Achievers College of Commerce and Management,

Kalyan (w)

Subject: - Accountancy & Financial Management (Sem III)

Class: - SY.BCOM

Module 1. Partnership Final Accounts

1. The person's forming the partnership are called individually___________

A. Agents

*B. Partners*

C. Shareholders

D. Owners

2. In case of Fixed capital method following accounts are prepared

A. Current A/c

B. Capital A/c

C. Cash A/c

*D. Current A/c & Capital A/c*

3. If the partnership deed is silent about the method of keeping capital accounts,the accounts

will be kept under..........

*A. Fluctuating capital method*

B. Fixed capital method

C. Constant capital method

D. Partners capital method

4. ...... % will be applicable on Interest on loans/Advances.

A. 16%

B. 7%

*C. 6%*

D. 5%

5. Any amount payable to a partner should be treated as......

A. Profit

B. Commission

C. Appropriation

D. Salary

6. A partnership firm is _______ on conversion into a Ltd. Company.

*A. Dissolved*

B. Survived

C. Started

D. Activated

7. A partnership firm has _____ capital

*A. Limited*

B. Unlimited

C. Fixed

D. Huge

8. Partner acts as an___________

*A. Agent of the firm*

B. Employee of the firm

C. Third party

D. Colleague

9. Interest on Capital is paid to Partners vide agreement out of _________

A. Past profit

B. Reserve

*C. Current profit*

D. Future profit

10. A partner's capital a/c shows________

*A. Credit Balance*

B. Debit Balance

C. No Balance

D. Zero Balance

11. Profit on sale of asset is_______

*A. credited to P & L a/c*

B. debited to P & L a/c

C. debited to assets a/c

D. credited to assets a/c

12. Stock is valued at ________

A. Stock

B. MV

*C. Cost or MV whichever is lower*

D. Book Value

13. Payment of rent to a partner is_________

A. appropriation of profit

*B. charge against income*

C. capital

D. salary

14. Interest on Capital is debited to__________

A. Trading A/c

B. P & L A/c

*C. P & L Appropriation A/c*

D. Capital A/c

15. Gross profit is transferred to ________/

A. Trading A/c

*B. P & L A/c*

C. P & L Appropriation A/c

D. Capital A/c

Module 2. Piecemeal Distribution of Cash

1. If there are four liabilities e.g creditors, Rs 10,000 Bills payable Rs 5,000 outstanding

expenses Rs 10,000, other loan Rs 5,000 and cash available is Rs 15,000.

A. First pay Rs 10,000 to creditor and Rs 5,000 to Bills Payable

B. First pay Rs 10,000 to outstanding expenses and Rs 5,000 to other loan.

C. Pay Rs 5,000 ,Rs 2,500 ,Rs 5,000 , Rs 2,500 in due ratio 2:1:2:1

D. First pay Rs 10,000 to other Loan only

2. If X loan Rs 12,000 and Y loan is Rs 8,000. Both are partners. Profit sharing ratio is 5:4 .

Cash available Rs 9,000. How would you pay?

A. Rs 5,400 to X loan ,Rs 3,600 to Y loan

B. Rs 5,000 to X loan , Rs 4,000 to Y loan

C. Rs 9,000 to X loan

D. Rs 8,000 to Y loan

3. Bank loan is Rs 30,000 secured against stock and stock sold for Rs 25,000 ,Balance Rs

5,000 is_____

A. Secured

B. Unsecured

C. Fixed

D. Partly secured

4. Partner's loan is_____

A. Internal Liability

B. External Liability

C. Secured Liability

D. Unsecured Liability

5. Employees dues are ___

A. Preferential Liabilities

B. External Liabilities

C. Contingent Liabilities

D. Secured Liabilities

6. Takeover of liability by a partner is____

A. Added to capital of a partner

B. Deducted from capital of a partner

C. Neglected

D. Considered

7. East, West and South are partners sharing in the ratio of 3:3:2. Their capitals are Rs

24,000, Rs 15,000 & Rs 9,000 respectively. Which partner has ultimate surplus____

A. South

B. West

C. East

D. North

8. General Reserve should be____

A. Distributed in PSR

B. Distributed in capital ratio

C. Not distributed among the partners

D. Distributed in gross ratio

9. Realisation of assets on dissolution is_____

A. Sudden

B. Gradual

C. Unexpected

D. Expected

10. A,B and C are partners sharing P & L in the ratio of 3:2:1. Their capitals are Rs 60,000

,Rs 40,000, Rs 25,000 respectively. Creditors are Rs 90,000 and Bank Overdraft Rs 30,000

Cash realised is Rs 75,000. The payment to creditors will be Rs ____

A. 56,250

B. 18,750

C. 20,000

D. 18,000

11. X and Y are partners sharing Profits and Losses in the ratio of 2: 1. Their Capital is Rs

6,000 and Rs 8,000 respectively. The Capital ratio will be.

A. 3:4

B. 4:3

C. 2:1

D. 1:1

12. Realisation A/C is prepared in case of _____

A. Admission

B. Retirement

C. Death

D. Dissolution

13. Bills under discount is a_____

A. Contingent Liability

B. Non-current liability

C. Current liabilty

D. Fixed liability

14. The unpaid balance on Capital accounts represents_____

A. Part of the realisation

B. Loss of the realisation

C. Profit of the realisation

D. No part of the realisation

15. Excess capital method is known as____

A. Purchase Consideration

B. Net Asset Method

C. Net Payment Method

D. Highest Relative Method.

Module 3. Amalgamation of Firms

1. Goodwill written off is debited to __________

*A. All partners capital account*

B. Goodwill account

C. Realisation account

D. Drawing account

2. Amalgamation is dealt with by_________

*A. AS 14*

B. AS 16

C. AS 18

D. AS 3

3. Profit or loss on Realisation is distributed among the partners in_____________

*A. PSR*

B. Claim ratio

C. Capital ac

D. Benefit ratio

4. On amalgamation General Reserve distributed among the _________

*A. Old partners in old ratio*

B. Old partners in New ratio

C. New partners in old ratio

D. New partners in New ratio

5. Profit on Realisation A/c is_________

*A. Credited to Partner's capital A/c*

B. Debited to Partner's capital A/c

C. Ignored

D. Considered

6. On amalgamation goodwill of both goodwill of both the firm's is_________

*A. Ignored*

B. Valued separately

C. Valued at cost

D. Book value

7. Amalgamation is__________

*A. Merger of businesses*

B. Dissolution of firms

C. Liquidation of business

D. Establishment of business

8. Take over of asset by a partner is debited to_________

A. Realisation Account

*B. Partner's capital Account*

C. Bank Account

D. Cash Account

9. Excess of Net Asset over Purchase Consideration is_________

*A. Capital Reserve*

B. Goodwill

C. Capital

D. Drawing A/c

10. Assets are transferred to Realisation A/C at________

*A. Book Value*

B. Cost

C. Market Value

D. Normal value

11. Realisation expenses are__________

A. Debited to Bank Account

*B. Debited to Realisation Account*

C. Credited to Capital Account

D. Debited to Assets Account

12. Liabilities assumed by partners are___________

*A. Debited to Realisation Account*

B. Debited to Revaluation Account

C. Debited to Partner's capital Account

D. Credited to Bank Account

13. Purchase Consideration is the amount ___________

*A. Payable by new firm to old firm*

B. Payable by old firms to Partner

C. Payable by one firm to another firm

D. Payable by one firm to third-party

14. Liabilities not taken over by the new firm (at the time of amalgamation ) will be

transferred to_________

A. New Firm Account

B. Profit & Loss Adjustment Account

*C. Capital Account*

D. Profit & Loss Account

15. In case of amalgamation__________

A. goodwill of both the firms is ignored

*B. goodwill of both the firms is valued separately*

C. goodwill of both the firms is valued at cost

D. goodwill of both the firm is valued at BV

Module 4. Conversion/ Sale of a Partnership Firm into a Ltd. Company

1. A partnership firm has __________

A. Limited Capital

B. Limited Managerial Skill

C. Limited Liability

D. Limited Capital & Managerial Skill

2. The form of organization suitable for large scale business is _________

A. Sole Trader

B. Partnership Firm

C. Co-operative

D. Limited Company

3. On conversion of a firm into a Limited Company_____________

A. new company is formed

B. Old Firm is dissolved

C. New partner is admitted

D. New company is formed and old company is dissolved

4. As per Net Asset Method purchase consideration is equal to _______________

A. Gross Assets at Book Value

B. Liabilities at Book Value

C. Assets taken over at agreed value less liabilities taken over at agreed

D. None of the above

5. Purchase consideration may be settled in ____________

A. Cash only

B. Debentures of Ltd. Company only

C. Shares of Ltd. Company only

D. Cash/ Shares / Debentures of Ltd. Company

6. If cash balance is not taken over by a Ltd. Company it is transferred to __________

A. Realisation A/C

B. Revaluation A/C

C. P & L A/C

D. Cash/Bank A/c

7. Asset taken over by a partner is_________________

A. Debited to partner's capital A/C

B. Credited to partner's capital A/C

C. Debited to Realisation A/c

D. None of the above

8. General reserve is distributed among the partners in the ratio of __________

A. Profit Sharing

B. Capitals

C. Final Claims

D. Equally

9. Profit or loss on disposal of asset not taken over by a Ltd. Company is transferred to

________

A. Current A/c

B.P & L A/C

C. Capital Accounts

D. Realisation A/c

10. On takeover of unrecorded liability by a partner the A/c debited is –

A. Realisation A/c

B.P & L A/C

C. Capital Accounts

D. Current Accounts

11. Shares and Debentures received from the Ltd. Company are distributed among the

partners in their __________________

A. PSR

B. Capital ratio

C. Current ratio

D. Final Claim ratio

12. If purchase consideration is more than the net assets taken over,in the books of the

company taking over the firm, the difference is_________________

A. debited to Goodwill A/c

B. credited to Capital Reserves

C. debited to Securities Premium

D. credited to Goodwill A/c

13. Dissolution expenses paid by the company to the firm on conversion are _____________

A. debited to Deferred Revenue Expenditure A/c

B. credited to Capital Reserve A/c

C. debited to Goodwill A/c

D. credited to Goodwill A/c

14. Conversion of partnership into a limited company is referred to as_______________

A. Exchange

B. Sale

C. Transfer

D. Acquisition

15. Upon the conversion of partnership firm into a company, the legal actions of the company

is governed by ________________

A. Articles of Association

B. Partnership Deeds

C. Companies Act,2013

D. Memorandum of association

Achievers College of commerce and management , Kalyan.

Subject:- B.LAW

Class :- SYBCOM

UNIT NO :- 1. INDIAN CONTRACT ACT, 1872 Part-1.

1. Voidable contract can be avoided at the option of __________

A. Other or others

B. One or more

C. One or other

D. One or two

2. Consideration to a contract moves at the desire of____

A. Promiser

B. Promisee

C. Promise

D. Premise

3. Every illegal agreement is void but every void agreement is

not_______

A. Immoral

B. Illegal

C. opposed to public policy

D. legal

4. Past consideration is also called as______

A. Executory consideration

B. executed consideration

C. prospective consideration

D. legal consideration

5. when consent to the contract is not freely given and when it is

caused due to coercion influence fraud or misrepresentation contract

become_____

A. Void

B. voidable

C. illegal

D. legal

6.An agreement with or by a minor is -

A. Void

B. voidable at the option of the minor

C. voidable at the option of the other party

D. valid

7. On attaining the age of majority a minor’s agreement

A. Can be ratified by him-

B. cannot be ratified by him

C. becomes void

D. becomes valid

8. A minor by misrepresenting his age borrows some money-

A. He can be a sued for fraud

B. He cannot be sued for fraud

C. he is liable to return the money

D. He is not liable to return the money

9. A minor enters into a contract for the purchase of certain necessaries

in such a case-

A. he is not personally liable to pay

B. he is liable to pay

C. his eastate is liable to pay

D. his guardian is liable to pay

10. A person is usually of unsound mind but occasionally of sound

mind-

A. he may enter into a contract when he is of sound mind

B. he may not make a contract even when he is of sound mind

C. he cannot enter into a contract at all he can enter contract at all

D. he can enter into a contract at all he can enter contract at all

E.

11. A contract by an idiot is-

A. Voidable

B. enforceable

C. invalid

D. void ab initio

12. Contracts made before war with an alien enemy which are against

public policy are-

A. suspended and are revived after the war is over

B. dissolve

C. not affected at all

D. void ab initio

13. The contractual capacity of a company is regulated by-

A. its memorandum of association and the provision of the

companies act 1956

B. the terms of contract enter into with a third party

C. its article of association

D. its prospectus

14. The case of Mohiri bivi v. Dharmodas ghose (1903) 301 cal 539 deals

with

A. communication of offer

B. communication of acceptance

C. a minors agreement

D. fraud

15. Flaw incapacity to contract may arise from-

A. want to consideration

B. unsoundness of mind

C. illegally t of object

D. uncertainty of object

16. Consideration must move from the desire of-

A. the promisor

B. the promise

C. Promisor or any third party

D. any third party

17. Consideration-

A. must move from the promise

B. may move from the promise or any person

C. Promisor or any third party

D. Must be reasonal value

18. Consideration-

A. Must be adequate to the promise made

B. Need not be adequate to the promise made

C. Must be of reasonable value

D. Must be of more value than value of promise made

19. Consideration must be something which the promisor-

A. Is already bound to do

B. Is not already bound to do

C. May voluntarily do

D. Must not do

20. Compromise of dispute claims-

A. Is a good consideration for a contract

B. is not a good consideration for a contract

C. result in a void agreement

D. is not permitted by law

20.Consideration in a contract-

A. May be past present or future

B. may be present or future only

C. must be present only

D. must be future only

UNIT NO:- 2. INDIAN CONTRACT ACT , 1872.

Part-2

1. A contract of life insurance is-

A. a contract of indemnity

B. not a contract of indemnity

C. a wagering agreement

D. not a wagering agreement

2. An agreement the meaning of which is not certain is-

A. Void

B. voidable

C. valid

D. illegal

3. Which of the following are wagering agreements ?

(a) A crossword competition the prizes of which depend upon

correspondence of the competitors’ solution with a previously

prepared solution

(b) Picture puzzles.

(c) Share market transactions in which delivery of stocks and

shares is intended to be given and taken.

(d) A contract of insurathese

4. An agreement to do an impossible act is -

(a) void

(b) voidable

(c) illegal

(d) enforceable under certain circumstances

5. A wagering agreement is

(a) forbidden by law

(b) immoral

(c) opposed to public policy

(d) moral

6. A contract of insurance is a –

(a) Contract of guarantee

(b) Contingent contract

(c) Wagering agreement

(d) unilateral agreement

7. Which of the following are contingent contracts ?

(a) Contracts of insurance

(b) Contracts of guarantee

(c) Contracts for the sale of goods

(d) Wagering agreements

8. A contingent contract is –

(a) Void

(b) Valid

(c) Illegal

(d) voidable

9. A contracts to pay B RS.10,000 if B’s house is burnt. This is a –

(a) Wagering agreement

(b) void agreement

(c) Voidable agreement

(d) contingent contract

10. A agrees to pay B RS. 2,000 if a certain ship does not return at

Mumbai Port within a year. A’s promise can be enforced when the ship

–

(a) Arrives Mumbai in a damaged condition during the years

(b) Is lost during the year

(c) is sunk during the years

(d) Arrives Mumbai in a good condition during the year

11. A quasi-contract –

(a) Is a contract

(b) Is an agreement

(c) Creates only a legal obligation

(d) is none of these

12. When an agreement is discovered to be void, any person who has

received any advantage under such agreement –

(a) Is bound to restore it

(b) Is not bound to return it

(c) Is not bound to restore it

(d) May retain it

13. A minor has been supplied necessaries on credit –

(a) He is not liable

(b) His estate is liable

(c) He is personally liable

(d) He is not personally liable

14. A person who finds good belonging to another and takes them into

his custody. Is subject to the same responsibility as a-

(a) Bailee

(b) Bailor

(c) Thief

(d) True owner

15. A finder of lost goods is a –

(a) Bailor

(b) True owner

(c) True owner

(d) Bailee

16. Quantum Meruit means –

A. An implied promise

B. As much as is paid

C. A non-gratuitous promise

D. as much as is earned

17. E-Contract means contract formed in------Form.

A. Electronic

B. 10A

C. Signed

D. Originator

18. Section------ has been incorporated by Information Technology

(Amendment) Act, 2008 which confer the validity on contracts formed

in the e-form.

A. Electronic

B. 10A

C. Signed

D. Originator

19. An electronic or digital contract is an agreement “drafted” and-----In

an electronic form.

A. Electronic

B. 10A

C. Signed

D. Originator

20. In E-contract, the promisor who is------ of E-proposal.

A. Electronic

B. 10A

C. Signed

D. Originator

UNIT NO:- 3. SPECIAL CONTRACTS

1. In a contract of Indemnity, minimum _________ parties

are necessary.

A. 2

B. 4

C. 5

D. 1

2. Definition of Indemnity is not _____.

A. Exhaustive

B. Damage

C. Contingent

D. Cost

3. A contract of Indemnity is a __________ contract.

A. Contingent

B. 2

C. Surety

D. Indemnified

4. A contract of guarantee is also called a contract of

________.

A. Suretyship

B. Future

C. Discharge

D. Secondary

5. The liability of the surety is ______.

A. Secondary

B. Primary

C. Compulsory

D. Jointly

6. The liability of the co sureties are ________.

A. Joint

B. Several

C. Secondary

D. Indemnity

7. In a contract of guarantee there are ______ parties.

A. 1

B. 3

C. 6

D. 8

8. In case of continuing guarantee that of the surety

discharges the _________ transactions.

A. Future

B. Forward

C. Backward

D. Constant

9. Discharges of the principal debtor will _____ the surety.

A. Discharge

B. Subrogation

C. Indemnity

D. Extensive

10. Release of one co surety will not ______ other cosureties.

A. Joint

B. Several

C. Discharge

D. Secondary

11. In bailment only _______ of goods is transferred from

bailor and Bailee.

A. Possession

B. Gratuitous

C. Reasonable

D. Consideration

12. During bailment, bailee is required to take _______ care

of the goods bailed.

A. Reasonable

B. Considerable

C. Position

D. Secondary

13. Any accretion to the goods bailed belongs to the

_______.

A. Bailor

B. Bailee

C. Partners

D. Company

14. The finder of goods is in the same position as that of the

______ .

A. Bailee

B. Bailor

C. Movable

D. Lien

15. In pledge ________ is given as security for payment of

debt of performance of the promise.

A. Movable

B. Position

C. Lien

D. Reward

UNIT NO:- 4. The sales of goods act , 1930

1. The sales of goods act is ______.

A. 1903

B. 1923

C. 1930

D. 1932

2. Seller is a person who ____.

A. Sales

B. Agrees to sales

C. Retailer

D. Both a and b

3. Meaning of deliverable state ___.

A. Seller has to do something

B. Buyer has to do something

C. Seller has done what is required

D. State at which buyer cannot refuse to take possession.

4. Which is not goods ____.

A. Dog

B. Shares

C. Valid Indian currency

D. Ship

5. Hire purchase is governed by _____.

A. Sales of goods act 1972

B. Transfer of property act 1963

C. Hire purchase agreement 1972

D. Indian contract act 1872

6. Condition is a stipulation that is ______.

A. Primary

B. Secondary

C. Collateral

D. Irrelevant

7. Implied condition are stipulation ____.

A. Assume to be present

B. Assume to be absent

C. Parties want it

D. Partly oral partly written

8. Warranty is a stipulation that is ____.

A. Primary

B. Secondary

C. Incidental

D. Irrelevant

9. Breach of a warranty leads to ______.

A. Repudiation of a contract

B. Cannot repudiate the contract

C. Can claim damage

D. B & C

10. Doctrine of caveat emptor places the burden of the

_______.

A. Seller

B. Buyer

C. Third party

D. Government.

UNIT NO:- 5. The negotiable instrument act, 1881

1. Person coming forward to accept after it has been

dishonour by non payment is called_______.

A. Acceptor for honour

B. Acceptor for payment

C. Payment for honour

D. Holder

2. Nothing is to be done by ____.

A. Parties themselves

B. Notary public

C. District judge

D. Judge of the High court.

3. Who is not party to a cheque?

A. Drawer

B. Drawee

C. Acceptor

D. Payee

4. Which is valid acceptance of a bill of

exchange______.

A. Oral

B. Written without signature

C. Sign by Drawee

D. Acceptor

5. For what term of imprisonment and offender under

section 138 of the negotiable instrument act can be

punished?

A. 2 years

B. 1 Years

C. 3 Years

D. 5 years

6. The undertaking contained in a promissory note, to

pay a certain sum of money is _______.

A. Conditional

B. Unconditional

C. Circumstances

D. Durable

7. According to negotiable instrument act 1881, which

of the following is not a promissory note?

A. Promissory note payable to bearer.

B. Promissory note payable to the order of certain

person.

C. Table 2 or more promisees.

D. Payable to a specific person on demand.

8. A promissory note merrily acknowledging a debt is

_______.

A. Valid promissory note

B. Not a valid promissory note

C. May be a valid promissory note

D. May not be a valid promissory note

9. Under the negotiable instrument act, which of the

following refers to a written document by which a

right is created in favour of some person?

A. Promise

B. Instrument

C. Agreement

D. Contract

10. The term negotiable instrument is defined in a

negotiable instrument act 1881 under

section_______.

A. 12

B. 13

C. 13A

D. 31

ACHIEVERS COLLEGE OF COMMERCE & MANAGEMENT, KALYAN

Subject: Management Accounting Class: SYBCOM SEM III

_______________________________________________________________

Multiple Choice Question

1.Introduction to Management Accounting

1. The term management accounting was first coined in

a) 1960

b) 1950

c) 1945

d) 1955

2. The use of management accounting is

a) Optional

b) Compulsory

c) Legally obligatory

d) Compulsory to some and optional to others

3. Management accounting assists the management

a) Only in control

b) Only in direction

c) Only in planning

d) In planning, direction and control

4. Who coined the concept of management accounting?

a) R.N Anthony

b) James H. Bliss

c) J. Batty

d) American Accounting Association

5. The assessment of financial statements by a shareholder is an example of

a) Vertical Analysis

b) Horizontal Analysis

c) Internal Analysis

d) External Analysis

6. Management accounting information is generally prepared for

a) Managers b) Shareholders c) Creditors d) Government

7. Management Accounting reports are prepared

a) Quarterly b) Half Yearly c) Annually d) As and when required

8. Tactical Information is

a) Generated Internally b) Generated Externally

C) Generated both Internally & Externally d) Vertical Analysis

9. The users of management accounting information are

a) Managers b) Bankers c) Government d) Shareholder

10. Strategic information is required by

a) Middle Managers b) Top Managers c) Line managers d) Lower Managers

2. Study of Financial Statements

11. The assessment of financial statements by a shareholder is an example of

a) Vertical Analysis

b) Horizontal Analysis

c) Internal Analysis

d) External Analysis

12. The form of balance sheet is

a) Vertical

b) Horizontal

c) Horizontal and vertical

d) Horizontal or vertical

13. The term current asset doesn’t cover

a) Car

b) Debtors

c) Stock

d) Prepaid expenses

14. P&L statement is also known as

a) Statement of operations

b) Statement of income

c) Statement of earnings

d) statement of expenses

15. Fixed assets are Rs 5,00,000, current asset are Rs 3,00,000, current liabilities are Rs

1,00,000. There is no investment Capital employed will be

a) Rs 8,00,000 b) Rs 7,00,000 c) Rs 9,00,000 d) Rs

6,00,000

16. The intangible assets which do not have value are

a) Tangible assets b) Intangible assets

c) Fictitious Assets d) Current assets

17. Profit on sale of furniture is shown in vertical income statement under

a) Operating Income b) Non operating income

c) Operating Expenditure d) Non operating expenditure

18. Capital work in progress is disclosed under

a) Fixed Asset b) Current Asset c) Capital d) Intangible asset

19. General reserve is created out of

a) Profit b) Income c) Expenditure d) Dividend received

20. Income statement is a

a) Statement of working results b) Statement of Sources of Funds

c) Statement of Cash Flow d) Fund from operation

21. Authorised capital is

a) Minimum capital the company can raise

b) Maximum capital that can be raised as per the M/A

c) Optimum capital that can be raised

d) Needed capital

22. Natural resources like mines oil wells are

a) wasting assets b) ficitious assets

c) current assets d) intangible assets

23. Z ltd furnishes the following information:

Fixed assets - 10,00,000, Current assets- 5,00,000, Current Liabilities – 2,00,000,

capital employed is

a) Rs 13,00,000 b) Rs 15,00,000

b) c) Rs 17,00,000 d) Rs 12,00,000

24. Operating Profit is

a) Gross profit plus Operating Income

b) Gross Profit less operating expenses plus operating income

c) Gross profit less non – operating expenses

d) Gross profit plus operating losses

25. Income of the current year received in next year is shown in the balance sheet as

a) Income receivable b) Income Receivable in Advance

c) Fixed Asset d) Current Liability

3. Analysis and Interpretation of Financial Statements

26. In common size income statement the basis is

a) Total cost b) Net Profit c) Gross Profit d) Sales

27. Kumar Ltd. Reporter net sales Rs 9,00,000, Rs 9,90,000 and Rs 10,80,000 in the year

2013, 2014 and 2015. Of 2013 is the base year what is the trend % for 2015?

a) 120% b) 75% c) 80% d) 90%

28. Total current assets are Rs 30,000, Rs 54,000 and 66,000 in 2013, 2014 and 2015

respectively. If 2013 is the base year what is the % increase from 2013 to 2015?

a) 120% b) 125% c) 60% d) 50%

29. Cost of good sold for a company is Rs 30,00,000, Rs 24,00,000 and Rs 18,00,000 for

2015, 2014 and 2013 respectively. If 2013 is the base year the percentage increase in cost

of goods sold from 2013 to 2015 is

a) 66.67% b) 70% c) 50% d) 45%

30. Comparison of performance of a company over a period of time on the basis of base year

is known as

a) Cost benefit analysis b) Comparative Analysis

c) Trend analysis d) Common size analysis

31. Performance over two years can be understood from

a) Income statement b) Balance sheet

C) Comparative income statement d) Common size statement

32. Earliest year has to be considered as base year, the values of which are taken as 100 in

a) Balance sheet b) Income statement

C) Trend Analysis d) Comparative statement

33. Internal Analysis of financial statement is done by

a) Potential investors b) the owner or managers of the concern

C) Creditors and lenders d) Government

34. Following is not a quick asset

a) Loose tools b) Advance tax c) Bills receivables d) Interest Accrued

35. Inter firm and inter period comparison are made with the help of

a) Comparative Statement b) Common size statement

C) Trend Analysis d) Cash flow statement

36. Which type of analysis is a comparison of a companys financial condition and

performance across time?

a) Horizontal analysis b) Vertical analysis

c) Upward analysis d) Downward analysis

37. Trecking items over a series of years is practice called

a) Profitability analysis b) Ratio Analysis

C) Trend analysis d) Financial statement analysis

38. A change in an account balance from Rs 100 in year one to Rs 250 in year five can be

expressed in which way?

a) 150% b) 25 times c) 2.5:1 d) 25%

39. Which of the following will not result in an increase in net working capital?

a) Increase in cash b) Decrease in creditors

C) Decrease in Bank loan d) Decrease in inventory

4. Ratio Analysis and Interpretation

40. Liquid Ratio which is equal to the following is favorable

a) 2:1 b) 1:1 c) 1:3 d) 2:5

41. Fixed interest bearing funds do not include one of the following:

a) Debenture b) Long term Investment

c) Preference capital d) Public Deposit

42. The ratio that indicates ability of the company to pay urgent obligations immediately is

a) Current Ratio b) Debt equity ratio

c) Liquidity ratio d) Proprietary ratio

43. Stock working capital ratio is proportion between

a) Closing stock and working capital b) Opening stock and wrong capital

c) sales and working capital d) sales and current assets

44. Current ratio is 2.5 working capital is Rs 60,000 current assets will be

a) Rs 1,00,000 b) Rs 1,40,000 c) 50,000 d) Rs 1,25,000

45. Gross profit Rs 1,00,000, total Sales Rs 5,25,000 sales return Rs 25,000. Gross profit

ratio will be

a) 25% b) 21% c) 20% d) 28%

46. Sales are Rs 33,984, sales return Rs 380, opening stock Rs 1,378, closing stock Rs 1814,

Gross profit Rs 8,068. Stock turnover ratio will be

a) 10 times b) 12 times c) 15 times d) 16 times

47. Debt equity ratio is 1:2. Which of the following would increase:

a) Issue of debentures against purchase of fixed assets

b) Cash received from debtors

c) Payment to creditors

d) Purchase of goods on credit

48. Total debt Rs 9,00,000, capital employed Rs 12,00,000, current liabilities Rs 1,00,000.

Debt equity ratio will be

a) 2:1 b) 3:1 c) 1.5:1 d) 2.5:1

49. Working capital is Rs 1,20,000, total debt Rs 2,60,000, Long term debt Rs 2,00,000. The

current ratio is

a) 2:1 b) 1:1 c) 1.5:1 d) 3:1

50. Buying policies are judged by

a) Gross Profit Ratio b) Net profit ratio c) ROI d) P/E ratio

51. Higher current ratio and lower liquid ratio indicates higher incidence of

a) Inventory b) Cash c) Debtors d) Creditors

52. Standard interest coverage is

a) 4 times b) 6 times c) 7 times d) 15 times

5. Working Capital Management

53. Cash working capital is equal to

a) Cash & balance b) cash & bank balance plus stock

c) liquid assets d) cash cost of working capital

54. The organization which allows longer period of credit to debtors requires

a) More working capital b) lesser working capital

c) no working capital d) moderate working capital

55. The following is not a current liability

a) Creditors b) bank loan

c) Unclaimed dividend d) Outstanding wages

56. For estimation of working capital debtors are valued at

a) Cost b) Market value

c) Cost or at M.V depending upon the policy of the organization d) Fair Value

57. Longer the process period

a) Lesser will be the working capital b) larger will be the working capital

C) minimum will be the working capital d) moderate will be the working capital

58. Which of the following is not a factor that affects the composition of the working capital?

a) Nature of business b) Nature of Raw material used

C) Tax structure of the company d) Process technology used

59. The total current Asset without deducting the current Liabilities.

a) Gross Working capital b) Net Working Capital

C) Permanent Working Capital d) Temporary Working Capital

60. The minimum amount of working capital required to enable the concern to operate at the

lowest level of activity

a) Gross Working Capital b) Net Working Capital

C) Permanent Working Capital d) Temporary Working Capital

61. ____________ refers to idle funds which earns no return.

a) Shortage of working capital b) excess working capital

C) variable working capital d) fixed working capital

62. Which of the following is not an item of current liabilities?

a) Sundry creditors b) Advance from customer

C) Debenture d) Hire purchase dues

63. Cash Working capital includes

a) Fixed Assets less depreciation b) Debtors at sales value

C) Debtors at sales less profit margin d) Creditors at purchase cost less profit

margin

64. When activity is at higher level, the concern needs more working capital, which is known

as

a) Gross Working capital b) Net Working Capital

C) Permanent Working Capital d) Temporary Working Capital

65. When cash is received against overdraft from bank

a) There is an increase in Net Working Capital

b) There is an increase in Gross Working Capital

c) There is an increase in Gross working Capital

d) There is no effect on both the gross and the Net Working Capital

6. Capital Budgeting

66. The method which uses accrual accounting

a) Payback b) ARR c) NPV d) IRR

67. The method which does not consider investment profitability is

a) Payback b) ARR c) NPV d) IRR

68. The most reliable method for financing capital budget decisions

A) NPV b) ARR c) Payback d) Post audit method

69. M. Ltd is considering acquiring a plant. The purchase price is Rs 12,36,100. The

company believes that the net cash inflow of Rs 3,09,025 will be generated every year.

The plant will have to be replaced in eight years. The payback period is

a) 4 years b) 3 years c) 6 years d) 2 years

70. NPV of project A, B and C is Rs 25,000, Rs 38,000 and Rs 32,000 respectively. The

most profitable project is

A) A b) D c) C d) B

71. PV of cash inflow of a project is Rs 2,38,000 and investment is Rs 2,00,000. The PI is

A) 1.19 b) 1.20 c) 1.21 d) 1.40

72. NPV represents immediate increase in

A) Firms wealth b) firms profit c) efficiency d) solvency

73. Long term decision are called as

a) Capital budgeting b) Working capital decision

C)Future decision d) Past Decision

74. Capital Budgeting decisions involve huge amount of risk due to

a) Time factor b) Human Factor c) Money factor d) Natural Factor

75. Unless otherwise specifically mentioned the given sales are assumed to realized at

a) The end of the year b) the beginning of the year

C) end of the quarter d) Half Yearly

76. Starting of insurance business by L & T is a

a) Mutually exclusive decision ` b) Diversification decision

C) expansion business d) modernization decision

77. A project may be regarded as high risk project when

a) It has smaller variance of outcome but a high initial investment

b) It has larger variance of outcome and high initial investment

c) It has smaller variance of outcome and a low initial investment

d) It has larger variance of outcome and low initial investment

78. The span of time within which the investment made for the project will be recovered by

the net returns of the project is known as

a) Period of return

b) Payback period

c) Span of return

d) ARR

79. Where capital availability is unlimited and the projects are not mutually exclusive, for the

same cost of capital, following criterion is used

a) Net present value

b) Internal Rate of Return

c) Profitability Index

d) Any of the above

80. Which of the following criterion is often preferred

a) Net present value

b) Profitability index

c) Internal Rate of Return

d) Payback period

ACHIEVERS COLLEGE OF COMMERCE & MANAGEMENT,

KALYAN

Subject: Commerce III Class: SYBCOM SEM III

_______________________________________________________________

Multiple choice Question:

1. Introduction to Management

1. Henry Fayol stated _______ principles of Management

a) 14 b) 12 c) 10 d) 7

2. The principle of equity refers to _________.

a) Social justice b) Equality c) Disparities d) Scalar chain

3. “Management is the art of getting things done through people”. This definition on

management is stated by ______________.

a) Mary Parker Follet b) Harold Koontz

C) Peter Drucker d) Henry Faayol

4. Motion studies were undertaken by _______ under scientific management.

a) Frank Gilberth b) Fredrick Taylor

C) Hanery Gantt d) Peter Drucker

5. ___________ function of management facilitates SWOT analysis.

a) Planning b) Organizing c) Directing d) Controlling

6. The Top level managers require more of ___________ skills.

a) Conceptual b) Technical c) Directing d) Controlling

7. Professional managers place emphasis on _________.

a) Results b) activities c) formalities d) Order

8. Under differential piece rate system, F.W. Taylor recommended _______ rate.

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

9. Dharma in sanskrit means ___________ in life.

a) Purpose b) Progress c) Passion d) Discipline

10. ___________ developed a theory of bureaucratic management.

a) Max Weber b) karl Marx c) Peter Drucker d) Mary Parker Follet

11. __________ is one of the dimensions of management stated by peter drucker.

a) Time b) Space c) Motion d) Speed

12. Authority refers to _________.

a) Power to take decisions b) reward for action

C) Unity of command d) Obligation.

13. _____________ was the first to define functions of management.

a) Henry fayol b) William Stanton c) Philip kotler d) Peter Drukcer

14. ________ refers to team spirit

a) Scalar chain b) Espirt de corps c) Equity d) Discipline

15. _______ skills are also called interpersonal skills

a) Human Relation b) Conceptual skills c) Technical d) Communication

16. _______ described 14 principles of management

a) Henry fayol b) Philip kotler c) Elton Mayo d) Max Weber

17. In what order do managers typically perform the managerial functions?

a) organising, planning, controlling, leading

b) planning, organising, leading, controlling

c) planning, organising, controlling, leading

d) organising, leading, planning, controlling

18. Coordinating people and human resources to accomplish organizational goals is the

process of

a) Directing b) Planning C) Leadership D) Management

19. Which of the following is not a principle by Henry Fayol?

a) Harmony not discord b) Division of work

C) Unity of command d) Discipline

20. Which of the following would be included in the "controlling function"?

a) explaining routines b) measuring results against corporate objectives.

C) giving assignments. D) setting standards.

2. Planning and Decision Making

21. The SWOT analysis is an important element of________________.

a) Planning b) Organising c) Directing d) Controlling

22. __________ is a single use plan.

a) Budget b) Mission c) Rules d) Vision

23. _______ is a time-table for activities.

a) Schedule b) Budget c) Procedure d) Discipline

24. _______are statements that guide in decision making.

a) Policies b) Rules c) Budget d) Mission

25. Generally, professional manager frame _____________plants.

a) Alternative b) Single c) General d) Specific

26. ______________refers to fixing lower targets.

a) Under-targeting b) Over-targeting

c) Balanced Targeting d) Lower target

27. Under _______ techniques, decisions are made on the basis of relationships between

two variables .

a) Linear Programming b) Simulation c) Network d) Voluntary

28. Quality circle is _________ group of employees.

a) Voluntary b) Designated c) Compelled d) General

29. ________ plans are meant for repeated use as and when the situations demands.

a) Standing b) Single Use c) General d) Abnormal

30. _______reflect the purpose and philosophy of the organisation.

a) Mission b) Vision c) Strategy d) Plan

31. ___________ is the orderly synchronising efforts of the subordinates.

a) Coordination b) Controlling c) Communication d) Technology

32. On the basis of___________ analysis the management sets the goals.

a) SWOT b) SWAP c) SWOB d) SMART

33. ____________ represents the return or reward for selecting the best alternative

decisions

a) Payoff Matrix b) Queuing Technique c) Simulation d) General

34. Under_________ manager intervenes only when employees fail to meet performance

standard.

a) MBE b) MBO c) MSA d) SWOB

35. _________Is a long term action plan for achieving the goals.

a) Rule b) Strategy c) Procedure d) Policies

36. ___________ involves a series of steps to perform a particular task.

a) procedure b) strategy c) policies d) Rule

37. In___________ objectives are set jointly by the management and the employees.

a) Management by exception b) management by objective

c) traditional management d) Modern Management

37. __________ is a modern programmed technique of decision making.

a) brainstorming b) simulation c) attribute listing d) Game Theory

38. __________is a non-programmed modern technique of decision making.

a) simulation b) Game Theory c) brainstorming d) Attribute

39. Objective Strategies and procedure are component of___________

a) planning b) decision making c) controlling d) Directing

40. Management by objectives was propounded by ______________.

a) Henry Fayol b) S.K. Chakravarty

c) Peter Drucker d) William Stanton

3. Organising

41. The objective of the organisation must be _______.

a) General b) Common c) Specific d) Normal

42. There must be __________ between authority and responsibility.

a) Equity b) Similarity c) Balance d) Different

43. Coordination means ______ in an organisation.

a) Cooperation b) Commonality

c) Interlinking of action d) Communication

44. The lower level managers co-ordinate the activities of ______.

a) Middle level b) top level c) subordinate d) Superior

45. Informal organisations make use of ____________ communication.

a) Upward b) Downward c) Grapevine d) Informal

46. There is lack of ________in line Organisation.

a) Decision Making b) Command c) Specilisation d) Expert

47. In line and staff organisation the staff executives are the _____________.

a) Doers b) Decision makers c) Advisors d) Planners

48. The Matrix organisation was first established in ____________in the Aerospace

industry.

a) India b) China c) USA d) Bangladesh

49. _________refers to the number of subordinates that can be managed effectively by one

superior

a) Unity of command b) Management by Objectives

c) Span of control d) Order

50. Departmentation by __________ is one of the bases of departmentation whereby the

organisation divides the organisation in two different units based on geographical zones.

a) Time b) Customer c) Area d) Location

51. Span of control has ____________ application.

a) Limited b) Narrow c) Universal d) Limited

52. In ___________ organisation there are many levels of Management.

a) Tall b) Flat c) Medium d) Friendly

53. Project organisation adopts the basis of _________departmentation.

a) Product b) Process c) Task Force d) Project

54. ____________refers to dispersal of authority throughout the organisation.

a) Decentralisation b) Delegation

c) Centralisation d) Authority

55. __________ is a process of grouping of jobs process and resources into logical units to

perform some organisational task.

a) Delegation of Authority b) Decentralisation

c) Departmentation d) Centralisation

56. Name the process which co-ordinates human efforts, assembles resources and integrates

both into a unified whole to be utilised for achieving specified objectives,

a) Management b) Planning c) Organising d) Directing

57. Identify the type of organisational structure which facilitates occupational

specialisation,

a) Functional structure b) Horizontal structure

c) Network structure d) Divisional structure

58. Identify the type of organisational structure which makes training of employees easier,

as the focus is only on a limited range of skills.

a) Network structure b) Divisional structure

c) Functional structure d) Matrix structure

59. This type of organisational structure is most suitable when the size of the organisation is

large, has diversified activities and operations require a high degree of specialisation,

a) Divisional structure b) Functional structure

c) Network structure d) Matrix structure

60. Rishabh has joined as a Creative Head in an entertainment company. He always ensures

that the work has been divided into small and manageable activities and also the

activities of similar nature are grouped together. Identify the related step in organising

process being mentioned in the above lines.

a) Identification and division of work b) Departmentalisation

c) Assignment of duties d) Establishing reporting relationships

4. Directing and Controlling

61. _______style of leadership aims at creating family atmosphere within the organisation.

a) Autocratic b) Consultative c) Paternalistic d) Situational

62. Nowadays professional managers adopt _________style of leadership.

a) Sociocratic b) Consultative c) Paternalistic d) Situational

63. ____________ the sum total of physical mental and social qualities.

a) Initiative b) Intelligence c) Personality d) Concept

64. __________ refers to interpersonal skills.

a) Administrative b) Conceptual c) Human d) Intelligence

65. ________ is a process of monitoring actual performance and taking corrective measures

if there are deviations.

a) Planning b) Organising c) Controlling d) Directing

66. _______control system enables manager to focus their attention on significant

deviation.

a) Critical Point b) Flexible c) Control by exception d) MBE

67. _______ is a statement of anticipated result.

a) Schedule b) MBO c) Budget d) MBE

68. _______technique helps to you expedite it highly Complex projects.

a) CPM b) MBO c) PERT d) HRA

69. ________technique is based on single time estimate for completion of activities.

a) PERT b) MBO c) CPM d) MBE

70. ________refers to the Systematic evaluation of the functioning performance and

effectiveness of Management.

a) MBO b) HRA c) Management Audit d) PERT

71. Which of the following is not a characteristic of directing?

a) Directing initiate action b) It is a continuous process

c) Flows from top to bottom d) Ensuring order & discipline

72. _______ is the process of guiding the efforts of employees to accomplish the desired

goal.

a) Supervision b) Directing c) Controlling d) Motivating

73. Informal communication is also called:-

a) Wheel communication b) Grapevine c) Verbal d) Visual

74. __________ is the process of influencing the behaviour of people making them strive

voluntarily towards achievement of goals

a) Motivation b) Communication c) Leadership d) Directing

75. Which of the following is not a feature of motivation?

a) It is an integral feeling b) Reduces absenteeism

c) Complex process d) Can be positive or negative

76. ________ is an example of esteem needs:-

(a) Status b) Self-fulfillment c) Hunger d) Pension

77. Which of the following is not a non-financial incentive?

a) Status b) Job enrichment c) Bonus d) Employee progress

78. Motivation is not

a) a complex process. b) related to satisfaction

c) an easy process. d) a goal-directed behaviour

79. Need hierarchy theory of motivation has been given by

a) Maslow. b) Fayol. c) Taylor. d) Koontz.

80. Which one of the following is a non-financial incentive?

a) Recognition b) Perquisite c) Retirement benefit d) Stock option

Achievers College of Commerce and Management, Night

Kalyan(W)

Subject: FC Class: SYBCOM SEM – III

MCQs

Module 1

1)What are the human rights?

a) Neglect Rights

b) Political Rights

c) Exploitation Rights

d) Violence Rights

2)What are not the violations of human rights.

a) Exploitations

b) Neglect

c) Violence

d) Service

3)Who is not consider the vulnerable groups.

a) Migrants

b) Refugees

c) Victims

d) Rich People

4)______ is a right or freedom which is guaranteed to citizens by a country’s

constitution.

a) Legal rights

b) Constitution rights

c) Human rights

d) Social rights

5)Constitutions rights of schedule castes is _____

a) Social safeguard

b) Non economic safeguards

c) Non-Political safeguards

d) Non service safeguard

6)Which is not a form of violations of rights of SCS

a) Problem of untouchability

b) Economic exploitation

c) Bonded labour

d) Displacement

7)Which is not violations of SCS?

a) Destruction of property

b) Murders

c) Humiliation

d) Land Alienation

8)What are the constitutions rights of ST?

a) article 164

b) article 341

c) article 19

d) article 20

9)Act of atrocities

a) 1989

b) 1976

c) 1986

d) 1999

10)Forest conservation act,

a. 1980

b. 1987

c. 1988

d. 1989

11)Which is not a violation of ST?

a) Land alienation

b) Displacement

c) Bonded labour

d) Denial from voting

12) Which is not a legal right of women?

a) Sexual harassment of women at workplace

b) Protection of women

c) Legal services

d) Juvenile Justice

13) ____________ recognizes the rights of women to inherit parental property

equally with men

a) Hindu Succession Act

b) Hindu Marriage Act

c) Equality Act

d) Family courts Act

14)Article that supports elderly person

a) article 41

b) article 42

c) article 43

d) article 44

15)There have been ___ amendments to the constitutions till now.

A. 103

b. 112

c. 101

d. 121

Module 2

1) Disaster of __ groups

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 7

2) Hybrid disaster occurs ________

a) Natural

b) Manmade

c) Anthropogenic

d) Industrial

3) Which is not Features of disasters

a) Borderless

b) Loss

c) Unusual event

d) Extent is certain

4) ___________ is a sudden violent shaking of the surface of the earth.

a) Cyclone

b) Hurricane

c) Earthquake

d) Drought

5) Which is a Psychological effect

a) Headaches

b) Ulcers

c) Sleep disorder

d) Depression

6) Which is not a behavioural symptom

a) Excessive smoking

b) Burnout

c) Aggression

d) Absenteeism from work

7) When Maharashtra floods occurs ______

a) July 2006

b) July 2008

c) July 2005

d) July 2004

8) ______________ efforts attempt to prevent hazards from developing into

disasters.

a) Prevention

b) Mitigation

c) Disasters Preparedness

d) Recovery

9) _________ is to restore the affected area to its previous state.

a) Prevention

b) Mitigation

c) Disasters Preparedness

d) Recovery phase

10)__________ must be provided for disaster preparedness.

a) Stockpiling

b) Training

c) Planning

d) casualty predictions

11)Which is not an element of the prevention phase.

a) Risk analysis

b) Disaster Management Action Plan

c) Disaster Warning

d) Education and training

12)When the Chlorine gas leakage in sewri (Mumbai).

a) July 2011

b) July 2010

c) July 2009

d) July 2005

13) Ful form of PTSD

a) Past Traumatic Stress Disorder

b) Post Traumatic Stress Disorder

c) Past Tsunami Stress Disorder

d) Post Tsunami Stress Disorder

14) _____________ are vents allow lava, rock fragments and gases to escapes

from layers beneath the earth’s surface.

a) Volcanoes

b) Hurricanes

c) Cyclones

d)Avalanche

15) Land Related disaster are ______.

a) Landslides

b) Droughts

c) Storms

d) Tidal waves

Module 3

1) Period of john Locke

A) 1632-1727

b) 1600-1631

c) 1700-1727

d) 1735-1825

2) How many myths in exploding science are

a) 8

b) 10

c) 15

d) 5

3) Positive impact of technology

a) Memory

b) Banking

c) Addiction

D) Fake news

4)___________ gave the world his three laws of planetary motions.

a) Johan Kepler

b) Francis Bacon

c) William Harvey

d) Galileo Galilei

5) __________ emphasized the importance of induction as a part of the

scientific method.

a) Johan Kepler

b) Francis Bacon

c) William Harvey

d) Galileo Galilei

6)____________ was one of the three most famous Empiricists.

a) Isaac Newton

b) George Berkeley

c) David Hume

d) Johan Kepler

7)Full form of CAD

a) Computer-aided disc

b) Computer-air Disc

c) Computer-aided design

d) Computer-air Design

8) Which is not a negative impact of technology.

a) Addiction

b) Cyber Crimes

c) Changing in life style

d) Effect on money

9) which is not a positive impact of technology.

a) Changes in Banking

b) Online Reservation

c) Health standards

d) Spread of fake news

10)New technologies advances may lead to new ________

a) Technological applications

b) Scientific discoveries

c) Instrumental application

d) Inspirational Relationship

11) Becoming members of NGOs to promote harmony is a part of __________

a) Role of media

b) Role of Religious leader

c) Role of Youth

d) Role of politics leader

12) Looting and arson by anti-social elements during civils riots is a part of

_________.

a) Harmony

b) Tolerance

c) Blinds beliefs

d) Science in exploding

13) Which is a positive impact of technology.

a) Effect on Environment

b) Cyber crimes

c) Flexible Workings Hours

d) Sleep Deprivation

14) Which is a negative impact of technology.

a) Psychological Disorder

b) Technology in education

c) Changes in modes of communication

d) Health standard

15)___________ using fake email message to get personal information frpm

internet.

a) Identity theft

b) Hacking

c) Phishing

d) Charity fraud

Module 4

1)Semantic barrier includes

a) Perception

b) Slanting

c) Filtering

d) Languages

2) Honest, Ethical, High morals are parts of ____ in soft skills.

a) Communication skills

b) Flexibility

c) Integrity

d) Courtesy

3) Optimistic, enthusiastic, encouraging, confident are parts of ______ in soft

skills.

a) Teamwork

b) Positive attitude

c) Ethics

d) Responsibility

4)How much time people spend on listening in any organisation.

a) 70-80%

b) 80-85%

c) 60-65%

d) 90-95%

5)Which is an advantage of oral communication.

a) Problem of distance

b) Lacks accountability

c) Less expensive

d) Problem of feedback

6) Which is a disadvantage of written communication.

a) Lacks planning

b) Expensive

c) Lacks legal validity

d) Problem of distance

7) Gestures is a part of _____Language.

a) Sign

b) Silence

c) Body

d) Para

8) Volume Variation is a ________type of para languages.

a) Word stress

b) Pause

c) Influences

d) Voice

9)According the Edward Hall – Social space indicate ______.

a) 18 inches to 4 feet

b) 4 feet to 12 feet

c) 12 feet to 18 feet

d) zero to18 inches

10) __________ is the recognition of one’s own feeling or emotions and how

they affect one’s performance.

a) Self confidence

b) Accurate self- assessment

c) Emotional Self awareness

d) Self-reflection

11) Communication between the departments or persons on the same level in

organisation is called ______

a) Diagonal communication

b) Upward communication

c) Downward communication

d) Horizontal communication

12) Flow of communication from Lower to upper levels in the organisation.

a) Diagonal communication

b) Upward communication

c) Horizontal communication

d) Downward communication

13) Words like – thank you, sorry for interruption, excuse me etc are show

towards ___________other.

a) Communication skills

b) Ethics

c) Convincing skills

d) Courtesy

14) ___________ is a Guidelines for during the interview.

a) Dress

b) Ask for feedback

c) Eye contact

d) Preparation

15) Five steps for process of Team building,

a) Collection of data-analysis of data-action-identify the problem-resolve the

problem.

b) Identify the problem- collection of data-analysis of data-resolve the

problem-action.

c) Identify the problem- analysis of data-action- collection of data-resolve the

problem.

d)Action-resolve the problem – analysis the data-collection of data-identify the

problem.

ACHIEVERS COLLEGE OF COMMERCE & MANAGEMENT

KALYAN Class: S.Y.Bcom Subject: Business Economics (Semester-3 Regular)

Module 1 : Introduction

1. Macroeconomics deals with______

a) individual income

b) individual output

c) individual savings

d) general price level

2. Which of the following is not a scope of macroeconomics _____.

a) National income

b) Business Cycle

c) Elasticity of demand & supply

d) General price level

3. The following is not the subject matter of macroeconomics ______.

a) National income accounting

b) Law of demand & supply

c) Business Cycle

d) General Price Level

4. Macroeconomics is not concerned with ______.

a) National income accounting

b) International trade

c) Inflation

d) Equilibrium of an individual firm

5. National Product = National Dividend = ______

a) Profit

b) Wages

c) National Expenditure

d) National Employment

6. Real flow is the movement of _____.

a) factor services & movement of goods & services

b) only goods & services

c) only factor services

d) money

7. _____ is a leakage from the circular flow of aggregate income & expenditure.

a) Taxes

b) Investments

c) Exports

d) Government Expenditure

8. ____ constitute an injection in the circular flow of Income.

a) Exports

b) Savings

c) Taxes

d) Imports

9. In a circular flow economy firms supply _____.

a) labour

b) goods & services

c) land

d) capital

10. Which of the following is not a method of estimating national income ?

a) product method

b) export-import method

c) income method

d) expenditure method

11. In India, National Income is computed by

a) Ministry of finance

b) Central statistical organisation

c) planning commission

d) Indian statistical Institute

12. National income is the flow of goods and servicesproduced in an economy in

course of ______.

a) a year

b) a month

c) six month

d) quarterly

13. Which of the following is the sum of all income actually received by the

people in the country?

a) Personal income

b) Gross Domestic Product

c) National income

d) Gross National Income

14. When national output rises, the economy is said to be in ______.

a) An expansion

b) An inflation

c) A deflation

d) A recession

15. Cyclical fluctuations are ____ in nature.

a) Recurrent

b) Long term

c) Rare

d) Short term

Module 2: Basic Concept of Keynesian Economics

16. The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money was written by ____.

a) Adam Smith

b) Alfred Marshall

c) J. M. Keynes

d) Paul Samuelson

17. Keynesian economics adopts ____ view.

a) Short term

b) Medium term

c) Secular term

d) Long term

18. The components of effective demand are ____.

a) C + I

b) C + I + G

c) C + G

d) I + G

19. According to Keynes in order to increase employment we have to increase

aggregate _____ .

a) Supply

b) Output

c) Demand

d) Investment

20. Average propensity to consume = ___.

a) DC/AY

b) S/Y

c) C/Y

d) DS/Y

21. Marginal propensity to consume = _____.

a) C/Y

b) S/Y

c) DS/DY

d) DC/DY

22. According to Keynes, MPC is _____.

a) 0>MPC>1

b) 0=MPC=1

c) 0<MPC<1

d) 0<MPC>1

23. When income equals consumption, savings will be _____.

a) Positive

b) Negative

c) Zero

d) Infinity

24. MPC is always_____.

a) Positive but less than one

b) Positive but greater than one

c) Equal to one

d) Equal to infinity

25. _____ investment does not change with the changes in the income.

a) Induced

b) Autonomous

c) Real

d) Financial

26. By the term investment, Keynes means ____ investment.

a) real

b) induced

c) autonomous

d) financial

27. MEC is symbolically expressed as _____.

a) Q/S

b) Q/J

c) Q/D

d) Q/P

28. MEC refers to _____

a) consumption

b) Saving

c) expected rate of profit

d) expected rate of interest

29. MPC + MPC is equal to _____.

a) 2

b) 0

c) -1

d) 1

30. Multiplier is directly related to ____

a) MPC

b) MPS

c) APS

d) APC

Module 3 : Post Keynesian Development in Macro Economics

31. The IS curve is a _____

a) Upward sloping curve

b) Parallel to Y axis

c) Downward sloping curve

d) Parallel to X axis

32. Which of the following is the slope of LM curve ?

a) Negative

b) Positive

c) Vertical

d) Horizontal

33. The LM curve ____.

a) Is vertical

b) Slopes downward

c) Slopes upward

d) Is horizontal

34. The LM curve represents the equilibrium in the _____.

a) goods market

b) money market

c) labour market

d) foreign market

35. Monetary policy operates through shifts in _____.

a) demand curve

b) supply curve

c) IS curve

d) LM curve

36. Rise in oil price shift the aggregate supply curve to the ______.

a) left

b) upward

c) right

d) backward

37. The demand side factors of stagflation shift the aggregate demand curve to the

_____.

a) left

b) backward

c) right

d) upward

38. The economist who stress on supply-side of market and supply management

are called as _____.

a) Supply -siders

b) Demand -siders

c) Price -siders

d) Output -siders

39. _____ has shown the relationship between tax rates and tax revenues with the

help of Laffer curve.

a) Adam smith

b) David Ricardo

c) Arthur Laffer

d) J.M. Keynes

40. ______ shows the relationship between tax rates and tax revenue.

a) offer Curve

b) demand curve

c) supply curve

d) laffer curve

41.Supply side economics aims at increasing government revenue by _____.

a) reducing taxes

b) increasing taxes

c) reducing prices

d) increasing prices

42. Laffer curve explains the relationship between _____.

a) tax rate & tax revenue

b) inflation & wage rate

c) interest rate & investment

d) income & saving

43. ____ explains the relationship between unemployment rate and inflation rate.

a) Engel curve

b) Offer curve

c) Phillips curve

d) Laffer curve

44. The short-run Phillips curve slopes _____.

a) Upward

b) Downward

c) Vertically

d) horizontally

45. Long run Phillips curve is ____ line.

a) upward

b) downward

c) vertical

d) horizontal

Module 4 : Money , Price & Inflation

46. When money supply is viewed over a period of time it is a _____.

a) stock of money

b) flow concept

c) solid concept

d) liquid concept

47. The velocity of circulation of money will be high during period of _____.

a) Prosperity

b) Recession

c) Recovery

d) Trough

48. If M = Rs 100, V = 20 the total money supply will be ____.

a) 5

b) 2000

c) 120

d) 80

49. Velocity of circulation of money is measured : ____

a) at given moment of time

b) over a year

c) over a decade

d) in an economy

50. Money supply will increase when there is _____.

a) increasing in CRR & SLR

b) decrease in CRR & SLR

c) a surplus budget

d) a rise in public debt

51. According to Fisher’s equation of exchange the demand for money is given by:

a) MV =T

b) MV = PT

c) V = PT

d) M = T

52. The transaction demand for money is ____.

a) Interest determined

b) Income determined

c) Consumption determined

d) Savings determined

53. Demand for transactionary motive and precautionary motive mainly depends

upon ____

a) level of income

b) rate of interest

c) investment

d) tax rate

54. _____ was the originator of the idea of the quantity theory of money.

a) J.M. Keynes

b) Samuelson

c) Davanzatti

d) David Ricardo

55. The Marshallian quantity theory of money ____

a) M = KPY

b) M = KPR

c) M = KRZ

d) M = JPY

56. Deflation is just the opposite of _____

a) Inflation

b) Relfation

c) Disinflation

d) Hyperinflation

57. During inflation , RBI would tighten the _____ policy.

a) Fiscal

b) EXIM

c) Industrial

d) Monetary

58. During inflation, ____ gain.

a) Debtors

b) Creditors

c) Fixed income earners

d) Poor

59. Large budget deficits lead to ____ problem.

a) Inflation

b) Monetary Policy

c) Trade Policy

d) Industrial Policy

60. During inflation , RBI would tighten the _____ policy.

a) Fiscal

b) EXIM

c) Industrial

d) Monetary