pharmacology practice sets (mcqs)

Pharmacology Practice Sets (MCQs)

Q.1. Ketone bodies are synthesised from the fatty acid oxidisation products by which of the following organ

A. BrainB. LiverC. Skeletal muscleD. Kidney

Answer: (B) Liver

Q.2. An example of protien denaturation is

A. Dissolving sugar in waterB. Metabolism of meatC. Heating milkD. Heating egg

Answer: (D) Heating egg

Q.3. An enzyme catalysed the conversion of alddose sugar to ketose sugar would be classified as

A. IsomerasesB. TransferasesC. HydrolysasesD. Oxydoreductases

Answer: (A) Isomerases


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Q.4. The constituent of essential oil is

A. PolyterpenoidB. TetraterpenoidC. mono and sesquiterpenoidD. Triterpenoid

Answer: (C) mono and sesquiterpenoid

Q.5. Which of the given combination has an intraction, beneficial for routine clinical use?

A. Hydralazine and atenololB. Metochlopramide and levodopaC. Quinidine and digoxineD. Furosemide and lithium carbonate

Answer: (A) Hydralazine and atenolol Explanation: hydrolazine is vasodilator and atenolol is B-blocker

Q.6. Hyperuricemia is associated with the the abnormal metabolism of

A. PurineB. ThiamineC. RiboflavinD. Pyrimidine

Answer: (A) Purine

Q.7. Active immunity is induced by

A. Placental transfer of antibodiesB. InfectionC. Injection of gamma-globulins


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D. Injection of antibodies

Answer: (B) Infection

Q.8. HIV infection can be clinical controlled with

A. RibavirinB. GanciclovirC. StavudineD. Acyclovir

Answer: (C) Stavudine Explanation: stavudine is a nucleoside analogue reverse transcripted inhibitor

Q.9. An anti-arrythmic drug that is also used to control seizures is

A. LidocainB. DisipyramideC. PhenytoinD. Amiodarone

Answer: (C) Phenytoin

Q.10. Drug of choice for thyroid storm is

A. CarbimazoleB. Radioactive iodineC. Propyl thiouracilD. Centimizone

Answer: (C) Propyl thiouracil Explanation: Propyl thiouracil is used to control hyperthyroidism condition.












Q.11. The cellular organells called 'suiside bags' are

A. LysosomesB. NucleolusC. RibosomesD. Golgi's bodies

Answer: (A) Lysosomes

Q.12. The drug included in 'dope test' for athletes is

A. PropranololB. PrazocineC. DexamphetamineD. Diazepam

Answer: (C) Dexamphetamine

Q.13. Fifth edition of I.P. was published in the year

A. 1985B. 1996C. 2007D. 2015

Answer: (C) 2007

Q.14. List of minimum equipements required for efficient running of pharmacy is given in shedule












A. MB. NC. AD. R

Answer: (B) N

Q.15. Suganril is common brand name for:

A. PhenylbutazoneB. PiroxicanC. BenorylateD. Indomethacin

Answer: (B) Piroxican Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis.

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Q.16. Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?

A. PethidineB. CodeineC. NalorphineD. None of these

Answer: (A) Pethidine Explanation: Pethidine is a phenyl piperidine that is also a strong agonist of μ-opioidreceptor.




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Q.17. Levodopa is amino acid precursor of -

A. AdrenalineB. DopamineC. NorepinephrineD. All of these

Answer: (D) All of these Explanation: levo dopa is the amino acid precursor for dopamine and also for adrenalineand noradrenaline.

Q.18. The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-

A. TheophyllineB. CaffeineC. TheobromineD. All of these

Answer: (B) Caffeine Explanation: Caffeine is the most potent CNS stimulant.

Q.19. Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -

A. Mental depressionB. SchizophreniaC. ParkinsonismD. None of the above

Answer: (B) Schizophrenia Explanation: Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychoticclass of medications possessing additional anti-adrenergic, anti-serotonergic, anti-cholinergic, and anti-histaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.












Q.20. Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-

A. Inhibition of calcium influxB. Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)C. Blocking norepinephrine reuptakeD. All of the above

Answer: (A) Inhibition of calcium influx Explanation: Amlodepine is a long acting dihydropyridine type calcium channel blocker.

Q.21. Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -

A. ArrhythmiaB. HypertensionC. Hyper lipoproteinemiaD. Angina pectoris

Answer: (C) Hyper lipoproteinemia Explanation: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant.

Q.22. Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -

A. LDLB. VLDLC. HDLD. Chylomicrons

Answer: (B) VLDL Explanation: Clofibrate is used for controlling cholesterol and triglycerides levels. Itchanges VLDL to LDL.

Q.23. Lovastatin is useful in -

A. High blood pressure












B. ArrhythmiaC. Hyper lipoproteinemiaD. Angina pectoris

Answer: (C) Hyper lipoproteinemia Explanation: Lovastatin is a naturally occurring Drug in food, which controls bloodcholesterol level.

Q.24. Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -

A. Calcium ionB. ProthrombinC. Vitamin KD. Fibrinogen

Answer: (C) Vitamin K Explanation: vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin and is required for post translationalmodification.

Q.25. Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :

A. InflammationB. Inflammation and allergyC. Skin infectionsD. Allergy

Answer: (B) Inflammation and allergy Explanation: Glucocorticoids are the part of the feedback mechanism in the immunesystem that turns immune activity (inflammation).

Q.26. The sulphonamides are :

A. Bactericidal in natureB. Bacteriostatic in nature












C. Bactericidal only at high doseD. None of the above

Answer: (B) Bacteriostatic in nature Explanation: A Sulphonamide displaces bilirubin. It is competitive inhibitor of enzymeDHPS, cause inhibition of folate synthesis and cause bacteriostatic action.

Q.27. Tetracycline act by -

A. Inhibition of protein synthesisB. Interfering in cell wall synthesisC. Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organismD. All of the above

Answer: (A) Inhibition of protein synthesis Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic which reduces the growth ofbacteria by inhibiting the protein synthesis. it binds with the 30s subunit of microbialribosomes, to inhibit protein synthesis.

Q.28. Nystatin is principally effective in:

A. Candidia albicansB. BlastomycesC. Cryptococcus histoplasmaD. All of the above

Answer: (A) Candidia albicans Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal medication derived from streptomycesnoursei.

Q.29. Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:

A. HepatotoxicityB. Neurotoxicity












C. NephrotoxicityD. Allergic reaction

Answer: (C) Nephrotoxicity Explanation: Pyridoxine is also called vitamin B6, assist in the balancing of sodium andpotassium as well as promoting RBC.

Q.30. Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?

A. Trimethoprim + pyrimethamineB. Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxineC. Mefloquine + PrimaquineD. None of the above

Answer: (B) Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine Explanation: Sulphadoxine + Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is a combination antimalarialcontaining the sulphonamide antibiotic sulphadoxine and the anti-protozoal pyrimethamine.

Q.31. Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?

A. L- asparginaseB. PhosphodiesteraseC. Xanthine OxidaseD. None of the above

Answer: (A) L- asparginase Explanation: L- asparginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagines to aspartic acid.

Q.32. Eserine acts by -












A. Receptor mechanismB. Acting on cell membraneC. Drug-enzyme interactionsD. None of the above

Answer: (C) Drug-enzyme interactions Explanation: Eserine is another term for physostigmine is a highly toxicparasympathomimetic alkaloid.

Q.33. Desferrioxamine is a :

A. Chelating agentB. AntimetaboliteC. Enzyme inhibitorD. None of the above

Answer: (A) Chelating agent Explanation: Desferrioxamine is a bacterial siderophore produced by the actinobateria,Streptomyces pilosos.

Q.34. Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -

A. Depressing the CNSB. Preventing influx of sodiumC. Preventing influx of calciumD. None of the above

Answer: (B) Preventing influx of sodium Explanation: Sodium valproate used in epilepsy, Anorexia, and bipolar disorder.

Q.35. Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?

A. Pentazocine












B. PethidineC. DiphenhydramineD. None of the above

Answer: (B) Pethidine Explanation: Hyoscine is also known as levo-duboisine, tropane alkaloid.

Q.36. Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-

A. Oxytocic actionB. Vasoconstriction actionC. α -receptors blocking actionD. None of the above

Answer: (B) Vasoconstriction action

Q.37. Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?

A. PhenelzineB. PromethazineC. TrifluoperazineD. Hydroxyzine

Answer: (C) Trifluoperazine Explanation: trifluoperazine is a drug from phenothiazine chemical class is atypicalantipsychotic drug.

Q.38. Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?

A. AtropineB. SalbutamolC. TolbutamideD. Acetylcholine

Answer:












(D) Acetylcholine Explanation: Acetylcholine mimics the action of the cholinergic system.

Q.39. Testosterone is not orally active because?

A. React with acidB. DegradationC. ReductionD. Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones

Answer: (D) Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones Explanation: Testosterone is an androgenic steroid hormone, responsible for malecharacteristics.

Q.40. Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?

A. VerapamilB. NifedipineC. WarferinD. Dipyridamole

Answer: (D) Dipyridamole Explanation: Dipyridamole inhibits Thrombus formation.

Q.41. Nociceptors are associated with:

A. ChemicalB. PainC. TemperatureD. Pressure

Answer: (B) Pain Explanation: A Nociceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron (nerve cell) that responds topotentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal cord and brain. This process












called nociception usually causes the perception of pain.

Q.42. Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?

A. ChlorpheniramineB. CimetidineC. RanitidineD. Thioperamide

Answer: (A) Chlorpheniramine Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation alkylamine and anti-histamine for H1.Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 antagonists and inhibit stomach acid production.Thioperamide is a selective H3 antagonist, and also capable of crossing the Blood-brainbarrier.

Q.43. Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?

A. FluorouracilB. VincristineC. ThiotepaD. Doxorubicin

Answer: (C) Thiotepa Explanation: Thiotepa is an organophosphorus compound, is an alkylating anticancerdrug.

Q.44. Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?

A. RhabdomylosisB. NauseaC. VomitingD. Rise in serum transaminase

Answer: (A) Rhabdomylosis Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue












breaks down rapidly.

Q.45. Alupent is common brand name for-

A. IsoprenalineB. PhenylephrineC. OrciprenalineD. Terbutaline

Answer: (B) Phenylephrine Explanation: Orciprenaline is also known as metaproterenol, is a bronchodilator.

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Q.46. Which of these hypnotic possess a muscle relaxant property?

A. ParaldehydeB. PhenobarbitoneC. BarbitoneD. Diazepam

Answer: (D) Diazepam Explanation: Diazepam possesses anticonvulasant and skeletal muscle relaxant activity.

Q.47. Paracetamol is excreted as-

A. GlucuronideB. Deacetylated productC. Hydroxy derivativesD. none of the above

Answer: (A) Glucuronide Explanation: Paracetamol is metabolised in the liver (90-95%) and?excreted?in the urinemainly as the glucuronide and sulphate conjugates. less than 5% is excreted as unchanged






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paracetamol.

Q.48. Cardiovuscular action of epinephrine is mediated through-

A. α - receptorB. α and β receptorC. β receptorD. none of the above

Answer: (C) β receptor Explanation: Ephinephrine is also known as adrenaline hormone and neurotransmitter.Cardiovascular action of epinephrine is mediated through β receptor.

Q.49. Slow metabolism of isoniazid in africans are due to-

A. Genetic variationB. IdiosyncracyC. Teratogenic effectD. none of the above

Answer: (A) Genetic variation Explanation: Isoniazid is given in the treatment of TB. Also known asisonicotinylhydrazine. In Africans Metabolism of Isoniazid is slow due genetic variations.

Q.50. Phenytoin act as anti-epilectic drug by-

A. inhibiting the enzymeB. blocking the receptorC. acting on cell membraneD. non-specific drug action

Answer: (C) acting on cell membrane Explanation: Phenytoin is a hydantoin derivative, class 1B anti-arrythmic. It act on cellmembrane by sodium channel blockade.












Q.51. Isosorbide dinitrate is usually administered by-

A. sublingual routeB. Oral routeC. Intravenous routeD. none of the above

Answer: (A) sublingual route Explanation: Isosorbide Dinitrate is used to prevent chest pain (angina attacks). It worksby relaxing and widening blood vessels so blood can flow more easily to the heart. Thesetablets will not treat an angina attack that has already begun. They may be also used tocontrol heart failure. generally taken as sublingual route (below the tongue) for quickabsorption and action in emergency.

Q.52. Methotrexate is a -

A. Enzyme inhibitorB. Receptor blockerC. Alkylating agentD. Anti-metabolic

Answer: (D) Anti-metabolic Explanation: Methotrexate is used in cancer, autoimmune diseases and ectopicpregnancy.

Q.53. Which one of these antibiotics is used in amoebic dysentery?

A. TetracyclineB. BacitracinC. ParamomycinD. tobramycin

Answer: (C) Paramomycin Explanation: Paromomycin is an antimicrobial used to treat a number of parasitic












infections including amebiasis, giardiasis, leishmaniasis, and tapeworm infection. It is afirst-line treatment for amebiasis or giardiasis during pregnancy. Otherwise it is generally asecond line treatment option. It is used by mouth, applied to the skin, or by injection into amuscle.

Q.54. Niclosamide is used in the infection caused by-

A. NematodesB. CestodesC. TrematodesD. all of the above

Answer: (B) Cestodes Explanation: Niclosamide is a tenacide in the antihelmintic family especially effectiveagainst cestodes.

Q.55. Which one of these is not a antiviral agent?

A. AmantadineB. IdoxuridineC. AcyclovirD. Haymycin

Answer: (D) Haymycin Explanation: Haymycin is a polyene antimycotic agent.

Q.56. Amphotericin B, polyene antibiotic act by-

A. Intracting with fungal membrane sterolB. Inhibiting protein synthesisC. Inhibiting cell wall synthesisD. all of the above












Answer: (A) Intracting with fungal membrane sterol Explanation: Amphotericin B id often used for treatment of systemic fungal nfections.

Q.57. Steven-Johnson syndrome is associated with-

A. PenicillinB. CephalosporinC. SulphonamidesD. Erythromycin

Answer: (C) Sulphonamides Explanation: Stevens- Johnson syndrom affects the skin and mucus membrane and theseis the common side effects of sulphonamides.

Q.58. Penicillinase resistance penicillin include-

A. Penicillin GB. Penicillin VC. CloxacillineD. Ampicilline

Answer: (C) Cloxacilline Explanation: Cloxacillin used against staphylococci that produce β- lactamase.

Q.59. Which one of the antibacterial agent is effective against typhoid fever?

A. ChloramphenicolB. PenicillinC. TeracyclineD. Sulphathiazole












Answer: (A) Chloramphenicol Explanation: Typhoid fever is also called pathogenic fever. Chloramphenicol is a secondline agent in the treatment of tetracycline resistant cholera.

Q.60. 5-hydroxytryptophan on decarboxylation gives-

A. TryptophanB. 5-hydroxy indole acetic acidC. 5-hydroxytryptamineD. Indole

Answer: (C) 5-hydroxytryptamine Explanation: On decarboxylation, 5-HT gives 5-Hydroxtryptamine (serotonin).

Q.61. Pharmaclogical action of morphine is-

A. CNS stimulantB. VasoconstrictionC. Increase in blood pressureD. Release of histamine

Answer: (A) CNS stimulant Explanation: Morphine is an opiod analgesic, it acts directly on the CNS.

Q.62. Rhabdomylosis side effect is related with-

A. AtenololB. AtorvastatinC. PropranalolD. Digoxin












Answer: (B) Atorvastatin Explanation: Atorvastatin is primarily used for lowering blood cholesterol for theprevention of cardiovascular disease.

Q.63. Inchthamol is used in the treatment of-

A. TuberculosisB. DiarrhoeaC. inflammation and boilsD. Leprosy

Answer: (C) inflammation and boils Explanation: Inchthamol is used for treating some skin disease including eczema andpsoriasis.

Q.64. Famciclovir is an ester prodrug of-

A. Cytosine nucleosideB. Guanosine nucleosideC. Thymidine nucleosideD. Adenine nucleoside

Answer: (B) Guanosine nucleoside Explanation: Famciclovir is used for the treatment of various herpes virus infections,most commonly for herpes zoster.

Q.65. Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramus- cular injection of drugs:

A. Is more painfulB. Produces faster responseC. Is unsuitable for depot preparationsD. Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction

Answer:












(B) Produces faster response

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Q.66. The majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by

A. Passive diffusionB. Facilitated diffusionC. Active transportD. Pinocytosis

Answer: (A) Passive diffusion

Q.67. Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach

A. Hyoscine hydrobromideB. Morphine sulfateC. Diclofenac sodiumD. Quinine dihydrochloride

Answer: (C) Diclofenac sodium

Q.68. The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is

A. Nature of the base used in the formulationB. Lipid solubility of the drugC. Molecular weight of the drugD. Site of application

Answer: (B) Lipid solubility of the drug







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Q.69. Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug

A. Undergoes little first-pass metabolismB. Is incompletely absorbedC. Is freely water solubleD. Is completely absorbed

Answer: (B) Is incompletely absorbed

Q.70. Marked redistribution is a feature of

A. Highly plasma protein bound drugsB. Depot preparationsC. Highly lipid soluble drugsD. Poorly lipid soluble drugs

Answer: (C) Highly lipid soluble drugs

Q.71. High plasma protein binding

A. Increases volume of distribution of the drugB. Generally makes the drug long actingC. Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drugD. Minimises drug interactions

Answer: (B) Generally makes the drug long acting

Q.72. Which of the following is a prodrug












A. EnalaprilB. MenaprilC. ThiazineD. Penicillin

Answer: (A) Enalapril

Q.73. Microsomal enzyme induction can be a cause of

A. ToleranceB. Physical dependenceC. Psychological dependenceD. Idiosyncrasy

Answer: (A) Tolerance

Q.74. Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its

A. Plasma protein bindingB. Lipid solubilityC. Degree of ionizationD. Rate of tubular secretion

Answer: (A) Plasma protein binding

Q.75. Which of the following organs is innervated only by parasympathetic nerves

A. Sweat glandsB. Ciliary muscleC. Iris musclesD. Splenic capsule

Answer:












(B) Ciliary muscle

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Q.76. The following cotransmitter is most probably involved in mediating nonadrenergic-noncholinergic (NANC) relaxation of the gut

A. Nitric oxide (NO)B. AdenosineC. Neuropeptide Y (NPY)D. Kallidin

Answer: (D) Kallidin

Q.77. The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site

A. Neuromuscular junctionB. Postganglionic parasympatheticC. Adrenal medullaD. Autonomic ganglia

Answer: (B) Postganglionic parasympathetic

Q.78. The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudo- cholinesterase is

A. BethanecholB. ButyrylcholineC. MethacholineD. Benzoylcholine

Answer: (A) Bethanechol







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Q.79. The smooth muscle structure that is relaxed by cholinergic drugs is

A. ColonB. Gastric fundusC. Bladder trigoneD. Major bronchi

Answer: (C) Bladder trigone

Q.80. Pilocarpine is used for

A. GlaucomaB. Paralytic ileusC. Urinary retentionD. Infection

Answer: (A) Glaucoma

Q.81. The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme

A. NeostigmineB. EdrophoniumC. PhysostigmineD. Dyflos

Answer: (B) Edrophonium

Q.82. Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme mole- cule in case of the following anticholinesterase

A. EdrophoniumB. Dyflos












C. TacrineD. Neostigmine

Answer: (D) Neostigmine

Q.83. Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that

A. It produces less muscarinic side effectsB. It is more potent orallyC. It is longer actingD. It does not have any direct action on NM receptor

Answer: (C) It is longer acting

Q.84. The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is

A. Canal of SchlemmB. Ciliary bodyC. Ciliary muscleD. Sphincter pupillae muscle

Answer: (D) Sphincter pupillae muscle

Q.85. Labetalol differs from propranolol in that

A. It has additional α1 blocking propertyB. It is a selective βS1 blockerC. It does not undergo first pass metabolismD. All of the above

Answer: (A) It has additional α1 blocking property

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Q.86. Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties

A. CeliprololB. MetoprololC. CarvedilolD. Acebutolol

Answer: (C) Carvedilol

Q.87. Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion

A. AtenololB. CarbinolC. EthanolD. Dompirol

Answer: (A) Atenolol

Q.88. Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adrenergic blocker

A. CarbinolB. EthanolC. EsmololD. Propalol

Answer: (C) Esmolol

Q.89. The following disease is worsened by propranolol

A. Raynaud’s diseaseB. InfectionC. Heart attack












D. Epilepsy

Answer: (A) Raynaud’s disease

Q.90. Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men

A. AlbendazoleB. MebendazoleC. CocaineD. Sildenafil

Answer: (D) Sildenafil

Q.91. Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor blocker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure

A. DoxazosinB. AlprostadilC. TamsulosinD. Yohimbine

Answer: (C) Tamsulosin

Q.92. The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by

A. Adrenergic α1 agonistsB. Adrenergic α1 antagonistsC. Adrenergic α2 antagonistsD. Adrenergic α2 agonists

Answer: (B) Adrenergic α1 antagonists

Q.93. The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic












blocker is

A. TolazolineB. DesmopressinC. ErgotamineD. Sildenafil

Answer: (C) Ergotamine

Q.94. While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP

A. NoradrenalineB. MephentermineC. IsoxsuprineD. Oxymetazoline

Answer: (B) Mephentermine

Q.95. The following are excreted faster in basicurine

A. Weak acidsB. Strong acidsC. Weak BasesD. None of the above

Answer: (A) Weak acids Explanation:

because of enhanced disassociation weak acidsare excreted faster in basic (not acidic) urine.

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Q.96. A good example of chemical antagonism

A. Heparin & ProtamineB. Protamine & ZincC. Heparin & ProthrombinD. All the above

Answer: (A) Heparin & Protamine Explanation: Chemical antagonism does not involve any receptors. Protamine is apositively charged protein at physiological pH and thus antagonizes the effects of Heparinwhich is negatively charged at physiological pH.

Q.97. Active transport differs from facilitated transport in following ways, except

A. Carrier is involvedB. It is against concentration gradientC. Energy is requiredD. All of the above

Answer: (A) Carrier is involved Explanation: Facilitated diffusion differs from active transport in that it does not requireenergy source and it carries the transport in the direction of electrochemical gradient.

Q.98. Acidic drugs mainly bind to plasma

A. AlbuminB. acid glycoproteinC. Weak acidsD. Heparin & Protamine

Answer: (A) Albumin Explanation: Glycoprotein binds to basic drugs and albumin binds to many acidic drugsand a small number of basic drugs.












Q.99. _______ is expressed in both the intestinal epithelium and the kidney.

A. CYP378AB. CYP4B2C. CYP3A4D. CYP256

Answer: (A) CYP378A Explanation: CYP3A4 is involved in the metabolism of majority of drugs and is alsoexpressed extrahepatically. In fact, poor bioavailability of many drugs is attributed to thedrug metabolism by CYP3A4 in gastrointestinal tract.

Q.100. N-oxidation will be involved with the metabolism of following drugs, except

A. DapsoneB. MeperidineC. PhenytoinD. Chlorpheniramine

Answer: (C) Phenytoin Explanation: N-oxidation is involved in the metabolism of dapsone, meperidine andchloramphenicol. Metabolism of phenytoin involves oxidative Ndealkylation.

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