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MCAT FULL LENGTH PAPER–8

AS PER UHS PATTERN Total MCQs: 220 Max. Marks: 1100 Time Allowed: 150 Minute

PHYSICS Q.1 The dimensional formula ML-1T-2 corresponds to

A) Viscosity C) Modulus of elasticity B) Movement of force D) Acceleration

Q.2 The most suitable unit for expressing nuclear radius is A) Micron C) Angstrom B) Fermi D) Nanometer

Q.3 A body acted on by two forces P and Q is fractioned force F holds the body in equilibrium which vector triangle could represent the relationship between these forces

A)

Q F

P C)

Q F

P

B) P

QF

D) P

QF

Q.4 Which of the following objects have every point its surface equidistant from its center of

weight (center of gravity) A) An egg C) A triangle B) Tennis ball D) A cubic box

Q.5 Bernoulli’s principle is applicable to A) Viscosity C) Surface tension B) Flow of fluids D) Static fluid pressure

Q.6 A hole is made in the bottom of container having water filled up to height h. The velocity of water flowing out of hole is proportional to A) ho C) h

B) 12h D) h2

Q.7 A fluid entering a pipe from a point of larger cross section exists from the point of the same pipe having smaller cross section. Its pressure energy at A) Decrease because of high velocity C) Increase because of high velocity B) Remain same at inlet pressure D) Increase because of low velocity

Q.8 The least binding energy per nucleon is for A) Uranium-238 C) Tritium B) Deuterium D) Both “B” and “C”

Q.9 If path difference between the interfering waves is n λ, the fringes obtained on the screen will be A) coloured C) Dark B) Bright D) No fringe

Q.10 The refractive index of diamond is 2. The velocity of light in diamond in cms-1 is A) 1.5 × 1010 C) 2 × 1010 B) 6 × 1010 D) 1.5 × 108

Q.11 Two sources of light are said to be coherent if waves produce by them have the same A) Wavelength C) Wavelength and constant phase difference B) Amplitude D) Amplitude and same wavelength

Q.12 In compound microscope intermediate image is A) Real, erect, magnified C) Virtual erect, reduced B) Real, inverted, magnified D) Virtual, erect, magnified

Sumair Sb Ph# 0333-4351892

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Q.13 Doppler’s shift in frequency does not depend upon A) The actual frequency of wave C) The velocity of the observer B) The velocity of source D) The distance of source from the observer

Q.14 Sound waves donot exhibit the phenomenon of A) Reflection C) Diffraction B) Polarization D) Refraction

Q.15 Which type of oscillation give rise to resonance A) Free C) Damped B) Forced D) All

Q.16 During an adiabatic compression of 5 moles of a gas, 250 J of work was done. The change in the internal energy will be A) 50J C) -150 J B) 250 J D) -250J

Q.17 A carnot engine absorbs heat at 127oC and rejects heat at 87oC. The efficiency of the engine is A) 10% C) 50% B) 20% D) 30%

Q.18 The fig shows P-V graph of cyclic process. If Q is the heat energy supplied to the system, U is the internal energy of the system and W is the work done by the system, then which of following relation is correct

P

B D

A

C

V A) Q U W C) Q W B) U 0 D) Q U

Q.19 The first law of thermodynamics confirms the law of conservation of A) Momentum C) Charge B) Man D) None

Q.20 For certain gas CP/CV=1.5 for gas A) Cv = 3R C) Cp = 5R B) Cp = 3R1 D) Cv = 5R

Q.21 Certain substances loose their resistance completely at finite low temperature are called A) Dielectric C) Super conductors B) Perfect conductors D) Semi-conductors

Q.22 A nuclear reaction is represented by the eq: 16 4 19

98 2O He F X What is particle X?

A) An X-particle C) A -particle B) A neutron D) A proton Q.23 A capacitor is a perfect insulator for

A) A.C C) Both B) D.C D) None of these

Q.24 Four resistances 2, 4, 6, 8 are connected in series having current 10A. find potential differences A) 600V C) 200V B) 400V D) 220V

Q.25 A truth table is shown below A B Y 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1

Which of the following gate has this truth table A) XOR C) AND B) NOR D) OR

Q.26 A -particle is emitted by a radioactive nucleus at the time of conversion of A) A neutron into proton C) A proton into neutron B) A neutron into energy D) A positron into energy

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Q.27 Hardness or softness of X-rays is determined by A) Filament current B) Hardness of target C) Low pressure of Coolidge tube D) Potential difference between cathode and anti cathode

Q.28 The greatest stress that a material can endure with out losing straight lime proportionality between stress and strain is called A) Plasticity B) Fracture stress C) Proportional limit D) Brittle stress

Q.29 Low level radiation effects are A) Loss of hair C) Also in white cells B) Ulceration D) All of these

Q.30 23490 Th is a source of A) α-particle C) γ – radiation B) β-particle D) All

Q.31 Which controls the brightness of graph in CRO A) Deflecting plates C) Cathode B) Grid D) Anode

Q.32 X – rays are A) Electromagnetic radiation of high frequency B) B) Electromagnetic radiation of low frequency C) Beam of electrons D) Beam +ve ions

Q.33 X–rays which can penetrate through longer distances in substances are called A) Soft x – rays C) Continuous x – rays B) Hard x – rays D) None of these

Q.34 If the electron in the K shell is removed and an electron from L shell jumps to occupy the hole in the K shell, it emits a photon of energy A) hfkα = EL - EK C) hc = EL - EK B) hfkα = EK – EL D) h/λkα = EL - EK

Q.35 In beta decay A) The parent or daughter nuclei have same number of protons B) The daughter nucleus has one proton less than parent nucleus C) The daughter nucleus has one proton more than nucleus D) The daughter nucleus has one neutron more than the parent nucleus

Q.36 The K-series characteristic X-rays photons have energy given by the formula A) EL – EK C) EP – EK

B) EM – EK D) All of these Q.37 Which of the following is emitted with the same energy from a radioactive substance

A) α – partied C) γ – rays B) β – partied D) All of these

Q.38 G.M counter is not suitable for fast counting because of its A) Small dead time C) Small pulse time B) Long dead time D) Long pulse time

Q.39 Tracers are widely used in A) Medicine C) Identifying faults in metals B) Agriculture D) All of these

Q.40 In case of normal adjustment of microscope final image is formed at A) 2f C) f B) Near point D) Infinity

Q.41 The radioactive elements polonium and radium were discovered by the A) Curies C) Chadwick B) Rutherford D) Enrico Fermi

Q.42 The continuous X-ray spectrum is due to an effect known as: A) Continuous radiation C) Decreasing radiation B) Braking radiation D) Stopping radiation Q.43 The wavelength of gamma rays is of the order of

A) 10-12m C) 10-12mm B) 10-12cm D) 10-12µm

Q.44 Compton effect is associated with A) Ultraviolet C) α-rays B) X-rays D) All of these

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MCAT FULL LENGTH PAPER– 8

AS PER UHS PATTERN 2014 Final Strike

CHEMISTRY Q.45 Electronic configuration of different elements is given. Which has highest 1st ionization energy

A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1 C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2

Q.46 Which one shows highest ionic nature A) HCl C) LiF B) NaF D) KBr

Q.47 Which one of the following is not a coplanar molecule A) HCN C) C2H6 B) C2H2 D) C2H4

Q.48 LiCl is soluble in organic solvents while NaCl is not because A) Lattice energy of NaCl is less than that of LiCl B) Li+ ion has higher hydration energy than Na+

C) LiCl is more covalent than NaCl D) Li+ has lower value of hydration energy than Na+

Q.49 A solution of glucose is 20% (W/V). The volume in which 1gram mole of it is dissolved will be A) 1dm3 C) 200cm3 B) 3.6dm3 D) 900cm3

Q.50 Metallic conduction involves the relatively free movement of their _____ throughout the metallic lattice

A) Atoms C) Ions B) Molecules D) Electrons Q.51 The standard reduction potentials of different elements are given:

i) A+/A = -2V ii) B+/B = -1.5V iii) C+/C = + 0.5V iv) D+/D = +1V Which reaction is not feasible

A) A+ + B → A + B+ C) B + C+ → B+ + C B) C+ + D → C + D+ D) A+ + D → A + D+

Q.52 Which of following is correct expression of Kc for ammonia synthesis A) x2/v(a-x) C) 4x2.v/(a-2x)2(b-x) B) 4x2/v(a-x) D) 4x2.v2/(a-x)(b-3x)3

Q.53 The pH of 5 x 10-3 M H2SO4 solution is A) 2.0 C) 3.0 B) 2.7 D) 3.5

Q.54 The units of 3rd order rate constant are usually expressed as A) mole-1 dm3 s-1 C) mole-1 dm-3 s-1

B) mole-2 dm6 s-1 D) mole-2 dm-6 s-1

Q.55 The rate equation for a gas phase reaction is rate = k [A][B]. If pressure on reaction mixture is tripled, then the rate of reaction increases by A) Two times C) nine times B) six times D) 8 times

Q.56 What is the true trend of electron affinity in halogens on moving down the group A) F > Cℓ > Br > I C) F < Br < I < Cℓ B) Cℓ > Br > F > I D) F < Cℓ < Br < I

Q.57 Ionization energy of nitrogen is more than that of oxygen because of A) Greater attraction of electrons by the nucleus

B) Smaller size of nitrogen atom C) The extra stability of the half filled p orbital D) Poor shielding

Q.58 To avoid the formation of toxic compounds with chlorine which substance is used for water purification

Naeem Sb Ph# 0321-4617705

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A) KMnO4 C) O3 B) Alums D) Chloramines

Q.59 Bleaching powder is prepared by mixing slaked lime [Ca(OH)2] with A) F2 C) Br2 B) Cl2 D) I2

Q.60 Which one of the following is iso-electronic with argon A) Sc3+ (Z = 21) B) Ti3+(Z = 22)

C) V3+(Z = 23) D) Cr3+(Z = 24) Q.61 The transition element which can show highest oxidation state is

A) V C) Ni B) Co D) Mn

Q.62 Acid rain effects A) Growth of trees C) Marble work B) Fertility of soil D) All of these

Q.63 Organic compound containing both amino and carboxyl group is known as: A) Amino acid C) Lactic acid B) Fatty acid D) Acidamide

Q.64 The skeletal formula of dipeptide formed between aspartic acid and phenylalanine is given below

How many functional groups are present in its formula A) 1 C) 4 B) 2 D) 3

Q.65 In acidic conditions, amino acid exists in which of the following forms

A) 3 2H N CH COOH C) 3 2H N CH CO O -

B) NH2–CH2–COOH D) 2 2H N CH CO O - Q.66 In strongly acidic solutions neutral amino acids exist in the

A) Neutral form C) Acidic form B) Basic form D) Zwitterionic form

Q.67 The amino acid spots on a chromatogram can be detected by A) Ninhydrin C) Benedict’s reagent B) Conc.H2SO4 D) All of these

Q.68 The amino acids which the body is unable to synthesize are called. A) Non-essential C) Essential B) Polar D) All of these

Q.69 The nitrogenous base which belongs to purine family A) Thymine C) Cytosine B) Uracil D) Adenine

Q.70 For addition polymer formation which property of compound is necessary A) It must contain π-bonds C) It must be polyfunctional B) It must be bifunctional D) All of these

Q.71 In which case, 1-6 linkages are maximum A) Amylose C) Amylopectin B) Cellulose D) Glycogen Q.72 __________serve as carriers of heredity from one generation to the other

A) Lipids C) Formaldehydes B) Caseins D) Nucleic acids

Q.73 Which of following is not an synthetic polymer A) Diamond C) Rubber

B) Fibers D) None of these Q.74 The highest oxidation of nitrogen is shown by

A) N2O3 C) HNO3

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B) NO2- D) All of these

Q.75 Following are the properties of pure sulphuric acid except A) Oily liquid C) Conductor B) Corrosive D) Decomposed heating

Q.76 Ammonium carbamate is prepared by mixing gaseous carbondioxide and ammonia in the volume ratio of A) 1:2 C) 2:3 B) 1:4 D) None of these

Q.77 The molecular formula of toluene A) C10H8 C) C8H10

B) C7H14 D) C7H8 Q.78 Which of the following acts as an electrophile

A) H2O C) NH3 B) ROH D) CO2 Q.79 Which group will be most preferred while naming aromatic compounds

A) –COOH C) –OH B) –CHO D) –F

Q.80 Toluene when treated with acidified KMnO4 produces A) Benzole C) Methyl Cyclohexane B) Benzoic Acid D) Glyoxal

Q.81 Which of the following is considered best method to prepare alkyl halide A) Halogenation of alkane B) Reaction of alcohol with HX in the presence of ZnCl2 C) Reaction of alcohol with SOCl2 in the presence of pyridine (solvent)

D) All of these Q.82 The conversion of alkyl halide into an alcohol is __________ reaction.

A) Substitution C) Addition B) Elimination D) Dehydrohalogenation

Q.83 Which isomer of C4H10O forms two alkenes on dehydration? A) Butan-1-ol C) Butan-2-ol B) 2-methylpropan-1-ol D) 2-methylpropan-2-ol

Q.84 Which of the following does not give iodoform test A) CH3CH2OH C) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH B) (CH3)2CHOH D) CH3COCH3

Q.85 The ionization constant of phenol is higher than that of ethanol because A) Phenoxide ion is a stronger base than ethoxide ion B) Phenoxide ion is stabilized through delocalization electrons C) Phenoxide ion is less stable than ethoxide ion D) Phenoxide ion is bulkier than ethoxide ion

Q.86 In the following sequence of reaction if B is propanone so A would be

Q.87 2 2 7

2 4

OK Cr O3H SO vigrousoxidationA B CH COOH

A) Ethyl alcohol C) Isopropyl alcohol B) n-propyl alcohol D) Tertiary butyl alcohol Q.88 Formaldehyde reacts with HCN (NaCN + HCl) to give a compound

A) C)

B) D) Q.89 A certain compound gives negative test with Ninhydrin and positive test with Fehling’s solution.

The compound is A) A protein C) A monosaccharide

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B) A lipid D) An amino acid Q.90 An organic compound X is oxidized by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts

with phenyl hydrazine but does not give silver mirror test. The possible structure of X is A) (CH3)2CHOH C) CH3CHO

B) CH3CH2OH D) 33CH COCH Q.91 When ethanol is warmed with ethanoic acid in the presence of strong acid catalyst, an ester ethyl

ethanoate is formed CH3CH2OH + CH3CO2H CH3CO2CH2CH3

During this reaction A) Alcohol is reduced C) O–H bond in ethanol is broken B) O–H bond in ethanoic acid is broken D) Acid is oxidized

Q.92 Acetic acid exists as dimmer in benzene due to A) Presence of hydrogen at carbon C) Condensation reaction

B) Presence of carboxylic group D) Hydrogen bonding Q.93 In the formation of acetyl chloride, the carboxylic acid react with

A) HCl C) Cl2 B) PCl5 D) All of the above

Q.94 Which of the following enzymes bring about the hydrolysis of fats A) Urease C) Maltase

B) Zymase D) Lipase Q.95 The coagulant used for water treatment is

A) Alum C) Dolomite B) Asbestos D) Gypsum

Q.96 One of the following fertilizers that lowers the pH of the soil is A) Ca(NO3)2 C) NaNO3

B) KNO3 D) NH4NO3 Q.97 An isotope of an element is most stable if it has even atomic number and mass number, moreover

it has least n/p (neutron to proton) ratio. Keeping in view this aspect which of the following isotope of sulphur has least relative abundance A) S32

16 C) S3416

B) S3316 D) S36

16 Q.98 The compound which has same empirical formula as acetic acid A) Oxalic acid C) Formic acid B) Sucrose D) Glucose Q.99 Which of following has maximum critical temperature

A) Hydrogen C) Nitrogen B) Ammonia D) Carbon dioxide

Q.100 Which of following is affected by surface area A) Evaporation C) Vapour pressure B) Condensation D) Both a and b

Q.101 The reaction in which heat energy of the system is increased

A) 2 2C +O CO C) 2 2 2H O H + O

B) 2 2 3N +3H 2NH D) None of these Q.102 The compound which is exothermically formed A) H2O C) CO2 B) NH3 D) All of them

Q.103 A radioactive isotope of Thallium 20181 T , is used to assess damage in heart muscles after a heart

attack. Which is correct statement about20181 T

A) This isotope has nucleon number 81 C) It has 81 electrons in one atom of its isotope

B) The number of neutrons is 201 D) 20182 X is an isotope of

20181 T

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UNIT – 14 FLP TEST – 10 TEST ON COMPLETION-USAGE-CORRECTION-VOCABULARY

Directions: Choose the right option to complete the following sentences. Q.1 Things have got out of hand; we must take steps to _______ the situation.

(a) purify (b) rectify (c) actify (d) testify

Q.2 This is a ______________translation of the speech. (a) Literal (b) Verbatim (word for word) (c) Literary (d) Verbal

Q.3 After the governor’s third trip overseas, voters complained that he was paying too little attention to ________ affairs. (a) intellectual (b) foreign (c) professional (d) domestic

Q.4 The onset of the earthquake was gradual, the tremors occurring ________ at first, then with greater frequency. (a) continuously (b) intensely (c) sporadically (d) unexpectedly

SPOT THE ERROR In the first type of sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.

Q.5 Big hall full of lusty barbarians was ready to pounce at him as their legitimate prey. A B C D

Q.6 Hal’s new sports car costs much more than his friend Joel. (Joel’s) A B C D Q.7 His father does not approve of him to go to the banquet without dressing formally. (his going) A B C D Q.8 You and they are my good friends, and so are him and her. D (he and she) A B C D Q.9 Chocolate and vanilla Zingers have a thick layer of icing on top by cream filling in the middle.

A B C D C (on top with)

Q.10 On the whole, the problem that the college dean faces calls of about the same diagnostic A B C ability as the physician’s. B (calls for)

D Directions:

In each question in the following, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the circle corresponding to that letter in the answer sheet.

Q.11 A) The new code requires that each student writes a research paper. B) The new code requires that each student should write research paper. C) The new code requires that each student write a research paper. D) The new code requires that each student wrote a research paper. Q.12 A) I had my hair cut off and sold it.

B) I had my hairs cut off and sold it. C) I had my hair cut off and sell it. D) I had my hair cut off and sold them.

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Q.13 A) When only three years old, my father taught me to play baseball. B) When I was only three years old, my father taught me to play baseball. C) When I was only three years of age, my father taught me to play baseball. D) When only three year old, my father taught me how to play baseball.

Q.14 A) Every one of us have understood that without him helping us we would not have succeeded in our programme over the past six months. B) Every one of us has understood that without his helping us we would not have succeeded in our programme over the past six months. C) Every one of us have understood that without his help we would not have succeeded in our programme over the past six months. D) Every one of us has understood that without him helping us we would not have succeeded in our programme over the past six months.

Q.15 A) If they would have taken greater care in the disposal of the nuclear waste, the disaster would not have occurred. B) Had they not take greater care in the disposal of the nuclear waste, the disaster would not have occurred. C) If they had taken greater care in the disposal of the nuclear waste, the disaster would not have occurred. D) If they took greater care in the disposal of the nuclear waste, the disaster would not have occurred.

Q.16 A) For twenty two year, China laid forgotten. B) For twenty two years, China lay forgotten. C) Since twenty two years, China lay forgotten. D) For twenty two years, China lain forgotten.

Q.17 A) In Ukraine, a village, known local as a "selo", is considered as the lowest administrative. B) unit. In Ukraine, a village, known locally as a "selo", are considered the lowest administrative unit. C) In Ukraine, a village, known locally as a "selo", is considered the lowest administrative unit. D) In Ukraine, a village, known locally as a "selo", is considered lowest administrative unity.

Q.18 A) Most of the reading which is praised for itself is neither literary nor intellectual, but narcotic. B) Most of the reading which is praised for itself is neither literary or intellectual but narcotic. C) Most of the reading which is praised itself is neither literary nor intellectual, nor narcotic. D) Most of the reading which is praised for itself is either literary nor intellectual, but narcotics.

Q.19 A) An amorphous mass of cells are difficult to understand. B) An amorphous mass of cells were difficult to understand. C) An amorphous mass of cells had difficult to understand. D) An amorphous mass of cells is difficult to understand.

Q.20 A) This will have a bad impact to the economy.

B) This will have a bad impact on the economy. C) This will have a bad impact at the economy. D) This will have a bad impact over the economy.

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Directions: In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate Bubble / Circle on the MCQ Response Form. Q.21 SANCTITY (a) sacrosanctity (b) profanity (c) entity (d) specialty Q.22 SCRUTINIZE

(a) glance (b) polarize (c) glamorize (d) analyze

Q.23 SENSIBILITY (a) susceptibility (b) senselessness (c) sympathy (d) rapport

Q.24 SOPHISTRY (a) creativity (b) logic (c) sorcery (d) fraudulence

Q.25 SANDBAGGER (a) bully (b) prospect (c) commander (d) protestor

Q.26 SPURIOUS (a) genuine (b) forged (c) curious (d) nefarious

Q.27 STILTED (a) relaxed (b) natural (c) pompous (d) slanting

Q.28 SUCCUMB (a) resist (b) capitulate (c) humdrum (d) slump

Q.29 SYLLOGISM (a) induction (b) deduction (c) illogical (d) mannerism

Q.30 THERAPEUTIC (a) lethal (b) soporific (c) salutary (d) traumatic

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MCAT FULL LENGTH PAPER–8

AS PER UHS PATTERN Total MCQs: 220 Max. Marks: 1100 Time Allowed: 150 Minute

BIOLOGY Q.133 Production of insulin from transgenic bacteria can be done through:

A) Biotechnology C) Biochemistry B) Molecular Biology D) Histology

Q.134 Nervous control is required for which of the following? A) Insects C) Tracheophytes B) Algae D) Fungi

Q.135 Killing of insects with help of bacteria would be called as: A) Bio-pesticides C) Bio-fungicides B) Bio-insecticides D) Bioremediation

Q.136 Most abundant carbohydrates present on earth is: A) Glucose C) Ribose B) Sucrose D) Cellulose

Q.137 Source of glucose present in animals is: A) Starch C) Cellulose B) Glycogen D) Dextrin

Q.138 In phospholipids, nitrogenous base is attached with: A) Glycerol C) Phosphoric acid B) Fatty acid D) Isoprenoid unit

Q.139 Macromolecules having maximum diversity in their functions are: A) Nucleic acids C) Carbohydrates B) Proteins D) Lipids

Q.140 Magnesium ion is important for working of DNA Polymerase. It is example of: A) Co- factor B) Co-enzyme C) Activator D) Prosthetic group

Q.141 Increasing temperature in enzymatic reaction provides: A) Heat C) Collisions B) Vibrations D) All A,B,C

Q.142 Antibiotics block bacterial enzymes. They are under category of inhibitors: A) Reversible C) Competitive B) Irreversible D) Non-competitive

Q.143 All of the following are characters of an enzyme except: A) Used in lower quantities C) Can catalyze different substrates B) Lower activation energy D) Very sensitive

Q.144 Function in eukaryotic living cells which is related to cell membrane: A) Support C) Energy production B) Transportation D) Shape

Q.145 Organelles involved in synthesis of steroid hormones in animals is: A) Golgi Apparatus C) Mitochondria B) Endoplasmic reticulum D) RER

Q.146 Number of centrioles present in non dividing cells of angiosperms: A) 2 C) 0 B) 4 D) 6

Q.147 Cristae present on mitochondrial inner membrane is made up of: A) Glycoprotein C) Glycolipid B) Lipoprotein D) Enzymes only

Q.148 Part of cell which becomes invisible during cell division in all eukaryotes except fungi: A) Nucleus C) Ribosome B) Mitochondria D) Centrioles

Q.149 Duration of cell cycle in which DNA replication occurs: A) 4.5 hours B) 10 hours C) 9 hours D) 0.5 hours

REVIEW BY: DR. MUNEEB

FINAL BY: DR. SHERAZ AHMAD Ph# 0308-4448538

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Q.150 Actual reduction phase of meiosis is: A) Metaphase I C) Anaphase I B) Anaphase II D) Telophase II

Q.151 Genetic makeup of people suffering from Turner’s syndrome is: A) 44+X C) 44+XY B) 44+Y D) 44+YY

Q.152 The process of induction shown by bacteriophage is basically conversion of: A) Lytic to lysogenic cycle C) Lytic to lytic cycle B) Lysogenic to lytic cycle D) Lysogenic to lysogenic cycle

Q.153 In bacteria cellular respiration is characteristics feature of: A) Chloroplast C) Mitochondria B) Cell membrane D) Ribosomes

Q.154 Tuberculosis causing bacteria comes under the category of: A) Saprophytes B) Parasites C) Chemoautotrophs D) Photoautotrophs

Q.155 Nervous spasm, convulsions, gangrene are symptoms of disease known as: A) Aspergillosis C) Ergotism B) Histoplasmosis D) Ringworm

Q.156 Leaves of ------- are very useful in curing ring worm and skin diseases: A) Cassia alata C) Cassia senna B) Cassia fistula D) Cassia obovata

Q.157 Organism of phylum Cnidaria showing alternation of generations is: A) Hydra C) Actinia B) Obelia D) None of these

Q.158 Organisms showing bilateral symmetry, triploblastic organization and true coelom are A) Cnidarians C) Nematodes B) Arthropods D) Platyhelminthes

Q.159 Anticoagulant is produced to prevent blood clotting during parasitic attack by: A) Ascaris lumbricoides C) Rhabditis B) Ancyclostoma duodenale D) Enterobias vermicularis

Q.160 During electron flow, cytochrome complex is oxidized by: A) Plastoquinone C) Ferridoxin B) Plastocyanin D) Coenzyme Q

Q.161 For reduction of an NADH+to NADH, number of electrons required is: A) 1 C) 3 B) 2 D) 4

Q.162 Total number of CO2 molecules produced from breakdown of glucose through aerobic respiration is: A) 3 C) 4 B) 6 D) 8

Q.163 Net gain of ATP molecules obtained after glycolysis: A) 2 C) 8 B) 4 D) 5

Q.164 Conversion of fructose 6 phosphate into fructose 1,6 bisphosphate is carried by: A) Glucokinase B) Phosphofructokinase C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase D) Arginase

Q.165 Common example of the foliage lichen stage is: A) Permellia C) Polytrichum B) Tortula D) Porella

Q.166 If interaction of wheat is studied with the environment, this study is called: A) Synecology C) Physiology B) Autecology D) Environmental biology

Q.167 Deers, goats and rabbits are examples of: A) Primary consumer/ Herbivore C) Secondary consumer/ Herbivore B) Primary consumer/ Carnivore D) Secondary consumer/ Carnivore

Q.168 Thick layer of ozone prevents UV radiations, hence a barrier for: A) Liver cancer C) Pancreatic cancer B) Skin cancer D) Lung cancer

Q.169 All of the following are not the restriction sites of endonucleases except: A) AATAAT C) GGGCCC B) TATAAT D) CTATAC

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Q.170 Pick the enzyme which is used for in vitro duplication of a gene: A) Helicase C) Primase B) DNA Polymerase D) Ligase

Q.171 For production of transgenic animals gene, needle used are made up of: A) Calcium chloride C) Silicon carbide B) Calcium carbide D) Silicone chloride

Q.172 The oldest known fossils to humans belongs to kingdom: A) Protista C) Plantae B) Fungi D) Monera

Q.173 Descent with modification is the argument of: A) Lamarckism C) Mendel B) Darwinism D) Lyell

Q.174 What is the risk of color blind child when father is normal and mother is carrier? A) 25% C) 100% B) 75% D) 0%

Q.175 Genes that affect growth rate, also influence both height and weight in humans. This is: A) Dominance C) Pleiotropy B) Epistasis D) Over dominance

Q.176 It is an example of X-linked recessive trait: A) TFS C) SCID B) AIDS D) Hemophilia C

Q.177 Endocrine gland which functions as exocrine exclusively during digestion is: A) Liver C) Pancreas B) Thyroid D) Adrenal

Q.178 Longest part of the human digestive system is: A) Ileum C) Jejunum B) Esophagus D) Colon

Q.179 Site of complete digestion and absorption of food particles in humans is: A) Stomach C) Large intestine B) Small intestine D) Colon

Q.180 All of the following are single sphincters present in human body except: A) Cardiac C) Pyloric B) Anal D) Illeocolic

Q.181 Cartilage is present in all of the following structures except: A) Trachea C) Bronchioles B) Larynx D) Bronchi

Q.182 With decrease in pH, chances of hydrogen ions to bind with oxygen: A) Decreases C) Remains same B) Increases D) Depends upon the conditions

Q.183 Blood cells which attack parasites and inactivates inflammation producing substances are A) White blood cells C) Basophils B) Eosinophils D) Lymphocytes

Q.184 Which of the following is/are functions of lymphatic system A) Return of excess fluid C) Fats absorption B) Immunity D) All A,B,C

Q.185 Two heavy chains of antibodies are held together by: A) Disulphide bond C) Hydrophobic interaction B) Hydrogen bond D) Peptide bond

Q.186 Anti sera given against snake bite is example of: A) Natural active immunity C) Artificial passive immunity B) Natural passive immunity D) Artificial active immunity

Q.187 Humoral immune response is shown by: A) Lymphocytes C) T-cells B) B-cells D) Macrophages

Q.188 The nature of antigen can be: A) Lipids C) DNA B) Protein D) All A,B,C

Q.189 Antigen binding site is specified with the help of: A) Variable region of light chain C) Constant region of heavy chain B) Variable region of heavy chain D) Both A & B

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Q.190 Phenomenon which is the basis for dialysis is simple: A) Active transport C) Passive transport B) Diffusion D) Facilitated diffusion

Q.191 All of the following are parts of glomerular filtrate except: A) Glucose C) Urea B) Amino acids D) RBCs

Q.192 Animal cell will shrink if it is placed in a ------- solution: A) Hypotonic C) Isotonic B) Hypertonic D) Hyperosmotic

Q.193 In humans, incidence of calcium phosphate stones is: A) 15% C) 10% B) 70% D) 80%

Q.194 Thickness of uterus is maximum during which phase: A) Menstruation C) Secretory B) Proliferative D) Follicular

Q.195 Damage to reproductive organs, eyes, bones, joints, CNS, heart and skin is symptoms of: A) Gonorrhea C) AIDS B) Syphilis D) Genital herpes

Q.196 Requirement for conversion of secondary oocyte into ovum is: A) Germination C) Differentiation B) Fertilization D) Maturation

Q.197 Birth control pills contain a hormone named as: A) Estrogen C) Progesterone B) Prolactin D) Oxytocin

Q.198 One which transfers mature sperms into urethra in human males: A) Vas deferens C) Testes B) Epididymis D) Scrotum

Q.199 Rotatory movement of forearm is possible due to the presence of: A) Hinge joint C) Pivot joint B) Ball & socket joint D) Fibrous joints

Q.200 Number of vertebrae present in lumbar and pelvic region are respectively: A) 9 & 5 C) 5 & 9 B) 12 & 5 D) 7 & 12

Q.201 During muscle contraction, changes are brought about in all of the following except: A) Z- line C) I band B) A band D) H-zone

Q.202 Major portion of thin filaments contain protein called: A) Actin C) Tropomyosin B) Troponin D) Myosin

Q.203 State of physiological inability to contract is called: A) Muscle fatigue C) Tetanus B) Tetany D) Cramp

Q.204 Cytoplasmic fibers which carry impulse away from neuron cell body is called: A) Dendron C) Axon B) Dendrite D) Soma

Q.205 Control of voluntary movements and development of thinking process is by: A) Cerebellum C) Hippocampus B) Cerebrum D) Medulla oblongata

Q.206 Process of digestion after entering esophagus is controlled by: A) Peripheral nervous system C) Sympathetic nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system D) Somatic nervous system

Q.207 Involuntary tremors, diminished motor power and rigidity are characteristics of: A) Epilepsy C) Alzheimer’s disease B) Parkinson’ disease D) Dementia

Q.208 Hormones which are related to the metabolism of glucose are: A) Insulin C) Cortisol B) Glucagon D) All A,B,C

Q.209 Milk ejection in human females is due to: A) Prolactin C) Oxytocin B) Human placental lactogen D) ADH

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Q.210 All of the following hormones are steroid in nature except: A) Androgens C) Aldosterone B) Cortisol D) Insulin

Q.211 Ovulation is caused by: A) Progesterone C) Luteinizing hormone B) Estrogen D) FSH

Q.212 Gigantism is a hormonal disease which is due to: A) Excessive release of STH in early life C) Lack of STH release in early life B) Excessive release of STH in late life D) Lack of STH release in late life

Q.213 All of following are co-factors of enzymes except A) NAD⁺ C) Fe⁺² B) Cyanide D) FAD

Q.214 Which site of Golgi complex is responsible for lysosome production? A) Convex face C) Maturing face B) Forming face D) Cis face

Q.215 The capsid in a virus is made up of: A) Capsomeres C) Virions B) RNA D) DNA

Q.216 Pinworms live in ______of its host: A) Large intestine C) Bile duct B) Small intestine D) Liver

Q.217 Which food component does not need digestion? A) Proteins C) Glucose B) Fats D) Peptones

Q.218 Human kidney filters 180 liter of fluid every day, only 1.5 liter is excreted in urine. What happens to remaining fluid? A) It is stored in kidney C) It is reabsorbed in blood B) It is stored in bladder D) It is lost as sweat

Q.219 Which of the following protein acts as a catalyst in blood clotting? A) Fibrinogen C) Albumin B) Prothrombin D) Anti thrombin-III

Q.220 The study of resistance to the disease is called: A) Pathology C) Etiology B) Immunology D) Pulmonology