jmet 2011 detailed solutions

7/25/2019 JMET 2011 Detailed Solutions

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Detailed Solutions:

1. “Serendipity” means ‘an aptitude for making desirable

discoveries by accident’. It refers to good luck by

chance.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

2. “Lambent” means ‘softly bright or radiant’.


3. “Prestidigitator” means ‘sleight of hand; performance

of magic tricks with the hands’. A conjuror is one who

practices sleight of hand.


4. The passage mentions, “I came to class well-armed

with my philosophical principles”. This would imply

that the author is a philosopher and he would

approach the discipline of ethics from the perspective

of a philosopher.


5. The passage does not describe a single seminar in

great detail. Therefore option 1 can be eliminated.

The passage mentions ethics in business- not

particularly international business. Therefore we caneliminate option 4.

It is a close choice between options 2 and 3. Option 3

wins because the passage mentions the practice of

ethics, not just its principles. Further, the passage tries

to do a balancing act between the principles and

practice of ethics in much of the passage.


6. Since the author is a Philosopher, he is likely to believe

in the principle of universal ethics. Lines 4-7 of the

passage detail how Tom convinced the author to

change his views on ethics. Further, the author came to

realise that there were a lot of disagreements aboutethics among different professions; eg social scientist

or lawyer. This was contrary to his philosopher's views

of ethics being universal.

Options 1 and 2 cannot be differentiated from each

other and can be eliminated.

Option 3 is contrary to the explanation given above.


7. “Criticise” means ‘to censure or find fault with’, while

“fulminate” means ‘vehement denunciation’. The

difference is in degree with the first word being milder

as compared to the second, which is stronger.

‘Assuage’, meaning ‘to calm down’, and ‘tease’ are

antonyms and can be eliminated.

‘Flail’ meaning ‘to behave wildly’ is an antonym of

‘control’.

‘Laud’ means ‘to praise’ while ‘prevaricate’ means ‘to

mislead’.

‘Hurt’ is a milder term for ‘torture’ which means ‘to

hurt grievously or severely’.


8. A “ballad” is ‘a poetic song’ or in other words it is a

type of poetry.

Similarly, a ‘snake’ is a type of ‘reptile’.

A ‘bulb’ is not a type of ‘tubelight’ while in option 3 a

‘reptile’ is not a form of ‘snake’.

‘Life’ and ‘death’ do not exhibit a similar relationship to

the capitalized pair.


9. “Up the apples and pears” means ‘up the stairs’.


10. “Jot or tittle” means ‘a trifle or a tiny amount’.


11. The word “skittish” means ‘shy’.


12. The words “all” and “none” are too broad and

generalized. Therefore, options 1, 3 and 4 can be

eliminated.


13. In passive voice, the subject of a sentence receives an

action, that is, the action is done to the subject.

Option 1 is incorrect since it repeats the active voice of

the given statement.

Option 3 is also in the active voice and is therefore

incorrect.

Option 4 incorrectly compares the area with the people

(the whole area is more wild than the people).

Option 2 states that the action was done to the subject

(understood by the people).

3B SOLUTIONS

JMET 2011



JMET 2011



14.

“Rule of thumb” as an idiom means ‘a means of

estimation made according to a rough and ready

practical rule, not based on science or exact

measurement.’ Therefore, the term refers to rules

based on practice.


15. The first line introduces the topic of the passage – the

motivations for agents’ unwillingness to deviate from

their recent choices. This is in consonance with option

4.

Option 1 although correct, is incomplete, since the

biases are not simply enumerated (listed); rather they

are explained with reference to the preference for

recent choices.

Option 2 is incorrect since it does not reflect the entire

passage.

Option 3 is incorrect since the passage does not

mention any hierarchy.


16.

The phrase “one of the” has to be followed by the

plural noun, “choices”. This eliminates opt ions 2 and 4.

Since the passage talks about the choices of agents

(plural), it is the “agents’ choices”. Option 3 is incorrect

since it implies the choices of a single agent.


17. The word “definitely” has been incorrectly spelt as

“definately” in option 4.


18. Statement ii introduces the topic of setting up an

investigative committee to examine the content of

national television. Option 4 can be eliminated.

Statement iv has to follow, since it refers to “the

committee” mentioned in statement ii. Option 1 can be

eliminated.

Statement i refers to ‘that film’ mentioned in statement

iv. Therefore, statement I has to follow statement iv.

Option 2 can be eliminated.

Statement iii mentions the cartoon version of another

film which was also criticised. Therefore, it follows the

iv-i link.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

19. “Faineant” means ‘idle; indolent’. The word opposite in

meaning is ‘active’.


20.

“Immure” means ‘enclose within walls; to imprison’.

The opposite of immure is ‘free’.


21.

Throughout the passage, the author contradicts

Buchanan’s claims- “However, contrary to both

standard theological interpretation and Buchanan's

claims, I argue that...” and “... in direct contrast to

Buchanan’s claims”.


22. Buchanan’s social conflict theory begins with social

conflict or Hobbesian anarchy as the starting point. The

contractual constitutional economics is also connected

with Hobbesian anarchists. Combine that with Old

testament making an attempt to model ‘Hobbesian

Anarchy’ and we get that Buchanan’s constitutional

economics and contractarian constitutional economics

have a similar underlying theme.


23.

Buchanan’s constitutional economics andcontractarian constitutional economics have a similar

underlying theme. Buchanan argues that social

contract is needed to resolve predicament of social

conflict.


24. Godly authority give rise to social contracts or laws

and challenging them will lead to social conflict.


25. Option 2 is eliminated because of ‘cannot tell’.

Reported speeches are usually in the past tense.

Option 3 distorts the meaning of the conversation,

rendering it incorrect.

Option 4 is incorrect because of ‘if when’.


26.

The appropriate word for the first blank can only be

‘confined’. Eliminate options 2 and 3.

For the last blank, ‘claimed’ is far more appropriate

than ‘punished’. ‘Claimed’ several young lives is more

correct than ‘punished’ several young lives. Eliminate

option 1.


27. ‘It is perhaps a tribute…’ requires an explanation of

what the ‘it’ refers to. The words, ‘while’ and ‘whereas’do not provide such an explanation and are therefore

incorrect. This eliminates options 1 and 2.

Option 4 does not have subject-verb agreement, since

the verb “calls” requires a singular noun – ‘some of the

generals… call (not calls) him’.

Option 3 is grammatically correct, since ‘one of t he

generals… calls him’.



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28.

Options 3 and 4 can be eliminated since they would

result in tense inconsistency.

Option 1 can be eliminated because of ‘more’

important. The sentence states that literary works

were not important, therefore, the word ‘more’ is

superfluous.


29. “Subtilize” means ‘to elevate in character; sublimate’.


30. “Tantivy” means ‘at full speed; rapidly; swiftly’.


31. Let “A > B” represent A is more sweeter or healthier

than B.

Sweetness:

U > V > Y (Using statement 1 and 2)

Y > X > W (Using statement 3 and 4)∴ U > V > Y > X > W∴ Z > U > V > Y >X > W (Using statement 6)

Healthiness:

U > Z (Using statement 1)

U > Z > V (Using statement 2)

U > W (Using statement 3)

X > Y > U (Using statement 4 & 5)∴ X > Y > U > Z > V

W > Z (Using statement 6)

∴ X > Y > U > W > Z > V

∴ Z is the sweetest essence.

Hence, option 4.

32. All are healthier than V, but only Z and U are sweeter

than V.

Hence, option 4.

33. Z, U and V are sweeter than Y, but out of these only U is

healthier than W.

Hence, option 1.

34. V is the least healthy essence.

Hence, option 2.

35.

Person Station Reason

Mahima 1 or 2 Statement 1

Nimisha

Omez 3, 4, 5, 6 Statement 2 and 4

Parul 3 Statement 3

Quan 4, 5, 6 Statement 4

Since, no one gets off at either of the stations 5 or 6,

Quan gets off at station 4. Hence, Omez must get off at

station 3 along with Parul.

Hence, option 4.

36.

Parul always gets off at station 3. If Nimisha also gets

off at 3, Omez cannot get off on station 3 as and not

more than two people can get off at the same station.

Hence, Omez must get off at station 5.

Hence, option 2.

37.

Consider I.

Since Parul always gets off on station 3, the given

condition is not possible.

Consider II and III.

Station 4 Station 5

Mahima 1 or 2 1 or 2

Parul 3 3Quan 5 4/6

Omez/Nimisha 4 5

Hence, both the stations 4 and 5 are possible for the

given condition to hold true.

Hence, option 2.

38. 1 -

2 - Mahima

3 - Parul

4 -

5 -

6 -

Nimisha cannot get off at 5, since Quan/ Omez now

need two consecutive stations out of stations 4, 5 and

6.

Hence, option 4.

39.

According to the figure Statements I, II and IV are true

whereas statement III is false.


40. From 2, the driver came in first or second. From 3, he

came at midnight. So there were either two people who

Football Players

Cricketeres

Hockey Players

Basket ball

Player



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came after midnight or there was one person who

came before midnight and one who came after

midnight.

From 4, neither Aditya nor Vijay arrived after

midnight. So there is only one person who came after

midnight. He has to be Puneet. It follows that one of thethree arrived before midnight.

So we have the following.

Before Midnight Aditya/Vijay

At Midnight Driver Vijay/Aditya

After Midnight Puneet

From 6, Puneet was not the murderer.

From 1, the murderer came in second or third.

As Puneet came third, and was not the murderer, the

person who came in second was the murderer.

From 5, Vijay was not the driver. So Aditya was the

murderer.So,

Before Midnight Vijay

At Midnight Driver Aditya - murderer

After Midnight Puneet

Vijay arrived at the house earliest.

Hence, option 3.

41. Aditya is the murderer.

Hence, option 2.

42. Aditya is the driver.

Hence, option 3.

43. Puneet arrived at the house last.

Hence, option 1.

44. Each match has 4 points. Each team plays 4 matches.

There are 10 matches in all and there are 40 points in

all.

Paraguay wins all matches. So it scores 3 × 4 = 12

points.

Turkey loses all matches. So it scores 1 × 4 = 4 points.∴ 16 points are scored by Turkey and Paraguay.∴ The other teams score 40 – 16 = 24 points.

As all other teams score equal points, each team scores

24/3 = 8 points.Hence, option 3.

45. The total score is 40 points. If each team scores

equally, each team scores 40/5 = 8 points.

Hence, option 4.

46.

The first presentation was by Rita and the last one was

in the area of Systems. So we have

As Sridhar’s project was in HRM, his presentation can

be 2nd or 3rd.

Prof. Bose’s student’s presentation was after Prof

Chandrashekharan’s student’s presentation. So Prof.

Bose’s student’s presentation cannot be 1st . We can

draw a table using this information.

Student Area Professor

1 Rita

2/3 Sridhar HRM

3/2 Finance Bose

4 Systems

Promilla was Prof. Deshpande’s student. We can very

easily see that she must be the last to make her

presentation.

We can now see that there are two possible sequences

that come from the given information.


1 Rita Marketing Anand

2 Sridhar HRM Chandrashekharan

3 Qadir Finance Bose

4 Promilla Systems Deshpande


1 Rita Marketing Chandrashekharan

2 Qadir Finance Bose

3 Sridhar HRM Anand

4 Promilla Systems Deshpande

Rita’s project was in Marketing.

Hence, option 1.

47. From the table in the answer to the first question of

this set, Prof. Deshpande’s area of expertise is Systems.

Hence, option 3.


this set, Qadir completed his project under Prof.Bose’s

supervision.

Hence, option 1.

49. If Prakash wants to make reservations on May 5 for the

journey he wants to undertake on July 25 , then

assumption I will not be valid.

There may be only 1 train to Mumbai and Prakash may

still want to undertake the journey – eliminate

assumption II.

For Prakash to decide to get his railway reservation

done, he needs to assume that there will be vacancy



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and seats will be available- Statement III is an

assumption.


50. The use of the word ‘surprisingly’ in main data helps

use arrive at statement I as an implicit assumption.

Statement II and III need not be necessarily true for the

data presented in the main data.


51. Deepika, Vivek and Chetan are siblings. Deepika is

Hannah’s mother and Nilesh is hannah’s and gauri’s

father. Thus Deepika and Nilesh are married.

Ishita is Rohini’s daughter and Ashima’s

granddaughter. Also Rohini is Anil’s daughter-in-law.

Since Chetan is unmarried, we can say that Vivek is

married to Rohini and has a daughter Ishita and a son

Elesh.

Hence, the final family tree can be represented asfollows.

Hence, Vivek is married to Rohini.

Hence, option 4.

52. Deepika is Anil’s daughter.

Hence, option 4.

53.

Nilesh is the son-in-law of Ashima.Hence, option 1.

54. Deepika has two children: Gauri and Hannah

Hence, option 2.

55.

Vivek is the father of Ishita.

Hence, option 2.

56. Option 1 with ‘always’ cannot be accommodated

Options 2 and 4 are inferences – they are highly likely

to be true in the light of the given data but are not

definitely true.

Option 3 with ‘higher chances’ helps us accommodate

it as a logical deduction.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

57.

Charlie belongs either to the UK or Spain. So he does

not belong to the US, Australia or France. David

belongs to USA and plays Football. So no one else plays

football or is from the USA. Continuing thus we can

tabulate the data in the question as follows:

UK

US

Australia

France

Spain

Charlie John Bobby Anderson David

Football

Cricket

Hockey

Tennis

Polo

Thus, Bobby belongs to Spain.

Hence, option 4.


this set, Charlie plays cricket.

Hence, option 2.

59.

From the table in the answer to the first question of

this set, John’s country is Australia and he plays Tennis.

Hence, option 3.

60. Bobby belongs to Spain as seen from the table in the

answer to the first question of this set. As Charlie and

John play Cricket and Tennis respectively, Bobby has to

play Polo.

Thus option 4 is correct.

Hence, option 4.

61.

P Q R

Plant 1 50 100 100

Plant 2 60 60 200

Plant 1 and Plant 2 work for X and Y days respectively.

As we have to minimize the operating cost, objective

function is

Minimize Z = 2500 X + 3500Y

Considering the monthly demands of P, Q and R, we

have the following constraints

50 X + 60Y ≥ 2500

100 X + 60Y ≥ 3000

100 X + 200Y ≥ 7000

X and Y are ≥ 0 and are integers.

Hence, option 3.



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62.

The feasible region gives us the following vertices :

Substituting the values of X and Y in Z we get the

minimum operating cost at (20, 25) and is 137500.

Hence, option 1.

63. Expected demand = 0.2 × 1500 + 0.1 × 1200 + 0.15 ×

1600 + 0.25 × 1400 + 0.2 × 1600 +

0.06 × 1000 + 0.04 × 1500

= 1450

Production Target = Expected demand × 1.1

= 1450 × 1.1 = 1595

Hence, option 1.

Hence, option 4.

65. Let the PIN be x . As the credit card number is 996,

Thus, (996 x – 123)is divisible by 997.∴ 997 x – x – 123 is divisible by 997.

∴ x + 123 is divisible by 997.

∴ x = 997 – 123 = 874Hence, option 1.

66. The solid formed will be a toroid whose cross section

will be a square.

The volume of the solid generated = A[2π(R1 + R2)/2]

Where, A is the area of the square i.e. the cross

sectional area of the toroid.

A = 1 cm2

R1 and R2 are the maximum and the minimum distance

of the toroid from the axis, along the center of the

toroid.∴

∴

The correct option was not given in the paper.

67. Let Ajay have Rs. x initially

20% of 0.8 x = 4500∴ x = 28125

Hence, option 4.

68. Required number of ways = 6C1 × 5C3 = 60

Hence, option 4.

69. Required number of ways

= Total number of ways in which 4 members can be

selected. – (number of ways of not including any

opposition member)

= 11C4 – 6C4

= 330 – 15 = 315

Hence, option 2.

70. There are only two prime between 490 and 500,

namely 491 and 499.

Hence, option 2.

71. Distance traveled by both the cars is same and is equal

to the speed of the Alto × the time taken by the Alto

= 60 × 6.33 = 380∴ Speed of the Swift = 380/4.75 = 80 km/hr

Hence, option 4.

72.

Let the length of the table be n∴ Width of the table = n – 4

Now,

Area of rectangle table = n(n – 4) = n2 – 4n = 45

∴ n 2 – 4n – 45 = 0∴ n = 9 or n = – 5

As length cannot be negative, hence length n = 9

Hence, option 1.

73. Let the fruit vendor sell x gm instead of 1000 gm.

As he gains 30%, 1.3 x = 1000

∴ Hence, option 3.

74.

Probability that out of 5 vessels at least 4 vessels will

arrive safely = probability that out of 5 vessels exactly

4 vessels arrive safely + probability that all the 5

vessels will arrive safely



JMET 2011


Now,

Probability that 4 vessels out of 5 vessels arrive safely

∴Required probability

Hence, option 1.

75. 3 men can check-in the four hotels in 4 × 4 × 4 = 4 3

ways∴ Number of ways in which 3 men can check into

different hotels

∴

Hence, option 3.

76.

By Poisson distribution, if the expected number of

occurrences in the given interval is L, then probability

that there are exactly k occurrences is,

In the question, L = 100 × 0.05 = 5 and k = 0

∴

Hence, option 2.

77. 123456789 is divisible by 9, as the sum of digits is

divisible by 9.

Hence, let, 123456789 = 9m

Now, 987654321 = 8 × 123456789 + 9

∴ 987654321 = 8 × 9m + 9 = 9(8m + 1)

Now,

GCD(123456789, 987654321) = GCD(9m, 9(8m+1))

Now, let d be one common factor of m and 8m + 1.

Now, as d divides m, m = dn

∴

where n is some integer, greater than 1 and less than

m.

∴

This is possible only when, n = m

Hence, m and 8m + 1 can only have 1 as their common

factor∴ GCD(m, 8m + 1) = 1

∴ GCD(9m, 9(8m + 1)) = 9 × GCD(m, 8m + 1) = 9 × 1 = 9

Hence, option 3.

78. Let the surface of the tent be at x meters from the base

of the central pole.∴ Nails are at 3 x meter from the base of the central

pole.

Let angle of depression of the surface of the tent = 2θ ∴ Angle of depression of the nails = θ

∴

∴



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∴

∴

∴

∴

∴Length of rope = 3 m

Hence, option 4.

Hence, option 4.

80.

Radius of circle = r

Center = origin

Now, area of part ODA = area of part OCB

Hence, curve y = sin x divides circle in two equal parts.

Now, area of circle = πr 2 = π × (π)2 = π3

∴

Hence, option 3.

81. Amit can invite 0, 1, 2, 3 or 4 girls

Hence, the number of ways in which Amit can invite

the girls is 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 16

Hence, number of ways in which Amit can invite his

friends = 16 × 35 = 560

Hence, option 1.

The ball which is put in the pot on the first day has a

radius of 29 on the 10th day.

Similarly, the ball put in the pot on the second day has

a radius of 28 on the 10th day.

Continuing thus, the balls put in the pot on the third,

fourth, fifth,…, tenth day respectively have radii of 27,

26, … , 20 on the tenth day respectively.

Volumes of balls on the last day

∴

∴

Hence, option 3.

83. Let the numbers be x and y .

∴

Solving equation (i) and (ii)

y = 55

Hence, option 1.



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84.

Let r be the radius of the nth circle.

Then, OPn+12 = OPn2 + PnPn+12

∴ OPn+12 = r 2 + 1

∴

Then, OPn+22 = OPn+12 + Pn+1 Pn+22

∴ OPn+22 = r 2 + 1 +1

= 2 + r 2∴ Radius of the (n + 2)th circle is 2 + r 2

Similarly, radius of the (n + k )th circle is (k + r 2)

Now, Sn = A(Cn+1) – A(Cn) = π(r 2 + 1) – π(r 2) = π

= (S2 + S4 + S6 + … + S200) – (S1 + S3 + S5 + … + S199)

= [A(C3) – A(C2) + A(C5) – A(C4) + A(C7) – A(C6) +… +

A(C201) – A(C200)] – [A(C2) – A(C1) + A(C4) – A(C3) + … +

A(C200) – A(C199)]

(100π) – (100π) = 0

Hence, option 3.

85.

Let x be the length of the ladder

∴

∴

From (i)

Hence, option 2.

86. ω3 = 1

∴ ω3

– 1 = 0∴ (ω – 1) (ω2 + ω + 1) = 0

As ω ≠ 1, 1 + ω + ω2 = 0

Now, ω4 =ω3ω = ω

ω5 =ω3 ω2 = ω2

ω6 =ω3 ω3 = 1

ω3k = 1

ω3k + 1 = ω

ω3k +2 = ω2

= 1 + ω

Hence, option 2.



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87. Let us assume that Mahesh stayed with Akash for n

days.

Hence, the number of mornings + the number of

evenings = 2n

But the total number of evenings and mornings

= 32 + 18 + 28 = 78∴ 2n = 78

∴

Hence, option 3.

88. K is the 11th letter of the alphabet.

Hence K is denoted by the remainder obtained after

dividing 210 by 29

∴

25 leaves a remainder of 3 when divided by 29.Hence, remainder when 210 is divided by 29 = 3 × 3 = 9

Hence, K = 9

Hence, option 4.

89. 5a = 5m + 10n – 15r

2b = 4m + 12n – 22r

c = m – 2n + 7r

Now, 5a – 2b – c = 5m + 10n – 15r – 4m – 12n + 22r – m

+ 2n – 7r = 0∴ 5a – 2b – c = 0

Hence, 5a – 2b – c = 0 for the given equations to have at

least 1 solution.

Hence, option 3.

90. Let a be one of the sides of triangle.

Let d be the common difference∴ Sides of the triangle are, (a – d ), (a + d ) and a

Also, (a – d ) + a > a + d ∴ a > 2d …(i)

∴

Now, area of triangle

∴

∴

We now, substitute the values given in the options.

Option 1: Perimeter = 6,

∴ a = 2

Substituting a = 2,

We get,

d 2 = –11

Hence, option 1 is not possible.

Option 3: Perimeter = 12,∴ a = 4

Substituting a = 4,

We get, d 2 = 1

Also, (i) is satisfied.

This is possible

Option 2: Perimeter = 24,

Hence, a = 8

Substituting a = 8, we get

d ≈ 3.9


This is possible.

Option 4: Perimeter = 36,∴ a = 12

Substituting, a = 12, we get

d ≈ 5.9


This is possible.

Hence, three options are correct

Hence, question is ambiguous.

Note: If we assume that the sides of the table have

integral lengths, then we get the sides as 3ft, 4ft and 5ft

respectively.

Hence, the perimeter = 12 ft.

91.

Looking at the percentage of PG qualified residents, we

can see that the percentage has doubled in females in

the below 25 years age group. In no other category is

the growth so high.

Hence, option 2.

92. For females:

Residents having only high school qualification in 2000

= 65%


= 53%

For males:



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= 53%


= 51%

∴ It has decreased for both females and males.

Hence, option 1.

93. The information has been given in terms of percentage.

The absolute number of females and males in any

group cannot be determined.

Hence, option 4.

94. Number of students with HUM background in CAT

stream admissions in NIM

= 0.25 × 60 = 15

Number of students with HUM background in JMET

stream admissions in NIM

= 0.1 × 240 = 24

Hence, option 4.

95. Total number of students in NIM with SCI and ENGG

background

= 0.45 × 60 + 0.7 × 240 = 195

Total number of students in NIM with non-SCI and

non-ENGG background

= 0.55 × 60 + 0.3 × 240 = 105

Difference = 195 – 105 = 90

Hence, option 2.

96.

Number of students with COM discipline in NIM fromJMET stream = 0.2 × 240 = 48

Number of students with COM discipline in NIM from

CAT stream = 0.3 × 60 = 18

∴

Hence, option 2.

97. Number of non-DMBA students having work

experience 1 to 3 years = 110

Total number of students = 600

∴

Hence, option 4.

98.

Number of male students with work experience of

more than 6 years = 80

Total number of students = 600

∴

Hence, option 1.

99. Number of male students with more than 3 years

experience in RMBA and EMBA = 110Number of female students with 3 years and lesser

experience in EMBA and DMBA = 110

Required difference = 0

Hence, option 1.

100. All candidates wrote all 4 sections∴ Total number of candidates who appeared for the

Civil Services Exam = Sum of number of students who

got marks from 0 to 100 in any 1 subject.

Consider History:∴ Number of students

= 1520 + 9150 + 9210 + 13135 + 10785 + 8210 + 2990

= 55000Hence, option 2.

101. A student will qualify if he/she scores more than 40∴ Number of students qualifying in History

= 13135 + 10785 + 8210 + 2990

= 35120

number of students qualifying in Political Science

=14215 + 9590 + 5750 + 5145

= 34700

∴

Hence, option 2.

102.

The Modal range is the range in which most students

scored.

The range of 41 – 55 is the modal range for all subjects∴ Largest number of candidates got marks in the range

41 – 55

Hence, option 3.

103. The Estimated and Actual Duration for each subproject

is as shown below:

Subprojects

Estimated

Duration

(in months)

Actual

Duration

(in months)

SIG 20 20

UTS 25 25

FSS 30 18

RSS 40 32



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The ratio of the Actual Duration to the Estimated

Duration is simply the actual duration as a percentage

of the estimated duration.∴ FSS and RSS have the lowest ratio.

Hence, option 3.

104. From the table obtained in the first solution the

difference of actual duration of a subproject and that of

its immediate predecessor is as follows:

UTS – SIG = 25 – 20 = 5

FSS – UTS = 25 – 18 = 7

RSS – FSS = 14∴ The difference is less than 9 months for 2

subprojects.

Hence, option 2.

105. The largest subproject is RSS and its immediate

predecessor is FSS.

Actual time taken by RSS = 32 months

Actual time taken by FSS = 18 months

∴

Hence, option 1.

106. For each of the four states we can see that the amount

available has increased by approximately 10% in

2006-07 over 2005-06. So, if the amount available for a

state in 2005-06 is x , it becomes 1.1 x in 2006-07.

Let the percentage funds utilized in a state be y in

2005-06.

∴ Funds utilized in 2005-06 = xy

Now consider options.

Option 1: For a 10% increase, the funds utilized in

2006-07 should be 1.1 xy, which is not true, as x has

changed to 1.1 x, but y has decreased.

Option 2: For it to remain the same, the funds utilized

in 2006-07 should be xy . This is possible only if y

changes to y /1.1 = 0.9 y , to compensate for the change

in x from x to 1.1 x . We can easily see that y has not

decreased by 10% in any of the states.

Option 3: For a 10% decrease, the funds utilized in

2006-07 should be 0.9 xy . This is possible only if y

changes to 0.9 y /1.1 = 0.8 y , to compensate for the

change in x . Again, we know that y has not decreased

by 20% in any of the states.

So, options 1, 2 and 3 are eliminated.

Hence, option 4.

107. Let us consider all the related values.

2005-06 2006-07

Bihar

Amount

Available812

880 (increase of

approx. 8%)

% Funds

utilized70

78 (increase of

approx. 11%)

Total

(8 States)

Amount

Available6638

7245 (increase

of approx. 9%)

% Funds

utilized83.65

86.4 (increase

of approx. 3%)

∴

≈ 6%

The best answer is option 3.

Hence, option 3.

108. Let us consider all related values

2005-06 2006-07Amount

available to UP1700

1843 (increase of

approx. 8%)

Amount

available to all

others

49385402 (increase of

approx. 9%)

∴ Percentage change in required ratio

Hence, option 1.

109. The size of the bar of patented drugs should be more

than 1/3 the size of the bar of generic medicines. By

observing the graph for the years given in options, we

can easily see that this happens only in 2005.

Hence, option 3.

110. We just have to look at the proportion of growth in the

R & D investment bars. We can easily see that the size

of the bar has almost doubled in 2009. In no other year

has it shown so much increase.

Hence, option 4.

111. Sales from Generic medicines show a decline in the

years 2005 and 2007.

Sales from Patented drugs show a decline in the years2004 and 2006.

R & D investments have not shown a decline in the

given period.

Hence, there are four years during which sales from

generic medicines or sales from the patented drugs or

sales from R & D investment have shown a decline.

Hence, option 1.



JMET 2011


112. Sales from generic medicines have shown negative

growth in the years 2005 and 2007. In both these years

sales from patented drugs register positive growth.

Hence, option 3.

113.

This question can be solved just by observing the

graph. The size of Korea’s exports bar is twice that of

Italy.

Hence, option 1.

114. The difference between imports is minimum for Korea

and Italy followed by Germany and Saudi Arab.

Hence, option 2.

115.

Expenses 2008-09 2009-10Difference

CSR

Programs

0.03 × 550

= 16.5

0.05 × 750

= 37.5

37.5 – 16.5

= 21

Operations0.46 × 550

= 253

0.45 × 750

= 337.5

337.5 – 253

= 4.5

R & D0.15 × 550

= 82.5

0.2 × 750

= 150

150 – 82.5

= 67.5

Marketing

and Selling

0.36 × 550

= 198

0.3 × 750

= 225

225 – 198

= 27

∴ Operating expenses have shown the maximum

change from 2008-2009 to 2009-2010 in terms of

rupees.

Hence, option 1.

116. From the table in the solution to the first question, iIn

the year 2009-10, the difference between the amount

spent on operating expenses and CSR programs (in

million rupees) = 337.5 – 37.5 = 300

Hence, option 3.

117. Looking at the percentage distributions in the poie

chart we can easily see that only option 2 is true.

Hence, option 2.

118.

The data can be represented as in the diagram above.

The number of students who got offers only from

Finance = 70 – (20 – x ) – x – (10 – x ) = 40 + x

The number of students who got offers only from

Marketng = 40 – (20 – x ) – x – (15 – x ) = 5 + x

The number of students who got offers only from HR =

30 – (10 – x ) – x – (15 – x ) = 5 + x

As the total number of students is 100,

70 + 5 + x + 15 – x + 5 + x = 100∴ x = 5∴ Number of students who received offers from 2 areas

= 15 + 5 + 10 = 30

Hence, option 3.

119. Number of students who received offer from the

finance area but from any area = 40 + 5 = 45

Hence, option 1.

120. Percentage of students who received offers from both

Finance and Marketing but not HR = 15

Hence, option 3.

jmet 2011 detailed solutions

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