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PAPER 1Mock Test -1

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS All questions carry one mark each. Since all questions are compulsory do not try to read through the

whole question paper before beginning to answer it. Beginwiththefirstquestionandkeepontryingonequestionafteranothertillyoufinish.

If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to the next one. Time permitting you can comebacktothequestionswhichyouhaveleftinthefirstinstanceand try them again.

Since the time allotted is very short you should makes best use of it.

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PART I

SAT (English)Directions (1 to 5): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

Gerry Grunsfeld, a genial 32-year-old lawyer who grew up in England and now lives in a narrow two-storeyed house in Midwood, Brooklyn, has the kind of backyard youre not sure whether to envy or pity. True, its green space, a rare and precious commodity for a city dweller. But its not very big and its hemmed in by buildings that partially block the sun. The growing conditions are far from idea, Grunsfeld said, standing on his porch on a recent afternoon.

Nevertheless, since he bought the place four years ago, Grunsfeld has transformed his 150-square-foot garden into a little orchard, cramming it with fruit trees along with fruit-bearing vines and bushes. He has two cherry trees and two apples; including a Coxs Orange Pippin in a planter (I used to eat them in England). Theres also a Santa Rosa plum (I saw it in a nursery and couldnt resist); and a Concord grapevine in a tall frame in a barrel on a tree stump (I dont have an inch of space left so Im trying to make it grow vertical).

Threevarietiesofblackberriesgrowbehindhischildrensswingset,afigtreeoccupies a far corner, and a litchi and two tangerine trees, part of a recent foray into citrus, wait for spring in a basement grow-room. In the summertime, when everything is in bloom and fruiting, the yard calls to mind a scruffy Garden of Eden. My wife thinks Ive gone crazy, Mr. Grunsfeld said, But theres something magical about seeing fruit develop. In the last few years, an increasing number of Americans have turned their yards over to such mini orchards, planting them with dwarf and semi-dwarf fruit trees, even in dense urban areas. Suppliers around the country have seen significant increase in fruit tree sales, like the 12 to 15percent annual sales growth reported by the Dave Wilson Nursery in Hickman, Calif., which has one of the countrys largest selections of fruit trees (more than 1,300 varieties).

And once people decide to grow fruit, Its rare that they buy just one tree, said Tom Shafer, the manager of Hold ridge Home and Garden showplace, a retail nursery in Ledyard, Connecticut. Shafer said the average number of trees his customers plant is four, but in the past three years some have been opting for a dozen or more. People want more fruit and more types of fruit, he said, and they think a grouping will look better in their landscape.

Growing fruit trees in the backyard has always been popular in Southern California, but even there the mini orchard is gaining adherents. Lora Hall, a 27-year-old graduate student, is typical of the new breed of fruit grower, motivated, she says, by a desire to wean her dependence on the supermarket.

1. Where does Gerry Grunsfeld live?(a) England (b) Midwood, Brooklyn(c) England, Brooklyn (d) None

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2. Describe his garden?(a) His garden is not very big.(b) His garden is very big.(c) There is sunlight reaching the garden.(d) None of these

3. What does Gerrys wife think about his passion?(a) His passion of growing fruit tree in the small backyard is crazy.(b) His passion of growing fruit tree in the big backyard is crazy.(c) His passion of growing fruit tree in the small backyard is not crazy.(d) None of these

4. What are the negative conditions that the backyard has to struggle with?(a) The space is very limited in the dense urban areas.(b) The space is very spacious in the urban areas.(c) The space is very limited in the rural areas.(d) None of these

5. What is recent craze of the Americans living in the dense urban areas?(a) The recent craze of the Americans is to plant dwarf or semi-dwarf

fruit trees.(b) They wanted to turn their backyards into big orchards.(c) They wanted to turn their backyards into any type of orchards.(d) None of these

Directions (6 to 10): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

In recent time when a child drinks a soft drink to consume, hes putting his steps foradangerousbonediseasethathedoesntknow.Ifyouarethinkingthisfizzyand sugary drinks harm him directly and this is the cause of osteoporosis is not true. But, because they are often a substitute for a glass of milk, kids are not getting the calcium and vitamin D they need to build a strong skeleton. These children arent just in threat for fragile bones and fractures decades down the road. They could be at a risk of osteoporosis at a younger age than ever before.

The Indian Society for Bone and Mineral Research, a body of osteoporosis experts is trying to spread awareness about this bone crippling disease. Osteoporosis starts in childhood but has consequences later in life. The condition causes bones to become riddled with holes, like the framework of a house thats been attacked by termites. That can lead to broken bones, which in turn can cause deformity, chronic pain or disability. Osteoporosis can be fatal: up to 25 percent of older people who suffer a broken hip die within a year. Osteoporosis isnt just your grandmothers health threat. Although it strikes over 50 million women in India, it also menaces over 12 million men. Osteoporosis causes loss of height, pain in joints and back, fractures and a fear of fractures, and can be very depressing. So it is important that we adopt preventive measures, to save millions of people.

There is a new medical understanding of the best ways to protect ourselves and our children. Simple lifestyle changes and nutrition will help save your bones,

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says Dr. Mittal. To get us moving in the right direction, he says, Its never too late to adopt bone-friendly habits exercises, get enough sunlight, and have adequate calcium. This way, we can keep our bones healthy and prevent osteoporosis.Complete the following sentences based on the passage given above: 6. To build strong skeleton children need

(a) Calcium and vitamin D (b) Vitamin B(c) Cold Drink (d) None of these

7. The children are at a risk of osteoporosis at a younger age as(a) Drink Cold Drink(b) Drink Milk(c) In spite of milk and milk product they drink cold drink.(d) None of these

8. Osteoporosis can lead to(a) Broken bones (b) Nausea(c) Vomiting (d) None of these

9. Which one is not the best ways to protect children and ourselves from osteoporosis(a) Exercises(b) Adequate calcium(c) Sunlight(d) Fat

10. What is the meaning of fizzyandsugarydrinks(a) Drink that is not good for health(b) Tasty and Healthy drink(c) Tasty but not good for health(d) None of these

Directions (11 to 15): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

Papaya is the healthiest fruit with a list of properties that is long and exhaustive. Belonging to the family of Caricaceae fruit, it is commonly known as Papaw inAustralia andMamao inBrazil. It first originated in southernMexico andneighbouring Central America, but is now available in every tropical and subtropical country. Papaya favours digestion as well as cures skin irritation and sun burns. You can munch on it as a salad, have it cooked or boiled or just drink itupasmilkshakeorjuices.Modernscienceconfirmstheage-oldbeliefsthatpapaya has much to contribute to the health cause. The most important of these virtues is the protein digesting enzyme in the milky juice or latex. The enzyme is similar to pepsin in its digestive action and is said to be so powerful that it can digest 200 times its own weight in protein. It assists the body in assimilating the maximum nutritional value from food to provide energy and body building materials.

PapaininrawpapayamakesupforthedeficiencyJuiceofgastricandfightsexcess of unhealthy mucus in the stomach, dyspepsia and intestinal irritation.

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The ripe fruit, it eaten regularly corrects habitual constipation, bleeding piles and chronic diarrhoea. The juice of the papaya seeds also assists in the above-mentioned ailments.

The juice, used as a cosmetic, removes freckles or brown spots due to exposure to sunlight and makes the skin smooth and delicate. A paste of papaya seeds is applied in skin diseases like those caused by ringworm. The black seeds of the papayaarehighlybeneficial in thetreatmentofcirrhosisof the livercausedbyalcoholism, malnutrition etc. A tablespoonful of its juice, combined with a hint of fresh lime juice, should be consumed once or twice daily for a month. The freshjuiceofrawpapayamixedwithhoneycanbeappliedoverinflamedtonsils,for diphtheria and other throat disorders. It dissolves the membrane and prevents infection from spreading. 11. What in not the other names for papaya is

(a) Papaw (b) Mamao(c) Papaya (d) Cirrhosis

12. One of the most important virtues of papaya is(a) Latex (b) Mamao(c) Papaya (d) Cirrhosis

13. Diseases not cured by papaya is(a) removes freckles or brown spots(b) cirrhosis of the liver(c) malnutrition(d) Headache

14. Throat disorders can be cured if(a) apply the fresh juice of raw papaya mixed with honey(b) consumes black seeds of the papaya(c) take juice(d) Consumes fresh lime juice and Papaya

15. Treatment for skin disease is(a) apply the fresh juice of raw papaya mixed with honey(b) consumes black seeds of the papaya(c) take juice(d) Consumes fresh lime juice and Papaya

Directions (16 to 30): Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words tofillintheblanktomakethesentencemeaningfullycomplete.

16. His manner is bad, and his morality is not suspicion.(a) above (b) outside(c) below (d) in

17. It is 14 years since i him.(a) have been seen (b) had seen(c) saw (d) have seen

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18. It being an issue, it is not correct to introduce questions of honesty in to the debate.(a) decent (b) sinful(c) amoral (d) irrelevant

19. Mr Ramlal them all for a ride by creating false documents.(a) took (b) angry(c) reserved (d) let

20. True conciseness in saying only what needs to be said.(a) consists (b) portrays(c) reveals (d) resides

21. Health is too important to be (a) redundant (b) abhorrent(c) detested (d) neglected

22. In hot weather I like lying in the of a tree.(a) shade (b) asylum(c) defense (d) shadow

23. It was indeed unreasonable him to leave this job and start business.(a) on (b) within(c) upon (d) of

24. One major between the Election Commission and the Union Government related to the powers of the former in respect of the deployment of central police forces at places where are elections is held.(a) aggravation (b) conflict(c) agony (d) culprit

25. Weshallnottobeabletouseyouraptitudeincourtunlesswecanfindsome-one to to statements.(a) corroborate (b) avouch(c) confirm (d) admire

26. He is too dull this problem.(a) is solving (b) to solving(c) to solve (d) has been solved

27. He is the person who is to blame.(a) generally (b) inevitable(c) most (d) sure

28. We had to pay more taxi fare because the driver brought us by a route.(a) spherical (b) limited(c) longest (d) circuitous

29. He was accused stealing his aunts necklace.(a) From (b) Within(c) of (d) in

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30. He knew everything better than anybody else, and it was an affront to his vanity that you should disagree with him.(a) over strung (b) over weening(c) awesome (d) emotional

Directions (31 to 35): In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

31. By this time P: at the bus station Q: reported mass robbing R:reportsofviolencewereoverflowingin S: which police reports The proper sequence should be:

(a) PSRQ (b) PSQR(c) SQRP (d) RSQP

32. Then the women P: sorrowful their evil appeal Q: that had brought R: weptnoisily S: this sorrowfulness upon them The proper sequence should be:

(a) RPQS (b) QRPS(c) PQSR (d) PQRS

33. Women P: till the other day Q: who were relaxed being housewives R: about spending their time cooking S:nowsounddiffident The proper sequence should be:

(a) PQRS (b) RSPQ(c) QPSR (d) RQPS

34. Though he phoned frequently P: on phone Q: my brother could not contact me R: and had left no communication S:asIhadgoneoutofoffice The proper sequence should be:

(a) QPRS (b) SQRP(c) QPSR (d) SQPR

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35. He said P: here is the cat Q: throughout the night R: which had been paying havoc with things S: that ate the rat The proper sequence should be:

(a) PSQR (b) PSRQ(c) QPRS (d) QRPS

Directions (36 to 40): In questions below, each passage consist of six senten- ces.Thefirstandsixthsentencesaregiveninthebeginning.Themiddlefoursentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

36. S1: Conway dedicated his life to two great objects independence of thought, and freedom of the individual.

P: They warn both kinds of freedom. Q: But something also has been lost. R: There are now jeopardies, somewhat different in form from those of the

past ages. S: In regard to both these objects, something has been gained since his time. S6: Unless a vigorous and vigilant public opinion can be aroused in defence of

them, there will be much less of both a hundred years hence then there is now.

The proper sequence should be:(a) QPRS (b) QSPR(c) SQRP (d) RSPQ

37. S1: The study of speech disorders due to brain injury suggests that patients can thinkwithouthavingsufficientcontrolovertheirlanguage.

P: But they prosper in playing games of chess. Q:Somepatients,forexamplefailtofindthenamesofobjectspresentedto

them. R: They can even use the concepts needed for chess playing, though they are

unable to express many of the concepts in normal language. S:Theyevenfindittoughtointerpretlongwrittennotices. S6: How they manage to do this we do not know. The proper sequence should be:

(a) SPQR (b) RPSQ(c) QSPR (d) SRPQ

38. S1: A black haired, young woman came agile along. P: She was leading a young woman wearing a hat. Q: The woman swept it off and tossed it in the air.

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R: The child hopped up to catch the hat. S: The young man tossed his head to shake the hat back. S6: Both disappeared from view. The proper sequence should be:

(a) PSQR (b) PRSQ(c) RQPS (d) QSRP

39. S1: We now know that the oceans are very deep. P: For example, the Indian ocean has a range called the Indian Ridge. Q:Muchofitisfairlyflat. R: However, there are great mountain ranges as well. S: On common the bottom is 2.5 miles to 3.5 miles down S6: This reaches from the India to the Antarctic. The Proper sequence should be:

(a) SQPR (b) PQSR(c) RSQP (d) QPRS

40. S1: Minnie went shopping one morning. P: Disappointed She turned around and returned to the parking lot. Q: She got out and walked to the nearest shop. R: She drove her car into the parking lot and stopped. S: It was there that she realized that shed forgotten her purse at home. S6: She drove home with an empty basket. The proper sequence should be:

(a) SRQP (b) RQSP(c) QPRS (d) QPRS

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1. 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, 336, _____, 720.(a) 496 (b) 502 (c) 504 (d) 498

2. A, C, H, R, ?, I, T (a) Y (b) I (c) H (d) K

3. (6, 7, B); (19, 20, D); ( ? ); (175, 176, K); (526, 527, P). (a) (58, 59, G) (b) (59, 60, G)(c) (58, 59, H) (d) (59, 60, H)

Direction (4) Thereisaletterseriesinthefirstrowandanumberseriesinthesecond row. Each number in the number series stands for a letter in the letter series.Sinceineachofthatseriessometermsaremissingyouhavetofindoutas to what those terms are, and answer the questions based on these as given below in the series.

Direction (5): Which number should come in place of question mark ?.

4. _ m y e _ _ y l x _ y l m _ _ l _ _ _ _4 6 _ 5 8 6 _ _ _ 5 7 _ 6 5 8 _ _ _ _ _

(a) 46758 (b) 74658 (c) 76485 (d) 46785

5. 5 11 96

9 12 88

8 17 ?

(a) 225 (b) 165 (c) 185 (d) 250 6. In a certain code 345 means Verra is gentle; 599means Veera kind

hearted and 126 means Kanchan also good then which digit in that code represents Gentle?(a) 3 (b) 4(c) 5 (d) Cannot be determined

7. In a certain code, C is coded as 0, E as 7, T as 4, I as 9, P as 1, R as 3 and U as 5. How is 1904537 coded in that code?(a) PICTRUE (b) PICTURE(c) RICTPUE (d) PCTUREI

8. If OX is coded as 39, what will be the code number for LION?(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 38 (d) 50

9. Inthegivenalternatives,findthewordwhichcannotbeformedbyusingtheletters of the word RAPPROCHEMENT.(a) REPRESENT (b) REPROACH(c) PHANTOM (d) CEMENT

MAT (Mental Ability Test)Directions (1 to 3): Find the missing term in the following sequences.

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Directions (11 to 12): Are to be answered with reference to the following explanatory paragraph : Suppose in view of a number system a symbol system was substituted, which has digits , L, Z, S, , , , stands for multipli-cation; + stands for division; stands for equal to; stand for greater than; = stands for less than; then which one of the given alternatives is correct ?(a) 8 < 4 3 3 2 1 (b) 8 > 4 < 3 3 > 2 < 1(c) 8 4 < 3 3 < 2 < 1 (d) 8 + 4 3 3 > 2 1

Directions (13 to17): Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow. There are four students sitting in a row : one each from A, B, C and D Countries but not in order given,

1. They are wearing caps of different coloursgreen, yellow, red and white, not necessarily in that order.

2. One is wearing a casual shirts and one a T-shirt. 3. The A is wearing a green cap and a jacket. 4. The C is not seated at either end. 5. The persons with casual shirts and T-shirt are sitting next to each other. 6. The persons with casual shirts wear a red cap and sits next to the B. 7. The B wears a shirt and is not seated at either end. 8. The man with white cap wears T-shirt and is seated at one end. 13. Who wears the T-shirt?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D 14. Who is wearing a casual shirts?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D 15. What is the colour of the cap worn by the B?

(a) Red (b) Green (c) Yellow (d) White 16. Who is next to the man wearing T-shirt?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) German 17. Who precedes the man wearing jacket?

(a) A (b) German (c) B (d) Cannot say

Directions (18 to 19): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In Mumbai there are ,5 friends name of the friends are A, B, C, D and E are playing a interesting game of crossing the roads. In the beginning, A,

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B and E are on the one side of the road and D and C are on the other side of the road. At the end of the game, it was found that B and D are on the one side and A, C and Eare on the other side of the road. Rules of the games are as follows:

1. One movement means only one person crosses the road from any side to the other side.

2. No two persons can cross the road simultaneously from any side to the other side.

3. Two persons from the same side of the roads cannot move in consecutive movements.

4. If one person crosses the road in a particular movement, he or she cannot immediately move back to the other side.

5. CandBdidnottakepartinfirst3movements. 18. What is the minimum possible number of movements that took place in the

entire game?(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

19. If number of movements are minimized in the game, then which of the follow-ing combination of friends can never be together on one particular side of the road during the course of the game?(a) A, B and D (b) A, C and D(c) D, C and E (d) E, A and D

20. In Nishant is the brother of Brijesh; Mitali is the sister of Nishant; Ram is the brother of Purnima; Purnima is the daughter of Brijesh. Who is the uncle of Ram?(a) Brijesh (b) Mitali (c) Nishant (d) Purnima

21. Navin proceeding to the north 5 km turns to the right. Before takes a turn to the left and again to the left he walks 3 km in each segment. After this he goes to his right and after proceeding some distance again turns towards his right. The direction in which Navin is now moving is(a) West (b) South (c) North (d) East

22. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes west and so on. What will west become ?(a) North-East (b) South-East(c) South (d) South-West

Directions (23 to 24): In each of the following questions, there are two terms are two terms to the left of the sign :: which are related in some way. Obtain the same relationship between the term to the right of the sign :: from one of the four alternatives given under it.

23. Factory : Production :: (a) School : Education (b) Teacher : Discipline(c) Mother : Love (d) Plants : Fruit

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Directions (25 to26): Find the word/group/numbers which is different from the others.

24. Tobacco : Cancer :: (a) Mosquito : Malaria (b) Flat : Food(c) Highway : Accident (d) Field : Erosion

25. (a) 4, 6, 10, 7 (b) 4, 12, 20, 28 (c) 1, 3, 5, 7 (d) 2, 6, 10, 14 26. (a) Mercury (b) Mars (c) Pluto (d) Titan 27. Select from the four alternative diagrams, the one that best illustrates the rela-

tionship between Sparrow, Birds, Cats

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

28. A babywhowas born on 29th Feb. 1892, when did he celebrate his firstbirthday.(a) 28th Feb. 1897 (b) 29th Feb. 1896(c) 29th Feb. 1904 (d) 29th Feb. 1908

29. What was the day on 27th December, 1985(a) Sunday (b) Tuesday (c) Monday (d) Friday

30. The number opposite to 3 is

6 5 3 23 2 5 31 4 1 6

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6 31. A dice has A, B, C, D written in a clockwise order on the adjacent forces and

E and F at the top and bottom. When C is at top, what will be at the bottom?(a) B (b) A (c) C (d) F

32. Whatisthenumberoftrianglesinthisfigure?

(a) 12 (b) 20 (c) 22 (d) 24

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Direction (36): Inthefollowingquestion, therearefourfiguresoutofwhichthree are similar in some way but on is different from them. Find out the different figure.

Directions (33 to 34):Whichoftheanswerfiguresmarked(a),(b),(c),(d)willcompletethegivenseries,ofproblemfigures:

33. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

34.

1 2 43

?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Directions (35): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.Ineachofthefollowingquestions,therearetwopairsoffigures.Inthefirstpair,onefigureisrelatedtotheotherinacertainmanner.Ifthesamerelationhasto exist in the second pair, which answer choice should come in place of ?

35. ?(a) (b) (c) (d)

36. (a) (b) (c) (d)

37. Whichofthefouralternativesisidenticalwiththegivenfigure?

(a (b) (c) (d)

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Direction (38): In each of the following questions, choose the correct mirror imagefromalternativesa,b,canddofthefigure(X).

38. CAR27aug(a) aug27CAR (b) (c) (d) gua72RAC

Direction (39):Fromamongst thefiguresmarked(a), (b), (c), (d), select thefigurewhichsatisfiesthesameconditionsofplacementofdotsasinfigure(X).

39.

(X)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

40. Arrange the following words is meaningful order. 1. Grass 2. Grasshopper 3. Frog 4. Snake 5. Eagle

(a) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3 (b) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4(c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (d) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1

41. The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time is 2:25.

(a) 77 12 (b) 78 1

2 (c) 67 1

2 (d) 90o

42. A wall clock takes 10 seconds to strike 6. How much time it will take to strike 12?(a) 25 seconds (b) 24 seconds(c) 23 seconds (d) 22 seconds

43. Shaurya remembers that his friend Rohit birthday is after 15th but before 18th of February whereas his sister Amita remembers that her brothers birthday is after 16th but before 19th of February. On which day of February is Rohits birthday?(a) 16th (b) 17th (c) 18th (d) 19th

44. In the given number sequence how many 5s are there in the following number series which are immediately followed by 3 but not immediately preceded by 7?

2 1 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 2 5 7 3 9(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four

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45. How many numbers from 1 to 100 are divisible by 12 but not divisible by36?(a) Eight (b) Seven (c) Five (d) Six

46. A dice is thrown four times and its four different positions are given below. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing 6?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 47. On the eve of First Year, a group of 12 students greeted every other friend by

sending new year greeting cards. Then the number of cards distributed by the group.(a) 156 (b) 144 (c) 132 (d) 72

Directions (48 to50): In each of the following questions, choose the correct water-image of the Fig. (X) from amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) given along with it.

48.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

49.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

50. FROG(a) (b) GORF(c) (d)

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PART II

SAT 1. Which one of the following is a non-terminating and repeating decimal?

(a) 178

(b) 316

(c) 311

(d) 11725

2. If x = (b c) (a d) ; y = (c a) (b d); z = (a b) (c d), then the value of x3 + y3 + z3 is

(a) xyz2

(b) x y z (c) 3 x y z (d) 2 x y z

3. If k is any even positive number, then (k2 + 2k) is(a) divisible by 24(b) divisible by 8 but may not be divisible by 24(c) divisible by 4 but may not be divisible by 4 (d) divisible by 2 but may not be divisible by 4

4. There are Two trains A and B of lengths train A is 100 m and length of train B is 150 m are moving in opposite directions at speeds of 75 kmph and 50 kmph respectively. What is the time taken by them to cross each other?(a) 7.4 sec (b) 7.2 sec (c) 7 sec (d) 6.8 sec

5. If (a b) : (a + b) = 1 : 5, then what is (a2 b2) : (a2 + b2) equal to?(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 5 : 13 (d) 13 : 5

6. Inordertofixanelectricpolealongsidearoad,apitwithdimensions50cm 50 cm is dug with the help of a spade. The pit is prepared by removing earth by 250 metres of spade. If on stroke of spade removes 500 cm3 of earth, what is the depth of the pit?(a) 2 m (b) 1 m (c) 0.75 m (d) 0.5 m

7. A wheel of a bicycle has inner diameter 50 cm and thickness 10 cm. What is the speed of the bicycle if it makes 10 revolutions in 5 seconds?(a) 5.5/sec (b) 4.4/sec (c) 3.3/sec (d) 2.2/sec

8. If three cubes having edges 0.3 m; 0. 4 m and 0.5 m respectively are melted and formed into a single cube, then what is surface of this cube?(a) 1.08 m2 (b) 1.56 m2 (c) 1.84 m2 (d) 2.16 m2

9. A person spends 30% of monthly salary on rent, 25% on food, 20% on elec-tricity, and the balance of `1040 on the remaining items. What is the monthly salary of the person?(a) `8,000 (b) `9,000 (c) `9,600 (d) `10,000

10. The ratio between the ages of A and B is 2 : 5. After 8 years, their ages will be in the ratio 1 : 2. What is the difference between their present ages?(a) 20 years (b) 22 years (c) 24 years (d) 25 years

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11. There straight lines X, Y and Z are parallel and the angles are as shown in the figure.WhatisAFB equal to?

(a) 20o (b) 15o(c) 30o (d) 10o

12. If x(x + y + z) = 9, y(x + y + z) = 16 and z(x + y + z) = 144, then the value of x is

(a) 95

(b) 97

(c) 913

(d) 1613

13. x4 + 4y4 is divisible by which one of the following?(a) (x2 +2xy + 2y2) (b) (x2 + 2y2)(c) (x2 2y2) (d) none of these

14. If r and s are any real numbers such that 0 s < 1 and r + s = 1, then the maxi-mum value of the product r s is (a) 1 (b) 3/4 (c) 1/4 (d)1/2

15. A right triangle ABC with sides 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm is revolved about the side 12 cm. What is the volume of the solid so obtained?(a) 50 cm3 (b) 100 cm3(c) 125 cm3 (d) 150 cm3

16. ABC is a triangle when C = 90o. If p is the length of the perpendicular from C to AB and a, b, c are the sides, then which one of the following is correct?(a) pa = bc (b) pb = ac (c) pc = ab (d) p2 = ab

17. The mess charges for 35 students for 24 days is `6300. In how many days will the mess charges be `3.375 for 25 students?(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 18 (d) 21

18. When x40 + 2 is divided by x4 + 1, what is the remainder ? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

19. What is the value of x3 + 3bx 2a if x = ( ) ( ) ?/ /a a b a a b+ + + +2 3 1 3 2 3 1 3

(a) 2a3 (b) 2a3 (c) 1 (d) 0 20. What least value must be given to * in 84705* 2 so that the number is com-

pletely divisible by 9?(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3

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21. The numerical value of density in SI is n times its value in cgs system. Then the value of a is (a) 10 (b) 100 (c) 1000 (d) 1

1000 22. Distance travelled in nth second has the units of

(a) Momentum (b) Speed(c) Force (d) Displacement

23. Figure shows the displacement (x)-time (t) graph of a particle moving along the x-axis. From the graph we conclude that:

(a) The particle is of rest(b) The particle is continuously going along xdirection(c) The velocity of particle increases upto time to and then becomes constant(d) The particle moves at a constant velocity upto time to and then stops

24. A heavy truck and a car are in motion and both have same kinetic energy. Brakes are applies to produce equal retarding force. Which will travel a smaller distance before coming to rest?(a) Car(b) Truck(c) Both will travel through the same distance (d) Nothing can be decided from the given data

25. A stone thrown upward with a speed u from the top of the tower reaches the ground with a velocity 3u. The height of the tower is

(a) 3ug

2

(b) 4ug

2

(c) 6ug

2

(d) 9ug

2

26. Acceleration- time graph of a body is shown below

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Which of the following graphs correctly represents the velocitytime graph?

27. For the resultant of two vectors to be maximum, the angel between them is (a) 0o (b) 60o (c) 90o (d) 120o

28. The average force necessary to stop a hammer with 25 Ns momentum in 0.05 s expressed in N is(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 125 (d) 500

29. Amanfiresabulletofmass200gataspeedof5ms1. The gun has a mass of 1 kg. By what velocity will the gun rebound backwards?(a) 0.1 ms1 (b) 0.01 ms1(c) 1 ms1 (d) 10 ms1

30. A body of mass 100 g is rotating in a circular path of radius r with constant speed. The work done in one complete revolution is

(a) 100rJ (b) r100

J

(c) 100r

J

(d) zero

31. An electric generator actually acts as (a) A source of sound energy(b) A source of heat energy(c) An electromagnet(d) a converter of energy

32. Inthefollowingcircuit,thecurrent(I)flowingthroughthecircuitis

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(a) 43

A (b) 34

A

(c) 23

A (d) none of these

33. What is the resistance between P and Q in the following circuit?

(a) 2 (b) 8

(c) 163 (d) 1

34. In a domestic electrical circuit, switches are placed in(a) Neutral wire (b) Earth wire (c) Live wire (d) Any of these

35. The weight of an object(a) Is the quantity of the matter it contains(b) Refers to its inertia(c) Is the same as its mass but is expressed in different units(d) Is the force with which it is attracted towards the earth

36. Choose the correct option for the increasing order of their conductivity.(a) Honey < tap water < vinegar < HCl(b) Tap water < honey < vinegar < HCl(c) Vinegar < honey < tap water < HCl(d) Honey < vinegar < tap water < HCl

37. The strongest bond is between(a) Carbon carbon (b) Carbon oxygen(c) Carbon hydrogen (d) Carbon nitrogen

38. The metallic oxides which are having both acidic and basic character are known as(a) Neutral oxides (b) Amphoteric oxides(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

39. The maximum quantity of element present in human body is (a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Carbon (d) Magnesium

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40. Which of the following properties is not applicable for non-metals?(a) Conductivity (b) Lusture(c) Sonorous (d) None of the above

41. Chemically rust is (a) Hydrated ferrous oxide(b) Hydrated ferric oxide(c) Only ferric oxide(d) none of these

42. Which of the following is not electropositive in nature?(a) H2 (b) Na (c) Mg (d) S

43. A metal which is less reactive than Cu is (a) Zn (b) Pb (c) Hg (d) Fe

44. Find the odd one out:(a) Polythene (b) PVC(c) Bakelite (d) Nylon

45. Switch board is made up of(a) Thermoplastic (b) Thermosetting plastic(c) Rayon (d) Bakelite

46. The percentage of carbon in Anthracite coal is(a) Above 95%(b) Between 60% and 85% (c) Below 60% but above 40%(d) Below 27%

47. Charcoal is obtained from(a) Coal (b) Wood (c) Petroleum (d) None of these

48. The disease which is not caused by smog in children is (a) Wheezing (b) Typhoid (c) Asthma (d) Cough

49. Chlorophyll present in the chloroplasts is essential for(a) respiration (b) photosynthesis (c) protein synthesis (d) making the plant look beautiful

50. Cell wall of fungi is different from that of the remaining organisms, as it has(a) Peptidoglycan(b) Only cellulose(c) Cellulose and hemicellulose(d) Chitin and cellulose

51. What is the native place of Lemurs?(a) North Western Australia(b) Serengeti National Park of Africa(c) Island of Madagascar and the nearby islands of Comoros(d) Rain forests of Africa

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52. Identify the picture:

(a) Diatoms(b) Fossilized Trilobite(c) Fossilized Dinosaur Eggs(d) African Giant beetles

53. The irrigation system that allows water to fall drop by drop near the roots of the trees and helps in conserving water is (a) Flood irrigation system(b) Drip irrigation system(c) Sprinkler irrigation system(d) Tube well irrigation system

54. Few organisms of one of the following Non-chordate phyla has blind sac body plan:(a) Annelida (b) Mollusca(c) Arthropoda (d) Echinodermata

55. Measles is the disease caused by(a) spiral bacteria (b) Rod shaped bacteria(c) Virus (d) Cocci bacteria

56. Rust of wheat is caused by(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi (c) Viruses (d) Protozoas

57. Metamorphosis in frog from tadpole to adult frog is under the control of (a) Adrenalin hormone (b) Insulin hormone(c) Thyroxin hormone (d) Testosterone

58. The hormone that controls development of placenta and maintenance of preg-nancy in females in early stages of pregnancy is (a) Progesterone (b) Testosterone (c) Estrogen (d) Insulin

59. The method of production of an exact copy of a cell, any other living part, or a complete organism is called(a) Copying (b) Identification(c) Cloning (d) Duplication

60. The male gametophyte in plant is(a) Pollen grain (b) Anther(c) Stamen (d) Androecium

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61. Mature human crythrocytes have life span not more than 120 days because(a) They are phagocytosed by surrounding Monocytes (b) They are very small in size (c) They lack nucleus and mitochondria(d) Their cell membrane is destroyed to provide protein for synthesis of

haemoglobin 62. A History of British India was written by

(a) CharlesDarwin (b) JamesMill(c) Albert Einstein (d) Thomas Hardy

63. The First Governor General of India was(a) Lord Dalhousie(b) Lord Mountbatten(c) Lord William Bentinck(d) Warren Hastings

64. The National Archives of India came up in the year(a) 1920s (b) 1930s (c) 1940s (d) 1950s

65. Census Operations are held after every ________.(a) 5 years (b) 7 years (c) 10 years (d) 12 years

66. The word Calligraphy means(a) The art of painting(b) The art of music(c) The art of public speaking(d) The art of beautiful writing

67. What was Farman?(a) A royal dress (b) A royal food (c) A royal order (d) A royal procession

68. The Nawab of Bengal after Aliwardi Khan was(a) MurshidQuli Khan (b) Tipu Sultan(c) Siraj-ud-daulah (d) Mir Qasim

69. Which Governor General introduced the policy of Paramountcy?(a) Lord Hastings (b) Lord Bsrihausie Dalhousie(c) Lord Clive (d) Lord Bentinck

70. Which of these Kingdoms was not annexed on the basis of Doctrine of Lapse?(a) Satara (b) Jhansi (c)Awadh (d) Punjab

71. The governor General who was impeached :(a) Lord Hastings (b) Lord Dalhousie(c) Warren Hastings (d) Lord Bentinck

72. One-third of the population was wiped out from Bengal due to (a) Terrible famine(b) A civil war broke out

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(c) An epidemic broke out(d) None of these

73. The ryots were(a) cultivators (b) zamindars(c) traders (d) money lenders

74. After the indigo production collapsed in Bengal the planters shifted to(a) Gujarat (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Punjab

75. Which one of the following is not a key of feature of the Indian constitu- tion ?(a) Federalism (b) Secularism(c) Separation of powers (d) Presidential form

76. Nepal adopted an interim Constitution in the year(a) 2002 (b) 2005 (c) 2007 (d) 2008

77. The Indian National Congress made the demand for a Constituent Assemble in the year(a) 1934 (b) 1943 (c) 1946 (d) 1936

78. Federalism refers to(a) One level of government(b) Two levels of government(c) More than one level of government(d) None of these

79. What example does history provide us on the grounds of religion?(a) Examples of discrimination (b) Exclusion(c) Persecution (d) All of these

80. EVMswereusedinthecountryforthefirsttimeintheGeneralElectionsheldin the year(a) 1962 (b) 1977 (c) 1999 (d) 2004

81. The total membership of Lok Sabha is (a) 545 (b) 543 (c) 245 (d) 212

82. The Lok Sabha is presided by the (a) President (b) Speaker(c) Prime Minister (d) Finance Minister

83. What percent of MPs are women today?(a) 50% (b) 33% (c) 10% (d) 20%

84. When the Parliament is in session, it begins with a (a) Question Hour (b) Debate and Discussion(c) Voting (d) Prayer

85. The poisonous gas that leaked from the Union Carbide Plant in Bhopal was(a) Methyl-isocyanate (b) Mythyl-alcohol(c) Methyl-isocyanite (d) Ethyl-alcohol

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86. Which one of the following is a hazardous industry?(a) Iron and Steel Industry(b) Textile(c) Sugar Industry(d) Ship- breaking

87. Under the Right against Exploitation the Constitution prohibits(a) Forced Labour (b) Child Labour(c) Trafficking (d) Allofthese

88. A river is a natural resource as it is (a) Used for irrigation(b) Used for navigation(c) Used for power generation(d) All of these

89. The portion f resource which can be developed economically is (a) Resource (b) Reserve(c) Mineral deposits (d) All of these

90. Ahomogeneousnaturallyoccurringsubstancewithadefinableinternalstruc-tureisdefinedasa(a) Rock (b) Metal (c) Mineral (d) Element

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ANSwER KEyPART ISAT (English)

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c)11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a)

21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a)31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)

MAT

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (c)11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (c)

21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c)31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c)41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (a)

PART II (SAT)

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (c)11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)

21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c)41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (a)61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (d)71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (d)81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (c)