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Test Paper : I Test Subject : GENERAL PAPER Test Subject Code : K-0016 Test booklet Code : W Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________ OMR Sheet No. : _______________________________ Roll No. (Figures as per admission card) Name & Signature of Invigilator/s Signature : _________________________________ Name : _________________________________ Paper : I Subject : GENERAL PAPER Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60 A»Ü¦ìWÜÚWæ ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜá 1. D ±Üâo¨Ü ÊæáàÆᤩ¿áÈÉ J¨ÜXst ÓܧÙܨÜÈÉ ¯ÊÜá¾ ÃæãàÇ ®ÜíÃÜ®Üá° ÃæÀáÄ. 2. D ±Ü£ÅPæ¿áá (60) AÃÜáÊÜñÜᤠÖÜá BÁáR Ë«Ü¨Ü ±ÜÅÍæ °WÜÙÜ®æã°ÙÜWæãíw¨æ . CÊÜâWÜÙÜÈÉ®Ü ¿ÞÊÜâ¨Ý¨ÜÃÜã 50 (IÊÜñÜᤠ) ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° A»Ü¦ì¿áá EñܤÄÓܸæàPÝX¨æ . A»Ü¦ì¿áá 50 QRíñÜ ÖæaÜác ±ÜÅÍæ °WÜÙÜ®Üá° EñܤÄst ±ÜPÜÒ¨ÜÈÉ , A»Ü¦ì¿áá EñܤÄst Êæã¨ÜÆ IÊÜñÜᤠ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° ÊÜÞñÜÅ ÊÜåèÆÂÊÜÞ±Ü®Ü ÊÜÞvÜÇÝWÜáñܤ¨æ . 3. ±ÜÄàPæÒ ±ÝÅÃÜí»ÜÊݨÝWÜ, ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ¯ÊÜáWæ ¯àvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ¨Üá. Êæã¨ÜÆ 5 ¯ËáÐÜWÜÙÜÈÉ ¯àÊÜâ ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ñæÃæ¿áÆá ÊÜáñÜᤠPæÙÜX®Üíñæ PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX ±ÜÄàQÒÓÜÆá PæãàÃÜÇÝX¨æ . i) ±ÜÅÍæ ° ±ÜâÔ¤PæWæ ±ÜÅÊæàÍÝÊÜPÝÍÜ ±Üvæ¿áÆá, D Öæã©Pæ ±Üâo¨Ü Aíb®Ü ÊæáàÈÃÜáÊÜ ±æà±Üà ÔàÆ®Üá° ÖÜÄÀáÄ. ÔrPÜRà ÔàÇ CÆÉ¨Ü A¥ÜÊÝ ñæÃæ¨Ü ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ÔÌàPÜÄÓܸæàw. ii) ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ®Ü ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜâoWÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ¿á®Üá° ÊÜááS±Üâo¨Ü ÊæáàÇæ ÊÜáá©Åst ÊÜÞ×£Áãí©Wæ ñÝÙæ ®æãàwÄ. ±ÜâoWÜÙÜá/±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá PÝOæ¿Þ¨Ü, A¥ÜÊÝ ©Ì±ÜÅ£ A¥ÜÊÝ A®ÜáPÜÅÊÜáÊÝXÆÉ¨Ü A¥ÜÊÝ CñÜÃÜ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÊÜÂñÝÂÓÜ¨Ü ¨æãàÐܱÜäÄñÜ ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° PÜãvÜÇæ 5¯ËáÐÜ¨Ü AÊÜ JÙÜWæ ÓÜíËàPÜÒPÜÄí¨Ü ÓÜÄ CÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜâÔ¤PæWæ ¨ÜÇÝÀáÔPæãÙÜÛ¸æàPÜá. B ÚPÜ ±Ü ÅÍæ ° ±Ü âÔ¤Pæ ¿á®Ü á° ¨Ü ÇÝÀáÓÜ ÇÝWÜ áÊÜ â©ÆÉ , ¿ÞÊÜ â¨æ à Öæ aÜ ác ÓÜ ÊÜ á¿áÊÜ ®Ü ã° PæãvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ . 4. ±ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜã (A), (B), (C) ÊÜáñÜᤠ(D) Gí¨Üá WÜáÃÜá£Ô¨Ü ®ÝÆáR ±Ü¿Þì¿á EñܤÃÜWÜÚÊæ . ¯àÊÜâ, ±ÜÅÍæ°¿á G¨ÜáÃÜá ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜ¨Ü ÊæáàÇæ, PæÙÜWæ PÝ~Ô¨Üíñæ, AívÝPÜꣿá®Üá° PܱݳXÓܸæàPÜá. E¨ÝÖÜÃÜOæ : A B C D (C) ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜÊÝX¨ÝªWÜ . 5. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ I ÃÜÈÉ PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ , ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ I ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ II ÃÜÈÉ CÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ ¯ÊÜá¾ EñܤÃÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° ÓÜãbÓÜñÜPÜR¨Üáª. OMR ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ AívÝPÜꣿáÆÉ¨æ ¸æàÃæ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÓܧÙܨÜÈÉ EñܤÃÜÊÜ®Üá° WÜáÃÜá£Ô¨ÜÃæ, A¨ÜÃÜ ÊÜåèÆÂÊÜÞ±Ü®Ü ÊÜÞvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ. 6. OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ Pæãor ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ®Üá° hÝWÜÃÜãPÜñæÀáí¨Ü K©Ä. ±ÜÅÍæ °±ÜâÔ¤Pæ Jí¨ÜÃÜÈÉ PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ ÓÜíPæàñÜÊÜ®Üá° OMR ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX ®ÜÊÜáã©ÓܸæàPÜá. 7. GÇÝÉ PÜÃÜvÜá PæÆÓÜÊÜ®Üá° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á Pæã®æ¿áÈÉ ÊÜÞvÜñÜPÜR¨Ü᪠. 8. ¯ÊÜá¾ WÜáÃÜáñÜ®Üá° ×ÃÜíWܱÜwÓÜÖÜá¨Ý¨Ü ¯ÊÜá¾ ÖæÓÜÃÜá A¥ÜÊÝ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà bÖæ°¿á®Üá° , ÓÜíWÜñÜÊÝ¨Ü ÓܧÙÜ ÖæãÃÜñÜá ±ÜwÔ, EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà »ÝWܨÜÈÉ Ãæ¨ÜÃæ, ¯àÊÜâ A®ÜÖÜìñæWæ ¸Ý«ÜÂÃÝWÜᣤàÄ. 9. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿áá ÊÜááX¨Ü®ÜíñÜÃÜ, PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ÓÜíËàPÜÒPÜÄWæ ¯àÊÜâ ×í£ÃÜáXÓܸæàPÜá ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜÄàPÝÒ PæãsÜw¿á ÖæãÃÜWæ OMR ®Üá° ¯Êæã¾í©Wæ Pæãívæã¿áÂPÜãvܨÜá. 10. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿á ®ÜíñÜÃÜ, ±ÜÄàPÝÒ ±ÜÅÍæ ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á®Üá° ÊÜáñÜᤠ®ÜPÜÆá OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ¯Êæã¾í©Wæ ñæWæ¨ÜáPæãívÜá ÖæãàWÜÖÜá¨Üá. 11. ¯àÈ/PܱÜâ³ ¸ÝDZÝÀáíp ±æ® ÊÜÞñÜÅÊæà E±ÜÁãàXÔÄ. 12. PÝÂÆáRÇæ àoÃ, ˨Üá®ݾ®Ü E±ÜPÜÃÜ| A¥Ü ÊÝ ÇÝW pæ àÇ CñÝ©¿á Ü ÁãàWÜ ÊÜ ®Ü á° ¯Ðæ àÓÜ ÇÝX¨æ . 13. ÓÜÄ AÆÉ¨Ü EñܤÃÜWÜÚWæ Má| AíPÜ CÃÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ . 14. PܮܰvÜ ÊÜáñÜᤠCíXÉàÐ BÊÜ꣤WÜÙÜ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæWÜÙÜÈÉ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Äࣿá ÊÜÂñÝÂÓÜWÜÙÜá PÜívÜáí¨ÜÈÉ , CíXÉàÐ BÊÜ꣤WÜÙÜÈÉÃÜáÊÜâ¨æà Aí£ÊÜáÊæí¨Üá ±ÜÄWÜ~ÓܸæàPÜá. Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of sixty(60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions only, the first fifty questions attempted by the candidate would be evaluated. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of the cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker seal or open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : A B C D where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the questions are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet kept inside this Booklet, which is common for both Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in the circles, the OMR Sheet will not be evaluated. 6. Read the instructions given in OMR carefully. Fill the Test Booklet Code of Paper – I in OMR Sheet Compulsorily. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR Answer Sheet, except for the space provided for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must NOT carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. You can take away question booklet and carbon copy of OMR Answer Sheet after the examination. 11. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 12. Use of any calculator, Electronic gadgets or log table etc., is prohibited. 13. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 14. In case of any discrepancy found in the Kannada translation of a question booklet the question in English version shall be taken as final. W-0016 1 ±Üâ.£.®æãà./ P.T.O.

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Page 1: I GENERAL PAPER W (Figures as per admission card ... - KSETkset.uni-mysore.ac.in/question_papers_2016/General... · Total Number of Pages : 24 W-0016 5 O3O O/P.T.O. Perhaps we humans

Test Paper : ITest Subject : GENERAL PAPER

Test Subject Code : K-0016

Test booklet Code : W

Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________

OMR Sheet No. : _______________________________

Roll No.

(Figures as per admission card)

Name & Signature of Invigilator/s

Signature : _________________________________

Name : _________________________________

Paper : ISubject : GENERAL PAPER

Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60

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Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this

page.2. This paper consists of sixty(60) multiple-choice type of

questions, out of which the candidate would be required toanswer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidateattempting more than fifty questions only, the first fiftyquestions attempted by the candidate would be evaluated.

3. At the commencement of examination, the question bookletwill be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requestedto open the booklet and compulsorily examine it asbelow :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the

paper seal on the edge of the cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker seal or open booklet.

(ii) Tally the number of pages and number ofquestions in the booklet with the informationprinted on the cover page. Faulty booklets due topages/questions missing or duplicate or not inserial order or any other discrepancy should begot replaced immediately by a correct booklet fromthe invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will bereplaced nor any extra time will be given.

4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicatedbelow on the correct response against each item.

Example : A B C D

where (C) is the correct response.

5. Your responses to the questions are to be indicated in theOMR Sheet kept inside this Booklet, which is commonfor both Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place otherthan in the circles, the OMR Sheet will not be evaluated.

6. Read the instructions given in OMR carefully. Fill the TestBooklet Code of Paper – I in OMR Sheet Compulsorily.

7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the

OMR Answer Sheet, except for the space provided for therelevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you willrender yourself liable to disqualification.

9. You have to return the test OMR Answer Sheet to theinvigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily andmust NOT carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.

10. You can take away question booklet and carbon copy ofOMR Answer Sheet after the examination.

11. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.12. Use of any calculator, Electronic gadgets or log table

etc., is prohibited.13. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.14. In case of any discrepancy found in the Kannada

translation of a question booklet the question in Englishversion shall be taken as final.

W-0016 1 ���O3O� �O/P.T.O.

Page 2: I GENERAL PAPER W (Figures as per admission card ... - KSETkset.uni-mysore.ac.in/question_papers_2016/General... · Total Number of Pages : 24 W-0016 5 O3O O/P.T.O. Perhaps we humans

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W-0016 2

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W-0016 3 ���O3O� �O/ P.T.O.

GENERAL PAPERPaper – I

Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions. Each question carryingtwo (2) marks.Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50)questions will be evaluated.

Read the following passage carefully and

answer the questions 1 to 6 :

One of the favourite themes of science fiction

writers is the fear that computers are beginning

to overtake their creators in intelligence,

memory and rationality. Soon, some fear, it will

be impossible to distinguish between man and

machine. In fact, in some areas of mental

abilities, computers have already outstripped

human capabilities. Computers can solve

complicated arithmetical problems at a

lightning speed, their memories are vaster and

more accurate than human memories and so

on. Are we about to reach a situation where

we will be unable to distinguish between

human beings and computers ?

Most humans seem to be complacent about

their superiority because human beings can

‘think’ and computers cannot. Can this

quality of ‘thinking’ be made into a fail-proof

test to distinguish between humans and

computers ? This is the question that Alan

Turing tried to answer in an article entitled

‘Computing Machinery and Intelligence’,

published in 1950.

What the Turing Test relies on is thecomputer’s lack of consciousness, or theability to think and comprehend. If, likeSherlock Holmes, the two were asked todecide which of the three students, theIndian, the athlete and the nervous one, hadpeered in through the six-foot high windowof the examiner’s room to see the questionpapers before the examination, the humanwould easily make the connection betweenthe height of the window and the likelihoodof the athlete being the only one tall enoughto be able to see through it. However, for thecomputer to make this ‘commonsensical’inference is quite difficult.

Two other areas which might show up thelimitations of a computer’s mind are humourand moral consciousness. What would acomputer do with a headline about therecently announced election results – ‘TheLeft is Right, and the Right is Left Out’ ? Herethe human mind can easily decode the puns– the Leftist party and the concept of being‘left out’ and Rightist party with the use ofthe word ‘right’ as the opposite of ‘wrong’.Thus the human mind would immediately beable to interpret this headline to mean thatthe Leftist party won the election, and theRightist party was rejected by the voters. Acomputer would be more comfortable withstatistical data.

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W-0016 4

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2, 6, 12, ___, 30(A) 14 (B) 16

(C) 20 (D) 24

8. �� '�)��75E���������‘BEBOBD’ ���(H�:‘Canada’�+���A� �� '�)�� ‘MJABSC’ ��(H�:��(A) Mumbai u��� <Zv(B) Madras u���5&��v(C) Moscow u�4��-�v(D) Brazil u<&w��v

9. ��G !���2003 ������ ���������� ���75���5��5������� ����+1���G��15A�2003

�4�����51��)����c(A) �����5�� (B) �� 1���5��(C) !�/�5�� (D) 1�����5��

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Perhaps we humans can rest in ourcomplacency until the time when a computercan make a joke or laugh at one.

1. Writers of science fiction imagine aworld in which

(A) Computers will seize power

(B) Computers will be superior tohuman beings

(C) Computers start functioningirrationally

(D) Computers become instruments ofa base

2. Alan Turing’s work focussed on

(A) The lack of consciousness incomputers

(B) The rationality of computers

(C) Thinking as the criterion ofdistinction between computersand human beings

(D) The comparative abilities ofmachines and humans toremember

3. In the example given in the passage thecomputer fails to

(A) Collect all the facts

(B) To ignore the irrelevant facts

(C) To connect the facts

(D) To choose the relevant fact

4. The computer fails to interpret humourbecause

(A) It can interpret only literally

(B) Its memory is limited

(C) Humour is an inborn faculty

(D) It does not understand language

5. Modern computers can

(A) Distinguish between good and bad

(B) Make ethical choices

(C) Respond to religious sentiments

(D) Do none of the above

6. What does “rest in our complacency”

mean ?

(A) Denigrate computers

(B) Give up using computers

(C) Continue to relieve in our

supremacy

(D) Keep worrying about computers

7. Find the fourth term in the following

series :

2, 6, 12, ___, 30

(A) 14 (B) 16

(C) 20 (D) 24

8. If ‘BEBOBD’ in code language means

‘Canada’ then the code ‘MJABSC’ will

mean

(A) Mumbai

(B) Madras

(C) Moscow

(D) Brazil

9. If the first day of September 2003 is a

Sunday then what day was 15th August

2003 ?

(A) Monday (B) Tuesday

(C) Wednesday (D) Thursday

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W-0016 6

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12. '��1� '�UG����� ' ����� (�s���*� F'��+/5������� �f58'�G$����!l� � �C'������ ���5��$' �����(�s�JE��G��c

����(��������� �����"������� -�3 – 5 1� h1���� 25 – 7 1� h1���� 47 – 9 1� h1���� 89 – 11 1� h1���� 6(A) 5 (B) 7.8(C) 8 (D) 8.6

������ HI������(��"� ,�����������E\�$����+,���� -��13$ (� 18 �������J���$��X

��$�'@1�*5`�5���(7�89:1�������G���� p8 7553

��X�8����L������������G��.E���1������ p8 05

J�5���.E���1���������)�1�:D���( '�1������"*� ������(7�89:1������ p8 1690

J�5���.E���1���������(���%��o:�5������ 682

J��D���.E���1�������(���%��o:�5������ 2144

� ����.E����������4)�&�;%��o:�5������ 923

�������.E���1�������(���%��o:�5�������P�4���3 �

13. JE��G��.�589:1�����'�������'�@�� ���.E���������(���%��o:�5��5Q��c(A) 5863

(B) 6871(C) 5409

(D) 6632

14. JE��G��(7�89:1������������.E���1��������4)�&)�1�:D�4��5Q��c(A) 2563 (B) 4258

(C) 2114 (D) 3015

15. JE��G��(7�89:1�����J��D���.E���1��������4)�&)�1�:D�4��5Q��c(A) 5863

(B) 4693

(C) �4����3 �(D) 5117

16. ��0��I�41����(7�89:1�������JE��G��̀ ���������.E���1�������)�1�:D�4��5Q��c(A) 3749 (B) 2114(C) 5863 (D) 4940

17. JE��G��`���(7�89:1�������X�8����L����,��(���%��o:�5��5Q��c(A) 1690(B) 5863

(C) 923(D) 682

18. JE��G��`���(7�89:1������������.E���1������4)�&��)�1�:D�4��5Q��c(A) 2114(B) 3173

(C) 3749

(D) 3��1��������4������( �

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10. If A is the father of C, D is the daughterof B, E is the wife of C and A is marriedto B then how E is related to B ?(A) Sister

(B) Daughter(C) Daughter-in-law

(D) Mother

11. If the error of 2% is made in the side ofthe length of a square then percentageerror in the perimeter of the square willbe(A) 0 (B) 2

(C) 4 (D) 8

12. What is the average working hours ofan employee in a factory based on thefollowing working hours distribution ?

No. of working No. of Employees hours

3 – 5 hours 2

5 – 7 hours 4

7 – 9 hours 8

9 – 11 hours 6(A) 5 (B) 7.8

(C) 8 (D) 8.6

Answer questions 13 – 18 based on thefollowing data :

Total number of candidates appearedfor an examination 7553

Total number of subjects in the course 05

Those who got pass marks in all thesubjects 1690

Those who failed in all the subjects 682

Those who failed in two subjects 2144

Those who passed in one subjectonly 923

Those who failed in three subjects NIL

13. How many candidates failed at least inone subject ?

(A) 5863

(B) 6871

(C) 5409

(D) 6632

14. How many candidates passed in threesubjects only ?

(A) 2563 (B) 4258

(C) 2114 (D) 3015

15. How many candidates passed in twosubjects only ?

(A) 5863

(B) 4693

(C) NIL

(D) 5117

16. How many of the unsuccessfulcandidates passed in three subjects ?

(A) 3749 (B) 2114

(C) 5863 (D) 4940

17. How many candidates failed in thecourse ?

(A) 1690

(B) 5863

(C) 923

(D) 682

18. How many candidates passed in onlythree subjects ?

(A) 2114

(B) 3173

(C) 3749

(D) None of these

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(For Blind Candidates Only)

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions 13 to 18 :

Culture is a complex term, which means different things to different people. It is, therefore, not easyto give it a single definition. In its broadest sense, however, culture represents a complex set ofdistinctive spiritual, material, intellectual and emotional features that characterize and define asociety or social group. In addition to the arts and letters, it encompasses modes and ways of life,the fundamental rights of the human being, value systems, traditions and beliefs. Culture consistsof traditional ways of solving problems or culture is composed of respondents, which have beenaccepted because they have met with success.

In spite of the exposure to alien cultural influence through the mass and print media, amongothers, Uganda has been observed to have preserved a lot of its own in terms of social traditions,

crafts, music, dances, folklore, foods and dress. Some of the traditional cultural values, howeverhave been changing. For example, while the majority of people follow Christianity, and only asmaller percentage follow the Islamic faith, and traditional African religions are also practiced.But their traditional cultural traits, whether real or imagined, are kept and cherished. These aresome of the important features that characterize specific community categories, such as ethnicgroups.

To live in the same society and not actually be an integral part of it by being denied the normativeroles in matters of common concern raises problems of a social, economic and political nature.Basic to these problems is the one relating to equal participation in society by its members regardlessof ethnic or cultural differentiation. For participation to be achieved at this level, unimpeded socialintegration is a pre-condition. The problem of ethnic group integration in Uganda is not of recentmaking. The fundamental question here is, how to deliberately undermine, with a view to eradicating

negative ethnicity and ethnic parochialism, and in the process enhance nationalism, democracyand development. Is it possible that with time, ethnic differences are likely to be de-mystified ? Thiswould perhaps be because currently, some people are identifying themselves at professional andbusiness interests more than ethnic or regional levels.

13. Culture includes

(A) Arts and letters

(B) Intellectual achievement

(C) Values

(D) All the above

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14. !�D�'���G��1�� ���1������4�����!���5�O1�K ���;K�'� D����Q���5 ��&�5#�'�

(A) �5 ��y%'���BC 81����

(B) �5 ��y%'��ZjE�G}81����

(C) /5.�:'���� k'1����

(D) '�Mg

15. `�5 ����)������ ! /����G���Q��3��'-

(A) +9:'���5����4��

(B) � 1���5)�&

(C) 1�����)��

(D) ;��8�1�

16. (��� �����5/�8)�3��(������&S5��&7��)�I����5&�� ^��! � )�*����Q

(A) ��&��'���`�5 �����^��")1������"��! ��2��!*�����

(B) `�5 �����^��")������*>�?��

(C) `�5 �����^��")���.�50�

(D) `�5 �����^��")�����j���.'

17. ��&S5��&7��)�I���'����������

(A) `�5 �����1�����%���'5���Q'����n.'

(B) ���4���751��V���.'

(C) `�5 �����)5��)���8

(D) `�5 ����)���+/5��������.�����5%

18. ��a'������� *'�D��������3���"��c

(A) `�5 ����)�����"��(� =@��<�'��

(B) `�5 �����1�� ���1������4��51�<�'��

(C) +/���'���505?)�8���&S5��&7��)�I����"���_N'����n�����

(D) `�5 ����)�����"����&S5��&7��)�I����1�t��G1�K���)���

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14. Ethnic groups have retained without any change traditional

(A) Cultural values

(B) Cultural traits

(C) Religions faith

(D) Agriculture

15. Ethnicity is related to

(A) Economic status

(B) Gender role

(C) Identity

(D) Profession

16. There is a possibility that democracy may lead to

(A) Strengthening of present ethnic differences

(B) Increase in ethnic differences

(C) Destruction of ethnic differences

(D) Weakening of ethnic differences

17. Democracy demands

(A) Preservation of ethnic identity

(B) Equal participation

(C) Ethnic discrimination

(D) Reservation based on ethnicity

18. Does the writer suggest that

(A) Ethnicity should be ignored

(B) Ethnic groups should disappear

(C) Modern western democracy be accepted

(D) Democracy should integrate ethnicity

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19. ddf5������i�� 1�ee�p5#������3��$ �5��5&�� 7�51��)���R

(A) ���51���o�

(B) *�1

(C) !����G��! ����o�*�� ��

(D) !����G��! ���'�!�l

20. 15K������*>5?����� p8���(H�5�+'5����/��K���'�o1�����)5���4������" ����4D��)��b' ���

(A) 3����15K������)�5 0�����"��>����$���)��

(B) 3����J�5���$�%���<��'����"��>����$���)��

(C) 3����15K������)�5 0�����"��*F?���)���

(D) 3����15K������)�5 0�����"V�$'����n)���

21. dd����5.�ee�; h51��������3��$ ��

(A) 7��'� �������<�D�'�@���� ��� ��*����G)����

(B) (�1����J)��$���.'�(upwelling)#� ��

(C) 15K���! 5�����&75�� ��

(D) )�1����! � ��

22. ���8%�� 0��E�O������;��,����� ND�����C��.=��o�0�'�D5���&�4o(A) 10 (B) 12

(C) 8 (D) 4

23. �� ���'����5E�~1����.��)����'�2�1�K�������'5-�( )����5g~�����\8*�����5�����4�����Q

(A) 1999���� (B) 2001����

(C) 1996���� (D) 1998����

24. 75��)�������������!: 5���7��'� ��'-)��)5�1����7�������*�1����.�5�����(A) 49% (B) 59%

(C) 39% (D) 29%

25. '��1� '�UG������)�:�1�������4������� �����&S5��)5�)��'��1�����.���.0�E��1��o� ��c(A) )���"��.�589:1�������4S��m+9:'�

V�"������"��(HZ:�'���n ���&��%"��������

(B) .�589:1�����'�������:*�O�����"�42�5Q1��8�(�$1�5)�i 8�)��$��������

(C) .�589:1�����'������(�� !��]����&0"1������"��V��������

(D) .�589:1����=��������)����+'�&��oj� ��D�)�����"��'��D����V�'����n�����

26. ��UG��I ���"����UG��II �� �1�*� �����)�����$�4���;)��������"��'��1�'�UG����'��D�� ���+$�R

��HI��I ��HI��II

]$�3^ ]�� ��+^

(a) ;���58�� (i) ������N����)�:�5'C0� 81����

(b) >�>: (ii) ��&����)����2����'C0� 81����

(c) .>5����� =��o (iii) �&�$����'C0� 81����

(d) '5�4:15�� (iv) �41�:��j:+>���O

(a) (b) (c) (d)(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

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19. “Farmer’s lung disease” is due to

(A) Pollen grains

(B) Smoke

(C) Mouldy hay

(D) Mouldy sugarcane

20. An increase in the number or size of the

dust particles in air leads to warming

because

(A) It scatters moisture in air

(B) It scatters all kinds of light

(C) It increases moisture in air

(D) It absorbs moisture in air

21. “Tsunami” occurs due to

(A) Earthquake generated in a

subduction zone

(B) Wave upwelling

(C) Wind impact

(D) Tidal force

22. The percentage of solar radiation used

in photosynthesis is

(A) 10 (B) 12

(C) 8 (D) 4

23. United Nations International strategy for

disaster reduction was established in

(A) 1999 (B) 2001

(C) 1996 (D) 1998

24. The extent of landmass vulnerable to

Earthquake in India is

(A) 49% (B) 59%

(C) 39% (D) 29%

25. One of the following behaviours is not

characteristic of a democratic teacher

(A) Try to understand the socio-economic

background of his students

(B) Affectionate even to poorly

performing students

(C) Tolerate non-sensical questions

from students

(D) Tolerate even mischievous and

aggressive behaviour of students

26. Match List I with List II and select the

correct answer from the code given

below :

List – I List – II

(Method) (Technique)

(a) Lecture (i) Interactive skills

(b) Discussion (ii) Presentation

skills

(c) Seminars (iii) Persuasive

skills

(d) Workshops (iv) Guided practice

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

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W-0016 14

27. '��1�'�UG������1������"��*� ���P

��HI��I ��HI��II

]��$��&�����^ ]�_,��������^

(a) 5'�8���\o:1�K���.' (i) ��*�>�,�:

(b) !*���+,�-1���� (ii) 1�����%���.'

(c) *� ���!� (iii) 1�&*�o�0�=�

(d) 5'�8�M ������" (iv) �����o�0�=�

T����&0"1������"

;)��$��������

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

28. j'�@'�����M%������1��5�������)�:�1������"

1�����%�R

(A) ��&0"1�K1�;)��$�� ��!������

.�589:�����"�(� =@��������

(B) ��*��5&/58��'����<��/��5�(�s�����"

(%'�&.���������

(C) )���1�%1�K1��������.��$�*��1�������

(D) ��X�8'�&������"����\o:1�K�� ��*F?��

)���1�%1������"�)1���'����n�����

29. �����j'�@'�$1�)���1�%������*>��?��$O5��'5$�4��x��'�@5��<��s�� �(1�)�85���'C0� 8����"��1�����%�R

(i) )� )�&S5[�����!1t��%����K'

(ii) )���1�%���'5��:'�&��1�������)� )�&S5[����;��,��1�

(iii) .�589:1����(1�)�8)1����!1t��%����K'

(iv) .E�����Z���o8)

(A) (i)���)����(iii)

(B) (ii)���)����(iii)

(C) (ii), (iii)���)����(iv)

(D) (ii)���)����(iv)

30. ��'��1�'�UG���������1��4��$�%��<��/�'������"��*>5?�������3E�G��D��%��$�c�4�����!l��→

(A) '�����;�5��5��>�������F)�&1������";��,�����������

(B) '��E�Y'�1�������)������'@1������";��,�����������

(C) �5 ��̂ :'�5��kK�(H�5�'����N<��D��:1������"��;��,�����������

(D) |������\&S'�G���u$� ��kD������ )�&v�� �1kK�(H�5�'����N��<��D�:1������";��,�����������

31. �� �*���������0�&�)�M1������&%=&,������"V�1���")5��

(A) ������4V%

(B) �� '�%�'���o

(C) 1���Q

(D) .�� '�%�'���o

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W-0016 15 ���O3O� �O/ P.T.O.

27. Match the following :

List – I List – II

(Tests) (Skills)

(a) Sentence (i) Association

completion

(b) Multiple (ii) Recognition

choice

(c) Match the (iii) Comprehension

following

(d) Read the (iv) Recall

passage and

answer the

questions

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

28. Identify the behaviour which is

professional ethics of a teacher.

(A) Ignore the student who wants to

answer all questions

(B) Encroaching on the teaching period

of a colleague

(C) Going late to classes

(D) Take extra classes to complete

syllabus

29. Identify the skills needed by present day

teachers to make classroom teaching

more efficient.

(i) Knowledge of technology

(ii) Use of technology in classroom

transactions

(iii) Knowledge of students needs

(iv) Content Mastery

(A) (i) and (iii)

(B) (ii) and (iii)

(C) (ii), (iii), and (iv)

(D) (ii) and (iv)

30. Whom do you like the most among the

following types of teachers :

One who uses →

(A) Motion pictures as a last resort

(B) Charts and maps

(C) White or blackboards occasionally

(D) Film projector along with white or

blackboard

31. In communication, the reactions of the

audience is called as

(A) Feedback

(B) Coding

(C) Noise

(D) Decoding

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W-0016 16

32. ��'�������1��������4������� ���������*��4/�8���( ��c

(A) 5)5:��%&'1����

(B) ��U.�(CCTV)

(C) ��2,��

(D) �������0�:��

33. d( 1������5&.�58���e�u'Z��'�i�v�%K��������

(A) /�I����1��o���G

(B) ��MgG1��>���

(C) .E����������O

(D) ( 15^�8=�

34. ���������0�������1�$E�Y���� p8���`�����*� �������� ��'�:��4/�8�����$'���

(A) ��2,��

(B) �������0�:��

(C) ` 1���5Lx�<Z���f\���

(D) '� ��\8���

35. 755^����1�����3��'-�� ������n��;�5*���O

(A) 75E5��� �*���

(B) ������V)���� �*���

(C) �����*���� �*���

(D) ( )�����8=������� �*���

36. �� �*���������5V�����%K��������

(A) �� ��0�

(B) .E���

(C) .�� '�)�

(D) !���'� D���4/�8��

37. A #� ��� D ��1�'�UG�����4�����1�������������

����1���������M0�5����)����� ��������M0�5� �R

����M0�5������+�� �����"��'� D��V2#�$R

(A) >� ��&

(B) 0��

(C) 0��'�&

(D) 7��.�

38. ��'��1�� ����(��\o:5���5'�8����"��'�UG���Q

�� )�����5 �-��� 7�������+,�-1������"��'�UG�R

5'�8����"� ���\o:1�K�� ��()�8 )����$�4��

� ����+,�-�����"��+$�R

^'��@'�$1�̂ '@�����"����D�<5������b' ���

(A) 3����� ����!*����'�G��(758��

(B) 3����(������"���Z1���n���5"����)������)���

3)����������(� k���� )�x

���5� k���5"���4D��)���

(C) 3����'5���������&'5����E�s�� NUG�

(D) (�����'�G��>����U'1��������I�>���51��)5��

39. � ���$�%����� ! /�����"��)��$����

��$�4���S��2�����"����� ��

'�UG���� )�+$�R

+����1��P���/�8���1�

(A) V���P�V��1�DW

(B) ������n�P�1���5k

(C) 1�$�5���P��Z�'�

(D) DZ����5���P�D5&}81���

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32. Which one among the following is not a

mass medium ?

(A) Newspapers

(B) CCTV

(C) Radio

(D) TV

33. Kinesics refers to

(A) Voice quality

(B) Visual appearance

(C) Content delivery

(D) Body language

34. The communication instrument which is

owned by the maximum number of

people in our country is

(A) Radio

(B) TV

(C) Mobile phone

(D) Computer

35. Gestures are a good example for

(A) Language Communication

(B) Non-verbal Communication

(C) Mass Communication

(D) Intrapersonal Communication

36. In communication channel refers to

(A) Message

(B) Content

(C) Decoding

(D) Medium employed

37. Among the four terms marked A – D,

three terms are similar and one is

dissimilar. Find the one that is not

similar.

(A) Moon

(B) Saturn

(C) Venus

(D) Earth

38. Below an incomplete statement is

followed by four possible alternative

choices. Select the most appropriate

that completes the statement.

Beggars should not be given alms

because

(A) It is a very bad habit

(B) It encourages them to remain idle

and depend on others

(C) It is forbidden by law

(D) They indulge in evil activities

39. Choose the pair of words which shows

the same relationship as given at the top.

Primeval : Medieval

(A) Snow : Ice

(B) Thorn : Rose

(C) Gorilla : Soldier

(D) Dinosaur : Dragon

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40. '�UG����� �� p580&�L����� � '�&��!��]� ���

0&�L�����"��1�����%�R

(A) 3, 9, 6, 27

(B) 7, 21, 14, 147

(C) 6, 18, 12, 216

(D) 4, 12, 8, 48

41. ‘PERSONALITY’ ����‘QFSTPOBMJUZ’

J ������ '�)�1�K����A� ‘BEHAVIOUR’

J !�����*�1��� '�)�1� 2��c

(A) ADGZUHNTQ

(B) DGJCXKQWT

(C) CFIBWJPVS

(D) ZCFYTGMSP

42. (I) ��)����(II) J !�J��D���*�K'1�����(a) ��)���

(b) J !�J��D����o:��1������"��(�����$����Q

*�K'1�������)�85��J !�JL'�����"

*� ���Q��'�������4���o:������"

)5=:'�5��(�����$��!*������c

(I) J�5���1� D���������0�I�����R

(II) j&��5�������!l��1� D����R

�S���������X

(a) J�5���1� D�������j&��5��������R

(b) j&��5��������0�I�����R

(A) (a)��4)�&���$�4��

(B) (b)��4)�&���$�4��

(C) (a)���)����(b) J��D�����$�4�

(D) (a)�������$�� ���(b) ������$�� �

43. �� 0��/�����()��8)�����(H�:��

(A) S5[�������MgG����)����(��I#�'�)15�dZS5[�'��'�&��e���(���2'

(B) �����81�����5��O1�.��05:)��'����)�����>��5)��'��+���>��1����(���2'

(C) (����=)����)5� 0�1����+/5�����������:�5/5��L�'���o����"��)� ���������

(D) w����������:�4��8x�5�:%&'����)�81���*��D��'��.'

44. �� 0��/��5����������"��( %��1�K������������������'������� ��������">�?$'��(1�)�8. �

(A) J�5���%����:1������� 0��/��5���&0"1�K1�� ! s���������

(B) ��)5� 0�1�����58��������)������H�:���)������ ! *�:)����j?)�)

(C) '��'����5�:%&�'���o������N ������13���.'�����5] )��� ���

(D) .0��E�O����I�'�M%����;��,��������)5� 0�'-���$*� ���)���

45. ��'�������1���������$�� ����*�K'���

(A) '��'����BC�8�'���o���,��`���������E�Y)�������+/5$)�5��

(B) �� 0��/������>���)5-��1�����3������$��%�����$�'@�4��

(C) �BC�8�'���o���(758��1�����,��`���<���<���*� )�1�������*���2'� 2

(D) �BC�8�'���o���)������ 0��/��5�'��'��

��/8��4�����7���. �

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40. Among the given number series spot the

odd one.

(A) 3, 9, 6, 27

(B) 7, 21, 14, 147

(C) 6, 18, 12, 216

(D) 4, 12, 8, 48

41. If PERSONALITY is coded as

QFSTPOBMJUZ, how would

BEHAVIOUR coded

(A) ADGZUHNTQ

(B) DGJCXKQWT

(C) CFIBWJPVS

(D) ZCFYTGMSP

42. Two statements (I) and (II) given below

are followed by two conclusions (a) and

(b) supposing the statements are true,

which of the following conclusions can

logically follow ?

(I) All men are mortal.

(II) Sri Rama is a man.

Conclusions :

(a) All men are Sri Rama’s.

(b) Sri Rama is mortal.

(A) Only (a) is correct

(B) Only (b) is correct

(C) Both (a) and (b) are correct

(D) Neither (a) nor (b) are correct

43. The best meaning of Research is

(A) Adoption of ‘Scientific Method’ for

creation and application of

knowledge

(B) Adoption of critical and constructive

thinking for solution of problems

(C) Arriving at generalisations based on

observed data

(D) Search for universal truths of life

44. One of the following precautions is not

needed at the time of finalising a

research report.

(A) All findings are related to research

questions

(B) Validity and reliability of data are

ensured

(C) Generalisations of the study are in

agreement with existing theories

(D) Analysis adopted in suitable to data

used

45. The incorrect statement in this set is

(A) Evaluation studies are based on

objectives of a project

(B) Research is examination of

conditions under which a

phenomenon exists

(C) Evaluation exercises are spread

across different stages of a project

(D) There is no difference between

evaluation and research studies

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46. �� 0��/�����1��o���G.���������3����

(A) ������E�Y)����

(B) .0�I������)����

(C) ;�����'��)����

(D) ��H5��&%����

47. ��'�������1��������� 0��/����������%<5V��

��D�)1������"��1�����%�R

(i) 3)������ 0��/��1�K �����'� ���4D�������

(ii) ��)5� 0�1�K �����I N�.E��4 )���1� 2��Q

%����:1������"����&'�U��������

(iii) �� 0��/�����\o:1� D���� )���

��)5� 0�1����+/5��1������"��*� F'����n�����

(iv) �*1��������75E1��5&���a8)�����"

'�D�������

(A) (i) (ii) (iii)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(C) (i) (ii) (iv)

(D) (i) (iii) (iv)

48. 1�� ���1����*� �5L'����3��

( ��'�M)�1����n)���R

(A) .E����(/�8����

(B) ��&,��15)��'��(/�8����

(C) (��� k����+ ��� �5)��'��(/�8����

u�5 ���82�������G2���v

(D) �o:�5)��'��(/�8����

49. '��1�'��G���4���� D�1��������4��� ���d( ��'�M)��x����:�����)��e�(accreditation)

'5��o'-�;��,����� ND����� ��c

(A) +D�K)��x�+KI'���)�������a D�)�I

(B) '�����.'�m�'�����.'���)�����BC�8�'���o

(C) .�589:1��� �1�7��/�'�������������� ! /�

(D) �4V%���)����'��'������ 1����

50. 75��%������ ./5�������'������%���Q��2����j'�@o����"� � d�����%:���UGe��� (Concurrent

list)���(2������)����5#�)��R

(A) 42���%���Q��2

(B) 73���%���Q��2

(C) 86���%���Q��2

(D) 30���%���Q��2

51. 10 + 2 + 3�� �����5�4��85��J �$1��(��I#������j'�@o�����>������jf5������4D� N�G���Q��3��$ ��

(A) �' D�$�J`�8'�0����'�.�E���

(B) 1964-66�J`�8'�0����'�.�E���

(C) ������:U�J`�8'�0����'�.�E���A�1948

(D) '�X5$�'�.�E��� 1964-66

52. 3��������( N�� p58)����j'�@o'-�;)�����(�'50���)����.���$)��'5��:'�&��1�K1��5&0��������"��2�R

(A) �5g~����j'�@o���%

(B) �5�����%:�����

(C) (A)���)����(B)�J��D��

(D) �������4������( �

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46. The good quality of a research is its

(A) Objectivity

(B) Reliability

(C) Usability

(D) Replicability

47. Identify unethical behaviours in

research in the following set

(i) Copying from other researches

(ii) Publish findings when they slightly

deviate from data

(iii) Share data-base after research is

completed

(iv) Give importance to language over

ideas

(A) (i) (ii) (iii)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(C) (i) (ii) (iv)

(D) (i) (iii) (iv)

48. Matching of Groups is adopted in

(A) Case Studies

(B) Experimental Studies

(C) Longitudinal Studies

(D) Descriptive Studies

49. One of the following criteria is not used

for purposes of ‘accreditation’ by NAAC

(A) Governance and leadership

(B) Teaching-learning and evaluation

(C) Rapport of teachers with students

(D) Information and learning resources

50. The following amendment to the

constitution of India brought education

under the ‘Concurrent list’.

(A) 42nd Amendment

(B) 73rd Amendment

(C) 86th Amendment

(D) 30th Amendment

51. 10 + 2 + 3 as a common structure of

education is recommended by

(A) Secondary Education Commission

(B) The Education Commission 1964-66

(C) University Education Commission

1948

(D) The Kothari Commission 1964-66

52. The provision for better and expanded

programmes for the education of

minorities has been given priority in

(A) National Policy on education

(B) Ramamurti Report

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

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______________

53. '�UG�����.0�I.�58 ��1��������4������� ���b'���������1��o '�@o����"��*� ���c

(A) '� -)5���.0�I.�58 ��

(B) �*���.0�I.�58 ��

(C) 'C"�.0�I.�58 ��

(D) !���5I���.0�I.�58 ��

54. �BC�58/5$)��j'�@o��

(A) w�������J�5��������tox;)�yE�G)�����".�589:1�K1���$F)�1�K���)���

(B) .�589:1������"��(�����1��BC 81���(��)�����"��*F?�� ������H�:1�K���)���

(C) .�589:1�K1� ��$���)���� )����N1���� ��/8�8)58��'�$�� ��'�����)���

(D) .�589:1��������BC 81����!1t��T����(^���F�����"��*F?���)���

55. 5���.'��������������������� )�($)�����)�����&%=&#������'5��:'5$�����]%���*��������c

(A) �����*������]%

(B) >�����'�����&%=&,��������]%

(C) 5���.'�������������]%

(D) �������*� F'�����]%

56. '� �Z �����)����(�i !���1����3�����h�'��D����"��V�1 ����'�����)5���c

(A) +<�'�G��'��D�

(B) �����i��'��D�

(C) �g���'��D�

(D) '� �Z ���'��D�

57. ���G�B�i��D ��� h���Zf���Z'��������� *� )���

(A) (�5����� u.0��E�Ov

(B) D�h5<����2�Z���u��)5� 0��+/5$)�.�58��v

(C) ���G�B��2�Z���u�8������.�58��v

(D) _&�.���$�3���G1�0����u�5&H�.�'�)��5��O�v

58. '������1�� _������. '�@o���������"��1�����%�R

(A) �Z'�&�)��� 1��u�Z'�&���i�v

(B) ���8%�)� )���u+_G'����fZ!��v

(C) ��*5'�@�)� )���u'�+8=i�����'�!��v

(D) %���F���S�)�)� %1�����uUI�GD��f���������v

59. FDDI ����� ���

(A) ; 1�����S5 ! /��u$ 1���h��'�:v

(B) ��'�@)�&�S5 ! /��u�5G����h��'�:v

(C) S5 $�S5 ! /��u�E���h��'�:v

(D) !���S5 ! /��u!����h��'�:v

60. 3����)���m#� ��m)���1�( =����u2w���v�� ��'�:����"��J�5���/�I��u2whZ��W�v1A���)5� 0�'-�A��H5��&%1� uf��Z��vA� h��U&� ��)���.�2,���(_�'�0���i1�K1��������)���R

(A) PSTN u_RJ��RURJ��Rv

(B) ISDN u6RJ��R2RJ��Rv

(C) SNA uJ��RJ��RJRv

(D) CCITT u�R�R6RURURv

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______________

53. Among the following universities which

one is having the unitary characteristic

(A) Calcutta University

(B) Delhi University

(C) Lucknow University

(D) Burdwan University

54. Value education should

(A) Familiarise students with all the

virtues of life

(B) Enable students to develop a scale

of values by themselves

(C) Teach students to distinguish

between right and wrong

(D) Develop interest in students to read

about values

55. What is the name of the operating

system that reads and reacts in terms

of actual time ?

(A) Batch system

(B) Quick response system

(C) Real time system

(D) Time sharing system

56. The input code of the compiler and

assembler is called

(A) Object code

(B) Source code

(C) Machine code

(D) Compiler code

57. The first step in systems development

life cycle is

(A) Analysis

(B) Database design

(C) System design

(D) Preliminary investigation

58. Identify the odd term amongst the

following group.

(A) Microwaves

(B) Optical fiber

(C) Coaxial cable

(D) Twisted pair wire

59. FDDI is a

(A) Ring network

(B) Star network

(C) Mesh network

(D) Bus network

60. This will provide end-to-end digital

connection for all voice (digitized),

data, facsimile, telemetry and video

applications

(A) PSTN

(B) ISDN

(C) SNA

(D) CCITT

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