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SIGNATURE OF THE CANDIDATE SIGNATURE OF THE INVIGILATOR

To be filled in by the Candidate

Registration No.

Centre Name.......................................................................................................................................

PART - I

INSTRUCTIONS

Please read the following carefully before making an attempt to take the Test

Total marks allotted 50

No. of questions 50

Time allotted 45 minutes

Sectional time limit No

Sectional cut off No

Negative marking No

1. This booklet contains 12 pages including the blank ones. As soon as you open thebooklet, please confirm that all the pages are intact and printed correctly.

2. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT keep withyou books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch

calculators), pagers, cellular phones, or any other device.

3. Fill up all the details, as indicated on top of the TEST BOOKLET and OMR Sheet.

4. Enter correctly your Enrolment numberboth on the TEST BOOKLET and OMR Sheet.

5. Questions in this booklet span across the following sections.

Marks

SECTION A ANALYTICAL AND NUMERICAL ABILITY 15

SECTION B LANGUAGE ABILITY 20

SECTION C AWARENESS OF GENERAL AND SOCIAL ISSUES 15

TOTAL 50

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6. Answer all the questions. All questions carry equal marks.

7. Directions for answering the questions are given in the test booklet before each groupof questions to which they apply. Read these directions carefully and answer the

questions by darkening the appropriate ovals.

8. Shade the appropriate oval against each question in the OMR sheet. Shade the ovalcompletely and do not shade more than one oval, in that case the answer will be treated

null and void.

9. Use HB Pencils only to shade the oval.

10. Do not make any stray marks or smudges on the OMR sheet.

11. Do not damage or mutilate the OMR Sheet.

12. Do all rough work on the test booklet only and NOT on the OMR Sheet. No extra sheetto be used for the rough work.

13. There is no Sectional time limit and Sectional Cut-off mark.

14. Strictly follow the instructions of the Invigilator. Candidates refusing to comply with

the instructions will be expelled from the test.15. Ensure that you have signed your name on the attendance sheet circulated by the

Invigilator. Ensure that the Invigilator has signed on the Question Paper and the OMR

Sheet.

16. At the end of the test, remain seated. Do not leave the hall till the Invigilatorannounces, You may move now. The invigilator will make the announcement only

after collecting the test booklets and OMR sheets from everyone in the room.

ANY CANDIDATE PROVIDING/SEEKING/RECEIVING ASSISTANCE OR

FOUND COPYING WILL BE DEBARRED FROM THE TEST PERMANENTLY.

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SECTION A Marks: 15

ANALYTICAL AND NUMERICAL ABILITY

1. The following are the figures from a sequence: A, B, C, D, E. Which of the figures does

not belong to the sequence?.

(A) a (B) d

(C) c (D) e

2. Below is a series. Which one of the options (A, B, C, D,) will continue the given series.

(A) b (B) a

(C) d (D) b

3. In a basket of 30 apples, the average weight of an apple is 565gm. Two apples

weighing 558gm and 572gm are removed from the basket. What is the change in the

average weight of an apple in the basket?

(A) 3gm (B) 0gm(C) 1gm (D) 5gm

4. A and B can make a machine in 7 hours and 9 hours respectively. In how many

hours will they make the machine, if they decide to do half the work each?

(A) 8 hours (B) 10 hours

(C) 7.5 hours (D) 9 hours

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a b c d e

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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9. What is the ratio of percentage imports of Mango and Banana?

(A) 7 : 10 (B) 10 : 5

(C) 2 : 3 (D) 2 : 6

10. Which of the following account for a 50% share in the total imports?

(A) Papaya and Mango

(B) Banana, Strawberry and Apple

(C) Strawberry, Apple, Pear and Banana

(D) Both a and c

11. A circular hole of radius 7cm is punched into a square sheet of side 20cm as shown in

the figure. What is the area of the sheet that remains?

(A) 554 cm2 (B) 154 cm2

(C) 246 cm2 (D) 356 cm2

12. The area of a rectangle is increased by 100%. What happens to the breadth of the

rectangle if its length is halved?

(A) breadth becomes half the original

(B) breadth increases by 50%

(C) breadth is doubled

(D) breadth becomes 4 times the original

13. Shyam changes the marked price of a cycle. He increases it by 100% and then offers a

25% discount on the new price. What is the profit/loss incurred to Shyam based on the

initial price?

(A) 75% profit (B) 75% loss

(C) 50% profit (D) No profit, no loss

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14. In a lawn, there is a rose plant after every 3 marigold plants placed in a straight line.

There are a total of 50 plants in this line, starting with the marigold. What is the ratio of

the rose plants to that of the marigold?

(A) 6 : 19 (B) 1 : 3

(C) 1 : 4 (D) 3 : 50

15. Complete the following sequence

2, 8, 32, 128, ____.

(A) 256 (B) 512

(C) 1024 (D) 2048

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SECTION B Marks: 20

LANGUAGE ABILITY

For Questions 16 to 20, please read the passage below and mark the option that most

appropriately answers the question.

Justice, indeed, must be observed at all times. No reasonable human can deny this principle.But as to what is just under particular circumstances, reasonable humans can and often do

disagree. The principles of natural law are permanent and comprehensive but the

determination of what is just by human enactment must vary with the differentcircumstances of humankind. For instance, there is no sin in wealth just as there is no virtue

in poverty. Consequently, the effort of anyone to increase ones wealth cannot be

condemned. But, if the pursuit of wealth means loss to others monetary, legal or moralstatus, then the question arises whether the acquisition of wealth by such methods and with

such results is right. In the same manner most of the legal as well as moral rights and wrongs

are relative to time and place.

16. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?

(A) Justice may not always be the best possible solution to a problem.

(B) The conception of what is just and what is not just has kept changing.

(C) Wealth creation often involves some loss of life.

(D) The fundamental reason for wealth acquisition is justice.

17. In the passage there is a statement: No reasonable human can deny this. From this

statement, we can draw the inference that:

(A) Unreasonable humans neither deny this nor accept it.

(B) If one denies this, one isnt reasonable.

(C) Reasonable humans accept this.

(D) Both B and C

18. Which, out of the following statements, best describes the authors stand on

acquisition of money?

(A) There is no virtue in poverty, so it naturally follows that one must acquire money

in whatever way possible.

(B) We can definitely say that acquisition of money by certain means is unjust.

(C) It is questionable whether the acquisition of money by any means, whatsoever,

can be called just.

(D) It is difficult to judge what is just, but much easier to judge what is moral.

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19. According to the passage which of the following statements will hold true?

(A) If two reasonable people accept the same principle, they naturally, will also agree

to the application of that principle in different scenarios.

(B) Two reasonable people will accept a principle only if they agree to the application

of that principle in different scenarios.

(C) Two reasonable people will not usually accept principles of natural law.

(D) None of the above.

20. A sentence in the passage uses the word condemned. Which of the following uses the

correct meaning of this word?

(A) A lack of will to work hard condemned him to life of mediocrity.

(B) The judge read out the verdict and condemned the accused to life

imprisonment.

(C) The government has condemned the actions of the rioters and has asked people to

maintain peace.

(D) All of the above.

Given below are sets of sentences. They need to be arranged in a sequence to form a

coherent paragraph. Pick the option which gives the best sequence for forming a

coherent paragraph.

21. (a) She had always planned to be a teacher and they understood.

(b) Guddi loves spending time with children and educating them.

(c) She finished her Bachelors degree in engineering and took up teaching as a profession.

(d) None of her family members is a teacher but they were very supportive of her

decision.

(A) b c d a (B) b a c d

(C) a c b d (D) d c b a

22. (a) These are pigeons, its true.(b) But I want to see a green Pigeon.

(c) They are not city birds like these.

(d) They live in trees and dont come down to the ground.

(A) d c b a (B) a c d b

(C) d b a c (D) a b c d

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Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words.

23. After preliminary _____, the police were able to _______ that it was a planned

robbery.

(A) Interrogation decided

(B) browsing conclude

(C) questions materialize

(D) Investigation deduce

24. Everyone thought that he was long ____, but he ______ back.

(A) Gone returned

(B) Went came

(C) Gone came

(D) Went returned

For Questions 25 to 29:

A paragraph with many numbered blank spaces is given. For each of the spaces, phrases forfilling up are suggested. Choose the best possible option.

Today, electricity is 25 for granted in the developed world. Computers do not have that

status. To 26 this, they must be easily available wherever and 27 people needthem. They must protect personal information 28 misuse. Apart from being 29

secure, they must give people control over their data.

25. (A) given (B) perceived

(C) taken (D) maintained

26. (A) achieve (B) believe

(C) meet (D) feel

27. (A) every time (B) whenever

(C) however (D) everywhere

28. (A) of (B) in

(C) on (D) from

29. (A) visually (B) equally

(C) unfailingly (D) regularly

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For Questions 30 to 31:For the following two questions, out of the four options, choose the

one closest in meaning to the word which is highlighted in the sentences below:

30. The stock of birds at this sanctuary is indeed a treasure for any naturalist.

(A) a natural person (B) a person who studies naturally

(C) a person who studies nature (D) a person who loves nature

31. The author outlines measures to restore the now low credibility of the legal

profession.

(A) ways (B) rules

(C) lengths (D) recommendations

32. Out of the four options, choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the sentence

given below:

He said, I have had enough of this. I want to leave.

(A) He said I have had enough of this and I want to leave.(B) He said he had had enough of this and that he wanted to leave.

(C) He said he had had enough of this and wanted to leave.

(D) He said had enough of this and wanted to leave.

33. Our of four options, choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the sentence

below:

It takes ten artists and four days to make the statue.

(A) It took ten artists and four days to make the statue.

(B) Ten artists took four days to make the statue.

(C) Ten artists would take four days to make the statue.

(D) The statue can be made only by ten artists in four days.

For Questions 34 and 35, a word is given in the question. Choose the option that doesnot use the word correctly.

34. Fair

(A) There is afairchance that India wins the match.An acceptable approximation

(B) I am convinced that it is afairdeal

(C) Hefairedwell in the exams.

(D) The paintings in thefairare reasonably cheap

35. Light

(A) It is as lightas a feather

(B) The lightfrom behind the curtains woke him up

(C) This paint is definitely lighterthan the earlier one

(D) Even a lightmovement will wake him up; move slowly.

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SECTION C Marks: 15

GENERAL AWARENESS

36) Which of the following is a reptile?

(A) Dolphin (B) Snail

(C) Caterpillar (D) Lizard

37) When we refer to AIDS (the disease), it stands for .

(A) Acquired Immuno Deficient Syndrome

(B) Acute Immune Deficient Syndrome

(C) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

(D) Acute Immune Deficiency Syndrome

38) Which of the following is a cause of a disease called Scurvy?

(A) Deficiency of Vitamin D (B) High blood pressure

(C) Deficiency of Vitamin C (D) Deficiency of sleep

39) In the solar system, moving in the direction away from the sun, the eighth planet from

the Sun is?

(A) Neptune (B) Uranus

(C) Pluto (D) Saturn

40) Indias First war of Independence is also called the _______ .

(A) Revolt of 1857 (B) Battle of Plassey, 1757

(C) Royal Indian Navy Mutiny (D) None of the above

41) The article of the Indian constitution which accords special status of the State of

Jammu and Kashmir is the ________.

(A) Article 356 (B) Article 370

(C) Article 377 (D) Article 375

42) __________ is the current Vice-President of India.

(A) Bhairon Singh Shekhawat (B) Mohammad Hamid Ansari

(C) Krishan Kant (D) Pratibha Devisingh Patil

43) Who, out of the following has/have been a part of the council of ministers of the UPA

government (in the year 2009)?

(A) Agatha Sangma (B) Sushil Kumar Shinde

(C) Ambika Soni (D) All of the Above

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44) In India, the Kharif crops are usually sown at the beginning of the ___________.

(A) Northeast monsoon season (B) Southwest monsoon season

(C) winter season (D) month of January

45) In the Commonwealth Games recently concluded in New Delhi, Indias place in the

final medal tally was(A) First (b) Second

(C) Third (D) Fourth

46) The official Indian entry to Oscars for the Best Foreign Film Category this year is

(A) Peepli Live (B) Harischandrachi Factoty

(C) Dobhi Ghat (D) Taare Zameen Par

47) Which, out of the following countries is NOT a member of the SAARC?

(A) Maldives (B) Bhutan

(C) Mauritius (D) Bangladesh

48) Tasleema Nasreen is the author of the controversial book _______.

(A) Lajja (B) Water

(C) Satanic Verses (D) Among the believers: An Islamic

journey

49) As of October 2010, India consisted of how many states and union territories?

(A) 26 States and 5 Union Territories

(B) 27 States and 7 Union Territories

(C) 28 States and 7 Union Territories

(D) None of the above

50) The Bhakra-Nangal (one of Indias largest dams) is built on the river _______

(A) Sutlej (B) Chenab

(C) Indus (D) Brahmaputra

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