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DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH
Dr.Deepali S. Patil. www.dimr.edu.in
Question Bank
Specialization: HRM
Course code: 206 Course name: Employee Relations and
Labour Legislations.
Unit I- Introduction to ER
Sr.no Question Type Question Marks
1
REMEMBERING
MCQs
1.Identify the major actor of industrial relations from the
following
A. Employers
B. Unions
C. Government
D. all of the above
2. Parties to industrial relations are
A. ILO, Government, Association of employers
B. ILO, Government, IMF
C. ILO, Board of Directors, Association of employers
D. Government, Board of Directors, Association of employers
3.A proactive industrial relations programme must cover the
following decision(s)
A. Communication
B. Competence
C. Discipline and conflict
D. All of the above
4. Characteristics of Industrial Relations do not include:
A. Industrial Relations are outcome of employment
relationship in an industrial enterprise.
B. Industrial Relations promote the skills and methods of
adjustment and co-operation with each other.
C. Industrial Relations create complex rules and regulations to
maintain cordial relations.
D. Industrial Relations system creates an environment of
distrust and conflict
5. Which of the following is not a determinant factor of
industrial relations?
A. Institutional factors
2
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Dr.Deepali S. Patil. www.dimr.edu.in
REMEMBERING
B. Economic factors
C. Technological factors
D. Social stratification factors
6. Who are not the actors according to Dunlop’s framework of
industrial relations system?
A. Managers and their representatives
B. Workers and their organisations
C. Specialized government agencies
D. Communities and their associations
7.The structure of I.L.O. includes
A. an International Labour Conference
B. a Governing Body
C. an International Labour Office
D. All the above
8.Identify the major actor of industrial relations from the
following
A. Employers
B. Unions
C. Government
D. all of the above
9.Which of the following approaches assumes that
voluntary negotiations between employers and employees
are a means of settling disputes? A. Marxist approach
B. Giri approach
C. Human relations approach
D. Gandhian approach
10. What is the meaning of Employment relations?
A. Relationship between worker and workers
B. Relationship between employer and employers
C. Relationship between management and workers
D. None of the above
11.Which of the following are employers organizations (Eos) in
India?
A. AIOE
B. EFI
C. CIE
D. All of the above
2
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12. Which is a subject matter of Industrial relation?
A. Employee discipline
B. Collective bargaining
C. Communication
D. All of the above
13.Redress of employee grievances covers--------
A. Equitable wages and salary
B. Institutionalising and expeditions machinery for resolving
employee grievances
C. Positive attitude towards employee grievances and readiness
to help
D. Both B and C
14. What is main objective of Industrial relations?
A. To safeguard the inertest of labour
B. To increase productivity
C. To increase profit
D. To generate employment
1
REMEMBERING
Define employee relation and characterize objectives of employee
relation. 2
2 List out in detail factors affecting on employee relation. 2
3 Define importance of employee relation.
2
4 Describe role of ILO 2
1 UNDERSTANDING Which participants come under employee relation?
5
2 UNDERSTANDING Illustrate Dunlop’s employee relation approach.
5
3 EXPLAIN Discuss human relation and Gandhi an approaches of employee
relation.
5
1 EVALUATE Categorize approaches to the Industrial relations.
10
2 ANALYSE Point out role of ILO and its influence on legislation in India.
10
3 ANALYSE Give a comprehensive note on theoretical foundation and legal
framework of IR in India 10
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DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH
Dr.Deepali S. Patil. www.dimr.edu.in
Unit II- Mechanism for harmonious ER
1
REMEMBERING
Mechanism for harmonious ER – WPM & CB
MCQs
1. Which of the following statements about workers’
participation in Management in India is not true?
A. It is a part of the 20 point Economic programme.
B. It is provided in the Directive Principles of State Policy.
C. It is made a Constitutional provision under the 42ndAmendment
Act.
D. It is a justiceable right of the workers.
2. Which one of the following is not a machinery for settlement
of Industrial Disputes under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
A. Conciliation Officer
B. Board of Conciliation
C. Collective Bargaining
D. Labour Court
3. Which are not the characteristics of grievances? A. Factual
B.Fabricated
C.Disguised
D. Imaginary
4. Which of the following cannot be said to be an objective of
Workers’ Participation in Management?
A. To associate in decision making process of the organization.
B. To satisfy the urge of self-expression of workers.
C. To promote a conducive environment in the organisation.
D. To promote higher income and better conditions of
employment for workers.
5.Which of the following is an outcome of collective bargaining? A. Award of Labour Court
B. Award of Tribunal
C. Arbitration Award
D. Consent Award
6. Identify the functions of Joint Management Council:
A. Information sharing
B. Consultative
C. Administrative
D. All the above
7.. By which amendment the provisions of Workers’
Participation in Management was incorporated in the Indian
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2
REMEMBERING
Constitution? A. 41
B. 42
C. 43
D. 44
8.. Find out the characteristics of collective bargaining which is
not applicable;
A. It is a collective process.
B. It is a flexible process.
C. It is not a bipartile process.
D. It is interdisciplinary system.
9. Which of the following is not a mode of Workers’
Participation in Management?
A. Works Committee
B. Employee Stock Option Plan
C. Joint Management Council
D. Joint Committee for Policy Formulation
10. In which type of collective bargaining workers lose
something instead of gaining? A. Concession Bargaining
B. Coalition Bargaining
C. Productivity Bargaining
D. All the above
2
1
REMEMBERING
Define Collective bargaining. 2
2 List out essentials conditions under collective bargaining 2
3 Define workers participation in management.
2
4 Define grievance and forms of grievance.
2
1 UNDERSTANDING Explain types of collective bargaining.
5
2 UNDERSTANDING Explain types of grievances.
5
1 APPLY Explain various forms of workers participation in management.
10
2 EVALUATE
Give the process of implementation of collective bargaining in
brief.
10
3 ANALYSE Explain in detail Grievance Handling Procedures
10
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Dr.Deepali S. Patil. www.dimr.edu.in
Unit III Legislations governing Employee Relations
1
REMEMBERING
Industrial Dispute act 1947
MCQ’s
1.Match the following schedules under the I. D. Act, 1947
(a) I schedule (i) conditions of service for change of which
notice is to be given
(b) II and III schedules (ii) Labour courts and Industrial Tribunals
(c) IV schedule (iii) Industries which may be declared as
public utility services
(d) V schedule (iv) Unfair labour practices
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
B. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
C. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
D. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
2. Which of the following statements about the Grievance
Redressal Machinery given under the Industrial not true?
A. Every industrial establishment employing 20 or more
workmen shall have one or more Grievance Redressal Committee.
B. Grievance Redressal Committee can resolve any dispute
arising in the industrial establishment.
C. It is a bipartite committee with equal number of members
representing the employer and workmen.
D. There is a 45 days time limit from the date of written
application to complete the proceedings.
3. ‘Award’ under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is
(a) Not interim determination of labour court
(b) Not arbitration award under Section 10A
(c) Not final determination of labour court
(d) Not final determination of arbitration award under section 10A
A. All statements are true.
B. (a) and (d) are true.
C. (b) is true.
D All statements are wrong
4. Grievance Handing Machinery is given in
A. Industrial Disputes Act
B. Factories Act
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
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2
REMEMBERING
5. Under ID act the appropriate govt. for a company managed
by the individual shareholders is------
A. State govt.
B. Central Govt
C. Local body
D. Statutory body
6. The refusal of the employer temporarily to provide
employment is called as….
A. Strike
B. Lock out
C. Closure
D. Retrenchment
7. The refusal of the worker to do the work voluntarily is…..
A. Strike
B. Lock out
C. Closure
D. Retrenchment
8. The presiding officer of a labour court is sitting of….
A. Magistrate
B. Judge of high court
C. Judge of apex court
D. Judge of apex court
9. In case of total accident the employer in bound to submit a
report on receipt of notice from commissioner within….
A. 1 year
B. 2 year
C. 3 year
D. 4 year
10. Cessation of work by a body of persons voluntarily is
called….
A. Strike
B. Lock out
C. Lay off
D. Retrenchment
11. Work committee is to be formed if the workers are more
than… A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
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Dr.Deepali S. Patil. www.dimr.edu.in
3
REMEMBERING
12.A national tribunal shall consist of…..
A. One person only
B. Two persons
C. Three persons
D. Four persons
13. A industrial tribunal has only one person called…
A. The presiding officer
B. Chairman
C. Conciliation officer
D. Inspector
14. What are the causes of lock out?
A. Political disturbances
B. Excess of production
C. Shortage of electricity
D. Break Down Of Machinery
15. Industrial dispute is defined Under IDA1947…
A. Sec 2 (a)
B. Sec 2 (b)
C. Sec 2 (c)
D. Sec 2 (h)
16. How many days notice is to be given for notice of change
under ID act, 1947?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
17.Employee’s weapon is strike whereas employer’s weapon is -
A. Layoff
B. Retrenchment
C .Lockout
D. Closure
The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970
1.Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 applies
to every establishment/ contractor in which ____________
workmen are employed or were employed on any day of the
preceding twelve months as contract labour.
(A) Ten or more
(B) Fifteen
(C) Twenty or more
(D) Twenty-five or more
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4
5
REMEMBERING
REMEMBERING
2. The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
shall not apply to establishments in which work is of _____
(A) An intermittent or casual nature
(B) Permanent work
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
3. Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition Act), 1970 can be
classified into the category of:
A. Social Security Act
B. Industrial Relations Act
C. Welfare Act
D. Commercial Act
4. Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition Act), prohibits
use of contract labour for….. Function.
A. Financial
B. Core
C. Day to day
D. Effective
5. One the objective of Contract Labour (Regulation and
Abolition Act),is use to …… contract employees.
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Promote
D. Develop
6. Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition Act), prohibits
use of contract labour for core function. The purpose was to
ensure interest of
A. Factories
B. Contract employees
C. Permeant employee
D. Trade union
7. What are the facilities are needed for employees by an
organization as per the The Contract Labour (Regulation and
Abolition) Act 1970?
A. Drinking water
B. Washing facilities
C. Latrines & urinals
D. All of above
8. Which type of organization exempted under Contract
Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970?
2
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A. Work only if an intermittent nature
B. Work only if an casual nature
C. None of these
D. Both of these
9. What is minimum number for which canteen need to be
present by The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition)
Act 1970?
A.50
B.25
C.100
D.150
1 REMEMBERING Definition industry under Industrial dispute act 1947 2
2 REMEMBERING Define worker under Industrial dispute act 1947. 2
3 REMEMBERING Define industrial dispute under Industrial dispute act 1947 2
4 REMEMBERING List out the different types of authorities under the Industrial
Dispute Act, 1947? 2
5 REMEMBERING Define strike and Lockout. 2
6 REMEMBERING Define retrenchment, layoff closure. 2
7 REMEMBERING Define Contract Labour under Contract Labour (Regulation and
Abolition) Act 1970? 2
8 REMEMBERING In which activities Contract labour is prohibited under Contract
Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970? 2
9
REMEMBERING Is it permissible to deploy Contract labour even in Core activity
under certain conditions under Contract Labour (Regulation and
Abolition) Act 1970?
2
10 REMEMBERING Which Organisation comes under the purview of Contract Labour
(Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970? 2
11 REMEMBERING List out the amenities to be provided to the Contract Labour of
Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970? 2
1 UNDERSTANDING Summarize work committee and conciliation officer’s authorities
under Industrial Dispute act, 1947. 5
2 UNDERSTANDING Illustrate authorizes of boards of conciliation and courts of industry
under Industrial Dispute act, 1947. 5
3 UNDERSTANDING Explain authorizes of Labour court, tribunals and national tribunal
under Industrial Dispute act, 1947. 5
4 UNDERSTANDING Summarize provisions for strike and lock-outs under Industrial
Dispute act 1947. 5
5 UNDERSTANDING Illustrate provisions for Lay-off and retrenchment Industrial
Dispute act 1947. 5
6 UNDERSTANDING What are the core authorities considered under Contract Labour Act
1970? 5
7 UNDERSTANDING Explain Welfare and health provisions of contract under contract
labour act 1970. 5
8 UNDERSTANDING Evaluate registers and other records how to be maintained under
contract labour act 1970. 5
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1 UNDERSTANDING Explain power of authorities under Industrial Dispute act 1947. 10
2 ANALYSE Categorize the duties of authorities under Industrial Dispute act,
1947. 10
3 EVALUATE Describe provisions for registration of establishments employing
contract labour. 10
4 EVALUATE Evaluate the provisions of Licensing of Contractors under Contract
Labour Act 1970. 10
Unit IV- Legislation governing Unions and wages
1
REMEMBERING
Trade Union act 1926
1. A Trade Union means “An association of workers in one or
more professions carried on mainly for the purpose of
protecting and advancing the members’ economic interest in
connection with their daily work”. Identify the author:
A. Sidney and Beatrice Webb
B. J. Cunnison
C. G.D.H. Cole
D. Clyde E. Dankert
2. Who among the following advocated the Trusteeship Theory
of Trade Union? A. N.M. Lokhande
B. B.P. Wadia
C. G.L. Nanda
D. M.K. Gandhi
3.Match the following trade unions according to the year of
formation:
List – I List – II
a. AITUC i. 1947
b. CITU ii. 1948
c. INTUC iii. 1920
d. HMS iv. 1970
Codes: a b c d
A. iii iv i ii
B. ii iii iv i
C. iii i ii iv
D. i ii iii iv
4..Trade Union movement in India emerged between
A. 1920-1930
B. 1850-1870
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2
3
REMEMBERING
REMEMBERING
C. 1870-1880
D. 1930-1947
5.Match the following:
Type of the Union Characteristics
a. Craft Union i. Union of Unions
b. General Union ii. Wage earners in a particular
enterprise
c. Industrial Union iii. Any wage earner
d. Federation iv. Workers engaged in similar nature
of work
Codes: a b c d
A. iv iii ii i
B. iv ii iii i
C. iii iv ii i
D. ii iii i iv
6. According to Section 9 A of the Trade Union Act, 1926
minimum requirement about membership of a trade union is A. Seven
B. Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen.
C. Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen, whichever is
less.
D. Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen, whichever is
less, subject to minimum seen.
7. A union may claim recognition for an industry in a local
area, if it has membership of
A. 10% of the workers in that industry.
B. 15% of the workers in that area.
C. 25% of the workers of that industry in that area.
D. 30% of the workers in similar industry.
8. A person is qualified to be chosen as a member of the
executive or any other office bearer of the registered trade
union if he attained the age of
A. Fifteen years
B. Eighteen years
C. Twenty one years
D. Twenty five years
9. Not more than 50% of members of the office bears of Trade
union can be outsiders, as per provisions of legislations.
A. Industrial Dispute Act
B. Trade Union Act
2
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REMEMBERING
C. Mines Act
D.ESI Act
10. Trade union means any combination formed primarily for
the purpose of regulating the relations between A. Workmen and employers permanently
B. Workmen and workmen permanently
C. Workmen and employers, workmen and workmen, employers
and employers temporary or permanent
D. Workmen and employers, workmen and workmen, employers
and employers permanently
11. The basic principle underlying the enactment of the Trade
Unions Act is:
A. To protect interests of workers against disregard of human
elements in industries.
B. To regulate the relationship of workers and their organization by
regulating the balance of power.
C. To provide strength to workers to settle the industrial disputes.
D. To provide security to workers against the occupational hazards.
12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Trade Uni
on?
A. Is an association of employers or the employees or of the
independent workers?
B. Is relatively a permanent combination but not temporary or
casual.
C. Is an association of workers who are engaged in not securing
economic benefits for their members?
D. Is influenced by a member of ideologies.
13. Which of the following cannot be said to be a trade union in
true sense?
A. Craft Union
B. Industrial Union
C. Company Union
D. Federation
14. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. There is a statutory provision for recognition of Trade Unions
in India at the Central level.
B. There is no statutory provision for recognition of Trade Unions
in India at the Central level.
C. Code of discipline provides both for Registration and
Recognition.
D. There is provision for recognition under the Inter-Union Code of
Conduct
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15. Which one is not a right of a recognized union?
A. A right of ‘Check-off’
B. To use notice board on the premises of the undertaking
C. To appear on behalf of the union on domestic inquiry
D. inspecting the undertaking
16. The following persons are considered as insider of a
registered trade union.
A. Honorary member from the other organization.
B. Honorary member from other profession.
C. Politician who guides the registered trade union.
D. Retired and retrenched members of the trade union.
17. A Trade Union should be registered as per the law must
have
A.20% of the workers
B.150 workmen
C. Minimum 17 persons
D. None of the above
18. Identify the correct definition of industrial relations:
A Relations between or among human beings
B Relations between employer and employees as individuals
C Relations between parties in an employment context
D Collective relationship between management and trade unions
19. What duration of existence is needed as per trade union act
1926, before making application of registration.
A. 1 year
B. 2 year
C. 3 year
D.5 year
20. What aspects of trade a union does under trade union act
1926.
A. Liabilities
B. Responsibilities
C. Duties
D. All of above
The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
1. The minimum wages as fixed under the Minimum Wages
Act, 1948 must be revised at least once in _______________.
A.2 years
B.3 years
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REMEMBERING
C.5 years
D. No mentioned under the Act
2. Which of the following is not a method for fixing minimum
wages under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
A. Notification Method
B. Committee Method
]C. Bargaining Method
D. None of the above.
3. According to Section ______________ of Minimum Wages
Act 1948, employer shall pay him overtime worked.
A. Section 14(1)
B. Section 14(2)
C. Section 14(3)
D. Section 14(4)
4. Which section of the act provides for "Penalties for certain
offences"? A. Section 19
B. Section 20
C. Section 21
D. Section 22
5. Any Employer found guilty of paying less than Minimum
rates of wages shall be punished with imprisonment upto
______ and/or fine which may extend upto _______. A. 5 years; Rs. 50,000
B. 2 years; Rs. 2,000
C. 6 months; Rs. 500
D. 3 months; Rs. 50
6.Upon contravention of any provision of this act, for which no
specific penalty has been provided, the employer shall be
penalized upto an amount of Rs._______. A. 50
B. 500
C. 5000
D. 50000
7. How shall an Employer deal with the undisbursed amount
that was due to employee and could not be paid either due to
death of employee before disbursement or his whereabouts not
known?
A. The Employer shall retain such money
B. The Employer shall give it to employee's relatives
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REMEMBERING
C. The Employer shall deposit the money with prescribed authority
D. The Employer shall donate such money on behalf of the
employee
8. Which section of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 provides for
exemption of employer from liability in certain cases?
A. Section 22
B. Section 23
C. Section 24
D. Section 25
9. If an employee willingly signs a contract with his employer
for payment of wages less than fixed, would it contravene any
provision of the act?
A. Yes
B. No
10. Does the State Government have the power to add any
employment to the Schedule? A. Yes
B. No
11. If the State Government intends to add a given employment
to the Schedule, it shall be required to give a notice of not less
than _________. A. 1 year
B. 9 months
C. 6 months
D. 3 months
12. Identify Section 26 of the Act -
A. Exemptions & Exceptions
B. Contracting Out
C. Power of the Central Government to give directions
D. Power of the Central Government to make rules
13. Identify Section 30 of the Act -
A. Power of the Central Government to make rules
B. Power of the State Government to make rules
C. Power of the appropriate Government to make rules
D. Validation of fixation of certain minimum rates of wages
14. What is the maximum period in which appropriate
government shall review or revise the minimum wages?
A. 6 month
B. 1 year
C. 3 year
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REMEMBERING
D.5 year
15. When did the minimum wages come into existence?
A.15 March 1948
B.15 November 1948
C. 15 July 1948
D.15 June 1948
16. What is the maximum fee payable in rupees by employer
under section 22 A of Minimum wages act 1948?
A.250
B. 500
C. 1000
D.5000
17. What section of minimum wages act 1948 fixes minimum
piece rate and minimum time rate?
A.2(a)
B. 2(b)
C. 3(2)
D.101
18. What section of minimum wages act 1948 fixes minimum
rates of wages payable to employee in an employment?
A.7
B. 6
C. 5
D.3
2
1 REMEMBERING Define Trade union act 1926? 2
2 REMEMBERING Define Trade dispute under trade union act 1926? 2
3 REMEMBERING What are the provisions for registration of trade union? 2
4 REMEMBERING What are the types of trade union? 2
5 REMEMBERING Who can get registered under the trade union act? 2
6 REMEMBERING What are the rights of registered trade union act? 2
7 REMEMBERING Define minimum wages act 1948. 2
8 REMEMBERING What is scheduled employment under minimum wages 1948? 2
9 REMEMBERING What is the object of Minimum Wages Act 1948? 2
10 REMEMBERING What are the components of minimum wages act 1948? 2
1 UNDERSTANDING
Explain the following term under the trade union 1926.
a)Appropriate government
b)Executive
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c) Registered trade union
d) Trade dispute
2 UNDERSTANDING Examine registration of trade union under trade union act, 1926. 5
3 UNDERSTANDING Illustrate rights of registered trade unions of Prevention of Unfair
Labour Practices Act 1971. 5
4 UNDERSTANDING Explain Principle privileges of a registered trade union of
Prevention of Unfair Labour Practices Act 1971. 5
5 UNDERSTANDING Illustrate authorities and punishments under Prevention of Unfair
Labour Practices Act 1971. 5
6 UNDERSTANDING Explain Procedure for fixing and revising minimum wages of
minimum wages act 1948. 5
7 UNDERSTANDING Explain Maintenance of registers and records of minimum wages
act 1948. 5
8 UNDERSTANDING Illustrate on Wages of worker who works for less than normal
working day under minimum wages act 1948 5
1 EVALUATE Critically examine the rights and liabilities of registered trade union
under the trade union act, 1926. 10
2 ANALYZE Describe Unfair labour practices on the part of Employers and
Employees under Prevention of Unfair Labour Practices Act 1971 10
3 EVALUATE Explain Procedure for fixing and revising minimum wages of
minimum wages act 1948. 10
4 EVALUATE Explain Fixing hours for a normal working day minimum wages act
1948. 10
Unit V- Legislation governing working
1
REMEMBERING
Factory act, 1948
MCQ’s
1. Which of the following is not a statutory welfare facility
under the Factories Act, 1948?
(A) Crèche
(B) Canteen
(C) Transport
(D) First-Aid Boxes
2.To avoid overcrowding the space provided for each worker
under the Factories Act, 1948 is
(A) 12 cubic metres for factories built before 1948 and 14.2cubic
meters for those built after 1948
(B) 10 cubic metres for factories built before 1948 and 14.2 cubic
meters for those built after 1948
(C) 9.9 cubic metres for factories built before 1948 and 14.2 cubic
meters for those built after 1948
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REMEMBERING
(D) 9.9 cubic meters for factories built before 1948 and 14.4 cubic
meters for those built after 1948.
3. Under the Factories Act, 1948 the working hours of 8 per day
and 48 per week
(A) Include spread over.
(B) Are minimum working hours
(C) Include rest interval period.
(D) Do not include rest interval period.
4. Which of the following statements relating to the Factories
Act is not true?
(A) There is a provision in the Act relating to the constitution of a
Managing Committee for the management of the canteen.
(B) There is a provision in the Act regarding the setting up of a
safety committee.
(C) The Act does not have a provision relating to the setting up of
welfare committee.
(D) The Act has a provision relating to the establishment of a
Grievance Committee.
5. Which part of the definition of ‘worker’ under the Factories
Act is incomplete?
(A) A person employed directly or by or through any agency.
(B) With or without the knowledge of the principal employer.
(C) For remuneration
(D) In the manufacturing process
6. Who is an adult as per Factories Act, 1948?
(A) Who has completed 18 years of age
(B) Who is less than 18 years
(C) Who is more than 14 years
(D) Who is more than 15 years
7. The provision for cooling water during hot weather should be
made by the organization if it employees ................... or more
employees.
(A) 200
(B) 250
(C) 300
(D) 150
8. Who is an Adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948?
(A) Who has completed 17 years of age?
(B) who is less than 18 years
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REMEMBERING
(C) who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years.
(D) None of these
9. Crèche is to be provided if______ or more lady employees are
engaged.
(A) 25
(B) 32
(C) 30
(D) 40
10.Section 2 (K) of the Factories Act 1948 Says about
(A) Manufacturing Process
(B) Factory
(C) Worker
(D) None of these
11. If the factory employs more than 1000 Workers, they should
appoint qualified —— to carry out the prescribed duties
(A) Safety Officer
(B) Welfare officer
(C) Security officer
(D) None of these
12. Section 41- G of the Factories Act 1948 says about
(A) Fencing of machineries
(B) Facing of machineries
(C) Work on near machinery in motion
(D) Workers participation in safety management
13.The occupier of a Factory has to submit the document on or
before——— of every year to renewal of a license for a factory.
(A) 31st October of every year.
(B) 30th June of every year
(C) 31st March of every year
(D) 31st December of every year
14. The renewal application for a license submitted by a factory
after December 31st of the every year shall pay the fine amount.
(A) 10 % of the license fee
(B) 20% of the license fee
(C) 30 % of the license fee
(D) None of these.
15. Where——————or more workers are employed in a
factory, then there shall be a Safety Committee in the factory.
(A) 100 or more workers
(B) 150 or more workers
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REMEMBERING
(C) 200 or more workers
(D) 250 or more workers
16.The annual return under the Factories Act shall be
submitted to Inspector of Factories on or before
(a) 31st January
(b) 31st December
(c) 30th April
(d) 31st March
17. "Factory" means any premises including the
precincts whereon --------- or more workers are working, or
were working on any day of the preceding twelve months, and
in any part of which a manufacturing process is being carried
on with the aid of power.
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 15
(D) 25
18.Which section of the Factories Act deals with appointment of
Welfare Officers?
(A) Section 45
(B) Section 49
(C) Section 51
(D) Section 55
19. Leave with wages is allowed for employees if they work for
............ days in a month.
(A) 15
(B) 25
(C) 20
(D) 28
20. The Factories employing more than 1000 workers are
required to submit their plan for approval to (A) Deputy Chief Inspector of Factories
(B) Joint Chief Inspector of Factories
(C) Chief Inspector of Factories
(D) Additional Chief Inspector of Factories.
21.To close down a factory, the occupier has to give ............
days notice to the authorities.
(A) 30 Days
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REMEMBERING
(B) 60 Days
(C) 90 Days
(D) 14 Days
22. No woman shall be required or allowed to work in any
factory except between the hours
(A) 6 A.M. and 7 P.M.
(B) 5 A.M. and 6 P.M.
(C) 7 A.M. and 10 P.M.
(D) 6 A.M. and 10 P.M.
23.Which Section of the Factories Act 1948 defines 'Adult'
(A) Section2(b)
(B) Section2(d)
(C) Section2(a)
(D) Section 2(f)
24. Which Section of the Factories Act 1948 defines 'factory'
(A) Section2(h)
(B) Section2(k)
(C) Section2(m)
(D) Section 2(n)
25. As per Factories Act 1948, who shall be an Inspector for his
district
(A) Tahasildar
(B) Sub Divisional Magistrate
(C) Labour Officer
(D) District Magistrate
26. What is the maximum number of hours in a week that an
adult worker is allowed to work for
(A) 35 hours
(B) 40 hours
(C) 45 hours
(D) 48 hours
27.Fencing of machinery in use or in motion is not obligatory
under Section 21 of the Factories Act, 1948.Statementis (A) True
(B) False
(C) True in respect of factories having more than 1000 workers
(D) False in respect of factories having more than 1000 workers
28.Which of the following provisions do not come under the
'Welfare Chapter' in the Factories Act, 1948
(A) Washing Facilities
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REMEMBERING
(B) Drinking Water
(C) Facilities for sitting
(D) First -aid appliances
29. The annual leave with wages cannot be availed for more
than ......... times during any year
(A) 3 times
(B) 2 times
(C) 6 times
(D) 4 times
Maternity benefit Act, 1961
1. As per Maternity Benefit Act, the maximum period for which
any woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit shall be
(A) twenty six weeks
(B) twelve weeks
(C) four months
(D) sixteen weeks
2. The condition of 80 days of employment in the 12 months
immediately preceding the date of benefit has been made an
eligibility condition for getting (A) Maternity Benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act
(B) Disablement benefit under the ESI Act
(C) Gratuity under the Payment of Gratuity Act
(D) Sickness benefit under the ESI Act
3. The Royal Commission on Labour examined which of the
two States’ Maternity Benefit Acts and recommended
enactment of similar laws all over the country?
(A) Bombay and Madhya Pradesh
(B) Madras and Mysore
(C) Bihar and Bengal
(D) Punjab and Assam
4. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the Maternity
Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
(A) Together can be applicable.
(B) The Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State Insurance
Act can be applicable at a time.
(C) The Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Employees State
Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
(D) If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit
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REMEMBERING
Act are applicable, the Employees State Insurance Act is not
applicable.
5. Assertion (A): Provisions of Employees’ compensation Act
and Maternity Benefit Act do not apply to all industries.
Reason (R): Employees’ Compensation Act is comprehensive
social security legislation.
(A) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(B) (A) is right, but (R) does not related to the (A).
(C) (A) and (R) are right, and (R) validates the (A).
(D) (A) and (R) are wrong.
6. In the maternity act, an inspector is appointed under which
section? (A) Section 14
(B) Section 2
(C) Section 10
(D) Section 15
7. No contribution is required for getting benefit under which
of the following legislations?
(A) Maternity Benefit Act
(B) Employees’ Compensation Act
(C) Both under (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
8. Which section of the act states the conditions for eligibility of
benefits?
(A) Section 18
(B) Section 5
(C) Section 10
(D) Section 8
9. Till what age of the child will a mother get 2 nursing breaks
in the course of her daily work? (A)12 months
(B) 6 months
(C)18 months
(D)15 months
10. Under the Maternity Benefit Act, a woman employee would
get a medical bonus of:
(A) Rs. 3000
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REMEMBERING
(B) Rs. 3500
(C) Rs. 4000
(D) Rs. 4500
11. Section 10 discusses about the leave for illness arising out of
pregnancy.
(A) True
(B) False
12. State the objectives of the act?
(A) To regulate the employment of women workers in such
establishments for certain period before and after child birth.
(B) Application of act in every establishment being a factory, mine
or plantation
(C) To provide satisfactory conditions to expectant women
(D). All of the above
13. As per section 18, if an employer discharges or dismisses a
woman during or on account of her absence from work during
the maternity leave, then what is the punishment faced by an
employer?
(A) 3 months or more and will extend to 1 year
(B) 6 months or more and will extend to 2 years
(C) 3 months or more and will extend to 2 years
(D) None of the above
14. As per section 9, for how many weeks a woman is entitled
for leave in case of a miscarriage?
(A) 3 weeks
(B) 9 weeks
(C) 1 week
(D) 6 weeks
15. State true or false:
Section 17 describes the obligations of the employer under the
maternity benefit act.
(A)True
(B) False
16. A woman employee is entitled to which of the following
benefits under Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?
(A) Medical bonus
(B) Leave with wages operation
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REMEMBERING
(C) Leave for miscarriage
(D) Nursing break
The Sexual harassment of women at workplace(Prevention,
prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013
1.The technique of mentally converting negative aspects into
positive ones by looking for the positive elements in a situation
is referred to as…..
(A) Confrontation & problem solving
(B) Appealing to smart party
(C) Disarming the opposition
(D) Cognitive restructuring
2. Incidents of harassment are made public within the
organization to keep employees informed.
(A) False
(B) True
3. Sexual harassment behaviour will ultimately stop or go away
if it is ignored
(A) False
(B) True
4. Sexual harassment is------ sexual advances, requests for
sexual favours, and/or other verbal, visual or physical conduct
of a sexual nature.
(A) Obvious
(B) Unwarranted
(C) None of these
(D) Unwelcome
5. Sexual harassment is not limited to physical contact. It can
occur any time if individual feels uncomfortable with other
person’s approach, comment and discussion.
(A) False
(B) True
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6. Sexual harassment at workplace is an entire women issue
(A) False
(B) True
7. All of the following are suggested ways of dealing with sexual
harassment except:
(A) Confront the harasser in writing
(B) Speak up before it happens
(C) ignore the harassment, it is part of office politics
(D) Keep concise yet accurate notes of incidents
8. The most highly recommended way of resolving conflict is by
___________ and _________.
(A) Aggression, compromising
(B) Passiveness, negotiation
(C) Assertiveness, mediation
(D) Confrontation, problem solving
9. The formal process of filing a complaint and resolving a
dispute within an organization is the _________ _________.
(A) Complaint procedure
(B) Grievance procedure
(C) Discipline procedure
(D) Bargaining procedure
10. All of the following are considered to be sources of
workplace conflict except:
(A) Family friendly work related benefits
(B) Competing work and family demands
(C) Limited resources
(D) Generation gap and personality clashes
1 REMEMBERING What is Factories act 1948? 2
2 REMEMBERING Who is a worker under factories act 1948? 2
3 REMEMBERING What are the conditions provided for working hours of adult under
the factory act 1948?
2
4 REMEMBERING What are the duties of occupier? 2
5 REMEMBERING What is shop and establishment act and who is applicable for it? 2
6 REMEMBERING Define Daily and weekly hours of work in establishment and
interval for rest under shop and establishment act 1947.
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7 REMEMBERING Define wages for overtime under shop and establishment act 1947. 2
8 REMEMBERING Define maternity benefit act 1961. 2
9 REMEMBERING What is the minimum number of days that a woman should have
worked in an establishment before claiming the maternity benefit?
2
10 REMEMBERING How many weeks a woman is entitled for leave in case of
miscarriage?
2
11 REMEMBERING What is medical bonus under Maternity Benefit Act? 2
12 REMEMBERING Mention any two latest amendments under Maternity Benefit Act. 2
13 REMEMBERING Definitions of sexual harassment under Sexual harassment of
women at workplace Act, 2013.
2
14
REMEMBERING What is the tenure of the members of the Internal Complaint
Committee under Sexual harassment of women at workplace Act,
2013?
2
15 REMEMBERING What is the time limit of inquiry under Sexual harassment of
women at workplace Act, 2013?
2
1 UNDERSTANDING Summarize in detail health provisions under factories act 1948 5
2 UNDERSTANDING Classify provisions of welfare under factories act 1948. 5
3 UNDERSTANDING Explain provisions working hours under factories act 1948. 5
4 UNDERSTANDING Illustrate on prohibition of employment of young children under
factories act 1948. 5
5 UNDERSTANDING Explain welfare provisions under Maharashtra Shops &
Establishment Act, 2017. 5
6 UNDERSTANDING Summarize opening and closing hours, hours of work, interval for
rest Maharashtra Shops & Establishment Act, 2017. 5
7 UNDERSTANDING Explain wages for overtime and weekly off under Maharashtra
Shops & Establishment Act, 2017. 5
8 UNDERSTANDING Illustrate leave with pay and payment of wages under Maharashtra
Shops & Establishment Act, 2017. 5
9 UNDERSTANDING Explain latest amendments of Maternity benefit Act, 1961. 5
10 UNDERSTANDING
Illustrate complain mechanism under the Sexual harassment of
women at workplace(Prevention, prohibition and Redressal) Act,
2013
5
11 UNDERSTANDING
Explain duties of employer under The Sexual harassment of
women at workplace(Prevention, prohibition and Redressal) Act,
2013.
5
1 EVALUATE Describe in detail health, safety and welfare provisions under
factories act 1948. 10
2 ANALYSE Explain annual leave with wages of factories act 1948. 10
3 ANALYSE Explain registration of establishments under Maharashtra Shops &
Establishment Act, 2017 10
4 EVALUATE
Describe Constitution of Internal Complaints Committee of The
Sexual harassment of women at workplace(Prevention, prohibition
and Redressal) Act, 2013
10