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प्रगतिपथ PRAGTIPATH (KEY TO PROMOTION) (Updated upto 31

st March 2017)

(For Internal Circulation only)

PREPARED BY

TEAM SBLC PANCHKULA

FOREWOD

It gives me immense pleasure to bring out a Promotion Book ‘PRAGTIPATH’ updated

up to 31st March, 2017 for the benefit of our colleagues who are going to appear in exams for

their promotion to higher grades. Our Bank has always been in the forefront of updating the

skills, knowledge gaps etc. of our employees through various training programs.

‘PRAGTIPATH’ is an initiative of SBLC Panchkula to enhance the knowledge of our

employees in different segments of Banking. While we have a ocean of information

available on various sites, this Book shall act as a ready reckoner for our employees for

updating their knowledge.

I appreciate the good effort made by TEAM SBLC, PANCHKULA for taking this initiative.

I hope this Book will be of great help to all the aspirants. Let success be with our

readers through out their career.

(Anil Kishora)

Chief General Manager State bank of India Chandigarh circle

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTRE

Sector-14, PANCHKULA

PHONE: 0172-4569401

CARE

While utmost care has been taken to incorporate the latest instructions/information on

various topics, based on Circulars issued by the Bank yet this book is not a substitute for the

various Circulars issued from time to time. Hence the readers are requested to be guided by

the circulars also, issued by the Bank. Despite our best efforts to update the Book there

may be some shortcomings left which please guided/ rectified by refering to the relevant

Circulars and we welcome your support/ suggestions for rectification thereof and please

escalate your amendments/ suggestions through our email id : [email protected].

( TEAM SBLC )

mailto:[email protected]

प्रगतिपथ PRAGTIPATH

(KEY TO PROMOTION) (Updated upto 31st March, 2017)

INDEX

Chapter

No.

Name of the Chapters

Page

Number

1 Policy Guidelines 1

2 Annual Results 3

3 KYC , AML & FATCA 6

4 General Awareness 15

5 Legal Aspects of Banking 27

6 Cash Deptt. Procedures 47

7 Govt. Business 65

8 Safe Deposit Lockers 73

9 Disposal of Assets of Deceased Constitutents 77

10 Remittance & Collection 83

11 Inspection & Audit 90

12 P-Segment Liability Products 96

13 P-Segment Assets Products 110

14 SME Liability Products 147

15 Advances General Matters 157

16 Govt. Sponsored Schemes 170

17 SME Advances & Asset Products 175

18 Agriculture Advances 220

19 NPA Management 270

20 Core banking Solutions (CBS) 286

21 Technology Products 312

22 Cross Selling- Mutual Fund, SBI Life 356

23 Information Security System 390

24 International Banking 404

WITH BEST WISHES FROM TEAM SBLC PANCHKULA Page | 1

POLICY GUIDELINES 2016-17 1. The P-Segment Lending must focus on?

a. Achieving targets anyhow b. Risk free or minimal risk business c. Reducing existing NPAs only d. All the above

2. What is the target for increasing your Net Interest Income?

a.12 % b. 26 % c. 27 % d. 28 %

3. is the market leader in Auto Loans?

a. ICICI Bank b. SBI c. HDFC d. Axis Bank

4. In terms of RBI Road map on Basel III, the Banks are required to maintain CAR _____ by March 2019.

a. 9 % b. 12.5 % c. 11.5 % d. 13 %

5. In education loan the focus will be ….

a. Premier institutions like IITs, IIMs etc b. Private Schools c. More Lucrative bigger ticket business d. No specific area

6. is the market leader in Home Loans

a. ICICI Bank b. SBI c. HDFC d. Axis Bank

7. Data Ware House is being utilized for? a. Data Mining b. CRM c. Customer One view d. All the above

8. Penetration of “Xpress Credit” is more in?

a. Metro Branches b. Urban Branches c. Semi-Urban Branches d. RUSU Branche 9. Factors which result in increased Profit per employee are ?

a. Improved Processes b. Lesser Staff c. Doing more business in a cost effective manner d. All of the above

10. We aim to be within the first ------- Banks in the World.

a. 10 b. 15 c. 25 d. 35


ANSWERS POLICY GUIDELINES 2016-17

1 b 6 b

2 a 7 d

3 b 8 d

4 c 9 d

5 c 10 c


Annual and Quarterly Results Highlights Figures in Crores

Description FY 2016 December 2016

Operating Profit 43,258 9,598

Net Profit 9,951 1,115

Loan Loss Provisions 33,307 7,645

Commission on Govt. Business 1,975 473

Yield on Advances (YOA) 10.00% 9.46%

Cost of Funds (COF) 6.31% 5.94%

Net Interest Margin (NIM) 2.96% 2.78%

Earnings Per Share (EPS) 12.98 13.11

Book Value Per Share 176.60 187.68

Return on Assets (ROA) 0.46% 0.41%

Return on Equity (ROE) 7.57% 7.46%

CASA Ratio 43.84 46.55

Housing Loan Market Share 25.52% 25.94%

Auto Loans Market Share 25.21% 26.60%

Tier 1 Capital 9.92% 9.64%

Tier 2 Capital 13.12% 12.45%

Gross NPA 98,173 1,08,172

Gross NPA Ratio 6.50% 7.23%

Net NPA 55,807 61,430

Net NPA Ratio 3.81% 4.24%


Fresh Slippages 64,198 20,692

Provision Coverage Ratio (PCR) 60.69% 65.23%

Buddy Registrations 28.91 Lakh 52.74 Lakh

Mobile Banking Customers 2.70 Cr 3.60 Cr

SBI Pay Launched on 23rd Nov. 2016

SBI Pay Registrations 2 Lakh by end Jan 17

Number of Group ATMs (Fig. in brackets denotes Market Share)

59,108 (28.94)

Number of Debit Cards 21.22

(29.15)

Number of PoS Terminals 3.36 Lakh

(22.72)

Share of INB Transactions in total Transaction (Bank)

18.65%

Share of PoS Transactions in total Transaction (Bank)

7.89%

Share of MB Transactions in total Transaction (Bank)

3.28%

Share of Kiosk Transactions in total Transaction (Bank)

8.07%

Share of ATM/CDM Transactions in total Transaction (Bank)

39.43%

Branch Transactions 22.68%

SBI Online is India’s most visited banking site

1st Rank

SBI Online is World’s most visited banking site

5th Rank

Facebook 1st Rank

(84.92 Lakh)

You Tube 1st Rank

(30.69 Mio Views)

Linked-in 1st Rank

(3.72 Lakh)

Pinterest 1st Rank

(2611)

Twitter 2nd Rank

(13.11 Lakh)

Instagram 2nd Rank

(2.17 Lakh)


SBI Life (Market Share in Private Market) 21.1%

SBI Life (Market Share in Total) 6.00%

Awards “Life Insurance co. of the year”

“Bancassurance Leader Life Insurance (Large Category)

SBI Capital Markets Ltd.

Ranked No. 1 in FY 16 in offer for sale deals by number of issues.

Ranked No. 1 in Asia Pacific Project Finance Financial Advisor by Dealogic

SBI Funds Management Pvt. Ltd.

Ranked 5th terms of AUM (Assets Under Management)

Market Share 8.33%

11.60% market share in SIPs

SBI Cards

4 million + cards base.

Industry Ranking 2nd.

“Simply Click” card awarded best card program @ customer fest 2016 & Mastercard innovations award’16.

International Gartner award for new CRM tool.

SBI General

No. 1 Bancassurer in the industry.

2nd position in PA business

iAAA rating from ICRA for claim paying ability.

SBI Awards & Accolades

Guinness Book of World Records recognized Bank’s Contribution for the PAHAL (DBTL), GOI, Scheme for which SBI is sole sponsor Bank.

Best Bank in India by Global Finance, New York

Best Large Bank and Banker of the Tear by Business World, Mumbai.

Best Analytics Award by Finnoviti, Mumbai.

“Hellen Keller Award 2015 for Provision of Employment of differently abled people”.

Best Central PSU-Financial Service by 7th India Pride Awards.

IDBRT Best Bank Award for (i) Electronic Payment Systems & (ii) Managing IT Infrastructure.

Gartner Cool Business Awards

Most Innovative Digital Customer Service – sbiINTOUCH Branch.

Most Innovative New Digital Product – SBI Quick.


KYC & AML

1. KYC, AML & CFT guidelines are issued under......... act.

a. KYC Act b. PMLA 2002 c. BR Act d. NI Act

2. FATF (Financial Action Task Force on Money Laundering) also known as GAFI (Grouped action financier) has its headquarters at

a. New Delhi b. London c. Paris d. Geneva

3. Section 12 of PMLA places the following obligations on the Bank except....

a. Maintaining a record of prescribed transactions & preserving records thereof. b. Furnishing information of prescribed transactions to the specified authority. c. Verifying and maintaining records of the identity of its clients and identifying the beneficial owners, if any, of such clients d. None of the above

4. Under KYC/AML/CFT/Fraud prevention measures, observance of KYC compliance and fraud prevention day is observed on.

a. 1st August b. 5th August c. 1st September d. 5th September

5. The Anti-Money Laundering Cell of the Bank has been established at ---------_

a. Jaipur b. Nagpur c. Bhubaneswar d. New Delhi 6. In case the PoS transaction amount is Rs…....... and above, the merchant is required to obtain the copy of PAN in case of domestic card transaction.

a. 20000 b.150000 c. 100000 d. 50000

7. Smurfing, Layering and Integration are three types of …..

a. Money laundering Activity b. Money tracking Activity c. Source tracking Activity d. Use tracking Activity

8. The Software used for generation of Suspicious Transactions Report is known as:

a. E-KYC b. AMLOCK c. E-BANCS d. E-AML


9. Which of the following is the key element of KYC/AML/CFT?

a. Customer Identification & Acceptance b. Customer Identification & Transaction Monitoring c. Customer Acceptance, Customer Identification, Risk Categorization & Monitoring of transaction d. Customer Acceptance & Risk Management 10. "Controlling ownership interest" means ownership of or entitlement to more than ___percent of shares or capital or profits of a company.

a. 50 b. 10 c.15 d. 25

11. Which is not one of the documents from the "Officially Valid Documents" list prescribed by the RBI.

a. Post office ID b. PAN Card c. DL d. Aadhar

12. Facilities/Restrictions in 'Small account' includes

a. The aggregate of all credits in a financial year does not exceed rupees one lakh b. The aggregate of all withdrawals and transfers in a month does not exceed rupees ten thousand c. The balance at any point of time does not exceed rupees fifty thousand. d. All the above

13. For Low risk customers, Customer Identification data should be updated once in years.

a. 3 b. 4 c. 10 d. 8

14. Branches may open …...... bank account in favor of foreign students studying in India.

a. SB b. NRO c. CA d. NRE

15. As per the Simplified KYC guidelines, the current limits for balance in Small Deposit Accounts should not exceed.......

a. Rs.20,000 b. Rs.50,000 c. Rs.1,00,000 d. Rs.2,00,000

16. Counterfeit Currency Reports should be submitted to: -

a. LHO KYC Deptt b. Controlling Office c. FIU-IND d. None of the above


17. Politically exposed persons are:

a. Individuals who are or have been entrusted with prominent public function in a foreign country b. MLAs and MPs c. Individuals related to a political party d. All the above 18. Cash Transaction Reports (CTRs) are required to be compiled by branches and submitted to Controllers for onward transmission to FIU-IND at intervals. a. Weekly b. Fortnightly c. Monthly d. Bimonthly 19. Cash withdrawals and deposits for Rs....... lacs and above in deposit, cash credit and overdraft accounts to be recorded in a separate register and reported to controlling office every month.

a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

20. As per the PML Act. all documents pertaining to customers' KYC compliance and transactions need to be preserved, after cessation of relationship for years.

a. 10 b. 5 c. 15 d. 20

21. Ceiling for remittance of funds by IOI against cash is:

a. Less than Rs.50000 b. Less than Rs.10000 c. Less than Rs.20000 d. Less than Rs.100000

22. Which of the following's is/are High Risk Category accounts/customers? a. Politically Exposed person of foreign origin b. Bullion Dealers/jewellers c. Non Resident Customers (NRIs) d. All of the above

23. Individuals with total deposits of Rs.1.50 Crores or more are categorised as.... risk customers.

a. HIGH b. MEDIUM c. LOW d. NONE of these

24. The term CFT stands for: -

a. Combating Financial Terrorism b. Criminal Fund Transfer c. Criminal Financial Transactions d. Codes For Transactions


25. Individual Account holder with Credit/debit summations of Rs.2.00 crores & more per annum are categorised as........ risk customers.

a. HIGH b. MEDIUM c. LOW d. NONE of these

26. For High & Medium Risk categories of customers, periodicity of updation of personal information/ data is at least once in …....... year(s).

a. 2&5 b. 2&8 c. 3&5 d. 5&10

27. New accounts of individuals opened under Low Risk while on boarding, during first ….days of opening the account are classified as medium risk.

a. 90 b. 180 c. 60 d. 365

28. Non - Individual accounts with credit/debit summations of Rs.1.5 crore p. a. is classified as …..risk account.

a. HIGH b. LOW c. MEDIUM d. ANYONE of these

29. In case of Trust Account, KYC compliance will be ensured by obtaining verified copies of …

a. Registration certificate

b. Trust deed c. An officially valid document in respect of the person holding power of attorney to

transact on its behalf d. All of the above.

30. Extra precautions to be taken in accounts of fiduciary nature include(s):

a. Obtaining evidence of identity of intermediaries

b. Verifying identity of the beneficiaries c. Enquiring into the details of the nature of the Fiduciary Relationship d. All the above.

31. Bank has decided to fix following thresholds, subject to review from time to time, for filtering transactions and generating STR alerts for …........customer accounts. a. Low Risk: 50.00lac b. Medium Risk: 30.00 lac c. High Risk:10.00lac d. All of these


32. "Non-Profit Organization" (NPO) means

a. Any entity or organization that is registered as a trust or a society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 b. A company registered under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 c. Both a & b d) None of the above

33. Accounts of Non face to face customers can be opened by a bank on the basis of ID & Residential proof certified by: a. Notary Public b. Official of Indian Embassy c. Foreign Bank Branch d. Any of the above

34. .......shall be the Principal Officer for AML/CFT matters who shall be responsible for implementation of and compliance with this policy in our Bank. a. Chief General Manager (AML/CFT) b. General Manager (AML/CFT) c. Dy General Manager (AML/CFT) d. Asst General Manager (AML/CFT)

35. Which of the following transactions are exempted from KYC guidelines? a. Customer to Customer domestic fund transfer b. Cross Boarder Customer to Customer electronic funds transfer c. Inter Bank funds transfer where both the senders and receivers are Banks. d. None of the above

36. Where the client is a trust, the Bank, shall identify the beneficial owners of the client and take reasonable measures to verify the identity of such persons, through the identity of the settler of the trust, the trustee, the protector, the beneficiaries with …... or more interest in the trust. a. 25 b. 15 c. 10 d. 5

37. Clubs are entitled to open SB A/C if

a. Income of Club is exempted from Tax b. Farmer's Club as Vikas Volunteer Vahini c. Both a & b d. None of a & b

38. The maximum amount to be accepted in Term Deposits on behalf of a minor, without production of guardianship certificate, will be restricted to Rs. ….....

a. 2lac b. 1lac c. 0.5 lac d. 5lac


39. Branches are to rely upon the Guardianship Certificate issued by...........for the purpose of opening / operating accounts of persons with mental disabilities.

a. The District Court under Mental Health Act

b. The Local Level Committees under Mental Health Act

c. Either a or b d. Only a

40. Sale of gold coins of value Rs............. and above against cash is not permitted. a. 50000 b. 20000 c. 100000 d. 150000

KEYS TO KYC & AML

1 2 3 4 5

b c d a a

6 7 8 9 10

d a b c d

11 12 13 14 15

a d c b b

16 17 18 19 20

c a c b b

21 22 23 24 25

a d a a a

26 27 28 29 30

b b b d d

31 32 33 34 35

d c d b c

36 37 38 39 40

b c a c a


FATCA & CRS

1. FATCA stands for------- a. Foreign Account Tax Compliance Account b. Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act c. Foreign Account Transaction Compliance Account d. Foreign Account Transaction Compliance Act

2. CRS Stands for---- a. Common Reporting Structure b. Common Receipt Structure c. Common Reporting Standard d. Combined Reporting Structure 3. In FATCA India has signed agreement with

a. USA b. UK c. France d. Australia

4. FACTA applicable to account -----

a. Deposit Accounts b. Loan Accounts

c. Both a & b d. None of a & b

5. Threshold limit for low value account in FATCA

a. Account having balance > $10000 to $1 Million b. Account having balance > $30000 to $1 Million c. Account having balance > $50000 to $1 Million d. Account having balance > $100000 to $1 Million

6. What are the FATCA pre-existing account

a. Account as on 31/08/2015 b. Account as on 30/09/2015 c. Account as on 30/06/2014 d. Account as on 31/08/2014


7. Threshold limit for high value account in FATCA

a. Account having balance > $1 Million b. Account having balance > $2 Million c. Account having balance > $5 Million d. Account having balance > $10 Million

8. Which account are to be covered under alternate procedure of FATCA a. Account opened between 01/04/2015 to 31/12/2015 b. Account opened between 01/07/2014 to 31/08/2015 c. Account opened between 01/07/2015 to 31/12/2015 d. None of the above 9. Thresholds limit for Entity Accounts in FATCA & CRS

a. Account having balance > $100000 b. Account having balance > $200000 c. Account having balance > $250000 d. Account having balance > $500000

10. What are the CRS pre- Existing Account

a. Account as on 31/08/2015 b. Account as on 30/09/2015 c. Account as on 30/06/2014 d. Account as on 31/12/2015

11. What are the non- participating Fis

a. Register with USIRS

b. Not Registered with USIRS c. Register with UKIRS d. Not Register with USIRS

12. Threshold limit for low value account in CRS

a. Account having balance > $10000 to $1 Million b. Account having balance > $ 0 to $1 Million c. Account having balance > $20000 to $1 Million d. Account having balance > $30000 to $1 Million

13. On which form Bank will report the data of FATCA & CRS to CBDT

a. Form 61A b. Form 61B c. Form 61C d. Form 61D


14. In FATCA individual account Bucket 10 denotes

a. Low Value Account

b. High Value account with Indicia

c. Low Value Account without Indicia

d. High Value account without Indicia

15. GIIN Stands for ------

a. Global Identification Inter Number

b. Global Identification Intermediary Number

c. Global Identified Intermediary Number d. None of the above

KEYS TO FATCA & CRS

1 2 3 4 5

b c a a c

6 7 8 9 10

c a b c d

11 12 13 14 15

b b b b b


General Awareness Assignment - I 1. Which of the following committees has given its recommendations on “Financial Inclusion”.

a. Malhotra Committee b. Shivaraman Committee c. Rangarajan Committee d. Hilton Young Commission

2. Bankers have to maintain secrecy of customer accounts as per provisions of …….. a. Banking Regulation Act 1949 b. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 c. Banking Companies Acquisition and Transfer of Undertaking) Act, 1970 d. State Bank of India Act, 1955 3. Which of the following can not be called as a Debt Instruments? a. Bonds b. Certificate of Deposits c. Commercial Paper d. Stock 4. Which of the following partners with UAE India for money transfer business? a. Yatra b. Goibibo c. SOTC d. Cox & Kings 5. Which has been conferred “Special Award for Excellence in MSME Lending” for its performance in lending to the MSME sector during the year 2013-14 & 2014-15? a. State Bank of Travancore b. State Bank of Patiala c. Canara Bank d. Vijay Bank 6. PFRDA is responsible for the appointment of which of the following agency? a. Pension Fund Manager b. Custodian c. NPS Trustee Bank d. Central Record Keeping Agency e. All of these 7. Which Indian Bank has signed a pact with the State General Reserve Fund of Oman (SGRF) to fund $50 million in Oman’s private equity fund, Oman India joint Investment Fund (OIJIF)? a. RBI b. Asia Development Bank c. ICICI Bank d. SBI 8. What was the theme of the 2017 Vibrant Gujarat Global Investors Summit? a. Economic Development with Vibrant Gujarat b. Discovering New Gujarat c. Vibrant Gujarat: Connecting India to the World

d. Transforming Gujarat to Global Business Hub 9. Who has been appointed as the Chief Executive Officer of Tata Consultancy Services? a. Kunal Shah b. Vijay Shekhar Sharma c. Rajesh Gopinath d. Binny Bansal

10. Which power sector enterprises has signed a memorandum of understanding to acquire Rajasthan based Chhabra Thermal Power Plant? a. NTPC b. Adani Powers c. Essar Power c. Reliance Power


11. Name the guided rocket system that successfully test fired by India off Odisha Coast? a. Dhruv II b. Shiva I c. Pinaka II d. Pinaka I 12. Which country has decided to switch off its FM radio network and completely coverts to digital signals? a. Sweden b. Finland c. Norway d. Germany 13. As per report of CSO, the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth of India is estimated at -------- for FY 2017 compared to 7.6% in FY 2016? a. 7.6% b. 7.1% c. 7.5% d. 7.3% 14. Name the App launched by IRCTC to book tickets fast? a. IRCTC Fast Book b. IRCTC Rail Connect c. IRCTC Rail Book d. IRCTC Fast Ticket 15. What is the rank of India among the countries offering the highest average annual salary to expatriates on the basis of HSBC Expat survey 2016? a. 4th b. 1st c. 2nd d. 3rd 16. Which of the following is Annuity Service Provider? a. Life Insurance Companies b. Public Sector Banks c. Private Sector Banks d. NBFCs 17. Sensex, Index of the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) is known as ----- a. S&P BSE Sensex b. S&P NSE Index c. S&P MSE Sensex d. S&P Global 1200 18. India’s first Digi Dhan Mela has been held in which state to promote cashless transactions? a. Madhya Pardesh b. Gujarat c. Haryana d. Punjab 19. How much interest rate will be offered by Airtel Payments Bank on Savings Accounts Deposits? a. 7.25% b. 7.50% c. 7.75% d. 7.00%

20. Which Insurance company has tied up with Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) for capital support to enterprises? a. National Insurance Co Ltd. b. Life Insurance Corporation of India c. SBI Life d. Oriental Insurance Co Ltd. 21. Who has been appointed as the new Executive Director of RBI? a. Deepa Malik b. Rajeshwar Rao c. Surekha Marandi d. U S Paliwal


22. Which of the following Banks has tied up with online portal ‘magibricks.com’ to conduct joint marketing activities? a. ICICI Bank b. PNB c. HDFC Bank d. SBI 23. India’s first centre for digital investigation and training has been set up by which state police? a. Kerala b. Haryana c. Karnataka d. Tamil Nadu 24. “BHIM” mobile App has been launched by Union Government to make digital payments easier. What does “BHIM” stands for? a. Build Interface for money b. Built-up Interface for Money c. Bi-aural Interface for Money d. Bharat Interface for Money 25. _____ is the first commercial bank in India that is employing robots to perform tasks like generating customer IDs, updating addresses and mobile numbers, resolving ATM related queries etc. a. Yes Bank b. ICICI Bank c. SBI d. HDFC Bank 26. Name the Mobile commerce and payments firm that has received the final approval from RBI to operate as Payment Bank. a. MobiKwik b. Paytm c. Oxigen d. Freecharge 27. Which bank has tied with the artificial intelligence firm Niki.ai to launch OnChat Chatbot on Facebook’s Messenger plateform? a. Yes Bank b. SBI c. ICICI Bank d. HDFC Bank 28. Which bank has partnered with CNX Corporation to provide collateral management services for the loans sanctioned to the farmers against warehouse receipt? a. Indian Bank b. ICICI Bank c. Bank of Baroda d. SBI

29. ICICI Bank has launched a payments collection App for merchants and retailers which will allow customers to pay any mode of payment. Name the App? a. DigiPay b. EazyPay c. PayZapp d. CitrusPay 30. RBI has imposed penality on how many banks for violating the instructions on reporting requirements of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999? a. Four b. Three c. Seven d. Five


31. NOFHC stands for? a. Non-Organization Family Housing Company b. Non-Operative Financial Housing Corporation c. Non-Organizational Financial Holding Co-operation d. Non-Operative Financial Holding Company 32. Ponzi schemes is controlled by which Organization? a. SEBI b. RBI c. Central Govt. d. State Govt. 33. First small and medium enterprises Bank launched by _____? a. RBI b. HDFC c. ICICI d. SBI 34. Employees Provident Fund Organisation in under which ministry? a. Ministry of Rural Development b. Ministry of Labour & Development c. Ministry of Finance d. Ministry of Culture 35. How much amount per district will be provided by NITI Aayog to encourage digital payment system? a. 10 lakhs b. 8 lakhs c. 5 lakhs d. 15 lakhs 36. What is the India’s rank in the 2016 Enabling Trade Index (ETI) of World Economic Forum (WEF)? a. 112th b. 102nd c. 93rd d. 116th 37. The Payments banks can accept demand deposits and savings bank deposits from individuals and small businesses up to maximum of _____ per account? a. Rs 25,000 b. Rs. 25,000 c. Rs 75,000 d. Rs 1,00,000 38. Nabard has partnered with which country foe a special programme on ‘Soil protection and rehabilitation for food security’? a. Japan b. Israel c. Spain d. Germany 39. The New Development Bank (NDB) has chosen which Indian Bank for its first tie-up with any bank in India to explore opportunities? a. HDFC Bank b. ICICI Bank c. SBI d. Axis Bank 40. The committee set up for doubling farmers’ income by 2022 is headed by? a. Abhay Kumar Singh b. Durga Sakthi Nagpal c. Anil Goswami d. Ashok Dalwai

41. A mobile-only bank named ‘digibank’ was launched recently by? a. Citi Bank b. HSBC c. ICICI Bank d. DBS Bank 42. Name the Indian industrialist who was recently conferred the 10th Annual Clinton Global Citizen Award for leadership in business and philanthropy? a. Ratan Tata b. Ravi Ruia c. Gautam Adani d. Adi Godrej


43. Which of the following bank has announced its entry into Myanmar by opening a branch in the Capital city of Yangon? a. PNB b. ICICI

c. BOB d. SBI 44. Digital payment FreeCharge has launched unified payments interface (UPI) that allows instant transactions from a smartphone. For this, FreeCharge has partnered with? a. ICICI Bank b. Yes Bank

c. Axis Bank d. SBI 45. Which of the following public sector bank has the largest number of branches in foreign countries? a. Bank of India b. Bank of Baroda c. SBI d. PNB 46. Which of the following rates are reviewed by the RBI at the time of bimonthly review of the policy? a. Interest rate on Savings Account b. Repo Rate c. Bank Rate d. All the three e. only (b) & (c) 47. What are teaser loan rates charged by banks? a. Rate of interest which is competitively changed in relation to other banks. b. Floating rate of interest charged by banks. c. Low rate of interest in the initial period which goes up subsequently. d. Higher rate of interest in the initial period which goes down subsequently. 48. With which of the following types loans are teaser rates related? a. Home Loans b. Personal Loans c. Auto Loans d. All the above 49. India and which country held a conference on ease of doing business in New Delhi recently to enhance the strategic bilateral partnership between the two nations? a. US b. China c. Japan d. UK

50. The VISAKA scheme launched by the Union Ministry for Human Resource Development is aimed at making people aware about? a. cleanliness b. importance of vaccination c. cashless economic system d. disaster management


Answers of General Awareness Assignment – I

1 c 11 c 21 c 31 d 41 d

2 c 12 c 22 d 32 d 42 d

3 d 13 b 23 b 33 b 43 d

4 d 14 b 24 d 34 c 44 c

5 b 15 d 25 d 35 c 45 b

6 e 16 a 26 b 36 b 46 e

7 d 17 a 27 d 37 d 47 c

8 c 18 c 28 c 38 d 48 a

9 c 19 a 29 b 39 b 49 d

10 a 20 b 30 d 40 c 50 c


General Awareness Assignment - II

1. The Govt. has constituted a committee to enable hundred percent conversion of Govt-Citizen transactions to the digital platform. The panel will work under the leadership of __ a. Amitabh Kant b. Nripendra Misra c. Bibek Debroy d. Arvind Panagariya 2. The committee formed by Finance Ministry to boost digital payment system in India submitted its report recently. The committee was headed by ______ a. Arvind Mayaram b. Ratan P Watal c. Arvind Subramanian d. Hasmukh Adhia 3. The approach of Micro-Credit or Banking with the poor is comparatively a new concept in the field of rural credit. This approach has been tried very successfully in which of the following country? a. Bangladesh b. India c. China d. Japan 4. Lowering of bank rate by RBI leads to? a. More liquidity in the market

b. Less liquidity in the market c. No change in the liquidity in the market d. Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks 5. The rate of interest on savings bank account is stipulated by? a. The concerned Bank b. RBI c. Indian Banks Association d. BCSBI 6. PM Narender Modi recently launched Pradhan Mantri Grameen Awas Yojna. The scheme aims to provide affordable houses to all those living below the poverty line by the year of _____? a. 2018 b. 2019 c. 2020 d. 2022 7. The Govt. plans to double the number of schemes under DBT to _____ by March 2017 a. 74 b. 86 c. 125 d. 147 8. The Forbes India recently released the annual India rich list which is topped by? a. Dilip Shanghvi b. Mukesh Ambani c. Sunil Bharti Mittal d. Azim Premji 9. The Govt. targets to bring 1 core households out of poverty by ____? a. 2019 b. 2020 c. 2022 d. 2027 10. Under the Union Budget 2017-18, Govt. has target to take ____ lakh farm ponds under the MGNREGA? a. 5 lakh b. 6 lakh c. 7 lakh d. 10 lakh


11. Under the Union Budget 2017-18, Govt. will take steps to ensure participation of women in MGNREGA up to ___? a. 50% b. 55% c. 60% d. 35% 12. Under the Union Budget 2017-18, the country well on way to achieve 100% rural electrification by __? a. March 2017 b. March 2018 c. March 2019 d. March 2020 13. Affordable housing will be given status of ___? a. Concessional Home Loans b. Commercial Real Estate c. Infrastructure d. None of these 14. Under the Union Budget 2017-18, total allocation for Railway is _____? a. Rs. 1,21,000 cr b. Rs. 1,31,000 cr c. Rs. 1,41,000 cr d. Rs. 1,51,000 cr 15. Under the Union Budget 2017-18, lending target under Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojna? a. 2.44 lakh crore b. 2.50 lakh crore c. 2.54 lakh crore d. 2.60 lakh crore 16. Under the Union Budget 2017-18, maximum amount of cash donation for political parties will be Rs. _____ from any one source from Rs. 20,000/-? a. 1,000 b. 2,000 c. 5,000 d. 10,000 17. Under the Union Budget 2017-18, holding period for long term capital gain lowered to? a. 1 Year b. 1.5 Year c. 2 Years d. 2.5 Years 18. Under the Union Budget 2017-18, what is rate of surcharge on individual income above Rs. 50 lakhs? a. 10% b. 8% c. 5% d. 3% 19. Which states Power Corporation has been awarded with “Best Performing Power Distribution Utility in Power Sector” by Central Board of Irrigation & Power? a. Haryana Vidhut Nigam b. Chandigarh Power Corporation c. Punjab State Power Corp. Ltd. d. Delhi Power Corp. 20. Which airport has adopted the world’s first performance and benchmarking digital platform “Arc”? a. Delhi Air port b. Chandigarh Airport

c. Hyderabad Airport d. Banglore Airport

21. Which state has directed its Raj Bhawan staff to adopt Cashless System for all kinds of transactions to comply with Prime Minister’s Digital economy decision? a. Haryana b. Himachal Pradesh c. Kerla d. Gujarat


22. Which ministry launched the campaign “Vittiya Saksharata Abhiyan” in New Delhi directing all higher education institutions to encourage people around them to use a digitally enabled cashless economic system for transfer of funds? a. Ministry of Human Resource Development b. Ministry of Finance b. Nitti Aayog d. Ministry of Education 23. Which village in Maharashtra has become the first ‘cashless village’ in the state by making all payments through plastic money? a. Dhasai b. Mangol c. Trikutta d. Samta 24. Which e-commerce firm has planned to launch an “Airborne Fulfillment Center” to deploy Drones for delivering its items in minutes? a. Flipcart b. Amazon c. Alibaba d. Snapdeal 25. What is the new extended deadline announced by the RBI for NRI Citizens to exchange the demonetized notes? a. 31st March 2017 b. 30th April 2017 c. 30th June 2017 d. 30th September 2017 26. What is the new Credit Guarantee limit for Micro Small and Medium Enterprises as decided by the Union Government? a. 2 crore b. 1.5 crore c. 5 crore d. 1 crore 27. What percent of interest rate has been decided by the centre for the Senior Citizens on their deposits of up to 7.5 lakh for 10 years? a. 7% b. 7.5% c. 8% d. 8.5% 28. Prime Minister on 31st December has announced to convert how many Kisan Credit Cards into RuPay Card in next 3 months? a. 3 crore b. 4 crore c. 5 crore d. 6 crore 29. What percent of rebate on interest would be provided for home loan up to Rs. 9 lakh by urban poor in 2017? a. 2% b. 3% c. 4% d. 5%

30. Coca-Cola has partnered with which bank to educate the retailers on digital transactions? a. ICICI Bank b. SBI c. HDFC Bank d. Yes Bank 31. Which bank has recently waived off the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) for one year on debit card transactions for small merchants with annual turnover of Rs. 20 lakh? a. SBI b. ICICI c. PNB d. Axis Bank 32. Which Indian air service firm has launched “Fly For Sure” scheme to ensure confirmed travel to passengers? a. Indigo b. Air India c. Jet Airways d. Go Air


33. Which bank has launched a voice Biometric Authentication System for the phone banking customers of the bank? a. SBI b. ICICI c. Citibank d. HDFC 34. With which bank, Indian Railway has asked to install point of sales (POS) machines at the railway ticket counter to make daily transaction and cash management easier? a. SBI, ICICI b. SBI, HDFC c. ICICI, HDFC d. ICICI, Axis Bank 35. RBI has decided to extend the time for installment of Aadhar-enabled PoS devices till which date? a. 31st March 2017 b. 30th June 2017 c. 30th September 2017 d. 31st December 2017 36. Which electronic commerce company has launched a Startup Programme “Launchpad” in India to support Indian startups? a. Flipcart b. Snapdeal c. Amazon d. Myntra 37. To achieve complete digitization of government payments, the finance ministry has made it mandatory for all government departments to make electronic payments and lowered the amount for e-payment from Rs. 10,000 to _____? a. Rs. 2,000 b. Rs. 3,000 c. Rs. 4,000 d. Rs. 5,000 38. Indian transportation company Ola has tied up with which bank to set up mobile ATMs in Ola cabs across 30 locations, from where customers of any bank can withdraw up to Rs. 2,000 per card? a. ICICI b. SBI c. Citibank d. Yes Bank 39. RBI has relaxed the 2 factor authentication norms for online transactions up to Rs. ___ to boost small value online transactions and promote government’s digital payment programme? a. 1,000 b. 1,500 c. 2,000 d. 2,500 40. Which Indian e-commerce website has launched its Toll Free number to enable the users to make transactions through mobile phones even without an internet connection? a. Paytm b. Amazon c. Flipcart d. Snapdeal

41. Who has been named as the new brand ambassador of Smartphone brand Gionee? a. Virender Sehwag b. Virat Kohli c. Ranbir Kapoor d. Amitabh Bachan 42. Who has been appointed as the Managing Director and Chief Executive of the SBI Pension Funds Pvt. Ltd.? a. Vikram Pawah b. Shalabh Seth c. Kumar Sharadindu d. Chitra Ramkrishna 43. Which corporate has won the prestigious Golden Peacock Award for Corporate Governance for this year? a. SBI b. IOCL c. SAIL d. NTPC


44. What is the theme of National Youth Festival 2017? a. Youth of Young India b. Youth for Digital India c. Padho Par Desh Mein d. Startup India 45. To whom “Global Agriculture Leadership Award 2016” presented by The Indian Council of Food and Agriculture (ICFA)? a. Ratan Tata b. Arudhanti Bhattacharya c. Sunil Bharti Mittal d. NABARD 46. President approves Promulgation of Specified Bank Notes Ordinance, 2016. The ordinance make the holding of Rs. 500 and Rs. 1000 banknotes after 31st March 2017 an offence, which will attract a fine of Rs. ______ or five times the cash held, whichever is higher. a. Rs. 10,000 b. Rs. 20,000 c. Rs. 25,000 d. Rs. 50,000 47. In a bid to strengthen capital base of public sector banks the government has allowed 12 lenders to raise nearly _______ via preferential shares over and above the Rs. 22,915 crore capital support committed to them in July last year. a. Rs. 2,000 cr b. Rs. 2,500 cr c. Rs. 3,000 cr d. Rs. 3,200 cr 48. State Bank of India in partnership with state-run telco ______ has launched its mobile wallet application “State Bank Mobicash” for smartphones as well as feature phones. a. BSNL b. Airtel c. Vodafone d. Jio 49. A small lake island _____ in Manipur has been declared as the country’s first cashless island. a. Sarang b. Karang c. Narang d. Patang

50. RBI has imposed a penalty of Rs. 75 lakhs on _______ for violation of norms related to KYC and anti money laundering. a. Maharashtra Cooperative Bank b. Indian Overseas Bank c. Bank of India d. Bank of Baroda


Answers of General Awareness Assignment – II

1 a 11 b 21 b 31 a 41 b

2 b 12 b 22 a 32 b 42 c

3 a 13 c 23 a 33 c 43 c

4 a 14 b 24 b 34 a 44 b

5 a 15 a 25 c 35 b 45 a

6 d 16 b 26 a 36 c 46 a

7 d 17 c 27 c 37 d 47 c

8 b 18 a 28 a 38 d 48 a

9 a 19 c 29 c 39 c 49 b

10 a 20 a 30 b 40 a 50 d


LEGAL ASPECTS OF BANKING-I

1. Issuance of a cheque without balance is punishable under

a) Cr.CPC b) IPC c) Banking Regulation Act d) NI Act

2. A & B maintain a current account operated by E OR S . B has filed insolvency petition and a cheque drawn by A is presented for payment. It would be in order

a) To Pay the cheque b) To return the cheque with the objection “Bs” confirmation required c) To return the cheque with the reason “joint account holder involved in

an insolvency proceedings” d) None of the above

3. A Power of Attorney is terminated on the

(a) Death of the customer (b) Lunacy of the customer (c) Insolvency of the customer (d) All of the above

4. Important portions of the Trust Deed relevant to the trust account must be entered in the ……..

(a) Branch Document Register (b) Power of attorney register (c) Not to be entered (d) Trust Deed Register

5. When a trustee becomes insolvent the trust account which he is authorized to operate ……

a) Must be closed b) Must be closed & fresh a/c opened for future operations c) Can be continued but operations watched carefully d) That trustee should not be allowed to operate the account

6. The statutory protection available to a collecting banker under Sec. 131 of NI Act is

available in case of-----------:

a) All cheques and drafts b) Only bearer instruments c) Crossed cheques and drafts d) None of these

7. Holder in due course is defined under section------of Negotiable Instrument Act.

a)10 b) 8 c) 9 d)18


8.The account opening form of a partnership firm, admitting a minor to the benefits of the partnership, vide Sec. 30(1) of Indian Partnership Act, with the consent of all the partners, is signed by whom?

a) All partners, including the minor b) All partners, authorised to operate on the account c) All partners, including the dormant/sleeping partners, except the minor d) Only Active Partners

9. A dishonored Bill of Exchange, alongside evidence of dishonor, is required to be noted

with---- a) Competent court b) Registrar of Societies/Firms c) Notary Public/Oath commissioner d) None of the above

10. Which section of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 permits institution of criminal proceedings against persons who have issued cheques that have bounced?

a) Sec.144 b) Sec. 28 c) Sec.138 d) Sec. 50

11. A contract of Insurance is a contract of -----------------------

a) Indemnity b) Pledge c) Guarantee d) Hypothecation

12. What is the maximum number of partners in a non-banking partnership firm?

a) 7 b) 10 c) 12 d) 20

13. While collecting cheques/bills etc. for a customer the bank acts as------------

a) An agent of the customer b) A trustee of the customer c) A pledger d) A debtor

14. Protection under Section 131 of the N.I. Act is not available to collecting bankers for the following: -

a) Cheques bearing account payee endorsements b) Cheques bearing forged endorsements c) Cheques with irregular endorsements d) None of the above

15. A Holder in Due Course of a cheque does not get protection in case of

a) Irregularity in endorsement b) Forging an endorsement c) Default in the title of previous holder d) None of the above

16. The Negotiable Instruments Act allows 3 days of grace on- -------

a) Cheques b) Usance Bills of Exchange c) Promissory Note d) Demand Draft


17. Inchoate Negotiable Instrument means---------------------------------:

a) Post-dated instrument b) Pre-dated instrument c) Lost instrument d) Incomplete Instrument

18. Negotiable Instrument does not deal with-------------------------:

a) Promissory Note b) Bill of Exchange c) Term Deposit Receipt d) Cheques

19. In case of wrongful payment of a cheque the Bank is liable to-------------

a) Payee b) Holder c) Drawer d) Holder-in-due-course

20. A banker collects a cheque on account of a customer who is not a true owner of the instrument. The banker will be held liable for “conversion” unless:

a) The cheque was specially crossed to the collecting bank b) The cheque was crossed “Account Payee only” c) The cheque was crossed before it was deposited into the bank d) The cheque was crossed before it was presented to the paying bank

21. In the case of dishonor of cheque due to insufficiency of funds the punishment under

Section 138 of N.I. Act is---------:

a) Twice the amount of cheque b) One year imprisonment c) Twice the amount of cheque or one year imprisonment d ) Twice the amount of cheque or two year imprisonment or both

22. Rule in Clayton’s case has been incorporated in the------------------------:

a) Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 b) Banking Regulation Act, 1949 c) Indian Partnership Act, 1932 d) Indian Contract Act, 1872

23. What is the maximum number of partners in a Banking partnership firm?

a) 7 b) 10 c) 12 d) 20

24. A trust has X and Y as its trustees. X is adjudged insolvent. Subsequently a

Cheque signed by X is presented for payment. We should a) Pay the cheque, if otherwise in order b) Pay the cheque after confirmation of Y c) Not pay the cheque; as such payment will not be payment in due course d) None of these


25. A joint account is in the name of A and B with instructions " either or survivor". A grants a power of attorney in favour of C. We should-------:

a) Not allow C to operate the account without oral confirmation of B. b)Allow C to operate the account, as either of account holders is competent

to appoint an attorney c)Not allow C to operate the account d)Suggest B that he should also execute a power of attorney in favour of somebody

26. A cheques is received bearing the date in Saka Samvat for an amount of

Rs. Ten lacs.

a) The cheque is to be returned b) The cheque is to be paid if otherwise in order c) e-circular 1064 of 2012-13 dt.30.01.2013 is not clear about it d) All cheques must bear Gregorian calendar dates

27. A customer has opened an account in your Branch on 10.02.2013. He wishes to deposit a cheque which is dated 21.12.2012

a) The cheque can be deposited as it is within the validity period of three months b) The cheque will not be deposited

c) e-circular 1054 of 2012-13 dt.28.01.2013 is not clear about it d) The matter would be referred to the controller

KEY- LEGAL ASPECTS OF BANKING-I

Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Ans. d c d a c c c c c c

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. a d a c a b d c c a

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27

Ans d d d a c b a


LEGAL ASPECTS OF BANKING-II

1. Banker’s general lien is defined under which of the following Act-------.

a) Sale of Goods Act b) Transfer of Property Act c) Negotiable Instrument Act d) Indian Contract Act

2. The Banker’s Lien on securities is treated as----------------

a) Implied Pledge b) Direct Pledge c) A special right d) None of the above

3. A banker has following securities with him. Which of these is subject to banker’s

general lien?

a) Securities received for sale b) Securities deposited upon a particular trust. c) Securities left in banker’s hands for an advance which has been declined d) None of the above

4. What does the term particular lien denote--------------

a) Right to retain possession of goods in respect of which the dues have arisen

b) Right to keep the securities indefinitely c) Right to sell the securities d) Right to keep the securities for other dues

5. Because the bank’s right under general lien is an implied pledge, in case of

default, the bank, after giving a proper/reasonable notice to the borrower can------ ------

a) Convert general lien into a particular lien b) Sell the security under certain circumstances without filing a suit c) Can sell only after filing a suit d) None of the above

6. A bank has a right called ----------to club two accounts (one of which has debit

balance and another has credit balance) in the same capacity, of customer:

a) Right of lien b) Right of Set-off c) Right of adjustment d) Right of appropriation

7. Right of set off is exercisable, where the relationship is of_

a) Bailor - Bailee b) Lessor-Lessee

c) Debtor-Creditor, Creditor-Debtor d) Principal-Agent


8. For which among the following, the banker can exercise its right of set off, in case of need.

a) Debts which are to arise in future b) Contingent debts of the customer c) Funds deposited by the debtor for a specific purpose d) For due and lawful debts

9. In respect of time barred debts, right of set off--------------:

a) is not available b) can be exercised after obtaining permission from the court. c) can be exercised after obtaining consent letter. d) can be exercised if loan and deposit are in the same right/capacity.

10. ‘X’ has a joint “former or survivor” account XY with his wife ‘Y’. ‘X’ has an overdraft

account, where he is not paying dues. Can you exercise right of set off as a banker-------

a) No, in joint accounts it is not possible b) Yes, it is possible as the account is former or survivor c) Yes, after obtaining consent of Y d) Yes, after obtaining court order

11. Garnishee order is issued under which of the following-----------

a) Civil Procedure code b) Criminal Procedure code c) Indian Contract Act. d) Banking regulation Act.

12. A Garnishee order is issued by -------------

a) The RBI to scheduled bank for stopping payment in an account. b) The competent court for attaching funds due to a judgement debtor by a third party

for payment to the judgement creditor. c) The Income Tax Recovery Officer attaching funds in the account

maintained by the bank. d) The district Magistrate requiring the bank to remit to his office a certain sum of

money to the debit of particular account.

13. Attachment Order is issued by---------------

a) The RBI to scheduled bank for stopping payment in an account. b) The competent court for attaching funds due to a judgment debtor by a third party

for payment to the judgment creditor. c) The Income Tax Recovery Officer attaching funds in the account maintained by the

bank. d) The district Magistrate requiring the bank to remit to his office a certain sum of


money to the debit of particular account

14. In the process of issuing a Garnishee order court first issues------------ a) Order Nisi

b) Order primary c) Order attachment d) Order absolute

15. Your branch has received a garnishee order for the account of Mr. ‘X’. What is the first action you are required to take?

a) After paying the amount to the court, the customer be informed. b) After paying the amount to Judgment creditor, the customer be informed. c) Stop operations and inform customer d) None of the above

16. An attachment order is received from Income Tax Officer for attaching funds lying in

saving bank account of a person. What will be the consequences, in case, the bank fails to execute this order u/s 226(3) of income tax Act:

a) Branch manager can be arrested. b) Branch manager can be fined up to Rs. 5000 and sentenced up to one year. c) The banker shall be treated as an assessee in default. d) Amount can be recovered from the Bank, with penalty.

17. A bank has received on order under section 226(3) of the income tax act, 1961 in the

name of a customer who has a fixed deposit account, which is already matured. Which of the following action the bank should take while making payment to the income tax officer concerned?

a) The bank should insist for production of FDR duly charged by the party b) The bank cannot insist for production of FDR c) Production of FDR may be waived only if the income tax officer executes an

indemnity bond in favour of the bank. d) None of these

18. Which of the following statement is correct in case your branch receives an attachment order from the income tax authorities?

a) Your right of set off becomes inoperative b) You can exercise right of set off in respect of existing claims against

the customer c) You can exercise the right of set off after obtaining an order from a

competent court d) None of these


19. If the garnishee order is received on a firm’s account, what would be the position of individual account of partners being maintained with same bank branch?

a) The order will be applicable b) The order will not be applicable c) It will be applicable through special order of court d) None of the above

KEY- LEGAL ASPECTS OF BANKING-II

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. d a d a b b c d d b

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19

Ans. a b c a c c b b a


LEGAL ASPECTS GENERAL BANKING- I

1. In the case of dishonour of cheque due to insufficiency of funds the punishment under Section 138 of N.I. Act is---------:

a) Twice the amount of cheque

b) One year imprisonment c) Twice the amount of cheque or one year imprisonment d) Twice the amount of cheque or two year imprisonment or both

2. Rule in Clayton’s case has been incorporated in the------------------------:

a) Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 b) Banking Regulation Act, 1949 c) Indian Partnership Act, 1932 d) Indian Contract Act, 1872

3. What is the maximum number of partners in a Banking partnership firm?

a)7 b)10 c)12 d) 20

4. A trust has X and Y as its trustees. X is adjudged insolvent. Subsequently a

Cheque signed by X is presented for payment. We should------:

a) Pay the cheque, if otherwise in order b) Pay the cheque after confirmation of Y c) Not pay the cheque; as such payment will not be payment in due course d) None of these

5. A joint account is in the name of A and B with instructions " either or survivor". A

grants a power of attorney in favour of C. We should-------:

a) Not allow C to operate the account without oral confirmation of B. b) Allow C to operate the account, as either of account holders is competent to appoint an attorney c) Not allow C to operate the account d) Suggest B that he should also execute a power of attorney in favour of

somebody 6. As per recent direction of RBI, a bank can collect an account payee cheque for any

person other than the payee constituent, provided.

a) The payee has mandated for it b The drawer withdraw the account payee mandate c) Both a and b above d) Neither a nor b above


7. The companies are required to seek an extension of time from the concerned Registrar of Companies, if audited accounts are not approved by shareholders at annual general meeting within … months.

a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d)12

8. KYC norms are applicable in following cases a) All new account b) All new account and old accounts with High value transactions c) All cash transactions d) All accounts

9. Customer’ has be defined in

a) NI Act b) BR Act c) COPRA Act d) KYC Guidelines

10. Sec. 45ZA of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deal with?

a) Returned of unclaimed deposits b) Permission to open new branches c) Maintenance of liquid assets d) Nomination facility

11. Unclaimed deposits are classified by the bank as …….. liabilities

a) Time b) Current c) Deferred d) None of these

12. The Bank Guarantees are covered under-

a) Sale of Goods Act b) N.I.Act c) Indian Contract Act d) Companies Act

13. When do we honour payment of a cheque in cash after business hours?

a) If it is presented by any person b) If it is presented by the payee c) If it is presented by the drawer d) If it is presented by the person known to bank officials


Answers

LEGAL ASPECTS GENERAL BANKING – I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. d d d a c b b d d d

Q. 11 12 13

Ans. b c c


LEGAL ASPECTS GENERAL BANKING -II

1. If a person is declared as insolvent, he will remain so till:

a) He lives. b) Court gives discharge certificate

c) He starts another business d) None of the above

2. If a married woman is a borrower and does not repay bank dues, it can be

recovered:

a) From her husband b) From her separate estate

c) From her husband’s estate d) None of the above

3. The person on whose behalf the guarantee is issued is called: a) Applicant

c) Guarantor

b) Beneficiary

d) None of the above

4.

Guarantees are defined in:

a) Negotiable Instrument Act 1881

c) Indian Contract Act 1872

b) Banking Regulation Act 1949

d) RBI Act 1934

5. Bailment has been defined in which section of Indian Contract act 1872:

a) 247 b) 147 c) 148

d) 347

6. The mortgage has been defined under section of Transfer of Property act:

a) 57 b) 58

c) 59 d) 60

7. When the immovable property is mortgaged then:

a) Ownership is transferred b) Right is transferred

c) A specific interest is created d) None of the above

8. For creating an equitable mortgage is required:

a) Original of the title deed b) Photocopy of the title deed

c) Attested copy of the title deed d) Only Furd (Girdawari)

9. A search report from legal counsel is insisted upon for years:

a) 8 b) 10

c) 12 d) 30


10.When a debt is offered as security, which charge should be created:

a) Assignment b) Hypothecation

c) Pledge d) None of the above 11. The charge assignment is governed by the provisions of:

a) Negotiable Instrument Act 1881 b) Transfer of property Act

c) Indian Contract Act 1872 d) RBI Act 1934

12. When loan is to be granted against the security of a LIC policy, which charge is to

be created:

a) Mortgage b)Hypothecation

c) Assignment d) Pledge

13. After the repayment of the loan secured by assignment of debt the charge is:

a) Transferred in favour of borrower b) Endorsed in favour of the

borrower

c) Re-assigned in favour of the borrower d) None of the above 14. If the assignor is a Ltd. Co., whether the registration of charge u/s 125 of

Companies Act is necessary:

a) Yes b) Not necessary

c) In the interest of the bank d) None of the above 15. Under Transfer of Property act………………..would mean transfer of actionable

claim:

a)Assignment b) Mortgage c) Negotiation d) Pledge

16. In the case of dishonour of cheque due to insufficiency of funds the punishment under

Section 138 of N.I. Act is:

a)Twice the amount of Cheque

b) One year imprisonment

c) Twice the amount of cheque or one year imprisonment

d) Twice the amount of cheque or two year imprisonment or both

17. Rule in Clayton’s case has been incorporated in the:


a) Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 b) Banking Regulation Act, 1949

c) Indian Partnership Act, 1932 d) Indian Contract Act, 1872

18. A cheque is issued on 05-02-09 with remarks "valid upto 05-03-09." The cheque presented for payment on 10-03-09 should be:

a) Returned with the reason" cheque contains extraneous matter"

b) Can be paid because it is within 3 months from the date of issue

c) Returned with reason "requires revalidation"

d) Returned with reason "insufficient funds" 19. A trust has X and Y as its trustees. X is adjudged insolvent. Subsequently a Cheque signed by X is presented for payment. We should:

a) Pay the cheque, if otherwise in order

b) Pay the cheque after confirmation of Y

c) Not pay the cheque, as such a payment will not be payment in due course

d) None of these

20. A joint account is in the name of Hari and Krishna with instructions " either or survivor". Hari grants a power of attorney in favour of Lakshman. We should:

a) Not allow Lakshman to operate the account without oral confirmation of Krishna

b) Allow Lakshman to operate the account, as either of account holders is competent to appoint an attorney

c) Not allow Lakshman to operate the account

d) Suggest Krishna that he should also execute a power of attorney in favour of

somebody

21. As per the Indian Limitation Act, an equitable mortgage becomes time barred after

years.

a) 3 b) 6 c)10 d) 12

22. The certificate to commence business is to be called for, for perusal and return

for opening of an account of:

a) Public Limited Company b) Club & Association c) Private Limited Company d) None of these


23. Articles of association of a company contains details regarding:

a) Objectives of the company b) Authorized capital of the company c) Matter related to the conduct of day-to-day business of the company d) Registered office of the company

24. Accounts in the name of companies can not be opened without certificate of

commencement of business in the case of :

a) Public Limited Companies b) Public Limited Companies with an authorised share capital of Rs. 1.00 crore c) Private Limited Companies d) None of these

25. In the case of joint stock company, the registration of charge with the

Registrar of Companies is not necessary:

a) Against the pledge of movable property b) Against hypothecation of movable property c) Against assignment of book debts d) Against mortgage of fixed assets

26. Hypothecation a d va n ce s granted to partnership undertakings should be

registered with:

a) The Registrar of Companies b) The Registrar of Assurance c) The Registrar of Firms d) Do not require any registration

27. In the event of mortgage of immovable property, which of the following is true…..

a) Ownership is transferred b) Right is transferred c) A specific interest is created d) None of the above

28. For creating an equitable mortgage, which of the following is required:

a) Original Title Deed b) Photocopy of the title deed c) Attested copy of the title deed d) Only Furd (Girdawari)

29. In case of mortgage of immovable property as collateral security, a search report from legal counsel is insisted upon for_ years:

a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 30


30. IRAC norms were introduced from the year ending …… as on 31 st March

a) 1992 b) 1993 c) 1991 d) none of the above

KEY - LEGAL ASPECTS GENERAL BANKING-II

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

b b b c d b c a d a

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

b c c a a d d c a c

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

d d c d a d c a d b


LEGAL ASPECTS- ADVANCES & GENERAL

1. Two firm are said to be identical when

a) Partners of the firms are the same b) When two firms have some common partners c) When the two firms have any common partner d) When the two firms have same name

2. Minimum number of directors in a public limited company must be…………….

a) 5 b) 10 c) 12 d) 3 e) None of these

3. Which among the following is not found in the MOA of a Company?

a) Objectives of the company b) Authorised Capital c) Borrowing powers of the directors d) Registered Office

4. A person will be declared as legally dead, if for a period of ………….years or more

the persons who would have normally known of his existence have not heard of him/known of his existence.

a) 12 yrs b) 7 yrs c) 5 yrs d) 3 yrs

5. Section 45Z of Banking Regulation Act , 1949 deals with?

a) Return of unclaimed deposits b) Permission to open branches c) Maintenance of Currency chests d) Nomination Facility

6. As per the Indian Limitation Act, an equitable mortgage becomes time-

barred after years.

a) 3 b) 6 c)10 d)12

7. The certificate to commence business is to be called for, for perusal and return for

opening of an account of:

a) Public Limited Company b) Club & Association c) Private Limited Company d) None of the above.


8. Articles of association of a company contains details regarding: a) Objectives of the company b) Authorized capital of the company c) Matter related to the conduct of day-to-day business of the company d) Registered office of the company

9. In the matter of a Joint Stock Company, the term “negative lien” means:

a) A lien which does not confer on the bank a right of sale of asset b) Where a company, through its own resolution is restrained from creating further

charge on its assets c) Where a charge created in favour of the bank is not registered with the Registrar of Companies d) The charge is in the nature of only a floating charge on its assets.

10. In the case of joint stock Company, the registration of charge with the Registrar of Companies is not necessary:

a) Against the pledge of movable property b) Against hypothecation of movable property c) Against assignment of book debts d) Against mortgage of fixed assets

11. Hypothecation advances granted to partnership undertakings should be

registered with: a) The Registrar of Companies b) The Registrar of Assurance c) The Registrar of Firms d) Do not require any registration

12. If a married woman is a borrower and does not repay bank dues, it can be

recovered: a) From her husband b) From her separate estate c) From her husband’s estate d) None of the above

13. Guarantees are defined in:

a) Negotiable Instrument Act 1881 b) Banking Regulation Act 1949 c) Indian Contract Act 1872 d) RBI Act 1934

14. The mortgage has been defined under section of Transfer of Property act:

a) 57 b) 58 c) 59 d) 60

15. In the event of mortgage of immovable property, which of the following is true…..

a) Ownership is transferred b) Right is transferred c) A specific interest is created d) None of the above


16. For creating an equitable mortgage, which of the following is required: a) Original Title Deed b) Photocopy of the title deed c) Attested copy of the title deed d) Only Fard (Girdawari)

17. In case of mortgage of immovable property as collateral security, a search report from legal counsel is insisted upon for_ years:

a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 30

18.When a debt is offered as security, which charge should be created:

a) Assignment b) Hypothecation c) Pledge d) None of the above

19.The charge assignment is governed by the provisions of:

a) Negotiable Instrument Act 1881 b) Transfer of property Act c) Indian Contract Act 1872 d) RBI Act 1934

20. When loan is to be granted against the security of a LIC policy, which charge is to be

created:

a) Mortgage b) Hypothecation c) Assignment d) Pledge

21. After the repayment of the loan secured by assignment of debt the charge is:

a) Transferred in favour of borrower b) Endorsed in favour of the borrower c) Re-assigned in favour of the borrower d) None of the above

22. If the assignor is a Ltd. Co., whether the registration of charge u/s 125 of

Companies Act is necessary:

a) Yes b) Not necessary c) Preferable, in the interest of the bank d) None of the above

23. Hypothecation is defined in:

a) Indian Contract Act 1872 b) Transfer of Property Act c) Negotiable Instrument Act d) SARFAESI Act


24.The pledge is defined under section of Indian Contract Act.:

a)172 b) 272 c) 372 d) None of the above

KEY - LEGAL ASPECTS ADVANCES & GENERAL

Q 1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. a d c b d d d c b a

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. d b c b c a d a b c

Q. 21 22 23 24

Ans. c a d a


CASH DEPARTMENT PROCEDURES ASSIGNMENT – I

1. At close of business every day, the SWO/Assistant (Cash) will retain the cash on hand in the cash box upto a limit of:

a. Rs. 50,000 b. Rs. 75,000 c. Rs. 1,50,000 d. Rs. 1,00,000 or Cash retention limit fixed

2. Miss Sushma, SWO has been sanctioned 30 days privilege leave. What should the Cash Officer do with her cash box before she proceeds on leave?

a. Keep her cash box unopened in the safe/ strong room till her return b. Ensure she hands over the keys of her cash box to a SWO/Asst (Cash) of her

choice. c. Transfer the entire cash balance in her Cash box to another SWO/Asst-Cash. d. Ensure she transfers her entire cash balance to CO/C-I-C.

3. Who amongst the following should possess the original keys of the cash box? a. Branch Manager b. Accountant / Service Manager c. Cash Officer / Cash-in-charge d. SWO / Asst. (Cash)

4. In whose presence should the note packets prepared during the day be randomly checked before the closure of cash? a. Branch Manager b. Accountant / Service Manager c. Joint Custodians and the Asst.(cash)/SWO/ Sr. Asst./Spl.Asst. who prepared the packets. d. CiC and the Asst (cash) / SWO / Sr. Asst. / Spl.Asst. who prepared the packets.

5. Who amongst the following is responsible for counting and recounting of currency notes below Rs 500/- ? a. Cash-in-charge / Cash Officer b. Asst (Cash) / Senior Assistant /Spl. Asst. / SWO / who prepared the packets. c. Any Asst(Cash) / Senior Asst./ SWO/Spl Asst who did not prepare the packets. d. Joint Custodian

6. Which of the following registers is used to record movement of cash from one SWO to another during the course of day’s business ? a. Cashiers Jotting Register b. Cash Receipt/Delivery Register. c. Hand balance Book d. Cash Box receipt/delivery Register


7. Which of the following is a provision of Sec 28 & Sec 58(2) of RBI Act,1934? a. Value of any imperfect currency note cannot be claimed as a matter of right. b. Value of forged currency notes can be exchanged from RBI c. The holder of a currency note is entitled to receive the specified amount from RBI d. Public can sue RBI for claiming the value of any defective currency note.

8. Which of the following statements is true: i. The SWO should tally his physical cash first and then reconcile his system cash balance with physical cash balance. ii. The SWO should ensure that all other SWO's have reconciled their balances and then close his cash box.

a. Statement (i) is true b. Statement (ii) is true c. Both are true c. Neither (i) nor (ii) is true.

9. Mr Thakur Gotewala brings Rs 25,000/- soiled notes of various denominations for deposit in his SB account. The Bank should…..

a. Refuse to accept. b. Ask him to deposit the same as his tax dues. c. Accept the same over the counter d. Accept the same after he signs an

indemnity 10. Your customer has tendered a Rs 500 note which has a slogan written across it. What action will you take and why?

a. Reject the note under Rule 6(3) (ii) of RBINF Rules 2009 b. Reject the note under Rule 6(2) of RBINF Rules 2009 c. Reject the note under Rule 6(1) of RBINF Rules 2009 d. Accept the note and exchange it under RBINF Rules 2009

11. Soiled Note has been defined as a “Note” which

a. Is dirty b. Torn in 2 pieces c. Is unclean d. Is dirty and also includes 2 pieces of the same note put

together 12. Mr Lakhan ram, comes to bank with 50 currency notes which were half burnt in a fire at his home. The bank should…

a. Exchange the notes under RBI (Note Refund) Rules 2009. b. Advise Lakhan ram to tender the notes to the RBI Issue Office for adjudication c. Treat the notes as forged and impound them d. Reject the notes under RBI(NF) Rules 2009


13. The duplicate keys of the cash box of SWO/Asst (Cash) shall be retained as follows:

a. In a packet duly sealed by the SWO/Asst. (Cash), in the joint custody of two officials in joint charge of cash and valuables. b. In a packet duly sealed by the SWO/Asst. (Cash) in the custody of C-I-C / CO c. In a packet duly sealed by the SWO/Asst.(Cash) in the custody of Accountant. d. Kept in a sealed packet in the branch identified to retain the other duplicate keys of the branch.

14. Which of the following procedures is to be followed when it is decided to use the duplicate keys for opening the cash box of any SWO/Asst (cash)?

a. The circumstances leading to use of the duplicate keys will be recorded in a register. b. The opening of the cash box has to be witnessed by another SWO and the Joint custodians. c. Both (a) and (b) d. Neither of the above options.

15. The overnight cash retention limit for SWOs/Assistant (cash) is fixed at Rs 1,00,000.00 by the CO/CIC. This limit can be changed by?

a. Controlling Office b. Cash Officer c. Branch Manager d. Manager (BO)

16. Who amongst the following are authorized to act as “The “Prescribed Officer”?

a. The officers who are authorized by controllers of branches. b. The Branch Manager and every officer in charge of accounts or cash wing at a

branch. c. The joint custodians of the currency chest/vault d. The controllers of the bank branches

17. During random verification, it is found that the cash balance in the box of a particular SWO was found to be short by a sum of Rs 45,000.00. The Cash officer should:

a. Ask the SWO to make good the shortfall. b. Recover the balance from the SWO concerned immediately and report the matter to

controllers for necessary action. c. Ask the other SWO’s to share the loss d. Ask for the SWO’s explanation for the shortage.


18. Remittances containing fresh notes of denominations upto Rs 50/- will be taken Over after… a. Detailed counting of all the notes received at the currency chest. b. Random counting of note packets. c. Since it is a remittance from R B I counting is not necessary d. Counting the number of packets in presence of RBI representative

19. Reporting of transactions in Currency Chest is to be done by branches to Link Office at the following periodicity…

a. Daily by 11 am on the next day b. Daily by 9 pm on the same day c. Daily by 12 noon on the next day d. Daily by 11 pm on the same day

20. In case of shortages or detection of forged notes in soiled notes remittances to RBI, the ultimate recovery will be made by/from ... a. Debiting charges account. b. Debiting suspense account. c. Writing off the amount of shortage as a loss. d. The Cashier who prepared the bundles.

21. In unavoidable circumstances where vehicles are not available, cash remittances may be carried on 3 wheelers upto a ceiling of …..

a. Below Rs 10 lacs b. Below Rs 5 lacs c. Below Rs 2 lacs d. Below Rs 1 lac

22. When a cash officer applies for 4 days casual leave on account of personal urgency a. The identified staff shall take charge the Cash balance only b. The identified staff shall take charge of the contents of the entire vault. c. The identified staff member shall take charge of the cash balance and other

valuables as deemed necessary for daily work. d. Will not take charge of cash but perform additional duties in the CO’s absence.

23. During periodic verification of cash, the verifying official is responsible for verifying…

a. Soiled notes only b. Soiled and issuable notes proportionately at random. c. Issuable notes only d. The entire cash balance in the vault.

24. The minimum amount of transactions that can be undertaken in a currency chest? a. Minimum Rs 1 lac and in multiples of Rs 1 lac thereafter. b. Minimum Rs 50,000 and in multiples of Rs 50,000 thereafter. c. No minimum amount only amounts in round thousands. d. Minimum Rs 1 lac and in multiples of Rs 50,000 thereafter.


25. All the bundles opened at the time of periodic verification shall be sealed/secured as follows after verification… a. Sealed by identified Asst/SWO or CO who was present during the verification. b. Notes will be issued to the counters for daily use. c. Will be secured and retained separately for use next day’s use. d. Sealed by the Asst. / SWO who was present and will be counter signed by the verifying official.

26. Which of the following is not a precaution to be observed during remittance of cash? a. It should be in bank’s own vehicle or hired jeep. b. Cash boxes to be loaded in the vehicle in presence of the accompanying cashier. c. The accompanying guards should be allowed to carry the cash boxes. d. The remittance should be transported in closed vehicles.

27. When a SBI branch receives a remittance of Rs 45 lacs from another nearby SBI branch, the procedures to be followed then are…

a. All the note packets and bundles should be counted in presence of the

accompanying cashier. b. The accompanying cashier will be relieved after ensuring that the note bundles are

prima facie correct. c. The remittance will be kept in a sealed box until all the notes are counted. d. The notes and bundles should be sorted for soiled & forged notes.

28. The detailed examination of notes in an interbank remittance should be done as follows:

a. Need not be done as the packets are already counted & sealed. b. Should be done by ourSWO/Asst (Cash) in presence of the CO/CiC. c. In the presence of their representative. d. Should be done on a random sampling basis.

29. The responsibility of safety of cash during remittance rests with …

a. The accompanying cashier/SWO b. The escorting guards c. The remitting branch d. The receiving branch


30. Inside the vehicle carrying the remittance, the cash box should be chained to the body of the vehicle. The keys of this chain should remain in custody of

a. The accompanying cashier/SWO b. The accompanying guard c. The accompanying coolie d. The driver of the vehicle

31. In the event of absence of the nominated employee during taking over of emergency charge of Cash Officer by another employee, the branch manager may

a. Continue the taking over process by the other employee. b. Instruct another suitable employee to be witness to the taking over process if

required. c. Wait for the employee to come back so that the taking over process can continue.

d. Supervise taking over process personally

32. Which is the correct procedure for packing soiled note remittance to be sent to RBI ? a. The remittance shall be packed in lots of 3lac / 6lac pieces b. The remittance shall be packed in lots of 1lac / 2lac pieces c. The remittance shall be packed in lots of 7lac / 8lac pieces d. The remittance shall be packed in lots of 10lac / 12lac pieces

33. The penal interest for delayed reporting of currency chest transactions will be calculated on a… ( * T- represents the date of transaction)

a. T + 0 basis b. T + 1 basis c. T + 2 basis d. T + 3 basis

34. When the charge of Cash is being taken over by another employee in the absence of the Cash Officer, then

a. The personal liability of the cash officer continues till all bills/valuables/cash are

properly accounted for. b. The liability of the cash officer ceases once he hands over the keys to the BM. c. The new incumbent takes on the entire liability of the previous incumbent. d. There will be no one liable as periodic verification always takes place.

35. While handing over temporary charge, the cash officer should ensure hat

a. The receptacles containing valuables not handed over are sealed with his personal seal. b. The safe deposit articles and cash required for daily use are segregated from other

articles/valuables. c. All bills and cash are handed over with proper accounting. d. All the above.


36. ICCOMS can be accessed through? a. http:// iccomssws.rbi.org.in b. https://iccomssws.rbi.co.in c. ftp://iccomssws.rbi.org.in d. https://iccomssws.rbi.org.in

37. 'Chest representative’ while sending soiled notes remittance relates to a. RBI b. Currency Chest c. One each from RBI & the Currency Chest d. None of the above as no mandatory identification is required.

38. Fresh notes remittance received will be allowed for withdrawal using CCRS software after a. 'Preliminary verification of Fresh Notes’ is done and duly authorised. b. ‘Final verification of Notes’ is done and duly authorised.

c. SFMS files are processed in CCRS without any error.

d. None of the above

39. Which of the following SFMS files needs to be uploaded to RBI under CCRS, if the chest has received only coins remittance ? a. C07 b. C08 c. C07 & C08 d. C31

40. Diversion in CCRS deals with a. Cash withdrawn from currency chest for day to day operations. b. Transfer of coins/currency notes from one currency chest to another. c. Cash diverted for Government use. d. Cash diverted to meet exigencies arising out of sudden shut down of Banks.

41. Which of the following activities is carried out under CCRS on the day the CNE is relieved? a. SFMS files are processed and authorised. b. Preliminary verification process is completed. c. Final verification process is completed. d. C31 is generated from CCRS system and uploaded to RBI web server.

42. CCRS is a. Currency chest remittances b. Currency and coins remittances system c. Currency Chest Remittances d. Currency Chest Reporting System

43. Fresh notes remittance received will be reflected in the Chest Slip of the day generated from CCRS after

a. Fresh notes order is processed b. Fresh notes invoice is processed c. Preliminary verification of Fresh Notes is completed d. None of the above

https://iccomssws.rbi.co.in/

https://iccomssws.rbi.org.in/


44. Invoices of fresh notes remittances and coins after being downloaded from RBI site need to be processed using CCRS menu option .

a. ‘SFMS’ of Admin user b. ‘Authorisation’ of DEO1 or equivalent user. c. ‘SFMS’ of AUTH1 or equivalent user d. ‘Fresh Remittance’ of DEO1 user

45. Which of the following statements is true for a ‘send back’ record under CCRS?

a. A ‘Send Back’ record cannot be deleted completely. b. ‘Send Back’ is an option available while authorising. c. ‘Send Back’ record can only be modified by DEO1 or equivalent user. d. All the above are correct.

46. Under CCRS, fresh notes remittance process needs to be completed a. Jointly by DEO1 or equivalent user with Auth1 or equivalent user b. By DEO1 or equivalent user c. By Auth1 or equivalent user d. None of the above.

47. Under CCRS, Inter Chest Remittance is recorded using menu option?

a. Daily transactions b. Fresh remittance c. Diversion d. Any one of the above option

48. Soiled note details are to be entered by DEO1 or equivalent user and to be authorised by?

a. DEO1 or the equivalent user himself followed by Auth1 or equivalent user in ICCOMS. b. DEO1 or the equivalent user himself only. c. Auth1 or the equivalent user. d. DEO1 or the equivalent user himself followed by Auth1 or equivalent user in CCRS.

49. Under CCRS, the SFMS file generated out of processing of soiled notes remittance is ?

a. C07 b. C08 c. C28 d. C3150. 50. Remittance files downloaded from RBI web server need to be being processed in CCRS.

a. Copied to C:\ICCOMS folder. b. Extracted and copied to the specified folder viz. C:\ICCOMS\RECEIVE. c. Extracted, renamed & copied to specified folder. d. Renamed and copied to C:\ICCOMS\RECEIVE folder.


ANSWERS OF CASH DEPARTMENT PROCEDURES ASSIGNMENT – I

1 d 11 d 21 c 31 b 41 c

2 d 12 b 22 c 32 a 42 d

3 d 13 a 23 b 33 a 43 c

4 d 14 c 24 d 34 a 44 c

5 b 15 a 25 d 35 d 45 d

6 b 16 b 26 c 36 d 46 a

7 a 17 b 27 b 37 b 47 c

8 a 18 d 28 c 38 b 48 d

9 c 19 b 29 b 39 d 49 c

10 a 20 d 30 a 40 b 50 b


CASH DEPARTMENT PROCEDURES ASSIGNMENT – II 1. What is the period for which the records are required to be preserved under PMLA, 2002?

a. Records are required to be preserved as per the Bank’s norms for preservation of

records. b. Records are required to be preserved till the accounts are closed. c. Records are required to be preserved for a period of 15 years. d. Records are required to be preserved for a period of 10 years.

2. What will the RBI do if the note packets are secured with adhesive stickers gummed labels?

a. Remove the adhesive stickers / gummed labels and accept the notes. b. Instruct the cashiers accompanying the remittance to remove the adhesive

stickers / gummed labels. c. The note packets found secured with adhesive stickers / gummed labels will be

returned to the local chest branch. d. Return the entire remittance to the local currency chest branch by debiting the

amount thereof to the account of the bank. 3. What should be done with the Counterfeit Notes after the period of preservation is over.

a. The Counterfeit Notes should be destroyed under Advice to the RBI / Police b. Forward the Counterfeit Notes to the concerned issue Office of the RBI c. Forward it to the Vigilance department at HO for further action. d. Forward the Counterfeit Notes to the National Crime Record Bureau New Delhi, under

advice to the Controller. 4. What are instructions of RBI in regard to watermark window of Bank notes?

a. Writing with pencil may be permitted on the watermark window of Bank notes. b. Banks shall forthwith stop writing of any kind on watermark window of Bank notes. c. Writing on watermark window of bank notes, by bank cashiers only may be

permitted. d. Bank notes with writing on watermark window will be accepted by RBI.

5. What is the duty of the bank branches if a bank note is found to be counterfeit?

a. If the customer is a valuable & bonafide, destroy the bank note under his

supervision. b. Give the note back to the customer advising him that the note is counterfeit. c. Impound the note and brand a stamp ‘Counterfeit Banknote’ and issue a receipt to

the tenderer. d. Accept the note and keep it along with the soiled notes.


6. What is the procedure, if in case a suspected Foreign Currency Note is received from the Police/Government?

a. Verify the Notes carefully and give your opinion as to whether the Note is

Counterfeit. b. Forward the notes to the Currency chest branch/treasury for their opinion. c. Forward the Notes to the Government Examiner of Questioned Documents for their

opinion. d. The sender may be advised to forward the Notes to Interpol wing of the CBI, New

Delhi after prior consultation. 7. What action can the RBI take on noticing Counterfeit Notes in Chest Remittances?

a. RBI may initiate special investigation by police authorities and other action like suspending

the operation of Chest concerned. It may also levy higher interest for the amount of forged notes remittances, from the last removal of soiled notes from the respective chests.

b. RBI may forward the notes to the Vigilance Department of the head office for filing FIR with the police and also to initiate disciplinary action against the erring staff.

c. RBI may hand over the case to the CBI for investigation and prosecution of the concerned officials.

d. RBI may return the entire remittance with instructions to sort the notes properly and remit only genuine Notes. RBI may also instruct the Bank to file FIR with the police and advise them accordingly.

8. What is the maximum tolerance stated by RBI for receiving reissuable notes with soiled notes?

a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. none of the above

9. Under which section, RBI has issued regulation regarding stapling of Note packets?

a. Under section 33 A of the Banking Regulations Act. b. Under section 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act. c. Under section 45 A of the Banking Regulation Act. d. Under section 35 A of the Banking ompanies Act.

10. What is the procedure in respect of preservation of Counterfeit Notes which are subject matter of litigation?

a. Take sanction from Forged Note Vigilance cell H O for destruction of the

counterfeit Notes. b. Forward the Notes to concerned issue office of RBI for further action. c. The counterfeit Notes should be preserved permanently with the branch

concerned. d. Forward the Counterfeit notes to the National Crime Record Bureau New Delhi for

further action.


11. What is the period upto which the Counterfeit Notes should be preserved? a. Counterfeit Notes should be preserved for 10 years from the date of receipt from the

police authorities. b. Counterfeit Notes should be preserved for 15 years from the date of receipt from the

police authorities. c. Counterfeit Notes should be preserved for 3 years from the date of receipt from the

police authorities. d. Counterfeit Notes should be preserved till the RBI / Police instruct us to destroy them.

12. At what intervals does the Bank report data on Counterfeit Notes?

a. As and when detected only. b. At fortnightly intervals. c. At monthly intervals. d. At quarterly intervals.

13. Who can impound counterfeit Bank Notes?

a. Branches of Public Sector, Private Sector & Foreign Banks. b. Officers of Public Sector Undertakings / Enterprises. c. Branches of NBFCs in the Country. d. All IPS and other police officers above the rank of DIG.

14. To whom does the Bank report data on Counterfeit Notes detected?

a. To the Banking Department of the Finance Ministry of the Central Government. b. To the Finance Deptt. of the State Government in which the branch is functioning. c. To the concerned issue office of the RBI. d. To the Director, Central Bureau of Investigation New Delhi.

15. What transactions should be reported by the principal officer in the currency report format to FIU-IND?

a. All cash transactions in the branch. b. All cash transactions made in the current account of orporates. c. All cash transactions made in the Branch Managers Account. d. All cash transactions , where forged or counterfeit notes have been used as genuine.

16. Under the PMLA Act 2002, what are the obligations of banks in respect of transactions with its client? a. Banks have been advised to maintain and preserve information in respect of

transactions with its clients in hard and soft copies. b. Banks have been advised to maintain and preserve information in respect of

transactions with its clients in hard copy only. c. Banks have been advised to maintain and preserve information in respect of

transactions with its clients in soft copy only. d. Banks have been advised to maintain and preserve information in respect of

transactions with its clients as per their own internal policy.


17. In case there is any difficulty faced by the branches due to reluctance of the police to accept FIR’s the matter should be.

a. Reported to the RBI for assistance. b. Reported to the CBI for investigation. c. Sorted out in consultation with the Nodal Officer of the State concerned. d. Report to the controller and take no further action as the police are showing reluctance to file FIR.

18. What is the cut off limit for reporting transactions to CTR?

a. Rs 10 lakhs b. Rs 15 Lakhs c. Rs 1 Lakhs d. Rs 5 Lakhs

19. How does RBI view Counterfeit Notes in Chest Remittances?

a. Detection of Counterfeit notes in chest remittances are viewed, as if the bank has remitted unsorted Notes. b. RBI views it as serious dereliction of duty and recommends for disciplinary action against the staff concerned. c. The RBI is liable to construe detection of Counterfeit Notes in chest remittances as willful involvement of the chest branches in circulating Counterfeit Notes. d. If genuine reasons, like shortage of staff/etc are explained as a reason, RBI may view the detection of Counterfeit Notes in chest remittances leniently.

20. What is the duty of the Bank branch after filing the FIR?

a. Wait for the police investigation report. b. Forward a copy of the FIR to RBI. c. Forward a copy of the FIR to the Forged Note Vigilance Cell at the Head Office, with full particulars. d. Forward a copy of the FIR to the CBI for further investigations.

21. When are the Counterfeit Notes subjected to verification?

a. On the last Friday of every month. b. On half yearly basis on the 30th June and 31st December every year. c. Annually on the 31st March d. On half yearly basis on 31st March and 30th September.

22. Which of the following are printed in intaglio printing above Rs 20 denomination?

a. Portrait of Mahatma Gandhi b. Reserve Bank Seal c. Guarantee and Promise Clause d. (a) & (b) only e. (a), (b) & (c) above


23. The security feature of Optically Variable Ink (OVI) appears in a. Rs. 10 and above b. Rs. 20 and above c.. Rs. 50 and above d. Rs. 500 and Rs. 2000

24. Which of the following security features can be detected only with Ultra violet lamp? a. Intaglio Printing b. Identification Mark c. Micro Lettering d. Fluorescence

25. When a banknote, tendered at the counter of Issue Office of the Reserve Bank or a bank branch or treasury, is found to be counterfeit, an acknowledgement receipt?

a. Should not be issued to the tenderer b. Should be issued to the tenderer c. Should be issued to the Police authorities d. None of the above

26. In which security feature the intaglio effect is made prominent by increasing the engraving depth from 83 microns to 160 microns?

a. Watermark b. Electrolyte watermark c. Latent Image d. Identification mark

27. Each Bank note, which , on examination of various security features / parameters, is determined as a counterfeit note, shall be branded with a stamp

a. FAKE NOTE b. INGENUINE NOTE c. COUNTERFEIT NOTE d. DUBIOUS NOTE

28. Reserve Bank of India has the sole authority to issue Bank notes under

a. Sec 17 of BR Act b. Sec 22 of RBI Act c. Sec 27 of BR Act d. Sec 22 of NI Act

29. The counterfeit Bank note acknowledgement receipt, in running serial numbers, should be issued in

a. Duplicate b. Triplicate c. Quadruplicate d. Pentplicate

30. According to RBI instructions, ensuring that only properly sorted and machine examined banknotes are fed into the ATMs / issued over the counters and to put in place adequate safeguards, including surprise checks, both during the processing and in transit of notes is the function of?

a. Forged Note Vigilance Cell b. Fake Note Cell c. Phony Note Observation Cell d. Bogus Note Caution Cell


31. The definition of 'counterfeiting' in the Indian Penal Code covers currency notes issued by? a. Indian Government Authority only. b. Indian and Pakistani Government Authority only. c. Indian as well as a Foreign Government authority. d. All of the above.

32. A statement showing the details of counterfeit notes detected in the bank branches during the month shall be compiled and forwarded to the Issue Office of Reserve Bank concerned so as to reach them by?

a. 5th of the next month b. 7th of the next month c. 10th of the next month d. 15th of the next month

33. For cases of detection of counterfeit notes upto 4 pieces, in a single transaction

a. A individual / one on one report should be sent by the Nodal Bank Officer to the police authorities. b. A consolidated report should be sent by the Nodal Bank Officer to the police authorities. c. A individual / one on one report should be sent by the Branch Manger to the police authorities. d. A consolidated report should be sent by the Branch Manger to the police authorities.

34. Each Bank note has a distinctive number and the distinctive number is prefixed with alpha numeric characters. However certain alphabets are omitted as prefixes. Which one of the following alphabets is not one of the omitted alphabets?

a. I b. O c. J d. M

35. All Counterfeit Notes received back from the police authorities/courts may be carefully preserved in the safe custody of the bank and a record thereof be maintained by the branch concerned for a period of

a. Three years from the date of receipt from the police authorities. b. Five years from the date of receipt from the police authorities. c. Seven years from the date of receipt from the police authorities. d. Ten years from the date of receipt from the police authorities.

36. Each Bank note has a distinctive number. This distinctive number is prefixed with two numerals and an alphabet for notes upto?

a. Rs 20 b. Rs 50 c. Rs 100 d. Rs 500

37. The design, form and material of Bank notes are to be approved by

a. Central Board of RBI b. Finance Ministry c. Central Government d. Cabinet Secretary


38. Which of the following security features is incorporated to help the visually challenged?

a. Watermark b. Electrolyte watermark c. Latent Image d. Identification mark

39. The counterfeit Bank note acknowledgement receipt should be authenticated by? a. The Branch Manager b. The Cashier c. The tenderer d. The Cashier as well as by the tenderer

40. Dispensation of counterfeit notes through the ATMs would be construed as?

a. An act of negligence by the bank concerned. b. An attempt to circulate the counterfeit notes by the bank concerned. c. An attempt to sabotage Indian financial system by the bank concerned. d. An act of omission / commission by the branch staff of the bank concerned.

41. Each series of Bank Notes has ?

a. 100 distinctive numbers b. 10000 distinctive numbers c. 1 Lac distinctive numbers d. 10 Lac distinctive numbers

42. For cases of detection of counterfeit notes of 5 or more pieces, in a single transaction

a. A consolidated report should be sent by the Branch Manger to the police authorities. b. The counterfeit notes should be forwarded by the Nodal Bank Officer to the local police authorities or the Nodal Police Station for investigation by filing FIR. c. A consolidated report should be sent by the Nodal Bank Officer to the police authorities. d. The counterfeit notes should be forwarded by the Branch Manager to the local police authorities for investigation.

43. Who gives the request for the replenishment /pickup of remittance?

a. Any Linked Hand Balance Branch of the CAC b. Currency Chest Branch c. Both (a) & (b) d. None of the above

44. Does a CAC have a chest of its own?

a. Yes it has a chest of its own b. No, it is co-located in a Currency Chest c. both (a) & (b) are correct d. both (a) & (b) are incorrect


45. What is the role of the ATM joint custodians? ? a. Arranges for cash replenishment at the linked ATMs. b. Based on the request from the linked CCB. c. Both the above. d. None of the above

46. What is the key role of mobile cashiers? a. Delivery of remittance to the linked branches only. b. Delivery and pickup of cash remittances from linked branches. c. Replenishment of linked ATMs. d. None of the above.

47. What is the CAC-2 used for?

a. To advise the Chest Branch for replenishment at the HBBs b. For pick up of amount from the linked branches c. Both d. None of the above

48. What is the benchmark target for reduction in cash balances of the linked branches?

a. 50 % and above b. 60% c. 30 % and above d. 25 % and above

49. Who verifies the Admin balance of the CAC linked ATMs?

a. ATM Joint Custodians at the CAC. b. Joint Custodians at the CCB c. Manager (CAC) only. d. None of the above

50. What is the prescribed availability time of the linked ATMs?

a. 99 % and above b. 100% c. 98% d. None of he above


ANSWERS OF CASH DEPARTMENT PROCEDURES ASSIGNMENT – II

1 d 11 c 21 d 31 c 41 d

2 d 12 c 22 e 32 b 42 b

3 b 13 a 23 d 33 b 43 a

4 b 14 c 24 d 34 d 44 b

5 c 15 d 25 b 35 a 45 a

6 d 16 a 26 d 36 a 46 b

7 a 17 c 27 c 37 c 47 a

8 a 18 a 28 b 38 d 48 a

9 b 19 c 29 a 39 d 49 a

10 b 20 c 30 a 40 b 50 a


GOVERNMENT BUSINESS - I 1 A govt. bill passed by Treasury Officer is valid for days including the date of

passing

a) 7 b) 10 c) 15 d) 30

2 A govt. bill passed by Treasury Officer on 29-03-2015 is valid up to

a) 07-04-15 b) 08-04-15

c) 10-04-15 d) 31-03-15 3 Daily reporting of State Govt. Transactions by fastest mode is made by the branches

through SGLO – I to

a) FSLO (LHO) b) ZO c) GAD, Mumbai d) RBI

4 Daily summary along with related vouchers and scrolls are sent to

Treasury Office by

a) Messenger book b) TO Pass Book

c) Regd. Post d) Courier 5 At the end of month, summary of govt. transactions is sent to Treasury

Office on format for verification

a) DMS b) VDMS c) SGLO I d) SGLO II

6 is a statement sent by Treasury Office to the branch after due

verification

a) DMS b) VDMS c) SGLO I d) SGLO II

7 Income Tax Refund Orders (ITRO)/ Cheques are valid for month from the

date of issue

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Six


8 Paying branch should obtain by the payee on Income Tax Refund Order (ITRO)

a) Discharge on revenue stamp b) Simple discharge c) No need for any discharge d) None of above

9 Paying Branch should obtain from the payee on Income Tax Refund Cheque

a) Discharge on revenue stamp b) Simple discharge c) No need for any discharge d) None of above

10 Advices of Income Tax Refund Orders (ITROs)/Cheques exceeding Rs.

are sent by Income Tax Office to the paying branches

a) 99 b) 999 c) 25000 d) 99999

11 The present rate of commission on handling govt. business by the

branches is Rs. per Receipt

a) 20 b) 25 c) 45 d) 50

12 The present rate of commission on handling govt. business by the

branches is Rs. per pension payment

a) 45 b) 65

13

c) 60

The present

d) rate of commission on

100 handling

govt.

business

by

the

branches is Rs. per payment (other than pension)

a) 60 b) 25

c) 5.50 paise/Rs.100 d) 6.50 paise/Rs.100

14 Focal Point branch transfers % of commission to receiving branches who have handled govt. business

a) 25 b) 50

c) 75 d) 100

15 Under Reserve Bank of India Remittance Facility Scheme (RBIRFS), the branches will be faxing the schedule (RBR-11) and paid instruments to GAD Belapur, if the amount of draft paid is Rs. lac or more on a single day

a) 25 b) 50

c) 75 d) 100


16 On Line Tax Accounting System (OLTAS) has come into effect from

a) June 2004

b)

July 2004

c) August 2004 d) September 2004

17 How many number of forms for depositing the tax have been introduced under OLTAS?

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

18 Which forms amongst the followings, have been introduced for depositing the tax under OLTAS?

a) 100, 200,300 b) 200,300,400

c) 180,181,182 d) 280,281,282

19 How many copies of relative challan, a depositor has to submit for depositing the tax under OLTAS?

a) One c) Three

b) d)

Two Four

20 Which amongst the following type of challan forms for depositing the tax by the depositor under OLTAS, will not be accepted by the bank?

a) B/W Xerox copy b) Downloaded from internet c) Old challan forms d) None of above

KEY GOVERNMENT BUSINESS - I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. b d a b a b c b c c

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. d b c c a a c d a c


GOVERNMENT BUSINESS - II 1 CIN under OLTAS stands for

a) Commercial & Institutional Negotiator b) Certified Insurer Negotiator c) Challan Identification Negotiator d) Challan Identification Number

2 CIN contains a 7-digit BSR code which pertains to

a) Bank Code b) Circle Code

c) Zonal Office Code d) Branch Code

3 Mr. Suresh Datt has deposited Rs. 10,000/- as income-tax on 25-04-2015 at SBI Panchkula. In which format, the date will be mentioned on the CIN?

a) 25th April 2015

b) 25-04-2015

c) 250415 d) 042515

4 While filing income tax return under OLTAS, a customer has to

a) Submit original copy of challans b) Submit zerox copy of challan c) Mention the CIN no. only d) None of above

5 Mr. K. P. Rai visited SBI Panchkula on 01-01-2015. He does not have PAN No but

intends to deposit the income-tax. How this situation will be dealt with?

a) Mr. Rai will be asked to first obtain PAN b) In the respective column, write “Applied for” and accept challan c) Refer the matter to Controllers d) Refer the matter to Income Tax Deptt

6 Under OLTAS, the collecting branch will be sending the data through electronic

mode to:

a) LHO b) ZO

c) Nodal Branch d) Zonal Accounts Office

7 Nodal branch under OLTAS, will be transmitting the data received from the collecting branches to

a) LHO b) RBI c) ZO d) GAD, Mumbai


8 Under OLTAS, GAD Mumbai will settle the funds with

a) RBI Mumbai b) RBI New Delhi c) RBI CAS, Nagpur d) RBI Chennai

9 The maximum period for crediting the tax collections under OLTAS to Govt. Account at CAS, Nagpur is T + days (Excluding Holidays)

a) 3 b) 7 c) 9 d) 10

10 If govt. account is not credited within the stipulated period under OLTAS, interest

@ Bank Rate + % will be charged

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

11 A new challan form introduced by CBEC-EASIEST for deposit of Central Excise & Service Tax under EASIEST is …………. a) GEST –7 b) GAR-7 c) EASIEST-7 d) GESTC-7

12. For conducting govt. business, the relationship of RBI with SBI is that of

and

a) Licensor, Licensee b) Principal, Agent c) Bailor, Bailee d) None of above

13. For credit of pension to the account of a pensioner, the account may be maintained in:

a) Individual name b) Joint names with any person

c) Joint name with spouse only d) either (a) or (c) only.

14. Life Certificate from pensioner is obtained every year in the month of

a) May b) June

c) November d) December

15. Focal Point branches will be sending at monthly intervals to receiving branches, containing a summary of govt. transactions handled by receiving branches

a) GAD 2 b) GAD 3

c) GAD 5 d) GAD 12

16 . GAD 13 refers to

a) Daily transactions b) Monthly transactions

c) Error Adjustment d) None of above


17. RBI drafts are valid for months

a) 3 b) 6

c) 9 d) 12

18. EASIEST stands for

a) EASY ACCOUNTING SYSTEM IN EXCISE & SERVICE TAX b) EASY ACCOUNTING SYSTEM IN EXCISE & SALES TAX c) ELECTRONIC ACCOUNTING SYSTEM IN EXCISE & SERVICE TAX d) ELECTRONIC ACCOUNTING SYSTEM FOR INCOME, EXCISE &

SALES TAX

KEY GOVERNMENT BUSINESS - II

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. d d c c a c d c a b

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

Ans. b b d c b c b c


GOVERNMENT BUSINESS - III

1. In respect of pension payment to defence personnel who can issue a duplicate pension Payment Certificate in the event of original certificate being lost, stolen or destroyed?

a) Central Govt. b) Ministry of Defense c) Pension Disbursing Authority d) Can not be issued

2. A pension account yields an income of Rs. ----- per transaction?

a) Rs.50 b) Rs 60 c) Rs. 65 d) Rs 70

3. In the CPPC (Centralized Pension Processing Centers) concept the commission between

Dealing/Home branch and Focal Point branch/ CPPC is distributed -------

a) 75%-25% b) 100% by CPPC c) 100% by Dealing/Home branch d) 25%-75%

4. Facility of Drop Box is not available to which of the following?

a) Local Cheques b) Out station cheques c) Direct Tax Challans d) Inter Bank cheques

5. The release of first pension to NRI pensioner/family pensioner, personal

identification at the time of drawls of first payment is----- -

a) Not necessary b) Mandatory c) Certificate from concerned Embassy d) Identification can be done by existing A/c holder

6. Whether credit of pension to a joint account is permitted?

a) No b) Yes c) Yes, A/c with spouse only d) Joint a/c with any one

7. Various products of Small Savings Schemes are available to-------

a) Individuals b) HUFs c) Trusts/PFs etc. d) All


8. It has been decided by Central Pension Accounting Office, Government of India , Ministry of Finance to issue ………..to the Central Govt. pensioners at the commencement of pension and thereafter, whenever there is a change in the quantum of pension.

a) Pass book b) Monthly statements slip c) Pension Slips d) Certificate

9 e-FPB for Central Excise – - ---------

a) W.U.S.C.Chennai b) Delhi main Br c) Mumbai branch d) Kolkatta Br.

10 e-FPB for Service Tax – ---------) Settlement of Central Govt transactions are done by GAD, Navi Mumbai with CAS, RBI, NAGPUR

a) W.U.S.C.Chennai b) Delhi main Br c) Fort Market Br. Mumbai d) Kolkatta Br.

11. ----------------- is responsible for settlement of State Govt. transactions,

currency chest and small coin depot transactions with regional office of RBI

a) FSLO b) RBI itself c) CAS Nagpur d) Focal Point Br.

12 Commuted portion of pension can be restored after ----- years from the date of commutation

a) 15 b) 20 c) 18 d) 16

13. Recovery of excess pension paid, if any, to be made from the available balance in

the account immediately on detection. In case it is not possible then to be recovered in installment from the future payable pension. Such installment should not exceed -----of net pension. Pensioner may, however, repay higher amount

a) 1/3 b) 1/2 c) 1/4 d) 1/5

KEY - GOVERNMENT BUSINESS - III

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. c c a c b c a a a c

Q. 11 12 13

Ans. a a a


SAFE DEPOSIT LOCKERS/SAFE CUSTODY 1. ‘A’ has hired a locker with your branch, he sends the key by post with an intention to surrender the locker, in this situation----------

a) Bank will be discharged of its liability, if key is accompanied by a letter

stating the contents of the lockers as NIL b) The bank will not be discharged of its liability c) The bank should not accept d) Bank can accept subject to its rights under reserve

2. Your branch has a locker account in the joint names of ‘A’ and ‘B’ to be operated as

‘either or Survivor’. You receive information of death of ‘B’, in this event--------:

a) A can operate the locker with legal heirs of B b) For operations of locker permission of court is needed c) A can operate the locker d) None of the above

3. A authorizes B for operating his locker. B approaches the bank for surrender thereof.

How would you react?

a) B can surrender the locker b) B cannot surrender the locker c) If contents are nil he can surrender d) None of the above

4. When a locker is broken open the presence of which of the following is not must-------

a) Locker hirer or his legal heirs b) Two independent witnesses c) Branch officials d) Representative of local police

5. ‘A’ and his wife ‘B’ have hired a locker in joint names; ‘A’ is residing abroad. ‘B’ informs

about loss of key of the locker and asks for breaking open the locker, in this event-----:

a) Bank will not accept the request b) Bank can accept on the basis of indemnity c) Bank can accept the request on the basis of indemnity bond and power of

attorney in her favour from A



6. When a hirer surrenders a locker, the surrendered locker--------------

a) Cannot be allotted to any other person b) It can be allotted to any new hirer after interchanging the lock of the locker with

any other empty locker, c) The surrendered locker can be allotted to new hirer only after 3 years from date

of surrender d) None of the above

7. A locker on hire can not be given to which of the following-----------:

a) A minor b) An illiterate person c) To clubs, societies & associations d) All of the above

8. A and his wife B are having locker with ‘either or survivor’ clause. A informs that his

wife has gone insane and requests the bank not to allow her to operate the locker. The bank---------------

a) Will allow operation by B till A gives a certificate to the bank to the affect

that B has become insane and bank is satisfied with this. b) Will not allow operation by her c) Will allow only joint operations here after d) None of the above

9. What would be the course of action in case of loss of safe custody receipt by the

customer----------: a) If satisfied, the bank can issue a duplicate on written request from the

customer b) The contents would be seized c) The bank can issue a duplicate after obtaining indemnity bond. d) Duplicate cannot be issued as it is not a negotiable instrument

10. When the bank accepts articles for keeping in safe custody, the relationship between

the banker and the customer is that of------------ a) Trustee and beneficiary b) Bailor and bailee c) Principal and agent d) Bailee and Bailor

11. In case of loss of key of the Lockers, a service charge of -------- has to be recovered

from hirer in addition to the actual expenditure incurred for breaking open the locker and changing the lock by manufacturers of lockers.

a) Rs. 500+ST b) Rs. 750 +ST c ) Rs .650+ST d) Rs .1000+ST


12. Articles left in safe custody cannot be delivered on the basis of a succession certificate because----:

a) These are not included in debt and securities as defined under Indian

succession act 1925 b) It is not allowed under RBI act c) It is not permitted under negotiable instruments act d) None of the above

13. A minor wants to keep certain articles in safe custody. The Bank -----------

a) Will not accept the articles b) Can accept and keep articles in safe custody c) Can accept if it is a fixed deposit in his name d) None of the above

14. ‘A’, while keeping a sealed packet in safe custody gives instruction to the bank that

the packet should be delivered to the ‘B’ after his death. In this event, bank ----------

a) Can accept the articles b) Should not accept the packet c) Can accept with power of attorney in favour of B d) None of the above

15. Locker h i r ing Charges for a locker (Large S ize ) in a Urban Branch are-----

- :

a) Rs. 2000+ST b) Rs. 5000 +ST c ) Rs .3000+ST d) Rs .6000+ST

16. Mr. X, approaches your branch to deposit in safe custody, his term deposit receipt (issued by other bank), How would you react-----------------------

a) It can be accepted, provided the other bank has no objection to this b) It can be accepted, if the customer provides indemnity bond c) It can be accepted in normal course d) It cannot be accepted, since it is a term deposit issued by another bank,

this has primary lien on deposit. 17. The packets or boxes accepted for keeping in safe custody must bear which one of

the following seals------------: a) Seal of the Bank b) Seal of the depositor c) Both the above



18. The relationship between the bank and hirer of a locker is that of------------:

a) Debtor-Creditor b) Bailor-Bailee c) Licensor -Licensee d) Principal-agent

19. Locker hiring Charges for a locker (Small Size) in a Urban Branch are------:

a) Rs. 500+ST b) Rs.1000+ST c) Rs.1100+ ST d) Rs.2000+ST

20. Safe custody receipt in respect of branch duplicate keys is kept in the

a) Joint custody of the branch manager and manager cash b) Sole custody of the branch manager in his hand safe. c) Joint custody of the accountant and cash officer d) Sole custody of accountant

KEY : SAFE DEPOSIT LOCKERS/SAFE CUSTODY

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. a c b d c b a c c b

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. b a c b d c b c c b


DISPOSAL OF ASSETS OF DECEASED CONSTITUENTS

1. The term intestate is used with reference to ------------

a) Settlement of claim in case of a deceased customer b) Payment to the nominee in case of a deceased customer c) A person died without leaving a will. d) A person died after leaving a will

2. As per extant instructions regarding payment of balances in the deceased constituents accounts, no separate affidavit (COS 539) would be required for an aggregate amount upto Rs._

a) Rs. 1 lacs b) Rs. 5 lac c) Rs. 2 lacs d) Rs. 3 lacs

3. As per extant instructions regarding payment of balances in the deceased constituents

accounts, for an aggregate amount above Rs.5 lac separate stamped affidavit (COS 539) would be required, which should be signed by:

a) One person b) Two persons c) Three person d) four persons

4. A person will be declared as legally dead, if for a period of year or more, the

persons who would have normally known of his existence have not heard of him / known of his existence:

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

5. When a person dies without leaving behind a will, a person appointed by court

to manage his estate is called:

a) An executor b) An attorney c) An administrator d) A trustee

6. A box was kept as a safe deposit article at your branch. The legal heir to the estate

of the deceased has now requested you to deliver the article to him. Which of the following documents is to be obtained?

a) Succession certificate b) Letter of administration c) Affidavit d) A simple receipt signed by the heir


7. A Probate is --------------------------

a) Will of the deceased. b) The last will of a person certified by legal heirs c) A copy of will certified by a court for settlement of property of the deceased. d) A registered will of the deceased.

8. A will is Probated by the Court under which of the following Act -----------------

a) Indian Succession Act b) Banking Regulation Act c) Indian Contract Act d) Hindu Succession Act

9. An ‘Executor’ is-------------:

a) A person appointed by the court to sell the assets of a deceased person. b) A person who is named in the will of a deceased person to manage his estate c) A person appointed by the legal heirs to execute their orders. d) None of the above.

10. As per extant instructions as regards to payment of balances in the deceased

constituents accounts, no surety would be required for an aggregate amount upto Rs.-----------

a) Rs.100,000 b) Rs. 50,000

11

c) Rs. 200,000

A succession certificate is ---------------

d) Rs. 500,000

a) A document in the form of a court certificate which authorises a person to succeed to the properties of a deceased person.

b) A document which authorises to receive property c) An order by a court. d) A petition approved by a court.

12. A succession certificate issued by a court of law is operative --------

a) Within the Distt. b) Within the State c) Within India. d) At a place specified in the certificate.


13. A succession certificate is issued in respect of which of the following-----:

a) Debts and Securities due to the deceased (i.e. deposits and shares/securities) b) Gold Silver etc. c) Gold offered as security of loan. d) None of the above.

14. Which of the following statement is not correct----------? a) Nomination can be made by illiterate depositor b) Nomination can be made in joint Accounts also c) Only one person can be nominated in deposit accounts d) Two persons can be nominated in the Joint Deposit Accounts

15. Nomination by illiterate to be witnessed by-------------

a) One person b) Two persons c) A Bank Official d) Nominee

16 For a deposit account in the name of a minor under guardianship, who can make

the nomination-- a) The natural guardian or legal guardian b) The minor himself c) No nomination in minor deposits d) None of the above

17. Nomination, cancellation of Nomination and change in nomination require----

a) Registration with Revenue authorities b) Registration with Co. Act c) Registration with RBI under BR Act d) No Registration is required

18. In case the nominee predeceases the account holder, the nomination--------

a) Automatically Stands cancelled b) Requires request for cancellation c) Legal representation is required d) Will require renewal

19. Nomination can be made in favour of------------:

a) Institutions/Societies b) Joint Nominee c) Individuals d) Blood Relation only

20 The person who makes a Will is

a) Legatee b) Testator c) Executor d) None of the above


21. The person who inherits property under a Will is a) Legatee b) Testator c) Executor d) None of the above

22. A will to be valid must be ------- a) Attested or witnessed by 2 or more witnesses b) Attested or witnessed by one witness is sufficient c) Attested or witnessed by 4 or more witnesses d) Need not be attested or witnessed

23. A ‘will’ to be valid must be -------

a) Executed on a stamp paper b) Stamped with advalorem duty c) Registered d) None of these

24. The document that alters, adds or explains a will and is deemed to be part of a will

is--- a) Annexure b) Add-on will c) Codicil d) None of these

25. While opening account in the name of an executor we must obtain---

a) Original Will b) Probate c) Succession Certificate d) Letter of Administration

26. Balance in the account of a deceased constituent can be attached by a

a) Garnishee order issued by the Court b) Attachment order of Revenue Authority c) None of these d) Both the above

27. Which of the following documents you will call for in permitting removal of the contents

of the locker in case of death of locker hirer who has not nominated any one?

a) Heir ship certificate b) Succession certificate c) Certificate of administration general d) Letter of administration


28. As per RBI instructions claim upto Rs. can be settled without legal

representation if there is no dispute and Bank has no reasonable doubt about the claimant and all legal heirs join in indemnifying.

a) 10 lacs b) 25 lacs c) 100 lacs d) No limit

29. Payment to the claimants of deceased claim cases is made----------

a) Credit to claimants individual account maintained with the Bank at any centre in India through Bank transfer.

b) Credit to claimants individual account maintained with any other Bank in India by way of inter bank transfer through RTGS/NEFT.

c) Through Bankers’ Cheque/ Demand Draft which should be properly discharged

d) Any one of the above 30. What is the procedure of delivering the gold ornaments pledged to the bank

without legal representation?

a) The Letter of Indemnity is to be obtained on the appropriate form b) The receipt of the claimants is to be obtained in the Gold Loan Ledger

under authentication of the joint custodians c) A separate receipt detailing the items delivered is to be obtained from the

claimants d) All the above

31. As per RBI instruction the claims up to a threshold limit of Rs ------------ will be

entertained without insisting for valid death certificate in case of missing persons.

a) 1.00 lac b) 0.50 lac c) 2.00 lac d) 1.50 lac 32. The documents required for settling claim in respect of missing persons

without production of valid death certificate are

a) FIR b) Non-traceable report issued by the police authorities. c) Indemnity from the claimant d) All the above


ANSWERS DISPOSAL OF ASSETS OF DECEASED CONSTITUENTS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

c b a c c b c a b d

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

a c a d b a d a c b

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

a a d c b b d d d d

31 a 32 d


Remittances/Collections-1 1. RTGS stands for -----------

a) Risk Taking Guarantee Scheme b) Real Time Gross Settlement c) Right Transaction General Scheme d) None of the above

2. RTGS Scheme is managed by----------

a) State Bank of India b) Indian Bank’s Association c) Reserve Bank of India d) None of the above

3. For customer to customer transaction (RTGS) minimum amount that can be sent is

a) Rs 2.00lacs b) Rs 5.00lacs c) Rs 1.00lacs d) No minimum 4. Transactions under RTGS are reconciled at---------

a) CDC Belapur b) IOR Deptt. C.O. Mumbai c) F.D. Calcutta d) Reserve Bank Of India

5. In case of payment of IOI, the paying Banker is protected under Section of Negotiable Instrument Act1881, if other conditions are satisfied:

a) 85 b) 85A c) 131 d) 138

6. A duplicate IOI can be issued for an amount up to Rs. without waiting for the

non-payment advice from the drawee branch:

a) Rs.5,000 b) Rs.10, 000

c) Rs.15, 000 d) Not Required

7. For valued constituents, a duplicate IOI can be issued without insisting for any surety, where the amount of IOI is below Rs. ---------

a) Cannot be issued without obtaining surety b) Rs.60, 000/- c) Rs.80, 000/- d) Rs.100, 000/-

8. The Applicant of IOI has the right to stop its payment. In the case of a ----:

a) The branch issuing the IOI has a right to stop its payment b) Only the applicant for the IOI has a right to stop its payment c) Payment of IOI cannot be stopped d) None of the above


9. In the event of Original and duplicate IOI are presented for payment through clearing,

by two different banks on the same day, the Bank-------------

a) Will pay the duplicate b) Will pay the original c) Will return both d) Both will have to be paid

10. Hologram will be affixed on all IOI of Rs._ & above including IOI issued on

continuous stationary:

a) Rs.0.50 lac b) Rs.1 lac c) Rs. 2 lacs d) Rs. 10 lacs

11. In case of collection of IOI the collecting Banker is protected under section…..

Of Negotiable Instrument Act1881.

a) 85 b) 85 A

c) 131 d) 131 A

12. Branches will provide immediate credit to customers’ accounts in respect of outstation cheques up to Rs as per RBI directives:

a) Rs.10, 000 b) Rs.20,000

c) Rs.15, 000 d) Rs. 30,000

13. While making the payment of a Banker’s Cheque by cancellation, which of the following statement is not true:

a) A stamped letter of Indemnity on COS 537 would be required b) The purchaser can give a simple request letter for cancellation c) His receipt on the back of the Banker’s Cheque (on a revenue stamp if the

amount is Rs 5000 and above) under the words,” Received Payment by Cancellation “would need to be obtained

d) Strict identification should be insisted upon if the amount is paid in cash 14. The present ceiling limit per transaction under Electronic Fund Transfer (EFT)

is ------------: a) Rs. 1 lac b) Rs. 5 lacs c) Rs. 2 crores d) No Ceiling since 01-11-04

15. Interest on delayed collection of instruments is paid by debit to------:

a) Interest Account b) Charges Account-Sundries

c) Savings Bank Interest Account d) None of these


16. Drop box facility should not be used for which of the following type of instruments-----------:

a) Local Clearing Cheques b) Cheques drawn on Branch c) Cheques against Government Challans d) Outstation cheques for collection

17. A drop box with 03 slits/compartments has three coloured powder coated

compartments-which are these colours:

a) Red, Blue, Green b) Blue, Green, Yellow c) Blue, Red, Yellow d) Red, Green, Yellow

18. As per extant RBI instructions relating to payment of compensation for

delayed collection of instruments, banks should pay interest @ for the period of delay (7/10/14 days).

a) 2% above fixed deposit rate applicable for abnormal delay b) 1.5% above fixed deposit rate applicable for abnormal delay c) 1% above fixed deposit rate applicable for abnormal delay d) Beyond 14 days @ TDR or SB whichever is higher and beyond 90 days 2%above TDR rate minimum Rs 25/-

19. Revenue stamp is required to be affixed in case of cancellation of Demand

Draft of Rs.

a)5,000 and above b) Above 5,000 c)Irrespective of amount d) Not required

20. Inter Office Instument (IOI) have been introduced in lieu of :

a) Demand draft b) Banker Cheque c) Both of the above d) None of the above

KEY - REMITTANCES/COLLECTIONS-1

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans b c a d b d d c a b

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans d d a d b c c d b c


REMITTANCES/COLLECTIONS-2

21. An IOI can be revalidated---------

a) Once b) Twice c) No restrictions d) It can’t be revalidated

22. Banker Cheques are to be credited to charges account if they are unclaimed for--------

a) Six months b) One year c) Three years d) None of these

23. Maximum amount for which an IOI can be issued is

a) Rs. 100,00,00,000 b) Rs. 99,99,99,999 c) Rs. 99,00,00,000 d) none of these

24. Which one of the following is required to be submitted by an applicant for issuance

of DDs, BCs of Rs. 50,000 and above --------

a) Form 60/61 b) PAN No. c) Neither a nor b d) either a or b

25. IOI has ----------digit running serial number

a) 12 b) 10 c) 11 d) 16

26. IOI is valid for-----

a) 3 months b) 6 months c) So long it is revalidated d) None of the above

27. IOI instruments when examined under Ultra violet rays will show the water mark of--

-------

a) our corporate centre building b) SBI’s logo c) words SBI d) none of the above

28. The Hologram has nine digit number. The first two digits represent ------

a) Circle code b) First two digits of BSR code c) RBI allotted code for our bank d) First two digits of branch code


29. Before allowing immediate credit facility (DDP), it is to be ensured that, ---------

a) Account has been opened for a period not less than six months b) Minimum balance requirements are met c) Cheques deposited for collection/credit to the account have not been returned

unpaid d) All the above

30. What is the time frame for collection of cheques (drawn on our own

branches), between Metropolitan Centres/ Major “A” Class cities?

a) 6 days b) 7 days

c) 8 days d) 10days

31. What is the time frame for collection of cheques (drawn on other bank branches), between Metropolitan Centres/ Major “A” Class cities?

a) 6 days b) 7 days

c) 8 days d) 10days

32. What is the time frame for collection of cheques (drawn on our own branches), between Metropolitan Centres / Major “A” Class cities and State Capitals (Other than North Eastern States & Sikkim) ?

a) 6 days b) 7 days c) 8 days d) 10days

33. What is the time frame for collection of cheques (drawn on other bank branches),

between Metropolitan Centres / Major “A” Class cities and State Capitals (Other than North Eastern States & Sikkim) ?


34. What is the time frame for collection of cheques (drawn on other bank branches),

between centres other than Metropolitan Centres/ Major “A” Class cities and State Capitals (Other than North Eastern States & Sikkim)

a) 8 days b) 7 days

c) 14 days d) 10days

35. What is the time frame for collection of cheques (drawn on our bank branches), between centres other than Metropolitan Centres/ Major “A” Class cities and State Capitals (Other than North Eastern States & Sikkim)



36. Can triplicate IOI be issued? a) Yes b) No

37. The compensation on account of delays in collection of instruments in

foreign currency would be--

a) At 5% p.a. if the period of delay is beyond prescribed collection period and upto 45 days where proceeds of the instruments are to be credited to deposit accounts

b) At 4% p.a. if the period of delay is beyond prescribed collection period and upto 45 days where proceeds of the instruments are to be credited to deposit accounts

c) At 1.5% p.a. if the period of delay is beyond prescribed collection period and upto 45 days where proceeds of the instruments are to be credited to deposit accounts

d) At 2% p.a. if the period of delay is beyond prescribed collection period and upto 45 days where proceeds of the instruments are to be credited to deposit accounts

38. If the collection is realized beyond 45 days it is treated as---------

a) Normal Delay b) Abnormal dealy c) Delay is delay, it hardly matters whether normal or abnormal d) No such classification

39. If there is abnormal delay in realization of collection and the proceeds were

meant for credit to overdraft or loan account of the customer, the interest payable would be at-------

a) Savings Bank Rate b) SBAR c) Rate applicable on Overdraft/Loan d) 2 % above the applicable interest rate to the loan account

40. Force Majure means

a) External acts over which the Bank has control b) The Bank is liable to compensate the customers for such acts c) These are the acts done by the customer d) These are unforeseen events beyond the control of the Bank

41. Who can mark IOI as damaged in CBS.

a) Any officer with capability 40,45 or 60 b) Only vault teller c) Only cash officer d) Only Branch Manager


Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. a c b b a a a a d a

Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. b c d c d b a b d D

Q. 41 42 43 44 45

Ans. b b d a b

42. What is the screen no for transferring Banker Cheques to Charges account & reverse,

Which are more than 3 Years old.

a) SCR:036033 b) SCR:036034 c) SCR:036035 d) SCR:036036

43. Charges account for crediting Banker Cheque More than Three years old

a) 3199863 b) 3199842 c) 3199843 d) 3199864

44. Bank’s Liability for Banker Cheque More than 3 Years old account no is

a) 3199924 b) 3199925 c) 3199964 d) 3199942

45. Banker Cheque outstanding more than 3 Years old BGL account no is.

a) 3199924 b) 3199925 c) 3199842 d) 3199843

KEY – REMITTANCES/COLLECTIONS-2


INSPECTION & AUDIT 1. RFIA stands for _______ a. Return Focus Internal Audit b. Risk Factor Internal Audit c. Risk Focused Internal Audit d. None of the above 2. Inspection and Management Audit Department, Corporate Centre is located at _____ a. Navi Mumbai b. Jaipur c. Hyderabad d. Lucknow 3. Who conducts Credit Audit? a. I&MA Department b. IVA Department under I&MA c. RBI Auditors d. Concurrent Auditors 4. Statutory Audit conducted by? a. Bank's Internal Auditors b. RBI Auditors c. Chartered Accounts empanelled by RBI d. Concurrent Auditors 5. What is true in respect of RFIA. a. RBI introduced Risk Based Supervision in banking industry due to frequent changes in International Banking Scenario b. RBI announced the move towards RISK Based Supervision in its monitory policy for 2001-2002 c. RFIA is part of RBS d. All the above 6. Frequency of Internal Verification Audit is ____? a. One in a year b. Once in two years c. In between two Corporate Centre Audits d. As directed by RBI 7. Serious irregularities under Group Heading (SIGH) of the erstwhile inspection report format has been replaced by _____? a. SDRM b. MRDS c. DRMS d. RFIA 8. New branches are eligible for RFIA in ----- months. a. 12 b. 24 c. 15 d. 18 9. What is Management Letter? a. It indicates the staff strength of a branch b. It describes the customer service of the branch c. It highlights crucial issues of concern d. It is the confidential report on the various functionaries at the branch


10. SDRM stands for? a. Serious Drawback in Risk Management b. Serious Deviations in Risk Management c. Serious Deficiencies in Risk Management d. Small Deficiencies in Risk Management 11. All CAG, MCG and SAMG branches come under? a. Group I b. Group II c. Group III d. Group A 12. RBI conduct Audits under? a. section 35 of Banking Regulation Act b. section 51 of Banking Regulation Act c. section 35 of RBI Act d. section 25 of SBI Act 13. Which parameter has been delinked from RFIA? a. Risk Rating based on Risk Parameters (1000 marks) b. Business Rating based on Business Parameters (500 marks) c. General Efficiency Rating on the basis of aggregate of Tier I & Tier II d. Both a) & c) 14. Out of total score of 1000 marks under Risk Rating a branch rated as “Unsatisfactory” has a score of ____? a. < 50% b. < 55% c. < 45% d. < 40% 15. Which of the following does not fall under high risk under “Zero Tolerance”?

a. False Certification of substantive nature in BMMC b. Non-checking of VVRs / BGL day books by a person other than whom they relate to c. Maintenance of password secrecy and prompt reporting of loss of password of the INB

customer to the Security Manager, INB Mumbai d. Proper custody and accounting of pre-printed INB Kit, ATM Pin Mailers and Welcome Kit. e. None of the above 16. What is the revised periodicity of RFIA for branches scoring > 85% under Group I? a. within 18 months b. within 12 months c. within 15 months d. within 21 months 17. What is the revised periodicity of RFIA for branches scoring 70% – 85% in Group II? a. within 21 months b. within 12 months c. within 15 months d. within 18 months 18. What is the revised periodicity of RFIA with effect from 01-01-2016? a. within 18 months b. within 12 months irrespective of group c. within 6-8 months irrespective of group d. within 10 months 19. One of the following is not covered under operational risk? a. Customer service b. Control system c. General Branch Management d. Problem loan Management


20. Credit Audit covers borrower accounts with credit limits---? a. Rs. 5 crore and above b. Rs. 10 crore and above c. Rs. 15 crore and above d. Rs. 3 crore and above 21. I&MA Department is headed by Dy. Managing Director (I&MA) reports to?

a. Audit Committee of the Bank's Board of Directors (ACB) in other matters b. For functional matters to the Chairman of the Bank c. For other matters to the Chairman of the Bank d. All of the above 22. Inspection is broader in scope than? a. Organization b. Bank c. Audit d. None of the above 23. Audit is an official inspection of an organization's ____?

a. is fundamentally a qualitative review of the affairs of an organization b. relates more to verifying books of accounts for its correctness and proper record keeping c. objective is verify observance of the prescribed procedures and guideliunes d. None of the above 24. Cut off limit for assigning audit will be? a. Accounts with total limits above Rs. 50 crores under sole banking b. Accounts with total limits above Rs. 100 crores under consortium or Multiple Banking arrangements from all lenders c. Both a & b d. None of the above 25. “Ratings awarded by the inspecting officials is subject to appeal from branches” the statement is? a. True b. False

c. Can't say d. May be as decided in Branch Meeting 26. Risk Based Supervision is based on the? a. Global Economic Risks b. International Currency Risks c. Risk Profiles of Banks d. Regional Risks 27. Which of the following is an element of Risk Based Supervision? a. Off-site surveillance b. On-site inspections c. External Auditors d. All the above 28. Which of the following is not one of the risk parameters in RFIA? a. Credit Risk Management b. Market Risk Management c. Operational Risk Management d. External Compliance 29. The concept of Risk Based Supervision is related to which of the pillars of the Basel Accord? a. I b. II c. III d. None of the above


30. Which of the following is not one of the sub-core parameters under Operational Risk Management? a. Documentation b. Control System c. Back office operations d. Customer service 31. Which is a systematic and timely examination of financial transactions on an ongoing basis to ensure accuracy & compliance with procedure and guidelines? a. Self-Audit b. Concurrent Audit

c. Internal Audit d. Management Audit 32. Which of the following is a Pre Sanction Requirement in Credit Risk Management? a. Timely renewal of accounts b. Filing of charge with ROC c. Insurance covers for assets charged d. Verification of Title Deeds 33. What are the scores alloted for Self-Audit in the ARF? a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25 34. A branch is categorized as a group I branch if?

a. Its Non Food Advances are above 200 crores b. Its total profit is above 25 crore c. Its total advances are above 500 crores d. It is a divisionalised branch 35. As part of Risk Based Supervision initiative, banks are required to put in place?

a. Risk Focussed Internal Audit b. Strengthen MIS c. Training in Risk Management d. All of the above 36. Irrespective of the scores obtained by it a branch will be rated “Not Satisfactorily Run” if___?

a. Minimum score is not obtained on customer service parameters b. Minimum scores is not obtained on new business parameters c. False certifications of serious nature in BMMC d. Minimum score is not obtained on NPA reduction 37. What is the maximum penalty for false compliance? a. 25 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 38. Value statements relating to “Custody & Handling of Keys” would come under?

a. Branch Management b. Fraud Prevention c. Control Management d. Norms for High Risk Areas 39. Branches with high value advances and high interest income are likely to be found in? a. Category I b. Category II c. Category III d. None of the above


40. Which of the following is an element of Risk Based Supervision?

a. Off-site surveillance b. On-site inspections c. External Auditors d. All of the above 41. The purpose of RFIA to focus the audit on? a. High business area b. High profit area c. High volume areas d. High risk areas 42. Supervisor in the context of Basel Accord refers to? a. Government of India b. RBI c. Ministry of Finance d. Basel Committee 43. ACB stands for? a. Audit Committee of Bank b. Apex Committee of Bank c. Apex committee of Board of Directors d. Audit committee of Bank's Board of Directors 44. What is the maximum period within which audit should be carried out of a branch downgraded by 2 stages in successive audits? a. 6 months b. 8 months c. 9 months d. 12 months 45. Which of the following is not an Operational Risk Event? a. Internal fraud b. External publicity c. Employment practices d. Damage to physical assets 46. What is the full form of RCSA? a. Risky control & self Assessment b. Risk Control & Self Assessment c. Risk & Control Self Assessment d. Risk Area & Control Self Assessment 47. Which of the following are included in 8 lines of business as per Basel-II? a. Asset Management b. Corporate Finance c. Retail Banking d. a), b) & c) 48. Primary responsibility for effective managing operational risk in our bank lies with? a. Chief Risk Officer b. Board of Directors c. CGM of RMD d. DMD concerned 49. Key Risk Indicators are fixed after going through? a. RFIA & Concurrent audit report b. Perception of the risk by the business and support groups c. Both (a) & (b) d. Neither (a) nor (b)

50. Three methods for calculation of Capital Charge for Operational Risk under Pillar I (Basel III) are? a. Basic Indicator Approach b. The Standardized Approach c. Advanced Measurement Approach d. All of the above


Answers of INSPECTION & AUDIT

1 c 11 a 21 c 31 b 41 d

2 c 12 a 22 c 32 d 42 b

3 a 13 b 23 b 33 a 43 d

4 c 14 a 24 c 34 a 44 c

5 d 15 e 25 b 35 d 45 b

6 c 16 a 26 c 36 c 46 c

7 a 17 d 27 d 37 d 47 d

8 a 18 c 28 b 38 b 48 b

9 c 19 d 29 b 39 a 49 c

10 b 20 b 30 a 40 d 50 d


P-Segment Liability Products-1

01. As per Savings Bank Rules- Minors who can adhere to uniform signature and are not less than 10 years old, can open Savings Bank Accounts in their single name and can maintain a maximum balance of:

a) Rs.20,000/- b) Rs.50,000/-

b) Rs.10,000/- d) Rs.2,00,000/-

02. The Maximum deposit in the minor’s a/c under guardianship without production of guardianship certificate can be up to-----:

a) Rs. 50000/- b) Rs 1.00 lac

c) Rs 2.00 lac d) Rs 20.00 lac

03. What is the minimum cash amount that can be deposited in a Savings Bank Account?

a) Rs.1/- b) Rs.5/- c) Rs.10/- d) Rs.50/-

04. What is the minimum permissible amount for withdrawal from a Savings Bank Account?

a) Rs. 5/- b) Rs. 10/-

c) Rs. 50/- d) Rs. 100/-

05. In case of loss of key of the Lockers, a service charge of Rs. -------- has to be recovered from hirer in addition to the actual expenditure incurred for breakingopen the locker and changing the lock by manufacturers of lockers.

a) Rs. 750/-+ ST b) 500/-+ ST

c) Rs.1250/-+ ST d) 1000/-+ ST

06. What is the minimum average balance required to be maintained in a current account by Non-Individuals in Rural Areas & Other Areas

a) Rs.2500/- & Rs.5000/- respectively

b) Rs.5000/- & Rs10000/- respectively

c) Rs.2000/- & Rs.5000/- respectively

d) Rs.1000/- & Rs.5000/- respectively 07 What is the minimum average balance required to be maintained in a current

account by Individual in Rural Areas & Other Areas

a) Rs.2500/- & Rs.5000/- respectively

b) Rs.5000/- & Rs10000/- respectively

c) Rs.2000/- & Rs.5000/- respectively

d) Rs.1000/- & Rs.5000/- respectively


08 What is the minimum average balance required to be maintained in a Per

Segment Savings Bank Account in Rural Areas & Other Areas

a) Rs.250 & Rs. 500/- respectively b) Rs. 500 & Rs. 1000/- respectively

c)

e)

Rs.200 & Rs. 500/- respectively

Nil

d) Rs.100 & Rs. 500/- respectively

09 What is the minimum average balance required to be maintained in a Non

Personal Segment Saving Bank account in Rural Areas & Other Areas

a) Rs.250 & Rs. 500/- respectively b) Rs. 500 & Rs. 1000/- respectively

c)

Rs.200 & Rs. 500/- respectively

e) Nil

d) Rs.1000 & Rs. 5000/- respectively

10 What is the minimum & maximum period for Term Deposits of less than Rs 1 crore? a) 07 days & 60 months b) 7 days & 120 months c) 15days & 60 months d) 15 days & 120 months

11. What is the minimum & maximum period for Term Deposits of Rs 1 crore & above?

a) 7 days & 120 months b 7 days & 60 months

c) 15days & 60 months d) 15 days & 120 months

12 What is the minimum amount of deposit that can be accepted as Term / Special Term Deposit:

a) Rs.1000/- b) Rs.100/-

c) Rs.500/- d) Rs. 5000/-

13 What is the minimum & maximum period for S.T.D.R accounts?

a) 3 months & 60 months b) 6 months & 120 months c) 6 months & 60 months d) 12 months & 120 months

14 What is the minimum & maximum period for R.D. accounts?

a) 3 months & 60 months b) 6 months & 120 months

c) 6 months & 60 months d) 12 months & 120 months

15 Recurring Deposits are accepted in monthly installments of (Except Rural Branches):

a) Minimum Rs. 50/- Maximum Rs. 1000/- b) Minimum Rs. 100/- Maximum Rs. 10,000/- c) Minimum Rs. 100/- and thereafter in multiple of Rs. 10/- d) Minimum Rs. 100/- Maximum Rs. 5,000/-


16 The maximum amount of loan that can be granted against Term Deposits is: a) 85% of principal amount b) 85% of principal amount + accrued interest c) 90% of principal amount d) 90% of principal amount + accrued interest

17. U/s 269 T of the Income Tax Act, the branches will make payment of time

deposits with interest thereon amounting to Rs.______ and above by way of

credit to account/Bank Draft/crossed cheque only: a) Rs.10,000/- b) Rs.20,000/- c) Rs.50,000/- d) Rs.1,00,000

18. Which of the following statement is correct in respect of a nominated Term deposit account, when it is renewed? a) A fresh nomination needs to be obtained every time the deposit is

renewed b) The nomination taken at the time of issuance of the deposit can be treated

as a valid nomination for the term deposit renewed on maturity unless the depositor would like to change the nomination

c) A fresh nomination is required if the periodicity of deposit at the time of renewal is different from the original periodicity.

d) A fresh nomination is required if the renewed deposit is different from the matured deposit.

19 On premature payment of time deposits, interest will be applied @ below the rate applicable for the period the deposit has run.

a) 0% b) 0.50% c) 1.00% d) 2.00%

20. As per Section 194 A of the Income Tax Act, banks are required to deduct tax at source whenever interest on time deposits credited or paid or likely to be credited or paid to the account of a customer, exceeds Rs per person, in a financial year.

a) Rs.5, 000 b) Rs.10, 000 c) Rs.2,500 d) Rs.20,000

21. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Saving Bank

Account in the name of illiterate person: i) An illiterate person may open an ordinary Savings Bank account in his sole name or jointly with other person(s). ii) Where one of the depositors is literate a cheque-operated joint account

payable to ‘any one, survivors can be opened

iii) The thumb impression of the depositor on the Savings Bank account closing form are to be witnessed in all cases, by an independent witness acceptable to the Bank. iv) Accounts of illiterate depositors may be transferred, at their request, from

one branch to another like the other accounts.

a) Only (i) b) Both (i) & (ii) c) (i), (ii) & (iv) d) All of the above


22. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Saving Bank Account in the name of a person not knowing either English or Hindi language? i) Account can be opened in regional language known to person. ii) Account can’t be opened iii) Account can be opened jointly with the person knowing English or Hindi language.

iv) Account can be opened on the same terms and conditions as for an

illiterate person if not knowing regional language also. a) Only (i) b) Both (i) & (iii) c) (i), (iii) & (iv) d) Only (ii)

23. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Saving Bank Account in the name of a visually impaired / blind person?

i) If a blind person is illiterate, or literate but unable to sign uniformly, account can be opened on the same terms and conditions as for an illiterate person. ii) Operation by cheque in the blind / visually impaired depositor's account in the sole name is not permitted. iii) Operation by cheque in the blind / visually impaired depositor's account in the sole name may continue to be permitted, only under the signature of a duly constituted ‘power of attorney’ of the account holder or after furnishing simple undertaking. iv) In case of self operated cheque facility account of visually impaired / blind depositors, the third party cash payment of self drawn cheques is not permitted. a) Only (i) b) Both (i) & (ii) c) (i), (iii) d) None of the above

24. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Saving Bank

Account in the name of pensioners? i) 50% concession is being allowed in minimum balance to be

maintained. ii) 50% concession is being allowed in service charges for not maintaining

minimum balance.

iii) Account can be opened in joint names with the family pensioner nominated in the PPO, in case pension paying Department permits.

iv) Accounts of pensioners may be transferred, at their request, from one branch to another.

a) Only (i) b) Both (i) & (ii)

c) (i), (ii) & (iv) d) All of the above


25. In satisfactorily conducted accounts, immediate credit will be afforded for outstation instruments deposited up to :

a) Rs. 15,000 b) Rs. 10, 000

c) Rs. 20,000 d) Rs. 30, 000 26. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of issuance of

TDR/STDR?

i) The receipts for fixed deposits viz. Term Deposit / Special Term Deposits is to be issued in the form of a system generated advice on preprinted Non security form look alike receipt format

ii) Statement (i) is applicable to all branches of the bank irrespective of the location and type of the branch

iii) Statement (i) is applicable to all market segments iv) Statement (i) is applicable to any amount of deposit tendered v) Statement (i) is not applicable to Term Deposit / Special Term

Deposits received under State Bank Tax Saving Scheme 2006 & SBI CAPGAINS PLUS.

a) Only (i) b) Both (i) & (ii)

c) (i), (ii) (iii) & (iv) d) All of the above

27. Additional premiums on a Single deposit of Rs 1 crore and above with effect from 1st April 2013 is .

a) 0.25% b) 0.10% c) 0.50% d) Nil

28. Before maturity penalty to be charged in case of STDR/TDR below Rs. 5 lacs a. No Penalty for tenors 7 days to 180 days b. No Penalty for tenors 7 days to 1 year c. Penalty of 1.00% is to be charged d. Both a & c

e. NIL

29. Before maturity penalty to be charged in case of STDR/TDR above Rs. 5 lacs

a. No Penalty for tenors 7 days to 180 days b. No Penalty for tenors 7 days to 1 year c. Penalty of 1.00% is to be charged d. Both a & c e. Both b & c

30. The initial deposit for the benefit of newly born “Girl Child” introduced by our Bank in July 2010, for a period of 18 years, should come from:

a) Cash deposit from the parent / guardian

b) The State Government which sponsors the child c) The NGO operating in the area d) None of these


Key - P-Segment Liability Products-1

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. d c c c a b a e b b

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. a a b d c d b b c b

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. d c c d d d d e c b


P-Segment Liability Products 2

1. The minimum amount of initial deposit allowable for Multi Option Deposit Accounts (MODs) is:_ .

a) Rs. 10,000 b) Rs. 5,000 c) Rs. 1,000 d) Rs. 500

2 Multi Option Deposit Scheme, is the combination of :

a) TDR/STDR & R.D. b) TDR/STDR & C.A. A/c / S.B. A/c c) S.B. A/c & TDR/STDR d) S.B. A/c & R.D.

3. For partial withdrawal/ break up of MODs the unit amount is:

a) Rs. 10,000 b) Rs. 5,000 c) Rs. 1,000 d) Rs. 500

4. What is the maturity period of Multi Option Deposits?

a) 6 months and above, maximum 3 years. b) 1 year and above, maximum 3 years. c) 1 year and above, maximum 5 years d) 1 year and above, maximum 10 years

5. While making premature payment of MODS, which of the following method will be applicable------ a) First in first out (FIFO) b) Last in first out (LIFO) c) Any one can be broken as opted by customer d) None of the above.

6. What is the maturity period of MODs issued under Saving Plus Scheme?

a) 6 months and above, maximum 5 years. b) 1 year and above, maximum 3 years.

c) 1 year and above, maximum 5 years

d) 6 months, 12 months, 24 months or 36 months.

7. Under ‘Saving Plus Account’ opened under salary account the minimum ‘Threshold Amount’ should be Rs. , however the depositor may opt for a higher threshold amount. a) 35,000/- b) 15,000/- c) 10,000/- d) 25,000/-

8. In Saving plus Scheme the ‘Auto Sweep’ is operative on and MODs are issued for eligible amount.

a) 5th and 20th of every month b) 10th and 20th of every month c) Once a week (any day) or once a month (any date) as opted by the depositor. d) 15th and 30th of every month


9. Loan against deposits held under Saving Plus Scheme is granted up to--------- a) 75% of deposit b) 85% of deposit c) 90% of deposit d) Not permitted

10. Under Corporate Liquid Term Deposit (CLTD) scheme, the maximum period of

deposit is----- a) One year b) 3 Years c) 7 Year d) 5 Years

11. The Threshold Amount of Corporate Liquid Term Deposit (CLTD) is------

a) Rs. 15,000/- b) Rs.10,000/-

c) Rs.25,000/- d) Rs.1,00,000/- 12. Under CLTD Scheme, the partial withdrawal is permitted in units of Rs. --------

a) Rs.1000/- b) Rs.2000/- c) Rs.5000/- d) Rs.10, 000/-

13. Under Corporate Liquid Term Deposit (CLTD) scheme, the minimum period of deposit is------

a) 15 days b) 6 months

c) 1 year d) 7 days

14. Banks are required to deduct tax at source (TDS) from interest payable on Time

Deposits/ RDs wherever such interest paid or accrued per person during a financial year exceeds --------------

a) Rs.20000 b) Rs.10000

c) Rs.5000 d) Rs.50000

15. The minimum amount of deposit under the Kisan Mitra Jama Yojna is Rs._ and in multiples of . a) Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 100 b) Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 500 c) Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 1,000 d) Rs. 1,500 and Rs. 100

16. The minimum amount of withdrawal under the Kisan Mitra Jama Yojna is

stipulated at and in multiple of .. a) Rs. 100/- and Rs 100/- b) Rs. 500/- and Rs. 100/- c) Rs. 1,000/- and Rs. 500/- d) Rs. 1,500/- and Rs. 100/-

17. The minimum period of deposit under the Kisan Mitra Jama Yojna is: . a) 12 months b) 6 months c) 3 months d) 15 days.

18. Under the Kisan Mitra Jama Yojna deposit can be accepted for a

maximum period of . a) 3 years b) 5 years c) 7 years d) 10 years


19. The minimum amount of Corporate Liquid Term Deposit (CLTD) is------

a) Rs.5, 000/- b) Rs.10000/- c) Rs.25000/- d) Rs.1,00,000

20. Under CLTD Scheme, the minimum amount of deposit allowable subsequent

to initial deposit is: a) Rs. 5000/- b) Rs. 10000/- c) Rs. 25,000/- d) Rs. 50,000/-

Key- P-Segment Liability Products – 2

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. a b c c c c a c d b

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. d a c b d b a d d d


P-Segment Liability Products – 3 1) To be eligible for differential rate of interest under Senior Citizen Deposit Scheme, the

minimum age of the depositor is-------- a) 58 years b) 60 years c) 65 years d) none of the above

2) Under Senior Citizen Deposit Scheme, the minimum period of deposit is

. a) 3 months b) 6 months c) 1 year d) 15 days

3) Under Senior Citizen Deposit Scheme, the minimum amount of deposit is .

a) Rs.500/- b) Rs.1, 000/- c) Rs.5, 000/- d) Rs.10, 000/-

4) Differential rate of interest under Senior Citizen Deposit Scheme is ----------------

a) 1% b) 0.50%

c) 0.25% d) None of the above

5) Which of the following statement is not true in respect of CAPGAIN PLUS Scheme? a) It is a product for parking of capital gains for a max.period of 3 years. b) Funds parked in the account are to be utilised for capital investment.

c) All branches are authorised to open accounts under CAPGAIN Scheme. d) None of the above.

6) Under CAPGAIN PLUS Scheme following accounts can be opened:

a) Saving or Term Deposit as desired by the customer b) Saving account only

c) Term deposit only

d) Saving Account is mandatory, however customer can open Term Deposit also 7) Under CAPGAIN PLUS Scheme, the minimum amount of deposit which can be held

in TDR is a) Rs.500/- b) Rs.1,000/- c) Rs.5,000/- d) Rs.10,000/-

8) Amount withdrawn under CAPGAIN PLUS Scheme is to be utilised within ----------------days.

a) 15 b) 30 c) 60 d) None of the above


9) Which of the following facilities are available to the account holder under

CAPGAIN PLUS Scheme. a) Cheque Book b) ATM Card c) Loan facility d) None of the above

10) Under CAPGAIN PLUS Scheme withdrawal of amount can be permitted only by way

of DD in favour of payee if amount of such withdrawal exceeds Rs. ------- a) Rs.5000/- b) Rs.10,000/- c) Rs.25,000/- d) Rs.50,000/-

11) Under CAPGAIN PLUS Scheme interest paid to senior citizen is above normal rate

a) 1% b) 0.50%

c) 0.25% d) None of the above

12) Under CAPGAIN PLUS Scheme nomination can be made in the name of persons/s a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) Nomination not allowed

13) Basic Saving Bank Account can be opened by an individual if his

a) Age is > 10 years

b) Age is > 21 years

c) Age is > 18 years d) As applicable to regular Savings Bank Account

14) Initial deposit required to open Basic Saving Bank Account is Rs. and

thereafter minimum balance of Rs. can be maintained.

a) Rs 50 & Rs. 100 respectively b) Rs 100 & Rs. 100 respectively

c) Rs 50 & Rs. 50 respectively d) Rs 0 & Rs. 0 respectively

15) Maximum ------- withdrawals in a month, including ATM withdrawals at own and other Banks’ ATMs is allowed

a) 5 b) 10 c) 4 d) 8

16) Rate of interest payable in Basic Saving Bank Account is: a) As applicable to Savings Bank account b) No interest is to be paid. c) As applicable to Time Deposit. d) None of the above

17. What is the maximum deposit amount per financial year in SBI Flexi Deposit

a) Rs. 25000/- b) Rs. 50000/-

b) Rs. 100000/- d) None of the above


18. Minimum deposit amount is in multiples of Rs 500/- at any one time and it is per financial year in SBI Flexi Deposit

a) Rs. 5000/- b) Rs. 1000/-

b) Rs. 500/ d) Rs. 2000/-

19. SBI Flexi deposit can be made for a minimum period of ---------years

a) 1 Year b) 2 Year

b) 3 Year d) 5 Year

20. SBI Flexi deposit can be made for a maximum period of --------- years

a) 5 Year b) 7 Year

b) 10 Year d) 3 Year

21. The rate applicable in case of premature withdrawal under SBI Flexi deposit shall be --------% below the rate applicable for the period the deposit has remained with the Bank

a) 0.50 b) 1.00

b) 0.25 d) No penalty

22. For SBI staff/ SBI pensioners the penalty will also apply under SBI Flexi deposit, however they are eligible for one percent extra intt. rate as usual.

a) True b) False 23. Interest payment in SBI Flexi Deposit is not subject to TDS. a)True b) False 24. Penalty for default in payment of minimum deposit will be Rs.-------- per Financial Year under SBI Flexi deposit

a) Rs. 50/- b)Rs. 100/- b) Rs. 500/- d) No penalty

25. Under SBI Flexi deposit Loan facility is not available as applicable in case of

TDR/STDR. a) True b) False

26. What is the minimum amount to be deposited in the Annuity Deposit Scheme?

a) Rs.10,000/- b) Rs.50,000/- c) Rs.25,000/- d) None of the above

27. What is the minimum period for which deposit can be made in Annuity Deposit

Scheme? a) 12 Months b) 36 Months c) 24 Months d) None of these


28. What is the maximum period for which deposit can be made in Annuity

Deposit Scheme? a) 60 Months b) 120 Months c)240 Months d) 36 Months

29. What is the minimum annuity amount under Annuity Deposit Scheme? a) Rs.1000/- b) Rs. 5000/- c) Rs. 2500/- d) Rs. 500/-

30. What is the maximum amount that can be deposited under Annuity Deposit Scheme? a) Rs.10,00,000/- b) Rs.25,00,000/- c) No Limit d) Rs.50,00,000/-

31. What is the minimum time period for an account holder in ‘SBI Tiny SB-cum-

OD’ account to avail OD facilities from SB account? a)12 months b) 9 months c) 6 months d) None of these

32. What is the minimum and maximum amount of OD available under ‘SBI Tiny

SB-cum-OD account? a) Minimum Rs.1000/- Maximum Rs.25000/- b) Minimum Rs.5000/- Maximum Rs.25000/- c) Minimum Rs.1000/- Maximum Rs.15000/- d) None of these

33. How the eligible OD limit is calculated under ‘SBI Tiny SB-cum-OD’ account?

a) 4 times the average monthly balance for the last 6 months or 4 times net monthly income which ever is lower

b) 6 times the average monthly balance for the last 6 months or 6 times net monthly income which ever is lower

c) Twice the average monthly balance for the last 6 months or 2 times net monthly income which ever is lower

d) None of these 34. What is the period of repayment for OD availed under ‘SBI Tiny SB-cum-

OD’ Account? a) Maximum 36 months EMI b) Maximum 24 months EMI c) Maximum 12 months EMI d) None of these

35. What can be the maximum age limit of the applicant under the ‘SBI Tiny SB-cum-OD’? a) 50 years b) 60 years c) 70 years d) None of these

36. Maximum balance at any time in a Small Deposit Account can be a) Rs. 10000 b) Rs. 50000

c) Rs. 100 000 d) Rs. 200 000


37. Total credit summations in a year in a Small Deposit Account can be a) Rs.10000 b) Rs.50000

c) Rs.100000 d) Rs.200000 38. Maximum Payments & Transfers during a month in a Small Deposit can be a) Rs.10000 b) Rs. 50000

c) Rs.100000 d) Rs .200000 39. A small account shall remain operational initially for a period of a) 6 months b) 12 months

c) 24 months d) 36 months

40. Operation in the account can be extended further for __________ if the holder

of such an account provides evidence before the Bank of having applied for any of the officially valid documents within twelve months of the opening of the said account

a) 12 months b) 24 months c) 36 months d) 60 months

Key - P-Segment Liability Products – 3

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A b c d c d d b c d c

Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

A d c d d c a b a d b

Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

A b a b a b c b b a c

Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A c a a b b b c a b a


‘P’ SEGMENT ADVANCES HOME LOANS ASSIGNMENT – 1

1. Individual(s) over years of age with independent source of regular income are eligible for finance under Housing Loan Scheme.

a) 18 b) 20

c) 21 d) 25

2 The total project cost of Housing Loan includes: a) Cost of land, additional amenities b) Insurance premium, charges for purchase c) Stamp duty & registration d) All of above

3. The maximum permissible loan amount under H/L scheme, for an applicant is linked to

a) LTV b) Project cost

c) EMI/NMI ratio d) All of the above

4. For determining maximum permissible Housing Loan amount of a customer having Annual Income above Rs.1,20,000/- and up to Rs. 3 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed %

a) 30 b) 40

c) 55 d) 25

5. For determining maximum permissible Housing Loan amount of a customer having Annual Income above Rs. 3 lacs and upto Rs. 5 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed %

a) 40 b) 50

c) 55 d) 60

6. For determining maximum permissible Housing Loan amount of a customer having Annual Income above Rs. 5 lacs and upto Rs 8.00 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed %

a) 40 b) 50

c) 55 d) 60

7. The authority for increase in EMI/NMI ratio up to vests with controller of Branch/RACPC, depending on the family size and availability of disposable surplus income. a) 5% b) 15% c ) Nil d) 10%


8. What is the maximum repayment period under HL Scheme for individuals other than businessman? a) 12 years b) 15 years c) 20 years years subject to liquidation of the loan before the borrower

reaches the age of 70 years d) 30 years subject to liquidation of the loan before the borrower

reaches the age of 70 years

9. Maximum no of borrowers should not ordinarily exceed -------

a) 5 b) 3 c) 6 d) no limit

10. In addition to the applicant’s income, Income of spouse/children /parents / siblings

may be considered for arriving at maximum loan amount

a) Spouse /children b) Parents

c) Siblings d) All of the above

11. HL should be ordinarily repaid by the age of years.

a) 58 b) 70

c) 60 d) 75

12. Fixed rate of interest can be charged in which variant of housing loan a) Insta home top up b) Sbi realty c) Sbi flexi home d) Hamara Ghar

13. The maximum permissible loan amount under H.L. Scheme for repairs or

renovation of house (without obtaining prior administrative clearance of the Network GM), is:__ a) Rs. 5 lakh . b) Rs. 10 lakh c)Rs. 15 lakh d) Rs. 20 lakh

14. The maximum Adding cost of furnishings/interior to the cost of house/flat

a) 10 % of the project cost or Rs. 20 lacs whichever is less.

b) 20 % of the project cost or Rs. 30 lacs whichever is less.

c) 10 % of the project cost or Rs. 25 lacs whichever is less.

d) 10 % of the project cost or Rs. 40 lacs whichever is less.

15. The minimum margin required under H.L. Scheme for house under construction, for a loan upto Rs 75 lacs , is : .

a) 10 % b) 15%

c) 20 d) 25 %


16. The minimum margin required under H.L. Scheme for house under construction, for a loan above Rs 75 lacs , is :

a) 10 % of project cost b) 25 % of project cost

c) 20 % of project cost d) 30 % of project cost

17. Minimum loan amount under “NON-SALARIED SEGMENT is Rs------

a) 50000 b) 1 lacs

c) 2 lacs d) 3 lacs

18. Home loan may be sanctioned for reimbursement of investment made by the borrower in housing from own resources during the preceding -------months.

a) 6 b) 10

c) 12 d) 24

19. While computing maximum eligible loan amount, expected rent accruals from the proposed house/flat being let out (net of taxes, cess etc.) may be reckoned, subject to maximum amount a) Equivalent to the applicant’s Net Monthly Income (NMI)/Net Annual

Income (NAI). b) Equivalent to the amount of annual rent or annual income

whichever is lower. c) Equivalent to the cost of construction d) Equivalent to the 50% of annual rent

20. Rental income is not allowed to be considered when giving loan for a)

purchase of house b) construction of house c) purchase of flat d) purchase of plot

KEY - HOME LOANS ASSIGNMENT – 1

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. a d d a b d a d b d

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. b d b c c b a c a d


a) 75 b) 60 c) 80 d) 90

HOME LOANS ASSIGNMENT – 2 1. Where the co-applicants are unrelated to each other, the may permit the

relaxation for acceptance of non-related co-borrowers

a) AGM (Region/Branch) b) DGM ( B & O) c) GM (Net Work) d) CGM

2. The Moratorium period ordinarily available under HL Scheme building up to 7 floors is:

a) 12 months from the date of first disbursement or 2 months after

completion, whichever is earlier b) 18 months from the date of first disbursement or 2 months after

completion, whichever is earlier c) 18 months from the date of first disbursement or 3 months after

completion, whichever is earlier d) 24 months from the date of first disbursement or 2 months after

completion, whichever is earlier

3. Under Housing Loan Scheme, no prior administrative clearance is required for loans upto: , if the proposal is strictly within the scheme.

a) Rs. 5 crore b) Rs. 7.5 crore c) Rs. 10 crore d) Rs. 15 crore

4. Processing fees is to be recovered at the time of a) Pre sanction b) Upfront c) Sanctioning d) Documentation

5. Capitalisation of pre EMI interest is allowed only if the moratorium period does not

exceed-----months a)24 b)36 c)18 d)30

6. Under Housing Loan Scheme, prior administrative clearance (from next higher

authority) is required in respect of a loan for purchase of a house which is more than years old.

a) 20 b) 15 c) 10 d) 7

7. Loan to value ratio in case of loan above Rs 20.00 lac for home under construction should be ---------%

8. For Home Loans above Rs.25000/- , if the irregularity exceeds EMI or Installment amount, for a period of one month, then penal interest should be recovered ------------% p.a. (over and above the applicable interest rate) on the overdue amount for the period of default

a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 2.5


9. In case son/daughter /sibling /parent’s income is clubbed for arriving at loan amount repayment has to be made through an account a) In the name of any one of the borrower/ guarantor b) In the name of any one of the borrower only c) In the joint name of all the borrowers and guarantor d) In the name of guarantor only

10. Home loan borrowers can claim Income Tax benefits under section 80C up to

Rs. in respect of principal repayment of Home Loans.

a) 20,000/- b) 30,000/- c) 1,00,000/- d) 1,50,000/-

11. As per RBI guidelines housing loan for construction/purchase of dwelling unit up to Rs -----lac shall be eligible for classification under priority sector

a) 10 b) 20 c) 15 d) 25

12. Co borrower/guarantors whose income is being clubbed should normally be employed in profession or be engaged in business for a minimum period of ------- years

a) 3 b) 5 c) 1 d) 2

13. What is the LTV Ratio upto Rs 75 lacs in NRI Home loans for Salaried Persons. a) 65% b) 70% c) 75% d) 80%

14. The maximum amount of Housing Loan for NRIs/PIOs is determined by a) EMI/NMI of the borrower b) Age of the borrower c) Stay of the borrower abroad d) None of the above

15. In case loan amount above Rs 10.00 lacs is to be given for repair and renovation administrative clearance will be given by --------

a) CGM of circle b) GM of network c) DGM (B & O) d) AGM (Region/ Branch)

16. What is the maximum repayment period under HL Scheme for NRIs/PIOs up to 35 years of age subject to stipulation that the loan should be liquidated by the age of 60 years or by the age of retirement, whichever occurs earlier?

a) 15years b) 30 years c) 20 years d) 25 years

17. What is the maximum repayment period under HL Scheme for NRIs/PIOs above 35 years and upto 45 years of age subject to stipulation that the loan should be liquidated by the age of 60 years or by the age of retirement, whichever occurs earlier?

a) 15 years b) 30 years c) 20 years d) 25 years


18. The minimum loan amount of Housing Loan under HL Scheme for NRIs/PIOs is :_

a) Rs. 1 lac b) Rs. 2 lacs c) Rs. 3 lacs d) Rs. 5 lacs

19. The Maximum Loan amount for repair and renovation by NRI is limited to

a) Rs. 10 lacs b) Rs. 15 lacs c) Rs. 20 lacs d) Rs. 25 lacs

20. The Maximum Loan amount for furnishing and consumer durables under HL Scheme for NRIs/PIOs is :

a) 10 % of the project cost or Rs.25 lacs, whichever is lower

b) 10 % of the project cost or Rs.20 lacs, whichever is lower

c) 15 % of the project cost or Rs.15 lacs, whichever is lower

d) 10 % of the project cost with no ceiling. 21. One of the eligibility criteria for NRIs to avail of housing loan is that they should

have job contract for a minimum period of years abroad after completion of 6 months in the employment and presently holding a valid job contract/work permit and aged above years.

a) 1 b) 2, 18 c) 2, 21 d) 4

22 Credit Report from two credit bureaus is required for the loan amount above Rs. lacs

a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 75

23. Loan under Flexi pay housing loan is to be repaid within


24. Minimum net monthly income for availing loan under Flexi pay Home loan is Rs__

a) 25000/- b) 50000/- c) 30000/- d) 60000/-

25. Loan under Flexi pay Home loan scheme can be extended to people in the age group between -------and ------

a) 18, 25 b) 21, 45 c) 30, 40 d) 21, 35

26. Under Flexi pay Home loan a person can get ------% more than the amount calculated as per the normal EMI/NMI ratio.

a) 20 b) 15 c) 25 d) 30

27. Minimum amount for which SBI home loan PAL can be extended is

a) Rs 30.00lacs b) Rs 25.00lacs c)

Rs 10.00lacs d) Rs 20.00lacs


28. One of the following is not true about what is given in Pre-approved Loan arrangement letter. a) If the time gap between PAL and submission of Home Loan application by the

customer is more than one month, fresh CIBIL Credit report will be verified by the RACPC.

b) Loan amount calculated on the basis of prevailing interest rates will be valid for a period of 1 month.

c) Home Loan will have to be availed by the borrower from the same RACPC which has issued the PAL.

d) PAL will be issued under the signatures of the processing officer. 29. SBI home loan PAL can be extended at

a) Branch only b) RACPC only

c) Either at branch or RACPC d) RBO

30. PAL will be valid for ---------

a) 3 months b) 6 months


KEY - HOME LOANS ASSIGNMENT –2

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. b b b d c b c a c d

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. d c d a b b b c a a

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. b a a c b a c d b c


HOME LOANS ASSIGNMENT –3 1. Loan under SBI Reality is granted for:

a) Purchase of house b) construction of house c) Purchase of shop d) Purchase of plot for construction of a house

2. What is the maximum loan amount under SBI Reality?

a) Rs.15 cr b) Rs. 1 cr c) Rs.50 lacs d) Rs. 30 lacs

3. Loans above Rs------require prior administrative clearance from AGM Region / branch under SBI realty.

a) 50 b) No approval reqd c) 75 d) 60 4. For determining maximum permissible loan under SBI Reality a customer having

Annual Income upto Rs. 2 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed %

a) 40 b) 30 c) 55 d) 60

5. For determining maximum permissible loan under SBI Reality a customer having Annual Income above Rs. 2 lacs and up to Rs. 5 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed %

a) 40 b) 50 c) 55 d) 60

6. For determining maximum permissible loan under SBI Reality a customer having Annual Income above Rs. 5 lacs to Rs. 8 lacs the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed %

a) 40 b) 50 c) 55 d) 60

7. For determining maximum permissible loan under SBI Reality a customer having Annual Income above Rs. 10 lacs the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed % a) 40 b) 45 c) 55 d) 60

8. Maximum time period stipulated for completion certificate under SBI realty scheme is_ , from the date of availment of loan.

a) 5 year b) 3 years c) 2 years d) 4 years

9. For loans above Rs 50.00 lacs property valuation should be done by ------ empanalled valuers and ------of the assessments should be considered for loan amount.

a) 2, higher b) 3, higher c) 3, lower d) 2, lower


10. The maximum repayment period under SBI Realty Scheme is from the month following the month of disbursement of the loan.


11. Loan under SBI realty can be granted as

a) Term loan b) overdraft c) Either a) or b) d) None of the above

12. For loans above Rs 50.00 lacs title search reports should be taken from empanelled lawyer/s

a) 4 b) 1 c) 3 d) 2

13. The maximum limit under SBI Maxgain housing loan is :

a) Rs. 100.00 lacs b) Rs. 30.00 lacs c) Rs. 50.00 lacs d) No upper limit

14. Which type of credit facility can be granted under SBI Maxgain? a) Cash Credit b) Overdraft c) Clean OD d) Term Loan

15. Drawing power under SBI Maxgain is reduced on a -------basis

a) Daily b) Quarterly c) Yearly d) Monthly

16. For being eligible under SBI Maxgain Housing loan scheme, the minimum loan amount should be .

a) Rs.25.00.000/- b) Rs.20,00,000/-

c) Rs.30,00,000/- d) Rs.10,00,000/-

17. For being eligible under SBI Maxgain, existing/prospective customer should have minimum balance of Rs. in their SB/Current Account

a) Rs.10.000/- b) Rs.5,000/-

c) Rs.2,000/- d) Rs.1,000/- 18. The criteria of minimum balance in SB/Current account for being eligible for SBI Maxgain can be relaxed, if the customer is having acccount with us.

a) Cash Credit account b) Overdraft account c) Term Loan account d) Salary account

19. Cheque book/ Internet Banking facility shall be provided to the SBI Maxgain housing loan borrower and completion of required formalities a) At the time of opening the A/C b) On completion of the house c) After full disbursement of loan d) 6 months after the sanction of loan


20. Minimum monthly income to avail loan under earnest money deposit scheme should be ------ a) Rs 5000/- b) Rs 10000/- c) Rs 6000/- d) No minimum amount

21. Maximum loan amount that can be given under loan for earnest money is -----

a) Rs 5.00 lac b) Rs 10.00 lac

c) Rs 20.00 lac d) Rs 8.00 lac

22. The Security under Loan for Earnest Money loan is waived subject to -------- a) A l l o t m e n t letters / refund orders are routed through SBI. b) Lump sum amount equal to 6 month’s interest is taken upfront. c) 2 PDCs one for the principal amount of EMD and another towards interest for the n e x t 6 months should be taken to meet the eventuality of refund getting delayed d) All of the above

KEY - HOME LOANS ASSIGNMENT – 3

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11

Ans. d a b b a b d a d b a

Q. 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22

Ans. d d b d b b d c d b d


HOME LOANS ASSIGNMENT - 4 1. What % of Subsidy to be given Under Credit link subsidy scheme Pardhan mantri awaas

Yozna a) 5% b) 6.5%

c) 7.5% d) 7%

2 What is the tenor for credit link subsidy scheme Pardhan mantri awaas Yozna

a) 10 years b) 20 years

c) 15 years d) 25 years

3 What is thre target group in credit link subsidy scheme Pardhan mantri awaas Yozna

a) EWS b) LIG

c) EWS and LIG d) None of the above

4. What is the income criteria under pardhan mantri awaas yozna for EWS. a) 2 lacs b) 2.5 lacs c) 3 lacs d) 4 lacs 5. What is the income criteria under pardhan mantri awaas yozna for LIG . a) 3 to 4 lacs b) 3 to 5 lacs c) 3 to 6 lacs d) 6 lacs only 6. What is the credit facility availabe under PRADHAN MANTRI AWAS YOJANA CREDIT

LINKED SUBSIDY SCHEME a) Term Loan b) Cash credit c) Both of them d) Overdraft 7. Recently bank has introduced a new scheme for Home loan to NON-SALARIED

SEGMENT. Under this scheme what is the age criteria with risk grade under scale 1 to 10 conditions for borrowers.

a) 18 years with RG 4 b) 18 years with RG 5 c) 18 years with RG 6 d) 21 years with no RG 8. What is the minimum loan amount under Home loan to NON-SALARIED SEGMENT. a) 50000 b) 1 lacs c) 2 lacs d) 3 lacs 9. What is the maximum amount under Home loan to NON-SALARIED SEGMENT? a) 25 cr b) 50 cr c) 100 cr d) no limit


10. What is the loan facility is available under Home loan to NON-SALARIED SEGMENT upto Rs 20 Lacs

a) Term loan only b) cash credit only c) both of them d) overdraft only 11. What is the minimum loan amount under Bridge loan scheme under personal segment. a) 10 lacs b) 15 lacs c) 20 lacs d) 25 lacs 12. What is the maximum loan amount under Bridge loan scheme under personal segment? a) 1 cr b) 2 cr c) 3 cr d) 4 cr 13. The maximum tenor of recently launched bridge loan scheme under personal segment. a) 1 year b) 2 year c) 3 year d) 5 year

14. At what % the prepayment penalty will be levied on the loans foreclosed/prepaid amount

during the initial fixed tenor of 2 years under Humara Ghar scheme. a) 1% plus Service Tax b) 1.5% plus Service Tax c) 2% plus Service Tax d) 3% plus Service Tax

15. One of the eligibility under INSTA HOME TOP UP LOAN for existing home loan borrowers a) Minimum Home Loan Limit of Rs. 20 lacs with INB facility

(b) Minimum residual tenure of Home Loan of 5 years

(c) Satisfactory track record of 3 years or more

(d) all of the above

16. What is the condition regarding CIBIL under INSTA HOME TOP UP LOAN for existing

home loan borrowers. a) cibil scoring > 600 b) cibil scoring >650 c) cibil scoring > 700 d) cibil scoring > 750


17. What is the eligibility of loan amount ( minimum and maximum) under INSTA HOME TOP UP LOAN for existing home loan borrowers.

a) 1lacs & 3 lacs subject to 5% of existing loan b) 1lacs & 4 lacs subject to 5% of existing loan c) 1lacs & 5 lacs subject to 5% of existing loan d) 1lacs & 6 lacs subject to 5% of existing loan. 18. What is the interest rate applicable under INSTA HOME TOP UP LOAN for existing home loan borrowers. a) 0.50% above MCLR

b) 0.75% above MCLR

c) 0.25% above MCLR

d) 1 % above MCLR

KEY- HOME LOANS ASSIGNMENT-4

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

ANS B C C C C A C A B

Q 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

ANS A C B B C D C C D


SBI TOP UP LOAN

1 The Top up loan replaced with a) SBI Education Loan Scheme b) Xpress credit scheme c) SBI Saral d) Home Plus Scheme

2. The purpose of launching Top up loan

a) To meet expenses for education b) To meet expenses for health c) To meet expenses for renovation/furnishing d) To meet all the above expenses

3. Customer eligible for Top up loan

a) All the existing Home Loan borrowers with one year satisfactory record b) All the existing Education Loan borrowers with one year satisfactory record c) All the existing Personal Loan borrowers with one year satisfactory record d) All the existing borrowers with one year satisfactory record

4. Minimum Loan under Top up loan

a) Rs.250000.00 b) Rs.200000.00

c) Rs.75000.00 d) Rs.100000.00

5. Maximum Loan under Top up loan

a) Rs.2.00 Crores b) Rs.3.00 Crores

c) Rs.4.00 Crores d) Rs.5.00 Crores 6. Permissible loan amount under Top up loan

a) 60% of present market value of the house property less present

outstanding b) 65% of present market value of the house property less present outstanding c) 70% of present market value of the house property less present outstanding d) 75% of present market value of the house property less present outstanding

7. EMI/NMI ratio under Top up loan for more than Rs.3.00 Lac and less than Rs.5.00 Lac

a) 40% b) 50% c) 55% d) 60%


8. EMI/NMI ratio under Top up loan for more than Rs.5.00 Lac and less than

Rs.10.00 Lac a) 40% b) 50% c) 55% d) 60%

9. EMI/NMI ratio under Top up loan for more than Rs.10.00 Lac

a) 50% b) 55%

c) 60% d) 70% 10. AGM(branch)/Regions authorised for deviation of EMI/NMI ratio under the Top up

loan a) 4% b) 5% c) 10% d) 15%

11. Applicant not eligible for loan under the Top up loan

a) Having net annual income less than Rs.1.00 Lac b) Having net annual income less than Rs.2.00 Lac c) Having net annual income less than Rs.3.00 Lac d) Having net annual income less than Rs.4.00 Lac

12. To which facility loan granted under SBI Top up loan

a) Cash Credit b) Term loan c) Overdraft d) Both b & c

13. The period for which loan granted under Top up loan

a) Co-terminus with the original residual maturity of home loan subject to liquidation of the loan before borrower attains the age of 70 Years

b) 10 Years c) 15 Years d) 20 Years

KEY : SBI TOP UP LOAN

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. d d a b d d c d d b

Q. 11 12 13

Ans. c d a


CAR LOAN

1. Minimum income criteria to be eligible under SBI Car Loan Scheme are? a) Net annual income should be at least Rs. 175,000/- b) Net annual income should be at least Rs.150000/- c) Net annual income should be at least Rs. 250,000/- d) Net annual income should be at least Rs. 100,000/-

2. The Minimum and Maximum age criteria for sanction of loan under SBI Car Loan scheme is:

a) 18-60 years b) 18-65 years c) 21-65 years d) 21-60 years

3. Under SBI Car Loan Scheme, the maximum loan amount that can be granted to salaried person would be restricted to ____ times of the net monthly income.

a) 36 b) 48 c) 24 d) 60

4. Under SBI Car Loan Scheme, the maximum loan amount that can be granted to professionals, self employed, agriculturists etc., would be restricted to times the net annual income.

a) 5 b) 2 c) 4 d) 3

5. What is the maximum loan amount under SBI Car Loan Scheme for purchase of new Vehicle?

a) Rs. 15 lacs b) Rs. 10 lacs c) Rs. 50 lacs d) No upper ceiling

6. Under SBI Car Loan Scheme, EMI should not exceed of Net Monthly Income.

a) 50% b) 60% c) 55% d) 40%

7. Under SBI Car Loan Scheme EMI/NMI Ratio should not exceed in case of

customer with NMI of Rs. 10 lac and above a) 50% b) 60% c) 57.50% d) 75%

8. The margin required under SBI Car Loan Scheme is % of ‘on road’ price.

a) 5 b) 15 c)10 d) 20 9. Cost of accessories not to exceed % of cost of vehicle or Rs._ ,

whichever is less.

a)10, 10,000/- b) 5, 50,000/- c) 15, 20,000/- d) 25, 25,000/-


10. Under SBI Car Loan Scheme, when the income of spouse or son/daughter is clubbed with the borrower he is made

a) Guarantor b) Borrower c) Co-borrower d) There is no such requirement

11. Under SBI Car Loan Scheme, loans up to Rs. may be granted on fixed interest rate basis. a) 3 lac b) 5 lac c) 10 lac d) loan on fixed rate of interest basis is not granted.

12. A Car loan granted to an individual for purchase of new & old should be repaid within

--------years

a) 8 b) 7 c) 6 d) 5

13. The repayment cycle of SBI Car Loan Scheme for loans disbursed on or before 15th of the month and on or after 16th of the month the repayment date should be fixed as & of the following month respectively.

a) 5th, 20th b) 10th, 30th

c) 10th, 20th d) No such stipulation 14. Penal interest @ is charged when the Car Loan account is irregular

beyond 30 days for any reason. a) @ 2 % p.a. on the overdue amount for the period of default . b) @1% per month or 12% p.a on the irregular portion of loan

c) @ 2 % p.a. on the total outstanding

d) No penal interest is charged.

15. Prepayment penalty is levied @ under SBI Car Loan Scheme. a) 1 % of the amount prepaid. b) 1.5% of the amount prepaid. c) Nil d) 2% of the amount prepaid

16.Maximum number of co borrowers in case of car loan can be-----

a) 3 b) 2 c) 5 d) 4

17.Car loan should be repaid before the age of ----

a) 70 b) 65

c) 75 d) 60

18. Vehicle to be financed under Car loan Scheme for used vehicle should not be more than ------years old?


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19. What is the maximum loan available under Car loan Scheme for used vehicle?

a) Rs.10 lacs b) Rs.20 lacs c) Rs.15 lacs d) No limit

20. The garage from which the valuation certificate is to be obtained should be

authorized by --------- in big cities

a) GM of network b) Liaison officer at LHO/ZO c) AGM RACPC d) DGM CPPC

KEY– CAR LOAN

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. c c b c d a b b b c

Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. d b c a c b a c c b


CAR LOAN-II 1. Under Car Loan Scheme, reimbursement of the cost of unencumbered vehicle

up to months of age can be given under the takeover norms and other terms of financing old vehicles.

a) 6 b) 24 c) 3 d) 12

2. What is the quantum of service charge payable to the Car dealer for loan amount sourced by them? a). 0.75% of loan amount b) 1.00% of loan amount c) 1.25% of loan amount d) 1.50% of loan amount

3. One of the following is not true in respect of takeover of car loans (a) the vehicle is not more than 2 years old (b) it is a single ownership vehicle and no insurance claim has been

availed (c) Car should be either of Maruti, Tata or Honda (d) the account of the borrower with the other bank is a Standard Asset

4. What is the quantum of service charge payable to the dealer sales executives (DSEs) for loan amount sourced by them?

a) 0.25% of loan amount or Max 4000 b) 0.50% of loan amount or Max2000 c) 1.00% of loan amount or Max 5000 d) 0.25% of loan amount or Max 3000

5. In case of used vehicle maximum repayment period for self employed and

professionals is -------years

a) 6 b) 5 c) 7 d) 4

6. What will be the repayment period of a loan granted for purchase of a used vehicle? a) 3 years b) 5 years c) 7 years d) The loan will be repaid within 7 years from the date of original purchase.

7. Which account is debited for payment of service charges payable to a Car loan dealer?

a) Charges Account Miscellaneous b) Interest Account c) Commission Account d) Branch Clg. Gen A/C RBO

8. What is the turn-around-time (TAT) in car loan scheme. a) 1 day b) 2 day c) 3 day d) 4 day


9. If Car Loan is granted as Overdraft facility, the rate of interest charged will be bps higher than normal car loans.

a) 25 b) 75 c)100 d) Nil

10. To be eligible under NRI- Car Loan Scheme, the borrower & Guarantor should be

between & year of age. a) 18, 60 b) 21, 65 c) 21, 60 d) 21, 70

11. What is the maximum repayment tenure under NRI- Car Loan Scheme


12. What is the mode of repayment of EMI under NRI- Car Loan Scheme a) Remittance from abroad through normal banking channels b) Out of funds in NRE/FCNR/NRO accounts c) Out of local fund by close relatives of NRI Guarantor

d) Any of above 13. Under NRI-Car Loan Scheme, KYC norms of will be done

a) Borrower b) Guarantor c) Both a & b d) No such requirement

14. EMI/NMI ratio under NRI-Car Loan Scheme loan should not exceed------%

a) 55 b) 65 c) 70 d) 50

15. NRI should be related to the Resident Indian who is the borrower to stand as for the loan.

a) Guarantee b) Surety c) Co-borrower d) None of the above

Key CAR LOAN -II

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. c c c d c d b b d b

Q. 11 12 13 14 15

Ans. a d c d a


SBI COMBO LOAN SCHEME

1. SBI Combo Loan Scheme has been launched by the bank for financing:

a) Home & Car b) Car & Two Wheeler c) Home & Shop d) None of these

2. Age of the borrower under SBI Combo Loan Scheme should be between:

a) 18 Years to 60 Years b) 21 Years to 60 Years c) 18 Years to 65Years d) 21 Years to 65 Years

3. Under SBI Combo Loan Scheme minimum Net Annual Income of applicant and/or co-applicant if any, together should be:

a) Rs. 1.00 lac b) Rs. 2.00 lac c) Rs. 2.50 lac d) Rs. 3.00 lac

4. Under SBI Combo Loan Scheme The maximum loan amount that can be granted would be restricted to----- times the net monthly income of salaried persons and ---- times the Net Annual Income for others

a) 30, 2.5 b) 48, 4 c) 18, 1.5 d) 60, 5

5. Margin under SBI Combo Loan Scheme is of the total cost of the vehicles (Car and Two Wheeler taken together) i.e. “on road price”.

a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 30%

6. The maximum cost of accessories should not exceed of the cost of vehicles or Rs._ under SBI Combo Loan Scheme

a) 5%, 25,000/- b) 5%, 50,000/- c) 10%, 25,000/- d) 10%, 30,000/-

7. Repayment Period under SBI Combo Loan Scheme is years and in no case it will exceed beyond years of the age of the borrower.

a) 5, 65 ` b) 7, 65 c) 7, 70 d) 7, 65

8. Minimum amount of loan is (Overdraft) under SBI

Combo Loan Scheme a) Rs. 3.00 lac b) Rs. 4.00 lac c) Rs. 5.00 lac d) Overdraft not permitted

9. Minimum amount of loan is Rs. -------- for take over Under SBI Combo Loan Scheme a) Rs.3.00 lac b) Rs.4.00 lac c) Rs.5.00 lac d) Take over not permitted


10. Minimum amount of loan is Rs. ---------- for reimbursement of cost of vehicles under SBI Combo Loan Scheme a) Rs.3.00 lac b) Rs.4.00 lac c) Rs.5.00 lac d) Take over not permitted

Key– SBI COMBO LOAN SCHEME

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. b d c b a b c d d d


EDUCATION LOAN

1. Maximum loan available to a student for studies in India under “SBI Student Loan” is:_

a) Rs. 7.5 lac b) Rs. 10 lac c) Rs. 15 lac d) Rs. 20 lac

2. Maximum loan available to a student for studies abroad under “SBI Student Loan” is:

a) Rs. 10 lac b) Rs. 20 lac c) Rs. 30 lac d) Rs. 25 lac

3. Minimum margin required for loans up to Rs. 7.5 lac under “SBI Student Loan” is:

a) 15 % b) 10 % c) 5 % d) NIL

4. Minimum margin required for loans above Rs. 7.5 lac for studies in India under

“SBI Student Loan” is :

a) 15 % b) 10 % c) 5 % d) NIL

5. Minimum margin required for loans above Rs. 7.5 lac for studies abroad under “SBI Student Loan” is :

a) 15 % b) 10 % c) 5 % d) NIL

6. Under “SBI Student Loan”, repayment of loan will commence from , whichever is earlier.

a) 6 months after completion of course or 6 months after securing a job b) 6 months after completion of course or 3 months after securing a job c) One year after completion of course or 3 months after securing a job d) Course period + 1 year

7. Under “SBI Student Loan” the repayment period (after commencement of

repayment) allowable for loans granted for studies in India is: . a) 5 years only b) 7 to 10 years c) 5 to 10 years d) 3 to 7 years


8. Under “SBI Student Loan” the repayment period (after commencement of repayment) allowable for loans granted for studies abroad is: . a) 7 years only b) 5 to 15years c) 5 to 10 years d) 5 to 7 years 9. Under “SBI Student Loan”, for loan amount up to Rs. 4 lac granted for studies in India as well as for studies abroad, the security to be obtained is

a) No security. b) Suitable Third Party Guarantee c) Tangible Collateral Security of suitable value or Third Party Guarantee with

assignment of future income of the student for payment of instalments d) Tangible Collateral Security for full value of loan

10. Under “SBI Student Loan”, for loan amount above Rs. 4 lacs and up to Rs. 7.5 lacs

granted for studies in India as well as for studies abroad, the security to be obtained is:

a) No security. b) Collateral in the form of a suitable Third Party Guarantee c) Tangible Collateral Security of suitable value or Third Party Guarantee with

assignment of future income of the student for payment of installments d)Tangible Collateral Security for full value of loan

11. Under “SBI Student Loan”, for loan amount above Rs. 7.5 lacs granted for studies in India, the security to be obtained is:

a) No security. b) Third Party Guarantee c) Tangible collateral security of suitable value, along with the assignment of future

income of the student for payment of instalments d) Tangible Collateral security for full value of loan

12. As per Reserve Bank of India guidelines, education loans up to the ceilings of are reckoned under priority sector advances.

a) Rs. 10 lacs for studies in India

b) Rs. 20 lacs for studies abroad,

c) Rs. 10 lacs for studies in India & abroad

d) Both (a) & (b)

13. If the student is not able to complete the course within the scheduled time, extension of time for completion of course may be permitted for a maximum period of years.

a) 1 year b) 2 year c) 3 year d) No extension is permitted

14. Under “SBI Student Loan”, penal interest @ will be charged for overdue amount and overdue period if amount of loan is above Rs. 4 lacs.

a) 1 % b) 1.5 % c) 2 % d) Nil


15. Under “SBI Student Loan”, concession of % in interest rate is allowed if full interest is serviced during the moratorium period.

a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 1.5 d) No concession is allowed

16. Under “SBI Student Loan”, processing fee is charged @ _____ of the loan amount.

a) Nil b) 0.25 % c) For loan up to Rs. 4 lac – Nil, for loan above Rs, 4 lac – 0.55 % d) For loan up to Rs. 4 lac – Nil, for loan above Rs, 4 lac – 1.10 %

17. Under “SBI Student Loan”, how many wards of a parent/guardian can be covered

a) 1 b) 2 c) Family to be taken as unit d) No such limit

18. What is/are the conditions to sanction second loan (Top up Loan) under “SBI Student Loan”?

a) Second loan should be within the overall limit b) Projected income of the student, after placement, is sufficient to cover full

loan repayment c) Second loan being allowed with the security requirements as applicable to the

aggregate limit d) All of the above

19. How will you react, if student approach for additional loan due to enhancement in

fees? a) The request cannot be entertained b) The request will be permitted on case-to-case basis c) The request will be permitted on case-to case basis in the context of

various ceilings for the security related issues. d) None of the above

20. The maximum loan amount available under “SBI Scholar Loan” scheme is ________________

a) Rs. 15 lac b) Rs. 10 lac

c) Rs. 30 lac d) Rs.20 lac 21. The minimum margin required for a loan above Rs. 7.5 lac under “SBI Scholar Loan” scheme is:

a) NIL b) 5 % c) 10 % d)15 %


22. Under “SBI Scholar Loan”, the security to be obtained is: a) No security for Loan up to 20 lac. b) Tangible Collateral Security of suitable value or Third Party Guarantee with

assignment of future income of the student for payment of instalments for loan above Rs. 20 lacs

c) Tangible Collateral Security for full value of loan d) Both a & b

23. Under “SBI Scholar Loan”, the repayment period (after commencement of

repayment i.e after the moratorium) allowable is: .

a) 5 years b) 5 – 7 years c) 5 – 10 years d) Flexible repayment period up to 7 years

24. Under “SBI Scholar Loan”, extension of time for completion of course (for ascertaining the moratorium period / commencement of repayment period) may be permitted for max. period of years if student is not able to complete course within scheduled time,

a) 1 years b) 2 years c) 3 years d) No extension is permitted

25. SBI Scholar Loan is sanctioned by branches a) Rural b) Urban c) Select list of branches d) Bank can authorize branches at other centers in addition to select list of

branches

26. An interest rate concession of is given to girl students

a) NIL b) 0.50 % c) 0.10 % d) 1.00 %

27. An interest rate concession is given to girl students availing education loans under a) SBI Student Loans b) SBI Scholar Loan c) SBI Student Loan to Staff / Ward of Staff d) All of the above.

28. Disposal of loan application (time norm) and finance ministry guidelines on

disposal of loan applications are as under: a) 7 days, but not exceeding the time norms stipulated for disposing of loan

applications under priority sector lending. b) No application for educational loan received should be rejected without the

concurrence of the next higher authority. c) Both of the above d) None of the above.

29. Loan for Pilot Training Courses are covered in:

a) SBI Career Loan Scheme b) SBI Student Loan Scheme c) SBI Scholar Loan Scheme d) Both (a) & (b)


30 In SBI Student Loan Scheme the moratorium has been extended from the

current 12 months to 24 months in genuine cases. In SBI Scholar Loan Scheme the moratorium has been extended from the current 6 months to months. a) 12 months b) 18 months c) 24 months d) Not extended

31. Under Interest Subsidy scheme on Education Loan for economically weaker

section, following is applicable: a) Applicable to those students with annual gross parental/family income up

to Rs.4.5 lacs per year (from all sources). b) The interest subsidy available only once either for the first undergraduate

degree course or the post graduate degree/diploma in India. c) Nodal Bank for the Ministry of Human Resources Development for

implementation of the scheme is Canara Bank . d) Maximum loan amount is Rs. 10 lacs. e) All of the above.

KEY EDUCATION LOAN

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11

Ans. b b d c a d b d a a c

Q. 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22

Ans. c b c b a d d c c b d

Q. 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31

Ans. d a d b d c b a e


XPRESS CREDIT

1. To be eligible under Xpress Credit an employee should have minimum year’s length of service. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) there is no such stipulation

2. The maximum repayment period available under “Xpress Credit” is:


3. The minimum amount of loan available under “XPRESS CREDIT” is Rs._

a) 20,000/ b) 24,000/- c) 25,000/- d) 50,000/-

4. The maximum amount of loan available in all centres under “XPRESS CREDIT” is:

a) 12 months NMI with a ceiling of Rs. 5,00,000/- b) 12 months NMI NAI, with a ceiling of Rs. 7,50,000/- c) 24months NMI, with a ceiling of Rs. 10,00,000/- d) 24 months NMI, with a ceiling of Rs. 15,00,000/-

5. Xpress Credit is sanctioned to

a) Professional & self employed b) Businessman c) Employees d) All of the above

6. Which of the following has not been included under target groups under our

Xpress Credit Scheme? a) Employees of government, semi-government, profit making PSUs b) Employees of educational institutions of national repute c) Employees of profit making companies with a net worth of Rs. 50 crore or

above. d) Employees of companies with CRA rating of SB 1 to SB5

7. Under “Xpress Credit Scheme”, the minimum Net Monthly Income (NMI)

required for eligibility under the scheme should be:_

a) Rs. 2,500/- b) Rs. 3,000/- c) Rs. 5,000/- d) Rs. 6,000/-

8. Under “Xpress Credit Scheme”, the minimum Net Monthly Income (NMI) required for eligibility under the scheme may be reduced to Rs. only if salary accounts of entire enterprise are with us.

a) Rs. 2,500/- b) Rs. 3,000/- c) Rs. 4,000/- d) Rs. 1,000/-


9. Under “Xpress Credit Scheme”, the processing fee will be charged @ % of loan amount.

a) 0.30 b) 0.51 c) 0.55 d) 1.01

10. Under “Xpress Credit Scheme”, the EMI/NMI ratio should be as under

a) Upto/equal to50% b) Upto/equal to55% c) Upto/equal to60% d) None of these

11. Which of following can be accepted in lieu of Check-off under “Xpress Credit Scheme”: a) The employer pays the borrower’s salary into his SB/CA/c with our Bank. b) The borrower gives an irrevocable Standing Instruction (SI) for recovery of the loan

installments from his aforesaid account; with the SI being synchronized with the date of credit of salary

c) The employer undertakes to inform the Bank when there is a severance due to borrower’s transfer, resignation, retirement etc.

d) All of the above together 12. Under “Xpress Credit Scheme”, following type of loan can be sanctioned:

a) Either Overdraft or Demand Loan b) Either Term Loan or Demand Loan c) Either Term Loan or Overdraft d) Either Term Loan or Demand Loan or Overdraft.

13. Under “Xpress Credit Scheme”, penal interest will be charged as under : a) Penal interest not to be charged for loans up to Rs.25,000. b) For Loans > Rs.25000/- , if irregularity exceeds EMI or instalment amount, for a period of one month, penal interest to be charged @2% p.a. (over and above the applicable interest rate) on the overdue amount for the period of default. c) No penal intt., If part instalment /EMI remains overdue. d) All of the above is applicable.

14. Credit Scoring Model is applicable to Xpress Credit in case of following customers: a) All borrowers other than DSP/PMSP Account holders b) All borrowers including DSP/PMSP Account holders c) All borrowers including DSP/PMSP Account holders with scores upto 41 as against 71 in case of other borrowers

Key to Assignment XPRESS CREDIT

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11

Ans. a c c d c c c b d a d

Q. 12 13 14

Ans c d c

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PENSION LOANS 1. SBI loan to the pensioners is available to all pensioners drawing pension from

our branches aged years or less.

a) 70 b) 72 c) 76 d) No age bar.

2. The ceiling for amount of loan for pensioners under “SBI loan to pensioners” is:

a) Maximum 12 months’ pension with a ceiling of Rs. 50,000/-

b) Maximum 12 months’ pension with a ceiling of Rs. 60,000/-

c) Maximum 12 months’ pension with a ceiling of Rs. 75,000/- d) Maximum 18 months’ pension with a ceiling of Rs. 14,00,000/-.

3. The ceiling for amount of loan for ‘Family Pensioners’ under “SBI loan to

pensioners” is:_

a) Maximum 18 times the family pension with a ceiling of Rs. 5,00,000/- b) Maximum 9 times the family pension with a ceiling of Rs. 75,000/- c) Maximum 12 times the family pension with a ceiling of Rs.75,000/- d) Maximum 12 times the family pension with a ceiling of Rs. 100,000/-.

4. Under “SBI loan to pensioners”, the age of the family pensioner should not exceed

years, for eligibility under the scheme. a) 62 b) 76 c) 70 d) 72

5. Under “SBI loan to pensioners”, for pensioners of age up to 72 years, the repayment is restricted to: EMIs

a) 36 b) 48 c) 60 d) 72

6. Under “SBI loan to pensioners”, for pensioners of age above 72 years and up to 74 years, the repayment is restricted to: EMIs

a) 36 b) 48 c) 60 d) 72

7. Jai Jawan Pension Loan Scheme has been launched to meet the personal expenses of young Defence Pensioners up to the age of years.

a) 60 b) 76 c) 65 d) 55

8. The eligible loan amount under Jai Jawan Pension Loan Scheme is

a) 45 times net monthly pension subject to maximum Rs. 10 lac

b) 50 times net monthly pension subject to maximum Rs. 12 lac

c) 36 times net monthly pension subject to maximum Rs.14 lac



9. The maximum repayment period under Jai Jawan Pension Loan Scheme is


c) 45 months d) 84 months 10. No guarantee is required to be taken in case loan granted under Jai Jawan

Pension Loan Scheme is below Rs.

a)50,000/- b)25,000/- c)15,000/- d)20,000/-

11. Under Jai Jawan Pension Loan Scheme, EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed?

a) 50% b) 40%. c) 60%. d) 45%.

12. SBI Loan to Affluent Pensioners Scheme is available to all Govt. / SBI

pensioners drawing pension from our branches aged years or less.

a) 65 b) 70 c) 72 d) No age bar.

13. The ceiling for amount of loan for pensioners under “SBI Loan to Affluent Pensioners Scheme” is:

a) Maximum 12 months’ pension with a ceiling of Rs. 1,50,000/- b) Maximum 12 months’ pension with a ceiling of Rs. 2,00,000/- c) Maximum 12 months’ pension with a ceiling of Rs. 3,00,000/- d) Maximum 12 months’ pension with a ceiling of Rs. 100,000/-.

14. The ceiling for amount of loan for ‘Family Pensioners’ under “SBI Loan to Affluent Pensioners” is:

a) Maximum 9 months’ family pension with a ceiling of Rs. 1,50,000/- b) Maximum 9 months’ family pension with a ceiling of Rs. 2,00,000/- c) Maximum 12 months’ family pension with a ceiling of Rs. 1,50,000/- d) Maximum 12 months’ family pension with a ceiling of Rs. 100,000/-

15. Under “SBI Loan to Affluent Pensioners”, the age of the family pensioner

should not exceed years, for eligibility under the scheme.

a) 62 b) 65 c) 70 d) 72

16. Under “SBI Loan to Affluent Pensioners”, for pensioners of age up to 72 years, the repayment is restricted to: EMIs

a) 36 b) 48 c) 60 d) 72

17. Under “SBI Loan to Affluent Pensioners”, for pensioners of age above 72 years and up to 74 years, the repayment is restricted to: EMIs

a) 48 b) 24 c) 60 d) 72


18. Under “SBI Loan to Affluent Pensioners”, EMI should not be more than of the net pension drawn by the family pensioner.

a) 50%. b) 40%. c) 33%. d) 45%.

KEY PENSION LOANS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. C d a b c b b c d b

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

Ans a c c a b c a c


OTHER PERSONAL LOANS-1 1. What should be the minimum net monthly income (NMI) of an employee to be

eligible for a loan under “Festival Loan Scheme for Public”?

a) Rs. 2,500/- b) Rs. 3,000/- c) Rs. 4,000/- d) Rs. 5,000/-

2. The minimum amount of loan available under “Festival Loan Scheme for Public” is Rs.

a) 3,000/ b) 4,000/- c) 5,000/- d) 10,000/-

3. The maximum amount of loan under “Festival Loan Scheme for Public” is generally restricted to: _.

a) 2 times NMI, maximum Rs. 20,000/- b) 5 times NMI, maximum Rs. 30,000/- c) 8 times NMI, maximum Rs. 40,000/- d) 4 times NMI, maximum Rs. 50,000/-

4. Under “Festival Loan Scheme for Public”, loan uptoRs. (restricted to 4

times NMI) can be granted to employees with check off facility or well established self employed individuals whose dealings with us have been satisfactory in the past.

a) 60,000/ b) 70,000/- c) 75,000/- d) 1,00,000/-

5. The loan under “Festival Loan Scheme for Public” should be repaid within a maximum period of months.


6. Under “Festival Loan Scheme for Public”, the processing fee will be charged @ .

a) 1.10 % of the loan amount b) 1.00 % of the loan amount c) 0.55 % of the loan amount d) Rs. 100/- per application.

7. Under “Personal Loan Against Mortgage of Immoveable Property”, individuals who are less than years of age, are eligible for finance.

a) 60 b) 65 c) 70 d) 72

8. The minimum amount of loan that can be granted under “Personal Loan Against Mortgage of Immoveable Property”, is:

a) Rs. 25,000/- b) Rs 50,000/-

c) Rs 1 lacs d) Rs 200000/- 9. For being eligible under “Personal Loan Against Mortgage of Immoveable Property”, the minimum Net Monthly Income (NMI) of a salaried person should be

a) Rs 6000/- b) Rs 12000/- c) Rs 5000/- d) Rs 10000/-


10. For being eligible under “Personal Loan Against Mortgage of Immoveable Property”, the Net Annual Income of Professionals & Self Employed and others who are IT assessees / Agriculturists etc. should be at least :

a) Rs 100,000/-/- b) Rs 1,44,000/- c) Rs 1,50,000/- d) Rs 2,00,000/-

11. The Maximum loan against mortgage of immoveable property (subject to EMI/NMI < 50%) is restricted to: .

a) 24 NMI/ 2 times NAI subject to a maximum of Rs. 50 lacs. b) 24 NMI/ 2 times NAI subject to a maximum of Rs. 1 crore. c) 75 % of the market value of property, with a ceiling of Rs 50 lacs d) 75 % of the market value of property, with a ceiling of Rs. 1 crore

12. For repayment of Term Loan under “Personal Loan Against Mortgage of Immoveable

Property”, the maximum period is months (or upto the date of retirement, if it falls earlier) wherever ‘Check-Off’ facility is available.

a) 48 b) 60 c) 72 d) 120

13. Wherever ‘Check-Off’ facility is not available, the repayment of Term Loan under “Personal Loan Against Mortgage of Immoveable Property” is restricted to a period of months (or upto the date of retirement, if it falls earlier, for employees).

a) 36 b) 48 c) 60 d) 72

14. Under “Personal Loan Against Mortgage of Immoveable Property”, the processing fee will be charged @ .

a) 0.50 % of the loan amount b) 2.00 % of the loan amount

maximum Rs. 50,000/- c) 1.00 % of the loan amount. d) 1.10% of the loan amount.

15. Under “Personal Loan Against Mortgage of Immoveable Property” margin is as under:

a) 50% of the market value of the property b) 40% of the market value of the property c) 20% of the market value of the property d) None of the above.

KEY OTHER PERSONAL LOANS-1

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. b c d d b a a a b c

Q. 11 12 13 14 15

Ans d d c b b


SALARY PACKAGE ACCOUNTS

1 Corporate Salary Package Account will be available to the employees of a Corporate or Institution, only when the organization has: a) A minimum number of 25 employees with a minimum payout of Rs.1.25 lacs

p.m., b) A minimum number of 20 employees with a minimum payout of Rs.1.00 lacs

p.m., c) Minimum gross monthly salary per account of Rs. 5,000/- d) Both (a) & (c) e) Both (b) & (c)

2. PBBU Heads of the Circle have the discretion to permit deviation in eligibility criteria and approve a tie up with a Corporate/ Institution having minimum number of employees opening their salary accounts with us.

a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) No deviation is allowed

3. Circle CGM may permit coverage of employees having salaries of less than Rs. 5,000 per month under “Silver” variant, provided: a) All the salary accounts are maintained with our Bank b) The employees drawing gross salary of less than Rs.5,000/- should not be more

than 20% of total. c) The employees drawing gross salary of less than Rs.5,000/- should not be

more than 25% of total. d) Both (a) & (b) e) Both (a) & (c)

4. The Corporate Salary Package has variants:

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

5. SBI Vishesh status is being provided for holders:

a) Platinum Account b) Gold Account c) Diamond Account d) Both (a) & (c)

6. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Silver variant of Corporate Salary Package Account? i. Gross Monthly Salary should be between Rs. 5,000/- and Rs. 20,000/-. ii Free Domestic ATM Card is provided iii Unlimited cheque book leaves free in a year except for bulk requirement for EMIs payable to other banks/FIs iv Charges are recovered for Cash Deposit transactions in excess of 3

transactions per month



7. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Gold variant of Corporate Salary Package Account?

I. Gross Monthly Salary should be between Rs. 20,000/- and Rs. 50,000/- ii. Free International Gold Debit Card is provided iii.Minimum Balancein the a/c required are NIL iv.Charges are recovered for Cash Deposit transactions in excess of 3

transaction per month

a) Only (i) b) Both (i) & (ii) c) (i), (ii) & (iii) d) All of the above

8. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Diamond variant of Corporate Salary Package Account?

i. Gross Monthly Salary should be between Rs. 50,000/- and Rs. 1.00 lac. ii. Free International Gold Debit Card is provided iii. Unlimited cheque book leaves free in a year iv. No limit on number of cash deposit transactions.


9. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Platinum variant of Corporate Salary Package Account?

i. Gross Monthly Salary should be more than Rs. 1,00,000/-. ii. Free International Platinum Card is provided iii. No limit on the number of Cheques. iv. No limit on number of cash deposit transactions.


10. Overdraft facility limited to 2 month’s Net Salary can be provided under Corporate Salary Package Account to a) Platinum Account b) Silver Account, Gold Account, c) Silver Account, Gold Account & Diamond Account d) All the four variants

11. The Defence Salary Package has variants:

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

12 Army personnel will be categorized into eligible variants as per there:

a) Ranks b) Salaries c) Ranks and Salaries both d) None of the above.


13 Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Defence Salary Package Account? i. All Army personnel including the Defence Civilian Staff will be eligible to open

DSP accounts. Currently however, civilians have been excluded. ii. The facilities under DSP accounts will be continued even for pension

accounts after retirement, provided the officer/ PBOR has had his salary account with us and also draws his pension through us.

iii. The Army numbers to be used in ID First field. iv. The DSP account can be operated as a joint account.


14. Who is eligible for the Gold Card Under DSP ?

a) PBORs and Civilian Staff below Officer Rank b) Majors, Captains, Lts and Civilian Officers c) Lt Cols and Cols d) Brigadiers and above

15. Who is eligible for the Platinum Card Under DSP ?

a) PBORs and Civilian Staff below Officer Rank b) Majors, Captains, Lts and Civilian Officers c) Lt Cols and Cols d) Brigadiers and above

KEY SALARY PACKAGE ACCOUNTS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

d a d c a c c d d d

11 12 13 14 15

c a d b d


SME LIABILITY PRODUCTS-1 1. QAB under the SME Power Variants Current Accounts can range from __ to __

a) Rs 20000, Rs 5.00lacs b) Rs 25000, Rs 2.00lacs c) Rs 10000, Rs 2.00lacs d) Rs 25000, Rs 5.00lacs

2. Which Facility is not available in SME Power Variants Current Accounts

a) Free internet banking b) Unlimited free cash withdrawal at home branch c) Cheque return protection facility d) Issue of multicity cheques free of charge

3. RTGS facility is not free for which of the following SME power CAs

a) Power gain b) Power Base c) Power Pack d) None of these 4. Penalty for closure of account within 12 months in case of SME Power Pack is

a) Rs 2000 +S.T b) Rs 5000+S.T c) Rs 10000 +S.T d) Nil

5. The charges for non maintenance of QAB varies from minimum of ____ to maximum of _____ depending upon the type of power CA.

a) Rs 3000/-, Rs 7000/- b) Rs 2000/- , Rs 10000/- c) Rs 3000/- , Rs 10000/- d) Rs 2000/- , Rs 15000/-

6. Which of the following is not true in respect of deposit of cash at home branch

a) Cash deposit at home branch is free upto maximum of Rs 2.50 lacs per month in case of Power Base.

b) Cash deposit at home branch is free upto maximum of Rs 15.00 lacs per month in case of Power Gain

c) Cash deposit at home branch is free upto maximum of Rs 30.00 lacs per month in case of Power Pack

d) All are true

7. All categories of salary accounts are permitted to be opened in case of which of the following SME power accounts.

a) SME power Gain b) SME power Base c) SME power Pack d) All of the above

8. Which of the following is not true in respect of SME Power Base a) Cheques drawn on non home branch and collected at home branch is free b) RTGS is free c) ATM card provided is ATM Pride d) CINB is free

9. POWER JYOTI is a

a) Home Loan product for Power sector employees b) Current account for fee collection c) Education loan for students pursuing studies in prestigious institutes d) Financing scheme for rural electrification projects


10. What is QAB in respect of POWER JYOTI Current Account?

a) Rs 5000/- per quarter b) Rs 50,000/- per quarter c) Rs 1,00,000/- per quarter d) Rs 25,000/- per quarter

11. What is the penalty for non-maintenance of QAB in respect of POWER JYOTI Current Account?

a) Rs 1000 + S.T per quarter b) Rs 2500 + S.T per quarter c) Rs 3500 + S.T per quarter d) Rs 4000 + S.T per quarter

12. What is the penalty for closure of accounts within 12 months in respect of POWER JYOTI Current Account?

a) Rs 500 + S.T b) Rs 1000 + S.T c) Rs 400 + S.T d) No charges

13. One of the following is not true about POWER JYOTI Current Account

a) Transactions other than fee collection/donation are not permitted b) Cheque book facility is not available c) No fee collection charges are taken from the person Remitting Fee d) Cash handling charges waived

14. For activation of fee collection module under the POWER JYOTI Current Account scheme the option to be chosen in core while opening the account is. a) Statement/mail option/fee collection b) Term a/c options c) Govt/PPF/Cr card details d) Core options

15. One of the following is not true about POWER JYOTI Current account

a) No cheque book is issued on the account b) Cash, transfer and clearing transactions are permitted c) No overdraft is permissible d) There are charges for CINB facility

16. Surabhi is a combination of fixed deposit and a) current account b) saving bank account c) either a or b d) neither a nor b

17. The amount of loan available under SBI Surabhi scheme is a) Rs 10000/- b) 80% of deposit c) 75% of deposit d) Nil


18. SBI Surabhi deposit account can be opened by a) Corporate

b) Institutions c) Trusts d) Small & Medium Enterprises who manage the PF e) All of the above

19. Under SBI Surabhi deposit scheme, any surplus funds in the account exceeding the threshold limit are transferred to a) Multi Option Deposits b) Special Term Deposits c) Corporate Liquid Term Deposits d) Recurring Deposits

20. Minimum & maximum period of fixed deposit under SBI Surbahi is

a) 12 months & 60 months b) 24months & 48 months c) 12 month & 36 months d) 12months & 24 months .

21. Under SBI Surabhi, minimum amount of deposit to be maintained in Current Account and Saving Account is Rs. ____ & Rs. _____

a) 10,000/-, 1000/- b) 15,000/-, 2000/-

c) 10,000/-, 5000/- d) 17,000/-, 4000/-

22. Under SBI Surabhi deposit scheme, the threshold balance required is Rs.____ over which sweep will take place. a) Rs.25,000 b) 1,00,000 c) Rs.50,000 d) Rs.1,000

23. Under SBI Surabhi deposit scheme, funds can be deposited for a period ranging from a) 1 to 2 years b) 1 to 3 years c) 2 to 5 years d)1 to 5 years

24. For CLTD – Initial deposits would be i.e. for the first sweep is Rs. 1,00,000/- and above, and subsequent deposits would be in multiples of Rs. _____

a) Rs 1000/- b) Rs 10,000/- c) Rs 5000/- d) Rs 50,000/-

25. Penalty for non maintenance of Minimum Balance in Current account in case of Surbhi is

a) Rs 750/- +S.T b) Rs 500/- +S.T c)Rs 1000/- +S.T d) Rs 5000/- +S.T

KEY- SME LIABILITY PRODUCTS-1

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

a c b b c c c b b b

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

b b c a d c d e c c

21 22 23 24 25

c b b b a


SME LIABILITY PRODUCTS-2 1. What is the required QAB for SME POWERGAIN?

a) Rs. 10,000/- b) Rs. 2,00,000/- c) Rs. 5,00,000/- d) No such requirement

2. What is the required QAB for SME POWERPACK? a) Rs. 10,000/- b) Rs. 1,00,000/- c) Rs. 5,00,000/- d) No such requirement

3. What is the penalty for non-maintenance of QAB for SME POWERGAIN

a) Rs. 2,000/- + S.T. per quarter b) Rs 5,000/- + S.T. per quarter c) Rs 4,000/- + S.T. per quarter d) Rs. 6,000/- + S.T. per quarter 4. What is the penalty for non-maintenance of QAB for SME POWERPACK

a) Rs. 5,000/- + S.T. per quarter b) Rs. 6,000/- + S.T. per quarter c) Rs.10,000/- + S.T. per quarter d) Rs. 8,000/- + S.T. per quarter 5. What concession in charges is available for sending remittance under RTGS

under SME POWERGAIN (a) No Concession (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 100%

6. What is the penalty for closure of accounts within 12 months in respect of SME POWERGAIN (a) Rs 1000/- + S.T. (b) Rs 1500/- + S.T. (c) Rs 5000/- + S.T. (d) No charges

7. What is the penalty for closure of accounts within 12 months in respect of SME POWERPACK (a) Rs 2500/- + S.T. (b) Rs 1500/- + S.T. (c) Rs 5000/- + S.T. (d) No charges

8. One of the following facilities is not free e i t h e r in SME POWERGAIN or POWERPACK

a) Issuing of duplicate statement b) Standing Instructions c) Cash withdrawal in home branch d) Collection of cheques drawn on other Banks


9. QAB required to be maintained for SME power pack is?

a) Rs. 10,000/- b) Rs. 1,00,000/- c) Rs. 5,00,000/- d) No such requirement

10. Which of the following is not true in respect of SME power pack a) Cash deposit in home branch is free upto Rs 60.00 Lacs or 12 times last quarter Balance which ever is higher

b) Issue of draft and banker cheque is free c) RTGS /NEFT is free d) Outstation cheque collection is free

11. Multicity cheques are not issued free for which of the following?

12. a) SME Power Gain b) SME Power Pack c) SME power Base d) None of the above

12. Cash deposit in home branch is free upto maximum of Rs____Lac in SME Power Base, in a month a) 2.50 b) 5.00 c) 15.00 d) 60.00

13. Cash deposit in home branch is free upto maximum of Rs_____Lac in SME

Power Gain, in a month. a) 2.50 b) 5.00 c) 15.00 d) 60.00

14. Charges for cash withdrawal at home branch in case of SME power base is

a) Rs 25/- b) Rs 20/- c) Rs 15/- d) Nil

15. Standing instructions charges are not free in case of which of the following accounts a) SME Power Gain b) SME Power Base c) SME Power Pack d) None of the above

16. Which of the following is not true about SME Power Pack a) Issuing of duplicate statement is free b) Pre approved car loan for promoters is there c) Business Debit Card given is Pride d) There are no charges for NEFT

17. SAHAJ is a: a) Home Loan product for Power sector employees b) Current account for SME Entrepreneurs having small means c) Education loan for students pursuing studies in prestigious institutes d) Financing scheme for rural electrification projects


18. What is QAB in respect of SAHAJ Current Account? a) Rs 500/- per quarter b) Rs 750/- per quarter c) Rs 1000/- per quarter d) Rs 2000/- per quarter

19. SAHAJ Current Account can be opened by a) Individual customers b) Proprietorship Firms c) Partnership Firms d) Any of these

20. The cheque book facility is extended to SME Sahaj current accounts with one of the following conditions. a) Number of cheque leaves to be issued per financial year to be restricted to 25

leaves with a charge of Rs. 5 per leaf b) Additional requirement of further cheque leaves may be permitted with a

charge of Rs.10 per leaf. c) Drawings per cheque to be limited to Rs. 15,000/- Each cheque leaf to carry

this inscription. d) All of the above

21. What is QAB in respect of SME Power POS Current Account? a) Rs 5000/- per quarter b) Rs 25000/- per quarter c) Rs 1000/- per quarter d) Rs 2000/- per quarter 22. Penalty for closure of Account within 12 months in case of SME Power POS is

a) Rs 100/- b) Rs 500/- c) Rs 1000/- d) Rs 5000/-

23. Maximum Overdraft which can be given in case of SME Power POS account is a) 5 Lacs b) 2 Lacs c) 10 Lacs d) No overdraft Facility available

24. OD Facility in SME Power POS is available after ____ Months after installation. a) 2 Months b) 3 Months c) 6 Months d) 8 Months

25. Eligible OD Amount in case of Power POS Account will be ___% of last 6 months transactions

a) 25 b) 50 c) 10 d) 40



1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

b c d c d a c d c

10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

d d a c d b c b c

19 20 21 22 23 24 25 d d a c a c a


SME LIABILITY PRODUCTS-3

1. The objective of Launching State Bank SME Insta Deposit Card a) To withdraw the cash b) For transfer transaction. c) To deposit cash d) All of the above

2. Which machine is used to deposit the cash by using State Bank SME Insta deposit Card

a) ATM b) CDM c) GCC d) Both B & C

3. Which customers are eligible for issuing State Bank SME Insta deposit Card

a) A l l current account holders b) SME loan account holders c) All customers d) All SME customers of Non personal entities including CSPs

4. The facilities available to the SME Insta Deposit Card holders

a) To deposit cash b) Balance Enquiry c) Mini statement of account d) All of the above

5. Maximum Number of Pieces of currency notes to be deposited per transaction.

a) 100 Pieces b) 200 Pieces c) 300 Pieces d) 400 Pieces

6. ‘Validity period of SME Insta Deposit Card Is a) 5 Years b) 10 Years c) 12 Years d) 15 Years

7. Customer by using SME Insta Deposit Card to which accounts deposit the cash a) Only designated account as given in application b) All the accounts with the bank c) Both a & b d ) Accounts of other bank

8. The Objective Of Launching State Bank Business Debit Card Is:

a) Sourcing Of SME Current Accounts b) CASA Business c) Both a& b d) None of the Above

9. SBI has Launched State Bank Business Debit Card In which of The following Variants: a) State Bank Pride (Gold) b) State Bank Premium

(Platinum) c) Both a & b d) None of above


10. State Bank Business Debit Card Can be linked to: a) All Current Account Holders b) SME Loan Account Holders c) Current Account in non-Personal Segment d) b &C above

11. “State Bank Pride” Business Debit Card is Issued to Customers having: a) Current Account With Bal.>= INR 25000< INR 500000 & Loan Limit Of >

100000 < 2500000 b) Current Account With Bal. > 100000 c) Current Account With Bal. > 50000 d) No Minimum Balance Required

12. State Bank Premium Business Debit Card is Issued to: a) Current Account With Bal. Upto 100000 b) Current Account With Bal. > 500000 c) Current Account With Bal. < 500000 d) Current Account With Bal. > 1000000

13. The Expected Benefits Of Business Debit Card to bank is/ are : a) Utility & Retentions Of Business Current Account b) To Eliminate the use Of Cash and Cost Efficiency. c) To Promote E- Commerce Transactions d) All The Above

14. The Expected benefits of Business Debit Card To Customers Is/are :

a) Can Use Business Debit Card to Deposit Cash In Cash Deposit Machines b) Easier Than Carrying Cash c) Both A & B d) None

15. Business Debit Cards need to be issued to Current Account Holders Under: a) Per Segment Only b) SME Segment Only c) C & I Segment Only d) b & c Only

16. Which of The following can Issue Business Debit Card to All Existing Current Account holder a) All Circles Through Their Branches b) Mid Corporate Group Only c) CAG Only d) All The Above

17. Issuance Of Business Debit Card will help the Bank

a) Promoting Cashless Environment through MAB b) Sourcing Of SME Current Accounts c) Increasing Its Casa Business d) b & c Only e) All The Above

18. The target Customers for State Bank Business Debit Card are: a) Current Account Holders in Proprietorships b) Current Account Holders in Partnership c) Current Account Holders Of Public & Private Ltd. Companies d) All The Above


19. The Prime requirement for Issuance Of Business Debit Card is a) Current Account in Non Personal Segment

b) Cash Credit Limit c) Current Account d) b & c Only

20. The Facility Of Personal Accident Insurance available for State Bank Business

Debit Card holder a) 2 Lac in State Bank Pride And 1 Lac In State Bank Premium b) 2 Lac in State Bank Premium And 1 Lac In State Bank Pride

c) 5 Lac in State Bank Pride And 2 Lac In State Bank Premium

d) 2 Lac in State Bank Pride And 5 Lac In State Bank Premium

21. The Stipulated Minimum Balance In Current Account For issuance Of “ State Bank Pride” Business Debit Card a) Rs. 5000/- b) Rs. 10000/- c) Rs. 25000/- d) Nil

22. Can Business Debit Card be Issued to Jointly Operated Current Accounts? a) Yes b) No c) Yes, Subject To Verification Constitutional document for any stipulation In

respect of operation of the account d) Not At All.


Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. c d d d b b a c c c

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. d b d c d d e d a d

Q. 21 22

Ans. d c


GENERAL ADVANCES

1. The Loan Policy is an embodiment of the Bank's approach to

a. Sanctioning, Managing and Monitoring Credit Risk

b. Sanctioning, Managing and Monitoring Market Risk

c. Sanctioning, Managing and Monitoring Operational Risk

d. All the above

2. The Bank's Loan Policy applies to :

a. Standard Assets only

b. Overseas Advance plus Domestic Advances

c. Overseas Advances

d. All domestic lendings.

3. Substantial exposure norms are :

a. a cap on further exposures

b. part of prudential exposure norms set by RBI

c. In - house norms set within the prudential exposure norms and are intended to

help in monitoring credit concentrations

d. Norms which can be breached freely.

4. For the purpose of exposure, the exposure in loan is to be taken as under

a. In case of CC or OD, the sanctioned

b. In case of LC or BG, the sanctioned limit

c. In case of TL sanctioned limit but if TL is fully disbursed, then outstanding

balance

d. All of these

5. Additional credit exposure to group borrower beyond normal limit of 40%. in

case of infrastructure projects is .

a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%

6. The bank's aggregate exposure to Capital Market should not exceed of the Net

Worth of the bank on a solo and consolidated basis

a. 40% b. 10% c. 5% d. 2%


7. For Non Fund based limit the exposure for group exposure purpose means

% of the sanctioned limit

a. 25% b. 50% c. 100% d. 125%

8. Additional credit exposure up to 5% beyond normal limit of 15%. permitted to a single borrower if the limit is for projects.

a. agriculture investment b. export oriented

c. infrastructure d. none of these

9. As per Bank's loan policy document, the maximum aggregate Credit facilities (fund based and non fund based) to Non-corporate Borrowers (e.g. Partnership, Associations etc.) is:

a. Rs.10 crores b. Rs.50 crores c. Rs.100 crores d. Rs. 500 crores 10. According to the loan policy of SBI the maximum aggregate credit facility (FB+NFB) for an Individual borrower against specified securities is Rs. a. 25 Cr. b) 50 Cr c) 100 Cr d) No limit

11. Prudential Exposure limit for single and group borrowers other than infrastructure projects is -- & --% capital of the bank

a. 20% & 40% b. 15% & 40% c. 25%&50% d) 10%&20% 12. Prudential Exposure limit for single and group borrowers including infrastructure projects is -- & – % capital of the bank

a. 20% & 40% b. 15% & 40% c. 20%&50% d. 10%&20% 13. At whole bank level, the non-fund exposure will not exceed ------ the level of fund based exposure.

a. 2 times b. 3 times c. 4 times d. 5 times

14. Which of the following does match regarding term loan repayment

a. Short term loan - 1 to 3 years b. Medium term loan - 3 to 5 years c. Long term loan - 5 to 8 years d. All of these


15. Our Bank's definition of SME is based on a. Activity b. Turnover c. Investment in PLM d. Investment in Equipment 16. The definition of Small Enterprise as per our Bank's norm is a. Annual Turnover upto Rs.10 crs b. Annual Turnover upto Rs.25 crs c. Annual Turnover upto Rs. 5 crs d. Annual Turnover upto Rs.45 crs 17. Medium enterprises as per Bank's norm are those with Annual Turnover a. Rs 5 crs upto Rs.10crs b) Rs 5 crs upto Rs.25 crs c) Rs 5 crs upto Rs. 50 crs d) Rs 5 crs upto Rs.75 crs

18. As per our own Bank's definition, Mid Corporates are those units whose turnover is more than............. and upto ...............

a.25,000/-, 5 lacs b. Rs.5 crores & Rs.25 crores c.Rs.50 crores, Rs.350 crores d.Rs.50 crores, Rs.500 crores 19. What is MSMED Act 2006 ? a. Micro Small and Medium Engineers Development Act 2006 b. Micro Small and Medium Economy Development Act 2006. c. Micro Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act 2006. d. Micro Small and Medium Enterprises Department Act 2006 20. As per MSMED Act 2006 small enterprises engaged in service activities are defined as those having an investment in equipments upto

a. Rs 5 lacs b. Rs.10 lacs c. Rs10lacs upto Rs 2 crs d. Rs5lacs upto Rs 1 crs 21. As per MSMED Act 2006 small enterprises engaged in manufacturing are defined as those having an investment in Plant & machinery upto

a. Rs 5 lacs b. Rs.10 lacs c. Rs10lacs upto Rs 2 crs d. Rs25lacs upto Rs 5 crs 22. As per MSMED Act 2006 Medium Enterprises (Services) are those having investment in equipments upto

a. Rs 2 crs upto Rs. 5 crs b. Rs 1 cr upto Rs.2 crs c. Rs10 lacs upto Rs 2 crs d. Rs 5 lacs upto Rs 1 crs


23. As per MSMED Act 2006 Medium Enterprises (Mfg) are those having investment in Plant & machinery upto

a. Rs 5 cr upto Rs.10 crs b. Rs 5 crs c. Rs 10 cr upto Rs 50 crs d.Rs 50 crs upto Rs 100 crs 23. For SSI advances upto Rs.25,000/-, the loan application should be disposed of within a period of

a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 1 week d. 8 weeks 25. For SSI advances above Rs.25,000/- and up to Rs. 5 lacs, the loan application should be disposed of within a period of

a. 2 weeks b. 7 to 8 weeks c. 4 weeks d. 8 to 9 weeks 26. The various disclosure in the balance sheet of banks aim at a. Supervision b. Inspection c. Monitoring d. Transparency

27. Cash generation / Cash profit or Cash Accrual means a. Profit + Depreciation b. Profit less depreciation c. Net profit d. None of these 28. The loss before depreciation is called a. Net loss b. Actual loss c. Accumulated loss d. Cash loss 29. Original cost of fixed asset less Depreciation is

a. Net block b. Gross Block c. either a or b d. None of these 30. In a balance sheet, Owners fund means a. Paid up capital or Capital b. Paid up capital + Reserve c. Paid up capital + Reserve - Intangible Assets d. None of these 31. In balance sheet profit is shown under a. Liabilities b. Assets c. Current Assets d. None of these 32. The number of banks which can participate in Consortium Advances is

a. Two b. Three c. Five d. Ten


33. DRT is expected to decide a case within days a. 60 b. 90 c. 180 d. There is no time limit 34. The decision on an appeal against DRT is to be given by DRAT within_ days a. 30 days b. 45 days c. 90 days d.180 days 35. The present definition of Wilful defaulter has been adopted by RBI on the recommendation of

a. K C Chakraborty Committee b. S S Kohli Committee c. Deepak Mohanty Committee d. T K A Nair Committee 36. Bank should classify an account as NPA only if the interest due and charged during any quarter is not serviced fully within from the

a. 90 days, date of debit b. 90days, end of quarter c. More than 90 days, end of quarter d. More than 90 days, date of debit

37. In case of all Restructuring cases, the moratorium period should be minimum months

a. 3 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24

38. The renewal of Cash Credit limit for Working Capital is stipulated by RBI on

a. Half yearly basis b. Quarterly basis

c. Annual basis d. Bi-annual basis 39. The working capital limit sanctioned by bank, particularly the cash credit limit ,is repaid out of

a. Capital from promoters b. Sales proceeds from fixed assets c. Capital from markets d. Sales proceeds of Current Assets

40. The term Gross Working Capital or Working Capital represents

a. Current Assets and Fixed Assets b. Current Assets less Current Liabilities c. Working capital requirement after deduction of margin d. Current Assets


41. Which of the following committee did recommended the concept of Working Capital Term Loan

a. Nayak Committee b. S L Kapoor Committee c. Tandon Committee d. Chore Committee 42. Under the Nayak Committee recommendation, the quantum of Working Capital limit from bank is minimum % of the projected annual sales

a.5 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25

43. The term Liquid Surplus used in computing Working Capital denotes

a. Net Working Capital b. Surplus from operation c. cash and bank balance d. Surplus of its over Long Term Uses 44. As per Nayak Committee recommendation, the working capital requirement is to be met by the bank and the borrower in the ratio of

a. 4:1 b. 3:1 c. 5:1 d. 6.1 45.Under the Nayak Committee recommendation, the quantum of contribution of the borrower is % of the projected annual sales

a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 25

46. Formula for calculating Drawing Power in Cash Credit account is a. Value of security less margin b. Balance in the account plus margin c. Value of security plus margin d. None of these 47. Collateral security means a. Goods pledged with bank in case of cash credit account b. Share and debenture pledged with the bank for overdraft c. Security given in addition to primary security d. Endorsed govt supply bills 48. Under Nayak Committee turn over method for Working Capital, the Current Ratio is

a.1.33:1 b. 1.25:1 c. 1:1 d. 0.8:1 49. Break Even of a firm can be calculated as a. Fixed Cost/ Variable Cost b. Fixed Cost/ Total Cost c. Fixed Cost/Contribution d. Fixed Cost/ Selling Price


50. The quick assets can be calculated as a. CA - Stock - Prepaid expenses b. CA- BD - Cash c. BD + Cash + Prepaid expenses d. None of these 51. Tier II Capital mainly consists of a. share capital and disclosed reserves b. certain reserves and certain types of subordinated debt c. Core Capital d. All of these

52. Tier I Capital mainly consists of . a. certain reserves and certain types of subordinated debt b. share capital and disclosed reserves c. all the above d. None of these 53. MPBF (Maximum permissible Bank finance) has been replaced with …………method. a. ABF b. Cash c. Turnover d. Operating cycle 54."Bridge loan" is a. A temporary advance for meeting unknown contingencies b. A loan for construction of bridges c. A loan for bridging working capital gap d. A temporary loan pending raising equity, term loan etc.

55. An operating cycle means: a. Six months b. One calendar year c. The period during which cash is converted back into cash in WC operations d. None of the above

56. The Bank Guarantees are covered under

a. Sale of Goods Act b. Indian Contract Act c. N.I.Act d. Companies Act 57. The working capital requirements of SSI units in excess of Rs 5 crores will be assessed under the

a. Chore Committee method b. Tandon Committee Method c. PBS Method d. None of these


58. Break even analysis is useful to find out a. Sales Turnover b. Net profit c. No profit no loss sales d. None of these 59. The time limit for filing charges with ROC in case of advance to companies is --- days

a. 30 days from sanction b. 30 days from documentation/creation of charge c. 30 days from first disbursement d. 30 days from full disbursement 60. As per RBI guidelines, any exposure up to crores is treated as a 'Retail Exposure' for the purpose of Capital calculation.

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 61. Credit Risk Assessment as per the New CRA System (CRA 2007) is done on a point scale:

a. 8 b. 12 c. 14 d. 16 62. What is the Hurdle Grade as per the new CRA System for new accounts enhancement in limits of existing accounts? a. SB-3 b. SB-4 c. SB-5 d.SB-10

63. No enhancements in credit limits are to be considered in existing accounts rated below.

a. SB 5 b. SB 9 c. SB 10 d. SB 16 64. A new unit under the new CRA system refers to: a. A newly incorporated firm - company for a period of 3 years after the start of commercial production.

b. A newly incorporated firm / company for a period of 3 years from the date of incorporation c. A newly incorporated firm/company for a period of 2 years after the start of commercial production. d. A firm / company for a period of 3 years from the time it came to the Bank. 65. Credit Risk Assessment is now applicable to-categories a. C&I advances b. SSI advances c. C&I, SSI, Trade and Agricultural Advances d. S.B.F. Advances


66.Under CRA, which risks are evaluated : a. Management, Industrial & Personal b. Industrial, financial & fiscal c. Financial, Industrial & Management d. Fiscal, Industrial & Management 67. Country Risk is applicable for borrowers having..................outside India: a. 25% or more cash flow b. 25% or more assets c. More than 25% cash flow or assets d. 25% or more cash flow or assets

68. In the New CRA System, the frequency of rating is : a. Quarterly b. Half-Yearly c. Annually d. Bi-annually 69. The entry barriers under CRA'2007 are: a. Full Compliance with environmental regulations. b. Minimum Score '2' under 'Integrity ' parameter under 'Management Risk' c. Both A&B d. None of the Above 70. Basel I has introduced capital charge on the following types of risk for the first time -

a. Market Risk b. Credit Risk c. Operational Risk d. Technology Risk 71 The charge on which of the following is usually not a floating charge: a. Stocks b. Land and building c. Book debts d. Spares 72. Which of the following committees is not associated with SSIs? a. Kapoor Committee b. Nayak Committee c. Abid Hussain Committee d. Narasimham Committee 73. What is the indicative bench mark of the Bank in respect of Current Ratio

a. 1 b. 1.25 c. 1.33 d. 1.50

74. Credit Guarantee fund Trust covers a. SSI, SME b. SSI, SBF c. SSI only d. All of these


75. CGFTSI (Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Small Industries) has been renamed as

a. CGTSI b. CGTSE c. CGTMSE d. CGFSMSE 76. CGTMSE is managed by a. GOI b. SBI c. SIDBI d. a & c 77. Which segment of advances is not covered by CGTMSE?

a. SRTO b. Retail Trade c. Govt Sponsored Schemes d. Professionals & self employed. 78. What is the lock in period under CGTMSE? a. 06 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d. 24 months

79. CGTMSE cover can be obtained for Micro & small enterprises upto a limit of

a. Rs.25 lac b.Rs.50 lac

c. Rs.100 lac , FB only d. Rs.100 lac both FB & NFB 80. As per CGTMSE "Primary Security" shall mean : a The assets created out of the credit facility so extended

b Existing unencumbered assets which are directly associated with the project or

business for which the credit facility has been extended

c Both a & b

d Both a & b and Personal guarantee of Board of Directors.

81.Maheshwari Committee recommendations deal with a. Priority Sector Advances b. Management of NPAs c. Follow up of McKinsey recommendations d. None of these

82. In case of takeover of Term Loan the remaining period of scheduled repayment should be at least: a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 5 years 83. Cash credit account is repaid out of : a. Sale proceeds b. Net profit c. Cash accruals d. Sale of assets


84. Cash Credit limit is required for financing of a. Current assets b. Fixed assets c. Cash Needs d. Any purpose. 85. Generally Cash Credit limit is sanctioned for a period of a. 36 months b. 20 months c .12 months d. 18 months. 86. The time limit provided to the borrower/guarantor in demand notice to repay the loan under SARFAESI Act, 2002

a 30 days b 45 days c 60 days d 90 days 87. Under SARFAESI Act, for sale of assets, a notice of ….is required to be given:

a. 15 days b.30 days c.60 days d.90 days 88. Under SARFEASI Act, accounts with minimum balance of Rs. are eligible:

a. Up to Rs.1 lac b. Above1 lakh c. Rs.10 lac and above d. Above Rs.10 lac 89. SARFAESI Act 2002 is not applicable in the cases a. Any security interest not exceeding 1lac b. Pledge of movable as per section 172 of contract act c. Right of unpaid seller under sec 47 of sales of goods act d. All of these

90. Term Loans are repayable out of

a. Sales turnover b. Future earnings of the Unit c. Sale of Fixed Assets purchased out of Bank's Term Loan d. Sale of Intangible Assets 91. A cash credit account will become an NPA if the limit is not renewed within: a.3 months from due date b. 9 months from due date c.6 months from due date d.12 months from due date

92. Nayak Committee Method of Working Capital assessment assumes

a. Uniform Operating Cycle of 3 months across the board. b. The SSI unit will fund 25% of the working capital requirements from its own sources.

c. Both the Above d. None of the Above


93. Stock Statements as at the last day of a month are to be submitted to the Bank: a. Before the 7th of the succeeding month b. Before the 10th banking day of the succeeding month c. Before the 10th working day of the succeeding month d. Before the 10th of the succeeding month. 94.Over what amount are the Banks free to fix their prime lending rate for loans a. Rs. 5 lacs b. Rs. 2 lacs c. Rs. 1 lac d. Rs. 10 lacs 95. Notified Centers for creating equitable mortgage are a. All district headquarters b. All centers specifically identified by the Bank c. All centers notified as per Transfer of Property Act d. All centers identified for the purpose by RBI 96. Hypothecation is defined in Act a. Indian Contract Act b. Transfer of Property Act c. NI Act d. SARFAESI Act 97. Where would you classify Trade payable in the Balance Sheet : a. Current Assets b. Non-Current Liabilities c. Current liabilities d. None of the above 98. What critical aspects need examination for project appraisal? a. Technical feasibility, Economic feasibility b. Financial feasibility, Commercial feasibility c. Managerial competency d.All the above 99.The maximum period for which a guarantee may normally be issued a. 1 year b.1-1/2 years c. 10 years d. None of the above

100. A Deferred Payment Guarantee is ; a. A performance Guarantee to overseas buyers b. A Guarantee for obtaining machinery on credit c. A Guarantee that can be deferred by applicant d. A Guarantee that can be deferred by the beneficiary


KEY GENERAL ADVANCES

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

a

d

c

d

b

a

c

c

c

d

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

b

c

a

d

b

c

c

d

c

c

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

d

a

a

a

d

d

a

d

a

b

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

a

d

c

d

b

b

c

c

d

d

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

c

c

a

a

a

a

c

a

c

a

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

b

b

a

d

c

b

c

c

b

d

61

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

d

d

c

a

c

c

d

c

c

c

71

72

73

74

75

76

77

78

79

80

b

d

c

d

c

d

b

c

d

c

81

82

83

84

85

86

87

88

89

90

a

b

a

a

c

c

b

b

d

b

91

92

93

94

95

96

97

98

99

10000

c

a

d

b

c

d

c

d

b

b


a) 10 b) 25

c) 5 d) 2

GOVT. SPONSORED SCHEMES

1. The applicable rate of interest on DIR advances is:

a) 10% b) 4%

c) 7% d) 6%

2. Loan limit under DIR advances has been increased from Rs. 6500/- to Rs.

a) 10,000/- b) 8000/- c) 15,000/- d) 12,000/-

3. Loan limit for beneficiaries of Indira Awaas Yojana under DIR advances has been increased from Rs. 6500/- to Rs.

a) 20,000/- b) 10,000/- c) 15,000/- d) 12,000/-

4. Family Income under DIR advances has been increased from Rs. 6400/- to Rs. in rural areas

a) 10,000/- b) 12,000/- c) 15,000/- d) 18,000/-

5. Family Income under DIR advances has been increased from Rs. 7200/- to Rs. in Urban areas

a) 20,000/- b) 24,000/- c) 15,000/- d) 30,000/-

6. The new name of Prime Minister Rozgar Yojna is:

a) Prime Minister’s New Employment Generation Programme (PMNEGP) b) President Employment Programme (PEP) c) Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) d) Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (MEGP)

7. Under PRIME MINISTER’S EMPLOYMENT GENERATION PROGRAMME

(PMEGP), the maximum cost of the project/unit admissible under manufacturing sector is Rs._ lakhs.

a) 10 b) 25

c) 5 d) 2

8. Under PRIME MINISTER’S EMPLOYMENT GENERATION PROGRAMME (PMEGP), the maximum cost of the project/unit admissible under business/service sector is Rs._ lakhs.


a) 10% b) 15%

c) 20% d) 25%

a) 10% b) 15%

c) 20% d) 25%

9. Under PRIME MINISTER’S EMPLOYMENT GENERATION PROGRAMME (PMEGP), the Bank will sanction % of the project cost in case of General Category of

a) 50 b) 60

c) 80 d) 90

10. Under Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP), the Bank will sanction % of the project cost in case of SC/ST Category of

a) 60 b) 80

c) 90 d) 95

11. Under PRIME MINISTER’S EMPLOYMENT GENERATION PROGRAMME (PMEGP), the maximum repayment period is:

a) 2-3 years b) 3-4 years

c) 3-5 years d) 3-7 years

12. What is maximum Moratorium Period under PRIME MINISTER’S EMPLOYMENT GENERATION PROGRAMME (PMEGP):



13. Under PMEGP, the rate of subsidy of project cost in case of General category in urban area will be %

14. Under PMEGP, the rate of subsidy of project cost in case of General category in Rural area will be %

15. Under PMEGP, the rate of subsidy of project cost in case of SC/ST/OBC/Minority/Women/Ex-Servicemen/Physically Handicapped, in Hill & Border areas of an urban area will be %

a) 25% b) 20%

b) 35% d) 15%

16. Under PMEGP, the rate of subsidy of project cost in case of SC/ST/OBC/Minority/Women/Ex-Servicemen/Physically Handicapped, in Hill & Border areas of an rural area will be _%

a) 10% b) 35%

c) 20% d) 25%


17. Under PMEGP for setting up of project costing above Rs.10 lakhs in the manufacturing sector and above Rs. 5 lakhs in the business /service sector, the minimum qualification of the beneficiary is:

a) 8th Pass b) 10th pass c) Graduate d) No minimum qualification

18. The beneficiary has to undergo “The EDP training”

a. Before sanction of loan b. Before disbursement of loan

c. With in 6 months from release of 1st installment of loan

d. With in 12 months from release of 1st installment of loan 19. What is the meaning of SGSY:

a) SELF GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA b) SUDARSHAN GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA c) SUPER GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA d) SWARNAJAYANTI GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA

20. No Collateral Security will be taken for loan of Rs. granted to an

individual under SWARNAJAYANTI GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA (SGSY)

a) 50,000/- b) 20,000/- c) 1,00,000/- d) 2,00,000/-

21. No Collateral Security will be taken for loan of Rs._ granted to a Group under SWARNAJAYANTI GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA (SGSY)

a) 10,00,000/- b) 3,00,000/- c) 5,00,000/- d) 2,00,000/-

22. Subsidy under SWARNAJAYANTI GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA (SGSY) is under General Category beneficiaries

a) 10% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 5000/- b) 20% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 6000/- c) 30% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 7500/- d) 40% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 10,000/-

23. Subsidy under SWARNAJAYANTI GRAM SWAROZGAR YOJANA (SGSY) is under SC/ST beneficiaries

a) 10% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 5000/- b) 20% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 6000/- c) 30% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 7500/- d) 50% of the Project Cost Max Rs. 10,000/-


a) 25 b) 30

c) 40 d) 50

24. Nodal agency for the implementation of PMEGP at the national level is:

a) RBI b) NABARD

c) KVIC d) Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium

Enterprises

25. Finance to SC/ST beneficiaries should not be less than % of total finance under DIR Advances

26. Which are the different variant of Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana(PMMY).

a) Sishu b) kishore c) Tarun d) All

27. Maximum amount can be finance under Sishu is

a) 50,000 b) 1,00,000

c) 5,00,000 d) 10,00,000

28 Minimum amount can be finance under Tarun is

a) 5,00,001 b) 1,00,001

c)10,00,001 d) 2,00,001

29. Loans sanctioned under Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana(PMJDY} can be classified under PPMY

a) True b) False

30. Minimum & maximum amount finance under Kishore Is

a) 50001 & 5 Lac b) 50001 & 10 lac

c) 1,00,001 & 10 lac d) 2,00,001 & 5 lac

31. How much insurance amount is covered under PRADHAN MANTRI SURAKSHA BIMA YOJANA (PMSBY)

a) 1 lac b) 2 lac

c) 4 lac d) 5 lac

32. Premium amount charge under (PMSBY)

a) Rs 15 b) Rs 12

c) Rs 18 d) Rs 16

33. Who are eligible for for insurance under PRADHAN MANTRI SURAKSHA BIMA YOJANA (PMSBY)

a) Any individual in the age between 18yrs to 70 yrs

b) Any individual in the age between 21yrs to 70 yrs

c) Any individual in the age between 18yrs to 50 yrs

d) All the citizen of India


34. In PRADHAN MANTRI SURAKSHA BIMA YOJANA (PMSBY) claim is payable on

a) Death due to accident b) Total and irrecoverable loss of both eyes or loss of use of both hands

or feet or loss of sight of one eye and loss of use of hand or foot c) Total and irrecoverable loss of sight of one eye or loss of use of

one hand or foot d) All the above

35. In PRADHAN MANTRI JEEVAN JYOTI BIMA YOJANA (PMJJBY) maximum sum insured is Rs.

a) 1 Lac b) 2 Lac c) 4 Lac d) 5 Lac

36. How much premium is payable in PRADHAN MANTRI JEEVAN JYOTI

BIMA YOJANA (PMJJBY) per annum. a) Rs 220/- b) Rs 330/- c) Rs 440/- d) Rs 550/-

37. What name is given to social security scheme.

a) Pradhan Mantri Pension Yojana b) Rajiv Gandhi Pension Yojana c) Atal Pension Yojanan d) NPS

38. At which age person start getting pension in the scheme.


39. Entry level age for the APY.

a) 21-50 b) 18-40 c) 21-60 d) 18-50

40. Minimum amount of pension in APY

a)1000-5000 b) 500-5000 c) 2000-7000 d) 100-1000

KEY GOVT. SPONSORED SCHEMES

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. b c a d b c b a d d

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. d b b d a b a d d c

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. a c d c c d a a a a

Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. b b a d b b c c b a


SME ASSET PRODUCTS

SME CREDIT CARD

1. What is the maximum quantum of advance that can be provided under SME Credit Card

Scheme?

a) Rs. 5.00 lakhs b) Rs. 10.00 lakhs

c) Rs. 15.00 lakhs d) Rs. 20.00 lakhs

2. Which type of credit facility can be provided under SME Credit Card Scheme?

a) Demand loan b) Cash Credit

c) Term Loan d) Both (b) and (c) above

3. Working Capital Limit under SME Credit Card Scheme is valid for a period of _______

years, subject to annual review.

a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 5

4. Term Loan portion under SME Credit Card Scheme will be repaid in a maximum of

________ years in suitable installments

a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9

5. In case a SSI unit intends to avail credit facility under SME Credit Card Scheme, which

type of collateral security the bank will take?

a) EM of Property b) RM of Property

c) Third Party Guarantee d) To be covered under CGTMSE

6. As per the scoring model for SME Credit Card Scheme, a unit has to score minimum of

_______% score to qualify under the scheme.

a) 50 b) 60 c) 70 d) 80

7. Margin stipulated under SME Credit Card Scheme for Loans above Rs.25000 is -


a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 25%

8. In case Retail Trader intends to avail credit facility for more than Rs. 25000/- under SME

Credit Card Scheme, which type of collateral security the bank will take?

a) To be covered under CGTMSE b) Moveable/Immovable property

c) Third Party Guarantee d) Either b) or c) above

9. Limit under SME Credit Card Scheme of a small business unit/ retail trader will be

assessed at ______% of their annual turnover or _______% of turnover of the last 12 months

in their accounts, whichever is higher

a) 20, 10 b) 15, 20

c) 20, 20 d) 20, 25

10. The working capital component should be reviewed every year provided the credit

summation is not less than ______% of the projected turnover. If the credit summation is less

than _______% then a repayment schedule should be fixed for the outstandings in suitable

monthly installments.

a) 25, 25 b) 40, 40 c) 50, 50 d) 60, 60

11. Limit under SME Credit Card to a SSI Unit will be assessed as per

a) Operating Cycle Method b) Traditional Method

c) Nayak Committee Method d) PBS Method

12. The periodicity of Stock Statement in case of SME Credit Card Scheme is –

a) Monthly b) Quarterly

c) Half Yearly d) Annually (28th Feb)

KEY - SME CREDIT CARD

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

B D B b d b c d

9 10 11 12

c c C d


SME SMART SCORE

1. Under which segments, units can be covered for financing under SME Smart Score ?

a) PER b) AGL c) SME d) C & I

2. Which Category can be covered for financing under SME Smart Score ?

a) Sole Proprietor b) Partnership

c) Closely held Public/ Pvt Ltd. Cos. d) All of the above

3. The Chief promoter/Chief executive of the unit, who intends to avail credit facility under

SME Smart Score should be years of age

a) 21 years to below 65 years b) 21 years to below 65 years

c) 18 years to below 65 years d) 18 years to below 66 years

4. For becoming eligible to avail credit facility under SME Smart Score the minimum

aggregate score of the unit should be ________%

a) 50 b) 60 c) 70 d) 80

5. The unit should score a minimum score of _________% under each sub head of Business,

Personal and Collateral for becoming eligible to avail credit facility under SME Smart Score

a) 50 b) 60 c) 70 d) 80

6. In case of Working Capital needs, a SSI Unit can be granted _______% of annual turnover

subject to a maximum of below Rs.________lakhs under SME Smart Score

a) 25, 50 b) 15, 25 c) 20, 50 d) 20, 25

7. Margin for Working Capital Limit stipulated under SME Smart Score Scheme is -

a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 25%

8. In case of Term Loan, a SSI unit can be granted _______% of project cost subject to a

maximum of below Rs._______lakhs under SME Smart Score


a) 75, 25 b) 65, 50 c) 67, 50 d) 75, 50

9. Moratorium on Term Loan under SME Smart Score can be provided for a period not

exceeding _______months

a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12

10. Term Loan under SME Smart Score will be repaid in maximum of _______years

excluding moratorium period

a) 5 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9

11. In case of Working Capital needs, a unit other than SSI can be granted ______% of

annual turnover subject to a maximum of Rs. _____lakhs under SME Smart Score

a) 15, 50 b) 15, 20 c) 15, 25 d) 20, 25

12. In case of Term Loan, a unit other than SSI can be granted _______% of project cost

subject to a maximum of not exceeding Rs. _____lakhs under SME Smart Score

a) 65, 25 b) 67, 20 c) 67, 25 d) 75, 25

13. Working Capital Limit under SME Smart Score Scheme is sanctioned for a period of

_______years, subject to annual review.

a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 5

14. Minimum Loan Amount under SME Smart Score is Rs. __________Lakhs

a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 5


KEY - SME SMART SCORE

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

c d D b a c d c

9 10 11 12 13 14

b a C c c d


SBI ASSET BACKED LOAN (ABL)

1. Eligible Customers under SBI Asset Backed Loan are -

a) Existing Customer already availing credit facilities from us.

b) New units with marketable assets to offer as security.

c) Takeover of existing units from other Banks/ FIs with satisfactory track record.

d) All of the above

2. Minimum & Maximum quantum of loan under SBI Asset Backed Loan is _______ lakhs

and _______lakhs respectively.

a) 10, 1000 b) 10, 1500 c) 10, 2000 d) 20, 2000

3. Under SBI Asset Backed Loan, the amount of finance is limited to _______% of realisable

value of property.

a) 50% b) 55% c) 60% d) 65%

4. Under SBI Asset Backed Loan, Limits can be sanctioned for periods ranging from

___________months to ___________months

a) 12, 84 b) 24, 96 c) 24, 120 d) 12, 180

5. The nature of facility under SBI Asset Backed Loan can be -

a) Fund Based b) Non-Fund Based

c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these

6. Under SBI Asset Backed Loan, stock statement will be obtained at ____________

intervals other than Demand Loan or Term Loan

a) Monthly b) Quarterly c) Half Yearly d) Yearly

7. Under SBI Asset Backed Loan, in case of early closure, pre-payment penalty is to be

charged at __________% of the Drawing Power, if pre-payment / pre-closure is from internal

accruals. _____________ may waive or reduce pre-payment penalty in SMA-2 and below

risk grade accounts.

a) 1%, Sanctioning Authority b) 1.50%, CGM Circle

c) 2%, CGM Circle d) Nil


8. Inspection of property, unit and activity should be carried out at _______________

intervals under Asset Backed Loan scheme

a) Monthly b) Quarterly c) Half Yearly d) Yearly

9. Under SBI Asset Backed Loan, property mortgaged needs to be within a radius of

________km from the branch.

a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

10. Under SBI Asset Backed Loan, minimum Cash Margin of ________% is to be maintained

for NFB Facilities.

a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

11. Unit with CRA of __________and below is not eligible for finance under Under SBI Asset

Backed Loan.

a) SB-8 b) SB-9 c) SB-10 d) SB-11

12. TIR should be obtained from two different panel advocates in case of loan amount is

above Rs. _______ lakhs

a) 25 b) 50 c) 100 d) 500

13. Under SBI Asset Backed Loan, Free Cash Pick up facility for limits above Rs. _______

Crore is available to the extent of _______% of the limits per year

a) 10, 10 b) 5, 25 c) 10, 25 d) 5, 10

14. Under SBI Asset Backed Loan, penal interest to be charged @_______% of outstanding

amount, if overdue by more than __________days

a) 1%, 7 b) 2%,10 c) 1%, 10 d) 2%, 7

15. Under SBI Asset Backed Loan, fresh valuation of property to be carried out every

_______ years and any shortfall has to be topped up.

a) Two b) Three c) Five d) Ten


16. Processing Charges/ Upfront fee should be recovered @ _______% of the limits with a

upper Cap of Rs.________Lakhs

a) 1, 10 b) 1, 15 c) 1.25, 10 d) 1.25, 15

17. Renewal of the Limits sanctioned under SBI Asset Backed Loan Scheme has to be done

after -

a) Three Years subject to Annual Review

b) Eight Years subject to Annual Review

c) Fifteen Years subject to Annual Review

d) No renewal of limit. Only Annual Review

18. Moratorium period under SBI Asset Backed Loan Scheme should not be more than

_______months based on activity. Interest to be serviced _______ in case of moratorium.

a) 6, monthly b) 12, monthly c) 18, monthly d) 24, quarterly

19. Inspection to be done immediately if there is no credit in _______________.

a) 15 days b) a calendar month

c) a quarter d) None of the above

20. If the credit summations in the account are less than _____% of sales realization, penal

interest @ ______% will be charged from the borrower till next review of the limits. Further, in

such cases, exposures should be reduced/exit option should be explored.

a) 50, 0.25 b) 50, 0.50 c) 65, 0.25 d) 65, 0.50

KEY – SBI ASSET BACKED LOAN (ABL)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

D b A D c b C c

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

D d A A c D B a

17 18 19 20

D c B C


PRADHAN MANTRI MUDRA YOJANA (PMMY) - MUDRA LOAN

1. The loans/advances with credit limits upto Rs. ______lakhs sanctioned on or after

8th April, 2015 till 7th July, 2015 to manufacturing, trading and services sector under MSE

segment are categorised as MUDRA Loans under the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana.

a) 0.50 b) 5.00 c) 10.00 d) 20.00

2. Under PMMY, Loans and Advances upto Rs.________lakhs are classified as "Shishu"

a) 0.50 b) 5.00 c) 10.00 d) 20.00

3. Under PMMY, Loans and Advances above Rs._______lakhs to Rs. _______lakhs are

classified as "Kishore"

a) 0.50, 5.00 b) 5.00, 10.00 c) 10.00, 20.00 d) 20.00, 100.00

4. Under PMMY, Loans and Advances above Rs._______lakhs to Rs. _______lakhs are

classified as "Tarun"

a) 0.50, 5.00 b) 5.00, 10.00 c) 10.00, 20.00 d) 20.00, 100.00

5. Daily Cash Withdrawal Limits for MUDRA Cards under "Shishu Category" is –

a) Rs. 10,000.00 b) Rs. 15,000.00 c) Rs. 20,000.00 d) Rs. 25,000.00

6. Daily Cash Withdrawal Limits for MUDRA Cards under "Kishore Category" is –

a) Rs. 10,000.00 b) Rs. 15,000.00 c) Rs. 20,000.00 d) Rs. 25,000.00

7. Daily Cash Withdrawal Limits for MUDRA Cards under "Tarun Category" is –

a) Rs. 10,000.00 b) Rs. 15,000.00 c) Rs. 20,000.00 d) Rs. 25,000.00

8. PoS Limit for MUDRA Cards under "Shishu Category" is -

a) Rs. 15,000.00 b) Rs. 20,000.00 c) Rs. 25,000.00 d) Rs. 30,000.00


9. PoS Limit for MUDRA Cards under "Kishore Category" is -

a) Rs. 15,000.00 b) Rs. 20,000.00 c) Rs. 25,000.00 d) Rs. 30,000.00

10. PoS Limit for MUDRA Cards under "Tarun Category" is -

a) Rs. 15,000.00 b) Rs. 20,000.00 c) Rs. 25,000.00 d) Rs. 30,000.00

11. Overdraft amounts of Rs.__________ sanctioned under Pradhan Mantri Jan

Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) are also to be classified as MUDRA loans under PMMY.

a) 1,000.00 b) 2,000.00 c) 3,000.00 d) 5000.00

12. Under MUDRA, margin requirement for a Shishu Loan is –

a) Nil b) 5% c) 10% d) 20%

13. Under MUDRA, margin requirement for a Kishore Loan is –

a) Nil b) 5% c) 10% d) 20%

14. Under MUDRA, margin requirement for a Kishore Loan is –

a) Nil b) 5% c) 10% d) 20%

15. The periodicity of Stock Statement in case of SME Credit Card Scheme is –


c) Half Yearly d) Annually (31st Dec)

16. Inspection is to be conducted at ___________interval.

a) Monthly b) Quarterly c) Half Yearly d) Annually

17. Upfront fees / Processing Fees for Shishu Account is -

a) Nil b) 0.50% c) 1% d) 1.25%


18. Upfront fees / Processing Fees for Kishore Account is –

a) Nil b) 0.50% c) 1% d) 1.25%

19. Upfront fees / Processing Fees for Tarun Account is –

a) Nil b) 0.50% c) 1% d) 1.25%

20. To be eligible in Shishu Category, cut off in scoring model is ________%.

a) 40 b) 50 c) 60 d) 65

21. To be eligible in Kishore category, cut off in scoring model is ________%.

a) 40 b) 50 c) 60 d) 65

22. To be eligible in Tarun category, cut off in scoring model is ________%.

a) 40 b) 50 c) 60 d) 65

KEY – PRADHAN MANTRI MUDRA YOJNA (PMMY)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

C A A b a b C a

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

C D D A c c D C

17 18 19 20 21 22

A b B A B c


STAND UP INDIA (SUI)

1) Under Stand Up India (SUI), the loan can be sanctioned to -

a) Schedule Caste b) Schedule Tribe

c) Women d) Any of the above

2) Under Stand Up India (SUI), the loan can be sanctioned to -

a) Existing Customer already availing credit facilities from us.

b) Green field enterprises in Non-Farm Sector

c) Takeover of existing units from other Banks/ FIs with satisfactory track record.

d) All of the above

3. In case on Non-Individual Customers ______% of the shareholding and controlling stake

should be held either by SC / ST and / or Women Entrepreneur.

a) 50 b) 51 c) 60 d) 75

4. Credit facilities in the form of ____________ can be sanctioned to the eligible applicants.

a) Working Capital Limit b) Term Loan

c) Non-Fund based facilities d) Any of the above

5. Minimum quantum of finance, that can be sanctioned under the scheme is –

a) Rs. 5 lakhs b) Over Rs. 5 lakhs

c) Rs. 10 lakhs d) Over Rs. 10 lakhs

6. Maximum quantum of finance, that can be sanctioned under the scheme is –

a) 25 lakhs b) 50 lakhs c) 100 lakhs d) 200 lakhs

7. A guarantee fee under the scheme is to be borne by –

a) The Borrower b) The Bank

c) 50% by the Borrower and 50% by the Bank d) None of the above


8. Guarantee Coverage to the extent of _________% is available for Credit facility above

Rs.10 lakhs and upto Rs. 50 lakhs.

a) 50 b) 75 c) 80 d) 100

9. Term Loan can be repaid in a maximum of _________ years including Moratorium Period.

a) 5 b) 7 c) 8 d) 10

10. Maximum moratorium period of _________ months can be granted under the scheme.

a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 24

11. In case of irregularity in Cash Credit Limit, penal interest @________% to be charged on

_____________for the period of irregularity.

a) 1%, irregular portion b) 1%, entire outstanding

c) 2%, irregular portion d) 2%, entire outstanding

12. In case of irregularity in Term Loan, penal interest @________% to be charged on

_____________ for the period of irregularity.

a) 1%, irregular portion b) 1%, entire outstanding

c) 2%, irregular portion d) 2%, entire outstanding

13. Inspection for regular accounts to be conducted at ______________ intervals

a) Monthly b) quarterly c) Half Yearly d) Yearly

14. Inspection for irregular accounts to be conducted at ______________ intervals

a) Monthly b) quarterly c) Half Yearly d) Yearly

STAND UP INDIA (SUI)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

D b B d D c a C

9 10 11 12 13 14

B c D c b A


DOCTOR PLUS

1. Target Group for Doctor Plus Scheme is –

a) Medical practitioners of allopathic discipline

b) Promoters of allopathic hospitals and nursing homes

c) Pathological clinics, polyclinic, X-ray labs

d) Any activity of allopathic discipline

e) All of the above

2. Who are eligible to avail credit facility under Doctor Plus Scheme ?

a) Individuals b) Partnership Firms

c) Corporates/ Trusts d) Any of the above

3. Promoters should be registered practitioners and should possess minimum qualification to

practice in

a) Allopathic discipline such as MBBS, BDS

b) Ayurvedic discipline such as BAMS

c) Homeopathy discipline such as DHMS

d) Naturopathy

e) Any of the above

4. Credit facility under Doctor Plus Scheme can be granted for –

a) For buying equipment (For dentists, the loan also covers dental implants besides

equipment; for orthopedists, the loan also covers various replacements/ implants

for hip/knee/shoulder/spine etc.)

b) Setting up clinic, nursing home, pathology labs, drug store, ambulance, computers,

vehicles, etc.

c) Expansion/renovation/ modernization of existing premises

d) Any of the above

5. Which type of credit facility can be granted under Doctor Plus Scheme ?

a) Cash Credit b) Term loan

c) Demand Loan d) Any of the above


6. Minimum & Maximum quantum of loan under Doctor Plus Scheme is _______ lakhs and

_______lakhs respectively.

a) 10, 100 b) 10, 500 c) 20, 500 d) 20, 1000

7. Minimum DSCR under Doctor Plus Scheme is stipulated at –

a) 1.25 : 1 b) 1.50 : 1 c) 1.75 : 1 d) 2.00 : 1

8. Under Doctor Plus Scheme, maximum repayment period of Term Loan can be _____years

_____________moratorium period

a) 5, including b) 5, excluding c) 7, including d) 7, excluding

9. Under Doctor Plus Scheme, maximum moratorium period of _______months can be given.

a) 6 b) 9 c) 12 d) 18

10. Under Doctor Plus Scheme, a unit with CRA rating of ________and above will only be

considered.

a) SB-7 b) SB-8 c) SB-9 d) SB-10

11. Under Doctor Plus Scheme, no tangible collateral security for loan amount upto Rs.

______ lakhs. These are to be covered under CGTMSE and _______% of CGTMSE fees will

be borne by the borrower.

a) 50, Nil b) 100, 50 c) 200, 50 d) 200, 100

12. Under Doctor Plus Scheme, for loans above Rs. 2.00 crore , minimum ______% tangible

collateral security and Personal guarantee of promoters is required.

a) 25 b) 40 c) 50 d) 75

13. Under Doctor Plus Scheme, _______________ will have the discretion to reduce

collateral security coverage upto 15% on a case to case basis on business considerations.

a) Sanctioning Authority b) Regional Manager

c) GM Network d) CGM Circle


14. Under Doctor Plus Scheme, inspection is to be conducted at ___________ intervals to

ensure end use of funds.

a) Monthly b) Quarterly c) Half Yearly d) annually

15. Under Doctor Plus Scheme, margin @ _______% is to be obtained.

a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

16. Under Doctor Plus Scheme, ______ % concession (on card rates) is extended on Upfront

Fee and Inspection charges.

a) 25 b) 40 c) 50 d) 60

17. Under Doctor Plus Scheme, operating units can make multiple disbursements for buying

equipment and expansion/renovation/ modernization of existing premises (as per

requirements) over a period of ________ months from the date of sanction.

a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 24

18. Under Doctor Plus Scheme, operating units can make multiple disbursements for setting

up clinics, nursing homes, pathology labs, drug stores and other infrastructure (as per

requirements) over a period of ________ months from the date of sanction.

a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 24

KEY - DOCTOR PLUS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

E D A D b b b C

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

C C C A d c b c

17 18

B D


LEASE RENTAL DISCOUNTING (LRD) SCHEME

1. Authorised Branches for LRD Schemes are –

a) All SME intensive branches to handle proposals upto the cut off for NBG i.e.,

upto Rs.50 crores

b) Other NBG branches approved by CMC of the Circle may handle proposals

upto Rs.10 crores

c) Select MCG Branches identified by CGM(MCG) at Corporate Centre

d) All of the above

2. Threshold limits prescribed by CRMD for new connections under the scheme is -

a) SB-7 or better b) SB-8 or better

c) SB-9 or better d) SB-10 or better

3. Threshold limits prescribed by CRMD for enhancements under the scheme is -

a) SB-7 or better b) SB-8 or better

c) SB-9 or better d) SB-10 or better

4. Threshold Limit of ECR for taking exposure under the scheme is –

a) A b) BBB+

c) BBB- d) ECR of the borrower is not mandatory.

5. Eligible loan amount (For Loan Amount upto Rs. 50.00 crores) may be determined

considering the residual lease period including the period covered under one renewal as per

Registered Lease Deed or loan tenor, whichever is less, in any case, not exceeding _______

years.

a) 7 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

6. Minimum quantum of Loan that can be sanctioned by NBG Branches under the Scheme is

-

a) Rs. 5 lakhs b) Rs. 10 lakhs c) Rs. 20 lakhs d) Rs. 50 lakhs


7. Maximum quantum of Loan that can be sanctioned by NBG Branches under the Scheme is

-

a) Rs. 5 crores b) Rs. 10 crores c) Rs. 20 crores d) Rs. 50 crores

8. Minimum quantum of Loan that can be sanctioned by MCG Branches under the Scheme is

-

a) Rs. 5 crores b) Rs. 10 crores c) Rs. 20 crores d) Rs. 50 crores

9. Maximum quantum of Loan that can be sanctioned by MCG Branches under the Scheme

is -

a) Rs.75 crores b) Rs.100 crores c) Rs.250 crores d) Rs.500 crores

10. CAG branches only are permitted to handle proposals above Rs. _______crores and

upto Rs._______crores

a) 250, 750 b) 250, 1000 c) 500, 750 d) 500, 1000

11. In case of Malls, the maximum quantum of loan would be pegged at Rs. _______ crores.

No relaxation is to be permitted.

a) 100 b) 200 c) 250 d) 500

12. Tenor of the Loan for loan amount upto Rs. 50 crore is Maximum _______ years or

residual lease period considered for assessment of the loan, whichever is less. The residual

lease period should not be less than _______ years.

a) 7, 1 b) 8,1 c) 8, 2 d) 10, 2

13. Minimum DSCR (Project DSCR) for Loan Amount upto Rs. 50 crores is to be -

a) 1.10 b) 1.20 c) 1.25 d) 1.50

14. Minimum DSCR (Project DSCR) for Loan Amount above Rs. 50 crores is to be -

a) 1.10 b) 1.20 c) 1.25 d) 1.50


15. Nature of the facility which can be sanctioned under the scheme is –

a) Cash Credit b) Current A/C-OD

c) Term Loan d) Both (a) and (c)

16. Pre-payment penalty @ ______% is to be recovered.

a) 0.50% b) 1.00% c) 1.50% d) 2.00%

17. Inspection is to be conducted at ___________interval.


18. In case EMI falls into arrears for _______ month(s), Inspection is to be done on monthly

basis till the account is regularised.

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

19. Account is to be reviewed at ___________interval.

a) Half Yearly b) Annually

c) Bi-annually d) Review not required

20. Valuation Report of the property to be obtained every _________ till the closure of the

Loan.

a) Year b) Two years c) Three years d) Six

21. Loan to be recalled if the account remains irregular for ____ consecutive months.

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Six

22. In case of reduction in Lease Rentals by ______ % or more, viability to be studied and

corrective measures to be taken.

a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25


23. The realizable value of property to be mortgaged should be at least _______% of the loan

amount.

a) 125 b) 143 c) 150 d) 200

KEY – LEASE RENTAL DISCOUNTING (LRD) SCHEME

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

d b D D c b D d

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

d d B D b a C B

17 18 19 20 21 22 23

b a B c c a B


OPEN TERM LOAN

1. Target group eligible for Open Term Loan is -

a) All units under manufacturing sector and;

b) Under Service Sector: Healthcare Industry (Hospitals, Doctors, Pathological Labs

and Nursing Home), Hospitality Industry (Hotels, Restaurants, etc)

c) Transport operators with minimum 25 vehicles

d) All of the above

2. The product will be extended to the customers having CRA rating of ______ and better or

ECR of _______ and above.

a) SB-5, BBB b) SB-6, BBB c) SB-7, BB d) SB-8, BB

3. In respect of customers banking with us for more than 5 years and having satisfactory

track record i.e. the account has not slipped to IRAC 2 in the previous 12 months will also be

eligible for finance under Open Term Loan subject to CRA rating of _______ and above or

ECR of BB & above

a) SB-5, A b) SB-6, BBB c) SB-7, BBB d) SB-8, BB

4. For the purpose of creation of tangible assets, _______% of total limit sanctioned with a

maximum of Rs. ______ crores can be sanctioned as Open Term Loan.

a) 20, 2.00 b) 20, 5.00 c) 25, 2.00 d) 25, 5.00

5. For the purpose of creation of intangible assets, ______% of total limit sanctioned with a

maximum of Rs. ______ crores can be sanctioned as Open Term Loan.

a) 20, 2.00 b) 20, 5.00 c) 25, 2.00 d) 25, 5.00

6. Margin @______% to be obtained under the scheme.

a) 10 b) 20 c) 25 d) 33.33


7. Repayment period generally not to exceed ________ years. Sanctioning authority may

selectively consider repayment period upto ___________ years where considered necessary

or as permitted under Loan Policy.

a) 3, 5 b) 5, 7 c) 7, 8 d) 7, 10

8. Currency of sanction is _______months from the date of sanction.

a) 3 b) 6 c) 12 d) 24

9. Branches authorized for Open Term Loan are –

a) SME intensive branches equipped with RM-ME/RM-SE

b) Branches headed by officers in scale-IV and above

c) All Branches

d) (a) and/ or (b)

10. __________disbursals are permitted under Open Term Loan Scheme

a) 1 b) 6 c) 12 d) Multiple

11. Report for disbursement, for each account, should be put at __________interval.


c) As and when amount is disbursed d) No need to send any report

KEY – OPEN TERM LOAN

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

d b D b a C B c

9 10 11

d d B


GENERAL CREDIT CARD

1. Target Group of General Credit Card Scheme is

a) Individual Entrepreneurs covered under Priority Sector guidelines

b) Individual Entrepreneurs not covered under Priority Sector guidelines

c) Non-Individual Entrepreneurs covered under Priority Sector guidelines

d) Non-Individual Entrepreneurs not covered under Priority Sector guidelines

2. As per SBI's guidelines, what is the maximum quantum of advance that can be sanctioned

under General Credit Card Scheme?


c) Rs. 15.00 lakhs d) Rs. 20.00 lakhs

3. Which type of credit facility can be provided under General Credit Card Scheme ?


c) Term Loan d) Both (b) and (c) above

4. Term Loan portion under General Credit Card Scheme will be repaid in a maximum of

monthly installments

a) 36 b) 60 c) 84 d) 96

5. In case a SSI unit intends to avail credit facility under General Credit Card Scheme, which

type of collateral security the bank will take?

a) EM of Property b) RM of Property

c)Third Party Guarantee d) To be covered under CGTMSE

6. The limit sanctioned under General Credit Card Scheme is valid for ______years,

subject to annual review.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5

7. Limit under General Credit Card Scheme for a SSI/ Trading Unit will be

assessed at ________% of their projected annual turnover


a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30

8. Margin stipulated under General Credit Card Scheme is -

a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 25%

9. Limit under General Credit Card Scheme to Professional and Self employed persons will

be assessed at _______% of gross annual income as shown in their income tax return

a) 25 b) 50 c) 75 d) 100

10. Processing Fee @ ___________for Limits sanctioned under General Credit Card

Scheme (uptoRs. 5.00 lakhs) will be recovered

a) Rs 500 flat b) 0.30% of Loan Amount

c) Nil d) None of these

KEY – GENERAL CREDIT CARD SCHEME

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

A a D b d C B c

9 10

B c


ARTHIA PLUS SCHEME

1. Commission Agents (Arthias) can be financed under Arthias Plus Scheme –

a) having receivables from farmers only

b) enjoying good reputation and holding a valid license for last 3 years

c) functioning in rural and semi urban markets/ mandis

d) All of the above

2. Borrowers will be financed against ____________under Arthia Plus Scheme

a) Stocks b) Receivables

c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above

3. Which type of Credit Facility can be granted under Arthia Plus Scheme ?

a) Cash Credit(Hyp of Book Debts) b) Term Loan

c) Cash Credit (Hyp. Of Stocks) d) None of the above

4. What is the Maximum Amount that can be financed under Arthia Plus Scheme ?


c) Rs. 50.00 lakhs d) Rs. 1.00 crore

5. Margin required under Arthia Plus is ___________%.

a) 20 b) 25 c) 40 d) 50

6. Collateral Security (Equitable Mortgage of Residential / Commercial Property) for Loan

Amount upto Rs. 25.00 lakhs under Arthia Plus Scheme will be ________ times of the Loan

Amount

a) 1.00 b) 1.25 c) 1.50 d) 2.00

7. Collateral Security (Equitable Mortgage of Residential / Commercial Property) for Loan

Amount above Rs. 25.00 lakhs under Arthia Plus Scheme will be ________ times of the Loan

Amount

a) 1.00 b) 1.25 c) 1.50 d) 2.00


8. The statement of eligible receivables, duly verified from Borrower’s Books of Accounts or

Audited Financial Statement should be obtained at _________intervals


9. The repayment of Credit Facility sanctioned under Arthia Plus Scheme, will be within

______ Months

a) 3 b) 6 c) 12 d) 24

10. If the applicant is a Borrower of other Banks, he

a) Can not avail Credit Facility under Arthia Plus Scheme

b) Should Close the Accounts before sanction of the Loan

c) Should Close the Accounts before disbursement of the Loan

d) Can continue his accounts with other Banks also.

KEY - ARTHIA PLUS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

D B A C C D c c

9 10

B C


SME CREDIT PLUS

1. To be eligible for finance under SME Credit Plus the borrowers' account should

be classified as standard asset as on 31st march of past consecutive________ years.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5

2. SME Credit Plus can be granted to SSI Borrowers for –

a) Meeting Bulk Orders b) Repairs to Machinery

c) Tax Payments d) All of the above

3. Maximum Loan under SME Credit Plus can be granted to the tune of _______% of

aggregate working capital limit or Rs. _________lakhs, whichever is lower.

a) 20, 25 b) 20, 20 c) 25, 25 d) 25, 30

4. Which type of facility can be granted under SME Credit Plus Scheme ?

a) Clean Cash Credit b) Cash Credit

c) Term Loan d) All of the above

5. Under SME Credit Plus there should be a gap of ______days between complete

Repayment and fresh disbursal.

a) 10 b) 15 c) 30 d) Nil, No gap

6. What will be the Primary Security in case of Credit Facilities under SME Credit Plus

Scheme

a) Hypothecation of Stocks b) Hypothecation of Book Debts

c) Both (a) and (b) d) Nil

7. Drawings permitted under SME Credit Plus Scheme should be repaid within

_______months

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6


8. Under SME Credit Plus Scheme, the Limit can be utilized ____times in a year.

a) 1 b) 6 c) 12 d) Unlimited

KEY – SME CREDIT PLUS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

B d a a b D b c


STANDBY LINE OF CREDIT (SLC) FOR WORKING CAPITAL REQUIREMENT

1. What is the target group for Standby Line of Credit (Working Capital) Scheme?

a) CAG Units b) MCG Units

c) SME Units d) All of the above

2. To become eligible for SLC (WC), th unit should have a CRA Rating of _______or better.

a) SB-6 b) SB-8 c) SB-9 d) SB-10

3. External Credit Rating (ECR) is mandatory for Total Exposure of Rs. _____crores and

above

a) 1 b) 5 c) 10 d) 20

4. To become eligible for SLC (WC), the unit should have ECR, wherever applicable, above

_________.

a) BB- b) BBB- c) C d) D

5. Quantum of finance that can be granted under SLC (WC) is ________% of the Working

Capital facilities (Fund Based and Non-Fund Based) or Rs. _______Crores, whichever is

lower.

a) 15, 20 b) 20, 15 c) 15, 15 d) 20, 20

6. While calculating Quantum of finance of SLC (WC) for Consortium Advance –

a) Only our share of credit limits is to be reckoned for the purpose

b) Entire exposure is to be reckoned for the purpose

c) SLC(WC) can not be sanctioned to the borrowers, who have been

sanctioned Limits under Consortium Arrangement

d) None of these

7. Which of the following statement is (are) incorrect in respect of SLC (WC) :

a) Where the unit enjoys separate peak and non-peak Limits, SLC should be arrived

separately, as a percentage of peak and non-peak limits.

b) SLC limits, being contingent in nature, will be outside the consortium arrangement,

if any.

c) Additional interest of 2% over the regular working capital facilities will be applicable

on fund-based credit facility under SLC.

d) Being a general dispensation extended to all eligible units, no separate assessment

/special justification is required for SLC.


8. Additional interest of ________% over the regular working capital facilities will be

applicable on Fund Based Credit facility under SLC.

a) 0.50 b) 1.00 c) 2.00 d) Nil

9. Who has the discretion to reduce/ waive the additional interest component on business

consideration ?

a) Branch Head b) Controller of the Branch

c) Sanctioning Authority d) None of these

10. Who is authorised to approve the release of SLC ?

a) Branch Head b) Controller of the Branch

c) Sanctioning Authority d) None of these

11. Which type of facilities can be granted under SLC (WC) ?

a) Stock Limit b) Bills / Receivable limit

c) NFB Limits (LC/ BG) d) All of the above

12. SLC (WC) can be given for a Maximum period of _____months extendable up to another

__________months at any one instance.

a) 3, 3 b) 3, 6 c) 6, 3 d) 6, 6

13. Under SLC(WC), the limit can be made available__________ times during a calendar

year

a) 6 b) 9 c) 12

d) No restriction on number of availments during a calendar year

KEY – SLC (WC)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

d d c d a A c b

9 10 11 12 13

b a d a d


COTTON GINNING PLUS SCHEME

1. Profit making existing units with CRA rating of and above as per normal Credit Risk

Assessment (CRA new) can be covered under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme

a) SB-5 b) SB-7 c) SB-9 d) SB-10

2. Credit facilities under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme can be provided for :

a) Acquisition of Machinery/ Building b) Modernisation / Expansion

c) Working Capital Needs d) All of the above

3. Which type of credit facilities can be sanctioned under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme?

a) Working Capital / Term Loan b) LC/ BG

c) SME Credit Plus d) All of the above

4. How much advance can be granted under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme?

a) Rs. 1.00 crore b) Rs. 5.00 crores

c) Rs. 10.00 crores d) No upper limit

5. A moratorium of _____months can be granted in case a borrower is sanctioned Term Loan

under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme

a) 6 b) 9 c) 12 d) 18

6. Term Loan sanctioned under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme will be repaid in _____ years

excluding the Moratorium period.

a) 5 to 7 b) 5 to 10 c) 7 to 9 d) 9 to 12

7. Under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme for Loans upto Rs. 50 lakhs, value of collateral

security should not be less than

a) 50% b) 75% c) 100%

d) to be mandatorily covered under CGTMSE


8. For loans of Rs. _______lakhs to Rs. _______lakhs to be covered under CGTMSE only if

the guarantee fee is borne by the borrower.

a) 50, 75 b) 75, 100

c) 50, 100 d) None of the above

9. For financing new units under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme with CRA rating of SB-7 and

above, minimum Collateral Coverage of ________% is required

a) 50 b) 75 c) 100 d) 125

10. For financing new units under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme with CRA rating of SB-8 and

SB-9, minimum Collateral Coverage of ________% is required

a) 50 b) 75 c) 100 d) 125

11. For enhancement to the existing units under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme with CRA rating

of SB 7 & above, minimum Collateral Coverage of ______% is required

a) 50 b) 75 c) 100 d) 125

12. For enhancement to the existing units under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme with CRA

rating of SB 8 and SB 9, minimum Collateral Coverage of ______% is required

a) 50 b) 75 c) 100 d) 125

13. Minimum Collateral Coverage of % is required for renewal of limits at existing /reduced

level under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme with CRA rating of SB 9 & above.

a) 50 b) 75 c) 100 d) 125

14. Under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme, margin for Term Loan is –

a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 30%

15. Under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme, margin for Working Capital Limit (Stocks) is-

a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 30%


16. Under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme, margin for Working Capital (Book Debts) is

a) 20% b) 25% c) 30% d) 40%

17. Maximum cover period of ______ days is permissible for Cash credit sub

Limits against book debts under Cotton Ginning Plus Scheme

a) 30 b) 45 c) 60 d) 90

KEY – COTTON GINNING PLUS SCHEME

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

c d d D c a d c

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

b C b C b c c d

17

C


DAL MILL PLUS

1. Units having CRA rating of _____can be granted loan under Dal Mill Plus Scheme

a) SB-4 and above b) SB-6 and above

c) SB-8 and above d) SB-9 and above

2. Credit facility under Dal Mill Plus Scheme can be granted for the purpose of :

a) Acquisition of Machinery/ Building b) Modernisation/ Expansion

c) Working Capital Needs d) All of the above

3. Under Dal Mill Plus Scheme, how much loan can be granted?

a) Rs. 1.00 crore b) Rs. 5.00 crore c) Rs. 10.00 crore d) No upper limit

4. Which type of credit facility can be granted under Dal Mill Plus Scheme?

a) Term Loan & Working Capital b) L/C & BG

c) SME Credit Plus d) All of the above

5. For assessment of working capital limits up to Rs. 5.00 crores under Dal Mill Plus Scheme,

___________method would be applicable

a) Operating cycle b) Nayak committee

c) Projected Balance sheet d) Cash Budget

6. Cover period of _______days is permissible for Cash credit sub limits against book debts

under Dal Mill Plus Scheme

a) 30 b) 45 c) 60 d) 90

7. Under Dal Mill Plus Scheme, margin for Term Loan is-

a) 15-25% b) 20-30% c) 25-35% d) 30-40%

8. Under Dal Mill Plus Scheme margin for Working Capital (Stocks) is –

a) 15-20% b) 20-25% c) 25-30% d) 30-35%


9. Under Dal Mill Plus Scheme margin for Working Capital (Book Debts) is –

a) 20-25% b) 25-40% c) 30-40% d) 40-50%

10. A moratorium of ______months can be granted in case a borrower is sanctioned Term

Loan under Dal Mill Plus Scheme?

a) 6 b) 9 c) 12 d) 18

11. Term Loan sanctioned under Dal Mill Plus Scheme will be repaid in years excluding the

moratorium period

a) 5 to 7 b) 5 to 10 c) 7 to 9 d) 9 to 12

12. Under Dal Mill Plus Scheme for loans up to Rs. 50 lakhs, value of collateral security

should not be less than ____________.

a) 50% b) 75% c) 100%

d) to be mandatorily covered under CGTMSE

13. Under Dal Mill Plus Scheme, for loans of Rs. ______lakhs to Rs. ______lakhs to be

covered under CGTMSE, only if the guarantee fee is borne by the borrower

a) 50, 75 b) 75, 100 c) 50, 100 d) None of these

14. Under Dal Mill Plus Scheme, for Loans without CGTMSE cover, Equitable mortgage of

property/tangible security valued not less than ________% of the loan amount is required.

a) 50 b) 75 c) 100 d) 125

KEY - DAL MILL PLUS SCHEME

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

d D d d b C a A

9 10 11 12 13 14

b C A d c B


CORPORATE LOAN

1. Corporate Loan can be sanctioned to the borrowers with CRA Rating of ________

or better, if no external credit rating is available

a) SB-5 b) SB-6 c)SB-7 d) SB-8

2. Corporate Loan can be sanctioned to the borrowers with CRA of ________to __________,

if having ECR of Investment Grade ( i.e. BBB- & better)

a) SB-6, SB-10 b) SB-7, SB-10 c)SB-8, SB-10 d) SB-9, SB-10

3. Corporate Loan can be sanctioned to Maharatna and Navaratna PSUs with CRA Rating of

___________or better

a) SB-3 b) SB-5 c)SB-6

d) irrespective of credit rating

4. Under Corporate Loan Scheme, External Credit Raing (ECR) is mandatory for exposures

of Rs. __________crores and above

a) 5 b) 10 c) 20

d) Mandatory, irrespective of amount

5. Can request from Non-customers also be considered for Corpoarte Loan ?

a) Request from Non-customers can not be considered

b) Request from Non-customers can be considered on a selective basis

subject to compliance with take over norms

c) Request from Non-customers can be considered, even if the customer is

not complying with take over norms

d) None of these

6. Which of the following purposes can be covered for Corporate Loan ?

a) Shoring up of NWC

b) Ongoing capex and repayment of high cost debt

c) R & D Expenditure and Implemention of VRS

d) All of the above


7. Which type of credit facility will be provided under Corporate loan?

a) Clean Term Loan b) Clean Cash Credit

c) Term Loan d) Cash Credit

8. A minimum quantum of loan that can be sanctioned as Corporate Loan is ______lakhs

a) 25 b) 50 c) 75 d) 100

9. A Non-Corporate borrowers of C&I (Mfg) & SSI segment can be granted a maximum of Rs.

_________crores as Corporate Loan

a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 25

10. Cap for Corporate borrowers under Corporate Loan Scheme is _______crores

a) 100 b) 500 c) No upper cap

d) Cap for Corporate borrowers as per Substantial Exposure norms under

Loan Policy

11. For Corporate Loan, at least ________% of the equity infusion should come from

borrower's own resources

a) 25 b) 33 c) 50 d) 60

12. Maximum repayment period will be ________ years or the useful life of fixed assets

under cover, whichever is lesser

a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 10

13. Moratorium period permissible under Corporate Loan is _______months.

a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 24

14. Desired and Acceptable Level of FACR under Corporate Loan Scheme is –

a) 1.20, 1.00 b) 1.25, 1.20 c) 1.33, 1.25 d) 1.50,1.33


15. The number of Corporate Loans, outstanding in the name of a borrower, at any point of

time, should not be more than .

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

16. The number of Corporate Loans for shoring up of NWC, outstanding in the name of a

borrower, at any point of time, should not be more than

.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

17. No fresh Corporate Loan shall be considered, if irregularities in the existing

Corporate Loan(s) remained on more than _________occasions in aggregate, in the

preceding 12 months.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

KEY - CORPORATE LOAN

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

a A d b b d c b

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

b D c d d c c a

17

c


SBI MEDICAL EQUIPMENT FINANCE SCHEME

1. Which one of the following is eligible to avail credit facilities under SBI Medical Equipment

Finance Scheme :

a) Nursing Homes

b) Diagnostics Centres and Pathology Laboratories

c) Eye Centres, ENT Centres, Small and medium size Speciality clients like skin

Clinics, Dental Clinics, Dialysis Centres, Endoscopy Centres, IVFCentres

d) All of the above

2. Which type of credit facility can be provided under SBI Medical Equipment Finance

Scheme?


c) Term Loan d) Clean Cash Credit

3. Minimum Quantum of finance under SBI Medical Equipment Finance Scheme is-

a) Rs. 10 lakhs b) Rs. 25 lakhs c) Rs. 50 lakhs d) Rs.1.00 Crore

4. Maximum Quantum of finance under SBI Medical Equipment Finance Scheme is-

a) Rs. 25 lakhs b) Rs. 5 Crores c) Rs. 10 Crores d) Rs. 20 Crores

5. Minimum CRA Rating of ________is required for being eligible for finance under SBI

Medical Equipment Finance Scheme.

a) SB-7 b) SB-8 c) SB-9 d) SB-10

6. Margin requirement under SBI Medical Equipment Finance Scheme is-

a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 33%

7. No tangible collateral security for loan amount upto Rs.______ crores. They are to be

covered under CGTMSE and _________% of CGTMSE fees will be borne by the borrower.

a) 1.00, 50 b) 1.00, 100 c) 2.00, 50 d) 2.00, 100


8. For loans above Rs. ________crores, minimum ______% tangible collateral and personal

guarantee of promoters.

a) 1.00, 25 b) 1.00, 50 c) 2.00, 25 d) 2.00, 50

9. CGM of the Circle will have the discretion to reduce collateral security coverage upto

_________% on a case to case basis on business considerations.

a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 50%

10. Term Loan sanctioned under SBI Medical Equipment Finance Scheme is repayable in

________years including Moratorium Period

a) 3 to 7 b) 5 to 7 c) 7 to 9 d) 10

11. Repayment of Term Loan under SBI Medical Equipment Finance Scheme is to commence

after ________months after first disbursement

a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12

12. Pre-payment Fee in case of Term Loan to an Individual Borrower is –

a) 0.50% b) 1.00% c) 2.00% d) Nil

13. Pre-payment Fee for Term Loan to other than Individual Borrower is ______, in case pre-

payment is through internal accrual/ own fund.

a) 0.50% b) 1.00% c) 2.00% d) Nil

14. Pre-payment Fee for Term Loan to other than Individual Borrower is_______, in case pre-

payment is not through internal accrual/ own fund.

a) 0.50% b) 1.00% c) 2.00% d) Nil

15. _________% concession on Card Rates in Processing Fee is available.

a) 25 b) 50 c) 100 d) Nil


KEY - SBI MEDICAL EQUIPMENT FINANCE SCHEME

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

d c a d c a C c

9 10 11 12 13 14 15

a a b d d c b


PRIME MINISTER’S EMPLOYMENT GENERATION PROGRAMME (PMEGP)

1. Nodal Agency for implementation of PMEGP is –

a) SIDBI b) KVIC c) NABARD d) Panchayat

2. The maximum cost of the project/unit admissible under manufacturing sector is-


3. The maximum cost of the project/unit admissible under business/ service sector is-


4. For setting up of project costing above Rs.10 lakhs in the manufacturing sector and above

Rs. 5 lakhs in the business /service sector, the beneficiaries should possess at least

_________ standard pass educational qualification.

a) 5th b) 8th c) 10th d) 12th

5. Assistance under the Scheme is available for _________projects sanctioned specifically

under the PMEGP.

a) New b) Existing c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these

6. Term Loan is repayable in ________years

a) 3 to 5 b) 3 to 7 c) 5 to 7 d) 7 to 8

7. Margin for General Category Beneficiary under PMEGP is______ of Project Cost.

a) 5% b) 10% c) 20% d) 25%

8. Margin for Beneficiary of Special Category including SC / ST / OBC/ Minorities/ Women,

Ex-servicemen, Physically handicapped, NER, Hill and Border areas etc. under PMEGP

is______ of Project Cost.

a) 5% b) 10% c) 20% d) 25%


9. Rate of Subsidy under PMEGP in Urban Area for Beneficiary of General Category is

_______% of Project Cost

a) 5% b) 15% c) 25% d) 35%

10. Rate of Subsidy under PMEGP in Rural Area for Beneficiary of General Category is

_______% of Project Cost

a) 5% b) 15% c) 25% d) 35%

11. Rate of Subsidy under PMEGP in Urban Area for Beneficiary of Special Category

including SC / ST/OBC/ Minorities/ Women, Ex-servicemen, Physically handicapped, NER,

Hill and Border areas etc. is _______% of Project Cost

a) 5% b) 15% c) 25% d) 35%

12. Rate of Subsidy under PMEGP in Rural Area for Beneficiary of Special Category including

SC / ST/OBC/ Minorities/ Women, Ex-servicemen, Physically handicapped, NER, Hill and

Border areas etc. is _______% of Project Cost

a) 5% b) 15% c) 25% d) 35%

13. In case the Bank’s advance goes “bad” before the _______ year(s) period, due to

reasons, beyond the control of the beneficiary, the Margin Money (subsidy) will be returned to

the KVIC alongwith the interest.

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Five

KEY-PRIME MINISTER’S EMPLOYMENT GENERATION PROGRAMME (PMEGP)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

B c b b a B b a

9 10 11 12 13

B c c d c


SIMPLIFIED CASH CREDIT FACILITY (SCCF)

1. Target group to avail finance under Simplified Cash Credit Facility (SCCF) is -

a) Existing Customers Engaged in Manufacturing Activities

b) Existing Customers Engaged in Trading Activities

c) Existing and New Customers Engaged in Manufacturing Activities

d) Existing and New Customers Engaged in Trading Activities

2. Nature of Facility that can be sanctioned under SCCF is –

a) Cash Credit b) Term Loan c) Both (a) and (b) d) NFB

3. Minimum & Maximum quantum of finance that can be sanctioned under SCCF is _______

crores and _______crores respectively.

a) 1, 10 b) 1, 20 c) 5, 20 d) 5, 50

4. To become eligible for finance under SCCF, CRA Rating of the unit should be _________or

better

a) SB-7 b) SB-8 c) SB-9 d) SB-10

5. To become eligible for finance under SCCF, ECR of the unit (wherever applicable) should

be _________or better

a) C b) BB c) BBB+ d) A

6. Collateral Security to the tune of _______% (Minimum) of Sanctioned Limit, in the form of

exclusive mortgage charge on Land and building/ cash equivalent likelien / charge on Fixed

Deposit, Mutual Fund, etc. owned by the borrower/promoters/ partners/directors is required.

a) 25 b) 30 c) 50 d) 75

7. Non submission of MSOD cum Stock & receivables statement on or before _____ of

succeeding month will attract penal interest _______% of total FBWC limits on each

instance/default.

a) 7, 0.25 b) 10, 0.50 c) 20, 0.25 d) 20, 1.00


8. Margin on RM/ SIP/ FG/ Receivables is to be taken at –

a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) None of these

9. Processing Charges @ Rs. ______ lakhs per crore or part thereof maximum Rs. ______

lakhs plus service tax & Swachh Bharat Cess to be recovered.

a) 0.50, 10 b) 1, 10 c) 0.50, 15 d) 1, 15

10. Concessions in Processing Fee to the tune of _______% is permitted for ______ or better

rated units

a) 25, SB-5 b) 50, SB-5 c) 25, SB-6 d) 50, SB-6

11. Facility Fee of Rs. _________ per crore or part thereof to be recovered annually

on 1st April every year plus service tax & Swachh Bharat Cess.

a) 10000 b) 15000 c) 20000 d) Nil

12. Inspection & Commitment charges @ Rs. ______ per crore are to be recovered

a) 10000 b) 15000 c) 20000 d) NA

13. Penal Interest @_______% per annum over and above the applicable rate, on the

irregular portion for the period of irregularity.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5

14. Periodicity of Inspection of the Unit is –

a) Monthly b) Quarterly c) Half-Yearly d) Annually

KEY - SIMPLIFIED CASH CREDIT FACILITY (SCCF)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

C a c c B B c c

9 10 11 12 13 14

D c b d d b


AGRICULTURE –I

SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURES (A) 1 The relaxed security/Margin norms are to be applied……………… in

Agricultural advances. a) Borrower wise

b) Facility wise c) Account wise d) None of the above

2 In case of Agricultural advances, cost of photograph is borne by ……….

a) Borrower b) Bank c) Borrower and bank on 50:50 d) No photograph to be obtained

3 In case of advances to weaker sections, inspection charges should be levied

@------------% of prescribed rates. a) 25 b) 50 c) 100 d) No charges

4 Who executes document AB1?

a) Borrower b) Guarantor c) Both a& b d) None of the above

5 Deed of Guarantee (AB2) can be revived by the Guarantor by executing …

a) AB4 b) AB5 c) AB7 d) None of the above

6 Document required for conversion of crop loan to Term loan a) AB 1

b) AB 7 c) AB 5 d) AB 6

7. Detailed opinion reports are to be complied only on such borrowers whose

aggregate Agricultural advances exceed ------------. a) Rs.25,000 b) Rs.50,000 c) Rs.1,00,000 d) None of the above

mailto:@------------%25

mailto:@------------%25


a) Rs. 10,000

b) Rs. 25,000

c) Rs. 50,000

d) Rs. 1,00,000

a) Rs. 10,000

b) Rs. 25,000

c) Rs. 50,000

d) Rs. 1,00,000

8. The document AB 3 is a) Hypothecation Agreement b) Guarantee Agreement c) Deed of Mortgage d) Arrangement Letter

9. In case of Agricultural Term loans (where assets are created), norms for

obtaining collateral security have been relaxed for limits up to ---------

10. In case of Agricultural Term loans (where assets are not created), norms for obtaining collateral security have been relaxed for limits up to ---------

11. AB1 (SIM) is applicable to farmers sanctioned with loan up to Rs a) Rs. 0.50 lac b) Rs. 1.00 lac c) Rs. 2.00 lac d) None of the above

12. The margin money requirement for agricultural term loan upto Rs. 1,00,000/- is

a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) No margin

13. Where movable assets are not created and the loan amount is over

Rs.1,00,000, the borrower has to furnish security of a) DP Note & Delivery letter, loan agreement b) Only DP Note c) Hypothecation of assets d) Mortgage of land

14. The document AB 6 is

a) Guarantee Agreement b) Letter to the borrower demanding repayment of crop loan c) Revival letter d). Application for rephasement of term loan


15. Revival letters AB4 & AB5 have to be affixed with Revenue stamp worth Rs…. a) Rs 0.25 b) Rs 1.00 c) No Stamp required d) Varies from State to State

16. Mixed Farming means a) Multiple cropping

b) Availing both crop loan & Gold loan c) Undertaking cultivation and allied activities d) None

17. The Demand Collection and Balance (DCB) register is prepared at the branches

at…………intervals. a) Monthly b) Quarterly c) Half -yearly d) Yearly

18. For the purpose of reporting in performance report, the advances to self help

groups (SHGs) should be categorized under a) SBF Sub-Segment b) SSI Sub-Segment c) AGR Segment d) According to activity of SHG

19. DCB register is to be maintained for a) ATL only

b) ACC only c) ATL and ACC d) None

20. The basic marketing variables are

a) Product and Place b) Price c) Promotion d) All of the above

21. DCB register is to be prepared as on what date every year?

a) 31st May b) 30th April c) 30th June d) 31st July

22. AB 5 is taken as a) Revival letter for AB2 from Guarantor b) Revival letter for AB1 from Guarantor c) Revival letter for arrangement letter from Borrower d) Revival letter for documents from Borrower


KEYS AGRICULTURE – I SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURES (A)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11

b b B A b b c c d d b

12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22

d d B D c d c c d c a



c) Half yearly d) At the time of harvest


c) Half yearly d) Annually

AGRICULTURE- II SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURES (B)

1. The inspection visits are to be made by the field staff for a) Pre-sanction survey b) Post-sanction

c) Recovery of loans d) All the above 2. After disbursement of the crop loan, inspection should be undertaken

a) Monthly b) Quarterly c) Half yearly d) No inspection to be undertaken till harvest time

3. In case of irregular crop loan, inspection should be undertaken

a) Monthly b) Quarterly c) Half yearly d) At the time of harvest

4. In case of regular ATL where moveable assets are created inspection should be

undertaken a) Monthly b) Quarterly c) Half yearly d) No inspection for regular ATL account

5. In case of irregular ATL where moveable assets are created inspection should be

undertaken

6. In case of regular ATL where immovable assets are created inspection after grounding of assets should be undertaken

7. In case of irregular ATL where immovable assets are created inspection should be undertaken


c) Half yearly d) Annually

8. The document can be revived by

a) Obtaining a Revival letter b) Part payment c) Acknowledgement Of debt d) All the above

9. RIDF stands for

a)Rural India Development Fund b)Rural Integrated Deposit Fund c)Rural Industrial Development Fund d)Rural Infrastructure Development Fund


10. As per Government directives, the share of weaker section in Bank’s Advances should be-------% of Priority sector advances.

a) 10% b) 25%

c) 50 % d) None of above

11. The mandatory percentage of agricultural advances to Adjusted Net Bank Credit is …

a) 15% b) 25%

c) 40% d) 18%

12. If targets under Agriculture financing are not achieved, shortfall is to be deposited with a) RBI b) Central Govt. c) Rural Infrastructure Development Fund of NABARD d) None of the above

13. In case of Agriculture Advance the general provision on standard asset is

a) 0.25% b) 0.40%

c) 1.00% d) 10.0%

14. The Service Area Approach was introduced w.e.f....................... a) April,1968 b) April,1980

c) April,1989 d) April,1991

15. As per the revised guidelines of RBI, the Service Area concept is

a) Strictly applicable for all advances b) Not applicable for P-segment advances c) Not applicable for lending except under Govt. sponsored schemes. d) None of the above

16. ‘Annewari' indicates..................... a) Rainfall b) Cropping pattern c) Extent to which the crops are damaged due to natural calamity d) none of the above

17. What are the relief measures to be extended by Banks to the farmers whose

crops are damaged /affected by natural calamities? a) Conversion of crop loan b) Rephasement of Agri. Term Loans c) Fresh Crop Loans after conversion of earlier crop loan outstanding d) All the above

18. The amounts of crop loans not collected due to natural calamity should be

converted in to term loan for a period up to.........years for farmers other than Small /Marginal Farmers.

a) 3 b) 5

c) 7 d) 9


19. The amounts of crop loans not collected due to natural calamity should be converted in to term loan for a period up to.........years for Small /Marginal Farmers. a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9

20. The rate of interest on the short term loans converted on account of natural

calamity should be............... a) Higher than the crop loan b) Lower than the crop loan c) the same as was charged on the crop loan d) No interest to be charged

21 A progressive farmer is eligible to get maximum production credit of ______% of scale of finance.

a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) None of the above

22 Out of 18% Banch Mark for lending to agriculture, the indirect Agri Advances can be a) 9% b) 25% c) 45% d) No stipulation

23 Usually under Agri segment the maximum amount eligible for takeover of advances

is a) 25 Lacs b) 50 Lacs c) 60 lacs d) No ceiling

24 Under SBI KA APNA GAON our bank has to adopt three villages per ____ for overall

development and economic upliftment a) Region b) Branch c) District d) Administrative office

25 Cost of interest subvention shared by a) Centre Govt b) Centre 50% State 50% c) Centre 50% State 25% Bank 25% d) Bank Only


KEYS AGRICULTURE- II SYSTEMS AND PROCEDURES (B)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

d d a c a d a d d b

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

d c a c c c d a b c

21 22 23 24 25

b c b a a


AGRICULTURE- III KISAN CREDIT CARD (KCC)-A

1. Short term credit limit is fixed for the first year depending upon

a) The crops cultivated as per proposed cropping pattern & scale of finance b) Post harvest/household/ consumption requirements c) Maintenance expenses of farm assets, crop insurance, Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS) and Asset insurance d) All of the above

2. Collateral security is required for KCC above

a) Rs.25,000 b) Rs.50,000

c) Rs.75,000 d) Rs.1,00,000

3. For KCC above Rs. 1,00,000 if there are genuine difficulties in creation of mortgage/ Charge over land what instructions need to be followed? a) Any other appropriate security can be obtained. b) Suitable third party guarantee can also be obtained c) Prior permission of controlling authority is required d) All the above

4. Margin stipulated for KCC of Rs. 1,00000/- is

a) 10% b) 15% c) 25% d) Nil

5. KCC limit is valid for

a) For ever b) 1 year c) 3 years d) 5 years

6. KCC holders up to the age of …..years are covered under Personal Accident Insurance Scheme.

a) 50 b) 65

c) 70 d) No age limit

7. Personal Accident Insurance Scheme for KCC holders covers risk up to Rs……in case of death due to accident or permanent total disability

a) Rs. 25,000/-. b) Rs. 50,000/- c ) Rs. 1,00,000/- d) None of the above

8. Under Personal Accident Insurance Scheme, the amount of premium is borne By……. a) KCC holder b) Bank c) Shared by Bank and borrower in the ratio of 2:1 d) None of the above


a) A Month b) A Quarter c) A Half- Year d) A Year

9. While granting limits under KCC, the scale of finance, is prepared by--------. a) District Level Technical Committee

b) District Consultative Committee c) Block level Consultative Committee d) None of above

10. While granting limits under KCC, the scale of finance, is approved by ------

a) District Technical Committee b) District Consultative Committee c) Block level Consultative Committee d) None of above

11. The progressive farmers can be financed up to a maximum of……..under KCC.

a) Equal to SOF advised by DLTC. b) Upto thrice above SOF. c) Upto twice of SOF advised by DLTC. d) Assessed on case to case basis

12. While fixing limit of the borrower under KCC, the branch may take into account

production credit requirements of the farmer for ………

13. The credit limit of borrower under KCC scheme is required to be reviewed… a) Every Year b) After Two Years

c) After Three Years d) Not reviewed

14. While assessing KCC limit, ……% of Cost of cultivation is added towards post harvest/household expense/consumption etc.

a) Nil b) 5 %

c) 10 % d) 20 %

15. While assessing KCC limit……% of Cost of cultivation is added towards farm maintenance etc.

a) Nil b) 5 %

c) 10 % d) 20 %

KEYS AGRICULTURE- IIIKISAN CREDIT CARD (KCC)-A

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

d d d d d c b c a b

11 12 13 14 15

c d a c d


a) 40 % b) 25 %

c) 15 % d) No margin

a) 5% b) 10%

c) 25% d) NIL

a) 5% to 10% b) NIL

c) 25% to 30% d) 15% to 25%

AGRICULTURE- IV KISAN CREDIT CARD (KCC)-B

1. Repayment of Crop loan/KCC should be ---------

a) Quarterly b) Half yearly c) Each withdrawal to be liquidated in 12 months. d) None of the above

2. Revised KCC scheme is in the nature of revolving account. Credit balance in the

account will be eligible for interest at. a) Saving Bank rate b) STDR Rate for 6 months c) STDR Rate for 12 months d) No interest to be paid on credit balances.

3. Processing charges for KCC limits up to Rs. 3.00 lacs are :

a) Rs. 250 per lac b) Rs. 300 per lac c) Rs. 500 per lac d) No charges

4. Cheque book can be provided to a)

A literate KCC borrower b) A literate KCC borrower with sanction limit of Rs 15,000 and above c) A literate KCC borrower with sanction limit of Rs 25,000 and above d) Any borrower availing KCC

5. ATM card can be provided to

a) All literate KCC account holders b) A literate KCC borrower with sanction limit of Rs 15,000 and above c) A literate KCC borrower with sanction limit of Rs 25,000 and above d) Any borrower availing KCC

6. While financing crop loan adopting scale of finance, following margins are

required

7. What is the margin on Crop loans up to Rs. 1,00,000/- where cost of cultivation is worked out by the Bank.

8. What is the margin on Crop loans above Rs. 1,00,000, where cost of cultivation is worked out by the Bank.


a) Rs. 10,000 b) Rs. 25,000

c) Rs. 50,000 d) Rs. 1,00,000

a) Rs. 10,000 b) Rs.25,000

c) Rs. 1,00,000 d) Rs.5,00,000

a) Rs. 50,000 b) Rs.1,00,000

c) Rs. 3,00,000 d) Rs.5,00,000

9. In case of crop loans/ agri. term loans norms for obtaining margins have been relaxed for limits up to

10. In case of crop loans, norms for obtaining collateral security have been relaxed for limits up to

11. The farmers with good track record of three years can be granted crop loan limit of Rs……………….without any collateral security a) Rs. 50,000 b) Rs.1,00,000

c) Rs. 2,00,000 d) Rs.5,00,000

12. For KCC loans sanctioned under tie-up, collateral security have been waived for limits up to

13. Rabi crop is sown/planted in the months of---------------- a) October/November b) Feb/March

c) June/July d) None of the above

14. Kharif Crop is sown/planted in the months of---------------- a) October/November b) Feb/March


15. Kharif crop is harvested in the months of---------------- a) October/November b) Feb/March


KEY AGRICULTURE- IVKISAN CREDIT CARD (KCC)-B

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

c a d c a d d d d c

11 12 13 14 15

c c a c a


AGRICULTURE- V KISAN CREDIT CARD (KCC)-C

1. Crops covered under the Pardhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana are

a) All Cereals and pulses b) All Fruits and vegetables c) Cereals, millets, pulses, oil seeds, sugar, cotton and potato d) Notified crops

2. The No. of implementing company for Pardhan

Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) a) 5 b) 7 c) 8 d) 10

3. The progressive farmer means one who

a) Uses advanced pre-harvest / post harvest technologies b) Is having irrigation facilities. c) Has crop productivity more than the average levels. d) All of the above.

4. Scales of finance for crops fixed by DLTC is

a) Net of margin b) Including margin c) Total cost of cultivation d) None of the above

5. Amount of annual premium to be paid to designated Insurance Co. under

Personal Accident Insurance Scheme is .. a) 1% of KCC limit per KCC holder b) 2% of KCC limit per KCC holder c) Rs.15/- per KCC holder d) None of the above

6. Margin stipulated for Rs. 2.00 lacs under KCC based on Scale of Finance is

a) Nil b) 10 – 15% c) 15 – 20 % d) 15 – 25 %

7. Minimum and maximum loan to be sanctioned under KCC a) 3000 and no limit

b) 5000 and no limit c) 5000 and Rs. 1.00 crore d) No ceiling

8. The following are eligible to get KCC. a) All farmers-individuals/Joint borrowers who are owner cultivators. b) Tenant farmers, Oral lessees and Share Croppers etc. c) SHGs or Joint Liability Groups of farmers including tenant farmers, share

croppers etc. d) All of the above.


9. For every successive years (2nd, 3rd, 4th,and 5th year), the limit will be

stepped up @......%. a) Nil b) 5 % c) 10 % d) 25 %

10. Investment credit requirement of small value in the nature of farm

implements/equipment's etc (like sprayer, plough etc.) and repayable within a period of one year will be included while fixing KCC limit. a) True b) False

11. Who are eligible to available short term production credit from Banks up to Rs.

3 lacs at rate of interest on 7 % p.a.: a) All Farmers – Individuals / Joint borrowers who are owner cultivators b) Tenant Farmers, Oral Lessees & Share Croppers c) SHGs or Joint Liability Groups of Farmers including tenant farmers, share

croppers etc. d) All the above

12. In order to get interest subvention, Banks have to ensure that all crop loans

should satisfy the following criteria: a) The borrower should be an agriculturist. b) The rate of interest charged should not exceed the rate stipulated by the GOI. c) The amount of loan is fixed according to the prescribed scale of finance for

agricultural loans and the loan is used for stated purpose. d) All the above

13. Banks have been advised by RBI to continue the interest subvention scheme

@...... for the year 2016-17 for short term production loans and for loans against negotiable warehouse receipts. a) 1.00% b) 1.50% c) 2.00% d) 2.50%

14. Interest subvention will be calculated on the crop loan amount from the date of its disbursement /drawal: a) Up to the date of actual repayment of the crop loan by the farmer. b) Up to the due date of the loan fixed by the bank for the repayment of the loan. c) Both a & b above, whichever is earlier, subject to a maximum period of one

year. d) None of these

15 Crop Loan can be granted for a) Fruits Crops b) Commercial Crops c) Flower and Nurseries d) All the above


16. Minimum Score required for clear sanction of Good Crop Loan Proposal

a) 91 b) 81 c) 71 d) 61

17 Can Crop Loan can be sanctioned between score of above 26 and up to 70

a) After credit enhancements b) Application to be referred to next higher authority c) Either A or B d) Cannot be sanctioned

18 Benefit of Digital KCC to Borrower

a) Intt concession Benefit b) Insurance Premium concession c) Free PAIS of Rs 2.00 lacs d) All of the above

19. What is the minimum and maximum loan amount in Digital KCC account

a) 3000 and no limit b) 10000 and no limit c) 1 l a c s and Rs. 1.00 crore d) 1.01 lacs and No ceiling

20. How much cash amount can be withdrawn from Digital KCC account a) 20% b) 30% c) 50% d) 100%

KEYS AGRICULTURE- V KISAN CREDIT CARD (KCC)-C

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

d d d a c a d d c a

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

d d c c d c c d d d


AGRICULTURE- VI ARTHIAS PLUS, PRODUCE MARKETING LOAN (PML)

1. What is the eligibility criteria for finance under Arthia Plus scheme? a) Commission agents enjoying good reputation and holding a valid license from the market yard/ board and are in the line of business for the past 3 years. b) Commission agents having receivables from farmers only and functioning in rural and semi urban markets/Mandis. c) Producer Companies dealing in procurement, grading, pooling, handling, marketing, selling of primary produce of members d) All the above

2. What is the type of advance Arthia Plus scheme?

a) CC Hypothecation stocks b) CC Hypothecation of book debts not older than 6 months c) Demand Loan d) Term loan

3. Loans under Arthia Plus scheme are treated as

a) Indirect agriculture finance b) Direct agriculture finance c) Small business finance d) Commercial advance

4. What is the procedure of obtaining statement of eligible book debts under Arthia

Plus?

a) Monthly intervals b) Yearly intervals c) Half yearly intervals–verified from borrower’s books of a/c or audited

financial statement. d) Not obtained

5. Margin stipulated for a loan under Arthia Plus is

a) 10% b) 15%

c) 25% d) 40%

6. Maximum repayment period that can be given under Arthia Plus is



7. Collateral security requirement for financing under Arthias Plus scheme upto

Rs. 25.00 lacs is

a) No security is required b) Agricultural Land c) Residential/ commercial property (non-agri) worth 1.5 times of the

advance. d) Either b or c

8. A loan of above Rs.10 lacs to Arthias (against receivables) financed by our

Urban & Metro branches is classified under segment.

a) Agriculture b) SIB c) C&I d) Any segment to suit branch convenience

9. Bank debts / receivables not older than months are eligible for finance under

"Arthia Plus"

a) 3 b) 6

c) 9 d) 12

10. Maximum Loan amount under ARTHIAS PLUS scheme is Rs.-----lacs. a) 15 b) 25

c) 30 d) 50

11. Financing under “Produce Marketing Loan” can be made to

a) All non-overdue ACC/KCC Borrower of our branches b) All crop loan Borrowers of other banks c) Non-borrower farmers d) All of the above

12. Under Produce Marketing Loan scheme, full insurance cover to be obtained,

if produce is stored in farmer’s house/farm and value of stock exceeds-------

a) Rs.10, 000/- b) Rs.15, 000/- c) Rs.25, 000/- d) No insurance required

13. In case of loan sanctioned against warehouse receipt under Produce Marketing Loan, the collateral security requirement up to Rs 50 lakhs is

a) 50% of loan amount b) 100% of loan amount c) 200% of loan amount d) No collateral security is required


14. Loan under Produce Marketing Loan scheme is sanctioned -------------.

a) To provide finance to farmers to purchase produces from the market. b) To help farmers to avoid distress selling of their produce. c) Both a & b d) None of the above

15. Margin in case of Produce Marketing Loan is -----%

a) 25 b) 30

c) 40 d) 50

16. PML is treated as… a) Direct finance to agriculture b) Indirect finance to agriculture c) Clean loan d) Group loan

17. The loan amount up to Rs……….. in Produce Marketing Loan scheme is covered

under Priority Sector. a) Rs. 5.00 lacs b) Rs. 10.00 lacs c) Rs. 25.00 lacs d) Rs. 50.00 lacs

18. What is maximum repayment period permissible for loan sanctioned under

Produce Marketing Loan scheme? a) 6 months b) 12 months c) 18 months d) None of the above

KEYS AGRICULTURE- VI ARTHIAS PLUS, PRODUCE MARKETING LOAN (PML)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

d b a c d a c c b d

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

a b d b a a c b


AGRICULTURE- VII GENERAL CREDIT CARD (GCC), KRISHAK UTHAAN YOJNA (KUY)

1. General Credit Card can be issued by a) Rural Branch b) Rural and Semi Urban Branch c) Rural, Semi Urban and Urban Branch d) Rural, Semi Urban ,Urban and Metro Branch

2. Which among the following is correct in respect of General Credit Card

a) To provide hassle-free credit to our customers b) Credit to our customers is based on the assessment of cash flow c) There is no collateral security, purpose or end-use of the credit d) All of the above

3. General Credit Card can be issued to

a) Existing customers with branch/ having satisfactorily conducted deposit accounts.

b) Customers with loan accounts which are classified as standard assets in our books.

c) Both a & b d) All existing customers.

4. Which among the following is not correct in respect of General Credit Card a) The Scheme will be in the nature of revolving credit

b) No plastic / electronic card will be issued under the scheme, but in place of a card, a special passbook will be issued to the borrower

c) Quantum of the limit will be based on the assessment of income and cash flow of the entire household

d) Loan limit is Rs.50,000 5. Which among the following is not correct in respect of General Credit Card

a) In case of persons cultivating land total credit facility under GCC for an individual shall not exceed 20% of the eligible production loan limit.

b) In case of other persons 20% of annual income of the applicant from known sources.

c) Maximum loan amount is Rs.25,000/-. d) Penal interest at 1% p.a. be charged to borrowers who default in

repayment of the loan.

6. General Credit Card is renewed after a) Three years with half yearly review b) Three years with annual review c) Five years with half yearly review d) Five years with annual review


7. Which among the following is not correct in respect of General Credit Card

a) In case the entire amount is not repaid, a minimum of 20 % of the amount due along with up to date interest debited should at least be

repaid b) Enhanced rate of interest @ 2% p.a. be charged to borrower who

default in repaying the loan. c) Fifty percent of credit outstanding under GCC up to Rs.25,000/- per

account will be treated as indirect agricultural financing. d) It is a secured advance.

8. How do limit is calculated under Krishak Uthaan Yojna?

a) As per scale of finance applicable to land area cultivation b) As per scale of finance applicable to land area cultivation inclusive of

consumption needs capped at 20% of production limit . c) As per scale of finance applicable to land area cultivation inclusive of

consumption needs capped at 20% of production limit plus another 20% of the production limit for purpose of immediate needs of borrowers after harvest of the crop

d) Flat Rs. 25000/- irrespective of land area 9. What are the margins under Krishak Uthaan Yojna?

a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) Nil

10. What is the security taken under Krishak Uthaan Yojna?

a) Hypothecation of crops b) Third party guarantee c) Mortgage of property d) Clean loan

11. Whether prudential norms are applicable to accounts under this scheme?

a) Yes, same as applicable to crop loans b) No, not applicable

12. Krishak Uthaan Yojna is aimed at providing short term production and consumption

credit to ------------

a) Oral tenants/ lessees and small farmers b) Tenant farmers c) Sharecroppers d) All the above


13. Under Krishak Uthaan Yojna what is the criteria for residential proof?

a) Should have a permanent residential proof & have been residing at the place for at least past 2 years

b) Should have a permanent residential proof & have been residing at the place for at least past 12 months

c) Should have a permanent residential proof & have been residing at the place for the past18 months

d) No such proof is needed

14. What is the upper limit for loan under Krishak Uthaan Yojna? a) Rs 25,000/- b) Rs 50,000/- c) Rs 1,00,000/- d) No such upper limit

15. What type of loan facility is given under Krishak Uthaan Yojna?

a) Demand loan b) Overdraft c) Term Loan d) Revolving Cash Credit

KEYS AGRICULTURE- VII GENERAL CREDIT CARD (GCC), KRISHAK UTHAAN

YOJNA (KUY)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

b d c d d b d c d d

11 12 13 14 15

a d a c d


AGRICULTURE- VIII

KISAN GOLD CARD (KGC), AGRI CLINIC & AGRI BUSINESS CENTRE (ACABC) 1. Under KGC the quantum of loan is

a) Maximum Rs.10 lacs b) Rs. 10 lacs minus outstanding in the existing ATL account c) Five times the Annual Farm income or 50 % of the value of the land to be

mortgaged as collateral security, whichever is less, with a maximum Rs. 10 lacs minus term loan outstanding.

d) All of the above

2. Consumption loan under KGC can be granted up to

a) 20% of the eligible KGC limit b) 30% of the eligible KGC limit c) 40% of the eligible KGC limit d) 50% of the eligible KGC limit

3. Following farmers are eligible to get Kisan Gold Card---------------

a) All Farmers irrespective of their previous track record. b) Only selected farmers with handsome land holding. c) Farmers irrespective of their land holdings, with good track record of

repayment in their loan accounts for the last two years d) None of the above

4. What is the minimum margin for consumption loan in KGC scheme?

a) 10%

b) 15%

c) 25%

d) 30%

5. The loan sanctioned under KGC scheme is required to be utilised by farmer for

a) Purchase of agricultural implements, land development, Bullocks & carts.

b) Repair of farm machinery. c) Any other domestic needs like expenditure on account of children's

education, marriage, medical expenses etc. d) All of the above

6. Under Kisan Gold Card Scheme, a minimum margin of ……………..% in the case of investment purpose and …….% in case of consumption purposes to be maintained.

a) 5% & 10% respectively b) 15% & 20% respectively c) 20% & 25% respectively d) 10% & 30% respectively


7. How many accounts can be opened by the borrower financed under KGC----- a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) Any number of accounts

8. The Kisan Gold Card is valid for a period of years.

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Five

9. The loans sanctioned under Kisan Gold Card are treated as --------accounts.

a) ACC b) ATL c) Term Loan d) None of the above

10. What is the usual norm of repayment under KGC--------

a) 3 to 4 years b) 4 to 5 years c) 6 to 7 years d) 8 to 9 years

11. Loan amount sanctioned under KGC can be disbursed in cash upto

a) 50% of loan amount b) Only consumption credit component c) No cash disbursal is allowed d) Full extent of credit limit

12. What are the activities that have been excluded from the list of activities financed

under KGC? a) Purchase of land b) Construction of farm house c) Purchase of tractor and accessories d) All the above

13. KGC limit can be sanctioned to a) Existing Borrowers maintaining standard loan accounts for last 2 years. b) Farmers who have closed their accounts without any default & who are not our

current customers c) Good borrowers of other banks provided they liquidate their outstanding with

other banks d) All the above

14. KGC limit can be disbursed for

a) Purchase of two wheelers b) Purchase of agricultural land c) Construction of House d) All of above

15. What is the repayment period for loans granted for setting up of Horticulture

Orchards? a) 5 years b) 7 years c) 9 years d) 10 years


16. Is there any mechanism for verification of end-use of funds given under KGC?

a) Not required where assets are created b) Proof required in case of farm machinery c) To ensure the end use of funds by verification of assets and collection of

invoices/cash receipts, within one month from the date of release of the funds

d) Not required in any case

17. Advance for Agri. Clinics & Agri. Business Center is classified under

a) Direct Agriculture Advance b) Indirect Agriculture Advance c) 50% as Direct Agriculture Advance d) C&I advance

18. In case of Agri. Clinics & Agri. Business Center, norms for obtaining collateral

security have been relaxed for limits up to ---------. a) Rs. 10,000 b) Rs.25,000 c) Rs. 50,000 d) Rs. 5,00,000

19. In case ofAgri. Clinics &Agri. Business Centers, norms for obtaining margins have been relaxed for limits up to ---------

a) Rs. 10,000 b) Rs.25,000 c) Rs. 50,000 d) Rs. 5,00,000

20. Maximum Quantum of loan financed for an individual under AC & ABC is

a) Rs.10 lacs b) Rs.15 lacs c) Rs.20 lacs d) Rs.25 lacs

21. Maximum quantum of loan that can be financed under Agri. Clinics &

Agri. Business Center to be taken up as a group activity is a) Rs.20 lacs b) Rs.30 lacs c) Rs.50 lacs d) Rs.100 lacs

22. Advance for Agri-clinics and Agri-business centre can be repaid within a) 3-5 years with a moratorium period of 2 years b) 5-10 years with a moratorium period of 2 years c) 7-12 years with a moratorium period of 2 years d) 10 -15 years with a moratorium period of 2 years

23. What is the objective of setting up of Agri-clinics and Agri-business centre?

a) To augment support and extension services for agriculture. b) To strengthen transfer of technology and extension of services c) To provide self employment opportunities to technically trained

persons. d) all the above


24. What is the quantum of NABARD refinance available under the scheme? a) 25% b) 50% c) 100% d) Not available

25. What is the quantum of subsidy available?

a) No subsidy b) 44% in respect of borrowers belonging to SC, ST, women and those

from North-Eastern and Hill States. c) Composite subsidy @ 36% of the project cost in respect of others. d) Both b& c

KEYS KISAN GOLD CARD (KGC), AGRI CLINIC & AGRI BUSINESS CENTRE (ACABC)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

c a c d d d c a b c

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

d d d a c c b d d c

21 22 23 24 25

d b d c d


AGRICULTURE- IX AGRI GOLD LOAN (AGL)

1. Why our Bank intends to grant loans under Agl. Gold Loans scheme? a) It is one of the ways of extending financial assistance to farmers for meeting their agricultural expenses b) It is most secure loan as per Bank’s experience c) NPA is almost nil / negligible d) All the above

2. What is the objective of granting Agri. Gold Loans?

a) To extend hassle free finance to farmers / agriculturists b) To increase their liquidity to meet crop production expenses, c) To increase their liquidity to meet investment expenses related to agriculture and / or allied agricultural activities. d) All the above

3. Which among the following is correct regarding sanction of Agri Gold loans

a) It is granted against the security of Gold ornaments/gold wares b) Minimum Loan amount is Rs. 5,000. c) Only farmers are eligible for Agri. Gold loan d) All the above

4. Agri. Gold loan is sanctioned as

a) Demand Loan b) Term loan c) Cash Credit d) Any of the above

5. Which among the following is correct regarding sanction of Agri Gold loans

a) Agri Gold loans’ can be sanctioned to illiterate borrowers. b) Gold loans can be sanctioned for investment purpose c) Ornaments pledged should be in joint custody. d) All of above

6. Ornaments are to be assessed by reputed appraiser (in all circles other than

Hyderabad, Chennai and Kerala circles),for its quality and value for loans above Rs. …………

a) Rs. 25,000 b) Rs. 50,000 c) Rs. 1,00,000 d) In all cases, irrespective of amount.

7. Maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned under Agri Gold Loan is

a) Rs 3.00 lacs b) Rs 10. 00 lacs c) Should not be more higher than the advance value of the Gold/ Silver

ornaments pledged or as per Scale of finance, whichever is less d) Five times of Annual Farm Income


8. Repayment period stipulated for Agri Gold Loan sanctioned for crop

production is a) 6 Months b) generally not to exceed 12 Months c) 18 Months d) 30 Months

9. Repayment period stipulated for Agri Gold Loan sanctioned for other than

production credit is a) 6 Months b) 12 Months c) 18 Months d) 36 Months

10. Method prescribed by Bank for testing the purity of gold while sanctioning

gold loan is

a) Touch Stone method b) Nitric Acid Test c) Specific Gravity Method d) Any one of the above Methods

11. Loans under Agricultural gold loans are reckoned as------

a) Direct finance to agriculture b) Indirect finance to agriculture c) As per the activity d) Unsecured loans

12. Value of gold is declared for carat purity

a) 18

b) 22

c) 24

d) 18/22/24

13. Who is responsible for ensuring genuineness and purity of gold ornaments ? a) Branch manager b) Cash officer/ Award Cash officer c) Accountant d) Any one

14. Who has to certify the gross and net weight of gold ornaments ? a) Cash officer/ Award Cash officer b) Branch Manager c) Accountant d) Any one


15. What is the minimum margin required under Agriculture Gold loan ? a) 20% b) 25% c) 30% d) No margins needed

16. Who is the custodian of Gold Ornaments pledged ?

a) Cash officer/ Award Cash officer b) Branch Manager c) Accountant d) Branch Manager/Accountant and Cash officer/Award Cash officer

17. On repayment of the loan, what steps needs to be taken?

a) Ornaments held as security to be returned b) DP Note duly discharged should be returned to the borrower(s) c) Acknowledgement for receipt of ornaments obtained in the Gold

Loan Ledger d) All the above

18. Whether part delivery of Ornaments is permitted?

a) No b) Yes, on written request of the borrowers against part payment c) Advance value of the ornaments still in bank’s possession fully

cover the outstanding in the account d) Both b and c

19. Whether advances under Agriculture Gold Loan be called up?

a) No b) Yes, when the value of the gold is less than the outstanding c) Yes, when the account becomes NPA d) Both b and c

20. Which statement is correct in respect of advance value of Gold.

a) It is fixed centrally by Agri. Business Unit, CC b) It is uploaded in intranet website at SBITIMES c) It is valid for one month d) All of the above

21. Who is elegible to avail loan under Agri Gold Scheme a) Land Owner b) Land less c) Lease Holder d) All the above

22. Gold Loan can be granted to joint borrower but delivery of Gold ornaments on closer of account can be made to E or S, F or S a) Yes b) No


23 The risk weightage on loans up to 1 lac against Gold and Silver ornaments

a) 1% b). 5% c). 25% d). 10%

24 Gold Loans under Agri Segment can be extended for the purpose of meeting the

expenses of a) Crop Production b) Investment Purpose c) Any Purpose d) (A) & (B) only

25 Gold loans under Agri segment can be extended against security of

a) Prime gold b) Gold ornaments c) Gold coins sold by banks d) (B) & (C) only

KEYS-AGRICULTURE- IX AGRI GOLD LOAN (AGL)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

d d d d d b c b d d

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

a d b a b d d d d d

21 22 23 24 25

D A B D D


a) 50

b) 100

c) 150

d) 200

AGRICULTURE- X MODIFIED NEW TRACTOR LOAN SCHEME (MODIFIED NTLS)

1. Who is eligible for finance under Modified New Tractor Loan Scheme?

a) Any individual or group of individuals i.e., JLGs/SHGs b) Institution or organization c) Having sufficient and regular income either from own farm activity or

custom hiring incomes from the tractor proposed to be purchased d) All the above

2. The borrower should possess a minimum land holding of…….. Acres.

a) 1

b) 2

c) 4

d) 5

3. The borrower has to bring in a minimum margin of ……………% a) 5

b) 10

c) 15

d) 20

4. The primary security is hypothecation of Tractor & Accessories. Collateral Security is the mortgage of landed property valued equivalent of …….% of loan value

5. Upfront fee is charged @ ……..% of loan amount. a) 0.25

b) 0.50

c) 1.00

d) 1.25

6 In modified new tractor loan scheme the repayment is fixed as per scoring model.

a) True b) False

7. For repayment of tractor loan, Post-dated cheques (PDCs) have to be obtained

from the borrower for the EMI. a) True b) False


a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 6

8. If there is a default of …….monthly installments in repayment of loan, the case has to be handed over to the recovery agents for seizure of the vehicle and for further course of action, with the permission of the controlling authority.

9. Controllers have to ensure that the possession and resale of the seized vehicle should be completed within ……………of initiation of such action.

a) 2 months b) 3 months c) 6 months d) No such time limit

10. A fee of ……..% of the loan amount is paid to Tractor Dealers as incentive on the

successful business sourced by them. a) 0.25 b) 0.50 c) 0.75 d) 1.00

11. A fee of …………..of the loan amount (maximum Rs.3000) is paid to Dealer Sales Executives (DSEs) as incentive on the successful business sourced by them

a) 0.25% b) 0.50% c) 0.75% d) 1.00%

12. Which statement is true regarding payment of incentive to Tractor Dealers and Dealer Sales Executives (DSEs)?

a) The fee should be paid by the branches at the time of the disbursement of the tractor loan or immediately in the next calendar month. b) The incentive is payable for the loan applications sourced by them at all

Centers. c) The fee should be paid by the branches after the lien is noted in favour of Bank in RC book of tractor. d) All the above

13. For prompt repayment, further concession of interest by way of incentive will be extended @ ……to the borrower.

a) 0.25% b) 0.50% c) 1.00% d) No such concession is paid.

14. Failure to get the vehicle registered within one month from the date of delivery

attracts penal interest of …………for the period of default for the borrower. a) 0.25 b) 0.50 c) 1.00 d) 2.00


15. Which statement is true in respect of new tractor loan scheme? a) Minimum DSCR should be 1.5: 1. BMs are permitted to waive this

stipulation, provided liquid securities are offered to the extent of 50% of the loan amount

b) Credit Score of 71 & above are considered ‘Good Loans’ for sanction. c) Proposals with Credit Score of 25 and below should not be considered for

sanction d) All the above

KEYS AGRICULTURE- X MODIFIED NEW TRACTOR LOAN SCHEME (NTLS)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

d b c b b a a c b b

11 12 13 14 15

a c c d d


AGRICULTURE- XI SELF HELF GROUP(SHG)-A 1. The concept of SHG originated from

a) Sri Lanka b) Pakistan c) Bangladesh d) Indonesia

2. The nodal agency for implementation of the concept of SHG in India is

a) RBI b) NABARD c) RRBs d) Central Govt.

3. Originator of the concept of SHG is

a) Prof. Mohammed Yunus b) Prof. Yunus Khan c) Prof. Mohammed d) Prof. Salman Khan

4. SHG can be financed

a) 6 months after opening the saving Bank account b) 3 months after formation of group c) 6 months after formation of group d) 12 months after formation of groups

5. In SHG finance, the Inter-se Agreement is executed by a) Bank

b) NGO c) President & Secretary of the SHG d) All the members of the SHG

6. VVV stands for

a) Village Vikas Vahini b) Volunteer Village Vahini c) Vikas Volunteer Vahini d) None of the above

7. ------is instrumental in high % of recovery in respect of advances to SHGs. a) NABARD

b) RBI c) Peer Pressure d) None of the above


8. SHGs and Credit linkage means-----------------

a) When bank staff forms SHGs. b) When SHG opens a SB account in the bank c) When SHGs are linked to the Bank for financing d) None of the above

9. Who is responsible for repayment of SHG loans?

a) The NGO who formed the group b) The leader of the group c) All the members jointly and severally d) None of the above

10. Who decides the rules and regulations for SHG?

a) The facilitator (who forms the group) b) The banker c) The leader of the group d) All the members of the group with their collective wisdom.

11. What is maximum Quantum of finance for financing to SHG?

a) Up to Rs. 50,000/- b) Up to 4 times of the corpus of the group Max. Rs. 50000/- c) The branches may consider higher quantum of loans beyond 4

times of Group’s corpus to SHGs availing repeat loans / renewals (up to Rs. 50000/- per SHG member)

d) None of the above 12. Corpus means_

a) Balance held in Saving Bank account of the SHG b) Total of balances held in cash, Bank accounts & loans to members etc. c) Requirements of all the members of the group. d) None of the above

13. Incentive provided to NGO for credit linking to SHG is

a) Rs.500/- b) Rs.750/- c) Rs.250/- d) No incentive is provided

14. Collateral Security upto……is exempted for financing SHG for any industrial

Activity. a) Rs.1.00 lacs b) Rs. 5.00 lacs c) Rs.10.00 lacs d) No collateral is obtained for finance to SHG


15. SB account and loan account to SHG should be opened in the name of --------

a) The leader of the group b) Office bearers of the group c) All the members of the group jointly d) Self Help Group only

KEYS- AGRICULTURE- XI SELF HELF GROUP (SHG)-A

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

c b a c d c c c c d

11 12 13 14 15

c b b b d


AGRICULTURE- XII SELF HELF GROUP (SHG)-B

1. Outsourcing of recovery in advances through SHG is for a). Govt. sponsored schemes— NPAs b). Govt. sponsored schemes-Both Standard and NPAs c). Bank Regular scheme-Only NPAs d). Both b&c

2. A SHG should not consist of more than ----persons a) 20 b) 10 c) 12 d) 15

3. Purpose of the loan to SHG can be a) Income generation b) Social needs like housing, education etc. c) Debt swapping d) All the above

4. Ideally what is the minimum and maximum no. of members (except in Hilly Area/Tribal

Area/Disabled/Minor Irrigation activity where it may be reduced to 5) in an SHG? a) 5-10 b) 10-20 c) 20 -25 d) None of the above

5. Selection of SHGs for outsourcing of recovery in advances is vested with a) Branch b) Region c) Module d) LHO

6. To be eligible for direct bank credit linkage, which of these conditions is not compulsory? a) Group should have been in existence for a period of 6 months b) Proper maintenance of accounts should be there c) The group should have undertaken savings and credit operations

through its own resources. d) Village Panchayat leaders should be included as office bearers of SHG.

7. Which of the following is not a criterion for NGO to be eligible for payment of incentive?

a) Should be registered under Societies act/trust act b) Minimum period of existence should be 3 years. c) It should not be blacklisted d) It should have extended finance to SHG

8. Margin in case of SHG credit card is (a) 20% (b) Nil (c) 10% (d) 5%


9. SHG credit card is valid for ------ years a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5

10. Minimum loan amount under SHG credit card is ----------.

a) Rs. 20,000/- b) Rs. 15,000/- c) Rs. 50,000/- d) None of these

11. SHPI stands for

a) Self help Group Promoting Institutions b) Self help Group participating individuals c) Safe health Promoting Institutions d) Safe health participating Institutions

12. SHG Bank credit linkage can take the form of

a) SHG’s financed directly by banks b) SHG’s financed directly with NGOs facilitation c) Indirect finance to SHGs through NGOs/MFIs d) All of the above

13. What documents are to be obtained for financing to SHG?

a) Application, Inter-se agreement, Articles of Agreement, Sponsorship Letter, Arrangement letter

b) AB-1, AB-3 or AB-2, Arrangement Letter c) Tripartite agreement between the Bank, SHG and NGO d) None of the above

14. The important benefits to the members of Group is

a) Social empowerment. b) Financial empowerment c) Both a & b d) None of the above

15. While sanctioning loan to SHG, purpose for which loan is required is decided

by…

a) Branch Manager b) DRDA c) BDO d) Group

KEYS- AGRICULTURE- XII SELF HELF GROUP (SHG)-B

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

d a d b a d d b a c

11 12 13 14 15

a a a c d


AGRICULTURE- XIII

JOINT LIABILITY GROUPS (JLGS), SCHEME FOR DEBT SWAPPING OF BORROWERS

1. Joint Liability Groups (JLGs) can be formed by

a) NGOs, Farmers’ Clubs, Farmers Associations. b) Panchayat Raj Institutions, Krishi Vikas Kendras, State Agriculture

Universities. c) Bank branches, PACs, Govt. Departments, Individuals, MFIs, MFOs etc. d) All the above

2. Which statement is true in respect of Joint Liability Group (JLG)?

a) It is an informal group comprising preferably of 4 to 10 individuals. b) The members should be residing in the same village / area and should

know and trust each other well enough to take up joint liability for group/ individual loans.

c) The members should be engaged in agricultural activity for a continuous period of not less than 1 year within the area of operations of the bank branch.

d) All the above 3. Maximum amount of loan to Joint Liability Groups is restricted to……………..per

individual a) Rs. 25,000 b) Rs. 50,000 c) Rs. 75,000 d) Rs.1,00,000

4. Which statement is true in respect of Joint Liability Group (JLG)?

a) No collaterals may be insisted upon against the loans to JLGs. b) The mutual guarantees offered by the JLG members are kept on

record. c) Margin as per the usual norms may be applied. d) All the above

5. The finance to JLG is expected to be a flexible credit product addressing the

credit requirements of its members including a) Crop production b) Consumption c) Marketing and other productive purposes d) All the above

6. Banks are eligible for grant assistance from NABARD for formation, nurturing and financing of JLGs over a period of 3 years @ ……….. per JLG.

a) Rs. 1000 b) Rs. 2000 c) Rs. 3000 d) Rs. 5000


7. Objective of the scheme for debt swapping of borrowers is :

a) To mitigate acute distress, farmers might be facing due to the heavy burden of debt from non-institutional lenders.

b) To extend finance to such farmers for paying off loans taken from non- institutional lenders (e.g. money lenders etc.)

c) To enable such farmers in distress, meet their crop production needs. d) All the above

8. Which statement is true in respect of scheme for debt swapping of borrowers?

a) The scheme will be for farmers owning land – existing or prospective in the operational area of the branch.

b) The quantum of loan (to be granted as a secured Agri Term Loan) shall be 100% if the debt is on account of cultivation or Agri. activity or Rs.1,00,000/- whichever is lower.

c) Simultaneously, the applicant shall be financed for Crop Production through Kisan Credit Card or / and Agriculture Term Loan as per the Bank’s guidelines to pursue any other productive activity in agriculture.

d) All the above

9. Term loan under scheme for debt swapping of borrowers will be repayable in yearly / half yearly installments in ..

a) One to three years. b) Two to four years. c) Three to five years. d) Five to seven years

10. Which statement is true in respect of scheme for debt swapping of borrowers?

a) The loan amount should be disbursed preferably to the money lenders/non-institutional lenders.

b) An appropriate receipt for the discharged debt from the money lender/non-institutional lender should be obtained and kept with the loan documents.

c) The loans are classified as Direct Agriculture advances. d) All the above

KEYS-AGRICULTURE- XIII JOINT LIABILITY GROUPS (JLGS), SCHEME FOR

DEBT SWAPPING OF BORROWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

d d b d d b d d c d


a) 1-2

b) 2-3. c) 3-4

d) 4-5.

AGRICULTURE- XIV LAND PURCHASE SCHEME,

FINANCING OF RURAL GODOWN, COLD STORAGE 1. Loan under Land Purchase scheme cannot be considered for which of the

following purposes a) Cost of land b) Registration charges and stamp duty. c) Purchase of farm equipment. d) Building of house.

2. Gestation period allowed under Land purchase scheme if land is to be developed is--

---------.years

3. Minimum margin required for financing under Land Purchase scheme is-------

a) 15% b) 25% c) 30% d) No margin is required

4. Maximum loan amount, which can be financed under Land Purchase scheme is--

--------- a) Rs. 2.00 lac b) Rs. 5.00 lac c) Rs.10.00 lac d) No limit

5. What is maximum repayment period permissible for loans sanctioned under

Land Purchase scheme a) 5-7 years after expiry of gestation period b) 7-8 years after expiry of gestation period c) 9-10 years after expiry of gestation period d) None of the above

6. Loans for purchase of agricultural land can be sanctioned to a)

Small and Marginal farmers b) Tenant cultivators, share croppers & landless agricultural labourers c) Both a & b d) None of the above

7. “Gramin Bhandaran Yojna” is financing for construction of a) Farm House b) Residential House in rural area c) Rural Godown d) None of the above


8. Normal Margin Requirement under ‘Gramin Bhandaran Yojana’ is

a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 25%

9. Margin requirement for projects in NE States & hilly areas and SC/ST

beneficiaries under Gramin Bhandaran Yojana is

a) 5% b) 10% c) 20% d) 25%

10. Subsidy under Gramin Bhandaran Yojana is provided by

a) RBI. b) NABARD.

c) Minister of rural development d) Ministry of Agriculture 11. What amount of subsidy is released as advance subsidy on sanction of loan by the

bank? a) 25% b) 22% c) 50% d) 33%

12. Maximum repayment period for loans under Gramin Bhandaran Yojana is


13. Maximum repayment period for financing Cold Storages is

a) 5years b) 8 years c) 11 years d) 15 years

14. The capital investment subsidy (back ended) is released for construction of cold storage by

a) APEDA b) Ministry of agriculture & co-operation c) National Horticulture Board d) NABARD

15. Loans to Private cold storages/ware houses designed to store agriculture

produce irrespective of location is treated as a) Direct Agricultural Advance b) Indirect Agricultural Advance c) Advance under C&I segment d) Advance under SSI segment

KEYS-AGRICULTURE- XIV LAND PURCHASE SCHEME, FINANCING OF RURAL GODOWN, COLD STORAGE

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

d a a b c c c d c b

11 12 13 14 15

c c b c b


AGRICULTURE- XV

GRAM NIWAS YOJNA AND SAHAYOG NIWAS YOJNA 1. “Gram Niwas” is a scheme for financing for construction / repair/renovation of

a) Farm Pump Shed. b) Residential House / work shed. c) Quarters for Farm Labourers. d) Hotels in rural / semi-urban areas.

2. Eligible category of Borrowers under “Gram Niwas” is

a) Individuals having satisfactory accounts with us b) Members of SHG having saving / loan account with us c) Both a & b d) None of these

3. Maximum loan for construction/purchase of new house that can be given to a

member under “Gram Niwas” is a) Rs. 50,000 b) Rs. 5 lac c) Rs. 2 lac d) Rs. 2.5 lac

4. Maximum loan under “Gram Niwas” for repair / renovation / extension of a

house and or work space is a) Rs. 0.75 lac b) Rs. 1 lac c) Rs. 2 lac d) Rs. 1.50 lac

5. Maximum loan under “Gram Niwas” for purchase of land is

a) Rs. 0.30 lacs b) Rs. 1 lac c) Rs. 2 lac d) Rs. 1.50 lacs

6. Margin requirement under “Gram Niwas” upto a loan of Rs. 50,000 is------- of

project cost a) Nil b) 5% c) 10% d) 20%

7. Margin requirement under “Gram Niwas” for a loan above Rs. 50,000 and upto 5 lacs is------- of project cost

a) Nil b) 5% c) 15% d) 20%


8. Margin requirement under “Gram Niwas” for a loan above Rs. 5 lacs is------- of project cost

a) Nil b) 5% c) 15% d) 20%

9. Gram Niwas scheme is applicable in

a) Semi urban and urban areas b) Semi-urban areas and rural areas c) Only rural areas d) All areas

10. Maximum repayment period for loan sanctioned under Gram Niwas is...years. a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) None of these

11. How is loan amount calculated in respect of applicants having average annual

income above Rs. 40000 and up to Rs. 2 lac ? a) Maximum permissible Installment to Income Ratio should be 25% b) Maximum permissible Installment to Income Ratio should be 45% c) Maximum permissible Installment to Income Ratio should be 55% d) Maximum permissible Installment to Income Ratio should be 60%

12. Primary security for loan under Sahyog Niwas is.

a) Land b) Group guarantee of SHG members c) Any third party guarantee d) None of these

13. Under Sahyog Niwas scheme, the loan amount is maximum ----times of

corpus fund a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20

14. “Sahayog Niwas” is housing loan scheme given to a) Individual members of SHGs. b) SHGs for onward lending to its members. c) NGOs for lending to SHGs. d) All the above.

15. Loans under “Sahayog Niwas” can be sanctioned for

a) Purchase of plot of land & constructing house. b) Construction of house and / or a workspace / shed. c) Repairs / Renovation / Extension of existing house or a workspace. d) All the above


16. Loans under “Sahayog Niwas” can be sanctioned to SHGs functioning in

a) Rural areas b) Semi-urban areas c) Urban areas d) Both a & b above

17. Maximum period of repayment under Sahyog Niwas is ------

a) 10. b) 15. c) 20. d) None of above.

18. Maximum amount that can be sanctioned under Sahyog Niwas is Rs. …….per

member of SHG. a) Rs. 1,00,000 b) Rs. 50,000/- c) Rs. 10,000/- d) No ceiling

19. SHGs which are in existence for more than years with good track record

are eligible for finance under Sahyog Niwas. a) 2 b) 4 c) 10 d) None of these

KEYS- AGRICULTURE- XV GRAM NIWAS YOJNA AND SAHAYOG NIWAS YOJNA

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

b c b c B c c d b c

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19

b b b b d d b b a


AGRICULTURE- XVI MISCELLANEOUS

1. Limitation period for the hypothecation agreement in case of Agricultural Term

Loans is 3 years a) From the date of execution of document. b) From the date of demand. c) From the date of acknowledgement of debt/liability or from the date of

default in the payment of any of the installments. d) None of these.

2. Validity period of equitable mortgage is years.

a) 3

b) 12

c) 13

d) 14

3. The limitation period of equitable mortgage commences from

a) The date of execution of document b) The date of creation of mortgage c) Due date of repayment d) When the Mortgage Debt falls due (i.e. when a default takes place

and the Bank makes a demand on the borrower. 4. In the case of revival of documents, the guarantor signs the revival letter but

borrower refuses to sign. The document is a) Valid in the court of law. b) Not valid in the court of law c) Valid only in DRTs d) Valid in District Courts

5. Post-dated cheques should be obtained for Agricultural Term Loans and

Government Sponsored Schemes loan sanctioned beyond Rs. ……..under ATLs. a) Rs. 1.00 lacs b) Rs. 2.00 lacs c) Rs. 5.00 lacs d) No PDC to be obtained in ATLs

6. Number of Post-dated cheques to be obtained in Agricultural Term Loans

a) Minimum 10 cheques b) Cheques covering the full repayment period. c) Atleast 20 cheques or cheques covering the full / remaining repayment

period, whichever is less. d) No PDC to be obtained in ATLs


7. The target for Agriculture advances under priority sector lending is 18 percent of ANBC or credit equivalent amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher. It is applicable to

a) Domestic Commercial Banks only b) Foreign banks only c) Foreign banks with less than 20 branches d) Domestic commercial banks / Foreign banks with 20 and above branches.

8. Indirect lending to agriculture in excess of …..% will not be reckoned for

computing achievement under 18 percent target for agriculture. a) 3.5 b) 4.0 c) 4.5 d) 5.0

9. In respect of all Term Loan accounts which are repaid regularly and are classified as

Standard assets, obtention of Revival Letters and Balance Confirmation Letters has been dispense with.

a) True b) False

10. What is Financial Inclusion? a) Mobilising deposits from rural areas b) Providing loan facilities to rural people c) Extending hassle free savings and loan facilities and other banking services

at an affordable cost, to the underprivileged and unbanked population d) Providing Micro Finance at concessional interest rates

KEYS-AGRICULTURE- XVI MISCELLANEOUS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

c b d b b c d c a c


AGRICULTURE- XVII. ‘Stree Shakti Tractor Loan’ (SSTL)& 'Tatkal Tractor Loan'(TTL)

1. Women should be borrower or co-borrower in the Stree Shakti Tractor loan

scheme. a) True b) False

2. The borrower should possess a minimum land holding of…….. Acres.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5

3. Minimum net Annual Income of the borrower along with co-borrower is

a)2.00 lac b)3.00 lac c)1.50 lac d)2.50 lac

4. Minimum margin in SSTL without collateral security is... & with collateral security is

… a) 10% & 20% b) 25% & 50%

c) 50% & 10% d) 25% & 15% 5. Maximum repayment period in SSTL without collateral security & with collateral

security a) 48 Months & 60 Months b) 36 Months & 48 Months c) 24 Months & 36 Months d) 60 Months & 72 Months

6. Upfront fee is charged @ ……..% of loan amount. a) 0.25 b) 0.50 c) 1.00 d) 1.25

7. For repayment of tractor loan, Post-dated cheques (PDCs)& standing Instructions have to be obtained from the borrower for the EMI.

a) True b) False

8. Minimum EMI / NMI shall not exceed

a) 50% b) 40%

c) 55% d) 60%

9 What are USP of SSTL a) Quicker sanction b) Low interest rate c) Monthly repayment d) All of the above

10 What is TAT for SSTL

a) 3 days b) 4 dyas c) 5 days d) 7 days


11 What is minimum score required in tatkal tractor loan ? a) 55 b) 60. c) 61 d) 65

12 What is Quantum of Loan in Tatkal Tractor loan ?

a. 85 % b. 90 % c. 95 % d. 100 %

13 What is annual income required in Tatkal Tractor Loan for availing loan

a. 1.00 Lacs b. 1.50 Lacs c. 2.00 Lacs d. Income not specific.

14 In Tatkal Tractor loan scheme repayment schedule will be

a. Monthly b. Quarterly c. Half yearly d. Any of the above

15 If margin is 50 % then ROI in TTL is ?

a. Base rate+ 1.25 %p.a. b. Base Rate + 1.50% p.a. c. Base Rate + 2.00 % p.a. d. Base Rate

16 What is TAT in TTL ?

a. 1 Day b. 2 Days c. 3 Days d. 5 Days

KEYS- AGRICULTURE- XVII. ‘Stree Shakti Tractor Loan’ (SSTL)& 'Tatkal Tractor Loan'(TTL

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

a b c c b d a d d a

11 12 13 14 15 16

c d d d a b


AGRICULTURE- XVIII SBI ASSET BACKED LOAN

1. SBI ASSET BACKED LOAN is also loan as a. Kisan Gold Card b. Premium Kisan Gold Card. c. Premium Kisan Credit Card d. None of the Above

2. Minimum Loan amount in SBI asset Backed Agri Loan is

a. 1.00 Lacs b. 2.00 Lacs c. 3.00 Lacs d. 5.00 Lacs

3. What is Margin is Asset Backed Loan ?

a. 5-10% b. 10-15 % c. 15-20 % d. 15-25 %

4. What is security taken in Asset Backed Loan ?

a. Immovable property b. SARFAESI complaint Immovable property c. Agricultural land d. Any of the above

5. Processing Charges in Asset Backed Loan is

a. .5 % of the loan Limits b. .75 % of the loan Limits c. 1.00 % of the loan limits d. 1.5 % of the loan limits

6. Type of Loan given in Asset Backed loan is a. Term Loan b. Drop l ine Overdraft facility c. Cash Credit d. Any of the above

7. Interest rate in Asset Backed loan is a. One year MCLR +2.00 % p a b. Two Year MCLR +2.50% p a c. Base rate +3.00 % p a d. Base rate

8. Maximum LTV Ratio based on loan limit will be as under

a) 50% b) 55% c) 60% d) 65%


9 How much ____% on immovable collateral security required as first charge

a) 150% b) 155% c) 170% d) 175%

KEYS- AGRICULTURE- XVIII SBI ASSET BACKED LOAN

1 2 3 4 5 6 7

b c d b c b a

8 9

d b


ASSIGNMENT ON NPAs - I 1.The Bank’s policy is to ensure containment of NPAs to the least is in conformity a) with RBI guidelines b) with international standards c) with IBA guidelines d) with GOI GUIDELINES

2. The primary guiding factor for recognising an NPA is a) the Income Recognition and Asset Classification (IRAC) norms. b) international standards c) IBA guidelines d) GOI Guidelines e) All Above

3. RBI has introduced a new asset category viz., Special Mention Accounts (SMAS), between a) substandard and loss categories of assets b) standard and substandard categories of assets c) substandard and doubtful categories of assets d) doubtful and loss category of assets e) None Of Above

4. As per Policy Guidelines 2016-17, Gross NPA ration should be below …. %. a) 4 % b) 4.5 % c) 5 % d) 6 %

5. Banks are required to classify NPAs on the undernoted basis a) The period for which the asset has remained doubtful b) The realisability of the dues c) Both A & B d) Only A

6. The credit facilities backed by guarantee of the Central Government though overdue may be treated as NPA only when….. a) The Government repudiates its guarantee when invoked b) This exemption from classification of Government guaranteed advances as NPA is not for the purpose of recognition of income c) Both A & B are correct d) Only A is correct

7. In case of Loss asset, which of the undernoted statement is correct a) A loss asset is one where loss has been identified by the Bank b) A loss asset is one where loss has been identified by internal or external auditors or the RBI inspection c) The amount has not been written off wholly d) All of the above

8. If the realisable value of the security, as assessed by the bank/ approved valuers/ RBI is less than per cent of the outstanding in the borrowal accounts, the asset should be straightaway classified as loss asset. a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25


9. An account where the regular/ ad hoc credit limits have not been reviewed/ renewed within days from the due date/ date of ad hoc sanction will be treated as NPA. a) 90 b) 180 c) 120 d) 240

10. The crop season for each crop, which means the period up to harvesting of the crops raised, would be as determined by the in each State. a) State Level Banker's Committee b) Lead Bank c) NABARD d) None of the above

11. Advances against term deposits, NSCs eligible for surrender, IVPs, KVPs and life policies need not be treated as NPAs, provided……. a) Interest is served within 90 days from due date b) Adequate margin is available in the accounts c) Security coverage is more than 75 % d) All the above

12. In cases of NPAs with balance of Rs. and above stock audit at annual intervals by external agencies appointed as per the guidelines approved by the Board would be mandatory. a) 1 Crore b) 5 Crore c) 2 Crore d) 10 Crore

13. For the purpose of guidelines on NPA classification of agricultural advances…. a) “Long duration” crops would be crops with crop season longer than one year b) Crops, which are not “long duration” crops, would be treated as “short duration” crops c) Both A & B are correct d) Only A is correct

14. In Standard Asset category, direct advances to agricultural and Small and Micro Enterprises (SMEs) sectors attract a provision of …. a) 0.25 % b) 0.40 % c) 0.75 % d) 1.00 %

15. Collaterals such as immovable properties charged in favour of the bank should be got valued once in years by appointed valuers. a) Three b) Five c) Two d) Every year at the time of review

16. The Committee on Financial System was headed by a) D R Mehta b) M Narsimham c) B Sivaraman d) O P Bhatt

17. Stock statements relied upon by the banks for determining drawing power should not be older than months. a) One b) Two c) Three d) Six

18. Asset classification of accounts under consortium should be based on……… a) The record of recovery of the entire consortium b) The record of recovery of the consortium leader c) The record of recovery of the individual member banks and other aspects having a bearing on the recoverability of the advances d) All the above


19. The policy on income recognition has to be….. a) Objective and based on the record of recovery b) The banks should not charge and take to income account interest on any NPA c) Both A & B d) Only B

20. In case of doubtful assets, the secured portion of advance under D2 category attracts % provision. a) 25 b) 40 c) 50 d) 100

21. An asset that has remained in the sub standard category for a period of 12 months would be called a) Sub Standard b) Doubtful c) Loss d) Standard

22. The ‘unsecured exposures’ which are identified as ‘substandard’ would attract additional provision of percent. a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

23. Erosion in the value of security can be reckoned as significant when the realisable value of the security is less than per cent of the value assessed by the bank or accepted by RBI at the time of last inspection, as the case may be. a) 25 b) 50 c) 60 d) 75

24. Unsecured exposure is defined as an exposure where the realisable value of the security, as assessed by the bank/approved valuers/Reserve Bank’s inspecting officers, is not more than percent, ab-initio, of the outstanding exposure. a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

25. Which of the undernoted statement/(s) is/are true in case of provision on Standard Assets. a) The provisions on standard assets should not be reckoned for arriving at net NPAs b) The provisions towards Standard Assets need not be netted from gross advances but shown separately as 'Contingent Provisions against Standard Assets' under 'Other Liabilities and Provisions Others' in Schedule 5 of the balance sheet. c) Only A d) Both A & B 26. State Government guaranteed advances and investments in State Government guaranteed securities would attract asset classification and provisioning norms if ……… a) Interest and/or principal or any other amount due to the bank remains overdue for more than 90 days. b) Interest and/or principal or any other amount due to the bank remains overdue for more than 120 days. c) Interest and/or principal or any other amount due to the bank remains overdue for more than 180 days. d) All the above


27. Outstanding in the loan account will be written off if a) Recovery prospects are bleak b) Adequate provision is made c) Both A & B d) Either A or B

28. Bank first focus in management of SMA and NPA will be a) Rehabiliation of borrowers A/c b) File a suit c) Compromise and settle the dues d) None of these

29. Law officers at LHO should visit the branches where large number of suits filed account at least a) Once in a year b) Twice in a year c) Four times in a year d) No need to visit

30. In case of willful default account, bank should take an action a) Legal action b) Compromise with borrower c) Rehabiliation of loan A/c d) Any one of the above

31. The special mention account (SMA) guidelines are issued by a) Corporate centre of our bank b) IBA c) RBI d) LHO

32. The default in not payment of Term Loan installment in spite of capacity to pay from profit may be classified into a) Wilful default b) Normal default c) Both A & B d) only B

33. Rephasement of term loan including rehabilitation on more than two occasions during the currency a) sanction by one step above sanction authority b) needs administrative clearance c) same authority who sanctioned the loan can sanction again d) more than two times not allowed

34. Lok adalat is applicable to DRT cases from a) Rs 10 lacs to 20 lacs b) Rs 10 lacs to 15 lacs c) Rs 10 lacs to 30 lacs d) Rs 10 lacs to 50 lacs

35. NPA management policy is basically concerned with a) Banks domestic offices b) Banks all branches in all countries c) Recovery and rehabiliation branches d) SARB offices / branches

36. Time norms for submission of SAR report a) 10 days b) 20 dayd c) 30 days d) 90 days

37. The basic concern of NPA policy lays stress on a) early identification and reporting of existing and potential NPAs b) write-off the loss assets only c) keeping standard assets as standard assets d) All of these


38. In case of viable units rehabilitation may not be considered when a) Promoters are supporting b) Promoters are not suporting c) Last year performance is not good d) Promoters are not able to bring margin

39. When the total loss to the bank in compromise is Rs.50000/- the compromise proposal is approved a) Branch Manager b) Sanctioning Authority c) Regional Manager d) Committee who has powers to approve the proposal as per delegation of financial powers

40. According to NPA policy with Rs. & above should be monitored by SAMB who have gained immense expertise in recovery & resolution. a) Rs 1 Crore b) Rs 2 Crore c) Rs 5 Crore d) 10 crore

41. Accrued interest waived in the compromise settlement is debited to a) Charges A/c b) Profit & Loss A/c c) No entry is required d) Interest A/c

42. The NPA policy lays down the following principles, which should not be kept in mind for compromise a) to get maximum possible amount with minimum sacrifice b) realizable value of security charged to bank c) Location condition and marketability to the security d) political reputation of the borrower and guarantor

43. In compromise settlement Banks receives the following amount. a) Outstanding less maximum concession possible b) Principle outstanding on the date of suit filed c) Outstanding less minimum sacrifice d) Either B or C

44. The following BIFR cases A/Cs are not eligible for CDR mechanism a) Where promoters are interested in CDR b) Special investigation Audit (SIA) has been recommended by BIFR c) Losses are due to external reason & unit can become viable d) All the above

45. After concluding the compromise agreement the settlement will be documented ______________________________________________ a) As per legal requirement b) A simple letter signed by the Branch Manager is issued c) Comprise amount document done on revenue stamp d) As per letter signed by the Regional Manager

46. An Asset can remain sub-standard asset for a maximum period of ___ months after it is classified as sub-standard assets. a) 9 Days b) 6 months c) 12 months d) 24 months


47. All compromise proposals are screened by before approval by the appropriate authority. a) Branch Manager b) Internal committee c) Chief Manager (Credit) c) Manager NPA

48. After payment of upfront amount the remaining amount is required to be paid with a maximum period of months. a) 3 months b) 12 months c) 24 months d) At any time

49. In compromise maximum waiver is permitted in the Loan A/c of a) Penal interest b) Total accrued interest from the date of NPA c) Legal fee d) All of the above

50. After the compromise is settled in the DRT and borrower has paid 25 % amount and defaults for remaining amount what action bank can take. a) Bank has no legal take b) Bank has to recover money from guarantor only c) Bank can proceed in the case with DRT for total dues less the amount paid d) Wait for the borrower to fulfil the compromise.

Answers Assignment NPA - I

1 b 11 b 21 b 31 c 41 c

2 a 12 b 22 a 32 a 42 d

3 b 13 c 23 b 33 b 43 c

4 b 14 a 24 a 34 a 44 b

5 c 15 a 25 d 35 a 45 a

6 c 16 b 26 a 36 c 46 c

7 d 17 c 27 b 37 a 47 b

8 a 18 c 28 a 38 b 48 b

9 b 19 c 29 b 39 d 49 d

10 a 20 b 30 a 40 a 50 c


ASSIGNMENT ON NPAs – II 1. Category SMA-I is defined to an account where the interest / or instalment has not been serviced for a. 15 days b. 30 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

2. As account shall be classified as doubtful asset if the value of security is eroded by % of the outstandings. a. 25% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50%

3. The monetary ceiling for resolution through a Lok Adalt is: a. 10.00 lac b. 15.00 lac c. 20.00 lac d. 25.00 lac

4. SARFAESI is applicable for defaulted loans with outstandings of Rs _____ and above: a. Rs. 1.00 lac b. Rs. 5.00 lac c. Rs. 4.00 lac d. Rs. 10.00 lac

5. NPAs have the following effects on a Banks balance sheet: a. Erode profits as they do not earn any income b. Increase the provisioning requirements. c. Decrease both the return on equity and return on assets of a Bank. d. All of the above

6. A sub-standard asset which has been subject to restructuring can be upgraded as astandard asset after ____

months / year, provided the terms & conditions of therestructuring package have been adhered to. a. 6 months b. 9 months c. 1 year d. cannot be upgraded

7. An agricultural advance pertaining to short duration crops is classified as an NPA when installments of principal or interest remains overdue for : a. 90 days b. 1 crop season c. 2 crop season d. 4 crop season

8. What is the effect of write off on the balance sheet of a Bank? a. It cleans the balance sheet b. It improves the capital adequacy ratios. c. It reduces the tax liability of a Bank d. All of the above

9. An account shall be treated as NPA if it not renewed / reviewed within ____ months of due date of renewal: a. 3 months b. 4 months c. 6 months d. 12 months 10. A state government guaranteed account shall be classified as an NPA when: a. The state government repudiates the guarantee b. State government guaranteed accounts are treated at par with normal accounts with a delinquency of 90 days for NPA classification. c. Both the above d. None of the above


11. In the Debt Restructuring Scheme for SMEs, the viability criteria regarding average DSCR for restructured loan is a. Should e more than 1.75:1 b. Should be more than 1.50:1 c. Should be more than 1.25:1 d. Should be more than 2.00:1

12. An account is treated as Out of Order if D.P is based on a stock statement older than months: a. 3 months b. 2 months older than sanction terms c. 6 months d. Delay in stock statement submission does not lead to NPA

13. While preparing the restructuring package, an additional term loan is sanctioned to a firm whose existing credit facilities are classified as sub-standard. What shall be IRAC status of this additional T/L facility? a). Standard for one year b). Doubtful c). Sub-Standard, as the original credit facility is classified as sub-standard d). Loss

14. Category SMA-II is defined to an account where: a. Principal or interest payment overdue between 61-90 days b. Principal or interest payment overdue for more than 90 days c. Principal or interest payment overdue for more than 31 days d. None of the above

15. Income from NPAs is recognized on: a. Realisation basis b. Actual basis c. Entity basis d. All of the above

16. Accounts can be transferred to AUCA provided the following conditions are satisfied: a). Outstanding in the account are more than Rs 50,000=00. b). Legal Action has been initiated & realizable value of available securities is more than 20% of the outstanding. c). Accounts can be transferred to AUCA only if AGM (Region) provides the sanction d). All written off accounts irrespective of outstanding and value of security will be parked under AUCA

17. The cut off limit for the structured review of stressed assets (SAR Mechanism) is Rs lacs: a. 5.00 lac b. 10.00 lac c. 1.00 crore d. No Limit

18. As per Banks write off policy, accounts can be written off only when the following provisions are complied with: a. The IRAC status of the asset has been reduced to a Doubtful or a Loss Asset and lying in Recalled Asset Account. b. When adequate provision is available c. When the recovery applications have been filed before the DRT or suits filed before the court /or Where action u/s 13(4) of SARFAESI Act 2002 has been initiated. d. All of the above


19. Category SMA-0 is defined to an account where the interest / or instalment has not been serviced for: a. 15 days b. 30 days c. 60 days d. Account is regular or Principal / Interest payment not overdue for more than 30 days but

account showing sign of incipient stress. 20. Whenever negotiation is considered, the following conditions will apply a. Both the parties are willing, in principle, to do a deal b. There are both agreement and conflict between the parties c. There are variables to trade by way of concessions d. Both parties are empowered to vary their terms e. All of the above

21. In case of compromise settlements following concessions can be given: a. Waiver, either in full or part, of penal interest charged b. Waiver of or reduction in the rate of interest from the date the account became sick or was transferred to PB/RD account c. Partial or complete waiver of interest charged / accrued after the unit ceased to function d. Remission of a part of the principal dues in addition to part or full remission of interest e. Any one or more of the above

22. For Compromise settlement, initial deposit amount with application is a. 5% b. 10% c. 25% d. 50%

23. From the Bank's point of view, the process of compromise settlements [OTS-One Time Settlements] enables a. Saving of valuable time b. Projecting a helpful / positive image of the Bank c. Recycling of the recovered funds and adding to the interest kitty of the Bank. d. All of the above

24. No negotiation is possible when a. One has no bargaining power b. Broader objectives might be prejudiced c. One is "not prepared" d. All of the above

25. Objectives of NPA analysis are a. To take stock of the situation, by building up the data base b. Segregating the accounts into identical lots, with regard to 'approach' to be adopted for recovery c. Prioritization as per prospects of recovery d. Monitoring and control purposes. e. All of the above

26. The advantages of compromise are a. Saving of money, time and manpower b. Projecting a helpful image of the Bank c. Expediting recycling of funds d. only A & C e. All A, B & C


27. Which of the following are not Basel securities: a. Gold ornaments under pledge to the Bank b. Kisan Vikas Patras / NSCs c. Securities issued by Central & State Govt. d. Stocks hypothecated to Bank

28. NPA Management Policy gives guidelines on a. Resources of NPA b. Prevention of Fresh NPA c. Recovery of NPA & Prevention of Fresh NPA d. None of the above 29. The 'net loss' comprises a. Notional loss and interest applied but not recovered b. Actual loss and expenses incurred by the bank c. Actual loss and notional loss d. None of the above

30. NPA management is an integral part of the overall loan asset management of the bank, consisting of strategic approaches to a. Guard against risks of adverse selection of new assets b. Prevent deterioration of existing performing assets c. Tackling the existing NPAs through remedial and corrective measures d. All of the above

Answers Assignment NPA – II

1 b 11 c 21 e

2 d 12 a 22 a

3 c 13 a 23 d

4 a 14 a 24 d

5 d 15 a 25 e

6 c 16 d 26 e

7 c 17 b 27 d

8 d 18 d 28 c

9 c 19 d 29 c

10 b 20 e 30 e


ASSIGNMENT ON NPAs – III 1. List of wilful defaulters provides information for outstandings of a. Above Rs. 10.00 lac b. Rs. 25.00 lac and above c. Above Rs. 25.00 lac d. All of these

2. CIBIL provide credit information on following segment a. P Segment b. SIB Segment c. Commercial Segment d. Commercial & consumer segment

3. What is Credit Information Report? a. It is an opinion report of a bank b. It is market information report compiled by field officer. c. It is a factual record of a borrower's credit payment history compiled from information received from different credit grantors. d. All of these

4. Who headed the working group on wilful defaulters constituted in May 2001? a. S. S. Kalia b. S. S. Kohli c. M. Narsihaman d. S. K. Talwar

5. Right to information Act, 2005 is not applicable to CIBIL because a. It is restricted within Banks / FIs b. CIBIL is not a public authority c. Both A & B d. None of these

6. In case of project financing, the Banks and Fis seek to ensure end use of funds by obtaining certificate from the …... ? a. Chartered Accountant b. Borrower c. Revenue officer of the locality d. Registrar of Companies

7. Encryption means: a. It is a method of decoding information b. It is a technique used to mask proprietary information in order to prevent unauthorized use. c. It is a method of dealing with confidential information d. None of these

8. Capital requirement is worked on based on a. Level of assets b. Assets after application of risk weight c. As per the choice of bank. d. None of these

9. Personal loans secured by gold & gold jewellery but security value not entered in the system would attract Risk Weight of: a. 50% b. 75% c. 125% d. 100% 10. Risk weights are determined by a. Bank b. IBA c. External Credit Rating Agency d. Regulator


11. AAA rated borrowal accounts attract Risk Weight of: a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40%

12. Risk Weights on Housing Loans with LTV upto 75% and Loan amounts above Rs.75.00 lacs: a. 20% b. 80% c. 75% d. 90%

13. Capital is to be provided on a. Total level od assets b. Loans only c. Advantages only d. Risk weighted assets

14. Unconditional cancellability clause is available in CBS at a. Account level only b. Customer level only c. Both account & customer level d. None of the above

15. Risk weight is not determined by a. Type of customer b. Activity c. Security d. Internal Credit Rating

16. External credit rating is required for a customer with a. Limit above Rs. 25 lac b. Limit of Rs. 10 crore & above c. Limit of Rs. 5 crore & above d. Limit of Rs. 25 crore & above

17. If the claims of the Bank are not settled in full, the Bank may take some steps to locate the properties not charged to the Bank: a. approach Income Tax Deptt under Sec 138 of IT Act b. Appoint private detective c. File an application for declaration of assets on oath by the defendant d. Make own enquiries e. All of the above

18. The application fee is paid by means of: a. Court fee stamps b. Crossed demand draft favouring The Registrar, DRT, .. (Place) c. Treasury Challan d. Bankers Cheque

19. We should take steps for recovery of debts by setting off other securities/ enforcing LIC policies/ Initiating action under SARFAESI Act 2002, because: a. It would reduce the amount of claim and consequent legal expenses such as application fee, lawyer’s professional fee. b. Reduce NPA and recycle funds c. Increase interest rate d. a) & b) above

20. Notice under Section 80 of Code of Civil Procedure is necessary for:

a. All borrowers b. Govt. guaranteed accountant

c. Corporate borrowers c. None of the above


21. The DRT shall exercise the power and authority to entertain and decide applications from Banks and Financial Intuitions where the claim amount is: a. More than Rs. 10 lacs b. Rs. 10 lacs or more c. Rs. 5 lacs or more d. Rs. 1 lac or more

22. The Recovery Officer sends a demand notice fixing a time limit of …. Days from date of serving the notice. Fill in the gap: a. 15 Days b. 30 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

23. Recovery certificate is issued by: a. Branch Manager b. Recovery Officer c. Advocate d. Presiding officer of the DRT

24. As per judgement of the Supreme Court, while granting interim reliefs, the DRT: a. may go beyond the powers of Civil Courts b. Do not have any power c. will be restricted to powers of Civil Courts d. None of the above

25. Debt in terms of The Debt due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act 1993 means: a). Any amount outstanding in the books of Banks/ Financial Institutions against a borrower. b). Any liability (inclusive of interest) claimed as due from a person by a Bank or FI during the course of any business activity of the bank/FI. c). Any amount claimed as due by a Bank or FI from a person irrespective of whether in course of business activity or not. d). None of the above.

26. The need for setting up of special tribunal for recovery of dues of Banks was first recommended by a committee. Name the Committee: a. Tiwari Committee b. Narisimhan Committee c. Goiporia Committee d. Ghosh Committee

27. If the notices are not served on defendants, after one/ two attempts, the notice is served through: a. Paper notification b. Registered post c. Special messenger d. Public announcement on the roads.

28. If the lending bank desires to simultaneously initiate action under RDBFI Act and SARFAESI Act, can it do so? a. Yes, action under both the acts can proceed simultaneously. b. No. SARFAESI action can be taken only after DRT decides the case. c. No. DRT case can be filed only after SARFAESI Action is concluded. d. The permission of the High Court is required to proceed simultaneously under both

29. In respect of suits decided by the Civil Courts, where the claim amount is Rs. 10 lacs or more, the execution petition will be entertained by: a. The Civil Court b. The DRT c. The High Court d. None of the above


30. Prospective bidder has to register with the authorized…… a. Forex dealer b. “online” service provider c. Bidders Association d. Builders Association

31. Following is one of the actions required while taking possession of the mortgaged property under SARFAESI. a. Photo publication of borrower in newspaper b. Inform RBI about default c. Take possession of movable security in the presence of two witnesses and Panchnama of possession of movables to be drawn up and signed by two witnesses. d. All of the above

32. In case of deceased borrower/guarantor, under SARFAESI a. No action is possible b. Section 13(2) notices should be sent to legal heirs c. Wait for the legal heirs to come d. Section 13(2) notices should be sent to spouse only

33. Bidders under e-auction are bound by the principle of a. Caveat emptor (Buyer Beware) b. Borrower totally responsible c. Bank totally responsible d. DRT alone responsible

34. Relevant Provisions of SARFAESI Empowers the Financial Institution with quasi judicial powers to …. a. Actually take possession of the securities available b. Dispose it off for recovering the dues, without the intervention of the Court c. Both a & b d. sell agricultural properties

35. The total dues for taking action should be equal to or more than of the original debt under the provisions of SARFAESI ACT 2002. a. 10% b. 20% c. 25% d. 30%

36. SARFAESI Act has been largely perceived as facilitating a. Growth in advances b. Growth in Non-agri business c. Growth in agri business d. Asset recovery and reconstruction

37. For bidders who have indicated non-familiarity with e-Auction, training on a DEMO/MOCK Auction will be arranged. One of the pre-conditions for this is… a. Payment of EMD b. Having account c. Having CIF d. Registration with Builders Association

38. Following properties are exempted from SARFAESI action. a. Mortgage created on agricultural properties b. Mortgage created on Industrial properties c. Mortgage created on residential properties d. Mortgage created on properties of business units


39. The SARFAESI Act provides for selling the security through any one of the following means. a. Private Sale b. Conducting auction among employees of bank c. Conducting auction among friends of borrower d. Through notice on our web site

40. The Government of India, Ministry of Finance, and Department of Financial Services has instructed that all auctions through DRTs and SARFAESI should be conducted. a. Only physically b. Only through agent c. Electronically to help break cauterization in auctions d. Through notice on web site only

41. Following is one of the actions required before taking possession and selling the mortgaged property under SARFAESI a. Photo publication of borrower in newspaper b. Inform RBI about default c. The possession notice shall be delivered to the borrower/guarantor against acknowledgement or sent by registered post with acknowledgement due. d. None of the above

42. Following is one of the actions required before taking possession and selling the mortgaged property under SARFAESI a. Photo publication of borrower in newspaper b. Inform RBI about default c. The possession notice shall be published in TWO leading newspapers one being vernacular and other in English within 7 days from the date of possession. d. None of the above

43. SARFAESI empowers the Financial Institution with quasi-judicial powers a. To actually take possession of the securities available b. To sanction the loan c. To enhance the limit d. To upgrade IRAC status

44. Prospective bidder shall have a valid…………… issued by any of the recognized agency and a valid e-mail id. a. Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) b. Indian Passport c. Permission from RBI d. Permission from SAMG

45. The has to be obtained from the valuation committee based on the report of the bank`s approved valuer. a. Reserve Price b. Indicative Price c. Maximum quote d. Highest tender amount


46. Following is one of the actions required before taking possession and selling the mortgaged property under SARFAESI a. Photo publication of borrower in newspaper b. Inform Government of India about default c. The possession notice under Section 13 (4) shall also be affixed on the outer door or at such prominent place of the mortgaged property d. Diversion of Agri land

47. As per the Government of India, Ministry of Finance, Department of Financial Services, all auctions through DRTs and SARFAESI should be conducted. a. credai.com b. rbi.org c. tender.gov.in d. ceo.gov.in

48. Notices under Section 13(2) of SARFAESI should be sent to the concerned parties like. a. Borrower b. Guarantor c. Partner / Directors in case of firm d. All the above

49. Following is one of the actions required before selling the mortgaged property under SARFAESI a. Inform RBI about default b. Photo publication of borrower in official gazette c. The sale notice is required to be affixed on the conspicuous part of the mortgaged property. d. Obtain permission of GOI

50. One of the pre-conditions under SARFAESI is….. a. Account should be temporarily irregular (IRAC 01) b. Account should be an NPA c. Account should be standard asset d. Account should be SMA

ASSIGNMENT ON NPAs – III

1 b 11 b 21 b 31 c 41 c

2 d 12 c 22 a 32 b 42 c

3 c 13 d 23 d 33 a 43 a

4 b 14 b 24 a 34 c 44 a

5 b 15 d 25 b 35 b 45 a

6 b 16 c 26 b 36 d 46 c

7 b 17 e 27 a 37 a 47 c

8 b 18 b 28 a 38 a 48 d

9 c 19 d 29 b 39 a 49 c

10 d 20 b 30 b 40 c 50 b


CORE BANKING SOLUTION - 1 1. Centralized Data Base/Main Server for Core Banking Branches has been

installed at: -

a) Central Data Centre at Belapur, Mumbai b) SBIICM, Hyderabad c) FD, Kolkata d) All LHO Headquarters

2. The CBS software is different from Bank master for the under noted reasons:

a) The Bank master had a stand-alone server and database while in CBS these are

interconnected between all the branches. b) While CBS is a window-based package, Bank master was not. c) While in Bank master, the customer becomes a customer of a specific branch, in

CBS he becomes customer of the Bank as a whole d) All of the above.

3. CBS Software acquired by the bank is: -

a) B@ncs24 b) B@ncsLink

c) Finance-one d) Trade-Finance

4. Name of the Front-end software used at CBS branch server is: -

a) B@ncs-24 b) B@ncs-link c) Finance-one d) Trade-Finance

5. The bank has acquired the CBS software from: -

a) TCS Ltd., India b) FNS, Australia c) China Systems, Dubai d) HP Systems, USA

6. Name of the software acquired by the bank for maintaining CGL (Corporate

General Ledger) accounts in core banking environment is: -

a) B@ncs-24 b) B@ncs-ink

c) Finance-one d) Trade-Finance

7. The bank has acquired ‘Finance-one' from: -

a) Comlink, USA b) FNS, Australia c) China Systems, Dubai d) HP Systems, USA


8. Name of the software acquired by the bank for Trade-Finance is: - a) B@ncs-24

c) Finance-one b) d)

B@ncs-link Exim-Bills

9.

The bank has acquired Exim Bills from: a) B@ncs-24

b)

B@ncs-link

c) China Systems, Dubai d) HP Systems, USA

10. 'Disaster Recovery Centre' for the CBS has been located at: -

a) Chennai b) New Delhi c) Hyderabad d) Bangalore

11. Name of the company that has been entrusted with the work relating to customization, integration and pilot implementation of CBS is: -

a) TCS Ltd., India. b) FNS, Australia c) China Systems, Dubai d) HP Systems, USA

12. Core Banking Solution-Hardware installed at CDC has been acquired from:

a) TCS Ltd. b) PCS Ltd. c) Wipro d) HP Systems, USA

13. The first branch of State Bank of India where Core Banking was started is:

a) PBB-Chandigarh b) PBB-Hyderabad c) Hirannandani, Mumbai d) PBB-Chennai

14. Core Banking was first implemented on: -

a) 29/06/2003 b) 01/09/2003 c) 16/09/2003 d) 14/12/2003

15. Inter-connectivity of the CBS branches is maintained with CDC-Belapur through:

a) Internet b) SBI Connect c) STEPS d) All the above

16. In case of failure of connectivity, the CBS branch: - a) Cannot perform any function b) Can perform limited functions available on OFFLINE Mode c) Can perform functions only from a separate node provided at the branch for the

purpose d) None of the above


17. Multi City cheques have been introduced for Mid Corporate Customers in many Mid Corporate Group Branches on CBS. The maximum value of single MCC would be

a) 50 Lacs b) 5 Lacs c) 15 Lacs d) 20 Lacs

18. In Core Banking Solution, a 'Teller' means: -

a) Branch Teller b) Single Window Operator c) All the users d) Automated Teller Machine i.

19. In Core Banking Solution, a 'Vault Teller' means: -

a) Cash Officer b) Accountant/Joint Custodian c) Branch Manager d) All of the above

20. You can log into Core Banking Software (a 'Window' based programme) through:-

a) My Computer b) My Documents c) Internet Explorer d) Microsoft Word

21. Finance-one' software is available at CBS branches:-

a) On all the nodes b) On one or two nodes- preferably with Branch Manager/Accountant etc. c) On the node of officer entrusted with UCO's powers d) None of the above

22. What is the user type of CRO in CBS

a) 40 b) 50 c) 60 d) 70

23. After How many unsuccessful attempts a teller locked out.

a) 5 b) 6 c) 4 d) 3

24. Maximum capability that can be given to Employee in CBS is:

a) 7 b) 9 c) 10 d) 12

25. Sites of E-Circulars, E-learning and CBS Help Desk are available:-

a) Through Internet b) Through SBICONNECT c) Both of (A) & (B) d) None of the above


26. Sites of E-Circulars, E-learning and CBS Help Desk are available on :-

a) The nodes provided to the Branch Manager & Managers of Division b) The nodes provided to the Branch Manager & Accountant c) The nodes provided to the Branch Manager & UCO d) All the nodes in any branch/office of the Bank on SBICONNECT

27. ID of an employee of State Bank of India in Core Banking Solution will be

a) His/her Provident Fund Index Number b) Any seven digits/letters chosen by the employee c) Date of birth of the employee d) A unique number will be allotted by CDC, Belapur

28. Minimum alpha-numeric required for user's password in CBS is:

a) Five digits b) Six digits

29.

c) Seven digits

The UID linking right is available to the user type of

d) Eight digits

a) 01 &50 b) 40 &45 c) 50 &60 d) ALL

30. In CBS branches, after permanent transfer of a user, his/her ID will be transferred

to his/her new branch by :-

a) The branch from where he/she is transferred b) The branch to which he/she is transferred c) CDC, Belapur, Navi Mumbai d) Any of the above

KEY CORE BANKING SOLUTION – 1

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. a d a b b c a d c a

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. a d c b b b a c b c

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. b d d b b d a d d a


CORE BANKING SOLUTION - 2 31. In CBS system, to move from one field to another, the user has to use

undernoted keys/mouse:

a) <ENTER> Key b) <TAB> Key c) Mouse d) (b) &/or (c)

32. In CBS, management of cash has been made a part of the software/system. As such, undernoted official(s) will become the custodian of the cash held at the branch overnight :-

a) Branch Manager b) Accountant/Joint Custodian c) Cash Officer d) All of the the above jointly

33. In CBS, Cash Drawer has been referred to as:-

a) Cashier's cabin b) Strong Room c) Cashier's hand balance box d) A tool for recording cash receipts/payments/balance details of any individual

user 34. In CBS, management of security forms has also been made a part of the

software/system through menu- VPIS. The term VPIS stands for:-

a) Valuable Paper Industry Sector b) Valuable Paper Inventory System c) Valuable Paper Instrument System d) Valuable Paper Instrument Sector

35. In CBS, the undernoted official is treated as custodian of security forms:-

a) Branch Manager b) Accountant c) Cash Officer d) All of them jointly

36. Like Bankmaster, CBS screens also have MANDATORY and OPTIONAL fields.

Which of the following colours has been given to the MANDATORY fields:-

a) Yello b) Red c) White d) Blue


37. In CBS, 'Loan Tracking' concept has been introduced for Demand Loans/Term Loans. In which of the undernoted ways, 'Loans Tracking' helps the user :- a) It guides him regarding all the activities related to grant of/disbursement of

Demand Loans/Term Loans b) It guides him only regarding the follow-up of Demand Loans/Term Loans c) It guides him only regarding interest rates and margin rates specified for

various types of Demand Loans/Term Loans d) None of the above

38. The GRC card can only be issued to Remitter for a Beneficiary Account with only OPEN STATUS in CBS.

a) True b) False c) Both open and closed accounts

39. In CBS, every Customer Number/CIF is of digits:-

a) Nine b) Ten c) Eleven d) Twelve

40. Recording of KYC (Know Your Customer) ID- as directed by the RBI is compulsory while creating a new Customer in CBS. To verify that the ID produced by the customer is adequate to operate bank account, the ID should have minimum KYC scores:-

a) 99 b) 100 c) 110 d) 111

41. In CBS, every Account Number generated by the centrally located server at CDC is unique. Every Account Number is of digits.

a) Nine c) Eleven

b) d)

Ten Twelve

42.

CMP stands for:-

a) Cash Management Product c) Clearing Management Product

b) d)

Collection Management Product Classified Management Product

43. All the internal (non-customer) accounts have been referred in the CBS as

a) CGL b) BGL c) Branch Clearing Accounts d) Inter Branch Accounts


44. In case of any difference between BGL and CGL balances that may creep in, software called GLIF has been provided to facilitate its location. Full form of the term GLIF is:-

a) General Ledger Information File b) General Ledger Interface File c) General Ledger Internal Accounts File d) None of the above

45 In CBS, there is a concept called 'NPA Tracking' which means:-

a) The system will help the user to know the existing as well as probable NPA

status of all the outstanding loan accounts b) The system will automatically change the asset category of all the loan

accounts on the specified date c) The system will put through INC entries on its own d) All of the above

46. In CBS if we want to change the loan tenor from where we will navigate

a) DLTL Common Processing b) DLTL Loan Tracking c) Loan tenor can’t be changed d) Repayment schedule

47. What is the Capability level of Branch Manager

a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10

48. The Term used in CBS, corresponding to ‘Job Stream’ in Bank Master, through which a number of transactions can be put through in CBS is

a) CBS Feed b) Trickle Feed c) Auto Feed d) None of the above

49. To view the images (photos or signatures) in a CBS system, one can press

a) F10 b) F11 c) F3 d) F8

50. Many Reports are available in a CBS branch. The Day books in a CBS branch have been given the name of

a) VVR b) CBSDB b) DAY BOOKS d) None of the above

51. Default password of ‘Service Desk’ of CBS is

a) Your P.F. Index b) Your branch code c) Service file d) service desk


52. If a Customer number of a branch starts with 80, it indicates that

a) This customer number relates to a customer migrated from Bank Master b) This customer number has been created in B@NCS24 c) This customer number relates to a customer of some other branch d) Could be any one of the above

53. Number of IRAC status codes for Loan Accounts in B@NCS24 is

a) 5 b) 9 c) 11 d) 8

54. During OFFLINE mode in a CBS branch, following can be done

a) Transaction of a non-home branch b) Government Transactions c) Opening of an Overdraft Account d) None of the above

55. Under CBS umbrella, RTGS services have been enabled in

a) Only those branches who have been identified b) All the CBS branches. c) Only the branches in Kerala Circle on Pilot basis d) None of the CBS branches

56. For making a correction in a CBS transaction, one has to know its journal number which

helps in its reversal and subsequent correction. Such reversal is possible

a) Within 2 days of effecting the transaction b) Within 1 hour of effecting the transaction c) On the same day but before sending EOD signal from the branch d) Depends upon CDC Belapur

57. Soft Copy of a file containing Salary or Pension, when sent to CDC through one of

the options of CBS gets posted thereat through a process called Trickle Feed. Transactions normally gets posted in the account

a) After 2 days of sending the softcopy b) Within 1 hour of sending the softcopy c) At period intervals – depends upon CDC

d) None of the above58. User type of Accountant in a CBS branch is

a) 40 b) 50 c) 60 d) 10


59. When a CBS branch has to go on OFFLINE following activities cannot be done

a) Issue of drafts b) Cash Receipts c) Cash Withdrawals d) Printing of Cash Reports

60. In CBS branch calendar WW is defined as a working day. Holidays are defined as

a) HL b) HH c) HO d) HY

KEY CORE BANKING SOLUTION – 2

Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. d b d b b d a a c c

Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

Ans. c a b b d b c b a a

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. d a d d b c c b a b


CORE BANKING SOLUTION – 3 61. In CBS, during OFFLINE mode Accounts of the following can be opened

a) P Segment b) SIB Segment c) AGR Segment d) None of the above

62. To logout from the CBS system, which works under WINDOW environment, you have to

a) Press [X] button on the top right hand on the screen b) Shut of the system c) Chose log off button d) Any one of the above e) Sign off

63. A CBS word equivalent to ‘Referral’ of Bank Master is

a) Queue b) CBS Referral c) Chose logout button d) Any one of the above

64. Every Teller in a CBS branch has an electronic Cash Drawer and can make the customer cash transactions EXCEPT the

a) Cash Officer b) Field Officer c) Accountant d) Branch Manager

65. Which of the following is not true in CBS environment

a) Tellers can swap cash in their Cash Drawer b) Tellers can swap VPIS (Drafts/Cheque Books etc.) among themselves c) Tellers can exchange cash with a customer d) All of the above

66. Internal Accounts of all the CBS branch like Charges, Branch Cash Balance

Account etc. which are called BGL Accounts. Numbering convention of such accounts is such that

a) First five digits are the branch code – Second five are common b) First five digits are common – Second five are branch code

c) Each branch has a unique BGL Account number

d) None of the above67. Last digit of a 11 digit Account number in a CBS branch is

called

a) Check digit b) Unique digit c) Last digit d) None of the above


68. Reports relating to GLIF – matching of B@NCS24 and Finance1 – indicating the differences if any are available at a CBS branch

a) Within 1 hour of sending EOD signal b) Before sending EOD signal c) On the next day d) None of the above

69. Which one of the following is False.

a) Number of a migrated customer account starts with 80 b) Number of a customer opened in B@NCS24 starts with 85 c) Number of a migrated Account starts with 1 d) None of the above

70. ‘Status List’ of Bankmaster has an equivalent in B@NCS24 and is called

a) Shadow File b) Night File c) PD File d) FB Data

71. How many CBS sessions can be opened simultaneously by a Teller?

a) 1 b) unlimited c) 3 d) 4

72. Which function key is pressed to repeat the Customer/Account number typed last on

a CBS screen?

a) F9 b) F11 c) F12 d) None of the above

73. When a customer having BankMaster Account number wants to know his corresponding CBS number, which function key is pressed?

a) F3 b) F4 c) F7 d) F8

74. Institute Code of SBI in B@NCS24 (in use by the SB Group) is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4


75. CC and OD accounts have been clubbed in CBS whereas with Deposit Account whereas TL and DL accounts clubbed separately. The rationale is

a) In Deposit/CC/OD, cheques books can be issued b) In Deposit/CC/OD, accounts can have credit balances c) In DL/TL, accounts cannot have credit balances d) All of the above.

76. In CBS system the term collateral means

a) Primary Security Only b) Secondary Security Only c) Covers both of them d) none of the above

77. Collateral number generated by CBS system is of

a) 11 digits b) 10 digits c) 12 digits d) 9 digits

78. In CBS, credit voucher of a S.C sent shall be included

a) in the vouchers of the day on which it was dispatched b) in the vouchers of the day on which it was entered in the system c) in the vouchers of the day on which it is realised / returned d) None of the above

79. In any CBS screens there are 2 types of fields, white and green. While filling the

values in these fields

a) Green fields are mandatory – others can be ignored b) White fields are mandatory – white ones can be ignored c) Green fields are mandatory – others cannot be ignored d) White fields are mandatory – others cannot be ignored

80. In any CBS system Interest frequency has to be defined while opening a TDR

account along with the account number in which the interest has to be credited by the system. Which of the interest frequency can NOT be given?

a) Anniversary Quarterly b) Anniversary Monthly c) Quarterly d) Anniversary Yearly

81. GCC Green Remit Card is made available in the Teller menu of user types in Bancs24 application

a) 01&15 b) 40&45 c) 50 &60 d) ALL


82. In a CBS branch which of the following is wrong (in context to non-home branch transactions relating to a P-Segment Customer).

a) Transactions of an illiterate customer cannot be done b) Transactions relating to a dormant account cannot be made c) Transactions relating to inoperative account cannot be made d) Transactions relating to a joint account where drawer is the payee cannot be

made.

83. In a CBS branch if there is a connectivity failure a)

No payment can be made b) Payment can be made on basis of Deposit accounts balance list c) Payment can also be made after verifying the balance from another Core

banking branch telephonically d) Both b & c

84. In a CBS branch the account BGL account beginning with 98582 represents a)

ATM entries where account debited but cash not paid b) ATM entries where cash paid but account not debited c) None of the above

85. On every incoming message through RTGS, to know how many messages have

come, one has to

a) Keep a Register to note how many message have been received b) To go to enquiry option and click on ‘All Statuses’ to see the status of

‘Successful messages’ c) To enquire the account related to STEPS (RTGS) messages in the CBS

system through BGL option d) All of the above86. In a CBS branch conducting OLTAS transaction, which of the following report is generated daily for submission to the Focal Point Branch?

a) GAD 2 b) GAD3 c) GAD4 d) GAD 5

87. In a CBS environment payment of IOIs is safer as compared to drafts because

a) The inventory allocated to a particular branch is fed in the system by Central

stationary department b) The payment involves the input of BIAK (Built in authentication key) which

cannot be bypassed. c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above


KEY CORE BANKING SOLUTION - 3

61. 62. 63 64 65 66 67 68 69

d e a c b b a c d

70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78

a b c d c d c b c

79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87

c c d d d a b d c


CORE BANKING SOLUTIONS -4

88. VPS Stands for in core banking:-

a. Valuable Paper System b. Vendor Payment System c. Valuable Per System d. None of these

89. Cash Balance Account starts with

a. 98901 b. 98903 c. 98908 d. 98912

90. In Government Business “Govt Mirror Account” starts with

a) 98840 b) 98881 c) 98841 d) 98820

91.If we want to extend maturity of PPF, we should navigate through

a. Deposit/CC/OD Accounts b. CIF c. Government Account d. Any of the menu

92. The tax will be deducted at @ 20% if PAN number is not linked while ------ creation in CBS.

a. CIF level b. Deposit level c. BGL level d. NO need to feed

93. For CIF opened without sufficient ID proof and sufficient ID point of 110, System will put a -------on Transactions in account number.

a) Hold b) Stop c) No effect d) None of these


94.Customer Evaluation refers to:-

a) Corporate Customers b) Measuring the business transacted by a customer with the Bank c) Measuring the revenue accrued to the Bank from the customer d) All of these

95. Capturing of PAN or Form 60/61 has been made mandatory at the time of deposit account opening.

a. True b. False c. Not applicable to deposit accounts d. None of the above

96.In CBS, for Non Rural the location code is

a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40

97.What is the customer category for Staff Senior Citizen in CBS?

a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

98.In most of our domestic operations, the code of INR in the CBS is

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

99. Term days cannot be more than------- in CBS.

a. 30 b. 31 c. 32 d. 29

100.When creating a Saving Plus account, what should be fed in Priority?

a. 1 b. 2 b. 3 c. 4


101. CIF of Self Help Group should be opened in:-

a. Personal Customer b. Non Personal Customer c. No need to open d. None of the above

102. Correction of transaction in CBS can be done on

a. The same day b. Next day c. Can be done at any day d. Cannot be done

103. For exchanging the cash, one must go through:-

a. Transaction Posting b. Through SDV Menu c. Through cash vault transaction d. None of the above

104. To Operate Loan Tracking menu what should be the minimum capability of a teller

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

105. All tellers can create CIF, which requires authorization by a checker with a minimum capability level of :-

a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 9

106. If the teller does not log to the system for------days, his User ID will be inactive.

a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 10

107. What is the time norm for transfer of accounts in CBS.

a. 7 days b. 10 days c. Immediately d. None of these


108. What is the full form of ADS.

a) Additional Directory Services b) Active Directory Services c) Active Departmental Services d) Additional departmental Services

109. Single sided cash difference can be traced same day by generating the report “Cash Report Compare” by cash officer through:

a) Screen No. 00665 b) Screen No. 00666 c) Screen No. 00669 d Screen No. 00679

110. In FATCA/CRS Due Diligence of onboarding entity account can be done through:

a) Screen No. 070701 b) Screen No. 070703 c) Screen No. 070740 d Screen No. 070750

KEY CORE BANKING SOLUTION - 4

Q 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97

Ans b b a a a b d a a d

Q 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107

Ans a b a b a a b a c a

Q 108 109 110

Ans b c b


CORE BANKING SOLUTIONS- 5

1 In RD, the installment due date by default is (a) last day of the month (b) first day of the month (c) 15th day of the month (d) None

2 . For opening of RD account Term value in Term A/c options to be mentioned as

(a) 0 (b) Installment amount (c) Total installments amount (d) Maturity amount

3 . If customer KYC score is less than 110 how it can be increased in \\SCR:67100 CIF

(a) Add details of additional documents obtained (b) Add details of additional documents obtained, enter capital A in function & transmit (c) Add details of additional documents obtained, enter capital C in function & transmit (d) b or c

4 . What should be capability to level to authorize opening of CIF

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9

5 . Which are the mandatory field for opening of CIF

(a) City/Town code (b) Post code (c) Date of birth (d) All the above

6. CBS handles deposit accounts through 2 important parameters viz. “Account Type”

and “Interest Category or Sub Type”: Account Type consists of how many fields: (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

7 What is the product code for opening of current account.

(a) 25

(b) 10 (c) 50 (d) 208 . KYC (Know your customer) means (a) Knowing the customer personally well (b) Establishing customer identity (c) Establishing customer address (d) Getting documentary proof for identity and address


9 . Interest frequency in respect of STDR account in core options should be selected as

(a) Maturity (b) Monthly (c) Quarterly (d) Half yearly 10 . ‘Interest Frequency’ while opening deposit account means (a) Monthly (b) Quarterly (c) When interest will be paid to the customer (d) Half yearly 11 Where product codes are available? (a) CBS list of products under Data ware housing portal (b) Service desk (c) both (d) none 12 . The Screen No or Transaction Code for ‘Create Account Prompt’ is :SCR:_ : (a) 002001 pmt (b) 002000 pmt (c) 001010 (d) i and ii above 13 Surabhi Account can be opened as : (a) SB (b) CA (c) Both (d) None 14 . What is value attached to address proof in KYC? (a) 110 (b) 90 (c) 99 (d) 11 15 . Who can create CIF (a) Maker (b) Checker (c) All Tellers

16 . Account Segment Code for a Per-Domestic-Public is:

(a) 0806 (b) 5001 (c) 0706 (d) None of the above 17 Which parameters impact TDS in deposit account? (a) PAN (b) Date of birth (c) Gender code (d) All the above 18 . Interest Category consists of how many

digits: (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

19 Noting down product code before opening of account

(a) Is not necessary (b) Helps in picking up values from drop down (c) Facilitates opening of account fast (d) Both (b) & (c) above


20 . Term basis for TDR/STDR accounts to be selected as (a) month (b) Quarter (c) Days (d) Half year 21 How to mention maturity of a term deposit account in the

system? (a) By mentioning the period in days/months/years (b) By mentioning the maturity date only (c) Either a or b above (d) none of the above 22 . Mobiliser is to be input under: (a) Core options tab (b) Miscellaneous tab (c) Term Account options tab (d) None of the above 23 What is the value attached to the personal identification in KYC?

(a) 110 (b) 99 (c) 11 (d) 100

24 Which of the following will help in searching a customer in CBS?

(a) Account number (b) Name (c) ID (d) All the above will help 25 What is the minimum password length in CBS. (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 10 26 Account type consists of (a) Product and type codes (b) Product code (c) Type code (d) None of the above 27 What are the main reasons for outstanding in Technical Suspense Account -

1260505001? (a) Double Posting with single entry (b) Non-posting of one leg of the transaction (c) Connectivity failure (d) All the above 28 The BGL account No. for ATM Cash Disbursed/Customer Account Not

Debited is (a) 98581 (b) 98582 (c) 98580 (d) 98681


29 What is the Software used for maintaining the Corporate General Ledger?

(a) B@ncslink (b) B@ncs24 (c) Finance-1 (d) None of the above 30 The BGL batch posting account is mapped to the CGL system

suspense account. (a) true (b) false 31 Audit BGL Accounts Age Wise Breakup report shows (a) All debit entries outstanding in office accounts (b) All outstanding entries in Reconciliatory type of Office Accounts (c) All outstanding entries of all office accounts (d) All the above

32 A batch whose Status is 4 means (a) Failed (b) Posted (c) In process (d) None of the above 33 Which of the following entries are posted to the RTGS Rejected Transactions

Account - 98593? (a) Failed outgoing RTGS transactions (Customer Accounts) which have been

returned (b) Failed outgoing RTGS transactions (Cash & BGL) which have been

returned (c) Incoming R-42 transactions (d) (B) & (C) above 34 In which report does the branch cash balance reflect if it is not reconciled? (a) GLCOMP report (b) GLCNTR report (c) Exception Report (d) Cash Report 35 The branch cash balance is said to be reconciled when (a) Physical Cash is equal to BGL cash balance (b) BGL cash balance is equal to CGL cash balance (c) Physical Cash balance is equal to CGL cash balance (d) Physical cash balance is equal to BGL as well as CGL cash balance 36 At the end of the day the branch cash balance is in (a) Cash drawers of respective Tellers / Single Window Operators (b) Cash drawer of the Vault Teller (c) Cash Drawer of the Cash Officer (d) Total of A & B


37 Single sided entries are required to be posted by the branch (a) To reconcile the entry outstanding in Technical Suspense Account (b) Where Debit is to the branch account and Credit is to the Non Home

Branch Account (c) Where Credit is to the branch account and Debit is to the Non Home

Branch Account (d) None of the above

38 How is the balance, if any, in System Suspense Batch Posting OLRR Account - 99512, zeroised at the end of the day? (a) By transfer to branch Suspense Account / Sundry Deposit Account as the case may be (b) By rectifying the failed batches by which system automatically reverses the entries and zeroising the balance in the account (c) By manually posting / transferring the amounts to the debit / credit of respective accounts (d) None of the above

39 Which of the following rectifications is to be carried out in the case of a Cash Transaction, when the Cash Drawer of the SWO is updated but the concerned account is not debited / credited? (a) Single sided entry to be posted for the credit / debit of the respective a/c (b) Cash Drawer updation to be cancelled by going to View Journal & Cash Correction. (c) Change Cash Drawer balance from the front end. (d) Post the transaction through screen no: 8083 - Enquire Host Acknowledgement Pending Transactions. 40 Credit to the System Suspense Account Banker’s Cheques to be issued Account - 98585 is on account of (a) Receipt of funds for issue of Banker’s Cheque (b) TDR Payout where transfer option is selected as Banker Cheque (c) Issue of Banker's Cheque on account of Standing Instruction set up (d) All the above 41 GLCNTR report shows the outstanding in (a) CGL Suspense Account (b) Technical Suspense Account (c) System Suspense Accounts (d) All the above 42 monitors the CGL Suspense Account and the Technical Suspense Account (GLIF). (a) Finance1 (b) Core Banking Project (CBP), Belapur (c) Branch (d) None


43. GLCC stands for (a) General Ledger Classification Centre (b) General Ledger Classification Code (c) General Loan Classification Code (d) General Liability Classification Code

44 Difference between Physical Cash Balance, BGL Cash Balance and CGL Cash Balance may be on account of

(a) Cash Drawer of the SWO is not updated at the time of Receipt / Payment (b) The relative transaction was posted twice in the Customer Account (c) Cash Drawer might have been updated more than once (d) All the above

45 Branches have to zeroise the ‘Batch Posting - OLRR’ BGL Account without fail on a daily basis by rectifying the failed batches

(a) true (b) false 46 Balance in CGL Suspense Account (1111111111) is reported through the daily EOD Report called

(a) Audit BGL Account (b) GLCOMP (c) GLCNTR (d) GL Status 47 takes care of individual accounts, customer balances and transactions. (a) B@ncs24

(b) GLIF (c) CGL (d) B@ncs linc 48 GLIF is an interface between (a) B@ncs24 and Finance1 (b) Finance1 & Corporate General ledger (c) B@ncs linc & Finance1 (d) None 49 The BGL account for System Suspense Account Originating Credit is (a) 98532 (b) 98533 (c) 98433 (d) 98432 50 is the sole source for entries into Finance-1 from B@ncs24. (a) CGL (b) Technical Suspense (c) General Ledger Interface(GLIF) (d) None


51. The Screen No or Transaction Code for ‘Create Account Prompt’ is SCR:_ (a) 002001 pmt (b) 002000 pmt (c) 001010 (d) i and ii above

52 ATM request and nomination should be filled in (a) Core options screen (b) Term Account options screen (c) Miscellaneous screen (d) Govt/PPF/Credit card details screen 53 While opening term deposit account for 5 ½ years the term is to be mentioned as (a) Term moths 66 (b) Years 5 months 6 (c) Either a or b (d) None 54 What can be Threshold limit for salaried person (a) 1 month salary (b) 2 months salary (c) 3 months salary (d) None 55 What is the Segment Code used to open a PPF / Sukanya Samridhi Yojna a/c (a) 0706 (b) 0306 (c) 5006 (d) 5050 56 “Type” code for General Account is: (a) 10 (b) 13 (c) 11 (d) None of the above 57 All accounts opened in core are recorded under the user ID of: (a) checker (b) Maker (c) both (d) None 58 What are the Account type code used for “SUKANYA SAMRIDHI YOJNA” (a) 1011 (b) 1101 (c) 5011 (d) 1311 59 What is the screen number used for opening of personal CIF (a) \\SCR:066050 (b) \\SCR:06001

(c) \\SCR:062001

(d) \\SCR:06050


60 ‘Interest Frequency’ while opening deposit account means (a) Monthly (b) Quarterly (c) When interest will be paid to the customer (d) Half yearly

KEY- CORE BANKING SOLUTIONS- 5

1 2 3 4 5 6

a a d a d d

7 8 9 10 11 12

c d a c c b

13 14 15 16 17 18

c d c c a d

19 20 21 22 23 24

d c c b b d

25 26 27 28 29 30

b a d a c a

31 32 33 34 35 36

b b d a d d

37 38 39 40 41 42

a b d d d c

43 44 45 46 47 48

b d a c a a

49 50 51 52 53 54

b c b d c c

55 56 57 58 59 60

c c c d c c


TECHONOLOGY PRODUCTS MOBILE BANKING

1. For Mobile Banking registration, SMS ‘<MBREG> has to be sent to

a) 567636 b) 9223440000 c) 567676 d) either b or c

2. Name of the Mobile Banking Software is :

a) State Bank freedoM b) SBI freedoM c) SB freedom

3. The catch line which goes with Mobile Banking is :

a) With you, All the way b) Your mobile,Your bank c) Bank with convenience

4. Mobile banking services as at present are meant for

a) SME customers only b) SME and personal segment customers c) Personal segment customers only d) C & I customers only

5. Daily transaction limit for fund transfer in Third Party accounts through OTP in

application based mobile banking is Rs -------

a) 50,000 b) 10,000 c) 25,000 d) 1,00,000

6. Daily transaction limit for Bill/Merchant transaction through application based

mobile banking is Rs -------

a) 50,000 b) 10,000 c) 25,000

D) 5,00,000


7. What is the overall monthly limit of transaction through Mobile Banking in case of application based mobile banking.?

a) Rs 2,50,000 b) Rs 3,00,000 c) Rs 3,50,000 d) No Limit

8. What is the next step after changing the MPIN for registration of mobile banking

a) Entering the CIF b) Answering a secret question c) register at ATM or branch or GCC

9. What is the number of maximum accounts which can be enabled for Mobile

Banking in case of application based mobile banking?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5

10. During (Prior to ) registration process what is mandatory to change ?

a) MPIN b) USER ID c) Both of above d) None of above

11. MPIN in Mobile Banking stands for

a) Mobile Banking Personal Index Number b) Mobile Banking Personal Identification Number c) Member Banking Personal Identification Number

12. What is the length of MPIN?

a) 4 characters b) 5 characters c) 6 characters d) 8 characters

13. Daily transaction limit for fund transfer in Third Party accounts without

OTP in application based mobile banking is Rs -------

a) 50,000 b) 10,000 c) 25,000

d) 1,00,000


14. Whether Internet Banking registration is mandatory for accessing Mobile Banking

a)Yes b) No

15. How many users can use Mobile Banking on a particular Mobile phone

a) 2 b) 5 c) 1 d)3

16. How can Mobile Banking Services be terminated?

a) Cannot terminate once registered b) Selecting the option ‘Deregistration’ in the settings menu c) Deregister through an ATM d) Both B & C

17. How many transactions of a account can be viewed in mini statement option

a) 2 b) 5 c) 8 d) 10

18. First step for bill payment through Mobile Banking is :

a) Add Biller b) Get Help c) Get Format d) None

19. Is registration of service provider mandatory for Mobile Top up?

a) Yes b) No

20. When is the request for Mobile Top up invalid?

a) Non existing mobile number b) Post paid mobile number c) Insufficient funds in your account d) Incorrect amount as per the plan of the prepaid connection e) All of the above

21. In case of Dmat account services available in mobile banking it is not possible to do one of the following

a) View last 5 transactions b) Request for DIS c) View portfolio d) sell shares


22. WAP stands for

a) Wireless application protocol b) Wireless added process c) Wireless arranged protocol

23. WAP based mobile banking service is meant for

a) only java enabled mobile phones which have GPRS connectivity for GSM

users or data connectivity for CDMA users b) only non java enabled mobile phones which have GPRS connectivity for

GSM users or data connectivity for CDMA users c) Both java and non java enabled mobile phones which have GPRS

connectivity for GSM users or data connectivity for CDMA users d) Neither java nor non java enabled mobile phones which have GPRS

connectivity for GSM users or data connectivity for CDMA users

24 In SMS based mobile banking the daily /monthly limits are Rs----.

a) 5000/25000 b) 1000/5000 c) 10000/50000 d) None of the above

25. For doing mobile top up through SMS base mobile banking what is not necessary

a) MMID of the beneficiary

b) Mobile no. of the beneficiary c) Service providers name d) Amount of top up

26 For funds transfer through IMPS in mobile banking what is not necessary

a) MMID of the beneficiary b) Mobile no. of the beneficiary c) Name of beneficiary d) Amount to be transferred

27. Full form of IMPS is

a) International mobile payment service b) Indian mobi payment service c) Interbank mobile payment service d) Immediate payment services


28. What type of transaction can not be carried out in SMS Mobile Banking facility?

a) Transfer of funds to other Bank Accounts b) Balance enquiry c) Mobile top up d) DMAT enquiry

29 App Launched by NPCI is a) PANDAV b) BHIM c) BHISHAMA D) ARJUN

30 . If already registered in other modules of mobile banking ,if one has to avail SMS Mobile Banking facility :

a) It is necessary to deregister in other modules before registering for

SMS Banking b) It is not necessary to deregister in other modules before registering for

SMS Banking c) USSD and SMS Mobile Banking facility can be taken together. d) Use Channel Change

31. In SMS based Mobile Banking

a) The messages are encrypted b) The messages are not encrypted; hence the customer is requested to

delete the SMS sent as they may contain MPINs. c) The messages are communicated in an interactive session as in the case of

USSD

32. Full Form of BHIM

a) Bharat Interface for Money b) Bharat Hindustan India Money c) Bharat Interface for Mobile d) Bilingual Historic Interbank Money transfer

33. Under BHIM App money is transferred with the help of

a) P A N b) A a d h a r c) Driving License d) P a s s p o r t


34. BHIM app supported by how many languages

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

35. Mobile banking through USSD can be done only through -----

a) Java mobile b) Non java mobile c) Any mobile

36. MMID is a ----digit number

a) 7 b) 8 c) 10 d) 11

37. Under BHIM maximum limit per Transaction is

a) 5000 b) 10000 c) 20000 d) 50000

38. Under BHIM maximum limit per Day is

a) 5000 b) 10000 c) 20000 d) 50000

39. Transaction rights to SME customers on mobile banking is available to

a) Partnership b) Proprietorship c) Company d) All

40. Through which of the following modes registration for mobile banking cannot be done

a) ATM b) INB

40. Through which of the following modes registration for mobile banking cannot be done

a) ATM b) INB

c)

Swayam

d)

Branch


41. BHIM app is named on the name of a) BHIM RAO AMBEDKAR b) PANDAV BHIM c) CHHOTA BHIM d) None of these

ANSWERS MOBILE BANKING

Q. 1 2 3 4 5

Ans. d a b b d

Q. 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. d d c d a

Q. 11 12

13 14 15

Ans. b c b b c

Q. 16 17

18 19 20

Ans. d d a b e

Q. 21 22

23 24 25

Ans. d a c a a

Q 26 27

28 29 30

Ans. c d d b d

Q 31 32

33 34 35

Ans. b a b a c

Q 36 37

38 39 40

Ans a b c d C

Q 41

Ans a


INB General

1. What does MIT refer to in case of INB?

a) Manual of information and technology b) Main internet technology c) Manual intervention transactions d) Manual information transaction

2. Which of the following requests through INB requires manual intervention.

a) RD issue b) DD issue c) Cheque book issue d) A/c enquiry

3. Profile password is set by the ---

a) customer b) branch c) CBD Belapur d) internet provider

4. Profile password is meant for ---

a) Login into internet b) Enhanced security c) Giving status symbol d) Increasing speed

5. INB customers can further enhance their security while doing internet transaction through ----

a) Secure OTP b) Having 2 login passwords c) By going to internet kiosk d) By a secret question

6. Mode of delivery of user ID and password for internet banking can be

a) Through dispatch from the INB dept only b) Through PPK directly to the customer only c) At Online Sbi customer can generate himself d) A l l

7. What does PPK refer to?

a) Pre packed kit b) Pre paid kit c) Personal pack kit d) Pre printed kit

8. Each packet of PPK has ----no of kits

a) 100 b) 50 c) 150 d) 2009. Each PPK has 10 digit numbers where the first 5 digits stand for the packet Serial number and the next 2 digits represent

a) Kit serial no b) circle code c) branch code d) account type code


10. Internet service provider for internet banking for SBI is

a) M/s Zee technology b) M/s Microsoft c) M/s Satyam(now Mahindra) d) M/s Infosys

11. Internet banking site of SBI has been certified by

a) Verisign b) Goodsign c) Satyam d) ISO 12. One of the following is not true about the security features built into SBI’s Internet

Banking site

a) It has 256 bit SSL encryption b) Provides for multiple users and user level security banking c) HPIN based password d) It has metal detectors

13. Transfer of funds in sbionline can be done using

a) RTGS only b) GRPT and RTGS c) NEFT, RTGS and GRPT d) ECS, GRPT and NEFT

14. Internet Banking site of SBI is

a) www.onlinesbi.com b) www.statebankofindia.com c) www.sbi.co.in d) www.sbi.org.in

15. PPK has to be claimed by the INB officer in

a) SBITIMES b) onlinesbi c) B@ncs 24 d) Branch interface

16. One of the following functions in respect of internet banking is not Carried out at

branch interface

a) Reset of login and profile password b) Re-dispatch of id password c) reactivation of user id d) removal of posting restrictions

17. Each transaction done through onlinesbi generates a -----digit number

a) 6 b) 7 c) 10 d) 16

18. When a User name gets deactivated it can be reactivated in

a) Branch Interface b) online sbi

c) B@ncs24 d) Sbitimes


19. The password of a user gets locked for a day on internet if entered wrong ------ times consecutively

a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 3

20. As per the bank’s single domain name policy branches/administrative units/ Application owners wanting to host their own banking site will register their transactional site as subdomain of www.onlinesbi.com and their Informational site as subdomain of

a) www.onlinesbi.co b) www.sbi.org.in c) www.sbi.co.in d) www.sbiicm.in

21. The recently introduced simplified branch INB role holding for small branches pertains to branches

a) With 3 officers b) With less than 3 officers c) Does not depend upon the number of officers d) None of the above

22. e-TDR/ STDR can be paid prematurely at RINB a) Ture b) False

23. Which type of services are not provided under RINB for ATM related services.

a) ATM card Blocking b) ATM card unblocking c) ATM Pin generation d) ATM Card Limit/Channel/Usage Change.

24. Demand Draft Request through MIT can be done only at home branch.

a)Ture b)False 25. e-TDR/STDR can be paid prematurely at 24 X 7 basis.

a)True b)False


KEY INB General

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

c b a b a d d a

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

b c a d c a d d

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

c a d c b a b b 25 b


INB General II 1. Maturity instructions are available in INB for

a) e RD b) eTDR/eSTDR c) both a and b d) neither a or b

2. Third party activation time for INB retail and Saral customers is

a) one day b) 4 hours c) 15 hours d) 7 hours

3. Which of the following facilities is not available for senior citizens in INB

a) e RD b) eSTDR c) Online savings bank account application d) none of these

4. i collect facility is now renamed as

a) State Bank collect b) corporate collect c) State Bank e collect d) electronic collect

5. Users can now check available user names at the time of -------

a) first login b) after each login c) anytime after login d) not available

6. DTH recharge /mobile recharge is done in INB through

a) SBI-Oxigen b) SBI-Oxipay c) SBI-Insta d) SBI-Recharge

7. The address for accessing INB on mobile is ----

a) https://m.onlinesbi.com b) http://onlinesbi.com

c) http://mob.onlinesbi.com d) https://m.onlinesbi.co.in

8. Onlinesbi facility on mobile can be used to make eTDR/STDR

a)True b)False 9. The facility for filing income tax return through INB is called

a) SBI e-File b) SBI e-tax c) SBI e- return d) SBI -saral file


a) 5000 b) 1000 c) 2000 d) 10000

10. TDS enquiry in INB is available for current and previous financial year a)

True b) False

11. Under International fund transfer facility in INB the maximum amount per transaction can be upto equivalent of USD -----

12. Maximum number of transactions permitted per month under International fund transfer facility in INB is ------

a) 5 b) 4 c) 6 d) 2

13. To be able to use International fund transfer facility in INB a customer should be maintaining an account for a minimum period of ------

a) 1year b) 6 months c) 2 years d) no minimum period

14. Minimum amount for which Virtual card can be issued is Rs-----

a) 100 b) 50 c) 500 d) 1000

15. Maximum amount for which Virtual card can be issued is Rs-----

a) 10000 b) 50000 c) 20000 d) 100000

16. No of virtual cards that a customer can issue per day is

a) 1 b) 20 c) no limit d) 50

17. Virtual card is valid upto -----

a) 48 hours c) as soon as transaction is done

b) till cancelled d) whichever out of these is earlier

18.

Virtual card is valid for use in

a) India c) Nepal

b) Bhutan d) all of the above


19. Login password has to be changed in INB every ------days

a) 90 b) 180 c) 360 d) as per choice

20. Maximum amount for which eTDR/STDR can be issued in INB is Rs ----

a) 99,999 b) 9,99,99,999 c) 99,99,999 d) 99,99,99,999

21. A virtual Card can be used how many times.

a) 3 b) 4 c) unlimited d) once

22. Under International fund transfer facility in INB the maximum amount per

month can be upto equivalent of USD -----

a) 5000 b) 1000 c) 20000 d) 10000

23. Under International fund transfer facility in INB the maximum amount per

month can be upto equivalent of USD -----

a) 20000 b) 100000 c) 200000 d) 240000

KEY TO INB GENERAL II

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

c b d a a b a a

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

a a a b a a b c

17 18 19 20 21 22 23

d d b c d c d


a) 09 b) 04 c) 01 d) 02

CINB

1. Of the following types of forms used in CINB registration one of them is not matched properly. Which one is it ?

a) C1 is used for registration of CINB customer b) C2 is used for registration of regulator c) C3 is used for registration of administrator d) C4 is used for registration of maker

2. Which facility under CINB be created in CBS

a) Khata b) Saral c) both these d) can be done only through branch interface

3. One of the following types of products is not available to CINB customers

a) Khata b) Vistaar c) Vyapaar d) Vistaar plus

4. In case of which of the following types of CINB products amount per transaction can exceed Rs 50.00 lacs

a) Vyapaar b) Vistaar c) Khata Plus d) Khata

5. Which type of CINB facility provides for enquiry rights only on all accounts across branches


6. In which of the following types of CINB facility it is possible to do full range of online transactions for corporates maintaining a/cs at multiple branches


7. The type of CINB product that offers only enquiry rights at one branch only is


8. The access channel that is set for a khata user in CBS is


9. A regulator’s role in CINB does not cover one of the following.

a) Over all control of internet banking system b) Implementation of security features for whole corporate c) Participates in internet transactions d) He can define which user can do what

10. One of the following is not a type of user that can be created under CINB

a) Developer b) authoriser c) Enquirer d) auditor

11. One of the following is not a feature of the facilities available under CINB

a) e-payments/e-receipts to and from registered users b) Bulk upload facility c) No check on access control and access rights d) Multiple level controls

12. A super enquirer is one

a) Who has unlimited power of transaction b) Who has unlimited right of enquiry for all accounts of the corporate across

Branches c) Who has unlimited power to control other users d) Who has unlimited right to set limits on transactions

13. One of the following functions can not be performed by the administrator

a) He can manage users b) He can modify access rights c) He can perform transactions d) He can reset profile/transaction password of users

14. One of the following is not true about the role of uploader

a) He participates in bulk upload of data as or salary payments etc b) He generates test file from the file structure set by regulator c) He approves the test file d) The setting up of uploader’s role is mandatory


15. One of the following is not true about the rules or operating instructions set by the corporate

a) They define the power of the executives of the corporate to authorize the

online transaction requests on an a/c. b) Each of the INB Rule authorizer individually authorizes the rule formulated at the

corporate end. c) INB rule authorizers approve the rules only if these are in keeping with the

Mandate or board resolution submitted by the corporate d) It is not possible to change the rules once approved even when the

corporate submits a fresh resolution. 16. One of the following is not included in the role profile of INB officer

a) obtains various forms from corporate customer for registration of CINB b) Creates regulator (for Vistar customer) c) authorizes various rules set by the corporate d) creates administrator for Khata

17. The CINB user/ users created at the branch level are

a) Regulator only b) administrator only

c) neither regulator nor administrator d) both regulator and administrator

18. The administrator of the corporate prints the following form for getting the

PPKs of other corporate users issued from the branch

a) form C1 b) form C7 c) form C6 d) form C8

19. The maximum amount of draft that can be issued per transaction in case of Vistaar is

a) Rs1.00cr b) Rs5.00cr c) Rs2.00cr d) Rs10.00cr

20. The preprinted kits to the users in case on CINB customer are given through

a) B@ncs24 b) Branch Admin Interface c) Onlinesbi d) Sbitimes

21. The facility through the Internet banking user makes payment after selecting the desired corp /Institution available under a link in the Internet banking website is

a) e –collect b) State Bank collect c) i collection d) None of the above


22. While Creating a Regulator /Administrator in Vistaar /Vyapaar the registration of the mobile numbers of the functionaries is

a) Mandatory b) Non Mandatory c) cannot be done d) None of the above

23. The E-Tax limit per transaction in the case of Vistaar is

a) Rs 500 crore b) Rs 50.00 lacs c) Rs 5.00 crores d) None of the above

24. The ‘mall on Mobile’ facility which permits the booking of Railway tickets and purchases on mobile is called

a) Grand Mall b) Ambience mall c) ngpay d) None of the above

KEY CINB

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

d c d b c b d a

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

c a c b c d d d

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

d b a b b a a c


CINB II 1. State Bank Collect is not available to which of the following corporate users

a) Vyapaar b) Vistaar c) Khata d) Saral

2. Ticket booking facility for Paramilitary forces through INB is called

a) INB irctc b) Raksha irctc c) Para irctc d) defence irctc

3. Which of the following cannot be done by Vyapaar and Vistaar users

a) ticket booking b)request for banker cheque issue c) request for foreign currency loan d) none of these

4. Form C7 a is meant for----

a) Issue of login password for corporate user b) Mobile number registration for corporate user c) Reissue of transaction password for corporate user d) Corporate user creation

5. Supplier payment under Saral can be done upto Rs-----lacs per day

a) 20 b) 25 c) 10 d) 5

6. Under RTGS/NEFT maximum transaction limit for Saral user is Rs------per day

a) 25 b) 15 c) 10 d) 5

7. The form used for mobile number registration of corporate users is -------

a) C7 b) C9 c) C10 d) C8

8. In addition to login ID and password what else needed By Corporate admin and regulator at the time of login

a) profile password b) Answer to Hint question c) sms based OTP d) none of these

9. CINB Saral is a ---------product

a) single user b) multiple user c) Minimum two users d)corporate desired number of users


10. In addition to profile password what needs to be set by the corporate user in CINB saral at the time of first login

a) Transaction password b) OTP c) Mobile number d) none of these

11. Acknowledgement to CINB saral user for PPK issued is given in form

a) C9 b) C7 c) C8 d) C10

12. Maximum limit for fund transfer between one’s own accounts in the same branch for CINB saral user is Rs----per day

a) 10.00lacs b) 12.00lacs

c) 25.00lacs d) 20.00lacs

13. Maximum limit for making tax payments by CINB saral user is Rs ------per day

a) 1.00cr b) 5.00cr c) 3.00cr d) 2.00cr

KEY - CINB II

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

c b d a b d b c

9 10 11 12 13

a a c c d


GCC/POS

1. The device used for doing GCC transactions is called

a) transaction processing device b) GCC device c) POS d) Remote device

2. Cash withdrawal through GCC can be done for a maximum amount of Rs---

a) 45000 b) 40000 c) 50000 d) 10000

3. Cash Deposit through GCC can be done for a maximum amount of Rs---

a) 50000 b) 40000 c) 25000 d) 100000

4. Which of the following is not a benefit of GCC to the branch.

a) Helping in gradually migrating inactive cardholders to ATMs & PoS at merchants.

b) GCC saves stationery/vouchers/cheque leaves. c) Avoids Voucher Ver i f ica t ion Report Check in g and therefo re , reducesBack-office workload on the Bank's Staff d) none of the above

5. Which of the following cards cannot be used on GCC

a) GRC b) State Bank Classic domestic c) State Bank SME insta Deposit card d)Credit Cards

6. What is the technical name for the bank that installs POS terminal

a) Aquirer b) issuer c) deployer d) installer

7. The transaction done through the card issued by acquirer bank is called

a) off us transaction b) on us transaction c) valid transaction d) real transaction

8. The commission charged by the aquirer to the merchant is called ----

a) GDR b) ADR c) MDR d) NDR


9. MAB stands for

a) Merchant acquiring business b) merchantile active business c) Merchant available bond d) merchant attractive bond

10. The service provider for our bank’s POS terminals is ----

a) M/s IBM b) M/sPrizm c) M/sHCL d) M/s Active

11. How many types of POS terminals are there

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 2

12. Which of the following is not a type of POS terminal

a) Ethernet b) PSTN c) GPRS d) DEST

13. Full Form of MDR is

a) Merchant Dedicated Rate b) Member's dedicated Rate c) Merchant Discount Rate d) Member's Discount Rate

KEY TO GCC/POS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

a b b d d a b c

9 10 11 12 13 a b a d c


ATM

1. State Bank classic debit card is a ------digit card

a) 10 b) 18 c) 16 d) 14

2. Daily cash withdrawal limit at ATM through State Bank classic debit card is Rs----

a) 50,000 b) 40,000 c) 60,000 d) 45,000

3. Daily cash withdrawal limit at ATM through State Bank silver international debit card is Rs----

a) 50,000 b) 40,000 c) 60,000 d) 45,000

4. Daily PoS limit for State Bank silver international debit card is Rs----

a) 50,000 b) 40,000 c) 75,000 d) 1,00,000

5. Daily PoS limit for State Bank classic debit card is Rs----

a) 50,000 b) 40,000 c) 75,000 d) 1,00,000

6. Which of the following is a eligibility criteria for issuing State Bank Gold International Debit card

a) Customers having Average Quarterly Balance(AQB) minimum Rs. 50,000/- in

SB/CA b) Depositors having deposit of >= Rs. 5 lacs < Rs. 10lacs c) Home Loan borrowers having limit of >= Rs. 10lacs < 20 lacs d) Car Loan borrowers having limit of > = Rs. 3 lacs <Rs. 5 lacs e) any of the above

7. Daily PoS limit for State Bank Gold International Debit card is Rs---------

a) 1,00,000 b) 2,00,000 c) 50,000 d) 5,00,000


8. Which of the following is a eligibility criteria for issuing State Bank Platinum International Debit card

a) Customers having Average Quarterly Balance(AQB) minimum Rs. 1 lac in

SB/CA b) Depositors having deposit of > Rs. 10 lacs c) Home Loan borrowers having limit of >= Rs.20 lacs d) Car Loan borrowers having limit of > = Rs. 5lacs e) Any of the above

9. Daily cash withdrawal limit at ATM through State Bank Platinum international

debit card is Rs----

a) 50,000 b) 1,00,000 c) 60,000 d) 45,000

10. Which of the transactions cannot be done through ATM

a) SBi Life Premium payment b) mobile banking registration c) SBI card payment d) none of these

11. Which are the associate banks where card to card transaction cannot be initiated but

payment can be received

a) State Bank of Mysore b) State bank of Patiala c) both these d) only a

12. The maximum limit for per transaction in case of ca rd to card t rans fe r through ATM is Rs----

a) 15,000 b) 20,000 c) 50,000 d) 40,000

13. Which BGL account is debited in case of amount disbursed to the customer without his account being debited?

a) 98783 b) 98581 c) 98782 d) 98582

14. A clean OD account should be opened when the amount disbursed through ATM is more than Rs -------and customer’s account has not been debited.

a) 5000 b) 2000 c) 10000 d) 3000


15. For payment of Atm compensation to customer the charges a/c that needs to be debited is

a) Charges (atm-Misc) b) Charges (atm -sundry) c) Charges (atm-complaints) d) Charges (atm-compensation)

16. Gift card issuance charges are a) 100+ST b) 200+ST c) 105+ST d) 205+ST

17. The National Financial Switch (NFS) promoted by IDBRT relates to :

a) ATM connectivity among banks b) Single financial software for all banks c) internet banking connectivity d) networked foreign exchange facility

18. Which of the following debit entries will be counted for the purpose arriving at the maximum no of entries in a half year in a SB account

a) Withdrawal through State Bank ATMs b) Withdrawals through ATMs other than State Bank ATMs c) Debit entries on account of service charges d) Transactions through internet banking of SBI

19. Charges for mobile top through ATM is Rs ---

a) 20 b) 32 c) Nil d) 44

20. Charges for replacement of ATM card are Rs-----

a) 102 b) 52 c) 202 d) 204

21. Gift Card Load/Reload Charges are

a)105+ST

b) 200+ST

c) 205+ST

d)NIL


22. Daily Limit for POS Transaction for Platinum Debit Card is

a) 1.00 lakh

b) 2.00 lakh

c) 3.00 lakh

d) 5.00 lakh

23. Ez-Pay loading charges through CINB/INB are

a) 1%

b) 2%

c) 3%

d) NIL

24. Charges for card less transaction at CDM are

a) 20+ST

b) 25+ST

c) 22+ST

d) NIL

25. State Bank NFC (Near Field Communication ) Card name is

a) Ez-pay Card

b) sbiINTOUCH Tap & Go Debit Card

c) SBI Wave Card

d) SBI Contact Card

26. In Contact less Card what is the limit of transaction without using PIN

a) Rs 2000/-

b) Rs 5000/-

c) Rs 10000/-

d) Rs 1000/-

27. How many contact less transactions are permitted in NFC card

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6


KEY - ATM

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 c b b c a e b e 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 b d c d b d d c 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 a b c d d b d C

25 26 27

b a c


SBI GREEN REMIT CARD

1. SBI Green Remit Card applicable for

a) Non-Home Cash Deposit transaction b) Home branch cash deposit transaction c) Both of above d) None of above

2. SBI Green Remit card valid on

a) GCC

b) CDM c) Both of above d) None of above

3. Which branches are eligible for extending the facility of SBI Green Remit Card

a) All the branches b) GCC enabled branches c) CSPs d) All of the above

4. To which accounts deposit the cash by using SBI Green Remit Card

a) Only designated account as given in application b) All the accounts with the bank c) Bath a & b d) Accounts of other bank

5. Process of issuing the SBI Green Remit Card

a) Card will be sent to the customer directly by the vendor b) Collect the PIN from Branches c) Issue Pre-printed card to Remitter d) Both a & b

6. The service charges for issuing of SBI Green Remit Card

a) Rs. 50.00

b) Rs.100.00

c) Rs. 200.00

d) Rs. 20.00

7. Document required for Identity proof for issue of SBI Green Remit Card

a) Passport b) Voter Card c) Driving Licence d) Pan Card e) Any one of above


8. Documents required for address proof for issue of SBI Green Remit Card

a) Ration Card b) Electricity Bill c) Telephone Bill d) Address proof not required

9. Transaction Charges by using the SBI Green Remit Card in GCC

a) Rs.1.00 Per 1000 b) Rs.1.50 Per 1000 c) Rs.2.00 Per 1000 d) As applicable to regular Non-home cash deposit transaction in CBS

10. Transaction Charges by using the SBI Green Remit Card in CDM

a) Rs.1.00 Per 1000 b) Rs.1.50 Per 1000 c) Rs.2.00 Per 1000 d) Free of Cost

KEY : SBI Green Remit Card

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. a c a a c d e d d d


Demat Account

1. ez-trade@sbi is a 3in 1 a/c because it provides an integrated platform of

a) TDR a/c, demat a/c, and online trading a/c b) S/B / current a/c, demat a/c, and online trading a/c c) loan a/c , online trading a/c , and demat a/c d) PPF a/c, online trading a/c , and demat a/c

2. ez-trade@sbi is provided by SBI in association with

a) Relianceinfocom, ICICI securities

b) SBI Securities and NSDL c) Online SBI and Master securities ltd d) SBI Caps securities limited

3. A depository is an organization which holds

a) loan documents in electronic form b) cash c) securities in an electronic form d) gold certificates in electronic form

4. A DP i.e depository participant is an entity which

a) acts as a agent of the bank and registered under companies act b) which acts as a agent of the Depository and is registered as such with

SEBI c) which acts as a agent of the RBI and is registered under FEMA d) which acts as agent for financing and registered as such with SEBI

5. At present the 2 depositories are

a) Integereated depository services limited and Reliance depository services limited b) Future depository services limited and Reliance depository services limited c) Combined depository services limited and Active depository services limited d) National securities depository limited and Central depository services limited

6.Maximum no of demat accounts that an investor can open with a DP is

a) unlimited b) 1 c) 2 d) 5

7. Along with proof of address it is mandatory to give -----for opening a demat a/c

a) mobile number b) Pan card with photograph c) asset statement d) Passport

8. Minimum balance of securities to be kept in demat a/c is

a) 5 b) 3 c) Nil d)1


9. The a/c opened by DP is given a number BO ID which stands for

a) Beneficary owner identification number b) bilateral ownership indentity number c) Balance outstanding indentity number d) Benefits outstanding identification number

10. One of the following is not true about Dmat a/c

a) In case of a joint a/c it cannot be operated on ’either or survivor ’basis as a

bank a/c b) It cannot be operated on Power of attorney basis c) Names cannot be added or deleted in a demat a/c d) Securities can be transferred to another account with another DP maintained in the same pattern

11. For delivery of shares an investor is given a DIS booklet where DIS stands for

a) Demand instruction slip b) dedicated investment slip

c) Delivery instruction slip d) dated investment slip 12. One of the following is not true in respect of DIS

a) If demat a/c is in joint name DIS can be signed by any of the account

holders b) DIS of another person should not be used as it will not be accepted c) It should specify the BO/client ID of the target a/c d) In case of exhaustion of DIS slips they can also be issued across counter to

the investor for immediate use.

13. For doing DP related work bank has set up a special cell which is ----

a) LCPC b) CPC c) DPCPC d) DAC

14. ez instructions are meant to provide

a) standing instructions to branches for transfer of funds b) instructions for issue of draft through onlineSBI c) online instructions for transfer of a/c

d) for issue of delivery instructions and pledge instructions through onlineSBI

15. To convert shares in physical form to electronic form ,investor has to fill ----- type of form

a) CDF b) DRF c)DTF d)CRF


16. DRF stands for

a) Dealing request form b) Duplicate request form c) Data request form d) Demat request form

17. When the names on the physical certificate and in demat a/c are the same but the

sequence is different, then while applying for dematerialization the investor has to submit---- form

a) Transposition cum demat form b) transfer cum demat form c) transition cum demat form d) trading cum demat form

18. An investor can do any of the following in respect of his demat a/c except

a) Freeze his a/c b) change signature in his a/c c) convert shares in electronic form into physical form d) deposit all his securities whether in single or different names in a/c in single

name only

19. ASBA facility through SBI online refers to

a) A simple online application for IPOs b) An application where only a lien for the given amount is created in the account.

Hence the customer continues to earn interest and his account will be debited only on allotment of the shares.

c) None of the above

KEY – DEMAT ACCOUNT

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

b d c b d a b c

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

a b c a c d b d

17 18 19

a d b


State Bank Anywhere 1. While blocking ATM/Debit card using SB anywhere, SMS is sent to which number?

(a) 5676791 (b) 567676 (c) 567667 (d) 5676719

2 . What is the name of Hindi version of “State Bank Anywhere”? (a) State Bank Kahin Bhi (b) State Bank Har Jagah (c) State Bank Jahan Bhi (d) State Bank Kidar Bhi

3 . Which of the following options is NOT available in Bill pay section of SB Anywhere?

(a) With Bill payment (b) Without Bill payment (c) Manage biller (d) Schedule bill View

4 . How to schedule bill payments in State Bank Anywhere?

(a) Scheduling of Bill Payments can be done on onlinesbi.com page only (b) By invoking “With Bill / Without Bill” option (c) By invoking “View Biller” option (d) By invoking “Scheduled Bill” option

5 . What is the utility of “Top up / Recharge” dash board of State Bank Anywhere?

(a) To top up balance in Prepaid / Wallet (b) To top up balance in credit cards (c) To top up balance in mobiles / DTH connections (d) a & c

6 . Using which dash board of SB Anywhere, we can do enquiry transactions? (a) My accounts Dashboard

(b) Banking Dashboard (c) Bill pay Dashboard (d) Top-up/Recharge Dashboard

7 . How to register for State Bank Anywhere? (a) By going to Branch

(b) Using to ATM (c) Using INB

(d) No registration required for INB users8 . In respect of ATM/Debit card, what can be done using SB Anywhere?

(a) Card Can be blocked (b) An account number can be linked to Card (c) Mobile number can be linked to card (d) New ATM card can be requested


9 What is the limit per day for Visa Credit card payment using SB Anywhere? (a) Rs.50,000/-

(b) Rs.5000/- (c) Rs.5,00,000/- (d) No such limit exists

10 . What is the limit for e-TD/e-STD opening using SB Anywhere? (a) Rs.50,00,000/-

(b) Rs.1,00,00,000/- (c) Rs.99,99,999/- (d) No such limit exists

11. What is State Bank Anywhere? (a) Mobile Banking Application (b) Internet Banking Application (c) INB & MBS Application

(d) It is a separate alternate channel 12 . Which one of the following is toll free number of contact centre? (a) 18004253800

(b) 18001801290 (c) 18601801290 (d) 18604253800

13 . How many transactions appear in mini statement of SB anywhere? (a) 8

(b) 10 (c) 5 (d) Mini statement option is not available in SB Anywhere

14 . Using Top-Up/Recharge option in SB Anywhere, the following cannot be done. (a) Mobile Top-up

(b) Prepaid card Top-up (c) DTH recharge (d) None of the above

15 . What is the limit per day for top-up of mobiles using SB Anywhere? (a) Rs.5000/-

(b) Rs.50,000/- (c) Rs.1000/- (d) No such limit exists

16 . “mPassBook” link is available in which dashboard? (a) Bill Pay (b) My Accounts (c) Banking (d) Top-up / Recharge


17 . What is the limit per day for IMPS transactions using SB

Anywhere? (a) Rs.50,000/-

(b) Rs.5,00,000/- (c) Rs.5000/- (d) No such limit exists

18 . What are the charges for using SB

Anywhere? (a) Charges as applicable to INB transactions (b) No charges at all

(c) Charges as applicable to branch banking channel (d) None of the above

19 . m-Pass Book can be maintained in case of following

accounts? (a) Loan accounts

(b) Transaction accounts including PPF account (c) Deposit accounts (d) All of the above

20 . What should be entered by the user while blocking ATM/Debit card using SB

anywhere? (a) ATM/Debit Card number

(b) Last four digits of ATM/Debit card number (c) Contact centre number (d) Nothing to enter, all details will be auto populated

21 . Which of the following options is NOT available in “Top-up/Recharge” dashboard?

(a) Manage Service Provider (b) Mobile Top-up (c) DTH Recharge (d) Enquiry

22 . Who can use SB Anywhere?

(a) All Mobile Banking Users (b) All ATM card users

(c) All Customers of SBI (d) All Retail INB users

23 . Which of the following options is NOT available in Banking Dash board?

(a) Blocking of ATM/Debit card (b) Request for cheque Book (c) IMPS funds transfer (d) Top-up of mobile


24 . What is the limit per day for interbank transactions transactions using SB Anywhere? (a) Rs.10,00,000/-

(b) Rs.50,000/- (c) Rs.5000/- (d) No such limit exists

25 . After successful transfer transaction, which of the following option appears in SB

Anywhere? (a) Option for viewing mini statement of account credited (b) Option for viewing mini statement of account debited (c) Option for viewing balance in account credited (d) Option for viewing balance in account debited

26 . SB Anywhere application can be used in following types of

phones. (a) Any phone (b) Java enabled phones only (c) Smart phones only (d) Dual SIM phones only

27 . Which one of the following is NOT a pre-login service in SB

Anywhere? (a) Locate Us (b) Offers (c) MBS Download (d) FAQs

28 . What is the user name for logging into State Bank

Anywhere? (a) User name of Mobile Banking

(b) User name not required as no registration is required (c) A new PPK will be issued by Branch for SB Anywhere (d) User name of Internet Banking

29 What is the name of mobile application for RINB

a) State bank everywhere b) State Bank Now here c) State Bank Anywhere d) State Bank Some where.


KEY – STATE BANK ANYWHERE

1 2 3 4 5 6

b a c d c a

7 8 9 10 11 12

d a a c b a

13 14 15 16 17 18

b d b b c a

19 20 21 22 23 24

b b a d d a

25 26 27 28 29

d c c d c


GREEN CHANNEL COUNTER

1 . The following is necessary for using the facility of GCC.

(a) CBS password (b) ATM pin (c) MPIN (d) INB password

2 . The following type of card is used for using GCC facility.

(a) ATM card (b) Credit card (c) Pre-paid card (d) All types of cards

3 . Why is the GCC initiative called the Green Channel Counter?

(a) Because the GCC name board is green in colour (b) It is just a name (c) The facility is paperless and eco friendly (d) None of the above

4 . How many bancslink windows can be kept open in the SWO machine to which the

TPD is attached ? (a) Five (b) Two (c) Only one (d) Any number

5 Using GCC, funds can be transferred to

(a) Another SBI account (b) Account of any Bank (c) Both (A) & (B) (d) None of the above

6 The ‘ YELLOW’ button in the GCC device is to be used

(a) To cancel (b) To enter (c) To go back to previous screen (d) To modify

7 GCC facility

(a) Provides human touch (b) Adds to customer satisfaction (c) Both (A) & (B) above (d) None of the above


8 After the transaction is completed in GCC, the customer is provided / will get (a) SMS alert (b) Receipt (c) e-mail (d) Call on phone/cell

9 For smooth running of GCC

(a) POS.exe should always be running at branch server (b) POS.exe need not be running (c) POS.exe can be closed intermittently (d) We need not do anything

10 The role of the Branch Manager in successful implementation of GCC includes

(a) Identifying suitable SWOs for manning the Green Channel Counter (b) Motivating the SWOs for successful implementation (c) Both (A) & (B) above (d) None of the above

11 Credit cards can be used on GCC .

(a) true. (b) false 12 The customer authentication is validated by in GCC. (a) ATM pin

(b) Photo ID (c) Left thumb impression (d) UID card

13 Latest facility introduced in GCC is

(a) Statement of a/c (b) Cheque book request (c) Mobile registration (d) e - STDR

14 In GCC, TPD is connected to

(a) CDC Belapur (b) Branch server (c) ASC (d) SWO counter

15 Which is the correct way to swipe the ATM card on TPD ? (a) The card is to be held right side up in such a way that the magnetic stripe is

facing towards right side (b) The card is to be held upside down in such a way that the magnetic stripe is

facing towards left side (c) The card can be held in either of the ways described in (A) or (B) (d) None of the above


16 The role of the Controllers (AGMs-RBO) in successful implementation of GCC is that (a) The controllers should visit the branches under their control and hold staff meeting

to explain the GCC concept and its benefits (b) The controllers are expected to extend all possible support and guidance to

the employees connected with the project (c) Both (A) & (B) above (d) None of the above

17 The role of the SWO in GCC includes

(a) SWO has to encourage customers to use debit cards in ATMs and at POS machines at merchant establishments

(b) SWO has to use the opportunity to interact with the customers for cross selling (c) Both (A) & (B) above (d) None of the above

18 When a customer uses GCC, the SWO will have an opportunity for

(a) Upselling (b) Cross selling (c) Both (d) No opportunity for both

19 State whether checking of VVR is required in respect of GCC

transactions. (a) No

(b) Yes (c) No entries are passed (d) Only counting required

20 The device used for GCC transactions is

(a) POS (b) SSKB (c) TPD (d) Smart card device 21 How many instances of pos.exe should be running at a single time in the branch

server ? (a) Two

(b) Three (c) Only one

(d) Any number22 TPD (Transaction Processing Device) used in GCC is similar to (a) ATM (b) POS (Point of Sale) Machine (c) Mobile Phone (d) None of the above

23 Besides migrating inactive card holders to use ATM, GCC initiative hopes to migrate

card holders to (a) INB (b) Mobile Banking (c) Point of Sale Machine (POS) (d) None of the above


24 To use GCC, the customer needs to (a) Remember his account number (b) Fill-up cheque book/withdrawal slip (c) Carry ATM card (d) Carry ATM card and remember PIN

25 The introduction of GCC facility

(a) Helps in migrating the inactive cards (b) Diverts the customer to INB facility (c) Diverts the customer to ATM (d) Diverts the customer to Mobile Banking Services

26 The ‘ GREEN’ button in the GCC device is to be used

(a) To cancel (b) To confirm (c) To go back to previous screen (d) To modify

KEY- GREEN CHANNEL COUNTER

1 2 3 4 5 6

b a c d a c

7 8 9 10 11 12

b b a c b a

13 14 15 16 17 18

c d b c c b

19 20 21 22 23 24

a c c b c d

25 26

a b


NEW TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS 1. When State Bank Buddy was launched. a) 01.08.2015

b) 18.08.2015 c) 18.09.2015 d) 01.07.2015

2. What is the Balance Limit in State Bank Buddy for Non KYC wallet

a) 15000 b) 5000 c)10000 d) 20000

3. What is NRI family Card.

a) ATM card Give to NRI b) Credit Card Given to NRI c) Prepaid card Given to NRI d) Sim Card Given free of cost by Bank to talk to NRI family members.

4. What is the Maximum Limit of NRI Family card At POS

a) 15000 b) 20000 c) 50000 d)500000 5. NRI or resident Indian applicant request a NRI Family Card through Internet Banking.

a) true b) false

6. What Could be maximum Balance in NRI family card at any point of time.

a) 100000 b) 50000 c) equivalent to $ 2000 d) equivalent to $ 1000

7. NRI family card is valid for

a) 1 year b) 3 yrs c) 10 yrs d) lifetime 8. NRI Family card can be issued from any branch. a)

True b) False

9. What is the minimum Top-up Amount for NRI Family Card.

a) 500 b) 1000 c) 100 d) no minimum restrictions


10. At which no Customer should send SMS 'BAL' to get Balance of account.

a) 1800112211 b) 9223766666 c) 9223866666 d) 9223588888

11. To receive Mini Statement of account customer should send SMS 'MSTMT' at which no.

a) 1800112211 b) 9223766666 c) 9223866666 d) 9223588888 12. To enquire abount HOME loan and CAR loan features customer should send SMS 'HOME' or 'CAR' at which no.

a) 1800112211 b) 9223766666 c) 9223866666 d) 9223588888

13. To enquire detail of services under SBI QUICK customer should send SMS 'HELP' at

which no.

a) 1800112211 b) 9223766666 c) 9223866666 d) 9223588888 14. To Register under SBI QUICK customer should send SMS ' REG <SPACE>

ACCOUNT NO' at which no

a) 1800112211 b) 9223488888 c) 9223866666 d) 9223588888 15. What is the name of BAR CODE based passbook printing in SBI. a)

SBI BAR CODE b) SBI BAR c) SWAYAM d) SBI QUICK

16. What is the full form of ASBA

a ) Application supported by blocked arrangement. b) Application supported by blocked amount. c) Application submitted by blocked amount. d) Application submitted by blocked arrangement.

17. What is the application which Bank has recently launched as E-wallet.

a) State Bank Buddy b) State Bank E-wallet c) State Bank E-purse d) State Bank prepaid wallet

18. What is SBI SMART

a) New Smart Branches opened by bank b) Application to be given to Young Customers below 40 age. c) Application used for stock trading d) Application used to transfer the funds without creating third party.


19. CDM means –

(a) Correct Deposit Machine (b) Cash Direct Machine (c) Cash Deposit Machine (d) None of above

20. State Bank Quick used for....

a) Early opening of account.

b) Quick Transfer of account c) SMS / Missed call base enquiry services.

d) New online application for recruitment of staff.

21. New Digital branches opened by SBI named as..

a) DIGITAL SBI

b) SBI DIGITAL c) Intouch d) Infocus

22. New application launched by SBI which contains Product enquiry & FAQs on products.

a) State Bank anywhere b) State Bank Samadhaan c) Intouch

d) DIGITAL SBI 23. What is the Balance Limit in State Bank Buddy for Full KYC wallet

a) 15000 b) 50000 c)10000 d) 20000

24. What Can not be done in SBI SAMADHAAN.

a) A/c Statement b) Housing Loan Interest Certificate c) Education loan interest certificate d) Fund Transfer.

25. What is STATE BANK APPKART

a) An Application bucket for all State Bank android based Applications. b) State Bank Online website for Retail internet Banking c) New Welcome Kit Designed. d) Application Bucket for all type of Loans.


26. SRGD stands for (a) System Requirement Gathering Document (b) System Related Gathering Document (c) Specific Requirement Gathering Document (d) System Related General Document

27. MOPS stands for

(a) State Bank Multi Option Payment System (b) State Bank Multi Option Payment Service (c) State Bank Multi Modal Payment System (d) State Bank Multi Option Presentation System

28. What are benefits of the e-Handshake ?

(a) Transparency and efficiency (b) Access to real time information (c) Cost reduction (d) All the above

29. EBPP stands for

(a) Electronic Bill Purchase & Payment (b) Electronic Bill Presentment & Payment (c) Electronic Bill Payment on Presentment (d) Electricity Bill Presentment & Payment

30. SBI e-Handshake refers to :

(a) Integration of the web-site of the merchant with our INB and / or PG or MOPS (b) Retail Internet Banking (c) Mobile Banking Service (d) Corporate Internet Banking

31. State Bank Buddy is a) Semi Opened wallet b)Semi Closed Wallet c) Open Wallet d) Closed Wallet 32. State Bank Buddy can be top up from a) Credit Card b) Net Banking c) Debit Card d) b & c e) All


33. What is the name of UPI app of SBI a) SBI e-PAY b) SBI PAY c) SBI u-PAY d) SBI m-PAY

KEY - NEW TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS

1 2 3 4 5 6

b d c c b b

7 8 9 10 11 12

c b c b c d

13 14 15 16 17 18

d b c b a c

19 20 21 22 23 24

c c c b b d

25 26 27 28 29 30

a a a d b a

31 32 33

b d b


MUTUAL FUNDS ASSIGNMENT- 1

1. SBI Fund Management Pvt. Ltd. is a joint venture of SBI & world leading Fund

Management Company SGAM (Societe Generale Asset Management) in the ratio of % and %.

a) 50 , 50 b) 40 , 60 c) 30 , 70 d) 63 , 37

2. All Mutual Funds must be registered with who regulates Mutual Funds business

in India.

a) RBI b) MF Regulatory Authority c) AMFI d) SEBI e) sets ethical, commercial and professional standards for Mutual Funds.

a) RBI b) SBI c) AMFI d) SEBI

4. Which of the following is not one of the categories of Mutual Fund?

a) Liquid Fund b) Debt Fund c) Multi Level Fund d) Equity Fund e) Sectoral Fund f) Balanced Fund

5. In an close ended Fund, Investor cannot units through Mutual Fund as these are listed in stock exchange.

a) book b) buy/redeem c) further invest d) choose

6. In an open ended Fund, Investor can sale/purchase to/from the Mutual Fund at all

times at a price based on .

a) Market price b) declared price c) Offer price d) Net Asset Value(NAV)

7. In the context of Mutual funds, a /an document is a prospectus in which

complete details of new schemes are declared.

a) Issue b) offer

c) Public issue d) Initial issue

8. Net Asset Value of a mutual fund represents: a) Assets/ Total No. of units of the Fund b) Market value of securities / Total No. of units of the Fund c) Market value of Assets – Liabilities d) (Market value of Assets – Liabilities)/ Total No. of units of the Fund


9. Which of the following fund does not fall under the category Liquid & Short term

a) Magnum Insta cash fund, b) Magnum NRI c) Magnum Institutional Income Fund d) Magnum Mid Cap Fund

10. Which of the following fund does not fall under the category of Debt Fund?

a) Magnum Income Fund b) Magnum Gilt Fund c) Magnum Monthly Income d) Magnum Balanced Fund

11. Which of the following fund does not fall under the category of Equity?

a) Magnum Index Fund b) Magnum Multiplier Plus c) Magnum Tax Gain Scheme d) Magnum Income Plus

15. Redemption/ Sale of mutual fund units would attract a Long term capital Gains

Tax of ……… % if they are held for a period of more than one year.

a) 10, b) 20 c) No tax d) 15

16. Magnum Gilt Fund makes its investments in ………….. Securities

a) Large caps b) blue chip companies c) Mid caps d) Govt securities issued by central/ state govts.

Key to Mutual Funds Assignment - 1

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Ans d d c c b d b d d

Q 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

Ans d b d d d c d


MUTUAL FUNDS ASSIGNMENT- 2 1. Which of the following is not the object of AMFI?

a. To promote interest of mutual funds b. To create ethical practices amongst mutual funds c. To regulate norms governing mutual funds d. To increase awareness of mutual fund

2. Which of the following is not a criteria for a sponsor of a Mutual Fund?

a. Net worth to be more than capital investment b. Sponsor should contribute 40% of net assets c. Sponsor should ensure that 20% of fund’s assets to be invested in sponsor’s

Company 3. The health of a Mutual Fund can be known from:

a.Offer document b. Annual / half-yearly report c. NAV d.Newspapers

4. In India, a mutual fund is constituted as:

a. Trust b. Investment company c. Company d. None of the above

5. Which of the following can an existing mutual fund investor sue?

a. The AMC b. Directors of the AMC c. The mutual fund/ trust d. The trustees

6. If a security is thinly traded, it implies that the security has not traded on any stock exchange for the last days.

a. 40 b. 15 c. 30 d. 60

7. Diversified debt funds are most affected by:

a. Reinvestment risk b. Liquidity risk c. Interest rate risk d. Default risk

8. The maximum load that can be charged by the Asset Management Company for paying initial issue expenses is:

a. 7% b. 6% c. 5% d. 8%


9. SEBI regulations for mutual funds came into force in:

a. 1993 b. 1987 c. 1996 d. 1998

10. Which class of investors is not allowed to invest in Indian mutual fund?

a. Foreign national b. FII c. NRI d. Indian resident

11. Mutual Fund Investors can address their complaint except to:

a. Consumer court b. SEBI c. AMFI d. Sponsor

12. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Gilt funds have the least credit risk among various types of funds b. Gilt funds NAV will not fluctuate irrespective of interest rate movements c. Gilt funds would not face the risk of default unless the Govt. defaults on its

payments d. Gilt funds are ideal for investors who look for highest safety of principal

amount 13. Mutual fund can borrow:

a. In order to meet redemption units/dividends or interest payouts b. For a maximum duration of 6 months c. Upto a maximum of 20% of the net assets d. All of the above

14. Initial issue expenses for an open end fund can be amortized over a period of:

a. 10 years based of WNA b. 4 years c. 5 years d. 6 years

15. Which was the first diversified equity fund in India?

a. Master gain 92 b. MEP 91 c. Master share d. None of the above

16. Which was the first Indian offshore fund?

a. India growth fund. b. India fund c. India infrastructure fund d. none of the above


17. Private sector funds were granted permission to enter the mutual fund industry in a. 1992 b. 1993 c. 1988 d. 1995

18. In the context of a mutual fund, a high portfolio turnover means:

a. the fund is very active in the market b. transaction costs are high c. a high risk is involved as per the investment objectives d. all of the above

19. The Mutual Fund Offer document as per trust deed is issued by:

a. AMC b. Sponsors c. AMC in the name of the trustees d. Trustees

20. The maximum limit of inter-scheme investments by a fund is: a. 5% of the NAV of the transferring scheme b. 15% of the NAV of the receiving scheme c. 5% of the NAV of all schemes of the fund d. 15% of the NAV of all schemes of the fund

21. The first non-UTI mutual fund was:

a. SBI MF b. LIC MF c. Canbank MF d. Indian Bank MF

22. Under SEBI regulation, a sponsor of mutual fund

a) Must contribute at least 40 % of the net worth of the assets management company,

b) Must posses a sound track record of over 5 years, c) Must contribute at least 51 % of the net worth of the asset management

company,

d) Both (a) & (b)23. For evaluating funds, the preferred benchmark would be the:

a) BSE Sensex b) S&P CNX Nifty c) BSE 200 d) S&P CNX Sectoral Indices

24. Mutual funds can be broadly typecast on the basis of nature of investment into:

a) Equity, bond, & money market funds, b) Equity, bond, & load funds, c) Equity, load, & tax-exempt funds, d) Equity, open-ended, & closed-ended funds.


Key to Mutual Funds Assignment – 2

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

Ans C C b a D c c b c a a a

Q 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

Ans d c c b b d a c a d d a


MUTUAL FUNDS ASSIGNMENT- 3

1. A mutual fund’s NAV is not affected by:

a) Price of the unit quoted in the exchange b) Valuation of fund’s investments c) Sale of new units d) Redemption of unit

2. The mutual fund trust is governed

by a) India Trust Act only, b) Indian Trust Act & sometimes also by companies Act 1956, c) Companies Act only, d) Companies Act & sometimes Indian Trust Act.

3. Which of the following is of no relevance in evaluating a mutual fund's performance?

a) The performance of the stock market as a whole b) The performance of other mutual funds c) The returns given by other comparable financial products d) The change in wholesale price index

4. Aggressive growth funds invest in

a) Less researched & speculative shares, b) Shares of blue chip companies that are recognized as market leaders, c) Shares of companies that produce defense-related equipments, d) Technology stocks.

5. Repurchase price of a mutual fund unit

a) Should be higher then 93 % of NAV in a closed-ended fund b) Should be higher than 95 % of NAV in a closed-ended fund c) Can be 96 % of NAV d) Can be 90 % of NAV

6. In the growth option offered by mutual funds, the number of units held by an

investor increases because of:

a) Growth in net asset value i.e. capital appreciation b) Reinvestment of dividend which is like compounding c) Interest received on the fund's assets



7. Index fund is expected to carry which of these risks?

a) Default risk, b) Sector specific risk, c) Share specific risk, d) Overall market risk.

8. A security is a “non-traded” security if it is not traded in the stock exchange

a) 45 days prior to the date of valuation b) 60 days prior to the date of valuation c) 30 days prior to the date of valuation d) 06 months prior to the date of valuation

9. Assured return schemes:

a) Are equity funds, b) Do not carry any risk, c) Are funds where minimum returns are guaranteed by the sponsor, d) Are schemes where maximum returns are assured

10. Which of the following is right? A mutual fund may not:

a) Invest in other mutual fund b) Invest in mutual fund schemes floated by the same asset management

company c) Invest more than 5 % of NAV of the scheme in unrated debt instruments d) Invest in unlisted shares more than 10 % of NAV in a closed-ended fund

11. Which of the following is true?

a) Sector fund is less risky than index fund b) Index fund is more risky than underlying index c) Balanced fund is more risky than gilt fund d) Money market fund is more risky than balanced fund

12. Turnover rates would be most relevant to analyze the performance of :

a) Equity funds b) Growth funds c) Debt funds d) Value funds

13. Because of the entry/exit loads charged by the MFs, the return on investment earned by the unit-holders:

a) Increases b) Decreases c) Is unaffected d)Sometimes increases, sometimes decreases


14. An asset management company & its directors must ensure that the investment of fund is in accordance with

a) Trust deed b) SEBI Regulations c) SEBI Regulations & the trust deed d) The need to furnish maximum returns of the unit-holders

15. The rate of interest paid by a company on debentures issued by it depends on:

a)The stock market situation b) SEBI guidelines c)The company's credit rating d) The amount of money being raised

16. A high turnover rate for a fund indicates:

a) High transaction costs b) Greater efficiency c) High returns to the investor d) A rising market

17. A sector fund is a:

a) Low risk fun b) Moderate risk fund

c) High risk fund d) Low-to-moderate risk fund

18. Which of the following transaction costs are not quantified in the offer document

a) Brokerage commissions b) Dealer spreads c) Custodian’s fees d) Registrar’s fees

19. Unit Trust Of India is a special mutual fund because

a) It was set up before SEBI was established b) It was set up under an act of a parliament & therefore enjoys special

status c) It is a public sector financial institution d) It is owned by RBI, which is not under SEBI jurisdiction.

20. As per SEBI, mutual funds can borrow for short term to the extent of

a) Total net assets b) 50% of net assets c) 25% of net assets d) 20% of net assets

21. A bond with a coupon rate of 9 % when interest rates for similar maturities are 11 % will sell

a) Above par b) Below par c) At par d) At a price which is not related to interest rates for similar maturities


22. Dated securities are

a) Bond issued by corporate with a specific date for redemption, b) Treasury bills with a specific date for redemption, c) Government paper with maturities longer than one year, d) Securities, which have no, risk whatsoever.

Key to Mutual Funds Assignment- 3

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11

Ans a b d a c b d b c d c

Q 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22

Ans a b c c a c b b d b c


SBI LIFE INSURANCE PRODUCT - 1

1. What are the riders offered under SBIL Smart Champ Insurance plan?

(a) Only Preferred Term Rider & Accidental Death Benefit Rider (ADB) (b) Only Critical Illness Rider & Accidental Death Benefit Rider (ADB) (c) Only Premium Waiver Rider & Accidental Total and Permanent Disability Benefit Rider (ATPD) (d) No Riders

2. Considering the death benefits available under SBIL Smart Champ Insurance plan which is the most appropriate statement?

(a) On occurrence of insured event applicable sum assured is paid as lump sum (b) All the future premium installment(s), if any, are waived off. (c) The policy continues to accrue bonuses, if applicable (d) Due installment(s) of Smart benefits are payable, Terminal bonus, if any, will be paid along with the last installment of Smart Benefits (e) All of the above statements are correct

3. Considering the policy and premium paying term available under SBIL Smart Champ plan which is the most appropriate statement?

(a) Minimum policy term in SBI Life Smart Champ Insurance is 8 Years (as policy term is 21 – Childs age at entry and child's maximum age at entry is 13) (b) Minimum premium paying term in SBI Life Smart Champ Insurance is 5 Years (as premium paying term is 18 – Childs age at entry and maximum child's age at entry is 13) (c) Maximum premium paying term in SBI Life Smart Champ Insurance is 18 Years (as premium paying term is 18 – Childs age at entry and minimum child's age at entry is 0) (d) All of the above statements are correct


(a) Insured Event in Smart Champ Insurance plan is death due to sickness, illness or accidental death (b) Insured Event in Smart Champ Insurance plan is death due to any cause or TPD due to sickness, illness or accident (c) Both statements are correct

(d) Both statements are incorrect



(a) Insured Event in Smart Champ Insurance plan is death due to any cause or accelerated accidental total and permanent disability (b) Insured Event in Smart Champ Insurance plan is only death due to any cause or accelerated TPD due to sickness, illness or accident (c) Both statements are correct (d) Both statements are incorrect

6. Considering the smart benefits available under SBIL Smart Champ Insurance plan which is the most appropriate statement?

(a) Smart Benefits consist of 25% of the basic sum assured and 25% of the vested simple reversionary bonuses paid at end of year after child completes 18th, 19th, 20th and 21st year. Terminal bonus, if any, will be paid along with the last installment of Smart Benefits (b) On happening of the ‘insured event’ there is an option for the nominee/legal heir, before the due date of the next installment of the Smart Benefits, to receive discounted value of the future due installment(s) of Smart Benefits including terminal bonus, if any, in a lump sum amount. (c) The option can be exercised by intimating the Company at least 3 months notice prior to the date on which the next installment of Smart Benefits is payable. (d) The lump sum amount will be equal to the discounted value of the future due installment( ) of Smart Benefits including the terminal bonus, if any, at a discounted rate, which will be 6.25% p.a. (e) All of the above statements are correct

7. Considering the paid up available under SBIL Smart Champ Insurance plan which is the most appropriate statement?

(a) Paid Up is not applicable to single premium policies (b) The sum assured of paid up policies will be reduced in the same proportion as the ratio of the number of premiums paid to the total number of premiums actually payable as per the term chosen at inception of the policy.. (c) Due installment(s) of Smart benefits, where each installment will be equal to 25% of paid-up sum assured plus 25% of the vested simple reversionary bonuses accrued till the policy paid years. (d) All of the above statements are correct

8. Considering the surrender available under SBIL Smart Champ Insurance plan which is the most appropriate statement?

(a) For surrendering a LPPT Policy SBI Life Smart Champ Insurance plan, 2 full years’ premiums have to be paid, for policy term less than 10 years (b) For surrendering a LPPT Policy SBI Life Smart Champ Insurance plan, 3 full years’ premiums have to be paid, for policy term 10 years or more c) Single premium SBI Life Smart Champ Insurance plan acquires a surrender value any time during the policy term. (d) All of the above statements are correct


9. Considering SBIL Smart Champ Insurance plan which is the most appropriate statement?

(a) Sum Assured is Higher of basic sum assured or guaranteed sum assured at maturity or 105% of all the premiums paid or a multiple of annualized premium is paid in case of unfortunate event with life assured. (b) Basic sum assured and accrued bonuses are paid in case of unfortunate event with life assured. (c) Both statements are correct (d) Both statements are incorrect

10. Considering SBIL Smart Champ Insurance plan which is the most appropriate statement?

(a) The bonus accrual period is the period from the date of commencement of the policy till the date on which the first installment of Smart Benefits is payable. (b) Simple Reversionary bonus declared every year as a percentage of sum assured. Reversionary bonus once vested (accrued) become guaranteed (c) Terminal bonus (if any), will be paid on death, maturity or on surrender (d) All of the above statements are correct

11. Which is the most appropriate option regarding the riders offered under SBIL Smart Money Back Gold plan?

(a) SBI Life - Preferred Term Rider (b) SBI Life - Criti Care 13 Non - Linked Rider (c) SBI Life - Accidental Death Benefit (ADB) Rider (d) SBI Life - Accidental Total & Permanent Disability (ATPD) Benefit Rider (e) All of the above Riders

12. How many plan options are available in SBIL Money Back Gold Plan based on the policy term?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) There is no such plan option available

13. In SBIL Money Back Gold which of the following rider are taken into account for calculating Sum Under Calculation (SUC)

(a) SBI Life - Preferred Term Rider (b) SBI Life - Accidental Death Benefit (ADB) Rider (c) SBI Life - Accidental Total & Permanent Disability (ATPD) Benefit Rider (d) All of the above (e) None of the above


14. Choose the incorrect option from below considering the Cumulative Guaranteed Survival Benefits being paid as per the term of the plan in SBIL Money Back Gold. ( 1) 110% for 12 year term (2) 115% for 15 year term (3) 110% for 20 year term (4) 110% for 25 year term

(a) Statement 1 (b) Statement 2 (c) Statement 1, 3 & 4 (d) Statement 3 & 4

15. If customer does not want to take survival benefit, can he take those Survival Benefits at Maturity in lump sum in SBIL Money Back Gold Plan?

(a) Yes (b) No (c) Can’t say (d) None of the above

16. Which of the following statements is correct about SBI Life Smart Wealth Builder? Statement 1 - Minimum and maximum sum assured for single premium is 1.1 X SP and 5 X SP respectively Statement 2 - All options of premium payment are available, i.e, Regular premium, LPPT and Single premium

a. Only statement 1 is correct b. Only statement 2 is correct c. Both statements are correct d. Both statements ate incorrect

17. Which of the following statements is Correct about SBI Life Smart Wealth Builder? Statement 1 - Maximum sum assured for LPPT for all ages of entry is 15 X AP Statement 2 - Minimum term policyholder can choose for single premium is 5 years

a. Only statement 1 is correct b. Only statement 2 is correct c. Both statements are correct d. Both statements ate incorrect 18. Which of the following statements is Correct about SBI Life Smart Wealth Builder? Statement 1 - Minimum regular premium in annual mode of payment is Rs. 30,000 Statement 2 - Maximum single premium allowed is only Rs. 3,00,000



19. Which of the following statements is Correct about SBI Life Smart Wealth Builder? Statement 1 - Partial withdrawal facility is available after the end of 5th policy anniversary Statement 2 - Surrender value is made available from 6th policy year onwards


20. Which of the following statements is Correct about SBI Life Smart Wealth Builder? Statement 1 - Only 7 funds are available on Smart Wealth Builder Statement 2 - Premium redirection facility is available from 2nd policy year onwards


21. Which of the following statements is Correct about SBI Life Smart Wealth Builder? Statement 1 - If life assured is age 18 years or more, death benefit is higher of fund value or sum assured less partial withdrawals or 105% of total premiums paid till death. Statement 2 - If life assured is age less than 18 years, death benefit is higher of fund value or sum assured less partial withdrawals or 105% of total premiums paid till death.

a. Statement 1 is correct b. Statement 2 is correct c. Both statements are correct d. Both statements are incorrect

22 . Which of the following statement is correct regarding SBI Life Smart Wealth Builder?

a. Guaranteed Addition for Regular Premium and LPPT policies is made as a percentage of one annual premium. For Single Premium policies it is a percentage of the single premium b. Guaranteed Additions are made for in-force policies on completion of certain number of years c. For policies which are not in-force but revived subsequently, Guaranteed Additions are credited on the date of Revival, provided all due premiums have been paid d. All are correct


23 . Which of the following statements is Correct about SBI Life Smart Wealth Builder? Statement 1 - Minimum maturity age for minor life in a single premium option should be 18 years Statement 2 - There is no penalty for policy discontinuance after 5 years


24. Which of the following statements is Correct about SBI Life Smart Wealth Builder? Statement 1 - For policies which are not in force, but revived subsequently, guaranteed additions are not credited. Statement 2 - The current minimum guaranteed interest rate applicable on the discontinued policy fund shall be 4% per annum and may change in future as per IRDA

a. Statement 1 is correct b. Statement 2 is correct c. Both statements are incorrect d. Both statements are correctk Gold (Answer Paper)

25. Which of the following statements is Correct about SBI Life Smart Wealth Builder? In case of premium discontinuance after 5th policy year - Statement 1 - If policyholder opts to completely withdraw from the policy then the fund value is paid immediately after the expiry of 30 days period. Statement 2 - If policyholder opts to convert the policy into paid-up policy then the life cover would continue with reduced sum assured.

a. Statement 1 is correct b. Statement 2 is correct c. Both statements are corrected d. Both statements are incorrect

KEYS - SBI LIFE INSURANCE PRODUCT- 1

1 d 6 e 11 e 16 b 21 a

2 e 7 d 12 c 17 c 22 d

3 d 8 d 13 a 18 c 23 c

4 d 9 a 14 b 19 c 24 b

5 a 10 d 15 b 20 c 25 c


SBI LIFE INSURANCE PRODUCT- 2

1. A month ago, Ms. Neeta had bought SBI Life Saral Shield plan for a policy term of 20 years with Rs. 20 Lac sum assured under Increasing Cover Option. What would be her effective sum assured at the end of 5th policy year? (a) Rs. 30, 00,000 (b) Rs. 25, 00,000 (c) Rs. 27, 50,000 (d) None of the above 2. Mr. Manish bought SBI Life Saral Sheild plan and had opted for regular pay Level Term Assurance four years back. Now he is surrendering the policy and wants to know the surrender charge & surrender value for it? (a) Surrender Value is 30% of total premiums paid minus the 1st year premium (b) Surrender value is 30% of total premiums paid (c) Surrender value in not applicable for regular pay plan (d) None of the above 3. What is the maximum sum assured that can be availed in SBI Life Saral Shield? (a) Rs. 24 Lac (b) Rs. 24.99 Lac (c) Rs. 25 Lac (d) None of the above 4. Which of the following option of risk coverage is not available in SBI Life Saral Shield? (a) Level Term Assurance (b) Increasing Term Assurance (c) Decreasing Term Assurance (Loan Protection) & (d) Decreasing Term Assurance (Family Income Protection) 5. Mr. Sharma had bought SBI Life Saral Shield plan for a policy term of 20 years with Rs.24 Lac sum assured and Family Income Protection Benefit. On 13th policy year, he expired. What would be the death benefit payable to his nominee? (a) His nominee would get the full SA of the policy, i.e. Rs. 24 Lac (b) His nominee would get a monthly installment of Rs. 10, 000/- for the remaining term of the policy (c) His nominee would get the full sum assured in monthly installments distributed throughout the remaining term of the policy (d) None of these


6. Which of the following statement is wrong considering SBI Life Saral Shield Plan? (a) Level Term Assurance - Maximum policy term of 30 years (b) Increasing Term Assurance - Maximum policy term of 30 years (c) Decreasing Term Assurance (Loan Protection) with single premium payment mode only (d) Decreasing Term Assurance (Family Income Protection) - Maximum policy term of 30 years 7. In SBI Life Saral Shield Plan, what is the discount given on female lives? (a) 3% of premium on Decreasing Term Assurance Only (Loan Protection) (b) 3% of premium on Decreasing Term Assurance Only (Family Income Protection) (c) 3% of premium on Level Term Assurance Only (d) All of the above are correct 8. Riders available in SBI Life Saral Shield Plan is/are? (a) Accidental Death Benefit and Accidental Total and Permanent Disability (b) Waiver of Premium and Critical Illness (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above 9. Shyam, aged 30 bought SBI Life Saral Shield plan for a policy term of 20 years with Decreasing Term Assurance (Income Protection) Option. It’s a single premium paying plan. Due to some emergency, he wants to surrender his policy. From which year he can surrender? (a) After 3 completed policy years (b) After 2 completed policy years (c) After 5 completed policy years (d) 2nd year onwards 10. In SBI Life Saral Shield, a customer opts for Decreasing Term Assurance plan (Loan protection Option) by paying a Single Premium, for a sum assured of Rs. 19 Lac. He also wants to add Accidental Death Benefit Rider. What is the maximum sum assured he can avail under this rider? (a) It can be up to the limit of base cover, subject to rider limitation (b) Any Amount as per the person paying capacity & worth (c) SP customers cannot take riders (d) 50, 00,000

11. What are the riders offered under SBIL Shubh Nivesh plan? (a) Only Preferred Term Rider & Accidental Death Benefit Rider (ADB) (b) Only Critical Illness Rider & Accidental Death Benefit Rider (ADB) (c) Only Premium Waiver Payor Benefit Rider & Accidental Total and Permanent Disability Benefit Rider (ATPD) (d) Preferred Term Rider & Accidental Death Benefit Rider (ADB) & Accidental Total & Permanent Disability Benefit Rider (ATPD)


12. In SBIL Shubh Nivesh the Deferred Maturity Payment Options: Statement 1: Can be availed at the end of endowment term subject to 3 months prior notice to the company Statement 2: The income payouts during deferment period, can be availed on quarterly mode if chosen by the policy holder (a) Only statement 1 is correct (b) Only statement 2 is correct (c) Both the statements are correct (d) Both the statements are incorrect 13. In SBIL Shubh Nivesh, if Endowment with Whole Life option is opted then: (1) The coverage under the plan will be till 99 years (2) The premium in this case needs to be paid till age 70 (a) Only statement 1 is correct (b) Only statement 2 is correct (c) Both the statements are correct (d) Both the statements are incorrect 14. In SBIL Shubh Nivesh, there is a discount on: (a) Choosing a regular premium with a policy term of 15 years or more (b) Choosing a higher policy term (c) Large Sum Assured (d) Women Life 15. Death benefit for Endowment Option in SBIL Shubh Nivesh is: Statement (1): Higher of Sum Assured (Basic Sum Assured or multiple of annualized premium depending on age of entry of Life Insured) + Vested simple reversionary bonus + Terminal Bonus (if any) OR 105% of the total premiums paid Statement (2): If Deferred Maturity Payment is taken, income payment will continued to be paid to the nominee till the end of the stipulated period chosen (a) Only statement 1 is correct (b) Only statement 2 is correct (c) Both the statements are correct (d) Both the statements are incorrect 16. In SBIL Shubh Nivesh, a person can opt for Endowment with Whole Life Option if the policy term is: (a) 15 years and more (b) 10 years and more (c) No restriction on term but has to choose at the beginning of the contract (d) 5 years and more


17. Death benefit for Endowment with whole life option in SBIL Shubh Nivesh is: Statement (1): Before the completion of endowment term is Higher of Sum Assured (Basic Sum Assured or multiple of annualized premium depending on age of entry of Life Insured) + Vested simple reversionary bonus + Terminal Bonus (if any) OR 105% of the total premiums paid Statement (2): After the completion of endowment term is Basic Sum Assured (a) Only statement 1 is correct (b) Only statement 2 is correct (c) Both the statements are correct (d) Both the statements are incorrect 18. Mr. Rahul aged 45 years, wants to take SBIL Shubh Nivesh with Endowment Option. What is the maximum term he can opt? (a) 10 Years (b) 15 Years (c) 20 Years (d) 25 Years 19. What are the income benefit payment frequencies available if the policy holder opts for deferment benefit under SBIL Shubh Nivesh Plan? (a) Yearly & Half Yearly (b) Monthly Only (c) Yearly Only (d) Yearly, Half Yearly, Quarterly or monthly as chosen 20. SBIL Shubh Nivesh, bonus will be given to the policy holder till the Endowment Term & not during the whole life cover period. This statement is: (a) Cannot Say (b) False (c) True (d) Insufficient Information

KEYS - SBI LIFE INSURANCE PRODUCT- 2

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. d c a b b b c a d a

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. d c d c c a c c d c


GENERAL INSURANCE ASSIGNMENT – 1

1. What is full form of PAI ?

a) Personal Insurance

b) Personal Assurance Insurance

c) Personal Accident Insurance


2. Group Personal Accident Insurance can be offered only to Account Holders ?

a) True

b) False

3. Maximum SI available under Group Personal Accident Insurance.

a) 20 lacs

b) 10 lacs

c) 15 lacs


4. Choose right answer ?

a) Individual Certificate of Insurance (COI) is provided to the insured by the premium collecting Bank/Branch.

b) Individual Policy of Insurance (POI) is provided to the insured by the premium collecting Bank/Branch.

c) Both d) None of the above

5. Choose right answer

a) Policy is on Floater SI basis

b) Policy is in Individual SI Basis

c) All of the above



6. Group Personal Accident Policy covers ?

a) Permanent total disability

b) Accidental Death

c) Hospital Expense due to accident


7. If customer wants INR 4,00,000 SI for PAI, what will be the premium ?

a) INR 100

b) INR 500

c) INR 200


8. What is territorial restrictions for Group Personal Accident ?

a) Within India only

b) Worldwide

9. Is there any Tax benefit under Personal Accident Cover ?

a) Yes premium paid towards PAI will qualify for tax rebate.

b) Premium paid towards PAI will not qualify for tax rebate.

10. What is maximum age allowed to take Personal Accident Insurance ?

a) 45

b) 55

c) 65



11. A person aged 35, drawing an Gross annual CTC of Rs. 36 Lacs. What would be the

maximum SI he could avail under Arogya HNI Policy ?

a) Rs.10 Lacs

b) Rs.20 Lacs

c) Rs.30 Lacs

d) Rs.50 Lacs

12. In Arogya Premier Policy, there is no requirement of Pre – Medical Tests up to

a) 55 years

b) 52 years

c) 45 years

d) 65 years

13. In Arogya HNI Policy the minimum SI available for a person with an annual CTC of Rs. 14

Lakhs is

a) Rs 10,00,000

b) Rs 20,00,000

c) Rs 5,00,000

d) Rs 30,00,000

14. In Arogya HNI Policy the maximum Policy period one can opt could be

a) 5 years

b) 3 years

c) 1 year

d) 10 years

15. First 9 months exclusion for Maternity expenses is applicable in

a) Retail Health Policy

b) Simple Health Banca Policy

c) Arogya HNI Policy

d) All the above Policies


16.The maximum age of entry for a Housewife under Arogya HNI would be

a) 55 years

b) 65 years

c) 75 years

d) 45 years

17.Pre and Post Hospitalization of 60 and 90 days respectively are applicable for

a) Simple Health Policy

b) Arogya HNI Policy

c) Retail Health Policy

d) All the above mentioned Policies

KEYS OF GENERAL INSURANCE ASSIGNMENT – I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. c a a a b b c b b c

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17

Ans. c a a b c b b


GENERAL INSURANCE ASSIGNMENT – 2

1.Maximum validity of cover note period is

a) 2 months

b) 15 days

c) 7 days

d) 1 month

2.No claim bonus can be allowed in renewal even after expiry of policy but within a period of:

a) 60 days

b) 30 days

c) 90 days

d) 15 days

3.Motor policy insures loss of :

a) Vehicle

b) Life

c) Interest

d) Vehicle & TP liability

4.After accident who is responsible for protecting the damaged vehicle?

a) Insurer

b) Insured

c) Driver

d) Surveyor

5.Please select the correct answer (Motor Vehicle insurance in India is Driven By).

a) IRDA

b) WC Act

c) The Insurance Act, 2000


6.IDV stand for :

a) Insured’s declared Value

b) Insurance demand value

c) Insurer’s declared value



7.No claim bonus discount will be calculated on:

a) Third Party premium

b) Own damage premium

c) Third party & Own damage premium


8.What is covered under the Own Damage section of Motor Insurance?

a) Injury to the Owner

b) Damage to the Car

c) Injury to the Driver

d) Third Party losses

9.What is the sum insured of compulsory Personal Accident cover for Owner Driver in private car policy?

a) 1,00,000

b) 2,00,000

c) 50,000


10.Legal Liability to Paid Driver is covered under which act?

a) Labour law

b) Product liability

c) Public liability

d) WC Act

11.How much NCB will you give to a person who has not claimed for last 3 years?

a) 20%

b) 30%

c) 25%

d) 35%

12.What is the maximum sum insured for Third Party Property Damage offered under the Private Car policy?

a) INR 6,000

b) INR 7,500

c) INR 5,00,000

d) None of the Above


13.Which of the peril is covered in motor insurance package policy

a) Earthquake

b) Fire

c) Burglary

d) All of the above

14.How many sections are there in Motor insurance package policy

d) 5 Sections

e) 2 Sections

f) 3 Sections

g) None of the above

15.Own damage is covered under which Section of the Package Policy?

a) Section II

b) Section III

c) Section I

d) None of these

16.Compulsory deductible is applicable to:

a) Commercial Vehicle only

b) Private cars

c) Miscellaneous vehicles

d) All the above

17.In case of double insurance with different insurers, which of the policies would be cancelled?

d) At the option of the insured

e) At the option of insurer

f) Any one policy

g) Policy commencing later

18.Geographical Zone for the purpose of rating is based upon:

a) Area of operation of the vehicle

b) Area of the insurance company

c) Location of R T O concerned

d) At the option of insured/ insurers


KEYS OF GENERAL INSURANCE ASSIGNMENT – 2

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. a c d b d a b b b d

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

Ans. d d d c c d d c


National Pension System

1.Who is regulating authority for NPS ?

a) RBI

b) PFRDA

c) SIDBI

d) GOI

2.What is the age of the individual for NPS?

a) No limit

b) 18-60 Year

c) 21-50 Year


3.What are the investment options available ?

a) Tier-1

b) Teir-2

c) Both of the above


4.Which of the following is mandatory account?

a) Tier-1

b) Teir-2



5. What is the taxation benefit u/s 80 CCD ( IB) for investment in Tier-1 ?

a) Rs.10000.00

b) Rs. 25000.00

c) Rs. 50000.00

d) Rs. 100000.00

6. Minimum contribution in Tier-1 investment in the year

a) Rs. 500.00

b) Rs. 1000.00

c) Rs. 2000.00

d) Rs. 3000.00


7. Tier -2 account can be opened with minimum of

a) Rs. 500.00

b) Rs. 1000.00

c) Rs. 2000.00

d) Rs. 3000.00

8. How many Pension Fund Manager available in the scheme?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 5

d) 7

9. Which asset allocation option available in the scheme ?

a) Active Choice

b) Auto Choice



10. In active choice subscriber can choose the option for investment in ------- funds

a) Equity Funds

b) Corporate Bonds

c) Government Securties

d) All the above

11.What is the maximum limit of investment in Equity funds in Active Choice?

a) 25%

b) 50%

c) 75%

d) 100%

12. How many time customer can switch his PFM/Asset allocation choice ?

a) No option available

b) Once in the financial Year

c) Twice in the financial year

d) Thrice in the Financial Year


13. Is partial withdrawal allowed in the scheme ?

a) No

b) Yes Maximum three time with gap of 2 Years

c) Yes Maximum three time with gap of 3 Years

d) Yes Maximum three time with gap of 5 Years

14. Lock in period of partial withdrawal in the scheme

a) 5 Year

b) 10 Year

c) 12 Year

d) 15 Year

15. After opening the NPS account customer will get the

a) Permanent Pension Account Number

b) Permanent Annuity Account Number

c) Permanent Retirement Account Number

d) Permanent Tax Account Number

16. On attaining the age of 60 Years customer can withdraw

a) 60 % of the corpus can be commuted/withdrawn in lump sum anytime up to the age of

70 yrs b) Minimum of 40% of the corpus needs to be invested in a ‘Annuity Scheme’ c) Both of the above d) None of the above

17 Before the age of 60 Years customer can withdraw

a) 20 % of the corpus can be commuted/withdrawn in lump sum b) 80% of the corpus needs to be invested in a ‘Annuity Scheme’ c) Both of the above d) None of the above

18. Can the customer open NPS account online ?

a) No

b) Yes


19. Who is the Record Keeping Agency for NPS ?

a) CSDL

b) NSDL

c) IDBI

d) PFRDA

20. What is the website address of NSDL ?

a) www.npscra.nsdl.co.in

b) www.cranps.nsdl.co.in

c) www.nps.nsdl.co.in


KEYS OF National Pension System

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. b b c a c b b d c d

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. d b d b c c c b b a


INFORMATION SECURITY ASSIGNMENT - 1

1. Who is responsible for security of Desktop/Laptop/Server

a) System Administrator b) User c) Department Head d) Security Officer Head

2. If a user requires any change in hardware or software settings whom he/she should

contact

a) IT Head b) Head of Department c) System Administrator

d) Supplier of Hardware/Software 3. Information Security is all about ensuring

a) Confidentiality of Data & Services b) Integrity of Data & Services c) Availability of Data & Services d) All of the above 4. To prevent unauthorized access while desktop is unattended, which measure is most

suitable

a) Shutdown the desktop b) Lock the keyboard/mouse

c) Lock the Desktop/ Enable the screensaver with password d) Power off the monitor

5. What a user should do when auto virus scan is affecting system performance

a) Contact the System Administrator b) Stop/Disable the virus scan c) Call the HW/SW vendor d) Remove the antivirus from the system

6. How can a user protect sensitive data on laptop in the event of loss of laptop

a) By creating hidden files/folders b) By enabling Boot level power-on password c) By enabling screensaver d) By using encryption


7. In the event of loss of laptop whom should be contacted immediately

a) Police station b) Controller & Information Security Department c) Insurance Company d) Bank’s Security Officer

8. A user should share password of his desktop with whom

a) Controller b) System administrator c) Colleagues d) A user should never share his/ her password

9. A good password is

a) Name/short form of name/initials b) Names of family/friends/colleagues/institution c) Combination of alphabets and numbers d) Combination of alphabets, numbers and special characters

10. Which is a good practice

a) Changing passwords frequently b) Keeping a written password somewhere

c) Entering password when colleague is watching d) Keeping simple words as passwords

11. If Internet is misused from a user’s desktop, who is responsible

a) The person who has misused b) The user whom the desktop belonged to

c) The department where the desktop is located d) IT-Networking department

12. Which one is not suggested while enabling a browser

a) Set browser security setting to medium b) Configure browser to remember web application passwords c) Enabling ID displays in web applications d) Maintaining history of URLs


13. If a users storage space is full in his/her mailbox, which one is not recommended

a) Delete old mails b) Download old mails in the machine c) Open a new mail account d) Request for increase in mailbox storage

14. A site address which starts with -------- is more secure

a) https:// b) https.// c) htpps:// d) https;//

15. Which of the under mentioned is a good practice to prevent revelation of sensitive information

a) Reading confidential documents in public places b) Working on laptops in public places c) Not answering to queries over phone to unverified persons d) Providing information to vendors/suppliers

16. Who is supposed to be responsible for application security in all activities related to

design, development, deployment and support of an application

a) Development team b) Information Security Department c) Steering Committee d) Application owner

17. Application should ensure that all transactions with financial implication should

have

a) One person as the requestor and approver b) Separate requestor and approver c) Approval of Systems and Procedure Dept. d) Approval of Information Security Department

18. Information Security Department is headed by

a) CGM Risk Management b) DMD & CRO c) Chairman d) GM & Group CISO

19. An application need not display which information, on completion of a successful logon

a) User-Id b) Date and time of the previous successful logon c) Details of any unsuccessful login attempts d) Name of the application


20. Who is responsible for selection of encryption technology for Data security a)

Head of department b) Head of IT department c) Information Security Department (ISD) d) Application owner in consultation with ISD

21. Internet access should be provided only for users

a) To send / receive mails b) With business needs c) To browse various sites d) To download files/data

22. The account and password for Internet access will be communicated to end user by

a) Head of department b) IT-Networking department c) Information Security Department d) System Administrator

23. Internet connection is enabled on desktop, which is not connected to the LAN in

Branch. How should the data be transferred between the desktop and LAN

a) By connecting the desktop to the LAN b) By using a modem for dial-up connection to the LAN c) By using removable media like Floppy/CD d) None of the above

24. Who is authorized to block ports through firewall

a) IT-Networking dept. as advised by ISD b) ISD c) Service Provider d) System Administrator

25. Which device should be installed to monitor the traffic from external networks

a) Switch b) Router c) Firewall d) Intrusion Detection System


KEY- INFORMATION SECURITY ASSIGNMENT - 1

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. b c d c a d b d d a

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. b b c a c d b d d d

Q. 21 22 23 24 25

Ans. b b d a d


INFORMATION SECURITY ASSIGNMENT – 2 1. When Antivirus installed in the PC while scanning the system is hampering/ slowing down your computer, You should

a) Stop the Antivirus Scan

b) Remove the Antivirus from System c) Install another Fast Antivirus d) Let the Antivirus work

2. Which of the following is an example of a strong password?

a) Password b) J*p2le04>F c) Your real name, user name, or company name d) sbi@1234

3. True or false: If you have a firewall on your network you don't need to turn on

Windows Firewall.

a) True b) False 4. How can you prevent intruders from accessing your wireless network?

a) Encrypt network traffic with WPA or WEP b) Restrict access to trusted MAC addresses c) Both

5. True of false: If you set your antivirus software to auto-update then you don't need

Windows Automatic Updates.

a) True b) False

6. True or false: Small businesses are not targets for hackers.

a) True b) False

7. What is "phishing?"

a) "Spoofed" e-mails and fraudulent websites designed to fool recipients into divulging personal financial data such as credit card numbers, account usernames and passwords

b) A type of computer virus c) An example of a strong password d) None of the above


8. Whit whom you can share your password?

a) Your Colleagues b) Branch Manager c) Accountant d) Password should not be shared with anyone

9. What method(s) can be used to protect sensitive data from prying eyes?

a) Passwords b) File permissions c) Encryption d) All of the above

10. How often should you perform an incremental backup?

a) Daily b) Every other day c) Weekly d) Monthly

11. The way I operate my computer affects other people.

a) False: Nothing I do on my computer matters to anyone b) True: My computer may disrupt services, spread viruses, or be used to perform a computer crime.

12. What are the possible consequences of someone breaking into my computer?

a) I may have files deleted from my computer b) I may have personal communications exposed c) I may have my network connection cut off d) My monitor may shatter e) My computer may be used to commit a crime f) My computer may be used to adversely affect the operation of my

neighbour’s computers g) All of the above, h) a, b, c, e, and f i) a, b, d, and f

13. You just got a brand new computer and it has anti-virus software installed. Is it safe to use on the Internet?

a) Sure. They wouldn't sell me something unsafe. b) No. I need to make sure both my anti-virus software and operating software are up to date.


14. Why might someone break into my computer even though I have nothing of value on it?

a) Because someone doesn't like me b) To use it to perform a crime c) Random vandalism d) For fun e) To use it to distribute pornography, music, videos, and software. f) All of the above

15. Are you free to do whatever you want with your network-connected computer?

a) Yes, It’s my personal computer and I can do what I please. b) No. I have to be a responsible member of the networked community and am bound by the George Mason Responsible Use of Computing Policy. c) No. I have to be a responsible member of the networked community, which includes being aware of the Wireless Network Policy. d) Both b and c.

16. Which of the following are strong passwords:

a) Administrator b) Bob c) My dog's name d) $jelF2bb

17. If you ever receive an unsolicited telephone call from someone claiming to need

your password, what would you do?

a) Refuse and report immediately b) Write the password on a piece of paper, put it in an envelope and send it by mail c) Tell him/her the password and change it the following day d) Send him/her the password via email

18. Which is the best way to protect the sensitive data in your computer when you go out for lunch?

a) Turn the monitor off b) Activate the screen saver c) Lock your computer with password d) Close all programs


19. Of the following choices, which indicates when it is safe to open a file attached to an e-mail?

a) When you know the sender, the attachment is expected, and it is not unusual in any way. b) When the e-mail is only sent to you c) When the attachment is not an .exe or .com d) When you know the sender

20. Which of the following behaviors are considered inappropriate use?

a) Sending email messages to harass or intimidate people b) Sharing passwords c) Sharing or using unlicensed, copyrighted software or multimedia outside their fair use provisions d) Trying to infect people with viruses or scanning computers you don't own e) Eavesdropping on others' activities by examining their computers or by using technology to access third-party communications f) Operating a computer with out of date operating software g) All of the above

21. When connecting your computer to wireless network you should:

a) Feel secure enough to send sensitive and confidential data, such as your

social security number, credit card information, password, or private

conversations.

b) Lose sleep wondering whether using wireless access will allow strangers to

login to your computer and the data stored on your hard drive.

c) Enjoy the freedom of connecting to the Internet without hassling with cables

and/or concern that the service provider will be billing your account for this

special service

d) Encrypt the information that you are transmitting over the network to

protect your data from being exposed to hackers.

e) Both c and d.

22. Which guidelines not to be used while choosing strong password? a) User own name b) User Personal Information c) Special Character d) Both a & b


23. Which precautions to be taken by E-mail User?

a) Ensure that your emails are encrypted when it travels over the net. b) Do not provide official email address in response to a website or

news group. There is a chance of your email ID getting in to wrong hands who can flood you with mails.

c) Never respond or forward a spam mail (chain mails / junk mail ). This will encourage spammers to send more junk / unwanted mails which will not only flood the network but also use up your system resources.

d) Never open/ respond to an email received from an unknown person / source. Just delete it. e) All of the above

24. Which precautions to be taken by Internet User?

a) Limit use of web browser for business purposes only. b) Internet access is not free. Excessive non-business usage of the

Internet results in real costs to the organization c) While visiting web sites for banking transactions / confidential information etc

ensure that sites use SSL technology. Look for the lock symbol on web pages seeking critical information- like name/password, credit card number etc

d) Always type the address on the browser to access a site. Do not click any link in email or other documents to visit a site.

e) All of the above 25. Which are the security features available in the CBS for user?

a) Capability Level b) Posting Restrictions c) Data Security d) All of the above


Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Ans. d b b c b b a

Q. 8 9 10 11 12 13 14

Ans. d c a b h b f

Q. 15 16 17 18 19 20 21

Ans. d d a c a g e

Q. 22 23 24 25

Ans. d e e d


INFORMATION SECURITY ASSIGNMENT- 3

01. Capability of any teller in the branch can be changed temporarily (i.e., for the day) in case of necessity by.

a) User Type with capability level 45 b) User Type with capability level 50 c) User Type with capability level 60 d) All a,b and c e) None of the above

02. Which is correct about Anti Virus

a) Ensure anti-virus is loaded on your system and updated regularly. b) Do not disable the anti-virus agent on your desktop. c) Do not allow use of external media like Pen Drive, floppies from unauthorized Sources d) All of the Above

e) None of the Above

03. Function of Information security Departments at Corporate centre are

a) Consulting b) Security Monitoring c) Compliance d) All of the above

04. ISC stands for

a) Information Security Council b) Information Security Corporation c) Information Security Committee d) None of the above

05. ISC at apex Level headed by

a) MD & GE (NBG) - Chairman b) MD &CFO c) DMD & CIO d) DMD &CCRO

06. Security incidents should be reported by Branch Manager to

a) IT-RMD through service desk b) Regional Manager c) Security Officer d) None of the above


07. Where is the facility available to the employees to report incidents related to information security after logging in with their PF Index no.?

a) In B@NCS 24 b) In Service Desk c) In EMS d) In Trade Finance

08. Possible incidents include:

a) Manipulation of application data b) Virus infection c) Change in your desktop settings d) Account lockout e) Violation of policy by others f) All of the above

09. What is the user type of Cash officer in the branch?

a) 40 b) 45 c) 50 d) 60

10. What are the security violations?

a) Connecting modem to machine without approval b) Sniffing on network c) Computer Impersonation d) Introducing Virus e) All of the above

11. Which register is used to record the detail of changes and amendments of user type, capability, user reset and forced closures.

a. User Control Register b. User Access Register c. Hardware Access Register d. System Room Access register

12. Which is not true about Bank’s Security initiatives in ATM

a) Bank’s ATM system is ISO 27001 Certified b) The physical security of ATM is ensured by access lock c) Any body can enter the ATM Kiosk freely. d) Once inside the ATM VSS and DSS records activity


13. Mobile Banking service may be deactivated from

a) ATM b) Branch c) Both a & b d) None of the above

14. Who is responsible for selection of encryption for data security?

a) Application Owner b) Head of IT Department c) Head of Department d) Information Security Department

15. Which statement is not true about information security?

a) Computer Security is part of Management’s job b) Report anything Suspicious to your system administrator c) Do not ignore unusual computer functioning. It might be a sign of

malware. d) Verify Everything. Verify who the person is on the phone. Verify that the

web is real. 16. What is biggest Vulnerability to computer information Security?

a) End Users b) Instant Messaging, Peer tp Peer (P2P) application c) Malware-virus, worm, spyware

d) Spam, Phishing attack

17. Where can an employee find details related to information security on our

intranet.

a) In EMS b) In Service Desk c) In SBI Times>Department>information Security d) IN Trade Finance

18. When the system inactivate the teller in CBS

a) If teller not logon the system for 5 Days b) If teller not logon the system for 7 Days c) If teller not logon the system for 10 Days d) If teller not logon the system for 15 Days


19. When the Employee retires, resigns, is suspended and removed from service, the user status should be

a) Inactivate at branch level b) Report to LHO c) Nothing to do d) Both a & b

20. What step should be taken for ensuring safety of server and networking

equipments in the server room

a) Access to server room should be restricted b) Two Air- Conditioners with timer should be installed c) Fire/Smoke detector and alarm should be installed d) All of the above


Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Ans. d d d c a c b

Q. 8 9 10 11 12 13 14

Ans. f d e a c c d

Q. 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. a a c b a d


INTERNATIONAL BANKING - 1 NRE ACCOUNTS

1 Who can open an NRE Account?

a) Indian nationals whose stay abroad is more than 182 days in the previous

financial year. b) Indian resident who have gone abroad for studies, business, profession or gainful

employment indicating indefinite stay abroad. c) PIOs (except from Pakistan) and their Spouse d) Officials of Central/State Govt./PSU serving abroad and persons deputed

abroad with international agencies like IMF & WHO etc. e) All of the above

2 The balance along with interest in NRE account can be repatriated with the

permission of

a) RBI b) Ministry of Finance c) Commerce Ministry d) No permission required

3 NRE account can be opened in the form of

a) C/A b) S/B c) TDR d) All of above

4 Joint NRE account can be opened, if

a) All the account holders are persons of Indian Nationality who have gone abroad for business, profession or gainful employment for indefinite stay

b) PIO with spouse even he/she is foreign national c) Only first applicant to be NRI and others can be a close relative in former or

survivor mode. d) All of the above e) Either of (a) & (b)

5 Operation of NRE Account by third party can be permitted by ADs

a) Under a Power of Attorney b) Letter of authority in the prescribed format c) Either of (a) or (b) d) None of the above


6 Which of the following credit transactions are permitted into NRE Account? a) Transfer from any other NR (E) account of the same account holder b) Transfer from FCNB of account holder c) Transfer of funds between NRE Accounts of different persons held with same

AD or different ADs d) All of the above

7 Which of the following debit transactions are permitted from NR (E) account?

a) Local withdrawal b) Transfer to any other NR (E) account of the account holder c) Transfer to FCNB account of the account holder d) All of the above

8 Which of the following credit transactions are allowed in NR (E) Account?

a) Proceeds of remittance in freely convertible foreign currency received from

abroad in an approved manner b) Proceeds of foreign currency/bank notes/travelers cheques etc. by the

account holder during his temporary visit to India c) Interest/dividend earned on Govt. Securities purchased from the funds in

NR (E) Account d) All of above 9 Which of the following debit transactions, ADs can authorize in NR (E)

account? a) Permissible investments in shares/security/commercial paper of Indian

companies b) Purchase of immovable property c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above

10 Interest rate on NRI is regulated by RBI

a) True b) False

11 Current income like rent ,interest,pension can be credited to NRE account

a)True b) False

12 ADs can grant loan to NRE for the following purpose a) Investment other than in Agr. plantation and real estate b) Direct investment on non-repatriation basis c) Acquisition of house/flats for their residential uses subject to FEMA d) All of above


13 ADs can grant FC loans to the NRIs minimum to the tune of Rs._

a) USD25000/GBP15000/EURO 20000

b) USD15000/GBP10000/EURO 10000

c) USD30000/GBP20000/EURO 25000

d) No limit

14 ADs can grant FC loans to the NRIs against their deposits maximum to the tune of Rs.

a) Equivalent to Rs.50 lacs b) Equivalent to Rs.100 lacs

c) Equivalent to Rs. 20 lacs d) No limit

15 ADs can grant to NRE account holders

a) Overdraft b) Demand Loan c) Either a or b d) None of these

16 If a non-resident account holder returns to India for permanent settlement, his account will be designated as

a) Resident Account b) RFC ( HCD) c) Either ‘a’ or ‘b’ d) RFC ( Domestic)

17 TDR/STDR under NRE Account can be opened for a period of :

a) Minimum1 year and maximum 10 years b) Minimum1 year and maximum 5 years c) Minimum6 months and maximum 10 years d) None of the above

18. Which of the following statement/s is/are true in the case of PIOs :

a) To Exclude Pakistan, Bangladesh for Bank Accounts b) + Srilanka for investment in firms; c) +Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, Iran, Nepal, Sri Lanka for acquisition /

transfer of immovable property d) All of the above.


19. What type of transaction is permitted by the Power of Attorney Holder ?

a) Withdrawals for local payments and b) Remittance to the account holder himself under a specific power. c) Facilitate investments in India in case NRI is permitted to do the

same d) All of the above.

20. What type of transaction is not permitted by the Power of Attorney Holder?

a) Repatriate funds held in accounts outside India for any other purpose b) make payment of gifts on behalf of the account holder c) transfer funds from the said account to another NRE account. d) All of the above

21. NRI/PIO may remit an amount up to USD one million, per financial year, out of the balances held in his Non- Resident (Ordinary) Rupee (NRO) account / sale proceeds of assets (inclusive of assets acquired by way of inheritance or settlement), for all bonafide purposes, subject to

a) The satisfaction of the Authorized Dealer bank, b) On production of an undertaking by the remitter, c) Certificate by a Chartered Accountant in the formats prescribed by CBDT d) All of the above.

22. ADs can grant loans in Indian Rupees to the NRIs against their NRE/FCNB

deposits maximum to the tune of Rs.

a) Equivalent to Rs.50 lacs b) Equivalent to Rs.100 lacs

c) Equivalent to Rs. 20 lacs d) No limit 23. For which nationality has RBI recently allowed opening of NRO account

without seeking prior permission

a) Bangladesh b) Pakistan c) both d) neither

24. Maximum amount that can be transferred from NRO account to NRE account is

USD -------

a) Nil b)1Million c) 100Million d)20Million


KEY- INTERNATIONAL BANKING - 1

1 d 7 d 13 a 19 d

2 d 8 d 14 d 20 d

3 d 9 c 15 c 21 d

4 d 10 b 16 c 22 d

5 c 11 a 17 a 23 a

6 d 12 d 18 d 24 b


International Banking ASSIGNMENT – 2

1 NRI returning to India, can open account in foreign currency

a) NRE b) NRO c) RFC (HCD) d) All of above

2 Resident Foreign Currency (Home Coming Deposit) account can be opened in our bank in only

a) Rupees b) USD c) GBP,USD,EURO d) EURO

3 The minimum deposit in USD under RFC (HCD) is

a) 1000 b) 2000 c) 3000 d) 5000

4 RFC (HCD) account can be opened as account

a) S/B b) C/A c) TDR d) All of above

5 RFC (HCD) account can be maintained in name of returning Indians

a) Returning Indian who has been NRI for minimum one year. b) Joint (Both returning Indians to be eligible) c) jointly with resident close relative on former or survivor basis d) all the above

6 Advance value (In Rs.) is calculated at rate in case of sanctioning rupee

loan against balance held in RFC (HCD) account

a) Notional b) TT Selling c) TT Buying d) FCTC buying

7 RFC (HCD) scheme replaced the earlier scheme

a) NRE b) NRO c) FCNR (B) d) RIFEE

8 Depositor on attaining the status of NRI again, would be eligible to transfer the balances of RFC (HCD) account to account

a) NRE b) FCNR (B) c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of above


9 Balances under RFC (HCD) are exempted from requirements

a) CRR b) SLR c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of above

10 Tax on interest income from RFC (HCD) is exempted till NRI remains

a) Resident but not ordinarily resident

b) NRI c) PIO d) None of above

11 A person resident in India may open an account in foreign currency under

scheme

a) Resident Foreign Currency (Home Coming Deposit) b) Resident Foreign Currency (Domestic) c) Either of (a) or (b) d) None of above

12 Accounts under RFC (Domestic) will be opened as

a) S/B b) C/A c) TDR d) STDR

13 The account under RFC (Domestic) can be maintained in currencies only

a) USD, GBP, EURO b) USD, JPY, GBP c) EURO, USD, JPY d) GBP, EURO, JPY

14 The minimum balance required for opening the account under RFC

(Domestic) scheme in USD and EURO currencies is

a) 250 b) 500 c) 750 d) 1000

15 The minimum balance required for opening the account under RFC (Domestic) scheme in GBP currency is

a) 250 b) 500 c) 750 d) 1000

16 Under RFC (Domestic) Account, the maximum balance in the designated currencies can be upto a) 100000 b) 200000 c) 500000 d) No limit


17 The balances of all the accounts opened under RFC (Domestic) scheme will be classified in segment

a) IB b) C&I c) P d) DBD

18 The transactions under RFC (Domestic) account will be at rate

a) TT Selling b) Fixed Notional c) TT Buying d) FCTC buying

19 A small legend “_ ” is branded on the reverse of each cheque of the cheque book issued to the account holder of RFC (Domestic)

a) Name b) Purpose c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of above

20 Consequent upon change of status from resident to non-resident, the balances in RFC (Domestic) account can be transferred to account

a) NRO b) NRE c) FCNR (B) d) Both (b) & (c)

KEY INTERNATIONAL BANKING - 2

1 c 6 a 11 b 16 d

2 c 7 d 12 b 17 c

3 a 8 c 13 a 18 b

4 c 9 c 14 b 19 b

5 d 10 a 15 a 20 d


INTERNATIONAL BANKING ASSIGNMENT – 3

1. Unspent foreign exchange is to be submitted within ------days of return

a) 180 b) 90 c) 270 d) 360

2. What is the maximum limit upto which a resident can retain foreign currency notes ?

a) USD 1000 b) USD 5000 c) USD 2000 d) No limit

3. What is the maximum limit upto which a resident can retain foreign currency coins?

a) USD 1000 b) USD 5000 c) USD 10000 d) No limit

4. Name the card of our bank that offers freedom to shop anywhere in the world?

a) SME Credit Card b) Kisan Gold Card c) SBIVishwa Yatra Foreign Travel Card d) Artisan Credit Card

5. VYFTC was first issued in the year

a) 2004 b) 2005 c) 2006 d) 2002

6. SBI Vishwa Yatra Card can be used at

a) Visa Electron merchant establishments worldwide b) Visa Electron merchant establishments worldwide (ex. Nepal/

Bhutan) c) Visa ATMs worldwide. d) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ e) Both ‘b’ & ‘c’

7. SBI Vishwa Yatra Card can be issued in which currency?

a) USD b) GBP c) Euro d) All of above

8. What is the minimum amount for which Vishwa Yatra Card can be initially loaded?

a) USD 200 b) 250 GBP, 400 EURO and USD 500 c) USD 1000 d) USD 10000


9. What is the maximum amount for which Vishwa Yatra Card can be issued

a) USD 100 b) USD 500 c) USD 1000 d) GBP & EURO equivalent of USD 10000

10. Which rate will be applied while selling Vishwa Yatra Card?

a) TT Selling b) Bill Selling c) TT Buying d) TC Buying

11. Which rates will be applied for purchasing the unspent balance in Vishwa Yatra Card?

a) Bill Buying b) Bill Selling c) TT Buying d) TC Buying

12. No of add on cards that can be issued on one SBVYFTC is

a) 3 b) 5 c) 2 d) 7

13. Under Liberalised Remittance Scheme of RBI, resident individuals can remit upto USD per financial year

a) 5000 b) 15000 c) 200000 d) 35000

14. For availing the facility of Liberalised Remittance Scheme, the resident individual must have maintained the account with the bank for a minimum of years

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5

15. A person going to Bhutan or Nepal cannot take Indian rupees in denomination exceeding Rs-----

a) 100 b) 500 c) 50 d) No such restriction

16. VYFTC cannot be issued in which of the following currencies -----

a) SAR b) SGD c) NZD d) AUD


17. What is the minimum reload amount for SBIVishwa Yatra Foreign Travel Card in GBP?

a) 120 b) 125 c) 250 d) 200

18. What is the minimum load amount for SB Vishwa Yatra Foreign Travel Card in Euro?

a) 120 b) 150 c) 250 d) 100

KEY - INTERNATIONAL BANKING - 3

1 a 6 e 11 a 16 c

2 c 7 d 12 c 17 a

3 d 8 a 13 c 18 b

4 c 9 d 14 a

5 a 10 b 15 a



LETTER OF CREDIT

1 Letter of Credit are subject to various articles of

a) N.I.Act b) UCPDC 600 c) Company’s Act d) None of above

2 In case of Letter of Credit, opening bank provides

a) Cash Credit b) Term Loan c) Undertaking to pay d) Bank Guarantee

3 The beneficiary under a letter of credit is

a) the bank opening the credit b) the customer of the opening bank c) the confirming bank d) the exporter

4 A complying presentation is one which is in accordance with

a) the Letter of credit b) the instructions of the bank c) the Advising bank’s instruction d) Sale contract

5 Which type of L C was removed from UCP 600 ?

a) Confirmed L C c) Green Clause LC

b) Revolving LC d) Revocable LC

6

UCP rules are framed by

a) ICC c) WTO

b) UNO d) G 7 Countries

8 Red Clause Letter of Credit refers to special clause authorizing for

a) Transfer b) Renewal without amendment c) Advance to beneficiary upto shipment d) Advance to beneficiary before shipment

9 CIF stands for

a) Cost, insurance,and freight b) Carriage Inward freight c) Cost inland freight d) Carriage inland forwarded


10 Back to Back Letter of Credit refers to special clause that L/C is issued

a) Transferability b) On security of another L/C c) Renewal d) Advance to beneficiary upto shipment

11 RBI approval for opening the Letter of Credit is to obtained if the tenor of Bills of Exchange exceeds days from the date of Bill of Lading

a) 60 b) 90 c) 180 d) 360

12 Import Letter of Credit opened is advised and restricted for negotiation to _

a) Our Foreign Office b) Banks with agency arrangements c) GMU Kolkatta d) None of above

13 The terms of an irrevocable Letter of Credit can be amended if agree

a) Beneficiary b) Applicant c) Opening Bank d) All of above

14 If documents are not received within days after validity date, the documentary credit will be deemed as expired

a) 15 days b) One month c) Two months d) Six months

14 Under UCP 600 the phrase ‘Reasonable time’ of UCP 500 was substituted with

a) 5 days b) 7 banking days c) 5 banking days d) 10 days

15 Back-to-Back LC is issued to a)

Importer Customer b) Exporter Customer c) Exporter Customer who has received Export LC d) None of these

16 A confirming bank undertakes to honour a complying presentation

a) True b) False

17 Incoterms cover

a) ownership and transfer rights b) Contracts of carriage c) rights and obligations of parties to contract of sales d) none of these


18 The price quoted by the seller for the product

a) will vary depending upon the incoterm chosen b) is irrespective of incoterm c) will be the base price; the effect of incoterm to be added later d) none of these

19 UCPDC had been first brought out by ICC in the year

a) 1919 b) 1933

b) 1975 c) 2007

20 In a letter of credit, the advising Bank is responsible for

a) Financial standing of the issuing bank

b) Financial standing of the applicant c) Payment of the LC amount d) Authenticity of the LC

KEY - INTERNATIONAL BANKING - 4 LETTER OF CREDIT

1 b 6 a 11 b 16 a

2 c 7 d 12 d 17 c

3 d 8 a 13 b 18 a

4 a 9 b 14 c 19 b

5 d 10 c 15 c 20 d



1. The normal time limit for settlement of import payment is------ from the date of shipment

a) 30 days b) 6 months c) 21 days d) None of above

2. Consolidated statement of Trade Credits is submitted to RBI at----- intervals

a) Fortnightly b) Monthly c) Quarterly d) Half yearly

3. Documents evidencing import are to be preserved for ---- period from the date of verification, except cases under investigation

a) 2 years b) 1 year c) 3 years d) Not required

4. Non submission of evidence of import by the importers is to submitted to RBI in------return

a) XOS b) ENC c) BEF d) STAT

5. Non submission of evidence of import ,upto 6 months from the date of shipment, by the importers is to submitted to RBI at half yearly intervals ( June/ Dec.) in the case of imports exceeding USD----or its equivalent

a) USD 25000 b) USD 100,000 c) USD 50000 d) None of these

6. Evidence of import/ Bill of Entry is to be submitted by the importer within a period of----from the date of remittance

a) 21 days b) 3 months c) 30 days d) 6 months

7. Fully utilized Exchange Control Copy of Import Licence is to be retained by-

a) RBI b) Importer c) AD d) DGFT


USD100,000

a) RBI c) M.O.F., Govt of India

b) d)

DGFT AD

8. For advance remittance exceeding USD-----in the case of importer other than a PSU/Deptt./ Undertaking of Central / State Govt irrevocable LC will be required

a) USD250,000 b) USD500,000 c) USD200,000 d) USD100,000

9. AD’s to permit advance payment in the case of a PSU/Deptt./ Undertaking of Central / State Govt for import of goods without insisting upon a bank guarantee up to-----

a) USD250,000 b) USD500,000 c) USD 200,000 d) USD100,000

10. If a PSU/Deptt./ Undertaking of Central / State Govt. is not in a position to obtain a guarantee from the international bank of repute, it is required to seek specific waiver for the BG from if the advance remittance exceeds

11. Advance remittance permissible for import of services without BG is for-----

a) USD25,000 b) USD500,000 c) USD50,000 d) USD100,000

12. Remittances against import of books can be received within a period of------ provided interest payment , if any , is as per instruction in this regard

a) 12 months b) 3 months c) No time limit d) 6 months

13. A no-objection certificate, Chartered Accountant’s certificate, Certificate of payment of I.T. are required for remittance against

a) Import under penalty b) Replacement import c) Import of films on lease/ rental basis d) Import of Aircraft/ Aircraft engine/ Helicopter on lease basis

14. Non submission of evidence of import by the importers in the case of imports up to

USD 100,000 is to be followed up with the importer as under:

a)Not required to be followed as per RBI guidelines b)To be followed as per Bank’s internal guidelines c) Both (a) & (b) are applicable


15. Which is not applicable in case of Diamond Dollar Account

a) Customer to have good track record of 3 years and average annual

turnover of Rs. 5 crores or above during 3 preceding licensing years b) Customer to apply through AD to RBI for approval c) Customer can have only max. 5 accounts d) Only a & b applicable e) All are applicable

16. When the imports are made in non- physical form, a certificate from------would serve

the purpose of import evidence

a)Chartered Accountant b) RBI c) Authorised dealer d) Exporter

17. ADs can make remittance to overseas suppliers where the documents have been directly received by the importer provided the value of import bill does not exceed USD-----

a) 3,00,000 b) 1,00,000 c) 5,00,000 d) 10,00,000

18. Import licenses are normally issued for the ------ value of the goods to imported

a) FOB b) CIF c) Insured d) None of the above

19. In case of postal imports importer has to submit

a) Postal appraisal form b) Custom assessment certificate c) either of these

d) neither of these

20.LC calls for ‘clean on board’ B/L. The B/L submitted has notation ‘on board’ without mentioning ‘clean’. Can the B/L be accepted as non-discrepant?

a) Yes b) No


KEY INTERNATIONAL BANKING - 5

1 b 6 b 11 b 16 a

2 b 7 c 12 c 17 a

3 b 8 c 13 c 18 b

4 c 9 d 14 c 19 c

5 b 10 c 15 e 20 b


INTERNATIONAL BANKINGASSIGNMENT – 6 COLLECTIONS

1. Documentary collections are covered under the provisions contained in-----

a) UCPDC 600 b) ISBP c) URC522 d) None of above

2. ‘Documentary collection’ means collection of

a) Financial documents accompanied by commercial documents b) Commercial documents not accompanied by financial documents c) Either (a) or (b) d) Only (a)

3. Clean collection means collection of

a) Financial documents accompanied by commercial documents b) Commercial documents not accompanied by financial documents c) Financial documents not accompanied by commercial documents d) None of above

4. If the collection instruction specifies that interest is to be collected and the drawee

refuses to pay such interest, the presenting bank may deliver the document(s) against payment or acceptance or on other terms and conditions as the case may be, without collecting such interest,

a) True b) False c) Where the collection instruction expressly states that interest may not be waived

and the drawee refuses to pay such interest d) None of the above

5. Under URC522 which of the following statement is not true in respect of

documentary collections

a) Banks assume no liability or responsibility for consequences arising out of the interruption of their business by strikes and lockout

b) In respect of documentary collections partial payments will be accepted only if specifically authorized. However, unless otherwise instructed, the presenting bank will release the documents after full payment has been received

c) The presenting bank is responsible for the genuineness of any signature or for the authority of any signatory to sign the acceptance

d) All are applicable6. Centralised cheque collection and export bill payment centre is

a) GMU-K b) IBG, Corporate centre c) GLS d) Overseas Branch, Mumbai


7. GLS collects clean CAD dollar instruments up to CAD10000 through CANADIAN IMPERIAL BANK OF COMMERCE. a)

True b) False

8 GNR is a system of cheque collection prevalent in USA. GNR stands for

a) Guaranteed no return b) General non receipt c) General Non return d) Guaranteed non receipt

9. Financial Action Task Force ( FATF) on money laundering was established by the

G-7 summit in

a) 1990 b) 1989 c) 2001 d) None of above

10. Which of the following is/are the important USA enactments to combat money

laundering

a) FATF b) USA OFAC c) USA PATRIOT Act d) All of above e) b & c

11. USA Patriot Act was originally enacted in

a) 1990 b) 1989 c) 2001 d) None of above

12. Under USA Patriot Act’s 120 Hour Rule , the deadline for submission of information within 120 hour from the receipt of request is applicable to our branches situated in USA

a) True b) False

13. When we make remittances or receive remittances, the payment instructions are

checked through a software – OFAC Filter set up at GMU-Kolkatta

a) True b) False

14.Which of the following is a stage of Money Laundering

a) Introduction b) Acceptance c) Integration d) All of above


15 Inward Remittance Cell has been set up at :

a) Overseas Branch, Mumbai b) GMU-Kolkatta c) Overseas Branch, Kolkatta d) None of the above

16 IRC will process the remittances upto for retail customers at prevailing Card rate, except remittances received for opening of accounts:

a) USD 5,000 b) USD 50,000 c) USD 10,000 d) None of above

17 For transactions above USD 5,000 or its equivalent, as per FEDAI guidelines, IRC will facilitate re-conversion at level rate if the customer request within days of the transaction:

a)10 days b) 7 days c) 15 days d) Conversion not permitted

18. IRC has the capability to send the remittances received for credit of customers account with other Banks:

a)True b) False

KEY - INTERNATIONAL BANKING - 6

1 c 6 c 11 c 16 b

2 c 7 a 12 c 17 b

3 c 8 a 13 a 18 a

4 b 9 b 14 c

5 c 10 e 15 b