NEHC

Newsletter Quiz

Spring 2015

Helicopters are becoming increasingly capable of flying under Instrument Flight Rules

(IFR). Most commercial operators require their pilots to be instrument rated and many

recreational helicopter pilots are ‘polishing their skills’ and adding an instrument rating to

their aviation resume.

This quiz is based on Federal Aviation Administration aeronautical charts and

publications using the RNAV (GPS) RWY 35 Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) for

the Concord Municipal airport (CON). A copy of the relevant chart is attached to the end

of the quiz.

You should be able to answer the 1st two questions without referring to the chart. Please

consider that there may be more than one correct answer to some of the questions, in

which case, please identify all correct answers. Have fun!

1. An Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) chart consists of ____ sections.

A. 3.

B. 4.

C. 5.

D. 6.

2. Which of the following is NOT a section of an Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP)

chart?

A. Marginal Information

B. Airport Diagram

C. Plan View

D. Procedural Track.

3. Which statement is correct regarding Initial Approach Fixes for this IAP?

A. All Initial Approach Fixes require the pilot to fly to ZUVLI and enter the

holding pattern before commencing the final approach.

B. The note NoPT in the plan view, means that a pilot who initiates this IAP

from the MHT VOR, LURCH, or RAYMY are never permitted to fly the

holding pattern.

C. A pilot who uses the CON VOR as the Initial Approach fix is required to

enter the depicted holding pattern to reverse course onto the final approach

segment.

D. This IAP has only 4 Initial Approach Fixes (MHT VOR, CON VOR,

RAYMY and LURCH). Unless being radar vectored to the final approach

course, he pilot is required to fly over one of these 4 points and fly the

depicted procedural track to the final approach course.

4. You are piloting a helicopter that is properly equipped to fly LPV approaches and

you’re approaching the airport in Instrument Meteorological Conditions, flying

under FAR Part 91. What are the approach minimums?

A. Decision Height (DH) is 668 feet at which point the helicopter will be 337

feet above the airport elevation.

B. Decision Altitude (DA) is 668 feet at which point the helicopter will be

337 feet above the airport elevation.

C. If the MALSR is inoperative, you may not initiate the LPV approach if the

visibility is reported to be less than 1 ¼ miles.

D. At Decision Altitude you will be 337 feet above the runway threshold.

5. Which statement is correct about the runway lighting associated with this IAP?

A. RWY 35 is equipped with high intensity runway edge lights.

B. The instrument approach light system includes sequence flashing lead in

lights.

C. A VASI is installed on the left side of RWY 35.

D. The runway and instrument approach lights are controlled by the pilot on

the CTAF frequency 122.7 MHz.

E. All answers are correct.

6. Which statement(s) are correct about the missed approach?

A. When flying the LPV approach, the missed approach point is 1.8 NM from

the runway threshold.

B. When flying the approach to LNAV minimums, the distance from the

Final Approach Fix to the Missed Approach Point is 11.3 NM.

C. The Missed Approach Point for the LPV approach is 668 MSL.

D. If a missed approach is required, the pilot is expected to proceed directly

to INKOW and hold. Expect ATC to issue clearance to enter the holding

pattern upon reaching 4,500 MSL.

7. Which statement is false?

A. The helicopter must be equipped with GPS navigation equipment certified

for instrument approach procedures to fly this IAP.

B. This IAP cannot be flown by aircraft that derive RNAV position using

DME/DME 0.3 RNP.

C. If your helicopter is equipped to fly an LPV approach, this procedure is

considered to be a precision approach..

D. If the VASI lights are inoperative, LPV visibility increases to 1 ¼ mile for

all categories.

8. Regarding the visibility minimum for the approach:

A. While flying under FAR Part 91, helicopters are always permitted to

reduce the visibility minimums by 50%, but not less than ¼ SM.

B. Helicopter flying under the rules of FAR Part 91 are permitted to reduce

visibility for this approach.

C. If the forecast visibility (at the estimated time of arrival and for one hour

after the estimated time of arrival) is greater than ¾ SM, you do not need

to include an alternate airport in your IFR flight plan.

D. When flying this approach, you are not permitted to continue the approach

below the authorized DA/DH or MDA if the flight visibility is less than

the visibility indicated in the landing minimums section of the approach

chart.

9. Which statement correctly describes the helicopter’s altitude while flying this

approach?

A. Upon being cleared for the approach from the MHT VOR, you may

descend to 3800 MSL.

B. When flying this approach to LNAV minimums (at the minimum descent

altitude), the helicopter will be 598 feet above the runway threshold at the

missed approach point.

C. When flying this approach to LNAV minimums (at the minimum descent

altitude), the helicopter will be 598 feet above the airport elevation at the

missed approach point.

D. When flying this approach to LNAV minimums (at the minimum descent

altitude), the helicopter will be 609 feet above the touchdown zone

elevation at the missed approach point.

10. How is your instrument flight plan cancelled when flying to CON under

Instrument Flight Rules?

A. Upon landing, your IFR flight plan is automatically cancelled.

B. ATC cancels your flight plan after they clear you for the approach and

upon telling to, “Switch to Advisory Frequency”.

C. After landing, the pilot should contact CLNC DEL on frequency 133.65

MHz and cancel the IFR flight plan.

D. The pilot can cancel IFR, at their discretion, at any time the ground is

clearly visible (ground contact assured).

NOT FOR NAVIGATION