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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO T.B.C: P-SIA-D-UPGI Serial: 737246 PRESTORMING TM CSAT TEST BOOKLET Mock Test 1 Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 I N S T R U C T I O N S 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box. Provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for Wrong answers THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.83) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO A

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  • DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

    T.B.C: P-SIA-D-UPGI

    Serial: 737246

    PRESTORMINGTM

    CSAT

    TEST BOOKLET

    Mock Test 1 Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

    I N S T R U C T I O N S

    1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT

    THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,

    ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

    2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE

    APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.

    3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box.

    Provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

    4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item

    comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the

    Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which

    you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

    5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in

    the Answer Sheet.

    6. All items carry equal marks.

    7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test

    Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with

    your Admission Certificate.

    8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has

    concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take

    away with you the Test Booklet.

    9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

    10. Penalty for Wrong answers

    THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE

    TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

    (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a

    wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.83) of the marks assigned to that

    question will be deducted as penalty.

    (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of

    the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that

    question.

    (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for

    that question.

    DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

    A

  • -1-

    Directions for the following 5 (Five)

    items: Read the following 5 Passages and answer

    the items that follow. Your answers to these items

    should be based on the passages only.

    PASSAGE 1

    A leader becomes a transforming leader

    only when he or she is able to interpret correctly

    the public mood and popular aspirations. Such

    leaders and such moments are few and far

    between. For most of the time, leaders in

    democratic settings have to depend upon their

    political parties to create a constituency in

    support of their policy prescriptions. Only

    political parties have the requisite structure to tap

    emotions and sentiments that can be calibrated

    behind or against a policy. Without attending to

    the periodic task of re-establishing a dynamic

    synergy among the leader, the party cadres, and

    ideology, politicians would find themselves

    handicapped in delivering governance.

    1. Which one of the following is the crux of this

    passage?

    (a) As only the political parties possess the

    necessary art of aligning public sentiment

    to their cause, politicians have no other

    option than to depend upon their parties

    to effect a proper governance in a

    democracy

    (b) If a proper course designed to re-orient

    politicians with their respective parties’

    ideologies is not held, no politician can

    become an effective leader in a democracy

    (c) As people’s sentiment goes with the parties

    in a democracy not with their

    representatives, in order to facilitate these

    leaders with elections, the parties organise

    orientation programmes to develop synergy

    (d) As a certain level of synergy between the

    representatives and the ideologies is

    required, political parties design periodic

    programmes which transform politicians

    into leaders to carry out parties’ agenda.

    PASSAGE 2

    Wind is an inexhaustible source of energy

    and an aero generator can convert it into

    electricity. Though not much has been done in

    this field, the survey shows that there is vast

    potential for developing wind as alternative source

    of energy.

    With reference to the passage, the following

    inferences have been made:

    1. Energy by wind is comparatively newly

    emerging field.

    2. The energy crisis can be dealt by exploring

    more in the field of aero generation.

    2. Which of these inferences is/are valid?

    (a) 1 Only

    (b) 2 Only

    (c) Neither 1 nor 2

    (d) Both 1 and 2

  • -2-

    PASSAGE 3

    In film and videotape, it is possible to

    induce the viewers to project their feelings onto

    the characters on the screen. In one study, when

    a camera shot of a baby in a crib was shown, the

    audience thought the woman's face was

    registering happiness.

    With reference to the passage, the following

    inferences have been made:

    1. The expression on the woman's face was

    actuality, blank.

    2. A camera shot of a baby in a crib provoked

    feelings of happiness to the audience.

    3. Which of these inferences is/are valid?

    (a) 1 Only

    (b) 2 Only

    (c) Neither 1 nor 2

    (d) Both 1 and 2

    PASSAGE 4

    In elections in a democratic set up, the

    proper role of the press is to cover only those

    factors in the campaign which bear on the

    eventual outcome. Since the outcome is

    invariably a victory for the candidate of one of two

    major parties, the press should not cover the

    campaigns of candidates of minor parties.

    4. Which among the following is the most logical

    and rational assumption that can be made

    from the above passage?

    (a) It is unlikely that there will be more than

    three candidates in any given race

    (b) Candidates of minor parties will never win

    elections

    (c) The number of votes cast for a candidate of

    a minor party is not likely to affect the

    outcome of the contest between the

    candidates of the two major parties

    (d) Both B & C

    PASSAGE 5

    The Minister of Trade and Commerce is

    lobbying to pass a new trade bill that advocates

    the liberalisation of trade with the developed

    world, including the USA and the European

    Union.

    5. Which of the following statements, if true,

    would not justify the lobbying done by the

    Minister?

    (a) A petition is submitted by the labour

    unions to the government, asking to create

    more local jobs.

    (b) Elections are around the corner and the

    current government is required to show

    results.

    (c) As per reports from independent

    economists, the country's trade deficit

    would increase with the passage of the bill.

    (d) The pending trade negotiations will be

    sorted out with the new trade agreement.

    6. Due to fall in manpower, the production in a

    factory decreases by 24%. By what per cent

    should the working hour be increased to

    restore the original production?

    (a) 600

    19%

    (b) 400

    19 %

    (c) 650

    19 %

    (d) 450

    19 %

  • -3-

    7. In an examination, a candidate must get 60%

    marks to pass. If a candidate, who gets 120

    marks, fails by 60 marks, find the maximum

    marks.

    (a) 300

    (b) 600

    (c) 250

    (d) 350

    8. The age of Jayshree is thrice the age of her

    younger sister. The product of their ages is

    300 years. Then the Jayshree’s present age is:

    (a) 30

    (b) 20

    (c) 10

    (d) 40

    9. A shopkeeper sold sarees at Rs. 266 each after

    giving 5% discount on labelled price. Had he

    not given the discount, he would have earned

    a profit of 12% on the cost price. What was the

    cost price of each saree?

    (a) Rs. 280

    (b) Rs. 260

    (c) Rs. 240

    (d) Rs. 250

    10. What is the difference between the simple and

    compound interest on? 7,300/- at the rate of 6

    p.c.p.a. in 2 years?

    (a) Rs. 29.37/-

    (b) Rs. 26.28/-

    (c) Rs. 31.41/-

    (d) Rs. 23.22/-

    Directions for the following 5 (Five) items:

    Read the following 5 Passages and answer the

    items that follow. Your answers to these items

    should be based on the passages only.

    PASSAGE 1

    It defies common logic and theory that too

    little sleep can make one fat. If such findings are

    made public, I'm afraid lazy people will grab the

    opportunity to sleep more. But I'm sure this is not

    the only factor responsible for being overweight.

    There should be more research on the issue before

    scientists conclude something so dramatic.

    11. Which one of the following views corroborates

    the above statement?

    (a) Most of the sleep-deprived people

    participating in the study which concluded

    that 'too little sleep can make one fat' had

    an overweight sister.

    (b) Most lazy people are fat.

    (c) Most of the people, participating in the

    study which concluded that 'too little sleep

    can make one fat', who got proper sleep

    also exercised regularly.

    (d) Most of the sleep-deprived people,

    participating in the study which concluded

    that 'too little sleep can make one fat', love

    pizzas.

  • -4-

    PASSAGE 2

    The smallest of fluctuations in the BSE

    Sensex sees the doomsayers coming out of the

    woodwork. One of the popular but misguided

    insights is: since the market is tanking, run with

    your money before you are done in. I find this

    amusing. The same people when they spot a sale

    sign in shopping malls or read about a fall in air-

    ticket prices to Sydney or Singapore, try and grab

    the deal. But when it comes to investing, they live

    a contradiction. Any fall in the market is a reason

    to buy. If you are an investor in equities or equity

    funds, you are there for the long term. Thus, if

    you were considering equities at Sensex 7500, you

    should be celebrating at Sensex 6500. The same

    companies are not cheaper by 13%! If they fall

    further, so much the better-doomsayers be

    damned!

    12. Which among the following is the most logical

    and rational assumption that can be made

    from the above passage?

    (a) Most people sell their equity holdings in a

    falling market.

    (b) Equity markets are similar in nature to the

    commodity markets like a supermarket or

    airline tickets.

    (c) One should buy equities when the prices

    are low.

    (d) Though markets might drop in the short-

    run, in the long-term they are bound to

    rise again.

    PASSAGE 3

    The common view of language, is that any

    language is a set of arbitrary but conventionally

    agreed upon words or signs, linked to each other

    by a purely formal system of syntactic and

    grammatical rules. Language, thus, is like a code;

    it is a way of representing actual things and

    events around in the perceived world, but has no

    internal, no ulterior, no arbitrary connections to

    that world, and hence is readily separable from it.

    13. Which one of the following statements best

    sums up the above passage?

    (a) Language represents the world but is

    separable from it

    (b) Language is a set of rules is an

    assumption

    (c) Language is a set of rules and codes which

    represents the world

    (d) Language is universal and common to all

    in form of signs and signals, hence is

    understood by all

    PASSAGE 4

    The rate of violent crime in this state is up

    30% from last year. The fault lies entirely in our

    system of justice. Recently, sentences of our

    judges have been so lenient that criminals can

    now do almost anything without fear of a long

    prison term.

    14. The argument above would be weakened if it

    were true that

    (a) 85% of the other states in the nation have

    lower crime rates than does this state.

    (b) White-collar crime in this state has also

    increased by over 25% in the last year.

    (c) 35% of the police in this state have been

    laid off in the last year due to budget cuts.

    (d) Polls show that 65% of the population in

    this state opposes capital punishment.

  • -5-

    PASSAGE 5

    Cars are safer than planes. Fifty percent of

    plane accidents result in death, while only 1% of

    car accidents result in death.

    15. Which of the following, if true, would most

    seriously weaken the argument above?

    (a) Planes are inspected more often than cars.

    (b) The number of car accidents is several

    hundred thousand times higher than the

    number of plane accidents.

    (c) Pilots never fly under the influence of

    alcohol, while car drivers often do.

    (d) Plane accidents are usually the fault of air

    traffic controllers, not pilots.

    16. Four examiners can examine a certain number

    of answer papers in 10 days by working for 5

    hours a day. For how many hours in a day

    would 2 examiners have to work in order to

    examine twice the number of answer papers in

    20 days?

    (a) 8 hours

    (b) 1

    72

    hours

    (c) 10 hours

    (d) 1

    82

    hours

    17. Ashwin has to travel from one point to another

    point in a certain time. Travelling at a speed of

    6 kmph he reaches 40m late and travelling at

    a speed of 8kmph he reaches 12 m earlier.

    What is the distance between this two points

    approximately?

    (a) 27 km

    (b) 18 km

    (c) 5 km

    (d) 21 km

    Directions (18-21): Read the following

    information carefully and answer the question

    based on it.

    In a family of six members, there are three

    men L, M and N and three women R, S and T. The

    six persons are architect, lawyer, CA, professor,

    doctor and engineer by profession but not in the

    same order.

    I. There are two married couples and two

    unmarried persons.

    II. N is not R’s husband.

    III. The doctor is married to a lawyer. R’s

    grandfather is a professor.

    IV. M is neither L’s son nor he is an architect

    or a professor.

    V. The lawyer is T’s daughter-in-law

    VI. N is T’s son and the engineer’s father.

    VII. L is married to the CA.

    VIII. S is a lawyer.

    18. Which among the following is the correct pair

    of married couples?

    (a) RS and NT

    (b) LR and NM

    (c) LT and NS

    (d) SM and NR

    19. Who among the following are two unmarried

    persons?

    (a) L, S

    (b) L, M

    (c) L, T

    (d) R, M

  • -6-

    20. Who is an architect?

    (a) R

    (b) M

    (c) N

    (d) L

    21. How T is related to M?

    (a) Mother

    (b) Grandmother

    (c) Wife

    (d) Daughter

    22. An ice-cream company makes a popular brand

    of ice-cream in rectangular shaped bar 6 cm

    long, 5 cm wide and 2 cm thick. To cut the

    cost, the company has decided to reduce the

    volume of the bar by 20%, the thickness

    remaining the same, but the length and width

    will be decreased by the same percentage

    amount. The new length L will satisfy:

    (a) 5.5

  • -7-

    24. What can surely be said about the author’s

    belief?

    1. Existing banking practices keep out a large

    section of people

    2. Financial inclusion is the desired objective

    3. RBI alone can ensure financial inclusion

    4. Foreign banks have ignored the financial

    inclusion directives

    (a) 2 and 3 only

    (b) 1 and 4 only

    (c) 1 and 2 only

    (d) All of the above

    25. “No-frills” account intends to provide to the

    masses

    (a) Nil and minimum balance accounts with

    minimum charges

    (b) Nil and minimum balance accounts with

    higher charges

    (c) Higher balance accounts with minimum

    charges

    (d) All of the above

    26. The word “formalised” as used in the

    paragraph stands for

    (a) Smooth

    (b) Streamlined

    (c) Developed

    (d) Organised

    PASSAGE 2

    Along with the increasing use of Electronic

    Refrigerators, the demand for ice in the market

    declined. Formerly we were buying ice to keep our

    ice boxes cool and the food stored in the ice box

    fresh. Now the ice boxes cool themselves.

    Similarly, the introduction of web-based e-

    Learning teaching, to be offered simultaneous in

    different cities will

    27. Which of the following statement could be the

    most logical corollary to be filled in the

    blank?

    (a) Increase the course enrolment

    (b) Increase the spread of the course

    (c) Reduce the need for class room

    (d) Reduce the ineffectiveness in teaching

    PASSAGE 3

    Prosperity will eventually drive out divisive

    politics. In a prosperous society, there would

    neither be time nor need for divisive politics. The

    underlying drive of all forms of divisions is

    economic. Therefore economic policies favouring

    rising prosperity would do less harm to society

    than the 'redistribution of poverty' policies.

    28. With reference to the passage, the following

    assumptions have been made:

    1. Divisive policy is harmful to the society.

    2. ‘Redistribution of poverty’ policies lead to

    divisive politics.

    Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  • -8-

    PASSAGE 4

    Many people argue that the death penalty

    deters murder. However, the notorious killer

    deliberately moved to a state that imposes the

    death penalty just before embarking on a series of

    ferocious murders. Thus, it seems clear that the

    existence of the death penalty does not serve as a

    deterrent to murder.

    29. The argument above may best be

    characterised as

    (a) An appeal to emotion

    (b) A flawed analogy

    (c) A general conclusion based on a specific

    example

    (d) Circular reasoning

    PASSAGE 5

    There has been a sharp increase in the

    subscription prices of many professional and

    scholarly journals in the past 7 years. Many

    publishers ascribe the necessity for these

    increases to the easy availability of photocopying

    facilities, which enable people simply to copy the

    articles they want rather than buying the journal.

    30. Which one of the following views corroborates

    the above statement?

    (a) The great majority of professional and

    scholarly journals have a massive backlog

    of papers awaiting publication

    (b) Over the past 5 years there has been a

    substantial decline in the number of

    individual subscriptions to professional

    and scholarly journals, while library

    subscriptions have remained fairly stable

    (c) In the 5 years immediately preceding the

    price surge, there was a substantial

    decline in the number of individual

    subscriptions to professional and scholarly

    journals, while library subscriptions

    remained fairly stable

    (d) Many libraries have recently begun cutting

    back on subscriptions to professional and

    scholarly journals

    Directions (31-32): Read the following

    informations to answer the questions that follow.

    Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are

    planning to enjoy boating. There are only two

    boats and the following conditions are to be kept

    in mind.

    I. A will go in the same boat in which E is to

    go.

    II. F cannot go in the boat in which C unless

    D is also accompanying.

    III. Neither B nor C can be given the boat in

    which G is

    IV. The maximum number of persons in one

    boat can be four only.

    31. If F and B are in one boat, which of the

    following statements is definitely true?

    (a) G is in the other boat

    (b) D is in the other boat

    (c) C is in the other boat

    (d) E is with F and B in one boat

    32. If E gets boat with F, which of the following is

    the complete and accurate list of the people

    who must be sitting in other boat?

    (a) F and E

    (b) G and A

    (c) C and A

    (d) C, D and B

  • -9-

    33. What comes in place of question mark (?) in

    the series given below?

    1, 2, 10, 37, 101,?

    (a) 226

    (b) 215

    (c) 218

    (d) 229

    34. In a row of girls, Veena is 12th from the start

    and 19th from the end. In another row of girls,

    Sunita is 14th from the start and 20th from the

    end. How many girls are there in both the

    rows together?

    (a) 72

    (b) 65

    (c) 63

    (d) 61

    Directions (35-39): Study the following

    information carefully to answer the questions

    given below

    P, T, V, R, M, D, K and W are sitting around a

    circular table facing the centre. V is second to the

    left to T. T is fourth to the right of M. D and P are

    not immediate neighbours of T. D is third to the

    right of P. W is not an immediate neighbour of P. P

    is to the immediate left to K.

    35. Who is second to the left to K?

    (a) P

    (b) R

    (c) M

    (d) W

    36. Who is to the immediate left to V?

    (a) D

    (b) M

    (c) W

    (d) Data inadequate

    37. Who is the third to the right of V?

    (a) T

    (b) K

    (c) P

    (d) None of these

    38. What is R’s position with respect to V?

    (a) Third to the right

    (b) Fifth to the right

    (c) Third to the left

    (d) Second to the left

    39. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

    way based on their positions in the above

    sitting arrangement and so form a group.

    Which of the following does not belong to that

    group?

    (a) DW

    (b) TP

    (c) VM

    (d) RD

  • -10-

    Directions for the following 4 (Four) items:

    Read the following 4 Passages and answer the

    items that follow. Your answers to these items

    should be based on the passages only.

    PASSAGE 1

    Mr. Vishwakarma, the car mechanic said,

    “All of the two door cars that I have repaired have

    always had 8 cylinders, so all 2 door cars must

    have 8 cylinder engines.

    40. What is the basis of mechanic's argument?

    (a) Generalisation

    (b) Syllogism

    (c) Deduction

    (d) Ambiguity

    PASSAGE 2

    Partly because of bad weather, but also

    partly because some major pepper growers have

    switched to high-price cocoa, world production of

    pepper has been running below worldwide sales

    for three years. Pepper is consequently in

    relatively short supply. The price of pepper soared

    in response: it now equals that of cocoa.

    41. Which of the following is the most logical and

    rational inference that can be made from the

    above passage?

    (a) Pepper is a profitable crop only if it is

    grown on large scale

    (b) World consumption of pepper has been

    unusually high for three-years

    (c) World production of pepper will return to

    previous levels once normal weather

    returns

    (d) The profit that the growers of pepper have

    made in the past three years has been

    unprecedented

    PASSAGE 3

    In 1980, global service exports totalled

    about $ 370 billion, approximately 20% of world

    trade. Still, no coherent system of rules, principles

    and procedures exists to govern trade in services.

    42. The author’s viewpoint can be best summed

    up in which of the following statements?

    (a) Regulatory systems lag behind reality

    (b) A regulatory system ought to reflect the

    importance of services exports

    (c) World trade totalled $ 1850 billion in 1980

    (d) While trade legislation exists, it is

    uncoordinated

    PASSAGE 4

    Lakshmi overslept. Therefore, she did not

    eat breakfast. She realised that she was late for

    school, so she ran as fast as she could and did not

    see a hole in the ground which was in her path.

    She tripped and broke her ankle. She was then to

    the hospital and while lying in bed was visited by

    her friend, who wanted to know why she had got

    up so late.

    43. Which among the following is the most logical

    and rational inference that can be made from

    the above passage?

    (a) Because Lakshmi did not eat her

    breakfast, she broke her ankle

    (b) Lakshmi's friend visited her in the hospital

    because she wanted to know why she was

    late for school

    (c) Sally did not notice the hole because she

    overslept

    (d) Sally's broken ankle meant she did not go

    to school that day

  • -11-

    44. A man points to a women saying, “She is the

    only sister of the son of my mother-in-law’s

    husband”. How the son of the women is

    related to that man?

    (a) Son

    (b) Son- in -law

    (c) Brother

    (d) Brother-in-law

    Directions for the following 4 (Four) items:

    Read the following Four passages and answer the

    items that follow the passages. Your answers to

    these items should be based on the passages only.

    Passage 1

    If the Chennai continues to collect residential

    trash at current levels, landfills will soon be

    overflowing and parkland will need to be used in

    order to create more space. Charging each

    household a fee for each pound of trash it puts

    out for collection will induce residents to reduce

    the amount of trash they create; this charge will

    therefore protect the remaining chennai parkland.

    45. Which of the following is an assumption made

    in drawing the conclusion above?

    (a) The collection fee will not significantly

    affect the purchasing power of most

    residents, even if their households do not

    reduce the amount of trash

    (b) The collection fee will not induce residents

    to dump their trash in the parklands

    illegally

    (c) The beauty of chennai parkland is an

    important issue for most of the chennai’s

    residents

    (d) Landfills outside the chennai's borders

    could be used as dumping sites for the

    chennai's trash

    Passage 2

    Advertisement: Today's 'customers expect high

    quality. Every advance in the quality of

    manufactured products raises customer

    expectations. The company that is satisfied with

    the current quality of its products will soon find

    that its customers are not. At NEWCORP, meeting

    or exceeding customer expectations is our goal.

    46. Which of the following must be true on the

    basis of the statements in the advertisement

    above?

    (a) NEW Corp's competitors will succeed in

    attracting customers only if those

    competitors adopt NEWCorp's goal as their

    own

    (b) A company that does not correctly

    anticipate the expectations of its

    customers is certain to fail in advancing

    the quality of its products

    (c) NEWCorp’s goal is possible to meet only if

    continuing advances in product quality are

    possible

    (d) If a company becomes satisfied with the

    quality of its products, then the quality of

    its products is sure to decline

  • -12-

    Passage 3

    Eating carrots significantly lowers the risk of

    cancer, according to an article in a nutritional

    magazine. The article refers to a study that found

    that people who consumed one or more carrots

    per day were half as likely to be diagnosed with

    the disease as people who did not.

    47. Which of the following, if true, most weakens

    the argument in the magazine article?

    (a) Another study found that people who

    consumed one tablespoon of flax seed oil

    per day were more than four times less

    likely to be diagnosed with cancer

    (b) Participants in the study reported

    consuming no vegetables other than

    carrots

    (c) In another experiment, cancer patients

    who ate one or more carrots per day were

    no more likely to recover than those who

    ate no carrots

    (d) The participants in the study who ate

    carrots were more likely to exercise

    regularly than those who did not eat

    carrots

    Passage 4

    Cotton acreage in India during the current

    year has fallen by 15% as cotton growers have

    moved on to cultivation of other cash crops. This

    is the result of the cotton glut in world markets in

    post-September 2008 and the consequent

    slowdown in the world economy. But this scenario

    brought with it benefits to one segment of the

    industry yarn manufacturers as they got higher

    prices for their produce. Some yarn

    manufacturers too had stuck up on low-priced

    cotton last year. The combined effect of all this is

    evident in the rise in net profits and net margins

    of yarn manufacturers.

    48. Which of the following is an inference which

    can be made from the facts stated in the above

    paragraph?

    (a) The cotton industry grew tremendously

    post-September 2008

    (b) The yarn manufacturers have marginally

    suffered during post September 2008

    period

    (c) India was the largest cotton producer

    earlier

    (d) Cotton production will surely grow in

    upcoming years

    Direction (49): Study the following pie-chart

    and answer the question given below.

    49. HBO and star plus have ________ viewers

    (a) 160

    (b) 340

    (c) 320

    (d) 480

  • -13-

    50. In the following figure what comes in the place

    of question mark?

    (a) 14

    (b) 15

    (c) 16

    (d) 18

    51. The If AB is the mirror, what is the mirror

    image of the below given figure?

    (a)

    (b)

    (c)

    (d)

    52. From the given options, which figure can be

    formed by folding the figure given in the

    question?

    (a)

    (b)

    (c)

    (d)

  • -14-

    Directions for the following 3 (Three) items:

    Read the following Four passages and answer the

    items that follow the passages. Your answers to

    these items should be based on the passages only.

    PASSAGE 1

    Seen from the perspective of potential,

    India is truly one of the most exciting places on

    earth. In the 16 years, since Microsoft set up

    operations in India, I have seen firsthand the

    incredible strides the country has made, building

    an information technology almost from scratch.

    This industry is an engine that has driven the

    creation of new opportunities for hundreds of

    thousands of people and established India as one

    of the world’s most important centres for

    innovation. Thanks to the combination of rapid

    economic growth, an emerging middle class, and

    an impressive record of technical excellence, India

    stands as one of the great success stories of our

    time.

    53. What is the most logical conclusion can be

    drawn from the above passage?

    (a) India is an exciting place and the

    excitement has been palpable ever since

    Microsoft set up shop here

    (b) Thanks to the prolific growth of the

    information technology industry, India has

    of late found its place on the global map

    (c) Though there are rapid strides in

    technology and innovation, India is yet to

    travel many more miles to become a

    developed country

    (d) India’s success lies in its rapid unleashing

    of potential, whether it be in the economy,

    technology or the power to innovate

    PASSAGE 2

    People should be held accountable for their

    own behaviour, and if holding people accountable

    for their own behaviour entails capital

    punishment, then so be it. However, no person

    should be held accountable for behaviour over

    which he or she had no control.

    54. Which of the following is the most logical

    corollary can be derived from the above

    passage?

    (a) Behaviour that cannot be controlled

    should not be punished

    (b) People have control over their own

    behaviour

    (c) People cannot control the behaviour of

    other people

    (d) People should not be held accountable for

    the behaviour of other people

    PASSAGE 3

    A project aiming to revolutionise medicine by

    unlocking the secrets of DNA is under way in

    centres across England. Prime Minister David

    Cameron has said it “will see the U.K. lead the

    world in genetic research within years”. The first

    genetic codes of people with cancer or rare

    diseases, out of a target of 100,000, have been

    sequenced. Experts believe it will lead to targeted

    therapies and could make chemotherapy “a thing

    of the past”. Just one human genome contains

    more than three billion base pairs—the building

    blocks of DNA.

  • -15-

    55. Which one of the following statements best

    sums up the above passage?

    (a) Prime Minister Cameron has unveiled an

    ambitious Genome Project which has the

    potential to cure cancer

    (b) Sequencing genetic codes may hold the key

    to combating rare and fatal diseases. This

    idea is at the heart of a project launched in

    England, which experts feel, will

    revolutionise medicine

    (c) Targeted therapy for rare disease has been

    made possible by studying the genetic

    codes of people with cancer and rare

    diseases. A similar project is also

    underway in England

    (d) The 100,000 Genome project could make

    chemotherapy a thing of the past as

    genetic code sequencing can provide

    targeted therapies for cancer and rare

    diseases

    Directions (56-58): Read the following

    information carefully to answer the questions that

    follow.

    Five ships J, K, L, M and N are to be unloaded

    on 5 consecutive days beginning from Monday to

    Friday.

    I. Each ship takes exactly one day to

    unload.

    II. K must be unloaded before (not

    necessarily immediately before) the days

    on which M and N are unloaded.

    III. L cannot be unloaded on Tuesday

    IV. M is the second ship to be unloaded after

    J is unloaded.

    56. If M is unloaded on Friday, which one of the

    following is true?

    (a) J is unloaded on Wednesday

    (b) K is unloaded on Tuesday

    (c) L is unloaded on Monday

    (d) L is unloaded on Thursday

    57. If K, M and N are to be unloaded one

    immediately after the other, the two days on

    which J can be unloaded are

    (a) Monday and Tuesday

    (b) Monday and Friday

    (c) Tuesday and Wednesday

    (d) Wednesday and Friday

    58. If L is unloaded immediately after J, which of

    the following is true?

    (a) J is unloaded on Wednesday

    (b) K is unloaded on Monday

    (c) L is unloaded on Thursday

    (d) M is unloaded on Friday

    59. Two alloys A and B contain gold and silver in

    the ratio of 1:2 and 1:3 respectively. A third

    alloy C is formed by mixing A and B in the

    ratio of 2:3. Find the percentage of silver in the

    alloy C.

    (a) 2

    713

    %

    (b) 1

    283

    %

    (c) 2

    703

    %

    (d) 1

    293

    %

  • -16-

    60. In a certain code `468’ is coded as `come home

    soon’ and `786’is coded as ` come soon here’

    then what is the code for `6’. What is the code

    for `6’.

    (a) Come

    (b) Soon

    (c) Here

    (d) Can’t be determined

    Directions (61-63): Read the following

    information carefully to answer the questions that

    follow. These questions are based on diagram

    given below.

    A survey is conducted among 700 people,

    who take either Vanilla or Strawberry or Chocolate

    Ice cream. 40 people don’t eat any ice cream. The

    known data was shown in the diagram.

    61. How many people take only Vanilla?

    (a) 135

    (b) 132

    (c) 125

    (d) 120

    62. How many people take atmost one Ice cream?

    (a) 234

    (b) 432

    (c) 437

    (d) 410

    63. How many people take exactly 2 Ice creams?

    (a) 205

    (b) 210

    (c) 215

    (d) 220

    Directions for questions (64-68) Read the

    information given below and answer the questions

    that follow:

    J, K, L, M and N are five boys in a class. They

    are ranked in the order of heights – from the

    tallest to the shortest – and in order of cleverness

    – from the cleverest to the dullest. K is taller than

    N, but not as clever as J and L, whereas M is the

    cleverest of all but shorter than J. While L is

    shorter than M but taller than K, L is not as clever

    as J. No two persons got the same ranks in any of

    these parameters.

    64. Who is the third in the order of heights?

    (a) J

    (b) N

    (c) K

    (d) L

  • -17-

    65. If N is not the last in atleast one of the two

    comparisons, which of the following is the

    dullest of all the five?

    (a) K

    (b) L

    (c) M

    (d) J

    66. If L is the third in order of cleverness, who is

    the dullest of all?

    (a) M

    (b) N

    (c) J

    (d) Cannot be determined

    67. Who among the following is cleverer as well as

    taller than K?

    (a) L and J only

    (b) L and N

    (c) J, L and M

    (d) L and M only

    68. How many people are definitely shorter than

    K?

    (a) 1

    (b) 2

    (c) 4

    (d) None of these

    Directions for questions (69-70) Read the

    information given below and answer the questions

    that follow:

    Out of four friends P, Q, R, S.

    I. P and Q play Chess and Cricket

    II. Q and R play Cricket and Hockey

    III. P and S play Basket ball and Chess

    IV. R and S play Hockey and Basketball

    69. Who does not play Hockey?

    (a) S

    (b) R

    (c) Q

    (d) P

    70. Who plays Chess, Basketball and Hockey?

    (a) S

    (b) R

    (c) Q

    (d) P

    Directions for the following 4 (Four) items:

    Read the following 4 Passages and answer the

    items that follow. Your answers to these items

    should be based on the passages only.

    PASSAGE 1

    Cases of food poisoning have been reported

    from village X. After a dinner party arranged for

    100 people, 68 have been admitted to the hospital,

    36 cases are reported to be out of danger. The

    food, which was cooked and stored in open space

    for almost 12 hours earlier, was served after

    reheating it. Investigation is going on.-A news

    report.

  • -18-

    71. Which is the critical inference that can be

    made from the above passage?

    (a) Late night dinner parties for large number

    of people result into food poisoning

    (b) Stale food is likely to be the cause of food

    poisoning

    (c) Cases of food poisoning need to be handled

    carefully

    (d) Food poisoning is a matter of chance and

    no preventive measure can be suggested

    PASSAGE 2

    To prevent some conflict of interest, the

    Indian parliament passed an Act which prohibits

    high level government officials from accepting

    highly paid positions in MNCs, for five years after

    such officials leave government service. One such

    official concluded, however, that such a

    prohibition is unfortunate because it prevented

    high level government officials from earning a

    decent livelihood for five years.

    72. The official's conclusion logically depends on

    which of the following assumptions?

    (a) Laws should not treat the former

    government officials unequally and they

    should be treated on par with ordinary

    citizens

    (b) High level government officials who leave

    government service are capable of earning

    a decent livelihood in MNC’s only

    (c) All high level government official after

    leaving government services act as

    influence peddlers if they join highly paid

    jobs in MNCs

    (d) Low level government officials do not often

    become intermediaries when they leave

    government service

    PASSAGE 3

    Distribution of leaflets and delivering

    speeches on government property should be

    outlawed. Radicals and fanatics have no right to

    use public property when peddling their

    unsavoury views.

    73. The argument above is based on which of the

    following assumption

    (a) The general public has a special concern in

    the free exchange of different political

    views

    (b) Radicals and fanatics prefer the use of

    public property while propagating their

    view point

    (c) Every person who hands out leaflets and

    delivers speeches is a radical or fanatic

    (d) Legal constraints, which are applicable to

    one group, need not be equally applicable

    to all

    PASSAGE 4

    Our college received 50% more

    applications from students this year compared to

    the last year. This shows how improved facilities

    at an institute can attract students.

    74. Which of the following presents a flaw in the

    reasoning of the above passage?

    (a) The recent increase in the number of

    applications might not be sustained next

    year

    (b) The college might have made false claims

    about improved facilities

    (c) The passage does not elaborate on the

    improved facilities

    (d) The passage assumes that improved

    facilities were the only reason for more

    applications this year

  • -19-

    Directions (75-77) the following Bar graph

    shows the placement statistics in an MBA college

    in two years 2010 and 2020.

    Placement statistics of Boys

    Placement statistics of Girls

    75. In how many of the seven streams is the

    placement of girls is greater than that of the

    boys in 2010?

    (a) 3

    (b) 4

    (c) 5

    (d) None of these

    76. What is the percentage change in the number

    of students placed in supply chain

    management from 2010 to 2020?

    (a) 20%

    (b) 75%

    (c) 100%

    (d) >100%

    77. The ratio of the number of girls placed in HR

    and Marketing in 2010 to the number of boys

    placed Finance and Consulting in 2020.

    (a) 11 : 12

    (b) 5 : 6

    (c) 9:10

    (d) None of these

    78. Damini jogs 500 m towards South. She takes

    a U-turn and walks 200 m. She turns left and

    jogs another 400 m. How far (in km) is she

    from her starting point?

    (a) 0.5

    (b) 0.7

    (c) 0.3

    (d) None of these

    79. Two students ‘x’ and ‘y’ appeared an

    examination ‘x’ secured 9 marks more than

    marks of ‘y’ and marks of ‘x’ was 56% of sum

    of their marks. The marks obtained by ‘x’ and

    ‘y’ are respectively

    (a) 39, 30

    (b) 42, 33

    (c) 41, 32

    (d) 43, 34

    80. There are 512 identical cubes are attached to

    form a larger cube. Then the cube is painted

    on all its faces. How many cubes are no face

    painted?

    (a) 216

    (b) 96

    (c) 36

    (d) None of the above

    0102030405060708090

    2010

    2020

    0

    20

    40

    60

    80

    100

    2010

    2020