirement regarding Oil Record Book Part I is correct?

A. All entries are to be signed by Chief engineer and Master

B. All entries are to be signed by Chief engineer and each completed page by the Master

C. All entries are to be signed by officer or officers in charge concerned and each completed page by the

Master


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D. All entries are to be signed by officer or officers in charge concerned, the Chief engineer and the Master

Which of the following IMO conventions has entered into force?

A. Hong Kong Convention

B. Nairobi WRC 2007 ( for shipwreck in Kenya)

C. BWM Convention 2004

D. Bunkers Convention 2001 *

Post Nox emission test bed trial and approval of an engine, periodic Nox emission limit verification is normally

done by:

A. Emission tests at regular intervals

B. Engine parameters/settings check method (for single choice)

C. By running the engine at full load and sending a sample of exhaust gas for analysis

D. By checking emission monitors installed on exhaust outlet

APRIL 2013

1. Life raft light usually what type

A. Galvanic Battery

B. Solar

C. Sea Water

D. None

2. ISM code come under

A. SOLAS

B. MARPOL

C. STCW

D. NONE

3. Type of fire detector in machinery space

A. Flame detector(single ans)B. Obscuration smoke detector

C. Ionization smoke detector

D. Rise in temperature

4. Oily water separator discharge en route

A. 50 NM from nearest land

B. 50 NM from coast line

C. 12 NM from nearest land

D. No such distance criteria

5. In case of frostbite, First aid will be

A. wet cloth remove

B. shoe socks remove


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C. clean affected area with warm water

D. None

6. What convention about enter into force

A. Oprc

B. Afs convention

C. Bunker convention

D. Hong kong convention

7. MARPOL Annex 1 and IOPP certificate is mandatory for

A. All types of ships

B. Oil tanker 150 ton dead weight and above

C. All ship 150 ton dead weight and above

D. Oil tanker 150 gross ton and above

8. Clean ballast tank is one which

A. Not allowed any oil----

B. Carriage oil cargo

C. Some white and clean oil

D. Last dry docking converted clean ballast tank

Reporting ???Near misses'???is encouraged under which maritime instrument?

A. Code of Safe Working Practices

B. ISM code

C. SOLAS Chapter II-2

D. All of the above

Which of the following conditions will allow for a work vest to be substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the

required lifesaving gear?

A. When it is approved by the Coast Guard

B. When working near or over the water

C. When stowed away from the ring buoys

D. Never

Lifebuoys are subject to which of the following tests?

A. Drop test

B. Fire test


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C. Flotation test

D. All of the above

Water Ingress Monitoring Equipment, for detecting water ingress in cargo holds is a requirement under:

A. MARPOL convention

B. SOLAS Chapter XII

C. BC code

D. BLU code

The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is

A. carbon dioxide

B. flue gas

C. water

D. steam smothering

Greater the hazard, smaller the parcel size. As per this principle of IBC code what is the allowable parcel size in Type

1 chemical tankers?

A. 3000 m3

B. 1500 m3

C. 1250 m3

D. 1650 m3

Which of the following is considered to be the safest protection from static electric discharge, when connecting or

disconnecting cargo hoses and metal arms?

A. Insulating flange or a length of non-conducting hose

B. Switching off ICCP

C. Ship shore bonding cable


Who sets the security level of the ship?

A. Ship Security Officer

B. Company Security Officer

C. Port Facility Security Officer

(Flag State decides level. Can be overbidden by Master who inform all concerned)


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SAFETY- August and September attempt

Ans are based on discussions done on exam centre plz confirm before learning

1. NOx survey- which of the following have ID no.?

a. Turbocharger

b. Fuel injector

c. Air injector

d. All

2. Orange smoke test- 42 months

3. Flare test- 24 months

4. CO2 cyl pressure- 300 psi

5. Motions of the ship- read all definitions

6. Soot blowing qstn – ans- NONE7. 2 person CPR/min- uscg

a. 30

b. 45

c. 60

d. 90

8. ORB applied for- 150 GT for oil tanker & 400 GT for other ships

9. CO2 used in comparison to HALON why? Ans- non toxic

10. A546(13)-

Ans- A- assembly

546- Serial no.

13- Session no.

11. Use of flexible hose- OBO

12. LLMC qstn- loss of life (LLMC- limitation of liability of maritime convention)

250% -300% for claim

13. Helicopters- SOLAS

14. SBT & CBT related qstn- option was indicating location of SBT and what is carried in SBT

and CBT

15. ODMC alarm about 15ppm- 10,000 GRT

16. Convention not in force- ans- HONK KONG, BWM, KENYA

17. Advantage of fog- ans- all of these

18. How to use halon extinguisher- ans- away from wind and used on base.

19. COW ship manual – operation and arrangement manual

20. HONK KONG convention- recycling of ships

LONDON- dumping of wastes

21. Stroke for CPR- 1 person – 15:2


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22. Fuel oil tank capacity- 2500 max ; 600 min

23. Spontaneous combustion is caused by- ans- leakage on the hot spot formed.

24. Fire in the compartment and we are using multi-purpose nozzle. Which is the suitable

place to use it?

a. Overhead

b. Centre of the compartment

c. On deck

d. Base

25. STCW comprises of how many levels and functions?

Ans- 3 level- operational, management and support

7 function

26. As per INDIAN MERCHANT ACT how many members are present- 16 max ; 4 min

27. After 20 sec of inhalation of CO2 what will happen?

Ans- blue colour

28. Tier 1, 2, 3 – Nox29. EEDI- Greenhouse effect

30. Continental- 200NM ; economical- 200NM < ; continental shelf- 200 NM>

31. Security on resource zone – contigeous

32. ORB 1 – machinery space

33. MARPOL 6 –

a. VOC management cert

b. IOPP

c. Anti-fouling

34. Critical machineries comes under- ISM code

35. Which of the following do not comes under LONDON conventiona. Sewage & sludge

b. Fish waste

c. Dredge waste

d. None

36. Hypothermia – 35 C

37. ISPS A, ISPS B- ship security

38. Water is used for-

a. Type a & b

b. ‘’ b & c

c. ‘’ a & c

d. ‘’ a & c

39. ANNEX 2- not comes

a. SOPEP for noxious liq substances

b. CARGO record book

c. ORB

40. Quartz bulb temp- ans- 69- 78*C


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41. Liferaft batteries are activated by-

a. Sea water

b. Galvanic

c. Solar energy battery

d. none

42. Stability test while ballasting- ans- flow through method

43. Heat stroke symptoms – ans- less sweating & dry skin

44. WHO medical certificate necessary?

a. Yellow fever

b. Cholera

c. Small pox

d. All

45. Pyro techniques are used – ans- 60* from horizon

46. Which is not true statements – ans- classification society is not mandatory.

47. Lifeboat oil flash point – ans-43*C48. GAS carrier – IGC code ; chemical carrier- IBC code

49. For heavy oil fire use – ans-water fog with foam

50. International shore connection – ans- FSS

51. MODU sign or station bill is sighned by ?

a. Officer in charge

b. All crew members

c. Master

52. To reduce static current during loading & discharging

Ans- shore bonding cables

53. Organ of IMO – council54. Machinery space fire detector- FLAME

55. CO2 cylinder refilling- 90%

56. Minimum rocket flare used- 12

57. Gas freeing done. Why?

a. To remove flammable liq.

b. ‘’ ‘’ combustible liq.

c. ‘’ ‘’ flammable & toxic gases

d. All cargo

58. Which of the following have same status as territorial waters?

a. Contagious waters

b. Exclusive economic zone

c. Internal water

d. Don’t know

59. SBT system-

a. They have separate Tank, pump and pipeline….

b. Don’t know


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c. Don’t know

d. Don’t know

60. Oily mixture – ans –any content mix with oil

61. How to prevent any solid particle from clogging in fire line?

a. Strainer in fire p/p suction

b. Cadmium sulphite sol.

c. Back flushing

d. Compressed air

62. Besides ILO 147 – minimum standard convention which of the following provides for

PSC inspections?

a. ILO 134- prevention of accidental convention

b. ILO 180-seafearers hour of work & manning conventions

c. ILO 178- labour inspection certificate

d. None ( may be ans)

63. Scrubber tower used for?a. Cleaning

b. Cooling of gases

c. Removal of SO2 gas

d. All

64. Exclusive economic zone maximum range a/c to UNCLOS

a. 50NM

b. 12NM

c. 200NM

d. 4 NM

65. Lifeboat recovery method onboarda. Hook at the centre on top

b. Towing bridge

c. Two stoppers are provided at the bottom

d. None

66. Life boat fire extinguished by – ans- high pressure sprinkler spill

67. Can be used on oil but not on electrical fire

a. Water mist

b. CO2

c. Halon

d. DCP

68. Permeability ratio of cargo space

a. Vol’’ of cargo/ vol’’ of space

b. Vol’’ of cargo/ vol’’ of water in that space

c. Vol’’ of water/ vol’’ of cargo

d. Water tight space vol’’ / vol’’ of cargo space

69. Validity of certificate for 5 years - tonnage certificate


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70. CPR process – mouth to mouth tight (USCG)

71. Liferaft marking-

a. launching procedures with signs

b. CO2 cylinder pressure

c. Weak link material

d. All

72. IOPP certificate for-

A. 150 GRT oil tanker & 400 GRT other ships

B. 150 deadweight

C. All ships

73. Immersion suit comprises of ; (no was also asked in other qstn)

a. O2 cylinder

b. Whistle

c. Whistle, reflective tape & light

d. Reflective tape & light74. PMS comes under

a. SOLAS ch-2

b. ISM

c. Code for safe working

d. None

75. Which amendment is not yet enforced?

a. BTU

b. IMDG code

c. FTU

d. Don’t remember76. High velocity fog- disadvantage

Ans- bulkhead heating ( options don’t remember….may be this ans is wrong)


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SAFETY WRITTEN NEW QUESTIONS

NOTE: PLEASE CONFIRM THE ANSWERS

Q1.Permeability of the space means...?

Ans.Ratio of volume occupied by water in space to total volume of space

Q2. While doing soot blow in boiler

a. increase boiler load

b. increase firing

c all parameters normal

d. none

Q3.In order for you to operate your vessel's crude oil wash system the cargo tanks to be

washed must be uscg 170

a.opened to atmosphere for ventilation

b.gas freed

c.inerted

d.filled with cargo

Q4.Mechanical foam used for fire fighting, is produced by ____________. Ucsg 113

(A) mechanically mixing and agitating foam chemical, water, and air

(B) a chemical reaction of foam components and air

(C) gas bubbles liberated when the foam chemical contacts fire

(D) chemical reaction of foam components and water

SAFETY WRITTEN NEW QUESTIONS OF APRIL AND JUNE 2014

Q5. For oil tanker discharge of oil should be less than of total cargo quantity

A. 1/10000

B.1/20000


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C.1/30000

D. 1/40000

Q6. Certification to company is given according to ISM

A. Safety management certi

B.

C.

D. Document of compliance

Q7. While giving cpr, for proper sealing nostrails are pinched and

A. Keep mouth tightly against casualty's mouth

B.

C.

D.

Q8. Oil and oily mixture is discharged overboard via 15 ppm filtering equipment for

ships > 400GT, for ships


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Q10. Operation and ,,,,, for helicopter is found in

A. Training manual

B.

C.

D. SOLAS

Q11.Disadvantage of co2 fire extinguishers

A. Does not reduce heat

B. Not good for b class fire

C. Not good for c class fire


Q12. Disadvantage of foam fire extinguisher

A, conduct electricity

B.

C.

D.

Q13. In annex 1 of marpol oil mixture is

A. Oily mixture above 100ppm

B. Oily mixture above 15ppm

C. Water mixture with any oil

D. Water mixture with visible oil

Q14. Symptoms of heat stroke

A. Less body temp

B. Excessive sweating

C. Less sweating, dry skin


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Q15. Fog nozzle we prevent backflow. Backflow occurs during

A. High pressure in line and water surging

B. Pressure in hose goes below 7bar

C. Only one opening for water

D. Bulkhead may damage due to heat and pressure

Q16. Flash point of life boat fuel oil

A. 60 deg C

B. 45 deg C

C. 43 deg C

D. 63 deg C

Q17. What is 546 in A546 (13)

A. serial no, of resolution

B. Paragraph no. Of ,,,,,,

C. Session non in which resolution comes

D. Clouse no. Of.....

Q18. Use of sea anchore of liferaft…USCG 1601

A.

B. Stability against current

C.

D. Maintain general position

Q19. Air leaking sound is coming from liferaft during inflation, what will you do

A.


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B.

C.

D. Wait, relief valve will release excessive pressure

Q20.The use of flexible hose pipes to connect the crude oil washing machines is

permitted only on ________________. Ucsg 180

(A) product tankers

(B) crude oil tankers

(C) combination OBO tankers

(D) chemical tankers

Q21.anti – static additives in petroleum products.

A. Increase conductivity

B. Reduce conductivity

C. Increase accumulation of charge

D. Reduce friction drag

Q22.when you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal it should be aimed at uscg 172

a.straight ahead

b.at vessel whoose attention you want to attract

c.into the wind

d.about 60degrees to horizon

Q23.FOR WHICH OF THESE PURPOSES A VALID CLASS CERTIFICATE MAY BE

REQUIRED:

a) port authority inspection, port clearance

b) hull and machinery insurance

c) cargo insurer........???

d) ALL OF THE ABOVE


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Q24.Parent instrument of mandatory ISM code??

Q25.There are two disadvantages to CO2 when used as a total flooding fire fighting

agent. One of these is the limited quantity available and the other is ____________.uscg114

(A) the lack of cooling effect on heated materials

(B) it cannot be used in a dead ship situation without electrical power available to the

CO2 pump

(C) it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases

(D) there is no effect on a class "A" fire even in an enclosed space

Q26.There has been a minor fire incident in the engine room and there are no casualties.

On arrival port which of the following persons would you inform?

(A) The port fire officer

(B) The local shipping agents

(C) The management representatives of the company.

(D) The classification society surveyor.

(E) The attending repair workshop

Q27.no. of immersion suit in life boat as per new condition=Close type-no need

Open type-2 nos

Q28. Protective location of SBT means?

Q29. Gasoline is flammable liquid whose vapours are uscg 1719

a. toxic

b. heavyc. highly explosive

d. all of above

Q30. Sea anchor from liferaft is used for stay in general location (uscg 1601)

Q31. If fire breaks at boiler

a. raise the alarm

b. press fire main

c. secure fuel supply

d. activate co2


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Q32. Meaning of volatile

a. ignite

b. explosive

c. vaporise

d.

Q33. Standard nozzle diameters

a.12,16,18mm

b.12,16,19mm

c.12,16,20mm

d.12,18,22mm

Q34. How many immersion suit present onboard?

no.of crew on board + 2 ecr +2bridge+2ccr

Q35. Which of the following is not coming under marpol annex 2

a)stowage plan

b),

c) some certificates given

d)dangerous goods manifest

Q36.Marine pollution act

a)marine pollution act

b)prevention of pollution from ships at sea 1973

c)prevention of pollution frm ships 1973 (may be)

safety final

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