enthusiast course - allen

Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT

TEST DATE : 18 - 01 - 2016

Paper Code : 1001CM302115069

TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS

Hin

di

Form Number :

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)

Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure thathe/she occupies the correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat ofanother student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have toaccept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.3180720

3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or thecentre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question ismissing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.Guessing of answer is harmful.1

7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble withthe help of Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.OMR

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

Important Instructions /

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL - 2016

ENTHUSIAST COURSEPHASE - I & II

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] 2 days along with Paper code and Your Form No.

Correction Paper codeForm No. [email protected] mail

Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-All/18-01-2016

H-1/361001CM302115069

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. For the system shown in figure, the pulleys are light

and frictionless. The tension in the string will be :-

mm

(1)2

3mg sin (2)

3

2mg sin

(3) 2 mg sin (4) 1

mg2

sin

2. Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin square

plate of side 4R and mass M. The moment of

inertia of the remaining portion about z-axis is :-

y

x

(1)2MR

12

(2)

24MR

3 4

(3) 28 10

MR3 16

(4)

24MR

3 6

3. A Carnot's engine working between 300 K and

600 K has a work output of 800 J per cycle. How

much heat energy is supplied to the engine from

the source in each cycle ?

(1) 1400 J (2) 1500 J

(3) 1600 J (4) 1700 J

4. P-type semiconductor has acceptor levels 57 meV

above the valence band. The maximum

wavelength of light required to create a hole is

(Planck's constant h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s) :-

(1) 57Å (2) 57 × 10–3 Å

(3) 217100 Å (4) 11.61 × 10–33 Å

1. :-

mm

(1)2

3mg sin (2)

3

2mg sin

(3) 2 mg sin (4) 1

mg2

sin

2. 4R M R

z- :-

y

x

(1)2MR

12

(2)

24MR

3 4

(3) 28 10

MR3 16

(4)

24MR

3 6

3. 300 K 600 K

800 J

?

(1) 1400 J (2) 1500 J

(3) 1600 J (4) 1700 J

4. P- 57 meV

( h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s) :-

(1) 57Å (2) 57 × 10–3 Å

(3) 217100 Å (4) 11.61 × 10–33 Å

H-2/36

Target : Pre-Medical 2016/Major/18-01-2016

1001CM302115069

5. If E =

E x

a0 i (x - mt) then flux through the

shaded area of a cube is :-

(a, 0)x

y

z

(1) E0a2 (2) Zero

(3) E0a3 (4) - E

0a3

6. A block of mass 5 kg is kept on a rough horizontal

floor. It is given a velocity 33 m/s towards right.

A force of 20 2 N continuously acts on the block

as shown in the figure. If the coefficient of friction

between block and floor is 0.5 the velocity of

block after 3 seconds is (g = 10 m/s2)

45º

20 2 N

5 kg 33 m/s

(1) 2 m/s (2) Zero

(3) 33/12 m/s (4) None of above

7. A copper solid cube of 60 mm side is subjected

to a pressure of 2.5 × 107 Pa. If the bulk modulus

of copper is 1.25 × 1011 N/m2, the change in the

volume of cube is -

(1) – 43.2 m3 (2) – 43.2 mm3

(3) – 43.2 cm3 (4) – 432 mm3

8. Displacement-time equation of a particle

executing SHM is x = A sin

6

t .

Time taken by the particle to go directly from

x = –2

A to x = +

2

A is:

(1)

3(2)

2

(3)

2(4)

5. E =

E x

a0 i (x - )

(a, 0)x

y

z

(1) E0a2 (2) Zero

(3) E0a3 (4) - E

0a3

6. 5 kg 33 m/s 20 2 N 0.5

3

(g = 10 m/s2)

45º

20 2 N

5 kg 33 m/s

(1) 2 m/s (2)

(3) 33/12 m/s (4)

7. 60 mm 2.5 × 107 Pa

1.25 × 1011

N/m2

(1) – 43.2 m3 (2) – 43.2 mm3

(3) – 43.2 cm3 (4) – 432 mm3

8.

x = A sin

6

t

x = – A

2 x = +

2

A

:

(1)

3(2)

2

(3)

2(4)


H-3/361001CM302115069

9. In a transistor the collector current is always less

than the emitter current because :-

(1) Collector side is reverse biased and the emitter

side is forward biased

(2) A few charge carriers are lost in the base and

only remaining ones reach the collector

(3) Collector being reverse biased, attracts less

electrons

(4) Collector side is forward biased and emitter

side is reverse biased

10. A galvanometer of resistance, G, is connected in

a circuit. Now a resistance R is connected in series

of galvanometer. To keep the main current in the

circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put in

parallel with the series combination of G and R

is-

(1) 2G

GR (2)

2RG

G

(3) 2G

GR (4)

2RG

G

11. A player throws a ball that reaches to the another

player in 4s. If the height of each player is 1.5m,

the maximum height attained by the ball from the

ground level is :

(1) 19.6 m (2) 21.1 m

(3) 23.6 m (4) 25.1 m

12. Water rises in a capillary upto a height of 4 cm.

If it is titled to 30º from the vertical, then the length

of water column in it will be -

(1) 8

cm3

(2) 8 3 cm

(3) 4 cm (4) 2 cm

13. A mixture of 2 moles of helium gas (atomic mass

= 4 amu) and 1 mole of argon gas (atomic mass

= 40 amu) is kept at 300 K in a container. The

ratio of the r.m.s. speeds rms

rms

v (helium)

v (argon)

is

(1) 0.32 (2) 0.45

(3) 2.24 (4) 3.16

9. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10. G

R

(1) 2G

GR (2)

2RG

G

(3) 2G

GR (4)

2RG

G

11.

4

1.5

(1) 19.6 m (2) 21.1 m

(3) 23.6 m (4) 25.1 m

12. 4 cm 30º

(1) 8

cm3

(2) 8 3 cm

(3) 4 cm (4) 2 cm

13. =4 amu =40 amu 300 K

)(v

)(v

rms

rms

vkWxZu

eghfy;

(1) 0.32 (2) 0.45

(3) 2.24 (4) 3.16

H-4/36


1001CM302115069

14. In the following circuit, the current flowing

through 1k resistor :-

500

10V 5V 1k

(1) 0 mA (2) 5 mA (3) 10 mA (4) 15 mA

15. What will be r.m.s. value of given A.C. over one

cycle.

tT0

V0

V

3T2

T2

(1) V0 (2) 0V

2

(3)0V

2(4)

0V

4

16. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the top

of a tower at 4.9 ms–1. It strikes the pond near the

base of the tower after 3 seconds. The height of

the tower is :-

(1) 73.5 m (2) 44.1 m

(3) 29.4 m (4) None of these

17. If the distance between centres of earth and moon

is D and the mass of earth is 81 times the mass

of moon, then at what distance from centre of earth

the gravitational force will be zero-

(1) D

2(2)

2D

3

(3) 4D

3(4)

9D

10

18. The equation of a stationary wave is

Y = 10 sin x

4

cos20 t. The distance between

two consecutive nodes in metres is -

(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 8

14. 1k :-

500

10V 5V 1k

(1) 0 mA (2) 5 mA (3) 10 mA (4) 15 mA

15. A.C

tT0

V0

V

3T2

T2

(1) V0 (2) 0V

2

(3)0V

2(4)

0V

4

16. 4.9 ms–1

3 :-

(1) 73.5 m (2) 44.1 m

(3) 29.4 m (4)

17. D 81

(1) D

2(2)

2D

3

(3) 4D

3(4)

9D

10

18.

Y = 10 sin x

4

cos20 t

( ) -(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 8

Key Filling


H-5/361001CM302115069

19. Threshold wavelength of a metal surface is

5 × 10–10 m. When it is illuminated by light of

wavelength 2 × 10–10 m , stopping potential is V0

what will be stopping potential if wavelength of

light is doubled :-

(1) 0V

2(2) 2V0

(3) > (0.5 V0) (4) < (0.5 V0)

20. Two small spherical balls

Q Q

120°each carrying a chargeQ = 10 C (10 micro-coulomb) are suspended by

two insulating threads of equal lengths 3 m

each, from a point fixed in the ceiling. It is foundthat in equilibrium threads are separated by anangle 120° between them, as shown in the figure.What is the tension in the threads

(Given : 0

1

(4 ) = 9 × 109 Nm/C2)

(1) 0.2

N3

(2) 1.8 N

(3) 0.2

N5

(4) None of the above

21. Measure of two quantities along with the precision

of respective measuring instrument is:

A = 2.5 ms–1 ± 0.5 ms–1, B = 0.10s ± 0.01 s

The value of AB will be

(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m

(2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m

(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m

(4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m

22. Two particles of equal mass go round a circle of

radius R under the action of their mutual

gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle

is-

(1) 1 1

v2R Gm

(2) Gm

v2R

(3) 1 Gm

v2 R

(4) 4Gm

vR

19. 5 × 10–10 m 2 × 10–10 m

V0

:-

(1) 0V

2(2) 2V0

(3) > (0.5 V0) (4) < (0.5 V0)

20.

Q Q

120°

10 µC

3

120°

(: 0

1

(4 ) = 9 × 109 Nm/C2)

(1) 0.2

N3

(2) 1.8 N

(3) 0.2

N5

(4) None of the above

21. :

A = 2.5 ms–1 ± 0.5 ms–1, B = 0.10s ± 0.01 s

AB :-(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m

(2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m

(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m

(4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m

22. R

(1) 1 1

v2R Gm

(2) Gm

v2R

(3) 1 Gm

v2 R

(4) 4Gm

vR

H-6/36


1001CM302115069

23. In an EM wave propagating along X-direction

magnetic field oscillates at a frequency of 3 × 1010 Hz

along Y-direction and has an amplitude of 10–7 T.

The expression for electric field will be :-

(1) Ez = 30 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m

(2) Ez = 300 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m

(3) Ey = 30 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m

(4) Ez = 300 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m

24. A photon of energy h is absorbed by a free

electron of a metal having work function

< h :–

(1) The electron is sure to come out

(2) The electron is sure to come out with a

kinetic energy h–.

(3) Either the electron doen’t come out or it

come out with a kinetic energy h–

(4) It may come out with kinetic energy less

than h–

25. Electrostatic field of a long uniformly charged

wire varies with distance (r) according to relation:

(1) Er (2) Er

(3) 2

Er

(4)

3E

r

26. If the position vector of a particle is

ˆ ˆ ˆr cos ti sin tj 18tk

then what is the magnitude of its acceleration ?

(1)0 (2) 1 (3) sin2 t (4) cos t

27. 1 kg of ice at – 10°C is mixed with 4.4 kg of water

at 30°C. The final temperature of mixture is :

(specific heat of ice is 2100 J/kg/k)

(1) 2.3°C (2) 4.4°C

(3) 5.3°C (4) 8.7°C

28. In young's double-slit experiment, the intensity

at a point where path difference is /6 is I'. If I0

denotes the maximum intensity, then I'/I0 is equal

to :-

(1) 3

4(2)

1

2

(3) 3

2(4)

1

2

23. 3 × 1010 Hz 10–7 T :-(1) Ez = 30 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m

(2) Ez = 300 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m

(3) Ey = 30 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m

(4) Ez = 300 sin 2(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m

24. h < h,

:–(1) (2) h–

(3) h–

(4) h–

25. (r)

(1) Er (2) Er

(3) 2

Er

(4)

3E

r

26.

ˆ ˆ ˆr cos ti sin tj 18tk

?(1)0 (2) 1 (3) sin2 t (4) cos t

27. 1 kg – 10°C 4.4 kg 30°C 2100 J/kg/k)

(1) 2.3°C (2) 4.4°C

(3) 5.3°C (4) 8.7°C

28. /6 I' I0

I'/I0

:-

(1) 3

4(2)

1

2

(3) 3

2(4)

1

2

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question


H-7/361001CM302115069

29. At t = 0, number of active nuclei in a sample is N0.

How much no. of nuclei will decay in time

between its first mean life and second half life?

(1) 0N

e(2)

0 0N N

e 4

(3) 0 0N N

2 e (4)

0N

4

30. If a copper rod carries a direct current, the

magnetic field associated with the current will be :-

(1) Only inside the rod

(2) Only outside the rod

(3) Both inside and outside the rod

(4) Neither inside nor outside the rod

31. System shown in figure is released from rest.

Pulley and spring are massless and the friction is

absent everywhere. The speed of 5 kg block,

when 2 kg block leaves the contact with ground

is :-

(take force constant of

the sprign k = 40 N/m

and g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 2 m/s

5kg

2kg

(2) 2 2 m/s

(3) 2 m/s

(4) 4 2 m/s

32. Two rods are connected as shown. The rods are

of same length and same cross sectional area. In

steady state, the temperature () of the interface

will be –

(1) 60°C (2) 73.3°C

(3) 46.7°C (4) 37.3°C

29. t = 0 N

0

?

(1) 0N

e(2)

0 0N N

e 4

(3) 0 0N N

2 e (4)

0N

4

30.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31.

2kg 5 kg

:-

(k = 40 N/m

g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 2 m/s

5kg

2kg

(2) 2 2 m/s

(3) 2 m/s

(4) 4 2 m/s

32.

,

() :–

(1) 60°C (2) 73.3°C

(3) 46.7°C (4) 37.3°C

H-8/36


1001CM302115069

33. A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm

diameter and is situated at a distance of 1 km from

two objects. The minimum distance between

these two objects which can be resolved by the

telescope, when the mean wavelength of light is

5000 Å, is the order of :-

(1) 0.5 m (2) 5 m (3) 5 mm (4) 5 cm

34. The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E1

and E2 respectively. Two atoms of X are fused

to give one atom of Y and an energy Q is released.

Then

(1) Q = 2E1 – E2 (2) Q = E2–2E1

(3) Q = 2E1 + E2 (4) Q = 2E2 + E1

35. Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire

carry currents Ic and I

e, respectively as shown in

figure. Assuming that these are placed in the same

plane. The magnetic fields will be zero at the

centre of the loop when the separation H is :-

R

Wire

Ic

H

Ie

Straight

(1) e

c

I R

I (2) c

e

I R

I (3) c

e

I

I R

(4)

e

c

I

I R

36. Two identical balls A and B are released from the

positions shown in figure. They collide elastically

on horizontal portion MN. The ratio of the heights

attained by A and B after collision will be :-

(neglect friction)

h

4h

60º45º

A

B

M N

(1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 13 (4) 2 : 5

33. 10 cm 1 km 5000 Å :-

(1) 0.5 m (2) 5 m

(3) 5 mm (4) 5 cm

34. XY E1 E2

XY

Q

(1) Q = 2E1 – E2 (2) Q = E2–2E1

(3) Q = 2E1 + E2 (4) Q = 2E2 + E1

35. Ic Ie

H :-

R

Wire

Ic

H

Ie

Straight

(1) e

c

I R

I (2) c

e

I R

I (3) c

e

I

I R

(4)

e

c

I

I R

36. A B MN A B :-

h

4h

60º45º

A

B

M N

(1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 13 (4) 2 : 5


H-9/361001CM302115069

37. The motion of a particle varies with time

according to the relation y = a (sin t + cos t)

(1) the motion is oscillatory but not S.H.M.

(2) the motion is S.H.M. with amplitude a

(3) the motion is S.H.M. with amplitude a 2

(4) the motion is S.H.M. with amplitude 2a

38. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism

to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must

be made of a material whose refractive index :-

(1) between 2 & 1 (2) between 2 & 2

(3) less than 1 (4) Greater than 2

39. The energy stored in the capacitor is 'U'. If an

uncharged capacitor of same capacity is connected

in parallel with it, then energy stored in each

capacitor is

(1) U

6(2)

U

4(3)

U

2(4) U

40. A mgnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform

magnetic field. It experiences :-

(1) A force and a torque

(2) A force but not a torque

(3) A torque but not a force

(4) Neither a torque nor a force

41. Two particles of equal masses have velocities

1ˆv 2i m/s

and

2ˆv 2 jm/s

. The first particle

has an acceleration 21

ˆ ˆa (3i 3 j)m/s

, while the

acceleration of the other particle is zero. The

centre of mass of the two particles moves in a :-

(1) circle (2) parabola

(3) straight line (4) ellipse

42. An ideal gas follows a process PT = constant. The

correct graph between pressure & volume is :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

37.

y = a (sin t + cos t)

(1) (2) a

(3) a 2

(4) 2a

38. :-

(1) 2 1 (2) 2 2 (3) 1 (4) 2

39. 'U'

(1) U

6(2)

U

4(3)

U

2(4) 8 U

40.

:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

41. 1

ˆv 2i m/s

2ˆv 2 jm/s

21

ˆ ˆa (3i 3 j)m/s

:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

42. PT =

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

H-10/36


1001CM302115069

43. Young's double-slit experiment is carried out by

using green, red and blue light, one colour at a

time. The fringe widths recorded are G, R and

B respectively. Then :-

(1) G > B > R (2) B > G > R

(3) R

> B >

G(4)

R >

G >

B

44. Fig. shows rough sketch of meter bridge.

(G) deflects zero at length cm. Now R1 and R2

are interchanged then balancing length increases

by 25 cm. Find R1/R2 :-

R1 R2

G

a c

E

(1) 3

5(2)

2

5

(3) 2

3(4)

5

2

45. A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is

placed in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular

to the plane of the coil.The radius of the coil

changes as shown in figure. The graph of induced

emf in the coil is represented by :-

Y

O Xt(s)

r

(1)

Y

O X1 2 t(s)

e (2)

Y

O X1 2 t(s)

e

(3)

Y

O X1 2 t(s)

e(4)

Y

O X1 2 t(s)

e

43. G, R B

(1) G

> B >

R(2)

B >

G >

R

(3) R

> B >

G(4)

R >

G >

B

44. (G) cm R1

R2

25 cm. R1/R2 :-

R1 R2

G

a c

E

(1) 3

5(2)

2

5

(3) 2

3(4)

5

2

45.

:-

Y

O Xt(s)

r

(1)

Y

O X1 2 t(s)

e (2)

Y

O X1 2 t(s)

e

(3)

Y

O X1 2 t(s)

e(4)

Y

O X1 2 t(s)

e


H-11/361001CM302115069

46. The conversion of oxygen to ozone occurs to the

extent of 15% only. The mass of ozone that can

be prepared from 67.2 L of oxygen at 1 atm and

273 K will be :-

(1) 14.4 gm (2) 96 gm

(3) 640 gm (4) 64 gm

47. During the conversion of peroxide ion to

superoxide ion electron is removed from :-

(1) 2py(2) 2pz

* (3) 2py* (4)

2pz

48. In which molecule all bonds are not equal :-

(1) SiF4

(2) BF4

– (3) XeF4

(4) SF4

49. CH –CH=CH3 2I Br Product (A) is :-

(1)

Br

I(2)

Br

I

(3)

Cl

Br(4)

Br

Br

50. How many chloride ions are there around sodium

ion in sodium chloride crystal?

(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 6

51. The energy of separation of an electron in a

Hydrogen like atom in excited state is 3.4 eV. The

de-Broglie wave length (in Å) associated with the

electron is :-

(Given radius of first orbit of H-atom is 0.53Å)

(1) 3.33 (2) 6.66

(3) 13.31 (4) None of these

52. Which bond angle gives maximum dipole

moment for triatomic molecule XY2 :-

(1) = 90° (2) = 120°

(3) = 180° (4) Both 2 and 3

53. Complex [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br

can be identified by :-

(1) BaCl2(2) AgNO

3

(3) PbCl2

(4) All of these

54.F

Ph KOHEtOH X, X is :-

(1) Ph

CH2 (2) Ph

(3) PhCH3 (4) Ph

CH3

OEt

46. 15%

1 273 K 67.2

?

(1) 14.4 (2) 96

(3) 640 (4) 64

47. :-

(1) 2py

(2) 2pz* (3) 2py

* (4) 2pz

48. :-(1) SiF4 (2) BF4

– (3) XeF4 (4) SF4

49. CH –CH=CH3 2I Br (A) :-

(1)

Br

I(2)

Br

I

(3)

Cl

Br(4)

Br

Br

50. NaCl Na+ Cl– ?(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 6

51. 3.4 eV H- 0.53Å (Å ) (1) 3.33 (2) 6.66

(3) 13.31 (4) 52.

XY2 :-

(1) = 90° (2) = 120°

(3) = 180° (4) 2 3 53. [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br

:-(1) BaCl2

(2) AgNO3

(3) PbCl2

(4) All of these

54.F

Ph KOHEtOH X, X :-

(1) Ph

CH2 (2) Ph

(3) PhCH3 (4) Ph

CH3

OEt

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

H-12/36


1001CM302115069

55. In a closed packed array of N spheres, the number

of tetrahedral holes is :-

(1) N/2 (2) N (3) 4N (4) 2N

56. For a gas deviation from ideal behaviour is

maximum at :-

(1) 0°C and 1.0 atm

(2) 100°C and 2.0 atm

(3) –13°C and 1.0 atm

(4) –13°C and 2.0 atm

57. Which oxide of Mn is acidic in nature :-

(1) MnO (2) Mn2O

7

(3) Mn2O3 (4) MnO2

58. The most paramagnetic complex is :-

(1) [Sc(CN)6]–3 (2) [Co(CN)

6]–3

(3) [Fe(CN)6]–4 (4) [Cr(CN)6]

–3

59. Arrange in order of increasing SN1 reaction rate.

(i) Ph Br (ii) Br

(iii) Br (iv) Cl

(1) iv < ii < iii < i (2) i < ii < iii < iv

(3) iv < i < iii < ii (4) iv < i < ii < iii

60. Which concentrations can be calculated if the

mole fraction and density of an aqueous solution

of HCl are known?

1. Molality 2. Molarity 3. Percentage by mass

(1) 1 only (2) 3 only

(3) 1 and 2 only (4) 1, 2 and 3

61. For the hypothetical reaction

A2(g) + B

2(g) 2AB(g)

rG° and rS° are 20 kJ/mol and –20 JK–1 mol–1

respectively at 200 K.

If rC

p is 20 JK–1 mol–1 then

rH° at 400 K is :

(1) 20 kJ/mol (2) 7.98 kJ/mol

(3) 28 kJ/mol (4) None of these

62. Which metal is ultrapurified by carbon monoxide :-

(1) Cu (2) Zr

(3) Al (4) Ni

55. 'N' :-(1) N/2 (2) N (3) 4N (4) 2N

56.

:-

(1) 0°C 1.0

(2) 100°C 2.0

(3) –13°C 1.0

(4) –13°C 2.0 57. Mn

:-(1) MnO (2) Mn

2O

7

(3) Mn2O3 (4) MnO2

58. :-(1) [Sc(CN)6]

–3 (2) [Co(CN)6]–3

(3) [Fe(CN)6]–4 (4) [Cr(CN)

6]–3

59. SN1

(i) Ph Br (ii) Br

(iii) Br (iv) Cl

(1) iv < ii < iii < i (2) i < ii < iii < iv

(3) iv < i < iii < ii (4) iv < i < ii < iii

60. HCl

?

1. 2. 3. %(W/W)

(1) 1 (2) 3

(3) 1 2 (4) 1, 2 3

61. A2(g) + B

2(g) 2AB(g)

rG° r

S° 200 K

20 –20 K–1 –1

rCp = 20 K–1 –1 400 K rH°

:

(1) 20 (2) 7.98 (3) 28 (4)

62. :-(1) Cu (2) Zr

(3) Al (4) Ni


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63. Configuration of Yb+2 is :-

(1) [Xe]4f14 5d1 (2) [Xe]4f14

(3) [Xe]4f146s2 (4) [Xe]4f145d16s2

64. What is the major product of the following

reaction?

CH3CH3

+ ?Br2

H O2

(1) CH3CH3

BrOH

(2) CH3CH3

OHBr

(3) CH3CH3

OH (4) CH3CH3

BrBr

65. Compound PdCl4 .6H2O is a hydrated complex;

1 molal aqueous solution of it has freezing point

269.28 K. Assuming 100% ionization of complex,

calculate the molecular formula of the complex

(Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1) :-

(1) [Pd(H2O)

6]Cl

4

(2) [Pd(H2O)

4Cl

2]Cl

2.2H

2O

(3) [Pd(H2O)3Cl3]Cl.3H2O

(4) [Pd(H2O)2Cl4].4H2O

66. Substance A2B(g) can undergoes decomposition

to form two set of products :

A B(g)2

A (g) + B(g); H°=40 kJ/mol2

A(g) + AB(g); H°=50 kJ/mol

If the molar ratio of A2(g) to A(g) is 5 : 3 in a

set of product gases, then the energy involved in

the decomposition of 1 mole of A2B(g) is :

(1) 48.75 kJ/mol (2) 43.75 kJ/mol

(3) 46.25 kJ/mol (4) None of these

67. Which hydride is most stable :-

(1) CsH (2) NaH (3) LiH (4) KH

68. Which of the following compound is wrongly

named ?

(1) CH CH CH CHCOOH3 2 2

Cl

; 2-Chloropentanoic acid

(2) CH C CCHCOOH3

CH3

; 2-Methyl hex-3-enoic acid

(3) CH3CH

2CH=CHCOCH

3; Hex-3-en-2-one

(4) CH –CHCH CH CHO3 2 2

CH3

; 4-Methyl pentanal

63. Configuration of Yb+2 is :-

(1) [Xe]4f14 5d1 (2) [Xe]4f14

(3) [Xe]4f146s2 (4) [Xe]4f145d16s2

64. ?

CH3CH3

+ ?Br2

H O2

(1) CH3CH3

BrOH

(2) CH3CH3

OHBr

(3) CH3CH3

OH (4) CH3CH3

BrBr

65. PdCl4 .6H

2O

1 269.28 K 100% ?(Kf

for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1) :-

(1) [Pd(H2O)

6]Cl

4

(2) [Pd(H2O)4Cl2]Cl2.2H2O

(3) [Pd(H2O)3Cl3]Cl.3H2O

(4) [Pd(H2O)2Cl4].4H2O

66. A2B(g)

A B(g)2

A (g) + B(g); H°=40 2

A(g) + AB(g); H°=50

A2(g) A(g) 5 : 3

A2B(g) :

(1) 48.75 (2) 43.75

(3) 46.25 (4) 67. :-

(1) CsH (2) NaH (3) LiH (4) KH

68.

(1) CH CH CH CHCOOH3 2 2

Cl

; 2-

(2) CH C CCHCOOH3

CH3

; 2--3-

(3) CH3CH

2CH=CHCOCH

3; -3--2-

(4) CH –CHCH CH CHO3 2 2

CH3

; 4-

H-14/36


1001CM302115069

69. Alkene (X) KMnO4

O OH

O+

X is :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

70. At 25°C, the values of rate constant, activation

energy and Arrhenius constant of a reaction are

3 × 10–4 sec–1, 129 kJ/mol and 2 × 1015 sec–1

respectively.

The value of rate constant as T is :-

(1) zero (2) 2 × 1015

(3) 3 × 10–4 (4) 6 × 1011

71. AB3(g) is dissociates as

AB3(g) AB

2(g) +

1

2B

2(g)

When the initial pressure of AB3 is 800 torr and

the total pressure developed at equilibrium is

900 torr. What fraction of AB3(g) is dissociated?

(1) 10% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 30%

72. Which statement regarding H2O2 is correct :-

(1) Diamagnetic in nature

(2) Antiseptic due to oxidising nature

(3) H3PO4 added as antidecomposed material

(4) All of these

73. Zieglar-Natta catalyst is :-

(1) R3Al (2) TiCl

4

(3) R3Al + TiCl4 (4) R3B + TiCl2

74. CH –CH –CH –C CH3 2 2 HClExcess

?

(1) CH3–CH

2–CH

2–CH

2–CHCl

2

(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CCl2–CH3

(3) CH –CH–CH –CH –CH –Cl3 2 2 2

Cl

(4) CH –CH –C–CH –CH3 2 2 3

Cl

Cl

69. Alkene (X) KMnO4

O OH

O+

X :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

70. 25°C

3 × 10–4 sec–1, 129 kJ/mol 2 × 1015 sec–1

T ?

(1) zero (2) 2 × 1015

(3) 3 × 10–4 (4) 6 × 1011

71. AB3(g)

AB3(g) AB

2(g) +

1

2B

2(g)

AB3 800

900 AB3(g)

?

(1) 10% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 30%

72. H2O

2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3) H3PO4

(4)

73. :-

(1) R3Al (2) TiCl4

(3) R3Al + TiCl

4(4) R

3B + TiCl

2

74. CH –CH –CH –C CH3 2 2 HCl

?

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CHCl2

(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CCl2–CH3

(3) CH –CH–CH –CH –CH –Cl3 2 2 2

Cl

(4) CH –CH –C–CH –CH3 2 2 3

Cl

Cl


H-15/361001CM302115069

75. Arrhenius equation is represented as :

aE / RTk Ae

The activation energy Ea of the reaction can be

calculated by plotting

(1) k against T (2) k against1

logT

(3) log k against 1/T (4) log k against1

logT

76. What is the concentration of Ba2+ when

BaF2(K

sp = 1.0 × 10–6) begins to precipitate from

a solution that is 0.30 M F– ?

(1) 9.0 × 10–7 (2) 3.3 × 10–5

(3) 1.1 × 10–5 (4) 3.0 × 10–7

77. BCl3 + H

2O Product, here product :-

(1) H3BO3 + HCl (2) B2O3 + HOCl

(3) B2H6 + HCl (4) B2O3 + HCl

78. Which of the following is non reducing sugar :-

(1) Sucrose (2) Starch

(3) Cellulose (4) All of these

79. In the following compounds :

OH OH

CH3

OH

NO2

OH

NO2

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

the order of acidity is :

(1) III > IV > I > II

(2) I > IV > III > II

(3) II > I > III > IV

(4) IV > III > I > II

80. On electrolysis, which of the following does not

give out oxygen ?

(1) Acidic water using Pt electrode

(2) Fused NaOH using Pt electrode

(3) Dilute H2SO

4 using Pt electrode

(4) Dilute H2SO

4 using Cu electrode

75. :

aE / RTk Ae

Ea

?

(1) k against T (2) k against1

logT

(3) log k against 1/T (4) log k against1

logT

76. F–0.30 M Ba2+ BaF

2(K

sp = 1.0 × 10–6)

?

(1) 9.0 × 10–7 (2) 3.3 × 10–5

(3) 1.1 × 10–5 (4) 3.0 × 10–7

77. BCl3 + H

2O :-

(1) H3BO

3 + HCl (2) B

2O

3 + HOCl

(3) B2H6 + HCl (4) B2O3 + HCl

78. :-(1) (2)

(3) (4)

79. :

OH OH

CH3

OH

NO2

OH

NO2

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) III > IV > I > II

(2) I > IV > III > II

(3) II > I > III > IV

(4) IV > III > I > II

80. O2

?

(1) [Pt ]

(2) NaOH [Pt ]

(3) H2SO

4 [Pt ]

(4) H2SO

4 [Cu ]

H-16/36


1001CM302115069

81. 2 mole of N2H

4 loses 16 mole of electron is being

converted to a new compound X. Assuming that

all of the N appears in the new compound. What

is the oxidation state of 'N' in X ?

(1) –1 (2) –2 (3) +2 (4) +4

82. Order of liquification of noble gases is :-

(1) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe

(2) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He

(3) Ar > Kr > Xe > He > Ne

(4) Xe > Kr > Ne > He > Ar

83. Which of the following compound does not react

with Na ?

(1) CH3OH (2) CH3–CCH

(3) Ph–OH (4)

84. Which of the following compounds is chiral?

(1) CH3 Cl

CH3 Cl

H

H

(2) CH3 Br

CH3 Cl

H

H

(3) CH3 Br

CH3 Cl

CH3

CH3

(4) CH3 Cl

CH3 Cl

CH3

CH3

85. Which of the following reactions occur at the

cathode during the charging of lead storage

battery?

(1) Pb2+ + 2e– Pb

(2) 2 24 4Pb SO PbSO

(3) Pb Pb2+ + 2e–

(4) 24 2 2 42 4 2PbSO H O PbO H SO e

86. In given graph which represents an alkali metal

with least atomic number

1 Ionisationenergy

st

Atomic number

T

S

R

Q

Z

Y

P

X

(1) X (2) T(3) S (4) P

81. 2 N2H

4, 16

'X' X

N X N

(1) –1 (2) –2 (3) +2 (4) +4

82. :-(1) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe

(2) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He

(3) Ar > Kr > Xe > He > Ne

(4) Xe > Kr > Ne > He > Ar

83. Na

(1) CH3OH (2) CH

3–CCH

(3) Ph–OH (4)

84. ?

(1) CH3 Cl

CH3 Cl

H

H

(2) CH3 Br

CH3 Cl

H

H

(3) CH3 Br

CH3 Cl

CH3

CH3

(4) CH3 Cl

CH3 Cl

CH3

CH3

85. ?

(1) Pb2+ + 2e– Pb

(2) 2 24 4Pb SO PbSO

(3) Pb Pb2+ + 2e–

(4) 24 2 2 42 4 2PbSO H O PbO H SO e

86.

1 Ionisationenergy

st

Atomic number

T

S

R

Q

Z

Y

P

X

(1) X (2) T

(3) S (4) P


H-17/361001CM302115069

87. Correct statement is :-

(1) F – F > Cl – Cl bond dissociation energy

(2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF thermal stability

(3) HI > HBr > HCl > HF reducing power

(4) None of these

88. What are the major products from the following

reaction ?

O CH2 ?HIheat

(I)I CH OH2

+

(II)OH CH I2

+

(III)OCH OH2 I

+

(IV)OCH I2 OH

+

(1) I (2) II

(3) III (4) IV

89. Which of the following compound will not

undergo tautomerism?

(1)

OH

(2)

O

(3)

O

(4)

O

90. In case of autocatalysis :-

(1) reactant catalyses

(2) heat produced in the reaction catalyses

(3) product catalyses

(4) slovent catalyses

87. :-

(1) F – F > Cl – Cl

(2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF

(3) HI > HBr > HCl > HF

(4)

88.

O CH2 ?HIheat

(I)I CH OH2

+

(II)OH CH I2

+

(III)OCH OH2 I

+

(IV)OCH I2 OH

+

(1) I (2) II

(3) III (4) IV

89.

(1)

OH

(2)

O

(3)

O

(4)

O

90. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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1001CM302115069

91. What is common in wheat, mammals dogs and

animals :-

(1) These are all taxa at different levels

(2) These all taxa belong to same category

(3) These are all taxa at same level in Linnaeus

hierarchy

(4) These are all categories at different levels

92. How many of the following animals are an

example of protochordates?

Ascidia, Branchiostoma, Salpa, Balanoglossus,

Saccoglossus, Doliollum, Ophiura. Antedon.

(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Two

93. During which of the following phase of cell

division, chromosomes are moved to pole ?

(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase

(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase

94. Choose the correct match :-

Anticodon Amino acid

(3'5')

(a) AAA Phenylalanine

(b) UAC Methionine

(c) CAC Valine

(d) CUC Glutamic acid

Options :-

(1) a and b (2) c and d

(3) a only (4) a, b, c and d

95. Read the following four statement (a – d) :

(a) Fisheries include rearing, catching and selling

of fishes, mollusca etc.

(b) More then 70 percent of the world livestock

population is in India.

(c) Milk yield is primarily dependent on the

quality of breeds in the farm.

(d) The feeding of cattle should be carried out in

scientific manner.

How many of the above statements are right ?

(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three

96. In which type of placentation the placenta forms a

ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary and the

ovules are born on the ridge forming two rows ?

(1) Axile (2) Perietal (3) Basal (4) Marginal

97. AB–blood group is an example of ?

(1) Multiple allele

(2) Incomplete dominance

(3) Co-dominance

(4) Lethal gene

91. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

92.

(1) (2) (3) (4) 93.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

94. :-Anticodon Amino acid

(3'5')

(a) AAA (b) UAC (c) CAC (d) CUC Options :-

(1) a and b (2) c and d

(3) a only (4) a, b, c and d

95. (a – d) (a)

(b) 70

(c)

(d)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

96. (1) (2) (3) (4)

97. AB– ?(1) (2) (3) (4)


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98. When foreign DNA is inserted into any vector,

it results in inactivation of any marker gene. This

is used for the selection of _____?

(1) Cancerous cells

(2) Non-transformant cells

(3) Transformant cells

(4) Recombinant cells

99. The concentration of DDT is increased at

successive trophic levels, say if it starts at

_________ in water, it can ultimately can reach

_________ in fish eating birds, through

__________.

(1) 0.003 ppb, 25 ppm, Eutrophication

(2) 25 ppm, 0.003 ppm, Cultural eutrophication

(3) 0.003 ppb, 25 ppm, Biomagnification

(4) 0.003 ppm, 25 ppm, Succession

100. A

B

C

Identify the A, B and C in figure :-

(1) Zygomatic, nasal, lacrymal.

(2) Sphenoid, Ethmoid, Vomar.

(3) Sphenoid, Vomar, Ethmoid.

(4) Sphenoid, Ethmoid, lacrymal

101. The speed of binary fission in Escherichia coli

is :-

(1) Considerably slower than mitosis of advanced

organism since bacteria are primitive

(2) Considerably faster than mitosis of advanced

Organism

(3) Essentially the same speed as mitosis in

advanced Organism

(4) Considerably slower than meiosis of advanced

organism

102. Which of the following character is incorrect for

non-chordates :-

(1) Notochord absent

(2) Central nervous system is ventral, solid and double

(3) Gills slits are present

(4) Heart is dorsal (if present)

98. DNA _____

(1) (2) (3) (4)

99. DDT _________

_________ __________

(1) 0.003 ppm, 25 ppm,

(2) 25 ppm, 0.003 ppm,

(3) 0.003 ppb, 25 ppm,

(4) 0.003 ppm, 25 ppm, 100. A

B

C

A, B C (1) (2) (3) (4)

101. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

102. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

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1001CM302115069

103. ER, Golgicomplex, lysosomes and vacuoles are

includes in endomembrane system because.

(1) Their Function are similar

(2) Their structure are same

(3) Their function are co-ordinated

(4) Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles are

originated from the ER

104. Find out the correct match from the following

table?

Column I Column II Column III

1 Maltose (1–2)Linkage

Hydrolysisof starch

2 Glycogen (1–4) and(1–6)Linkage

Stored inliver

3 Lactose (1–4)Linkage

Milk

(1) 2 only (2) 2, 3 only

(3) 3 only (4) 1, 2, 3

105. Which type of breeding exposes harmful

recessive genes :-

(1) Out – crossing

(2) In breeding

(3) Cross – breeding

(4) Interspecific hybridisation

106. Ebr K2+2

C4 A

2+4 G

(2) floral formula

representing which plant group ?

(1) Cauliflower, Radish

(2) China rose, Cotton

(3) Potato, Tomato

(4) Onion, Tomato

107. The height of a plant is under control of polygenic

inheritance. The plant having genotype 'aabb' has

20 cm height and height of plant having genotype

AaBb is 50 cm, what will be height of a plant

having AABB genotype ?

(1) 45 cm (2) 60 cm

(3) 80 cm (4) 15 cm

103. ER, :-(1) (2) (3)

(4)

104.

Column I Column II Column III

1 Maltose (1–2)Linkage

Hydrolysisof starch

2 Glycogen (1–4) and(1–6)Linkage

Stored inliver

3 Lactose (1–4)Linkage

Milk

(1) 2 only (2) 2, 3 only

(3) 3 only (4) 1, 2, 3

105. (1) (2) (3) (4)

106. Ebr K2+2

C4 A

2+4 G

(2)

(1) ,

(2) ,

(3) ,

(4)

107.

aabb 20 cm

AaBb 50

AABB ?

(1) 45 cm (2) 60 cm

(3) 80 cm (4) 15 cm


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108. The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to:-

(1) Growth of LAB

(2) Production of O2 & ethanol

(3) Production of CO2

(4) Growth of yeast Monascus

109. What is a keystone species ?

(1) A common species that has plenty of biomass,

yet has a fairly low impact on the community's

organization.

(2) A rare species that has minimal impact on the

biomass and on other species in the

community.

(3) A dominant species that constitutes a large

proportion of the biomass and which affects

many other species.

(4) A species which makes up only a small

proportion of the total biomass of a

community yet has a huge impact on the

community's organization and survival.

110. Which group of plants do not show CO2

fertilisation effect ?

(1) Plants with lowest water utilisation efficiency

(2) Plants with highest transpiration ratio

(3) Plants requiring 3ATP per CO2 fixation

(4) Plants with chloroplast dimorphism

111. Consider the following four statements (a–d) and

select the option which includes all the correct

ones only regarding decomposer :-

(a) They may be prokaryotes or eukaryotes

(b) They may be unicellular or multicellular

(c) They are essentialy present in every type of

food chain

(d) They play a great role in mineral cycling

Option :-

(1) Statement b, c and d

(2) Statement a, b and c

(3) Statement a, b and d

(4) Statement c and d

112. In which animal air bladder is present which

regulates buoyancy :-

(1) Scoliodon (2) Catla

(3) Ichthyophis (4) Corvus

108. Dough appearance (1) LAB (2) O2 (3) CO2 (4) Monascus

109. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

110. CO2

(1) (2) (3) CO

2 3ATP

(4)

111. (a–d)

:-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

:-

(1) Statement b, c and d

(2) Statement a, b and c

(3) Statement a, b and d

(4) Statement c and d

112. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

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1001CM302115069

113. Consider the figure in which it's part labelled from

A to E. Select the correct option :-

DE

B

C

A

(1) C form a number of infolding called A

(2) A and C divide its lumen distinctly into two

aqueous compartments

(3) D is the site for photophosphorylations

(4) D and E both contain its own specific enzymes

114. Which one of the following is correct regarding

the excretion ?

(1) Large amount of water from renal filtrate is

reabsorbed in DCT and a less amount is

reabsorbed by PCT

(2) The descending limb of loop of Henle is

completely impermeable to NaCl salt.

(3) Malpighian corpuscle is found in medulla

region of kidney.

(4) The colour of urine is pale yellow and is

slightly alkaline in nautre.

115. Identify the correct match from the column-I, II,

and III :-

I II II

A Progesterone a Corpusluteum

i Maintain theendometrium

B Oestrogen b Placenta ii Help inparturition

C Relaxin c Thecainterna

iii Milk ejectionreflex

D Oxytocin d Post.pituitary

iv Proliferationof endometrium

(1) A-a-i B-d-ii C-b-iii D-c-iv

(2) A-a-i B-c-iv C-b-ii D-d-iii

(3) B-a-iv A-b-iii C-c-ii D-d-i

(4) D-c-iii C-b-ii A-d-iv D-a-i

113. A E :-

DE

B

C

A

(1) C A (2) A C

(3) D (4) D E

114.

(1)

(2) NaCl

(3)

(4)

115. -

I II II

A a

i

B b ii

C c

iii

D d

iv

(1) A-a-i B-d-ii C-b-iii D-c-iv

(2) A-a-i B-c-iv C-b-ii D-d-iii

(3) B-a-iv A-b-iii C-c-ii D-d-i

(4) D-c-iii C-b-ii A-d-iv D-a-i


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116. Monoecious plants prevent :-

(1) Autogamy and geitonogamy

(2) Geitonogamy and xenogamy

(3) Geiotonogamy, xenogamy and autogamy

(4) Only autogamy

117. In man gene for polydactyly shows :-

(1) Complete penetrance

(2) Incomplete penetrance

(3) Variable expressivity

(4) 2 and 3 both

118. Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) Spleen contains lymphocytes and act as SLO

(2) In secondary lymphoid organs immature

lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-

sensitive lymphocytes.

(3) Both bone-marrow and thymus provide

micro-environments for the development and

maturation of lymphocytes.

(4) MALT also has a large reservoir of Lymphocyte.

119. Pesticides are sprayed regularly in field, these are

leached into water sources where they are taken

up by different aquatic plants and fishes at each

trophic level. The correct figure representing

pesticides at each trophic level is :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

120. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) Ingenhousz showed that it is only the green

part of the plants that could release oxygen

(B) Each photosystem has all the pigments(except one molecule of chlorophyll a)forming a light harvesting system.

(C) Proton gradient is broken down due tomovement of protons across the membrane tothe stroma through peripheral membraneprotein (F

0) of the ATPase(D) Tropical plants have higher temperature

optimum than the plants adapted to temperateclimates

How many of the above statements are right ?

(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One

116. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

117. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) 2 3

118. ?

(1) SLO

(2)

(3)

(4) MALT 119.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

120. (A-D) :-(A)

(B) LHC

(3) ATPase (F

0)

(4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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121. The figure below shows the life cycle of plant

body. Select the correct option regarding life

cycle of plant body :-

Fusion Sporophyte Meiosis Spore

Gametes Mitosis GametophyteGermination

(1) Sporophyte and gametophtyte are haploid and

diploid respectively

(2) Spores produce sporophyte while gametes

produce gametophyte

(3) Both spores and gametes are represent the

gametophytic generation

(4) Both spores and sporophyte are represent the

sporophytic generation

122. When some permanent cells get back to

meristematic activity, it is referred to as :-

(1) Differentiation

(2) Dedifferentiation

(3) Meristematic shift

(4) Initiation

123. Nucleolus is a site for-

(1) Active ribosomal protein synthesis

(2) Active m-RNA synthesis

(3) Active ribosomal RNA synthesis

(4) Active lipid synthesis

124. Read the following four statements (a-d)

(a) The absorbed substances finally reach the

tissues which utilise them for their activities

(b) Fatty acids and glycerol are first incorporated

into small droplets called micelle which move

into the intestinal mucosa

(c) Active transport occurs along concentration

gradient hence requires energy

(d) In human, saliva is mainly produced by three

pairs of salivary glands

Which of the above statements are wrong ?

(1) a and b (2) c only

(3) b and c (4) c and d

121.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

122. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

123. (1) (2) m-RNA (3) RNA (4)

124. (a-d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

?

(1) a b (2) c

(3) b c (4) c d

Time Management is Life Management


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125. Which of the following hormons level is increased

during pregnancy in the maternal blood :-

(a) FSH (b) Progesterone

(c) Thyroxin (d) Cortisol

(e) LH (f) Estrogen

(1) a, b, e, f (2) a, b, c, d, e

(3) c, d, a (4) b, d, c, f

126. In which plant, endosperms is completely

consumed by developing embryo :-

(1) Maize (2) Pea

(3) Wheat (4) Castor

127. Which of the following cross is used to find out

homozygosity or heterozygosity of a dominant

individual ?

(1) Reciprocal cross (2) Test cross

(3) Out cross (4) Monohybrid cross

128. Read the following statements.

(A) Non-specific type of defence.

(B) It is characterised by memory.

(C) It is present at the time of birth.

(D) When it encounters a pathogen for the first

time produces primary response.

How many of above statements are true for "Innate

Immunity" :-

(1) (B) and (D) both (2) (A) and (C) both

(3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (A), (B), (C), (D)

129. Which one is correct ?

(1) In cold region, big organism, large surface area

(2) Warm region, big organism, small surface area

(3) Cold region, small organism, large surface area

(4) Warm region, small organism, large surface area

130. Auxin, Gibberellin, Ethylene, Cytokinin, ABA.

How many of above hormones in the list are

synthesized from amino acids ?

(1) Four (2) Three

(3) Two (4) One

131. The predominant stage of the life cycle of moss

is gametophye which consists of two stages they

are respectively :-

(1) Protonema, Prothallus

(2) Spore mother cell, protonema

(3) Protonema, leafy stage

(4) Protonema, Zygote

125. :-(a) FSH (b) (c) Thyroxin (d) Cortisol

(e) LH (f) Estrogen

(1) a, b, e, f (2) a, b, c, d, e

(3) c, d, a (4) b, d, c, f

126. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

127.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

128. (A-D).

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

"" :-

(1) (B) (D) (2) (A) (C)

(3) (A), (B) (C) (4) (A), (B), (C), (D)

129. (1) (2) (3) (4)

130. ABA

(1) (2) (3) (4)

131. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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132. The tunica is characterized by :-

(1) Anticlinal division only

(2) Periclinal division only

(3) Divisions in all planes

(4) Division in three planes only

133. Sweet potato and potato are modification of

respecively :-

(1) Root and stem (2) Stem and Root

(3) Root and leaf (4) Root and Root

134. Which of the following sequence is incorrect?

(1) Starch Amylase disaccharides

(2) Fats Lipases diglycerides

(3) Nucleic acids Nucleases nucleotides

(4) Lactose Lactase glucose + glucose

135. How many of the contraceptive methods in the list

given below have almost no side effects ?

Diaphragm, Lactational amenorrhea, Cervical

Cap, Pills, IUD, Periodic abstinence, Coitus

interruptus, Depoprovera, Norplant.

(1) Six (2) Three

(3) Four (4) One

136. A mature female gametophyte of flowering plant is:-

(1) 8 celled 8 nucleated




137. Match the column–I with column–II and select the

correct answer :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Monohybrid cross (i) TtRr

(B) Test cross (ii) Tt × TT

(C) Out cross (iii) Tt × tt

(D) True dihybrid (iv) Tt × Tt

(E) Monohybrid (v) Rr

(1) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i, E–v

(2) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv, E–v

(3) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv, E–v

(4) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i, E–v

138. “Negri bodies” are specific character of

Hydrophobia is ?

(1) Communicable disease

(2) Non communicable disease

(3) Viral disease

(4) 1 & 3 both

132. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

133. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

134.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) + 135. How many of the contraceptive methods in the list

given below have almost no side effects ?

Diaphragm, Lactational amenorrhea, Cervical

Cap, Pills, IUD, Periodic abstinence, Coitus

interruptus, Depoprovera, Norplant.

(1) Six (2) Three

(3) Four (4) One

136. :-(1) 8 8 (2) 7 7 (3) 8 7 (4) 7 8

137. –I –II :-

-I -II

(A) (i) TtRr

(B) (ii) Tt × TT

(C) (iii) Tt × tt

(D) (iv) Tt × Tt

(E) (v) Rr

(1) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i, E–v

(2) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv, E–v

(3) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv, E–v

(4) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i, E–v

138. “ ” ?

(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 3


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139. Which one is most suitable for Nile perch, water

hyacinth and lantana camara :-

(1) Key stone species (2) Exotic species

(3) Ecospecies (4) Endamic species

140. In what respect auxin and cytokinin are

antagonistic to each other ?

(1) Cell division (2) Flowering

(3) Abscission (4) Apical dominance

141. Which option is not related with phaeophyceae?

(1) Gelatinous coating of algin.

(2) Gametes are pear shaped and bear two

laterally attached flagella.

(3) The food is stored as floridean starch.

(4) They possess chlorophyll a,c, carrotenoids and

xanthophylls.

142. The histogen responsible for the development of

stele is :-

(1) Periblem

(2) Plerome

(3) Dermatogen

(4) Calyptrogen

143. According to darwin, the founder of theory of

natural selection, fitness refers to :-

(1) Built in variation (2) Reproductive fitness

(3) Struggle (4) Physical fitness

144. The blood vessel taking blood into glomerulus

is :-

(1) Afferent arteriole (2) Efferent arteriole

(3) Renal vein (4) Renel portal vein

145. Match the column–A and B about the embryonic

development of human :-

Column-A Column–B

(i) End of one month (a) Most of the major

organ systems

developed

(ii) End of second (b) Appearance of

month hair on the head

(iii) End of three (c) Heart

month formation

(iv) During fifth month (d) Eye-lids separated

(v) End of sixth month (e) Limbs and digits

formation

(1) (i) – e, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – a, (v) – d

(2) (i) – e, (ii) – c, (iii) – b, (iv) – b, (v) – d

(3) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – b, (iv) – a, (v) – d

(4) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – a, (iv) – b, (v) – d

139. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

140. (1) (2) (3) (4)

141. ?(1) (2)

(3) (4) a, c

142.

(1) (Periblem)

(2) (Plerome)

(3) (Dermatogen)

(4) (Calyptrogen)

143. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

144. Glomerulus :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

145. –A –B :-

-A –B

(i) (a)

(ii) (b)

(iii) (c)

(iv) (d)

(v) (e)

(1) (i) – e, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – a, (v) – d

(2) (i) – e, (ii) – c, (iii) – b, (iv) – b, (v) – d

(3) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – b, (iv) – a, (v) – d

(4) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – a, (iv) – b, (v) – d

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146. The labelled ABC respectively represent :-

A

B

C

(1) Scutellum, Epiblast, Coleorhiza

(2) Epiblast, Scutellum, Coleorhiza

(3) Scutellum, Epiblast, Shoot apex

(4) Coleoptile, Epiblast, Shoot apex

147. First transgenic plant was tobacco and it contains

resistant gene for –

(1) Insect resistant (2) Herbicide resistant

(3) Pest resistant (4) Frost resistant

148. “Elephantiasis” is not a viral disease transmitted

by :-

(1) Anopheles (2) Culex

(3) Aedes (4) Culex & Aedes

149.

Solar Radiations (D)

Top consumer

(A)Primary

consumer(B)

Primary Producer

(C)

(A) 10 Kcal/m2/yr

(B) 100 Kcal/m2/yr

(C) 1000 Kcal/m2/yr

(D) 100000 Kcal/m2/yr

In the above energy pyramid for an ecosystem,

the rate of secondary production is :-

(1) Uncertain (2) 100 Kcal/m2/yr

(3) 10 Kcal/m2/yr (4) 110 Kcal/m2/yr

146. ABC :-

A

B

C

(1) , , (2) , , (3) , , (4) , ,

147. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

148. “” :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

149.

(D)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(A) 10 Kcal/m2/yr

(B) 100 Kcal/m2/yr

(C) 1000 Kcal/m2/yr

(D) 100000 Kcal/m2/yr

(1) (2) 100 Kcal/m2/yr

(3) 10 Kcal/m2/yr (4) 110 Kcal/m2/yr


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150. Identify the correct labelling :-

C (Uptake)

Plant biomassDecaying biomass

Animal biomass

A NO3

–

B

Soil 'N' pool

Biological N fixation2

Atmospheric N2

A B C

(1) N2

Nitrification Ammonification

(2) NH3

Electrical N2

fixationAmmonification

(3) NO3– Denitrification Electrical N

2

fixation

(4) NH3

Denitrification Electrical N2

fixation

151. The disease sleeping sickness is caused by :-

(1) Trypanosoma (2) Plasmodium

(3) Entamoeba (4) Wuchereria

152. Exocrine part of pancreas are :-

(1) Apocrine (2) Merocrine

(3) Holocrine (4) Epicrine

153. Which of the following statement is incorrect:-

(1) Any population has built in variation in

characteristics

(2) Natural selection is a mechanism of evolution

(3) The geological history of earth never correlates

with the biological history of earth

(4) According to Darwin, the fitness refers

ultimately and only to reproductive fitness

154. Which of the following pair is matched correctly :-

(1) CNS myelinated axons only

(2) PNS non myelinated axons only

(3) CNS neurilemma present

(4) Tract connects CNS to CNS

150. :-

C

A NO3

–

B

'N'

N 2

Atmospheric N2

A B C

(1) N2

(2) NH3

N2

(3) NO3– N

2

(4) NH3

N2

151. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

152. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

153. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

154. :-

(1) CNS

(2) PNS

(3) CNS

(4) Tract CNS CNS

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1001CM302115069

155. Correctly matched pairs are :-

(a) Clitoris – Erectile body in female homologous

to penis of man

(b) Colostrum – Secretion of preputial gland

(c) Areola – Pigmented circular area arround

the nipple

(d)Oxytocin – Milk synthesis hormone

(1) a and b (2) a and c

(3) b and c (4) a, c and d

156. Which of the following method is most commonly

used for creation of genetic variation–

(1) Polyploidy

(2) Hybridisation

(3) Mutation

(4) Genetic engineering

157. Which of the following conclusions of Mendel can

be explained by dihybrid cross only ?

(1) Dominance

(2) Unit factor and segregation

(3) Independent assortment

(4) All the above

158. Identify the wrongly matched pair :-

(1) Typhoid – Intestinal ulcer

(2) Malignant malaria – Plasmodium falciparum

(3) Trichophyton – Round worm

(4) Common cold – Rhinovirus

159. Read following statement :-

(A) Heart is mesodermally derived organ.

(B) In amphibians, mixing of oxygenated and

deoxygenated blood occur in ventricle.

(C) Right ventricle and right atria are separated

by thick, muscular interatrial septum.

(D) Body has ability to alter stroke volume and

cardiac output.

How many of above statements are not incorrect :-

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

160. Which of the following compounds are electron

and proton acceptor in photosynthesis and

electron and proton donor in respiration

respectively ?

(1) PGA, PGAL (2) DHAP, PGAL

(3) PGAL, PGA (4) PGA, PGA

155. :-(a) –

(b) – (c) –

(d) – (1) a b (2) a c(3) b c (4) a, c d

156. –(1) (2) (3) (4)

157. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

158. :-(1) – (2) – (3) – (4) –

159. :-(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

160.

(1) PGA, PGAL (2) DHAP, PGAL

(3) PGAL, PGA (4) PGA, PGA


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161. Which of the following is correct for given

figure :-

(1) Cnidoblast

(2) Digestion is both extra cellular and

intracellular

(3) Asexual reproduction

(4) Development direct

162. End of two long bones are connected by :-

(1) Cartilage (2) Muscles

(3) Tendons (4) Ligaments

163. Fore limbs of whale, bats, cheetah and human are

example of :-

(1) Homologous organ

(2) Analogous organ

(3) Homoplastic organ

(4) Vertigial organ

164. Which of the following statement is false :-

(1) The fluid filled inner ear called labyrinth

consists of two parts the bony and the

membranous labyrinth.

(2) The coiled portion of the labyrinth is cochlea.

(3) The scala vestibuli ends at round window at

the base of cochlea.

(4) Eustachian tube-helps in equalising the

pressure on either sides of the ear drum.

165. A sterile stamen is kown as :-

(1) Tendril (2) Staminode

(3) Stipule (4) Pistillode

166. Embryo culture is mostly used for –

(1) Establishing suspension culture

(2) Recovery of interspecific hybrids

(3) Somatic hybridisation

(4) Haploid plant production

161. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

162. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

163. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

164. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

165.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

166. –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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167. Main basis of DNA finger printing is :-

(1) RFLP (2) VNTR

(3) RAPD (4) None of these

168. During the natural ageing of lake :-

(A) Lakes fertility increases

(B) Plant animal life burgeons

(C) Lake grows shallower and warmer

(D) Organic remains begin to be deposited on the

lake bottom

Options :-

(1) Only A (2) A & D

(3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D

169. Which of the following is wrong statement ?

(1) IC = TV + IRV

(2) VC = IC + ERV

(3) TLC = TV + IRV + FRC

(4) FRC = TV + ERV

170. Unloading of mineral ions occur at fine vein

endings through __A__ and __B__ uptake by the

leaf cells :-

(1) A - Diffusion, B - Active

(2) A - Facilitated diffusion, B - Passive

(3) A - Osmosis, B - Passive

(4) A - Active transport, B - Active

171. In the members of which phylum a soft and

spongy layer of skin forms a mantle over the

visceral hump :-

(1) Annelida (2) Hemichordata

(3) Mollusca (4) Ctenophore

172. Carefully read the following statement :

"In cockroach, a ring of 6-8 bind tubules

called (A) is present at the junction of foregut

and midgut, which secrete digestive juice."

What are the (A) in above statement :-

(1) Intestinal caecae

(2) Gastric caecae

(3) Malpighian tubules

(4) Stink gland

167. DNA :-

(1) RFLP (2) VNTR

(3) RAPD (4)

168. :-(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

:-

(1) A (2) A D

(3) A, B C (4) A, B, C D

169.

(1) IC = TV + IRV

(2) VC = IC + ERV

(3) TLC = TV + IRV + FRC

(4) FRC = TV + ERV

170. __A__ __B__

(1) A - B -

(2) A - B -

(3) A - B -

(4) A - B -

171.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

172. :"6-8 (A) "

(A) :-

(1)

(2)

(3) (4)


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173. Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Lichens can be used as industrial pollution

indicators

(2) Evolution is a directed process in the sense of

determinism

(3) Evolution is a stochastic process based on

chance event in nature and chance mutation

in the organisms

(4) Similarities in proteins and genes performing

a given function among diverse organisms

give clues to common ancestory

174. Read the following four statements (a-d) :-

(a) Inbreeding increase homozygosity

(b) Artificial insemination helps to overcome all

problems of normal matings

(c) Bee keeping is easy and require some

specialised knowledge

(d) Hilsa, common carp, mackerl are edible

marine fishes

How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

175. Which type of Root is shown in the figure. (A)

and (B) respectively ?

Laterals

(A) (B)

(1) Adventitious roots, Fibrous roots

(2) Tap roots, Adventitious roots

(3) Tap roots, Fibrous roots

(4) Fibrous roots, Adventitious roots

173. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

174. (a-d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

175. (A) (B)

(A) (B)

(1) ,

(2) ,

(3) ,

(4) ,

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176. The experiment shown in the figure has been carried

out by Morgan. If in Cross I, genes are tightly linked

and in Cross II, genes are loosely linked then what will

be percentage of recombinants produced in Cross I and

Cross II respectively ?

y

y

y+

y+

y

y+

w

w

w+

w+

w

w+

Parents

F generation1

Cross I

Yellowbody

Yellowbody

Whiteeyed

Whiteeyed

×

×

Wild type

Wild type

w

w

m

m

Parents

F generation1

Cross II

Whitebody

Miniaturewings

×

Wild type

Wild type

w+

m+

w

w+

m

m+

×

w m

Whitebody

Miniaturewings

(1) 98.7% and 62.8%

(2) 1.3% and 37.2%

(3) 37.2 and 1.3%

(4) 62.8% and 98.7%

176.

-I

-II

-I -II

?

y

y

y+

y+

y

y+

w

w

w+

w+

w

w+

Parents

F generation1

Cross I

Yellowbody

Yellowbody

Whiteeyed

Whiteeyed

×

×

Wild type

Wild type

w

w

m

m

Parents

F generation1

Cross II

Whitebody

Miniaturewings

×

Wild type

Wild type

w+

m+

w

w+

m

m+

×

w m

Whitebody

Miniaturewings

(1) 98.7% and 62.8%

(2) 1.3% and 37.2%

(3) 37.2 and 1.3%

(4) 62.8% and 98.7%


H-35/361001CM302115069

177. Match the column-I with column-II and select the

correct answer:-

Column-I Column-II

(A) RFLP (i) Pseudomonas putida

(B) Super bug (ii) PCR–technique

(C) ECORI (iii) Exonuclease

(D) TPA (iv) Restriction

(E) Interferon endonuclease

(v) Antiviral protein

(vi) Blood clot dissolving

agent

(vii) DNA test

(viii) Haemophilia

(ix) Albinism

(x) Agrobacterium

(1) A–vii, B–i, C–iv, D–vi, E–v

(2) A–v, B–x, C–ii, D–i, E–iv

(3) A–vi, B–ii, C–ix, D–x, E–v

(4) A–x, B–i, C–vi, D–ix, E–x

178. Regions with very high levels of species richness

and high degree of endemism are called :-

(1) Biosphere (2) Sacred grooves

(3) Hot spot (4) Amazon forest

179. In the resting muscle fibre, troponin covers:

(1) Ca-binding sites on troponin

(2) Actin binding sites on myosin

(3) Myosin binding sites on actin

(4) Ca-binding sites on actin180.

Substrate

Product

b

a

Transition state

Pote

nti

al e

ner

gy

Progress of reaction

Choose the option with correct statements

regarding above graph ?

(A) This graph is for an endothermic process

(B) The energy difference between product and

transition state is less than activation energy(C) Graph 'a' shows the presence of enzyme

Options :-

(1) A and C (2) A and B

(3) B and C (4) A, B and C

177. –I –II :-–I –II

(A) RFLP (i) (B) (ii) PCR–(C) ECORI (iii) (D) TPA (iv) (E)

(v) (vi)

(vii) DNA (viii) (ix) (x)

(1) A–vii, B–i, C–iv, D–vi, E–v

(2) A–v, B–x, C–ii, D–i, E–iv

(3) A–vi, B–ii, C–ix, D–x, E–v

(4) A–x, B–i, C–vi, D–ix, E–x

178. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

179. (1) -(2) (3) (4) -

180.

b

a

(A)

(B)

(C) 'a'

:-

(1) A C (2) A B

(3) B C (4) A, B C

Your moral duty is to prove that is

H-36/36


1001CM302115069

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