fiitjee internal test (2nd year...9. a light ray coming along the line 3x + 4y = 5 gets reflected...

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FIITJEE REVISION TEST (REG_2ND YEAR) JEEM–4

DATE: 09.01.2018 Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 360 INSTRUCTIONS:

Instructions to the Candidates 1. This Test Booklet consists of 90 questions.

Use Blue/Black ball Point Pen only for writing particulars and bubbling of OMR.

2. For each correct answer 4 Marks will awarded and for each wrong answer 1 Mark will be deducted.

3. Attempt all questions.

4. In case you have not darkened any bubble you will be awarded 0 mark for that question.

5. Use of calculator/logarithmic table is not permitted.

Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet. If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.

NAME:

ENROLLMENT NO.:



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1. ABC is an isosceles triangle. If the coordinates of the base are B(1, 3) and C(–2, 7), the coordinates of vertex A can be

(A) (1, 6) (B) 1

,52

(C) 5

,66

(D) none of these

2. Let A (3, –4), B (1, 2). Let P (2k – 1, 2k + 1) be a variable point such that PA + PB is the minimum. Then k is

(A) 7

9 (B) 0 (C)

7

8 (D) none of these

3. If A(1, p

2), B(0, 1), and C(p, 0) are the coordinates of three points, then the value of p for which the

area of triangle ABC is the minimum is

(A) 1

3 (B)

1

3 (C)

1

2 (D) none of these

4. The locus of the moving point whose coordinates are given by (e

t + e

–t, e

t – e

–t) where t is a

parameter, is (A) xy = 1 (B) x + y = 2 (C) x

2 – y

2 = 4 (D) x

2 – y

2 = 2

5. The equation of a line through the point (1, 2) whose distance from the point (3, 1) has the greatest

value is (A) y = 2x (B) y = x + 1 (C) x + 2y = 5 (D) y = 3x – 1 6. If the sum of the distance of a point from two perpendicular lines in a plane is 1, then its locus is (A) square (B) circle (C) straight line (D) two intersecting lines 7. For a > b > c, the distance between (1, 1) and the point of intersection of the lines

ax + by + c = 0 and bx + ay + c = 0 is less than 2 2 , then

(A) a + b – c = 0 (B) a – b + c < 0 (C) a – b + c > 0 (D) a + b – c < 0 8. The straight lines 7x – 2y + 10 = 0 and 7x + 2y – 10 = 0 form an isosceles triangle with the line y = 2.

The area of this triangle is equal to

(A) 15

7sq. units (B)

10

7sq. units (C)

18

7sq. units (D) none of these

9. A light ray coming along the line 3x + 4y = 5 gets reflected from the line ax + by = 1 and goes along

the line 5x – 12y = 10, then

(A) a =64

115, b =

112

15 (B) a =

14

15, b =

8

115 (C) a =

64

115, b =

8

115 (D) a =

64

15, b =

14

15

Space for rough work



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10. A line is drawn perpendicular to line y = 5x, meeting the coordinate axes at A and B. If the area of triangle OAB is 10 sq. units, where O is the origin, then the equation of drawn line is

(A) 3x – y = 9 (B) x – 5y = 10 (C) x + 4y = 10 (D) x – 4y = 10 11. If a pair of perpendicular straight lines drawn through the origin forms an isosceles triangle with the

line 2x + 3y = 6, then area of the triangle so formed is

(A) 36

13 (B)

12

17 (C)

13

5 (D)

17

13

12. The image of P(a, b) on the line y = –x is Q and the image of Q on the line y = x is R. Then the

midpoint of PR is

(A) (a + b, b + a) (B) a b b 2

,2 2

(C) (a – b, b – a) (D) (0, 0)

13. If the line passing through P(1, 2) making an angle with the x-axis in the positive direction meets the

pair of lines x2 + 4xy + y

2 at A and B, then PA . PB =

(A) 13

3 (B)

13

6 (C)

11

6 (D)

11

3

14. The number of possible straight lines, passing through (2, 3) and forming a triangle with co-ordinate

axes, whose area is 12 sq. units is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 15. Area of the triangle formed by the line x + y = 3 and the angle bisectors of the pairs of straight lines x

2

– y2 + 2y = 1 is

(A) 2 sq. units (B) 4 sq. units (C) 6 sq. units (D) 8 sq. units 16. The straight lines represented by (y – mx)

2 = a

2 (1 + m

2) and (y – nx)

2 = a

2 (1 + n

2) form a

(A) rectangle (B) rhombus (C) trapezium (D) none of these

17. The locus of the midpoint of the portion between the axes of x cos + y sin = p, where p is a constant, is

(A) x2 + y

2 =

2

4

p (B) x

2 + y

2 = 4p

2 (C)

2 2 2

1 1 2

x y p (D)

2 2 2

1 1 4

x y p

18. If the sum of the slopes of the lines given by x

2 – 2cxy – 7y

2 = 0 is four times their product, then c has

the value (A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 2 (D) –2




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19. The number of equilateral triangles with y = 3 (x – 1) + 2 and y = 3x as two of its sides is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) none of these

20. Let g(x) = 1 + x – [x] and f(x) =

1, x 0

0, x 0

1, x 0

. Then for all x, f(g(x)) is equal to

(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function) (A) x (B) 1 (C) f(x) (D) g(x)

21. If f: [1, ) [2, ) is given by f(x) = x + 1

x, then f

–1(x) equals

(A) 2x x 4

2

(B)

2

x

1 x (C)

2x x 4

2

(D) 21 x 4

22. Let the function f: R R be defined by f(x) = 2x + sin x for x R. Then f is (A) one-to-one and onto (B) one-to-one but not onto (C) onto but not one-to-one (D) neither one-to-one nor onto

23. The range of f(x) = 2

1

2

x 1sin

x 2

is

(A) 0,2

(B) 0,6

(C) ,6 2

(D) none of these

24. Let f(x) = x , for 0 x 2

1, for x 0

. Then at x = 0. f has

(A) a local maximum (B) no local maximum (C) a local minimum (D) no extremum

25. If f(x) =

2x sin x

, for [x] 0x

0, for [x] 0

, where [x] denotes greatest integer less than or equal to x, then

x 0lim f(x)

equals

(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) –1 (D) does not exist




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26. If f(x) = x3 + 4x

2 + x + 1 is a monotonically decreasing function of x in the largest possible interval

22,

3

, then

(A) = 4 (B) = 2 (C) = –1 (D) has no real value

27. Let f(x) = ex (x – 1)(x – 2) dx. Then f decreases in the interval

(A) (–, –2) (B) (–2, –1) (C) (1, 2) (D) (2, +)

28. The function f: [0, 3] [1, 29], defined by f(x) = 2x3 – 15x

2 + 36x + 1, is

(A) one-one and onto (B) onto but not one-one (C) one-one but not onto (D) neither one-one nor onto

29. The number of solutions of the equation x3 + 2x

2 + 5x + 2 cos x = 0 in [0, 2] is

(A) one (B) two (C) three (D) zero 30. Tangents are drawn to x

2 + y

2 = 16 from the point P(0, h). these tangents meet the x-axis at A and B.

If the area of triangle PAB is minimum, then

(A) h = 12 2 (B) h = 6 2 (C) h = 8 2 (D) h = 4 2

31. The figure represents an elliptical orbit of a planet around sun.

The planet takes time T1 to travel from A to B and it takes time T2 to travel from C to D. If the area CSD is double that of area ASB, then

(A) T1 = T2 (B) T1 = 2T2

(C) T1 = 0.5T2 (D) data insufficient

32. A straight tunnel is dug into the earth as shown in figure at a distance b from its

centre. A ball of mass m is dropped from one of its ends. The time it takes to reach the other end is approximately

(A) 42 min (B) 84 min

(C) 84b

R

min (D) 42b

R

min

33. A particle is thrown vertically upwards from the surface of earth and it reaches to a maximum height

equal to the radius of earth. The ratio of the velocity of projection to the escape velocity on the surface of earth is

(A) 1

2 (B)

1

2 (C)

1

4 (D)

1

2 2




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34. An artificial satellite of mass m is moving in a circular orbit at a height equal to the radius R of the earth. Suddenly due to internal explosion the satellite breaks into two parts of equal pieces. One part of the satellite stops just after the explosion. The increase in the mechanical energy of the system due to explosion will be (Given: acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g)

(A) mgR (B) 2

mgR (C)

4

mgR (D)

3

4

mgR

35. If ve is the escape velocity for earth when a projectile is fired from the surface of earth. Then the

escape velocity if the same projectile is fired from its centre is

(A) 3

2ev (B)

3

2ev (C)

2

3ev (D)

2

3ev

36. A uniform ring of mass M and radius R is placed directly above a uniform sphere of mass 8 M and of

same radius R. The centre of the ring is at a distance of d = 3 R from the centre of the sphere. The

gravitational attraction between the sphere and the ring is:

(A)

2

2

8GM

R (B)

2

2

2

3

GM

R (C)

2

2

3

2

GM

R (D)

2

2

3GM

R

37. A spherical hole is made in a solid sphere of radius It. The mass of the sphere

before hollowing was M. The gravitational field at the centre of the hole due to the remaining mass is:

(A) zero (B) 2

GM

8R (C)

2

GM

2R (D)

2

GM

R

38. A solid sphere of uniform density and radius R applies a gravitational force of

attraction equal to F1 on a particle placed at a distance 3R from the centre of the sphere. A spherical cavity of radius R/2 is now made in the sphere as shown in the figure. The sphere with cavity now applies a gravitational force F2 on the same particle. The ratio F2/F1 is:

(A) 9

50 (B)

41

50 (C)

3

25 (D)

22

25

39. A spherical ball falls through viscous medium with terminal velocity v. If this ball were replaced by

another ball of the same mass but half the radius, then the terminal velocity will be [neglect the effect of buoyancy]

(A) v (B) 2v (C) 4v (D) 8v




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40. If three particles each of mass M are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle of side a,

the force exerted by this system on another particle of mass M placed (i) at the midpoint of a side and (ii) at the centre of the triangle are respectively by

(A) 0,

2

2

4

3

GM

a (B)

2

2

4

3

GM

a, 0 (C)

2 2

2 2

3,

GM GM

a a (D) 0, 0

41. Two glass plates are separated by water. If surface tension of water is 75 dynes per cm and the area

of each plate wetted by water is 8 cm2 and the distance between the plates is 0.12 mm, then the force

applied to separated the two plates is (A) 10

2 dyne (B) 10

4 dyne (C) 10

5 dyne (D) 10

6 dyne

42. Two solid pieces, one of gold and the other of silver when immersed completely in water have equal

weights. When weighed in air (A) the gold piece will weigh more (B) the silver piece will weigh more (C) they will have the same weight (D) both of them weigh less than they weighed in water

43. A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. The whole system shown in figure is falling freely

under gravity. The upthrust on the body due to liquid is (A) zero (B) equal to weight of liquid displaced (C) equal to weight of the body in air (D) equal to weight of the immersed body

44. A piece of wax weighs x g in air. A piece of metal is found to weigh y g in water. It is tied to the wax

and both together weigh z g in water. Then the specific gravity of wax is (z < y)

(A) x

y (B)

y

x (C)

( )

x

x z y (D)

x

x z




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45. Block A in the figure shown here hangs by a cord from dynamometer

(spring balance) D1 and is submerged in a liquid C contained in a beaker B. The mass of the beaker is 1 kg and the mass of liquid 1.5 kg. The readings of dynamometers D1 and D2 are 2.5 kg and 7.5 kg respectively. What will be the readings of D1 and D2 if block A is pulled up out of liquid?

A B C

D1

D2

(A) D1 will read 5 kg and D2 will also read 5 kg (B) D1 will read 7.5 kg and D2 will read 2.5 kg (C) D1 will read 2.5 kg and D2 will read 7.5 kg (D) D1 will read 10 kg and D2 will read 2.5 kg 46. A U-tube in which the cross-sectional area of the limb on the left is one

quarter of the area of the right limb. The limb on the right contains mercury (density 13.6 g/cm

3). The level of mercury in the narrow limb

is at a distance of 36 cm from the upper end of the tube. What will be the rise in the level of mercury in the right limb if the left limb is filled to the top with water?

Mercury

Water

(A) 1.2 cm (B) 2.35 cm (C) 0.53 cm (D) 0.8 cm 47. A uniformly tapering vessel is filled with a liquid of density 900

kg/m3. The force that acts on the base of the vessel due to the

liquid is (g = 10 m s–2

). Area of the base is 2x10-3

sqm, twice the area of the top.

(A) 3.6 N (B) 7.2 N (C) 9.0 N (D) 14.4 N

0.4m

Area = 210-

3m

2

Area = 10-

3m

2

48. A closed rectangular tank is completely filled with water and is accelerated horizontally with an

acceleration horizontally with an acceleration a towards right. Pressure is (i) maximum at and (ii) minimum at (A) (i) B (ii) D (B) (i) C (ii) D (C) (i) B (ii) C (D) (i) B (ii) A

A

B C

D a

49. A large open tank has two holes in the wall. One is a square hole of side L at a depth y from the top

and the other is a circular hole of radius R at a depth 4y from the top. When the tank is completely filled with water, the quantities of water flowing out per second from both holes are the same. Then, R is equal to

(A) 2

L (B) 2L (C) L (D)

2

L




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50. With what minimum speed should m be projected from point C in presence

of two fixed masses M each at A and B as shown in the figure such that mass m should escape the gravitational attraction of A and B?

(A) 2GM

R (B)

2 2GM

R

(C) 2GM

R (D) 2 2

GM

R

51. A solid sphere of uniform density and radius 4 units is located

with its centre at the origin O of coordinates. Two spheres of equal radii 1 unit with their centres at A (–2, 0, 0) and B(2, 0, 0) respectively are taken out of the solid leaving behind spherical cavit ies as shown in the figure.

(A) The gravitational f ield due to this object at the origin is zero.

(B) The gravitational f ield at the point B(2, 0, 0) is zero (C) The gravitational f ield at the point A(–2, 0, 0) is zero. (D) The gravitational f ield at points A, O and B is zero.

52. An artif icial satell ite of the earth releases a package. If air resistance is neglected the

point where the package will hit (with respect to the posit ion at the time of release) will be

(A) ahead (B) exactly below (C) behind (D) it wil l never reach the earth 53. Figure show a hemispherical shell. The direction of gravitational

f ield intensity at point P will be along: (A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d




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54. A straight rod of length extends from x = to x = . If the

mass per unit length is (a + bx2). The gravitational force it exerts on a point mass m placed at x = 0 is given by

(A)

b

11amG

(B) 2

2 )bxa(mG

(C)

b

a

1

a

1mG

(D)

b

11amG

55. A certain tr iple-star system consists of two stars, each of mass ‘

m ‘ revolving about a central star of mass M in the same circular orbit of radius ‘ r ‘ . The two stars are always at opposite ends of a diameter of the circular orbit. An expression for the period of revolution of the stars is :

(A) )mM(G

r4 2/3

(B) )mM4(G

r4 2/3

(C) )mM(G

r4 2/3

(D) )mM4(G

r4 2/3




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56. A thread is t ied slightly loose to

a wire frame as shown in the figure. And the frame is dipped into a soap solution and taken out. The frame is completely covered with the fi lm. When the portion A is punctured with a pin, the thread :

(A) becomes convex towards A (B) becomes concave towards A (C) remains in the init ial posit ion (D) either (A) or (B) depending on size of A w.r.t. B

57. A glass plate of length 0.1 m, breadth 15 × 10–3 m and thickness 2 × 10–3 m weighs 8

× 10–3 kg in air. it is held vertically with its longer side horizontal and its lower half

immersed in water. If the surface tension of water is 72 × 10–3 N/m, the apparent weight of the plate will be

(A) 97.4 × 10–3 N (B) 36.1 × 10–3 N (C) 72.2 × 10–3 N (D) 79.4 × 10–3 N 58. A spherical soap bubble of radius 1.0 cm is formed inside another of radius 2 cm. If a

single soap bubble is formed which maintains the same pressure difference as inside the smaller and outside the larger bubble, the radius of this bubble is

(A) 0.005 m (B) 0.05 m (C) 0.0067 m (D) 0.067 m 59. Water rises in a capil lary tube to a height h. it wil l r ise to a height more than h (A) on the surface of sun (B) in a l if t moving down with an acceleration (C) at the poles (D) in a l if t moving up with an acceleration. 60. A vessel whose bottom has round holes with a diameter of d = 0.1 mm is f il led with

water. The maximum height of the water level h at which the water does not f low out, wil l be : (The water does not wet the bottom of the vessel). [S.T of water = 70 dyn/cm]

(A) h = 24.0 cm (B) h = 25.0 cm (C) h = 26.0 cm (D) h = 28.0 cm




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61. Give the correct order of increasing acidity of the following compounds.

(I) OH

NO2

(II) OH

(III) COOH

(IV) C CH

(A) II < I < IV < III (B) IV < II < I < III (C) I < II < IV < III (D) IV < I < II < III 62. Stability order of following carbcation.

(I) 2

CH F

(II) 2

CH Cl

(III) 2

CH Br

(IV) 2

CH I

(A) II > III > IV > I (B) III > IV > I > II (C) IV > I > II > III (D) I > II > III > IV 63. The correct order of basic strength is (A) OH

– > CH3COO

– > CH3O

– > C6H5O

– (B) CH3COO

– > C6H5O

– > CH3O

– > OH

–

(C) OH– > CH3O

– > C6H5O

– > CH3COO

– (D) CH3O

– > OH

– > C6H5O

– > CH3COO

–

64. The correct statement(s) among the following : (I) tropylium cation is more stable than benzyl cation (II) CHF3 is more acidic than CHCl3

(III) O Ois more stable than

(IV) H– C

–NH2 is more stable than 2H C NH

(A) I, II (B) I, III (C) I, III, IV (D) I, II, III, IV

65. The most stable resonating structure of the following molecule is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)




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66. Which of the following anions is most destabilized?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

67. Which of the following compound is aromatic?

+NN

H

H

+N+

H NH

H

N H+

H N

N HH N

(A) (B) (C) (D)

68. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(A) The acidic strength of 6 5HCOOH C H COOH

(B) The acidic strength of

C

C

COOHH

COOHH

C

C

COOHH

HOOC H

(C) The acidic strength of cyclohexane carboxylic acid is greater than benzoic acid.

(D) The acidic strength of 2HC C COOH H C CH COOH




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69. How many compounds show correct representation of reverse hyper conjugation in following compounds?

A.

CH3 CH

H

H+

B. CH –CH –CH = CH3 2 2 CH –CH=CH – CH3 2

H

C.

CCl3 C

Cl

Cl Cl

D. 2 2CH CH CHO CH CH C H

O

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 70. The major product of the following reaction is

Br Cl Na/Ether Br2, hv alc. KOH

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)




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71.

Me

N

n-Bu

Me

EtOH

The alkene formed as a major product in the above elimination reaction is

(A) Me (B) CH2=CH2

(C)

Me

(D)

Me

72.

OH

CH3

Conc. H2SO4major product

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

73.

O

PhP=CH2 (A)

(major)

Major product (A) is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

OH




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74. Choose the best reagent to carry out the following transformations;

CH3 C C H

H H (A) Lindlar catalyst; 2 3NaNH /NH , 1-bromopropane

(B) 2 3NaNH /NH , 1-bromopropane; Lindlar catalyst

(C) 2 3NaNH /NH , 1-bromopropane; 3Li/NH (D) All of the above

75.

N

H

CH3I AgOH X (CH3)2NH

‘X’ in the reaction is

(A)

(B)

(C) N

HCH3

(D) N

CH3CH3

76. Ph – CHD – CHD Br on treatment with alc. KOH gives a) Ph CD = CHD b) Ph CH = CHD c) Ph – C C – D d) Ph – C C – H 77. Check the reaction and identify the probable mechanism

Alcoholic KOH

Cl (A) E2 (B) E1 (C) E1 CB (D) cannot be said




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78.

OH

CH2

i) CH3CO3H

ii) H3O+

B ; B is

(A)

OH

O

(B)

OH

O

(C)

O CH2OH

(D)

O

CH2OH 79. The end product ‘W’ in the following sequence of reactions is

2 3CH CH

NBS

(X)

alc.KOH

aq.KOH

Y

Z

2 4Hg(OAc) / NaBHW

(A)

2 2Ph CH CH O CH Ph

CH3

|

(B)

Ph CH O CH Ph

CH3

||CH

3

(C) 2 2 2Ph CH O CH CH Ph (D)

|

| 3Ph CH CH

2CH CH




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80. E–1–chloro–2–methyl cyclohexane alc. KOH

E2product. Predominant product is

(A)

CH3

(B)

CH3

(C)

CH3

(D)

CH2 81.

H C

C

CH3

H

CH3

CH3

H Br

H Br

CH3

trans (A)

Br2

The true statement is

(A) A is formed by anti addition and is meso (B) A is formed by syn addition and is meso (C) A is formed by anti addition and is racemic (D) A is formed by syn addition and is racemic 82. An alkene, having molecular formula C8H12, on ozonolysis yields glyoxal and 2, 2–dimethyl butane–1,

4–dial. The structure of alkene is

(A)

CH3

CH3

(B)

CH3

CH3

(C)

CH3

(D)

CH3

CH3

83. Choose the correct statements

CH3 C C CH3

Na

liq. NH3

BH2/Pd

BaSO4-quinolineA

(A) A is cis–2–butene (B) B is trans–2–butene (C) Both give different products on ozonolysis (D) Both give same products on ozonolysis 84. CH2-OH

2 4H SO

NBSMajor Major

P Q . The structure of ‘Q’ is

(A)

Br

(B)

BrBr

(C) Br

(D)

Br




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YEAR)-2018-MPC-19

85.

(i) B2H6

(ii) H2O2/OH-

(A)

OH

(B)

OH

(C) OH

(D)

OH

86. The observed specific rotation for a enantiomericaly pure sample of (+) 2–butanol is (+) 13.5, the

observed specific rotation for a mixture of 2-Butanol enantiomers is (+) 6.75. What is the actual stereo isomeric composition of the mixture

(A) 34%(+). 66%(–) (B) 75%(–), 25%(+) (C) 75% (+), 25%(–) (D) 34%(–), 66%(+) 87. Consider following compounds :

(i) CH3

H

H

CH3

(ii) H

CH3

CH3

H

(iii) H

CH3

H

H

Consider the following statements : (1) (i) and (ii) are enantiomers (2) (iii) is meso form (3) (i) and (iii) are distereomers (4) (i) and (ii) are diastereomers Select the correct statements from the codes given below : (A) only 1 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 88. Which of the following compounds shown does not have a plane of symmetry

(A)

Cl

H

H

Cl

(B)

Cl

H

Cl

H

(C)

H

Cl

H

Cl

(D)

H

Cl

Cl

H




RT-JEEM–4 (2ND

YEAR)-2018-MPC-20

89.

NO2 COOH

COOH NO2

can show

(A) Geometrical isomerism (B) optical isomerism (C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of the above 90. Indicate the correct relation ship In the following three pairs respectively

F

Br

H

H

CH3

H

and CH2Br

H

CH3

F(I)

Cl

H

CH3

C2H5

H

Cl

and H

Cl

H3C

H

Cl

C2H5

(II)

CH3

H Br

CH3 H

Br

and

CH3

Br Br

H CH3

Br

(III)

(A) Enantiomeric pair, Diastereomeric pair, Enantiomeric pair (B) Identical, Enantiomeric pair, enantiomeric pair (C) Enantiomeric pair, Diastereomers pair, Identical (D) Enantiomeric pair, Identical, Identical




RT-JEEM–4 (2ND

YEAR)-2018-MPC-21

FIITJEE REVISION TEST (REG_2ND YEAR) JEEM–4

DATE: 09.01.2018 MATHEMATICS

1. C 2. C 3. D 4. C

5. A 6. A 7. BONUS 8. C

9. C 10. BONUS 11. A 12. D

13. BONUS 14. C 15. A 16. B

17. D 18. C 19. D 20. B

21. A 22. A 23. C 24. A

25. D 26. A 27. C 28. B

29. D 30. D

PHYSICS

31. C 32. A 33. A 34. C

35. A 36. D 37. C 38. B

39. B 40. B 41. C 42. B

43. A 44. C 45. B 46. C

47. B 48. A 49. A 50. B

51. A 52. D 53. C 54. A

55. B 56. B 57. B 58. C

59. B 60. D

CHEMISTRY

61. B 62. D 63. C 64. B

65. C 66. B 67. C 68. C

69. B 70. B 71. B 72. A

73. C 74. B 75. BONUS 76. A

77. B 78. C 79. B 80. A

81. A 82. B 83. D 84. C

85. A 86. C 87. D 88. B

89. B 90. BONUS

fiitjee internal test (2nd year...9. a light ray coming along the line 3x + 4y = 5 gets reflected...

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