question bank- sr. clerks (for ... - south central railway€¦ · question bank- sr. clerks (for...
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QUESTION BANK- Sr. CLERKS (FOR PROMOTION AGAINST PROMOTION QUOTA)
CIVIL ENGG. DEPARTMENT.
Para-1906.
Sl.No. 1 - BALLAST- MATERIAL TRAINS
1.Ordering of ballast trains request to be placed to
a). Operating b). commercial c). stores d). Finance . [Ans (a): Operating]
2.Which department will place a requisition to order a ballast train?
a. Commercial b. Operating c. Engineering d. None of the above [Ans ( c ) Engineering ]
3.Request for ordering of material train should not be less than,
a). One day b). week days c). Fortnight d). One month. [Ans (b): Week days]
4). Before moving his train driver must sound ----- times at on interval of 30 seconds as a warning to labourers that the train is about to move.
Para 1916
a). Two times b). Three times c). Four times d). Not required to do so [Ans(a):Two times]
5). Who is responsible to ensure personally that all labour are on the train before giving signal to start the ballast train.
a. Driver b. Guard c. Station Master d. None of the above.[ Answer: (b) Guard]
6). Who should ensure personally before commencing shunting with ballast train, that all labourers have been detrained.
a. Guard b. Driver c.Gang Mate d. Station Master. [Answer: (a) Guard]
7). While performing shunting operations , Train guard must ensure that labour with train
a). Should be available b). Detrain from the train c). 50 % on train d). Not specific
[Ans (b):Detrain from the train].
8). When a ballast train is stabled, which official should ensure personally that, it is clear of fouling mark at each end of line on which it is stabled.
Para 1918
a. Station Master b. Driver c.Guard d. None of the above.[ Answer: (c) Guard ]
9).When a ballast train is stabled at station, the guard must ensure.
a). Must pin down sufficient number of brakes b). Satisfy himself that points are correctly set against line train is stabled. c). both a &b d). either one. [Ans (c)].
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Para-1920.
10). Engine crew can be worked longer hours in case of
a). breaches like emergency duties b). should not work longer hours c). Not to ask for longer hours d). None of the above [Ans (a)].breaches like emergency duties]
Para-1921
11). Who have to ensure the ballast loading for correct level in depots and before moving of trains.
a). Loco pilot b). Guard c). staff in ballast depots d). JE/SSE(P.Way) of the section.(staff in ballast depots)
[Ans (c). staff in ballast depots]
Para-1927
12). Inventory register of engineering vehicles should contain the information regarding wagons.
a). Type of vehicle b). vehicle number c). POH details d). All these [Ans :(d) All these]
13). A---------- ‘return’ (frequency) regarding engineering vehicles should be submitted by ADEN to DEN with complete particulars of each vehicle .
a). Every day b). Once in a week c). Once in fortnight d). Once in a month
[Ans (d): once in month]
14). Who is responsible to keep track of engineering vehicles allotted to the sub division?.
a. AEN b. PWI c. Guard d. Station Master [ Answer: (a) AEN]
15). Who is responsible to send Engineering vehicles allotted to the sub division to workshops for periodical overhauling?
a. AEN b. PWI c. Guard d. Station Master [ Answer: (a) AEN]
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Ballast and working of trains general questions not in IRWWM
16).The space along the sides of the Railway siding, meant for stacking ballast, should be divided into convenient number of -----------and demarcated. a).zones b).divisions c).heaps d). blocks [Ans (a : zones)]
17).When settling accounts for training out ballast, checks should be made the wagon measurements differ fromthe recorded measurements by not more than------ a).5% b). 10% c). 3% d).Non of the above (5%) [Ans (a) : 5%)]
18).The phrase ballast punctures means.
a). Breakage of ballast b). Holes in ballast c). Penetration of ballast into formation d).None of the above. ([Ans (C) : penetration of ballast into formation]
19). A “Working Trip” is a trip when one or more wagons are to be unloaded between two stations. A “Running Trip” is a trip from one station to the other when no wagons have to be unloaded on the way. Is The above statement correct?
a). Yes b). No c). Not exactly d).None of the above. [Ans (a) : Yes]
20).while ballast is being discharged from the wagon
a). Train should be stopped b).The train should not be stopped c). Not exactly d).None of the above.( [Ans :(b) , The train should not be stopped)]
21). Standard size of ballast is
(a) 50mm (b) 60mm (c) 40mm (d) 65mm [Ans (a) 50mm]
__________________
22). Requirement of good ballast____________
(a) Toughness (b) Cubicle having sharp edges (c ) Wear resistance (d) All of these. [Ans (d) All of these ]
23) Functions of ballast______________
(a) Load distribution from sleeper to formation
(b) Effective drainage to track
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above. [Ans. (c) both (a)& (b)]
24) Shape of the Formation ______
(a) Square (b) Rectangle (c ) Trapezoidal (d) None of these [Ans. (c) Trapezoidal ]
25) The ballast below the sleeper is called ___________________
(a) Crib ballast (b) Ballast cushion (c ) Shoulder ballast (d) Heavy ballast [Ans. (b) Ballast cushion ]
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26) Official in-charge of ballast trains________________
(a) SSE/Bridges (b) SSE/Works (c )SSE/Drawing (d) SSE/P.Way [ Ans. (d) SSE/P.Way ]
27) Shape of the ballast _____________
(a) Round (b) Rectangle (c ) Square (d) None of these [ Ans. (d) None of these]
28) How to decide the size of ballast ____________
(a) Sieve analysis (b) Gradation (c ) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these [ Ans. (a) ) Sieve analysis ]
29) The minimum depth of the ballast cushion below the bottom of the sleepers at the rail seat for BG____________
(a) 50-100 mm (b) 100-150mm(c ) 150-200mm (d) Greater than 250mm [ Ans. (d) Greater than 250mm ]
30) ________________ brake-van shall be attached in the rear of the material train
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c ) 2 (d)4 [ Ans. (a) 1 ]
31) Normal working of material train ____________________
(a) During the day (b) During night (c ) During day & night (d) None of these [ Ans. (a) During the day]
32) On down gradient steeper than 1 in 100, pushing of material train is _________________
(a) Permitted (b) Not permitted (c ) Permitted with speed restriction (d) None of these [ Ans (b) Not permitted]
33.) Fit certificate for material train issued to the Guard by ______________________
(a) S & T staff (b) Engineering Staff(c ) Operating Staff (d) Carriage & Wagon Staff
[ Ans. (d) Carriage & Wagon Staff ]
34.) Stabled material train at station shall be protected & ensured by ______________
(a) Guard (b) Loco Pilot (c) Station Master (d) SSE/JE (P.Way) [ Ans. (c) Station Master ]
35.) Ballast profile on curves shall be ________________
(a) Equal on both rails (b) More on outer rail (c) More on inner rail (d) Both (b)& (c)
[ Ans (b) More on outer rail]
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1. What is the time period for leasing of Railway land
Sl.No 2- LAYING ELECTRIAL& TELECOMMUNICATION LINES ACROSS TRACK.
a) 20 yrs b) 25 yrs. c) 30 yrs d) 35 yrs
Answer: d) 35 yrs
2. Long term Leasing of Railway land is permitted to a) Private organisations b) Govt./ PSUs c) Companies. d) Individuals
Answer: b)Govt./ PSUs
3. What percentage of land value to be taken one time upfront, for leasing of Railway land
a) 60% b) 75%. c) 99% d) 85% .
Answer: c) 99%
4. .Annual token license fee to be taken in case of long term lease a) Rs.1000/p.a b) Rs.5000/ p.a. c) Rs.10,000/p.a d) Rs.15,000/p.a.
Answer: Rs.1000/p.a
5. In calculation of lease charges, the market value of land is to be taken from a) Revenue authority b) Govt. registered valuer c) Town planning d) CPWD
d) Answer: a)Revenue authority
6. .GM’s powers for sanction of lease of Railway land a) UptoRs.10 lacs b) UptoRs.15 lacs c) UptoRs.25 lacs d) UptoRs.5 0 lacs
Answer: c) UptoRs.25 lacs
7. .Railway Board Powers for sanction of lease of Railway land
a) >Rs.10 lacs b) >Rs.15 lacs c) >Rs.25 lacs d) >Rs.50 lacs
Answer: c) >Rs.25 lacs
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8 .What percentage of Land value for computation of annual license fee to be taken for commercial licensing of open Railway land area
a) 6% b) 10%. c) 12% d) 15%
Answer: a) 6%
9. What percentage of Land value for computation of annual license fee to be taken for commercial licensing of covered Railway land area
a) 10 % b) 7.5 %. c) 12% d) 15%
Answer: b) 7.5 %.
10. .Revision/Renewal of license agreement is done in commercial licensing a) Ever year b) 2 yrs c) 5 yrs d) 10 yrs
Answer:. c) 5 yrs
11. What is the Security deposit to be collected in advance for commercial licensing
a) One year license fee b) One month license fee c) 6 months license fee d) 2 years license fee
Answer: : a One year license fee
12. The initial period of land licensing to Rail Tel Corp. for communication a) 5 yrs. b) 10 yrs c) 15 yrs d) 20 yrs Answer: : b) 10 yrs
13. The time period of land licensing to set up Mechanised laundry by Mechanical deptt. a) 5 yrs. b) 10 yrs c) 15 yrs d) 20 yrs Answer: c) 15 yrs
14. The annual land licensing fee to be paid by the Licensee to set up Mechanised laundry in Railway premises.
a) Rs.1/ per sq.feet. b) Rs.10/ per sq.feet. c) Rs.100/ per sq.feet. d) Rs.50/ per sq.feet.
Answer: : a) Rs.1/ per sq.feet.
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15. The property development on Rly.land for commercial purpose is done by a) RVNL b) RITES. c) RLDA. d) IRCON
Answer: c) RLDA.
16. Rail Land Development Authority (RLDA) is headed by a) ME b) GM . c) Executive Director d) Director
Answer: a) ME
17. Fixed Land licensing fee to Rail Tel Corporation for open area is ______ % of the market value of land.
a) 10 % b) 7.5 %. c) 12% d) 6%
Answer: d)6%
18. The Estate Officer of Division to serve notices for eviction of encroachers.
a) ADRM b) Sr.DEN c) DRM d) DEN
Answer:a)ADRM
19. Public Premises Eviction Act 1971 is invoked for.
a) Removal of unauthorised occupants on rly.land b) Removal of structures c) Removal of abandoned properties d) None of the above
Answer:a) Removal of unauthorised occupants on rly.land
20.)Form-B is the notice for eviction of encroachers of railway land under PPE Act-1971 to be issued by
a) DRM b) Sr.DEN c) ADRM d) DEN
Answer:c) ADRM
21. Limited or occasional usage of railway land by party for a specified purpose without affecting Railways title, possession, control and use of land is called:
(a) Leasing (b) Licensing (c) way leave (d)encroachment
Answer c) way leave 22.) Minimum width of railway land to be taken for the purpose of assessment of way leave charges:
(a) 1m (b) 2m (c) 3m (d) 4m
Answer (a) 1m
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23.) Way leave charges for water pipe line crossings for cultivation by individual farmers to be levied as:
a) One time recovery fee (b) annual fee
(c) in advance for block period of 10 years (d)no fee Answer a) One time recovery fee 24.)Way leave charges for laying of OFC cables to be levied as: (a) One time recovery fee (b) annual fee (c) in advance for block period of 10 years (d) no fee Answer (c) in advance for block period of 10 years 25) While calculating way leave charges in advance in block of 10 years, annual increase of land value would be assumed as:
(a) 6% (b) 7% (c) 8% (d) 10% Answer (b) 7% 26) Way leave proposal for passage / roads wider than ….. shall be treated under licensing:
(a) 1m (b) 2m (c) 3m (d) 4m
Answer (c) 3m 27) Way leave facilities can be permitted by (a) ADEN (b) Sr.DEN/Co.ord(c) DRM (d)GM
Answer (c) DRM 28) .Way leave facility means ……….. of Railway land
(a)Leasing (b) Licensing (c) permission for occasional use (d)transfer Answer (c) permission for occasional use 29. Way leave facility to be allowed:
a. after execution of agreement (b) before execution ofagreement b. without agreement (d) after submission of draft agreement byparty
Answer (a)after execution of agreement
30. Way leave facility shall be allowed: a. In genuine and unavoidable cases b. As matter ofroutine c. Both (a) &(b). d. None of the above.
Answer (a) In genuine and unavoidable cases 31. Annual license fee for licensing of railway land for private sidings shall be ….. of land value:
(a) 6% (b) 7% (c) 8% (d) 10%
Answer (a) 6%
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32. Licensing of Railway land for private sidings can be permitted by
a. ADEN (b) Sr.DEN/Co.ord(c) DRM (d)GM
Answer(c) DRM 33. Where land is licensed for stacking materials received or despatched by train, licensing of railway land will be done by……..department:
a. Engineering (b) Commercial (c) Operating (d)Stores Answer: b) Commercial
34. In case of plots licensed for stacking materials received or to be dispatched by Railway, the dimension of plot along the siding should be restricted to:
(a) 5m (b) 10m (c) 15m(d)20m
Answer: b) 10m 35. Number of copies of plans for licensing of railway land for commercial plots should be made:
a. One (b) Two (c) Three (d)Four Answer: d) Four
36. Railways “No Objection Certificate” is required for construction of private buildings within …… of railway boundary:
a. 30 feet (b) 30 metres (c) 50 metres (d) 100metres Answer: b) 30 metres
37. Annual license fee for licensing of railway land for ordinary commercial plots without structures …… of market value (a) 6% (b) 7.5% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Answer: (a) 6% 38. The Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Act 1971 is for
(a)Removal of encroachments in railway land (b) leasing of railway land (c) licensing of railway land (d) granting way leave permission for use of railway land Answer: (a)Removal of encroachments in railway land
39. Removal of encroachments by outsiders requires Public Premises Eviction (PPE) Act falls under ..................................................... of encroachment:
a) Category –A (b) Category –B (c) Category –C (d) Category –D
Answer:a) Category –A
40. Utilisation of vacant Railway land Grow More Food (GMF) scheme is permitted to Rly. Employees of
a. Group-C (b) Group –D (c) Group –C & D (d) None of the above Answer: (c) Group –C & D
41.) Railway employee should have minimum service of _____ years for allotment of Rly. land under GMF scheme
a. 3 yrs. (b) 5 yrs (c) 7 yrs (d) 10 yrs Answer: (b) 5 yrs
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Sl. No. 3- STATIONS AND YARDS- PLANNING
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Sl. No. 4 – MISC WORKS- DEPOSIT WOKS CABLE CROSSINGS
Para 3101
1. The works executed in railway premises for other Government bodies/local bodies at their cost are called as
a. Public works b. Private works c. Deposit works d. Railway works. Answer: (c) Deposit works
2. Deposit works in railway premises should normally be executed by
a. Railway b. Private Body c. applicant d. Railway works.
Answer: (a) Railway
Para 3103
3. No Deposit work should be commenced-
a. Until the detailed estimate is sanctioned by competent Railway authority . b. Until estimated cost thereof deposited with the Railway . c. Both (a) &(b) d. Either (a) or (b) Answer: (c) Both (a) & (b) Para 3104
4. A register of all deposit works in a division shall be maintained in
a. PWI office b. AEN’s office c. Chief Engineer’s office d. None of the above Answer: (d) None of the above.
Para no 3106
5. The proposals for crossing electrical transmission lines and cables across track is approved by
a. Chief Electrical Engineer b. Chief Track engineer c. Chief Signal engineer d. none of the above Answer: (a) Chief Electrical Engineer
Para 3109
6. When a siding is required to serve a factory, mill or other industrial premises, other than collery, the party concerned will apply to
a. General Manager b. Chief Commercial Superintendent c. Chief Engineer d.None of the above.
Answer: (b) Chief Commercial Superintendent
Para 3110
7. Interest and maintenance charges in respect of “assistant sidings” are leviable from
a. Date of opening of siding b. Date of commencement of siding work c. Date of sanction of siding work d. None of the above.
Answer: (a) Date of opening of siding
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Sl.No.5 – Stores and Machinery 1. Items which are required for day-to-day operation of services and maintenance of the activity
A) Custody stores B) Surplus stores C) Impressed stores D) Special stores
Answer (c) Impressed stores 2. PL number consists of……….digit
A) 12 B) 10 C) 06 D) 08
Answer( D) 08
3. The material at site of works whether in a Stores Depot or with a department should be verified by accounts Stock Verifiers every once in a….
A) 12 months B) 24 months C) 36 months D) 18 months
Answer A) 12 months 4.Test check of vouchers during stock verification in the case of revenue and other charged of stores, …………receipts and issue transactions for any……from the date of last accounts verification should be checked with the postings recorded in the ledgers.
A) 25% and 6 months B) 20% and 3 months C) 20% and 6 months D) 25% and 3 months
Answer D) 25% and 3 months 5. Principle Head of Stores Department on a Zonal Railway is………
A) Chief Materials Manager B) Member Mechanical C) Principle CMM D) Chief COS
Answer C) Principle CMM 6. Buffer stock is provided…..
A) To meet unforeseen requirements B) To supply items to others Depots C) To make short fall due to theft D) To arrange local purchase
Answer A) To meet unforeseen requirements 7. Item not required by user can be returned to Stores Depot on…..
A) Sale issue note B) Minus issue note C) DS-8 note D) Indent
Answer C) DS-8 note 8. The officer returning Stores to Stores Depot should prepare Advice Notes in Form (S.1539) in 6 foils by carbon process.
A) 5 copies B) 4 copies C) 6 copies D) 3 copies
Answer C) 6 copies 9. Surplus stock maybe due…….
A) Change in structure or plant and equipment B) Introduction of new standard C) Introduction of new procedure D) All of the above
Answer D) All of the above
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10. In PL.NO. The subgroup to be represented by…… A) First two digits B) 3rd and 4th digits C) 5th and 6th digits D) 2nd and 3rd digits
Answer B) 3rd and 4th digits 11. Stores with impressed holders whether in a Stores Depot are with a department should be verified by accounts Stock Verifiers every once in a…….
A) 12 months B) 24 months C)36 months D) 18 months
Answer B) 24 months 12. All the receipts and all issues of the stores fromSSE/ P.Way office is maintained in …..
A) Challan book B) Ledger C) Daily material transaction D) D.S.8 copy resistors
Answer C) Daily material transaction 13. Items for which there is a regular demand, regular drawl or consumption and there is a regular recoupment
A) Revenue items B) Stock items C) Consumables D) non-stock items
Answer B) Stock items
14. Field book is submitted toSSE/ P.Way office once in a….. A) Month B) Week C) Fortnight D) two months
Answer B) Week 15. Stores with no issues over 24 months are called as……
A) Surplus B) inactive C) Overstock D) none of the above
Answer A) Surplus 16. The tools and plants whether in a Stores Depot or with a department should be verified by accounts Stock Verifiers every once in a….
A) 12 months B) 24 months C) 36 months D) 18 months
Answer C) 36 months 17. Stores which are obtained for specific work is called ……
A) Revenue stores B) impressed stores C) Material at site stores D) surplus stores
Answer C) Material at site stores 18.In case of scrap material of rail length below one meter the unit of measurement shall be
A) Meters B) Number C) In weight D) In weight and numbers
Answer C) In weight
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19. For departmental stock verification in such a way that approximately…..of the stock under each subordinate is verified by actual count each month
A) One sixth B) one fourth C) one third D) half
Answer A) One sixth 20. All the receipts and all issues of the stores from P.Way office is maintained in
DMTR shall be in…… A) Triplicate B) Duplicate C) Single D) Quadruplicate
Answer A) Triplicate
21. Dead surplus is item….. A) Not issued for 12 months B) Not issued for 24 months C) Not issued for 24 months and there D) Not issued for 24 months and there is no likely demand in next 24 months is no likely demand in next 12 months
Answer D) Not issued for 24 months and there is no likely demand in next 12 months 22 All P.Way materials leftover completion of the work is termed as….
A) Revenue stores B) material at sight stores C) Surplus stores D) none of the above
Answer C) Surplus stores 23.For departmental stock verification in such a way that stock is verified departmentally at least once in every…..
A) 3 months B) 4 months C) 6 months D) 12 months
Answer C) 6 months 24. Before commencement of track renewal work foot-by-foot joint inventory shall be taken by…….
A) SSE P.Way Incharge and Stock B) SSE P.Way Incharge, Stock Verifier and verifier Contractor C) ADEN, SSE P.Way Incharge, D) Contractor and Stock Verifier Contractor and Stock Verifier
Answer B) SSE P.Way Incharge, Stock Verifier and Contractor 25. Monthly returns are submitted it divisions along with…
A) DMTR copies B) DMTR copies along with incoming and outgoing worksheets C) DMTR copies, Ledgers copies along with D) DMTR copies, Ledgers copies incoming and outgoing vouchers Inventory copy along with incoming and outgoing vouchers
Answer D) DMTR copies, Ledgers copies Inventory copy along with incoming
and outgoing vouchers
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Sl.No 6. GENERAL ITEMS- DISPOSAL OF NATURAL PRODUCTS, ROAD CROSSINGS - WATER SUPPLY FROM LOCAL BODIES
Para 2610
1. When a drain (whose bed level is higher than Road top level) has to pass such a road, -------------should be used
a. culvert b. Inverted syphon c. Pipe d. None of the above
Answer: (b) Inverted syphon
Para 2620
2. Conservancy arrangements will be in-charge of
a. Only Medical b. Only Operating c. Either Medical, Operating or Engineering d. Engineering.
Answer: (c) Either Medical, Operating or Engineering
Para 2534
3.When water is obtained for Railway purposes from Municipality, the agreement should clearly specify:-
a. Only Duration of agreement b. Only Rate of payment for water
c. Only Maximum and minimum quantity to be supplied. d. All the above three.
Answer: (d) All the above three.
Chapter XXXVIII of IRWW manual: Gardens and plantations
Para 2534
4. When water is obtained for Railway purposes from Municipality, the agreement should clearly specify:-
a. Only Duration of agreement b. Only Rate of payment for water
c. Only Maximum and minimum quantity to be supplied. d. All the above three.
Answer: (d) All the above three.
Para 3810
5. Natural products on Railway land should be sold by
a. Public auction or by tender b. Direct sales c. Nomination d. None of the above.
Answer: (a) Public auction or by tender
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Sl.No. 7-CONTRACTS-TENDERS
1. Date of inviting tender shall be the date of-----
(a) Publishing tender notice on IREPS website if tender is published on website.
(b) Publication in newspaper in case tender is not published on website.
(c) Neither (a) nor (b).
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer: (d)
2. E-Tender Forms shall be issued to all tenderers-----
(a) Free of cost
(b) 1% of total contract value.
(c) 2% of total contract value
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
3. Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) for works estimated to cost up to ₹ 1 crore is
(a) 1% of the estimated cost of the work.
(b) 2% of the estimated cost of the work.
(c) 0.5% of the estimated cost of the work.
(d) None of the above.
Answer: (b)
4. For Civil Engg (OL), the list of sister departments dealing with tenders for the purpose of constitution of tender committee shall be
(a) Electrical
(b) Signal & Tale-Comm.
(c Mechanical.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d) [
5. Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) For works estimated to cost more than ₹ 1 crore is
(a) ₹ 2 lakh plus ½% (half percent) of the excess of the estimated cost of work beyond ₹ 1 crore subject to a maximum of ₹ 1 crore
(b) ₹ 2 lakh plus 1% (one percent) of the excess of the estimated cost of work beyond ₹ 1 crore subject to a maximum of ₹ 2 crore
(c) ₹ 1 lakh plus 1% (one percent) of the excess of the estimated cost of work beyond ₹ 1 crore subject to a maximum of ₹ 1crore
(d) ₹ 1 lakh plus ½% (half percent) of the excess of the estimated cost of work beyond ₹ 1 crore subject to a maximum of ₹ 1crore
Answer: (a)
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6. Payment of Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) is exempted fully for
(a) Any firm recognized by Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) as ‘Startups’.
(b) 100% Govt. owned PSUs .
(c) Only item(a) above.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer: (d)
7. Forms of Works Contract may be of
(a) Lumpsum Contract
(b) Scheduled Contract.
(c) Piece work Contract.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
8. Provisions of Make in India Policy 2017 issued by Govt. of India
(a) Shall be followed for consideration of tenders.
(b) Shall not be followed for consideration of tenders.
(c) Shall be considered for preparation of estimates.
(d) None of the above.
Answer: (a)
9. The Security Deposit shall be 5% of the contract value
(a) 10% of the contract value.
(b) 5% of the contract value.
(c) 2% of the contract value.
(d) 1% of the contract value
Answer: (b)
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9. Performance Guarantee (PG) shall be submitted by the successful bidder
(a ) within 21 (Twenty one) days from the date of issue of Letter of Acceptance (LOA)
(b) Beyond 21 (Twenty one) days and upto 60 days from the date of issue of LOA may be given by the Authority who is competent to sign the contract agreement. However, a penal interest of 12% per annum shall be charged for the delay beyond 21(Twenty one) days, i.e. from 22nd day after the date of issue of LOA.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer: (c)
10. The contract is liable to be terminated, if the Contractor fails to submit the requisite PG
(a) Even after 60 days from the date of issue of LOA.
(b) Even after 75days from the date of issue of LOA.
(c) Even after 90 days from the date of issue of LOA.
(d) Even after 100 days from the date of issue of LOA.
Answer: (a)
11. The successful bidder shall submit the Performance Guarantee (PG)
(a) Amounting to 1% of the contract value..
(b) Amounting to 3% of the contract value.
(c) Amounting to 5% of the contract value.
(d) Amounting to 10% of the contract value.
Answer: (c)
12. Negotiations should be held with
(a) All the tenderers participated in the tender.
(b) All the eligible tenderers participated in the tender.
(c) First and second lowest eligible tenderers .
(d)First lowest eligible tenderer Only.
Answer: (d)
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13. The recommendations of Tender Committee should be put up to
(a) Accounts officer
(b) Accepting authority.
(c) Executive authority.
(d) None of the above.
Answer: (b)
14. In the event of disputes between the contractor and the Railway in a contract, the matter may be referred to
(a) Accounts officer.
(b) Arbitration.
(c) Tender Committee.
(d) Tender inviting Authority.
Answer: (b)
14. The tenders invited in open and public manner and with adequate notice are called
(a) Limited Tenders.
(b) Open Tenders.
(c) Global tenders.
(d) Single tender.
Answer: (b)
15. Tenders invited from all or some contractors on the approved or select list of contractors with the Railway are called
(a) Limited Tenders.
(b) Open Tenders.
(c) Global tenders.
(d) Single tender.
Answer: (a)
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SL.NO. 8 - BUDGET
1. Presentation of first separate Railway Budget –Answer: b)1925.
a) 1947 b) 1925 c) 1951 d) 1948
2. In which year for the first time Railway Budget was presented by a woman Railway
Minister – Answer: d)Mamta Banerjee – 2000.
a) SuchetaKripalani b) NandiniSatpathy c) ShashikalaKakodkar d) Mamta Banerjee
3. What is the first train of Indian Railways handed over to private operators –
Answer: c) Tejas Express a) Coromandal Express
b) Steel Express c) Tejas Express d) Tapaswini Express
4 When was the first train of Indian Railways handed over to private operators.
Answer : b) 04.10.2019 a) 18.09.2017
b) 04.10.2019 c) 25.02.2020 d) 28.06.2018
5. Which year was Indian Railways nationalized – Answer: c)1951.
a) 1947 b) 1950 c) 1951 d) 1948
6. What does the Pink Book contain – Answer: a)Abstract cost of
project/expenditure/outlay.
a) Abstract cost of project/expenditure/outlay. b) Rate of Return c) Survey cost d) Tender details for projects
7. What is the full form of IRPSM – Answer: b)Indian Railway Projects Sanction and
Management System.
a) Indian Railway Planning Survey Management System. b) Indian Railway Projects Sanction and Management System. c) Indian Railway Prime Survey and Monitoring System. d) Indian Railway Preliminary Surveillance Monitoring System
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8. When was IRPSM introduced – Answer: c)2011-12.
a) 2015-16 b) 2018-19 c) 2011-12 d) 2009-10
9. Full form of allocation RRSK – Answer:b)Rashtriya Rail SanrakshaKosh.
a) Revised Railway Safety Khoj.
b) Rashtriya Rail SanrakshaKosh. c) Rashtriya Rail Santosh Kosh d) Rashtriya Railway SamparnKhol.
10. RRSK was introduced in the financial year – Answer: b)2017-18.
a) 2014-15
b) 2017-18 c) 2010-11 d) 2019-20
11. RRSK is dedicated fund for – Answer: b)Critical safety related work.
a) Developmental works.
b) Critical safety related work. c) Augmentation of traffic works. d) Major Projects.
12. What is PWP – Answer: c)Preliminary Works Programme.
a) Prime Works Programme.
b) Primary Work Projects. c) Preliminary Works Programme. d) Periodical Work Projects.
13. Who is the plan head Co-ordinator for Track Renewals – Answer: b)Chief Track
Engineer.
a) Chief Bridge Engineer. b) Chief Track Engineer. c) Chief Engineer/General. d) Chief Engineer/Planning & Designs.
14. Proposals for major plan head viz. New Lines, Gauge Conversion, Doubling and
Railway Electrification are initiated by – Answer: d)Railway Board.
a) Chief Administrative Officer/Construction. b) Principal Chief Engineer. c) General Manager. d) Railway Board.
15. Works Programme Co-ordinator at zonal level – Answer: c)Chief Engineer/Planning & Designs.
a) Principal Chief Commercial Manager. b) Principal Chief Operating Manager. c) Chief Engineer/Planning & Designs. d) Principal Chief Mechanical Engineer.
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16. First Railway Minister of Independent India – Answer: d)John Mathai (15-08-1947).
a) Lal Bahadur Shastri. b) C. D. Deshmukh. c) Baldev Singh. d) John Mathai.
17. Who presented the 2020 Union/Railway Budget in Parliament – Answer: b)Nirmala Sitaraman.
a) PiyushGoyal. b) Nirmala Sitaraman. c) D.V. Sadanand Gowda. d) Ravi Shankar Prasad.
18. Which rail is proposed to be set up by the government for agriculture, so that goods can
be transported across the country – Answer: a)Kisan Rail.
a) Kisan Rail. b) Krishi Rail. c) Shram Rail. d) Jagruti Rail.
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A station where the railway line ends is called – Answer: c)Terminal station.
a) End station. b) Destination station. c) Terminal station. d) Block station.
20. Under Revenue Demand Budget, which Demand No. pertains to Engineering Permanent
Way and Works – Answer: b)Demand No. 4B.
a) Demand No. 3A. b) Demand No. 4B. c) Demand No. 11J. d) Demand No. 9G
21. Operating Ratio is the index of - Answer: b)Financial Performance.
a) Operating Performance
b) Financial Performance c) Budgetary Position d) None of the above.
22. Allotment of Funds for Works Machinery and Rolling Stock is done through –
Answer:a)Pink Book.
a) Pink Book. b) Orange Book. c) Green Book. d) Blue Book.
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23. Allotment of Funds for Revenue expenditure are done through – Answer:a)Demand for Grants.
a) Demands for Grants. b) Pink Book. c) Exchequer Order. d) None of the above.
24. Communication of the allotment of funds by Railway Board on the budget being passed by
the Parliament is done through – Answer:a)Budget Order.
a) Budget Order b) Expenditure Order c) Re-appropriation Order d) Memorandum of expenditure
25. Expenditure relating to repairs to Staff Quarters is chargeable to Answer:– c)Demand No.
11.
a) Demand No. 5. b) Demand No. 2. c) Demand No. 11. d) Demand No. 6.
26. Expenditure relating to repairs and maintenance of permanent way and works under
revenue is chargeable to Answer:c)Demand No. 4
a) Demand No. 5 b) Demand No. 3 c) Demand No. 4 d) Demand No. 11
27. Expand DRF – Answer:b)Depreciation Reserve Fund.
a) Depreciation Relief Fund.
b) Depreciation Reserve Fund. c) Depreciation Replacement Fund. d) Departmental Reserve Fund.
28. Which of the following statements is true – Answer: b)Lower the Operating Ratio,
better is the performance.
a) Higher the Operating Ratio, better is the performance. b) Lower Operating Ratio, better is the performance. c) Operating Ratio is ratio of Revenue to Capital. d) Operating Ratio is an operational statistic.
29. The No. of digits reflected in indicating Revenue allocation in the bills/vouchers is –
Answer: d)7. a) 3
b) 5 c) 8 d) 7
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30. The last two digits in the Revenue allocation reflects – Answer: d)Primary Unit.
a) Minor Head b) Sub-Head. c) Detailed Head. d) Primary Unit.
31. DRF,DF, RRSK and SF are the different source of funding under – Answer:a)Capital
Budgeting.
a) Capital Budgeting b) Revenue Budgeting c) Exchequer Budgeting d) None of the above.
32. Works relating to Road Over Bridge and Road Under Bridge are allocated to which of the
following sources – Answer: d)SF and RRSK.
a) Capital and Capital Fund b) DRF c) DF d) SF and RRSK.
33. Which of the following statements is true – Answer: a) Re-appropriation of funds from
one work to another work under same source of funding in the same plan head is possible subject to finance concurrence and sanction of competent Authority.
a) Re-appropriation of funds from one work to another work under same source of funding in the same plan head is possible subject to finance concurrence and sanction of competent Authority.
b) Re-appropriation of funds is beyond the purview of zonal railways. c) Re-appropriation of funds is possible between all Plan Heads without the approval
of Railway Board. d) Re-appropriation of funds between source Revenue to Capital is possible.
34. In the Railway Budgeting, what does the term VPN stands for –
Answer: a)Virtual Private Network.
a) Virtual Private Network. b) Very Priority Note. c) Value Price Network. d) None of the above.
35. Re-appropriation order under Capital budgeting is generated through – Answer:a) Budget
VPN.
a) Budget VPN b) Executive Department c) Formal Letter d) None of the above
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36. In order to overcome difficulties in funding huge infrastructure Projects, Railways have identified institutional funding through – Answer: a)LIC of India.
a) LIC of India b) IDBI c) RBI d) None of the above.
37. The funding through Institutional Finance of Railways Infrastructure projects are charged
to which of the following allocation – Answer: b)EBR-IF
a) Capital b) EBR-IF c) DF d) Capital Fund
38. The works under taken by Railways on behalf of private parties is chargeable to the
following Suspense Head – Answer: b)Indian Railways Deposits.
a) Demands Payable b) Indian Railways Deposits c) Demands Recoverable d) None of the above
39. The nature of works executed under DF-1 are – Answer:a)Passenger Amenity Works.
a) Passenger Amenities Works
b) Track Renewal Works c) Road Safety Works d) None of the above
40. The reflection of allocation chargeable to works demand is done in which of the following
format – Answer: a)Source/Plan Head/Minor Head/Primary Unit.
a) Source/Plan Head/Minor Head/Primary Unit b) Plan Head/Source/Minor Head/Primary Unit c) Minor Head/Primary Unit/Source/Plan Head d) None of the above.
41 What is EMD – Answer:b)Earnest Money Deposit.
a) Earned Money Deposit
b) Earnest Money Deposit c) Equated Money Deposit d) None of the above
42. GM/DRM’s power to sanction Lumpsum Works under Passenger Amenities Plan Head –
Answer: Rs. c)2.50 crores.
a) Rs. 1.00 crore b) Rs. 2.00 crores c) Rs. 2.50 crores d) Rs. 3.00 crores.
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43. Year in which Umbrella works included in Pink Book – Answer:a)2017-18
a) 2017-18 b) 2018-19 c) 2015-16 d) None of the above.
44. In which month is the Budget presented in Parliament – Answer: b)February
a) January
b) February c) December d) April
45. Expand OOT – Answer:b)Out of Turn
a) Ongoing out Turn b) Out of Turn c) Out of Turning d) None of the above
46. Which Number denotes Plan Head Track Renewals – Answer: a)3100
a) 3100 b) 3200 c) 3000 d) 5300
47. Expand IPASS – Answer: b)Integrated Payroll Accounting System
a) Information on Payments Accounting System b) Integrated Payroll Accounting System c) Integrated Payment Accounting System d) None of the above.
48. Final Grant is allotted by Railway Board based on - Answer: b)Final Modification Estimate furnished by zonal railways
a) August Review b) Final Modification Estimate c) Budget Estimate d) Appropriation Account
49. The budget proposals of the expenditures to be met out from – Answer:b)“Consolidated Fund of India”
a) Contingent Fund of India b) Consolidated Fund of India c) Configured Fund of India d) None of the above.
50. In terms of Article 112 of the Constitution of India, the Budget is to be presented in – Answer: b)Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
a) Lok Sabha b) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha c) Rajya Sabha d) None of the above
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Sl.No. 9-- SINGLE FILE SYSTEM
SINGLE FILE SYSTEM
1. The Filing system adopted as S.C.Rly. is ----- (Ans.b)
(a) Double file system (b) Single file system c) Multiple file system (d) None of the above.
2. The principle of single file system is that ---- subject should be dealt in a file (Ans.a) (a) One subject (b)One policy (c) One Dept (d) One Railway
3. The code letter used for the major headings of the works branch is ----
(Ans.c)
(a)E (b). B (c). W (d).E
4. The code letter used for for the major headings of the Construction Works branch (Ans.b) (a)W (b)W/Con (c)W/CN (d)CON
5. In the single file system, receipts mean ---- (Ans.a)
(a) Letters received (b).Cash receipt (c). Money Value Books (d). None of the above
6. Stamping of all receipts is done by ------ (Ans.a) (a) Central Reciepts (b) Sectional Reciepts (c) Despatch Section (d) None of the above
7. Nothing is done on the ---- side of the file attatchment (Ans.a) (a) Right (b) Middle (c) Left (d) None of the above.
8. A file contains ----- parts of record
(Ans.b) (a) Three (b)Two (c)One (d) Many
9. Correspeondemce portion is filed on the ------ side
(Ans.d) (a) Right (b) Middle (c) Top (d) left
10. In a file the correspondence is referred to as
(Ans.c) (a)Paper (b) Noting (c) Folio (d) None of the above
11. Card board files are standardised as ---- (Ans.d) (a)A.310 H (b) F.305-G (c) ABCD (d). G.305-F
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12. Correspondence files marked to other offices are to be handed over to the addresse by (Ans.c)
(a)Reciept section (b)Concerned section (c)Despatch section (d) Postman
13. Correspondence in a file is numbered as (Ans.d)
(a) N-1 -- (b)M-1---- (c)E-1---- (d)F-1----
14. Kraft paper top cover files are standardised as ----- (Ans.a) (a).G.304F (b).G.305-F (c) G-306-F (d)G.303-F
15. Letters required to be delivered to divisions/ branches will be entered in a ----(Ans.c)
(a) Reciept Book (b) Log Book (c)Delivery Book (d)Hand Book
16. The code letters used for major headings of the Mechanical Branch is ----- (Ans.b) (a) E (b) M (c) MD (d) ME
17. The code letters used for major headings of Traffic branch is ----- (Ans.b) (a) C (b) T (c) O (d) None of the above
18. Every section incharge shall maintain an index register duly indicating the (Ans.a)
(a)The file Nos. (b)Clerk designation (c) No. of despatches (d) No. Of receipts
19. When a reply is issued, the office copy should be files on the ----- (Ans.c) (a)Noting side (b) Seperately (c) Folio side (d) None of the above
20. The Administrative office at Head Quarters will be known as (Ans.c)
(a) GM office (b)PCE office (c) Head Quarters office (d) PCPO office
21. Endorsement on any letter can be done only on ----- (Ans.b) (a) Left side margin (b) Right side margin (c) Top margin (d) Bottom margin
22. The no. of folios in a file is to be restricted to ----- (Ans.c) (a) 500 (b) 400 (c)300 (d) 200
23. When letters are addressed to outsiders abbreviations ------ to be used (Ans.b) (a) Should (b) Should not (c) Can be ( d) Left to the clerk
24. On the cover of each file, the name of dealing clerk/Supervisor ---- be written(Ans.a) (a) Should (b) Should not (c) Can be (d) Left to the clerk
25. Who should mend defaced files (Ans.a) (a) Dealing clerk ( b) Supervisor (c) Officers (d) Peon
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Sl.No. 10- GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. CAMTECH stands for…. A)Centre for Advanced Maintenance B) Centre for Advanced Machine Technology
Technology C) College for Advanced Maintenance D) None of the above Technology
Answer:A ) Centre for Advanced Maintenance Technology
2. RGM stands for….. A) Railway General Manager B) Railway Gage Measuring Machine C) Rail grinding Machine D) Railway grinding Machine
Answer: C) Rail grinding Machine 3. USFD stands for...
A) Universal Standard Flaw Detection B) Ultrasonic Flaw Detection C) Ultrasonic Failure Detection D) None of the above
Answer B) Ultrasonic Flaw Detection 4. RDSO stands for
A) Railway Divisional Standard Office B) Railway Designs Schedule Office C) Research Designs and Standards D) Research Designs and Standards Office Organization Answer C) Research Designs and Standards Organization
5. SSD stands for…
A) Special Setting Device B) Spring Setting Device C) Standard Setting Device D) None of the above Answer B) Spring Setting Device
6. PQRS stands for……… A) Permanent Way Quick Relaying System B) Prime Quality Relaying System C) Plassers Quick Relaying System D) None of the above Answer C) Plassers Quick Relaying System
7. IRICEN stands for…… A) Indian Railways Institute B) International Railways Institute
Of Civil Engineering Of Civil Engineering C) Indian Railways Institute D) None of the above Of Construction Engineering Answer A) Indian Railways Institute Of Civil Engineering 8. TSC stands for…..
A) Track Standards Committee B) Track Solution Committee C) Train Standards Committee D) None
Answer A) Track Standards Committee
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9. PNM stands for…… A) Permanent Negotiating Machinery B) Permanent Negotiating Members
C) Periodical Negotiating Machinery D) None Answer A) Permanent Negotiating Machinery
10. DMTR stands for…. A) Divisional Material Track Record B) Departmental Material Train Register C) Daily Material Transaction Register D) None
Answer C) Daily Material Transaction Register 11. In stores procurement, PL Number is available for a …..
A) Stocked item B) NS item C) Both D) None
Answer A) Stocked item 12. IRTMTC stands for…
A) Indian Railway Technical and B) Indian Railway Track Maintenance Mechanical Technical College Training Centre C) Indian Railway Track Machine D) None of the above Training Centre
Answer C) Indian Railway Track Machine Training Centre 13. G & SR stands for…
A) General and Standard Rules B) General and Subsidiary Rules C) General and Subsidiary Regulations D) None
Answer B) General and Subsidiary Rules 14. TRT stands for….
A) Track Renewal Train B) Track Relaying Train C) Track Recording Train D) None
Answer B) Track Relaying Train 15. TVU’s stands for…
A) Track Vehicle Units B) Train Vehicle Units C) Total Vehicle Units D) None
Answer B) Train Vehicle Units
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ESTABLISHMENT
1 No Railway Servant shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period exceeding _________. ( A ) A) 5years B) 4years C 3years D ) 2years
2 Railway Servant is entitled for credit of _________ days of LAP in a year ( B )
A) 15 B) 30 C) 25 D) 60
3 3. Leave on average pay is credited in advance in 2 instalments of 15 days each on the first day of ____ and _______ every calendar year. ( A ) A 1st Jan/1st July B 1st June / 1st Dec C 2ndJan/3rdJune D 1stJuly/5th July
4 Ordinarily the maximum leave on average pay that may be granted at a time to a railway
servant shall be _______ days. ( D ) A 50 B 70 C 120 D 180
5 In the year of appointment, LAP shall be credited to the leave account of an employee at the
rate of ____ days for each completed calendar month of service. ( C ) A 0 B 5 C 2 ½ D 4
6 A permanent/temporary Railway Servant shall be entitled to leave on half average pay of _______ days in respect of each completed year of service. ( A )
A 20 days B 30 days C 80 days D 10 days
7 The amount of leave on half average pay that can be availed of in one spell shall be limited to ________. ( B ) A 20 months B 24 months C 36 months D 90 da
8 Leave not due is debited against the ________ leave, which he is likely to earn subsequently. ( C ) A LAP B Hospital leave C LHAP D LWPD
9 Encashment of LAP upto _____________ days shall not exceed in entire career ( B ) A 30 days B 60 C 20 D 10
10 A railway servant while in service can encash LAP upto ______ days at a time ( B )
A 40 B 10 C 45 D 15
11 A female Government servant with less than 02 children may be granted maternity leave for ( C )
A 100 B 135 C 180 D 160 12. CCL for 730 days shall be granted to female railway employee for _________ ( A )
A First 2 minor children B Any number of children C Only one child D None
13. Maximum of the paternity leave is _____days and shall be availed within_____ months. ( A )
A 15days/6months B 1day/ 3months C 2days/ 5months D 11days/ 12months
14. Not less than _____days of CCL can be availed at a time. ( C )
A 3 B 10 C 5 D 11
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15. _________ leave is granted to a Railway servant who is disabled by injury inflicted or caused in
or in consequence of due performance of his official duty or in consequence of his official position. ( A )
A Work related illness and injury leave(WRILL) B LAP C LHAP D Hospital
16. Railway servant who is under WRILL is not entitled to earn __________. ( C ) A SP.CL B CL C LAP/LHAP D None of above.
17. Full pay and allowances shall be granted on account of WRILL is for _____ . ( B ) A 24 months B Entire period of Hospitalization and Six months Beyond hospitalization C 32 months D 40 months
18. Period of Study Leave for technical course shall be granted to Rly servants is ( A )
A 24 months B 12 months C 36 months D 21 months 19. Period of Study Leave for medical PG/PHD course shall be granted to Railway servants is
( C ) A 24 months B 12 months C 36 months D 21 months
20. In a year ______ days of CL is entitled to an employee appointed in an open line staff. ( A )
A. 10 days B 11 days C 15 days D None.
21. As per Hours of Employment Rule employees are classified into ________ number of categories. ( A )
A. Four B.Three C. Two D. Six 22. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of Intensive Category employee in a week?
( B ) A. 60 Hrs B. 45 Hours. C. 75 Hrs D. 54 Hrs.
23. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of Continuous Category employee in a week? ( D )
A. 60 Hrs B. 45 Hours. C. 75 Hrs D. 54 Hrs.
24. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of EI Category employee? ( C )
A. 60 Hrs in a week B. 45 Hours in a week. C. 75 Hrs in a week D. 54 Hrs. in a week 25. Standard Hours of duty of Continuous category of employees is _____ hrs in a week.
( A ) A. 48 Hrs B. 45 Hours. C. 75 Hrs D. 42 Hrs.
26. Waiting Room Bearer comes under ________________ Classification ( B )
A. Intensive category B. Essentially Intermittent C. Continuous D. Excluded 27. Weekly Hours of duty including P&C of continuous category of employees is------ Hrs.
( D ) A. 60 Hrs B. 45 Hours. C. 72 Hrs D. 54 Hrs.
28. In the case of Continuous category of employees more than ____________ hrs of duty is Long on. ( D )
A. 6 Hrs B. 12/14 Hours. C. 10 Hrs D. 8 Hrs 29. ___________ is empowered to classify the employment of Railway Servant ( B )
A. DRM B. Head of the Railways (GM) C. UPSC D. Rly Board
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30. Weekly rest for Essentially Intermittent workers is ____________ hrs including a full night in bed. ( C )
A. 22 consecutive hrs B not less than 30 consecutive hrs C. 24 consecutive hrs D. Equal to 30 consecutive hrs
31. Weekly rest of Intensive category of employees is ___________ hrs. ( B ) A.22 consecutive hrs B not less than 30 consecutive hrs
C. 24 consecutive hrs D Equal to 30 consecutive hrs
32. In which category Railway employees employed in confidential related work are Classified? ( D ) A. Essentially Intermittent B. Intensive category C. Continuous D. Exclude
33 . Maximum how many breaks can be there in a split shift? ( A )
A. Two. B. Three C. Four D. Single
34 After how many hours of rest an EI category employee can again be called for duty in a day? ( D) A. 6 Hrs B. 12/14 Hours. C. 10 Hrs D. 8 Hrs.
35 After how many hours of rest an Intensive category employee can again be called for duty
in a day? ( B ) A. 6 Hrs B. 12/14 Hours. C. 10 Hrs D. 8 Hrs.
36 Within how many days Compensatory Off can be sanctioned? ( A )
A. 30 days B. 60 days C. 45 days D. no limit
37 . Rough Assessment Job Analysis is conducted for ----------hrs? ( B ) A. 6 Hrs B. 24 Hours. C. 10 Hrs D. 8 Hrs.
38 For the Railway servants performing split duty, the number of spells of duty shall not
exceed ____and the number of breaks shall be limited to ____; ( A ) A. Three and Two B. Three and four C. Two and four D. None of the above.
39 Appeal against classification of employment can be made to________- ( C )
A. General Manager B. DRM C. Regional Labour Commissioner D. Branch Officer.
40 The document which shows employee’s daily hours of duty, weekly rest and break
between spells of duty besides other necessary particulars is called ( B ) A. Duty Chart B. Roster C. Attendance register
D. Overtime Allowance Register
41 Appointment of Regional Labour Commissioner is made through: ( C ) A. Railway Board B. Human Resource Ministry C. Labour Ministry D. Collector
42 The category of employment in which the employee does not get any rest or very little rest in his duty hours is called: ( A )
A. Intensive (B) Continuous (C) Essentially Intermittent (D) Excluded
43 Allowance that is given to Railway servant for performing duty beyond prescribed hours of employment: ( C ) (A) Travelling Allowance (B) Dearness Allowance (C) Overtime Allowance (D) None among these.
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44 Number periods of rest given to running staff in a month if one period of rest is 30 hrs: ( D )
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 43 Number periods of rest given to running staff in a month if one period of rest is 22 hrs: ( C )
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 4 44 Appeal against the orders of Regional Labour Commissioner can be made to Central
Labour Commissioner within ______ days. ( C ) (A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 180
45. What is the weekly hours of duty of the Railway servants other than Gateman ‘C’
Caretaker of Rest Houses, Chowkidar, Saloon Attendant, who have not been given Railway accommodation and their residence is 1 .0 Km away from the place of work?
( A ) A. 60 Hrs B. 45 Hours. C. 72 Hrs D. 54 Hrs.
46. Duty period between 22.00hrs to 06.00hrs is treated as Night duty and paid Night duty allowance (NDA) at hourly rate equal to_______ ( A ) A. (Basic pay+ DA)/200 B. (Basic pay+ DA)/100. C. (Basic pay)/200 D. None.
47. Which method of Job Analysis is adopted generally for correct classification of
employment? ( A ) A. Factual Job Analysis B. Rough assessment C. Issuance of certificate D. None
48 CTG is granted to the railway servant who is transferred on administrative grounds if transfer between stations is ------Kms ( A )
A. 20 kms . B. 30 kms C. 50 Kms D. 8 Kms
49 CTG shall be granted at the rate of ___________ of last months basic pay ( B ) A. 100% B. 80% C. 75% C. 180%
50. The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules came into force on _____. (A )
A. 1968 B. 1972. C 1966 D. 1978. ________form is used for placing a Railway employee under suspension. (C )
A. SF-5 B. SF-11 C SF-1 D. SF-2 51. Suspension is a ------------under D&A Rules, 1968. ( B )
A. Penalty B. Not a penalty C. Major penalty D. Minor penalty 52. Rule No.____of The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules deals with
Suspension. ( C ) A. 6 B.7 C.5 D. 1
53. ________form is used for Deemed Suspension ( D )
A. SF-5 B. SF-4 C SF-1 D. SF-2 54. Rule No. ------of The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules deals wit Penalty.
( A ) A. 6 B.7 C.5 D. 1
55. ________ form is used for imposition of Minor Penalty. (D )
A. SF-5 B. SF-4 C SF-1 D. SF-11. 56. Compulsory Retirement/Removal/ Dismissal is a ------------under D&A Rules,
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1968. (C ) A. Penalty B. Not a penalty C. Major penalty D. Minor penalty
57. ________ form is used for imposition of Major Penalty. (A )
A. SF-5 B. SF-4 C SF-1 D. SF-2 58. Major Penalty shall not be imposed on Railway Servant without conducting ___ ( B )
A. Meeting B. Inquiry. C.Election D. Selection. 59. Rule No. 9 of The Railway servants (Discipline& Appeal) Rules deals with
Procedure for imposing ___________ penalty. (A) A.Major B. Minor C. Suspension D. Revoke of Suspension.
60. ________ form is used for nomination of Inquiry Officer. (B )
A. SF-5 B. SF-7 C SF-1 D. SF-2
61. ________ form is used to appoint a Presenting Officer. ( A ) A. SF-8 B. SF-4 C SF-1 D. SF-2
62. __________________ equal to leave on half salary, will be drawn in case the employee
is under suspension. (B) A. Dearness Allowance B. Subsistence Allowance C Suspension Allowance
63 As per rule 17 of DAR rules No appeal lies against any order of an _____________
nature or of the nature of step in aid of the final disposal of a disciplinary proceedings. ( C )
A. Minor Penalty B. Major Penalty C. Interlocutory D. None
64. The appeal against an order of the Disciplinary Authority can be preferred by the Appellant in his __________ ( A ) A. Own name. B. DisciplinaryAuthority. C. Appellate Authority D. GM
65 . The appeal shall be preferred to any higher authority other than the -----------. ( A )
A. Disciplinary Authority. B. DRM C. Appellate Authority D. GM
66. Rule 25 of the RS(D&A) Rules deal with _____________. ( C ) A. Review. B. Appeal C. Revision. D. Witness
67. Rule 25.A of the RS(D&A) Rules deal with _____________. ( A ) A. Review. B. Appeal C. Explanation. D. Witness
68. An authority not lower than ___________________ shall impose the penalties of
Dismissal/Removal/Compulsory retirement. ( D ) A. Disciplinary Authority. B. GM C. Appellant Authority D. Appointing Authority
69. The disciplinary proceedings should be ------------------on the death of the charged
employee. (A) A. Closed immediately B. Continued C. Temporarily closed D. None
70. What is the time limit for submission of written statement of defence by the delinquent
Railway Servant? (D ) A. 6 B.7 C.5 D. 10
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71. If the charge is unauthorized absence, _________ can be one of the witnesses. (A )
A. Attendance Register B. Medical Certificate C. Co- employee. D. None
72. Appeal shall be entertained unless preferred within _________ days. ( D ) A. 100 B. 10 C. 30 D. 45
73. Dispute between workmen and workmen which is connected with the employment or non-
employment is called---------. ( A ) A. Industrial Dispute B. Personal Dispute C. Trade Union dispute D. All
74. Labour Courts are established under the ------------------------ ( A )
A. ID Act, 1947 B. PD Act C. Trade Union Act, 1926 D. All
75. As per ID Act 1947, "--------------" means the termination by the employer of the service of a workman for any reason whatsoever, otherwise than as a punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary action. ( A )
A. Retrenchment B. closure C. layoff D. lock out
76. Which among the following is/are true regarding Industrial Disputes? [Sec 2(k)] "Industrial dispute" means any dispute or difference. ( B ) A. 1) Between employers and workmen B. 2) Between employers and employers C. 3) Between workmen and workmen D. None A. 1, 2 B.1, 2 &3 C. 2, 3 D. none
77. In the case of any industrial establishment in which 100 or more workmen are employed On any day in the preceding 12 months, the appropriate Government, may by general or special order require the employer to constitute a ___________. ( A )
A. Works Committee B. Labour court C. Tribunal D. Arbitrators
78. As per ID Act, no person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike, in breach of contract without giving to the employer notice of strike, within before striking or within- ---------- of giving such notice. ( A ) A.6 weeks/ 14 Days B. 5 weeks/ 12 Day C. 8 weeks/ 10 days D. 3 weeks/ 3days
79. As per the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 no wage-period shall exceed --------days ( D )
A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D.30 days 80. Staff Benefit Fund (SBF) works for the benefit of ----------- Railway Employees. ( B ) A. Gazetted. B. Non Gazetted C. Trade unions D. All the above 81. Permanent Negotiating Machinery functions in __________ tier system. ( A ) A. Three B Four C. Five D. Six 82. ____ number of meetings held at Divisional PNM level. ( D ) A. Three B Four C. Five D. Six 83. ____ number of meetings held at Zonal PNM level. ( B ) A. Three B Four C. Five D. Six 84. ____ number of meetings two with each Federations will be held at Board PNM level. ( B ) A. Three B Four C. Five D. Six 85. Issues not settled in Railway Board PNM shall be referred to ___________ ( A ) A. Adhoc Tribunal B. Labour Court C.High Court D. Parliament
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86. JCM Refers to -------------- ( A ) A. Joint Consultative Machinery B. Joint Common Machinery C. Joint Collective Machinery. D. Joint Constructive Machinery.
87. In Railways, JCM function in --------- levels. ( A ) A. 2 B. 3 C.4 D.7 88. In N-JCM __________ will act as Chairman ( B ) A. Speaker of Lok Sabha B. Cabinet Secretary C. PMO D. Governor 89. Chairman of D-JCM is ____________ ( A ) A. Member Staff B. CRB C. Member Traffic D. Member Infrastructure 90. Participation in illegal strike amounts to__________ ( D ) A. Dies-non B. LWP C. LHAP D. Break in service 91. PREM refers to _____________ ( A ) A. Participation of Railway Employees in Management B. Participation of Railway Employees in Manufacturing C. Participation of Railway Employees in Maintenance D. Participation of Railway Employees in Modernization 92. PREM functions in __________ levels ( A ) A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 93. PREM meetings at Railway Board level is chaired by __________ ( A ) A. CRB B. Member Staff C. Member Rolling Stock
D. Member Traction 94. Workman Compensation Act re-named as________ ( A )
A. Employee Compensation Act B. Employer Compensation Act C. Employment Compensation Act D. none
95. EC Act provide __________ for injury/Death by accident on duty ( B ) A. Treatment B. Compensation C. Conviction D. none 96. As per EC Act there are _____&___ types of disablements ( B ) A. Small/Big B. Partial/Total C. Simple/Major D. none 97. Employer is not liable for compensation if injury is due to _____ ( D )
A. Influence of drinks/drugs B. Willful disobedience of rules C. Willful removal of safety gadgets D. all the above
98. The compensation amount shall be deposited with _________ ( C ) A. Bank B. Employees account C. Labour Commissioner D. none 99. Exgratia lumpsum compensation is paid to the families of railway employees ( A )
A. who die in harness in performance of bonafide official duties B. who die in harness in performance of non-official duties C. who die in service D. none
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100. Ex gratia Lumpsum amount paid for death occurring due to accident in course of performance of duties is ______________ ( A )
A. 25 lakhs B. 30 lakhs C. 20 lakhs D. 35 lakhs 101. Pension is paid to ________ Railway Servants on retirement from service ( A ) A. pre 1-1-2004 appointed employees B. post 1-1-2004 employees C. appointed on or after 1-1-2004 D. none 102. Pension is subject to _________ ( A ) A. Future good conduct B. Future bad conduct C. both A&B D. none. 103. Superannuation Pension is paid who retires with minimum _____ qualifying service ( A ) A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 32 104. Amount of Pension shall not be paid less than____ of last months pay at the time of
retirement with effect from 1-1-2006 (D ) A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50% 105. ____ days of both LAP & LHAP are entitled for encashment of leave at the time of
Retirement ( B ) A. 50 B. 300 C. 250 D. 125 106. Maximum amount of gratuity shall not be more than ____ ( A ) A. 20 lakhs B. 30 lakhs C. 40 lakhs D. 60 lakhs 107. Compassionate allowance shall be sanctioned to ______by competent authority( A )
A. Railway Servant who is removed/dismissed B. Railway servant on voluntary retirement
C. Superannuation D.None 108. Minimum pension as per 7th PC is _________ ( C ) A. 7000 B. 4500 C. 9000 D 3500 109. Deposit linked Insurance Scheme is linked with ---------- and paid to his ____ subject
to maximum of 60,000 (A ) A. Balance of PF of deceased Employee / family
B. service of deceased Employee / family C. nil balance of PF of deceased Employee / family D. none
110. The maximum amount of Pension that can be commuted is ___. ( B )
A.30% of pension B. 40% of pension C. 20% of pension D. 50% of pension 111. The family pension shall not be less than _________% of the minimum of the scale held by the employee at the time of retirement/death. ( B )
A. 50% B.30% C 35% D. 60% 112. The enhanced family pension shall not be less than _________% of the minimum of the
Scale held by the employee at the time of retirement/death. ( A ) A. 50% B.30% C 35% D. 60%
113. Pensioner would be entitled restore his commuted pension after expiry of ___ years
( C ) A.20 B. 12 C 15 D 16
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114. PRCP are admissible to Railway Servant retired after putting in __ years of service ( A ) A.20 B. 12 C 15 D 16 115. Railway Servant with minimum of -----of qualifying service are entitled for Voluntary Retirement, by giving three months advance notice. ( D) A. 30 years B. 10 years C. 33 years D. 20 years 116. ----- amount of Fixed Medical Allowance is paid to the opted pensioner/ Family
Pensioner per month w.e.f. 01.07.2017 ( A ) A.Rs.1000 B. Rs.3000. C. Rs.2500 D. Nil
117. Gratuity is paid @ ¼ months pay per each completed half year of the service subject to
a maximum of ------- months’ pay or Rs.20 lacs, whichever is less ( D) A. 15 times B. 12 times C. 20 times
D. 16 ½ times. 118. Period of Retention of Railway Quarters on account of missing of Railway Servant is upto __ Months. ( B )
A. 24 B 36 C. 12 D. None.
119. The validity of privilege pass_______ ( C )
(a) 1 month b) 2 months c) 5 months d) 4 months
120. The validity of Privilege Ticket Order (P.T.O)______ ( C )
(a) 1 month b) 2 months c) 5 months d) 4 months
121. The no. of privilege passes eligible for a Rly.Employee having three and a half years of service is _______ sets. ( A )
(a) 1 set (b) 2 sets (c) 3 sets (4) 4 sets
122. The no. of privilege passes eligible for a Rly.Employee having six years of service is _______ sets. ( C )
(a) 1 set (b) 2 sets (c) 3 sets (4) 4 sets
123. Maximum number of dependents can be included in a pass / PTO _______ ( A)
(a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
124. Group ‘D’ employees with service 25 years and more are eligible for ____ set of post retirement complimentary passes every year ( B)
(a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4
125. Colour of Second Class Privilege pass ( D )
(a) white b) Yellow C) Green d) Pink
126. Colour of First Class Privilege pass ( C )
(a) white b) Yellow C) Green d) Pink
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127. Following Married Daughter is eligible to be included in Privilege pass ( D )
a) Below 18Yrs b) Below 21Yrs c) any age d) not eligible
128. The following unmarried daughter is eligible to be included in Privilege pass ( C)
a) a) Below 18Yrs b) Below 21Yrs c) any age d) not eligible
129. If both Wife & Husband are employed in Railways eligibility of availing privilege passes (B ) a) both are eligible b) any one is eligible c) all free passes eligible d) all PTO eligible 130. A Government servant holding in Group 'A' post; may accept gifts from his near relatives or from his personal friends having no official dealings with him, but shall make a report to the Government, if the value of such gift exceeds [ A]
a) Rs 25000/- (b) Rs 20000/- (c) Rs 15000/- (d) Rs 10000/
131. A Government servant holding in Group 'C' post; may accept gifts from his near relatives or from his personal friends having no official dealings with him, but shall make a report to the Government, if the value of such gift exceeds [ B ]
a) Rs 10000/- (b) Rs 7500/- (c) Rs 5000/- (d) Rs 2500/- 132 A Government servant in group 'C' or 'D' shall not accept any gift without sanction of the
Government if the value thereof exceeds. [ C] a) Rs1500/- (b) Rs1000/- (c) Rs500/- (d) Rs250/-
133. When employee is kept under suspension, he is eligible for _______ [ A]
(a) Subsistence Allowance (b) Failing Allowance (c) Supervision Allowance (d) None of the above
134. An acting Rly. Servant can be allowed to act as Defence counsel? ( A ) (a) 2 No. of cases (b) 3 No. of cases (c) 4 No. of cases (d) 5 No. of cases
135. Which deduction from subsistence allowance cannot be made? (B) (a) House Rent (b) P.F. subscription (c) Income Tax (d) None 136. Which of the following deduction is prohibited from subsistence allowance? ( C )
(a) House Rent (b) Income Tax (c) Court attachment (d) Station debits 137. How many types of standard forms that are used while initiating action against any Railway employee under D&A Rules, 1968. ( C ) (a) One (b) Five (c) Eleven (d) Seven 138. Penalty of compulsory retirement, removal or dismissed from service should be imposed only by ( C ) (a) controlling officer (b) disciplinary authority (c) appointing authority (d) none 139. Under which circumstances ‘ex-parte’ inquiry can be held? (a)Charge official does not appear before I.O. more than two occasion. ( A) (b) Presenting Officer not appear before IO (c) Disciplinary Authority not appear before IO (d )None of these.
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140. During the pendency of a penalty of stoppage of pass/PTO whether promotion of a Railway staff will be affected. (a) promotion will be affected (B) (b) promotion will not be affected (c) promotion will effect after expiry of punishment (d) none of these
141. Which of the following is not termed as penalty under DAR 1968? ( C ) (a) Censure (b) Withdrawing of promotion (c) Suspension (d) None 142. Which of the following person is not allowed to be engaged as defence counsel? ( C ) (a) A serving Rly. Employee (b) A retired Rly. Employee (c) A legal petitioner (d) A trade union official 143. Which authority can make a cut in pensionary benefit ( C ) (a) GM (b) Rly.Board (c) President of India (d) None 144. Whether pension is payable in the cases of removal or dismissal of a railway servant? ( C ) (a) Pension is payable. (b) Pension is not payable. (c) Compassionate allowance can be considered. (d) None of these. 145. After retirement a charge sheet can be issued only by the ( C ) (a) GM (b) Controlling officer
(c) President of India (d) Chief Personnel Officer Justice of Supreme Court 146. Which penalty does not effect for promotion? ( A ) (a) Stoppage of pass/PTO’s (b) Reduction in post (c) Dismissed from service (d) None 147. Inquiry is not necessary when an employee ( B) (a) Intoxication of Alcohol (b) Conviction of criminal charge (c) Misuse of Rly.property (d) Misbehaviour with supervisor 148. The rate of contribution to join RELHS for Level 7 to Level 10 employees as per the 7th
Pay Commission shall be last month's basic pay drawn or _______amount whichever is lower
( A ) A.Rs.78, 000 B. Rs.30, 000. C. Rs.1, 20,000 D. 54,000
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