Achievers College of Commerce and Management,
Kalyan (w)
Subject: - Accountancy & Financial Management (Sem III)
Class: - SY.BCOM
Module 1. Partnership Final Accounts
1. The person's forming the partnership are called individually___________
A. Agents
*B. Partners*
C. Shareholders
D. Owners
2. In case of Fixed capital method following accounts are prepared
A. Current A/c
B. Capital A/c
C. Cash A/c
*D. Current A/c & Capital A/c*
3. If the partnership deed is silent about the method of keeping capital accounts,the accounts
will be kept under..........
*A. Fluctuating capital method*
B. Fixed capital method
C. Constant capital method
D. Partners capital method
4. ...... % will be applicable on Interest on loans/Advances.
A. 16%
B. 7%
*C. 6%*
D. 5%
5. Any amount payable to a partner should be treated as......
A. Profit
B. Commission
C. Appropriation
D. Salary
6. A partnership firm is _______ on conversion into a Ltd. Company.
*A. Dissolved*
B. Survived
C. Started
D. Activated
7. A partnership firm has _____ capital
*A. Limited*
B. Unlimited
C. Fixed
D. Huge
8. Partner acts as an___________
*A. Agent of the firm*
B. Employee of the firm
C. Third party
D. Colleague
9. Interest on Capital is paid to Partners vide agreement out of _________
A. Past profit
B. Reserve
*C. Current profit*
D. Future profit
10. A partner's capital a/c shows________
*A. Credit Balance*
B. Debit Balance
C. No Balance
D. Zero Balance
11. Profit on sale of asset is_______
*A. credited to P & L a/c*
B. debited to P & L a/c
C. debited to assets a/c
D. credited to assets a/c
12. Stock is valued at ________
A. Stock
B. MV
*C. Cost or MV whichever is lower*
D. Book Value
13. Payment of rent to a partner is_________
A. appropriation of profit
*B. charge against income*
C. capital
D. salary
14. Interest on Capital is debited to__________
A. Trading A/c
B. P & L A/c
*C. P & L Appropriation A/c*
D. Capital A/c
15. Gross profit is transferred to ________/
A. Trading A/c
*B. P & L A/c*
C. P & L Appropriation A/c
D. Capital A/c
Module 2. Piecemeal Distribution of Cash
1. If there are four liabilities e.g creditors, Rs 10,000 Bills payable Rs 5,000 outstanding
expenses Rs 10,000, other loan Rs 5,000 and cash available is Rs 15,000.
A. First pay Rs 10,000 to creditor and Rs 5,000 to Bills Payable
B. First pay Rs 10,000 to outstanding expenses and Rs 5,000 to other loan.
C. Pay Rs 5,000 ,Rs 2,500 ,Rs 5,000 , Rs 2,500 in due ratio 2:1:2:1
D. First pay Rs 10,000 to other Loan only
2. If X loan Rs 12,000 and Y loan is Rs 8,000. Both are partners. Profit sharing ratio is 5:4 .
Cash available Rs 9,000. How would you pay?
A. Rs 5,400 to X loan ,Rs 3,600 to Y loan
B. Rs 5,000 to X loan , Rs 4,000 to Y loan
C. Rs 9,000 to X loan
D. Rs 8,000 to Y loan
3. Bank loan is Rs 30,000 secured against stock and stock sold for Rs 25,000 ,Balance Rs
5,000 is_____
A. Secured
B. Unsecured
C. Fixed
D. Partly secured
4. Partner's loan is_____
A. Internal Liability
B. External Liability
C. Secured Liability
D. Unsecured Liability
5. Employees dues are ___
A. Preferential Liabilities
B. External Liabilities
C. Contingent Liabilities
D. Secured Liabilities
6. Takeover of liability by a partner is____
A. Added to capital of a partner
B. Deducted from capital of a partner
C. Neglected
D. Considered
7. East, West and South are partners sharing in the ratio of 3:3:2. Their capitals are Rs
24,000, Rs 15,000 & Rs 9,000 respectively. Which partner has ultimate surplus____
A. South
B. West
C. East
D. North
8. General Reserve should be____
A. Distributed in PSR
B. Distributed in capital ratio
C. Not distributed among the partners
D. Distributed in gross ratio
9. Realisation of assets on dissolution is_____
A. Sudden
B. Gradual
C. Unexpected
D. Expected
10. A,B and C are partners sharing P & L in the ratio of 3:2:1. Their capitals are Rs 60,000
,Rs 40,000, Rs 25,000 respectively. Creditors are Rs 90,000 and Bank Overdraft Rs 30,000
Cash realised is Rs 75,000. The payment to creditors will be Rs ____
A. 56,250
B. 18,750
C. 20,000
D. 18,000
11. X and Y are partners sharing Profits and Losses in the ratio of 2: 1. Their Capital is Rs
6,000 and Rs 8,000 respectively. The Capital ratio will be.
A. 3:4
B. 4:3
C. 2:1
D. 1:1
12. Realisation A/C is prepared in case of _____
A. Admission
B. Retirement
C. Death
D. Dissolution
13. Bills under discount is a_____
A. Contingent Liability
B. Non-current liability
C. Current liabilty
D. Fixed liability
14. The unpaid balance on Capital accounts represents_____
A. Part of the realisation
B. Loss of the realisation
C. Profit of the realisation
D. No part of the realisation
15. Excess capital method is known as____
A. Purchase Consideration
B. Net Asset Method
C. Net Payment Method
D. Highest Relative Method.
Module 3. Amalgamation of Firms
1. Goodwill written off is debited to __________
*A. All partners capital account*
B. Goodwill account
C. Realisation account
D. Drawing account
2. Amalgamation is dealt with by_________
*A. AS 14*
B. AS 16
C. AS 18
D. AS 3
3. Profit or loss on Realisation is distributed among the partners in_____________
*A. PSR*
B. Claim ratio
C. Capital ac
D. Benefit ratio
4. On amalgamation General Reserve distributed among the _________
*A. Old partners in old ratio*
B. Old partners in New ratio
C. New partners in old ratio
D. New partners in New ratio
5. Profit on Realisation A/c is_________
*A. Credited to Partner's capital A/c*
B. Debited to Partner's capital A/c
C. Ignored
D. Considered
6. On amalgamation goodwill of both goodwill of both the firm's is_________
*A. Ignored*
B. Valued separately
C. Valued at cost
D. Book value
7. Amalgamation is__________
*A. Merger of businesses*
B. Dissolution of firms
C. Liquidation of business
D. Establishment of business
8. Take over of asset by a partner is debited to_________
A. Realisation Account
*B. Partner's capital Account*
C. Bank Account
D. Cash Account
9. Excess of Net Asset over Purchase Consideration is_________
*A. Capital Reserve*
B. Goodwill
C. Capital
D. Drawing A/c
10. Assets are transferred to Realisation A/C at________
*A. Book Value*
B. Cost
C. Market Value
D. Normal value
11. Realisation expenses are__________
A. Debited to Bank Account
*B. Debited to Realisation Account*
C. Credited to Capital Account
D. Debited to Assets Account
12. Liabilities assumed by partners are___________
*A. Debited to Realisation Account*
B. Debited to Revaluation Account
C. Debited to Partner's capital Account
D. Credited to Bank Account
13. Purchase Consideration is the amount ___________
*A. Payable by new firm to old firm*
B. Payable by old firms to Partner
C. Payable by one firm to another firm
D. Payable by one firm to third-party
14. Liabilities not taken over by the new firm (at the time of amalgamation ) will be
transferred to_________
A. New Firm Account
B. Profit & Loss Adjustment Account
*C. Capital Account*
D. Profit & Loss Account
15. In case of amalgamation__________
A. goodwill of both the firms is ignored
*B. goodwill of both the firms is valued separately*
C. goodwill of both the firms is valued at cost
D. goodwill of both the firm is valued at BV
Module 4. Conversion/ Sale of a Partnership Firm into a Ltd. Company
1. A partnership firm has __________
A. Limited Capital
B. Limited Managerial Skill
C. Limited Liability
D. Limited Capital & Managerial Skill
2. The form of organization suitable for large scale business is _________
A. Sole Trader
B. Partnership Firm
C. Co-operative
D. Limited Company
3. On conversion of a firm into a Limited Company_____________
A. new company is formed
B. Old Firm is dissolved
C. New partner is admitted
D. New company is formed and old company is dissolved
4. As per Net Asset Method purchase consideration is equal to _______________
A. Gross Assets at Book Value
B. Liabilities at Book Value
C. Assets taken over at agreed value less liabilities taken over at agreed
D. None of the above
5. Purchase consideration may be settled in ____________
A. Cash only
B. Debentures of Ltd. Company only
C. Shares of Ltd. Company only
D. Cash/ Shares / Debentures of Ltd. Company
6. If cash balance is not taken over by a Ltd. Company it is transferred to __________
A. Realisation A/C
B. Revaluation A/C
C. P & L A/C
D. Cash/Bank A/c
7. Asset taken over by a partner is_________________
A. Debited to partner's capital A/C
B. Credited to partner's capital A/C
C. Debited to Realisation A/c
D. None of the above
8. General reserve is distributed among the partners in the ratio of __________
A. Profit Sharing
B. Capitals
C. Final Claims
D. Equally
9. Profit or loss on disposal of asset not taken over by a Ltd. Company is transferred to
________
A. Current A/c
B.P & L A/C
C. Capital Accounts
D. Realisation A/c
10. On takeover of unrecorded liability by a partner the A/c debited is –
A. Realisation A/c
B.P & L A/C
C. Capital Accounts
D. Current Accounts
11. Shares and Debentures received from the Ltd. Company are distributed among the
partners in their __________________
A. PSR
B. Capital ratio
C. Current ratio
D. Final Claim ratio
12. If purchase consideration is more than the net assets taken over,in the books of the
company taking over the firm, the difference is_________________
A. debited to Goodwill A/c
B. credited to Capital Reserves
C. debited to Securities Premium
D. credited to Goodwill A/c
13. Dissolution expenses paid by the company to the firm on conversion are _____________
A. debited to Deferred Revenue Expenditure A/c
B. credited to Capital Reserve A/c
C. debited to Goodwill A/c
D. credited to Goodwill A/c
14. Conversion of partnership into a limited company is referred to as_______________
A. Exchange
B. Sale
C. Transfer
D. Acquisition
15. Upon the conversion of partnership firm into a company, the legal actions of the company
is governed by ________________
A. Articles of Association
B. Partnership Deeds
C. Companies Act,2013
D. Memorandum of association
Achievers College of commerce and management , Kalyan.
Subject:- B.LAW
Class :- SYBCOM
UNIT NO :- 1. INDIAN CONTRACT ACT, 1872 Part-1.
1. Voidable contract can be avoided at the option of __________
A. Other or others
B. One or more
C. One or other
D. One or two
2. Consideration to a contract moves at the desire of____
A. Promiser
B. Promisee
C. Promise
D. Premise
3. Every illegal agreement is void but every void agreement is
not_______
A. Immoral
B. Illegal
C. opposed to public policy
D. legal
4. Past consideration is also called as______
A. Executory consideration
B. executed consideration
C. prospective consideration
D. legal consideration
5. when consent to the contract is not freely given and when it is
caused due to coercion influence fraud or misrepresentation contract
become_____
A. Void
B. voidable
C. illegal
D. legal
6.An agreement with or by a minor is -
A. Void
B. voidable at the option of the minor
C. voidable at the option of the other party
D. valid
7. On attaining the age of majority a minor’s agreement
A. Can be ratified by him-
B. cannot be ratified by him
C. becomes void
D. becomes valid
8. A minor by misrepresenting his age borrows some money-
A. He can be a sued for fraud
B. He cannot be sued for fraud
C. he is liable to return the money
D. He is not liable to return the money
9. A minor enters into a contract for the purchase of certain necessaries
in such a case-
A. he is not personally liable to pay
B. he is liable to pay
C. his eastate is liable to pay
D. his guardian is liable to pay
10. A person is usually of unsound mind but occasionally of sound
mind-
A. he may enter into a contract when he is of sound mind
B. he may not make a contract even when he is of sound mind
C. he cannot enter into a contract at all he can enter contract at all
D. he can enter into a contract at all he can enter contract at all
E.
11. A contract by an idiot is-
A. Voidable
B. enforceable
C. invalid
D. void ab initio
12. Contracts made before war with an alien enemy which are against
public policy are-
A. suspended and are revived after the war is over
B. dissolve
C. not affected at all
D. void ab initio
13. The contractual capacity of a company is regulated by-
A. its memorandum of association and the provision of the
companies act 1956
B. the terms of contract enter into with a third party
C. its article of association
D. its prospectus
14. The case of Mohiri bivi v. Dharmodas ghose (1903) 301 cal 539 deals
with
A. communication of offer
B. communication of acceptance
C. a minors agreement
D. fraud
15. Flaw incapacity to contract may arise from-
A. want to consideration
B. unsoundness of mind
C. illegally t of object
D. uncertainty of object
16. Consideration must move from the desire of-
A. the promisor
B. the promise
C. Promisor or any third party
D. any third party
17. Consideration-
A. must move from the promise
B. may move from the promise or any person
C. Promisor or any third party
D. Must be reasonal value
18. Consideration-
A. Must be adequate to the promise made
B. Need not be adequate to the promise made
C. Must be of reasonable value
D. Must be of more value than value of promise made
19. Consideration must be something which the promisor-
A. Is already bound to do
B. Is not already bound to do
C. May voluntarily do
D. Must not do
20. Compromise of dispute claims-
A. Is a good consideration for a contract
B. is not a good consideration for a contract
C. result in a void agreement
D. is not permitted by law
20.Consideration in a contract-
A. May be past present or future
B. may be present or future only
C. must be present only
D. must be future only
UNIT NO:- 2. INDIAN CONTRACT ACT , 1872.
Part-2
1. A contract of life insurance is-
A. a contract of indemnity
B. not a contract of indemnity
C. a wagering agreement
D. not a wagering agreement
2. An agreement the meaning of which is not certain is-
A. Void
B. voidable
C. valid
D. illegal
3. Which of the following are wagering agreements ?
(a) A crossword competition the prizes of which depend upon
correspondence of the competitors’ solution with a previously
prepared solution
(b) Picture puzzles.
(c) Share market transactions in which delivery of stocks and
shares is intended to be given and taken.
(d) A contract of insurathese
4. An agreement to do an impossible act is -
(a) void
(b) voidable
(c) illegal
(d) enforceable under certain circumstances
5. A wagering agreement is
(a) forbidden by law
(b) immoral
(c) opposed to public policy
(d) moral
6. A contract of insurance is a –
(a) Contract of guarantee
(b) Contingent contract
(c) Wagering agreement
(d) unilateral agreement
7. Which of the following are contingent contracts ?
(a) Contracts of insurance
(b) Contracts of guarantee
(c) Contracts for the sale of goods
(d) Wagering agreements
8. A contingent contract is –
(a) Void
(b) Valid
(c) Illegal
(d) voidable
9. A contracts to pay B RS.10,000 if B’s house is burnt. This is a –
(a) Wagering agreement
(b) void agreement
(c) Voidable agreement
(d) contingent contract
10. A agrees to pay B RS. 2,000 if a certain ship does not return at
Mumbai Port within a year. A’s promise can be enforced when the ship
–
(a) Arrives Mumbai in a damaged condition during the years
(b) Is lost during the year
(c) is sunk during the years
(d) Arrives Mumbai in a good condition during the year
11. A quasi-contract –
(a) Is a contract
(b) Is an agreement
(c) Creates only a legal obligation
(d) is none of these
12. When an agreement is discovered to be void, any person who has
received any advantage under such agreement –
(a) Is bound to restore it
(b) Is not bound to return it
(c) Is not bound to restore it
(d) May retain it
13. A minor has been supplied necessaries on credit –
(a) He is not liable
(b) His estate is liable
(c) He is personally liable
(d) He is not personally liable
14. A person who finds good belonging to another and takes them into
his custody. Is subject to the same responsibility as a-
(a) Bailee
(b) Bailor
(c) Thief
(d) True owner
15. A finder of lost goods is a –
(a) Bailor
(b) True owner
(c) True owner
(d) Bailee
16. Quantum Meruit means –
A. An implied promise
B. As much as is paid
C. A non-gratuitous promise
D. as much as is earned
17. E-Contract means contract formed in------Form.
A. Electronic
B. 10A
C. Signed
D. Originator
18. Section------ has been incorporated by Information Technology
(Amendment) Act, 2008 which confer the validity on contracts formed
in the e-form.
A. Electronic
B. 10A
C. Signed
D. Originator
19. An electronic or digital contract is an agreement “drafted” and-----In
an electronic form.
A. Electronic
B. 10A
C. Signed
D. Originator
20. In E-contract, the promisor who is------ of E-proposal.
A. Electronic
B. 10A
C. Signed
D. Originator
UNIT NO:- 3. SPECIAL CONTRACTS
1. In a contract of Indemnity, minimum _________ parties
are necessary.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 1
2. Definition of Indemnity is not _____.
A. Exhaustive
B. Damage
C. Contingent
D. Cost
3. A contract of Indemnity is a __________ contract.
A. Contingent
B. 2
C. Surety
D. Indemnified
4. A contract of guarantee is also called a contract of
________.
A. Suretyship
B. Future
C. Discharge
D. Secondary
5. The liability of the surety is ______.
A. Secondary
B. Primary
C. Compulsory
D. Jointly
6. The liability of the co sureties are ________.
A. Joint
B. Several
C. Secondary
D. Indemnity
7. In a contract of guarantee there are ______ parties.
A. 1
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8
8. In case of continuing guarantee that of the surety
discharges the _________ transactions.
A. Future
B. Forward
C. Backward
D. Constant
9. Discharges of the principal debtor will _____ the surety.
A. Discharge
B. Subrogation
C. Indemnity
D. Extensive
10. Release of one co surety will not ______ other cosureties.
A. Joint
B. Several
C. Discharge
D. Secondary
11. In bailment only _______ of goods is transferred from
bailor and Bailee.
A. Possession
B. Gratuitous
C. Reasonable
D. Consideration
12. During bailment, bailee is required to take _______ care
of the goods bailed.
A. Reasonable
B. Considerable
C. Position
D. Secondary
13. Any accretion to the goods bailed belongs to the
_______.
A. Bailor
B. Bailee
C. Partners
D. Company
14. The finder of goods is in the same position as that of the
______ .
A. Bailee
B. Bailor
C. Movable
D. Lien
15. In pledge ________ is given as security for payment of
debt of performance of the promise.
A. Movable
B. Position
C. Lien
D. Reward
UNIT NO:- 4. The sales of goods act , 1930
1. The sales of goods act is ______.
A. 1903
B. 1923
C. 1930
D. 1932
2. Seller is a person who ____.
A. Sales
B. Agrees to sales
C. Retailer
D. Both a and b
3. Meaning of deliverable state ___.
A. Seller has to do something
B. Buyer has to do something
C. Seller has done what is required
D. State at which buyer cannot refuse to take possession.
4. Which is not goods ____.
A. Dog
B. Shares
C. Valid Indian currency
D. Ship
5. Hire purchase is governed by _____.
A. Sales of goods act 1972
B. Transfer of property act 1963
C. Hire purchase agreement 1972
D. Indian contract act 1872
6. Condition is a stipulation that is ______.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Collateral
D. Irrelevant
7. Implied condition are stipulation ____.
A. Assume to be present
B. Assume to be absent
C. Parties want it
D. Partly oral partly written
8. Warranty is a stipulation that is ____.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Incidental
D. Irrelevant
9. Breach of a warranty leads to ______.
A. Repudiation of a contract
B. Cannot repudiate the contract
C. Can claim damage
D. B & C
10. Doctrine of caveat emptor places the burden of the
_______.
A. Seller
B. Buyer
C. Third party
D. Government.
UNIT NO:- 5. The negotiable instrument act, 1881
1. Person coming forward to accept after it has been
dishonour by non payment is called_______.
A. Acceptor for honour
B. Acceptor for payment
C. Payment for honour
D. Holder
2. Nothing is to be done by ____.
A. Parties themselves
B. Notary public
C. District judge
D. Judge of the High court.
3. Who is not party to a cheque?
A. Drawer
B. Drawee
C. Acceptor
D. Payee
4. Which is valid acceptance of a bill of
exchange______.
A. Oral
B. Written without signature
C. Sign by Drawee
D. Acceptor
5. For what term of imprisonment and offender under
section 138 of the negotiable instrument act can be
punished?
A. 2 years
B. 1 Years
C. 3 Years
D. 5 years
6. The undertaking contained in a promissory note, to
pay a certain sum of money is _______.
A. Conditional
B. Unconditional
C. Circumstances
D. Durable
7. According to negotiable instrument act 1881, which
of the following is not a promissory note?
A. Promissory note payable to bearer.
B. Promissory note payable to the order of certain
person.
C. Table 2 or more promisees.
D. Payable to a specific person on demand.
8. A promissory note merrily acknowledging a debt is
_______.
A. Valid promissory note
B. Not a valid promissory note
C. May be a valid promissory note
D. May not be a valid promissory note
9. Under the negotiable instrument act, which of the
following refers to a written document by which a
right is created in favour of some person?
A. Promise
B. Instrument
C. Agreement
D. Contract
10. The term negotiable instrument is defined in a
negotiable instrument act 1881 under
section_______.
A. 12
B. 13
C. 13A
D. 31
ACHIEVERS COLLEGE OF COMMERCE & MANAGEMENT, KALYAN
Subject: Management Accounting Class: SYBCOM SEM III
_______________________________________________________________
Multiple Choice Question
1.Introduction to Management Accounting
1. The term management accounting was first coined in
a) 1960
b) 1950
c) 1945
d) 1955
2. The use of management accounting is
a) Optional
b) Compulsory
c) Legally obligatory
d) Compulsory to some and optional to others
3. Management accounting assists the management
a) Only in control
b) Only in direction
c) Only in planning
d) In planning, direction and control
4. Who coined the concept of management accounting?
a) R.N Anthony
b) James H. Bliss
c) J. Batty
d) American Accounting Association
5. The assessment of financial statements by a shareholder is an example of
a) Vertical Analysis
b) Horizontal Analysis
c) Internal Analysis
d) External Analysis
6. Management accounting information is generally prepared for
a) Managers b) Shareholders c) Creditors d) Government
7. Management Accounting reports are prepared
a) Quarterly b) Half Yearly c) Annually d) As and when required
8. Tactical Information is
a) Generated Internally b) Generated Externally
C) Generated both Internally & Externally d) Vertical Analysis
9. The users of management accounting information are
a) Managers b) Bankers c) Government d) Shareholder
10. Strategic information is required by
a) Middle Managers b) Top Managers c) Line managers d) Lower Managers
2. Study of Financial Statements
11. The assessment of financial statements by a shareholder is an example of
a) Vertical Analysis
b) Horizontal Analysis
c) Internal Analysis
d) External Analysis
12. The form of balance sheet is
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Horizontal and vertical
d) Horizontal or vertical
13. The term current asset doesn’t cover
a) Car
b) Debtors
c) Stock
d) Prepaid expenses
14. P&L statement is also known as
a) Statement of operations
b) Statement of income
c) Statement of earnings
d) statement of expenses
15. Fixed assets are Rs 5,00,000, current asset are Rs 3,00,000, current liabilities are Rs
1,00,000. There is no investment Capital employed will be
a) Rs 8,00,000 b) Rs 7,00,000 c) Rs 9,00,000 d) Rs
6,00,000
16. The intangible assets which do not have value are
a) Tangible assets b) Intangible assets
c) Fictitious Assets d) Current assets
17. Profit on sale of furniture is shown in vertical income statement under
a) Operating Income b) Non operating income
c) Operating Expenditure d) Non operating expenditure
18. Capital work in progress is disclosed under
a) Fixed Asset b) Current Asset c) Capital d) Intangible asset
19. General reserve is created out of
a) Profit b) Income c) Expenditure d) Dividend received
20. Income statement is a
a) Statement of working results b) Statement of Sources of Funds
c) Statement of Cash Flow d) Fund from operation
21. Authorised capital is
a) Minimum capital the company can raise
b) Maximum capital that can be raised as per the M/A
c) Optimum capital that can be raised
d) Needed capital
22. Natural resources like mines oil wells are
a) wasting assets b) ficitious assets
c) current assets d) intangible assets
23. Z ltd furnishes the following information:
Fixed assets - 10,00,000, Current assets- 5,00,000, Current Liabilities – 2,00,000,
capital employed is
a) Rs 13,00,000 b) Rs 15,00,000
b) c) Rs 17,00,000 d) Rs 12,00,000
24. Operating Profit is
a) Gross profit plus Operating Income
b) Gross Profit less operating expenses plus operating income
c) Gross profit less non – operating expenses
d) Gross profit plus operating losses
25. Income of the current year received in next year is shown in the balance sheet as
a) Income receivable b) Income Receivable in Advance
c) Fixed Asset d) Current Liability
3. Analysis and Interpretation of Financial Statements
26. In common size income statement the basis is
a) Total cost b) Net Profit c) Gross Profit d) Sales
27. Kumar Ltd. Reporter net sales Rs 9,00,000, Rs 9,90,000 and Rs 10,80,000 in the year
2013, 2014 and 2015. Of 2013 is the base year what is the trend % for 2015?
a) 120% b) 75% c) 80% d) 90%
28. Total current assets are Rs 30,000, Rs 54,000 and 66,000 in 2013, 2014 and 2015
respectively. If 2013 is the base year what is the % increase from 2013 to 2015?
a) 120% b) 125% c) 60% d) 50%
29. Cost of good sold for a company is Rs 30,00,000, Rs 24,00,000 and Rs 18,00,000 for
2015, 2014 and 2013 respectively. If 2013 is the base year the percentage increase in cost
of goods sold from 2013 to 2015 is
a) 66.67% b) 70% c) 50% d) 45%
30. Comparison of performance of a company over a period of time on the basis of base year
is known as
a) Cost benefit analysis b) Comparative Analysis
c) Trend analysis d) Common size analysis
31. Performance over two years can be understood from
a) Income statement b) Balance sheet
C) Comparative income statement d) Common size statement
32. Earliest year has to be considered as base year, the values of which are taken as 100 in
a) Balance sheet b) Income statement
C) Trend Analysis d) Comparative statement
33. Internal Analysis of financial statement is done by
a) Potential investors b) the owner or managers of the concern
C) Creditors and lenders d) Government
34. Following is not a quick asset
a) Loose tools b) Advance tax c) Bills receivables d) Interest Accrued
35. Inter firm and inter period comparison are made with the help of
a) Comparative Statement b) Common size statement
C) Trend Analysis d) Cash flow statement
36. Which type of analysis is a comparison of a companys financial condition and
performance across time?
a) Horizontal analysis b) Vertical analysis
c) Upward analysis d) Downward analysis
37. Trecking items over a series of years is practice called
a) Profitability analysis b) Ratio Analysis
C) Trend analysis d) Financial statement analysis
38. A change in an account balance from Rs 100 in year one to Rs 250 in year five can be
expressed in which way?
a) 150% b) 25 times c) 2.5:1 d) 25%
39. Which of the following will not result in an increase in net working capital?
a) Increase in cash b) Decrease in creditors
C) Decrease in Bank loan d) Decrease in inventory
4. Ratio Analysis and Interpretation
40. Liquid Ratio which is equal to the following is favorable
a) 2:1 b) 1:1 c) 1:3 d) 2:5
41. Fixed interest bearing funds do not include one of the following:
a) Debenture b) Long term Investment
c) Preference capital d) Public Deposit
42. The ratio that indicates ability of the company to pay urgent obligations immediately is
a) Current Ratio b) Debt equity ratio
c) Liquidity ratio d) Proprietary ratio
43. Stock working capital ratio is proportion between
a) Closing stock and working capital b) Opening stock and wrong capital
c) sales and working capital d) sales and current assets
44. Current ratio is 2.5 working capital is Rs 60,000 current assets will be
a) Rs 1,00,000 b) Rs 1,40,000 c) 50,000 d) Rs 1,25,000
45. Gross profit Rs 1,00,000, total Sales Rs 5,25,000 sales return Rs 25,000. Gross profit
ratio will be
a) 25% b) 21% c) 20% d) 28%
46. Sales are Rs 33,984, sales return Rs 380, opening stock Rs 1,378, closing stock Rs 1814,
Gross profit Rs 8,068. Stock turnover ratio will be
a) 10 times b) 12 times c) 15 times d) 16 times
47. Debt equity ratio is 1:2. Which of the following would increase:
a) Issue of debentures against purchase of fixed assets
b) Cash received from debtors
c) Payment to creditors
d) Purchase of goods on credit
48. Total debt Rs 9,00,000, capital employed Rs 12,00,000, current liabilities Rs 1,00,000.
Debt equity ratio will be
a) 2:1 b) 3:1 c) 1.5:1 d) 2.5:1
49. Working capital is Rs 1,20,000, total debt Rs 2,60,000, Long term debt Rs 2,00,000. The
current ratio is
a) 2:1 b) 1:1 c) 1.5:1 d) 3:1
50. Buying policies are judged by
a) Gross Profit Ratio b) Net profit ratio c) ROI d) P/E ratio
51. Higher current ratio and lower liquid ratio indicates higher incidence of
a) Inventory b) Cash c) Debtors d) Creditors
52. Standard interest coverage is
a) 4 times b) 6 times c) 7 times d) 15 times
5. Working Capital Management
53. Cash working capital is equal to
a) Cash & balance b) cash & bank balance plus stock
c) liquid assets d) cash cost of working capital
54. The organization which allows longer period of credit to debtors requires
a) More working capital b) lesser working capital
c) no working capital d) moderate working capital
55. The following is not a current liability
a) Creditors b) bank loan
c) Unclaimed dividend d) Outstanding wages
56. For estimation of working capital debtors are valued at
a) Cost b) Market value
c) Cost or at M.V depending upon the policy of the organization d) Fair Value
57. Longer the process period
a) Lesser will be the working capital b) larger will be the working capital
C) minimum will be the working capital d) moderate will be the working capital
58. Which of the following is not a factor that affects the composition of the working capital?
a) Nature of business b) Nature of Raw material used
C) Tax structure of the company d) Process technology used
59. The total current Asset without deducting the current Liabilities.
a) Gross Working capital b) Net Working Capital
C) Permanent Working Capital d) Temporary Working Capital
60. The minimum amount of working capital required to enable the concern to operate at the
lowest level of activity
a) Gross Working Capital b) Net Working Capital
C) Permanent Working Capital d) Temporary Working Capital
61. ____________ refers to idle funds which earns no return.
a) Shortage of working capital b) excess working capital
C) variable working capital d) fixed working capital
62. Which of the following is not an item of current liabilities?
a) Sundry creditors b) Advance from customer
C) Debenture d) Hire purchase dues
63. Cash Working capital includes
a) Fixed Assets less depreciation b) Debtors at sales value
C) Debtors at sales less profit margin d) Creditors at purchase cost less profit
margin
64. When activity is at higher level, the concern needs more working capital, which is known
as
a) Gross Working capital b) Net Working Capital
C) Permanent Working Capital d) Temporary Working Capital
65. When cash is received against overdraft from bank
a) There is an increase in Net Working Capital
b) There is an increase in Gross Working Capital
c) There is an increase in Gross working Capital
d) There is no effect on both the gross and the Net Working Capital
6. Capital Budgeting
66. The method which uses accrual accounting
a) Payback b) ARR c) NPV d) IRR
67. The method which does not consider investment profitability is
a) Payback b) ARR c) NPV d) IRR
68. The most reliable method for financing capital budget decisions
A) NPV b) ARR c) Payback d) Post audit method
69. M. Ltd is considering acquiring a plant. The purchase price is Rs 12,36,100. The
company believes that the net cash inflow of Rs 3,09,025 will be generated every year.
The plant will have to be replaced in eight years. The payback period is
a) 4 years b) 3 years c) 6 years d) 2 years
70. NPV of project A, B and C is Rs 25,000, Rs 38,000 and Rs 32,000 respectively. The
most profitable project is
A) A b) D c) C d) B
71. PV of cash inflow of a project is Rs 2,38,000 and investment is Rs 2,00,000. The PI is
A) 1.19 b) 1.20 c) 1.21 d) 1.40
72. NPV represents immediate increase in
A) Firms wealth b) firms profit c) efficiency d) solvency
73. Long term decision are called as
a) Capital budgeting b) Working capital decision
C)Future decision d) Past Decision
74. Capital Budgeting decisions involve huge amount of risk due to
a) Time factor b) Human Factor c) Money factor d) Natural Factor
75. Unless otherwise specifically mentioned the given sales are assumed to realized at
a) The end of the year b) the beginning of the year
C) end of the quarter d) Half Yearly
76. Starting of insurance business by L & T is a
a) Mutually exclusive decision ` b) Diversification decision
C) expansion business d) modernization decision
77. A project may be regarded as high risk project when
a) It has smaller variance of outcome but a high initial investment
b) It has larger variance of outcome and high initial investment
c) It has smaller variance of outcome and a low initial investment
d) It has larger variance of outcome and low initial investment
78. The span of time within which the investment made for the project will be recovered by
the net returns of the project is known as
a) Period of return
b) Payback period
c) Span of return
d) ARR
79. Where capital availability is unlimited and the projects are not mutually exclusive, for the
same cost of capital, following criterion is used
a) Net present value
b) Internal Rate of Return
c) Profitability Index
d) Any of the above
80. Which of the following criterion is often preferred
a) Net present value
b) Profitability index
c) Internal Rate of Return
d) Payback period
ACHIEVERS COLLEGE OF COMMERCE & MANAGEMENT,
KALYAN
Subject: Commerce III Class: SYBCOM SEM III
_______________________________________________________________
Multiple choice Question:
1. Introduction to Management
1. Henry Fayol stated _______ principles of Management
a) 14 b) 12 c) 10 d) 7
2. The principle of equity refers to _________.
a) Social justice b) Equality c) Disparities d) Scalar chain
3. “Management is the art of getting things done through people”. This definition on
management is stated by ______________.
a) Mary Parker Follet b) Harold Koontz
C) Peter Drucker d) Henry Faayol
4. Motion studies were undertaken by _______ under scientific management.
a) Frank Gilberth b) Fredrick Taylor
C) Hanery Gantt d) Peter Drucker
5. ___________ function of management facilitates SWOT analysis.
a) Planning b) Organizing c) Directing d) Controlling
6. The Top level managers require more of ___________ skills.
a) Conceptual b) Technical c) Directing d) Controlling
7. Professional managers place emphasis on _________.
a) Results b) activities c) formalities d) Order
8. Under differential piece rate system, F.W. Taylor recommended _______ rate.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
9. Dharma in sanskrit means ___________ in life.
a) Purpose b) Progress c) Passion d) Discipline
10. ___________ developed a theory of bureaucratic management.
a) Max Weber b) karl Marx c) Peter Drucker d) Mary Parker Follet
11. __________ is one of the dimensions of management stated by peter drucker.
a) Time b) Space c) Motion d) Speed
12. Authority refers to _________.
a) Power to take decisions b) reward for action
C) Unity of command d) Obligation.
13. _____________ was the first to define functions of management.
a) Henry fayol b) William Stanton c) Philip kotler d) Peter Drukcer
14. ________ refers to team spirit
a) Scalar chain b) Espirt de corps c) Equity d) Discipline
15. _______ skills are also called interpersonal skills
a) Human Relation b) Conceptual skills c) Technical d) Communication
16. _______ described 14 principles of management
a) Henry fayol b) Philip kotler c) Elton Mayo d) Max Weber
17. In what order do managers typically perform the managerial functions?
a) organising, planning, controlling, leading
b) planning, organising, leading, controlling
c) planning, organising, controlling, leading
d) organising, leading, planning, controlling
18. Coordinating people and human resources to accomplish organizational goals is the
process of
a) Directing b) Planning C) Leadership D) Management
19. Which of the following is not a principle by Henry Fayol?
a) Harmony not discord b) Division of work
C) Unity of command d) Discipline
20. Which of the following would be included in the "controlling function"?
a) explaining routines b) measuring results against corporate objectives.
C) giving assignments. D) setting standards.
2. Planning and Decision Making
21. The SWOT analysis is an important element of________________.
a) Planning b) Organising c) Directing d) Controlling
22. __________ is a single use plan.
a) Budget b) Mission c) Rules d) Vision
23. _______ is a time-table for activities.
a) Schedule b) Budget c) Procedure d) Discipline
24. _______are statements that guide in decision making.
a) Policies b) Rules c) Budget d) Mission
25. Generally, professional manager frame _____________plants.
a) Alternative b) Single c) General d) Specific
26. ______________refers to fixing lower targets.
a) Under-targeting b) Over-targeting
c) Balanced Targeting d) Lower target
27. Under _______ techniques, decisions are made on the basis of relationships between
two variables .
a) Linear Programming b) Simulation c) Network d) Voluntary
28. Quality circle is _________ group of employees.
a) Voluntary b) Designated c) Compelled d) General
29. ________ plans are meant for repeated use as and when the situations demands.
a) Standing b) Single Use c) General d) Abnormal
30. _______reflect the purpose and philosophy of the organisation.
a) Mission b) Vision c) Strategy d) Plan
31. ___________ is the orderly synchronising efforts of the subordinates.
a) Coordination b) Controlling c) Communication d) Technology
32. On the basis of___________ analysis the management sets the goals.
a) SWOT b) SWAP c) SWOB d) SMART
33. ____________ represents the return or reward for selecting the best alternative
decisions
a) Payoff Matrix b) Queuing Technique c) Simulation d) General
34. Under_________ manager intervenes only when employees fail to meet performance
standard.
a) MBE b) MBO c) MSA d) SWOB
35. _________Is a long term action plan for achieving the goals.
a) Rule b) Strategy c) Procedure d) Policies
36. ___________ involves a series of steps to perform a particular task.
a) procedure b) strategy c) policies d) Rule
37. In___________ objectives are set jointly by the management and the employees.
a) Management by exception b) management by objective
c) traditional management d) Modern Management
37. __________ is a modern programmed technique of decision making.
a) brainstorming b) simulation c) attribute listing d) Game Theory
38. __________is a non-programmed modern technique of decision making.
a) simulation b) Game Theory c) brainstorming d) Attribute
39. Objective Strategies and procedure are component of___________
a) planning b) decision making c) controlling d) Directing
40. Management by objectives was propounded by ______________.
a) Henry Fayol b) S.K. Chakravarty
c) Peter Drucker d) William Stanton
3. Organising
41. The objective of the organisation must be _______.
a) General b) Common c) Specific d) Normal
42. There must be __________ between authority and responsibility.
a) Equity b) Similarity c) Balance d) Different
43. Coordination means ______ in an organisation.
a) Cooperation b) Commonality
c) Interlinking of action d) Communication
44. The lower level managers co-ordinate the activities of ______.
a) Middle level b) top level c) subordinate d) Superior
45. Informal organisations make use of ____________ communication.
a) Upward b) Downward c) Grapevine d) Informal
46. There is lack of ________in line Organisation.
a) Decision Making b) Command c) Specilisation d) Expert
47. In line and staff organisation the staff executives are the _____________.
a) Doers b) Decision makers c) Advisors d) Planners
48. The Matrix organisation was first established in ____________in the Aerospace
industry.
a) India b) China c) USA d) Bangladesh
49. _________refers to the number of subordinates that can be managed effectively by one
superior
a) Unity of command b) Management by Objectives
c) Span of control d) Order
50. Departmentation by __________ is one of the bases of departmentation whereby the
organisation divides the organisation in two different units based on geographical zones.
a) Time b) Customer c) Area d) Location
51. Span of control has ____________ application.
a) Limited b) Narrow c) Universal d) Limited
52. In ___________ organisation there are many levels of Management.
a) Tall b) Flat c) Medium d) Friendly
53. Project organisation adopts the basis of _________departmentation.
a) Product b) Process c) Task Force d) Project
54. ____________refers to dispersal of authority throughout the organisation.
a) Decentralisation b) Delegation
c) Centralisation d) Authority
55. __________ is a process of grouping of jobs process and resources into logical units to
perform some organisational task.
a) Delegation of Authority b) Decentralisation
c) Departmentation d) Centralisation
56. Name the process which co-ordinates human efforts, assembles resources and integrates
both into a unified whole to be utilised for achieving specified objectives,
a) Management b) Planning c) Organising d) Directing
57. Identify the type of organisational structure which facilitates occupational
specialisation,
a) Functional structure b) Horizontal structure
c) Network structure d) Divisional structure
58. Identify the type of organisational structure which makes training of employees easier,
as the focus is only on a limited range of skills.
a) Network structure b) Divisional structure
c) Functional structure d) Matrix structure
59. This type of organisational structure is most suitable when the size of the organisation is
large, has diversified activities and operations require a high degree of specialisation,
a) Divisional structure b) Functional structure
c) Network structure d) Matrix structure
60. Rishabh has joined as a Creative Head in an entertainment company. He always ensures
that the work has been divided into small and manageable activities and also the
activities of similar nature are grouped together. Identify the related step in organising
process being mentioned in the above lines.
a) Identification and division of work b) Departmentalisation
c) Assignment of duties d) Establishing reporting relationships
4. Directing and Controlling
61. _______style of leadership aims at creating family atmosphere within the organisation.
a) Autocratic b) Consultative c) Paternalistic d) Situational
62. Nowadays professional managers adopt _________style of leadership.
a) Sociocratic b) Consultative c) Paternalistic d) Situational
63. ____________ the sum total of physical mental and social qualities.
a) Initiative b) Intelligence c) Personality d) Concept
64. __________ refers to interpersonal skills.
a) Administrative b) Conceptual c) Human d) Intelligence
65. ________ is a process of monitoring actual performance and taking corrective measures
if there are deviations.
a) Planning b) Organising c) Controlling d) Directing
66. _______control system enables manager to focus their attention on significant
deviation.
a) Critical Point b) Flexible c) Control by exception d) MBE
67. _______ is a statement of anticipated result.
a) Schedule b) MBO c) Budget d) MBE
68. _______technique helps to you expedite it highly Complex projects.
a) CPM b) MBO c) PERT d) HRA
69. ________technique is based on single time estimate for completion of activities.
a) PERT b) MBO c) CPM d) MBE
70. ________refers to the Systematic evaluation of the functioning performance and
effectiveness of Management.
a) MBO b) HRA c) Management Audit d) PERT
71. Which of the following is not a characteristic of directing?
a) Directing initiate action b) It is a continuous process
c) Flows from top to bottom d) Ensuring order & discipline
72. _______ is the process of guiding the efforts of employees to accomplish the desired
goal.
a) Supervision b) Directing c) Controlling d) Motivating
73. Informal communication is also called:-
a) Wheel communication b) Grapevine c) Verbal d) Visual
74. __________ is the process of influencing the behaviour of people making them strive
voluntarily towards achievement of goals
a) Motivation b) Communication c) Leadership d) Directing
75. Which of the following is not a feature of motivation?
a) It is an integral feeling b) Reduces absenteeism
c) Complex process d) Can be positive or negative
76. ________ is an example of esteem needs:-
(a) Status b) Self-fulfillment c) Hunger d) Pension
77. Which of the following is not a non-financial incentive?
a) Status b) Job enrichment c) Bonus d) Employee progress
78. Motivation is not
a) a complex process. b) related to satisfaction
c) an easy process. d) a goal-directed behaviour
79. Need hierarchy theory of motivation has been given by
a) Maslow. b) Fayol. c) Taylor. d) Koontz.
80. Which one of the following is a non-financial incentive?
a) Recognition b) Perquisite c) Retirement benefit d) Stock option
Achievers College of Commerce and Management, Night
Kalyan(W)
Subject: FC Class: SYBCOM SEM – III
MCQs
Module 1
1)What are the human rights?
a) Neglect Rights
b) Political Rights
c) Exploitation Rights
d) Violence Rights
2)What are not the violations of human rights.
a) Exploitations
b) Neglect
c) Violence
d) Service
3)Who is not consider the vulnerable groups.
a) Migrants
b) Refugees
c) Victims
d) Rich People
4)______ is a right or freedom which is guaranteed to citizens by a country’s
constitution.
a) Legal rights
b) Constitution rights
c) Human rights
d) Social rights
5)Constitutions rights of schedule castes is _____
a) Social safeguard
b) Non economic safeguards
c) Non-Political safeguards
d) Non service safeguard
6)Which is not a form of violations of rights of SCS
a) Problem of untouchability
b) Economic exploitation
c) Bonded labour
d) Displacement
7)Which is not violations of SCS?
a) Destruction of property
b) Murders
c) Humiliation
d) Land Alienation
8)What are the constitutions rights of ST?
a) article 164
b) article 341
c) article 19
d) article 20
9)Act of atrocities
a) 1989
b) 1976
c) 1986
d) 1999
10)Forest conservation act,
a. 1980
b. 1987
c. 1988
d. 1989
11)Which is not a violation of ST?
a) Land alienation
b) Displacement
c) Bonded labour
d) Denial from voting
12) Which is not a legal right of women?
a) Sexual harassment of women at workplace
b) Protection of women
c) Legal services
d) Juvenile Justice
13) ____________ recognizes the rights of women to inherit parental property
equally with men
a) Hindu Succession Act
b) Hindu Marriage Act
c) Equality Act
d) Family courts Act
14)Article that supports elderly person
a) article 41
b) article 42
c) article 43
d) article 44
15)There have been ___ amendments to the constitutions till now.
A. 103
b. 112
c. 101
d. 121
Module 2
1) Disaster of __ groups
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 7
2) Hybrid disaster occurs ________
a) Natural
b) Manmade
c) Anthropogenic
d) Industrial
3) Which is not Features of disasters
a) Borderless
b) Loss
c) Unusual event
d) Extent is certain
4) ___________ is a sudden violent shaking of the surface of the earth.
a) Cyclone
b) Hurricane
c) Earthquake
d) Drought
5) Which is a Psychological effect
a) Headaches
b) Ulcers
c) Sleep disorder
d) Depression
6) Which is not a behavioural symptom
a) Excessive smoking
b) Burnout
c) Aggression
d) Absenteeism from work
7) When Maharashtra floods occurs ______
a) July 2006
b) July 2008
c) July 2005
d) July 2004
8) ______________ efforts attempt to prevent hazards from developing into
disasters.
a) Prevention
b) Mitigation
c) Disasters Preparedness
d) Recovery
9) _________ is to restore the affected area to its previous state.
a) Prevention
b) Mitigation
c) Disasters Preparedness
d) Recovery phase
10)__________ must be provided for disaster preparedness.
a) Stockpiling
b) Training
c) Planning
d) casualty predictions
11)Which is not an element of the prevention phase.
a) Risk analysis
b) Disaster Management Action Plan
c) Disaster Warning
d) Education and training
12)When the Chlorine gas leakage in sewri (Mumbai).
a) July 2011
b) July 2010
c) July 2009
d) July 2005
13) Ful form of PTSD
a) Past Traumatic Stress Disorder
b) Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
c) Past Tsunami Stress Disorder
d) Post Tsunami Stress Disorder
14) _____________ are vents allow lava, rock fragments and gases to escapes
from layers beneath the earth’s surface.
a) Volcanoes
b) Hurricanes
c) Cyclones
d)Avalanche
15) Land Related disaster are ______.
a) Landslides
b) Droughts
c) Storms
d) Tidal waves
Module 3
1) Period of john Locke
A) 1632-1727
b) 1600-1631
c) 1700-1727
d) 1735-1825
2) How many myths in exploding science are
a) 8
b) 10
c) 15
d) 5
3) Positive impact of technology
a) Memory
b) Banking
c) Addiction
D) Fake news
4)___________ gave the world his three laws of planetary motions.
a) Johan Kepler
b) Francis Bacon
c) William Harvey
d) Galileo Galilei
5) __________ emphasized the importance of induction as a part of the
scientific method.
a) Johan Kepler
b) Francis Bacon
c) William Harvey
d) Galileo Galilei
6)____________ was one of the three most famous Empiricists.
a) Isaac Newton
b) George Berkeley
c) David Hume
d) Johan Kepler
7)Full form of CAD
a) Computer-aided disc
b) Computer-air Disc
c) Computer-aided design
d) Computer-air Design
8) Which is not a negative impact of technology.
a) Addiction
b) Cyber Crimes
c) Changing in life style
d) Effect on money
9) which is not a positive impact of technology.
a) Changes in Banking
b) Online Reservation
c) Health standards
d) Spread of fake news
10)New technologies advances may lead to new ________
a) Technological applications
b) Scientific discoveries
c) Instrumental application
d) Inspirational Relationship
11) Becoming members of NGOs to promote harmony is a part of __________
a) Role of media
b) Role of Religious leader
c) Role of Youth
d) Role of politics leader
12) Looting and arson by anti-social elements during civils riots is a part of
_________.
a) Harmony
b) Tolerance
c) Blinds beliefs
d) Science in exploding
13) Which is a positive impact of technology.
a) Effect on Environment
b) Cyber crimes
c) Flexible Workings Hours
d) Sleep Deprivation
14) Which is a negative impact of technology.
a) Psychological Disorder
b) Technology in education
c) Changes in modes of communication
d) Health standard
15)___________ using fake email message to get personal information frpm
internet.
a) Identity theft
b) Hacking
c) Phishing
d) Charity fraud
Module 4
1)Semantic barrier includes
a) Perception
b) Slanting
c) Filtering
d) Languages
2) Honest, Ethical, High morals are parts of ____ in soft skills.
a) Communication skills
b) Flexibility
c) Integrity
d) Courtesy
3) Optimistic, enthusiastic, encouraging, confident are parts of ______ in soft
skills.
a) Teamwork
b) Positive attitude
c) Ethics
d) Responsibility
4)How much time people spend on listening in any organisation.
a) 70-80%
b) 80-85%
c) 60-65%
d) 90-95%
5)Which is an advantage of oral communication.
a) Problem of distance
b) Lacks accountability
c) Less expensive
d) Problem of feedback
6) Which is a disadvantage of written communication.
a) Lacks planning
b) Expensive
c) Lacks legal validity
d) Problem of distance
7) Gestures is a part of _____Language.
a) Sign
b) Silence
c) Body
d) Para
8) Volume Variation is a ________type of para languages.
a) Word stress
b) Pause
c) Influences
d) Voice
9)According the Edward Hall – Social space indicate ______.
a) 18 inches to 4 feet
b) 4 feet to 12 feet
c) 12 feet to 18 feet
d) zero to18 inches
10) __________ is the recognition of one’s own feeling or emotions and how
they affect one’s performance.
a) Self confidence
b) Accurate self- assessment
c) Emotional Self awareness
d) Self-reflection
11) Communication between the departments or persons on the same level in
organisation is called ______
a) Diagonal communication
b) Upward communication
c) Downward communication
d) Horizontal communication
12) Flow of communication from Lower to upper levels in the organisation.
a) Diagonal communication
b) Upward communication
c) Horizontal communication
d) Downward communication
13) Words like – thank you, sorry for interruption, excuse me etc are show
towards ___________other.
a) Communication skills
b) Ethics
c) Convincing skills
d) Courtesy
14) ___________ is a Guidelines for during the interview.
a) Dress
b) Ask for feedback
c) Eye contact
d) Preparation
15) Five steps for process of Team building,
a) Collection of data-analysis of data-action-identify the problem-resolve the
problem.
b) Identify the problem- collection of data-analysis of data-resolve the
problem-action.
c) Identify the problem- analysis of data-action- collection of data-resolve the
problem.
d)Action-resolve the problem – analysis the data-collection of data-identify the
problem.
ACHIEVERS COLLEGE OF COMMERCE & MANAGEMENT
KALYAN Class: S.Y.Bcom Subject: Business Economics (Semester-3 Regular)
Module 1 : Introduction
1. Macroeconomics deals with______
a) individual income
b) individual output
c) individual savings
d) general price level
2. Which of the following is not a scope of macroeconomics _____.
a) National income
b) Business Cycle
c) Elasticity of demand & supply
d) General price level
3. The following is not the subject matter of macroeconomics ______.
a) National income accounting
b) Law of demand & supply
c) Business Cycle
d) General Price Level
4. Macroeconomics is not concerned with ______.
a) National income accounting
b) International trade
c) Inflation
d) Equilibrium of an individual firm
5. National Product = National Dividend = ______
a) Profit
b) Wages
c) National Expenditure
d) National Employment
6. Real flow is the movement of _____.
a) factor services & movement of goods & services
b) only goods & services
c) only factor services
d) money
7. _____ is a leakage from the circular flow of aggregate income & expenditure.
a) Taxes
b) Investments
c) Exports
d) Government Expenditure
8. ____ constitute an injection in the circular flow of Income.
a) Exports
b) Savings
c) Taxes
d) Imports
9. In a circular flow economy firms supply _____.
a) labour
b) goods & services
c) land
d) capital
10. Which of the following is not a method of estimating national income ?
a) product method
b) export-import method
c) income method
d) expenditure method
11. In India, National Income is computed by
a) Ministry of finance
b) Central statistical organisation
c) planning commission
d) Indian statistical Institute
12. National income is the flow of goods and servicesproduced in an economy in
course of ______.
a) a year
b) a month
c) six month
d) quarterly
13. Which of the following is the sum of all income actually received by the
people in the country?
a) Personal income
b) Gross Domestic Product
c) National income
d) Gross National Income
14. When national output rises, the economy is said to be in ______.
a) An expansion
b) An inflation
c) A deflation
d) A recession
15. Cyclical fluctuations are ____ in nature.
a) Recurrent
b) Long term
c) Rare
d) Short term
Module 2: Basic Concept of Keynesian Economics
16. The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money was written by ____.
a) Adam Smith
b) Alfred Marshall
c) J. M. Keynes
d) Paul Samuelson
17. Keynesian economics adopts ____ view.
a) Short term
b) Medium term
c) Secular term
d) Long term
18. The components of effective demand are ____.
a) C + I
b) C + I + G
c) C + G
d) I + G
19. According to Keynes in order to increase employment we have to increase
aggregate _____ .
a) Supply
b) Output
c) Demand
d) Investment
20. Average propensity to consume = ___.
a) DC/AY
b) S/Y
c) C/Y
d) DS/Y
21. Marginal propensity to consume = _____.
a) C/Y
b) S/Y
c) DS/DY
d) DC/DY
22. According to Keynes, MPC is _____.
a) 0>MPC>1
b) 0=MPC=1
c) 0<MPC<1
d) 0<MPC>1
23. When income equals consumption, savings will be _____.
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Infinity
24. MPC is always_____.
a) Positive but less than one
b) Positive but greater than one
c) Equal to one
d) Equal to infinity
25. _____ investment does not change with the changes in the income.
a) Induced
b) Autonomous
c) Real
d) Financial
26. By the term investment, Keynes means ____ investment.
a) real
b) induced
c) autonomous
d) financial
27. MEC is symbolically expressed as _____.
a) Q/S
b) Q/J
c) Q/D
d) Q/P
28. MEC refers to _____
a) consumption
b) Saving
c) expected rate of profit
d) expected rate of interest
29. MPC + MPC is equal to _____.
a) 2
b) 0
c) -1
d) 1
30. Multiplier is directly related to ____
a) MPC
b) MPS
c) APS
d) APC
Module 3 : Post Keynesian Development in Macro Economics
31. The IS curve is a _____
a) Upward sloping curve
b) Parallel to Y axis
c) Downward sloping curve
d) Parallel to X axis
32. Which of the following is the slope of LM curve ?
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Vertical
d) Horizontal
33. The LM curve ____.
a) Is vertical
b) Slopes downward
c) Slopes upward
d) Is horizontal
34. The LM curve represents the equilibrium in the _____.
a) goods market
b) money market
c) labour market
d) foreign market
35. Monetary policy operates through shifts in _____.
a) demand curve
b) supply curve
c) IS curve
d) LM curve
36. Rise in oil price shift the aggregate supply curve to the ______.
a) left
b) upward
c) right
d) backward
37. The demand side factors of stagflation shift the aggregate demand curve to the
_____.
a) left
b) backward
c) right
d) upward
38. The economist who stress on supply-side of market and supply management
are called as _____.
a) Supply -siders
b) Demand -siders
c) Price -siders
d) Output -siders
39. _____ has shown the relationship between tax rates and tax revenues with the
help of Laffer curve.
a) Adam smith
b) David Ricardo
c) Arthur Laffer
d) J.M. Keynes
40. ______ shows the relationship between tax rates and tax revenue.
a) offer Curve
b) demand curve
c) supply curve
d) laffer curve
41.Supply side economics aims at increasing government revenue by _____.
a) reducing taxes
b) increasing taxes
c) reducing prices
d) increasing prices
42. Laffer curve explains the relationship between _____.
a) tax rate & tax revenue
b) inflation & wage rate
c) interest rate & investment
d) income & saving
43. ____ explains the relationship between unemployment rate and inflation rate.
a) Engel curve
b) Offer curve
c) Phillips curve
d) Laffer curve
44. The short-run Phillips curve slopes _____.
a) Upward
b) Downward
c) Vertically
d) horizontally
45. Long run Phillips curve is ____ line.
a) upward
b) downward
c) vertical
d) horizontal
Module 4 : Money , Price & Inflation
46. When money supply is viewed over a period of time it is a _____.
a) stock of money
b) flow concept
c) solid concept
d) liquid concept
47. The velocity of circulation of money will be high during period of _____.
a) Prosperity
b) Recession
c) Recovery
d) Trough
48. If M = Rs 100, V = 20 the total money supply will be ____.
a) 5
b) 2000
c) 120
d) 80
49. Velocity of circulation of money is measured : ____
a) at given moment of time
b) over a year
c) over a decade
d) in an economy
50. Money supply will increase when there is _____.
a) increasing in CRR & SLR
b) decrease in CRR & SLR
c) a surplus budget
d) a rise in public debt
51. According to Fisher’s equation of exchange the demand for money is given by:
a) MV =T
b) MV = PT
c) V = PT
d) M = T
52. The transaction demand for money is ____.
a) Interest determined
b) Income determined
c) Consumption determined
d) Savings determined
53. Demand for transactionary motive and precautionary motive mainly depends
upon ____
a) level of income
b) rate of interest
c) investment
d) tax rate
54. _____ was the originator of the idea of the quantity theory of money.
a) J.M. Keynes
b) Samuelson
c) Davanzatti
d) David Ricardo
55. The Marshallian quantity theory of money ____
a) M = KPY
b) M = KPR
c) M = KRZ
d) M = JPY
56. Deflation is just the opposite of _____
a) Inflation
b) Relfation
c) Disinflation
d) Hyperinflation
57. During inflation , RBI would tighten the _____ policy.
a) Fiscal
b) EXIM
c) Industrial
d) Monetary
58. During inflation, ____ gain.
a) Debtors
b) Creditors
c) Fixed income earners
d) Poor
59. Large budget deficits lead to ____ problem.
a) Inflation
b) Monetary Policy
c) Trade Policy
d) Industrial Policy
60. During inflation , RBI would tighten the _____ policy.
a) Fiscal
b) EXIM
c) Industrial
d) Monetary