1) Choose one

1) Setting the alert levels for the PegaAlert log is done in which file?Choose one answer.

a. prlog4jsettings.xml Incorrect

b. prlogging.xml Incorrect

c. prsettings.xml Incorrect

d. prconfig.xmlSetting the alert levels for the PegaAlert log is done in which file?

Note: The prconfig.xml file includes all of the settings for the alerts. The prlogging.xml record allows you to set the location and naming convention of the log files.2) Which of the following statements are true regarding skimming? (Choose two)a. Rules are automatically deleted once skimming has been completed to reduce the total number of RuleSet versions in the application. Incorrect

b. Skimming is located in Tools > Rule Management > Skim a RuleSet.c. When skimming to RuleSet 03-01-01, only the highest versioned rules from 02-01-01 and 01-01-01 RuleSets are included in the skim. Incorrect

d. Withdrawn rules are included in a skim.Note: RuleSets may be manually deleted but are not automatically deleted. Skims only select rules in one major version3) You can create a Rule-Admin-Product-Patch with the same name both in the MLS RuleSet and in the MyCo RuleSet.a. Yes - the system will allow for two separate instances of the rule if it is saved in different RuleSets. This practice should be avoided.b. No - the system does not allow for multiple instances of a Rule-Admin- Product-Patch with the same name. Incorrect

Note: You can create a Rule-Admin-Product-Patch with the same name both in the MLS RuleSet and in the MyCo RuleSet. The standard system validations allow you to create the rules with the same name in two different

RuleSets; however, since this can cause confusion it is not considered a best practice.4) True or False: When migrating a Rule-Admin-Product-Patch from one environment to another, you must first have migrated a Rule-Admin-Product.

True Incorrect

FalseNote: There is no edit when the zip archive is loaded in the system.

5) For which purpose can out of the box activities be used?Choose one answer.

a. To route work Incorrect

b. To update the status of a work object Incorrect

c. To add work to a cover or folder Incorrect

d. All of the aboveNote: There are many out of the box activities that can be used for work-related processing, including routing to a work list or work basket, updating work status based on an input parameter, and adding work to a cover or folder.

6) In which category would you expect to find activities under the Rules by Type tab?Choose one answer.

a. Process Incorrect

b. Technicalc. Decision Incorrect

d. SysAdmin Incorrect

Note: Activities are located under the Technical category in the Rules by Type tab in Manage Rules.7) When processing a For loop or iterating over a Value List or Page List, which standard parameter would you inspect to get the value of the current iteration?Choose one answer.

a. pyIterationNumber Incorrect

b. pyForEach Incorrect

c. pyCount Incorrect

d. pyForEachCountNote: The standard parameter pyForEachCount holds the index value of the current iteration. Note that if the iteration is a For loop, the increment may be a value other than 1.8) Which index value would you use when referencing the index of the current property within an iteration?Choose one answer.

a. Incorrect

b. c. Incorrect

d. IncorrectNote: Use the index value of to reference the current property within an iteration.9) Which of the following statements is false?a. Local variables can be passed between activitiesb. You cannot view local variables and their values in the tracer tool Incorrect

c. You cannot view the contents of the parameter page in the clipboard viewer

Incorrect

d. You can view parameters and their values in the tracer tool IncorrectNote: Local Variables cannot be passed between activities and are valid only within the activity where they are set. This is the principle difference between local variables and parameters.10) True or False: It is possible to comment out an activity step to prevent it from executing.True

False IncorrectNote: To prevent an activity step from executing, comment it out by putting // in the Label column. This is very useful in testing.

11) True or False: You must always define the primary page of an activity on the Pages & Classes tab.True Incorrect

FalseNote: If you do not define the primary page on the Pages & Classes tab, PRPC assumes the rules Applies To class as the class of the primary page (referenced using the keyword PRIMARY).

12) Users need to make an adjustment to the case (cover) urgency and all the claims (covered work objects) belonging to that case such that:

1. The value entered by the user, v, causes the new urgency to be equal to the original urgency + v,

2. The urgency on the case and claims are ONLY updated if all claims can be updated. If a claim cannot be updated, an error message displays explaining what work object could not be updated and why, and

3. If the issue is locking, include the user name who has the lock.

How do you get the information for the user who has the lock?Choose one answer.

a. You cant get the information so you cant satisfy this requirement Incorrect

b. Leverage the LockInfoPage to see who has the lockc. DetermineLockString will lock the claim items for you so this situation will never arise Incorrect

d. This information is stored in pxRequestor.pxUserIdentifier Incorrect

Note: In case a lock failure occurs when you do an obj -open or obj -open-by-handle, you can use the lockinfo text box on the method to specify a page name. The lock information for the object is stored under the pxUpdateOperator on the lockpage.13) Can a cover and a covered work object belong to different class groups?a. Yes Incorrect

b. NoNote: Covers and the work objects they contain must belong to the same application classgroup.14) What is the difference between a database lock and an object lock?Choose one answer.

a. Object level locks persist for longer than database level lock and prevent two users from making changes to the record simultaneouslyb. Database locks are held for a longer duration than object locks Incorrect

c. None they are the same Incorrect

Note: An object level lock prevents two people from making changes at the same time, thus protecting work object integrity. If you did not have object level locking, it would be possible for person A to overwrite person Bs changes without realizing that Person B had already written data to the database.15) What is the entity relationship between covers and covered items?Choose one answer.

a. One-to-Manyb. Many-to-Many Incorrect

c. Many-to-One Incorrect

d. One-to-One IncorrectNote: There is a one-to-many relationship between the cover and its covered work objects. Covered work objects can only belong to one cover.16) What is the entity relationship between folders and foldered items?Choose one answer.

a. One-to-One Incorrect

b. Many-to-One Incorrectc. One-to-Many Incorrect

d. Many-to-ManyNote: There is a many-to-many relationship between folders and work objects. The same work object can be added to multiple folders.17) Which shape allows you to spawn a flow for each element in an embedded list?Choose one answer.

a. Spin-Off Incorrect

b. Sub-Flow Incorrect

c. Swim Lane Incorrect

d. Split-forEachNote: The Split-forEach shape allows you to spawn the same flow for each element in a page list. This allows multiple assignments to be created on the given work object.18) After a ticket is raised can you resume processing from the point where the ticket was invoked?Choose one answer.

a. Yes Incorrect

b. NoNote: A ticket is a true goto or jump in the process and does not provide any functionality to resume back to where the flow was. The ticket breaks the normal execution of the flow and has no way to resume from where it was raised.19) What value does having multiple end shapes in a flow provide?a. None, because you cannot have multiple end shapes in a flow. Incorrect

b. Helps to keep the flow clean and also provides a status at each end-shape that can be used from the parent flow.

c. It only keeps the flow clean. Incorrect

d. It allows you to run an activity at each end shape. Incorrect

Note: Multiple end shapes allow you to keep the flow clean and at the same set a status at each end shape. This status can then be used by the parent flow to branch the flow down the appropriate path.20) True or False: Screen flows have the same stencil/flow shapes as any other flow?True Incorrect

FalseNote: Screen flows have a limited set of shapes available. This keeps the flows simple and at the same time limits the functionality that can be done for a screen flow.21) In a java step inside an activity, you need to create an instance of the vector class. What is the valid way to do this in PRPC?Choose one answer.

a. Vector x = new Vector () Incorrect

b. java.util.Vector x = new java.util.Vector()c. java.library.Vector x = new java.library.Vector() IncorrectNote: You must include the java.util.Vector library.22) What does the tools.getDatabase () method do? (Tools is an instance of the PublicAPI object.)Choose one answer.

a. It connects to the database and creates a new page. Incorrect

b. It finds specific information in the database that can be used for current processing. Incorrectc. It associates a database instance with the current processing. Incorrect

d. It gets a connection to the PegaRULES database instance associated with the current processingNote: The tools.getDatabase() method enables you to interface with other systems to complete current processing.23) How do you obtain a lock on a row in the PegaRULES database through the PublicAPI ?Choose one answer.

a. tools.lock() Incorrect

b. tools.getDatabase().lock(, false).getLockManager(). where is set as a stringmap in a clipboard page Incorrect

c. tools.getDatabase().getLockManager().lock(, false) where is set as a stringmap in a clipboard page.

d. tools.getDatabse().lock() Incorrect

Note: You need to include the getLockManager() and lock() methods24) How would you refer to the step page of a java step in an activity?Choose one answer.

a. Tools.findPage(myStepPage) Incorrect

b. Use of the implicitly available instance myStepPage (e.g. myStepPage.addMessage)c. Tools.findPage(pagename) IncorrectNote: In activity steps, myStepPage is the object of class ClipboardPage. It refers to the page that was defined as the step page for that particular step.

25) What should you do to update an external database?a. Call your Lead System Architect and ask what you should do. Incorrect

b. Use the RDB-Save method.

c. Write a java step in an activity that creates and manages the database connection and executes the SQL query. Incorrect

d. Write a java function that can be called in any activity within the application. More reuse than option A. IncorrectNote: By using an RDB-Save method, you are developing a system that is built for change. You do not need to worry.26) Which classes are history records created for?Choose one answer.

a. Work Classes Incorrect

b. Data Classes Incorrect

c. Rule Classes Incorrect

d. All of the AboveNote: History is created for work, data, and rule classes.27) Which of the following are out of the box routing algorithms?Choose one answer.

a. Route to a balanced skilled group Incorrect

b. Route to a skilled workbasket Incorrect

c. Route to a specific user Incorrectd. All of the AboveNote: PRPC offer out of the box routing activities that should always be reviewed when working with routing. There are out of the box activities to push work to skilled workbaskets, to an individual, or to an individual who has the necessary skills and balance the work to the user with the least amount of work.28) Which concept is associated with Pull Routing?Choose one answer.

a. Worklist Routing Incorrect

b. Load Balanced Routing Incorrect

c. GetNextWorkNote: The GetNextWork concept is used with Pull Routing. The system can determine how to pull work and assign the given work to a user.29) What drives the order in which work is pulled by the GetNextWork algorithm?Choose one answer.

a. It is driven by the access group. Incorrect

b. It is controlled by the Operator ID tab.c. It is controlled by the application rule. IncorrectNote: The operator ID record allows you to define for each operator how work should be pulled. The work can be pulled from the worklist first or from workbaskets. When deciding how workbaskets should be processed you can now have it pull from the order on the operator ID, or merge all workbaskets first then pull most urgent, or have it pull from all workbaskets for the workgroup.30) True or False: Can you define SLA's for assignments and also for work objects?TrueFalse IncorrectNote: SLA's can be defined at each assignment and also for a work object. The work object SLA is defined by the pySLANAME which is set in the model for the work object.31) The calculation types (e.g. Sum Of, Value Of, etc.) available in a Rule-Declare-Expression are:Choose one answer.

a. Dependent on the applies to class of the rule. Incorrect

b. Dependent on if the expression is context-free or context sensitive. Incorrect

c. Dependent on the type of the input properties. Incorrect

d. Dependent on the type of the target property.Note: Calculation types are only dependent on the type of the target property.32) Which of the following options in the Change Tracking field enable backward chaining? (Select all that apply)a. When used if no value present

b. When used if property is missingc. Whenever used

d. Whenever inputs change IncorrectNote: The Whenever inputs change and When applied by a Rule Collection options enable you to forward chain, not backward chain.33) Which of the following rules cannot be called by an expression in a manner in which property changes are tracked?Choose one answer.

a. Decision Trees Incorrect

b. Decision Tables Incorrect

c. Activitiesd. Map Values IncorrectNote: Activities can only be called via utility function and thus are not changed tracked.34) The simplest way to test a declarative expression network that performs aggregate functions (e.g. SUM OF) over a list of items is:Choose one answer.

a. Create an activity that does property-sets on all of the necessary values. Incorrect

b. Use a model to preset the number of items in the list. Incorrect

c. Use the standard expression tester (the play button from the expression form) as it supports adding pages to a page list.Note: The standard expression tester supports adding pages to page lists and allows you to quickly test a number of different values.35) All of the following rule types are executed declaratively exceptChoose one answer.

a. Constraints Incorrect

b. Activityc. OnChange Incorrect

d. Expressions Incorrect

e. Declare Pages IncorrectNote: An activity is executed procedurally rather than declaratively.36) True or False: Backward chaining expressions always lead to worse performance than forward chaining rulesTrue Incorrect

FalseNote: This statement is false because in some situations, such as taking the sum over an aggregate list, backward chaining can improve performance.37) Which of the following statements regarding naming and best practice is true?Choose one answer.

a. Declarative page names and load activities can be named using the normal naming rules of PRPC. Incorrect

b. Load activity names must start with the string Load. Declare Page rules must start Declare_. Incorrect

c. Declare Page rules must start Declare_ as a best practice. Load activities must have an Activity Type of LoadDeclarativePage.d. The name (key) of a Declare page is its Class followed by its name (purpose), such as DP1-Products.ProductList. Incorrect

Note: The name of the Declare Page rule defines the name of the page it creates. Only activities labeled as LoadDeclarativePage are referencable from a Declare Pages rule.38) Which of the following statements are True for When rules in Declare Pages? (Select all that apply)a. The page is refreshed when the When condition evaluates to True. Incorrectb. The When rule defines the logic for refreshing a Node scope Declare page.

Incorrect

c. The page is refreshed when the When condition evaluates to False.d. The When rule defines the logic for refreshing a Thread scope Declare page.Note: Thread scoped declared pages can be conditionally refreshed. The When rule that governs this process tests the question, Is this page fresh? If false, the page is stale and is refreshed.39) Which operation is valid on Declare Pages in the clipboard?Choose one answer.

a. Executing the Page-Remove method in an activity.b. Executing the Property-Set method in an activity. Incorrect

c. Using the Delete Page action in the clipboard Viewer tool. Incorrect

d. Using the Update Page action in the clipboard Viewer tool. IncorrectNote: Declare Pages in the clipboard are protected from being altered manually to maintain data integrity. Removal, however, just forces the system to recreate the page when next required.40) Which of the following is a difference between a declarative page defined as Node level versus Thread level?

Choose one answer.

a. Node level pages are read-only, and Thread level are not Incorrect

b. Thread level pages can use a When rule to determine if the page needs to be refreshed; Node level cannot.

c. Node level pages must be named Declare_Node_. Incorrect

d. Node level pages are loaded when PRPC starts up, and Thread level pages are loaded when the user logs in. Incorrect

Note: Node level rules can only be refreshed periodically. They cannot use When logic to determine when to refresh.

41) True or False: Thread level declarative pages can be designed so that they always hold data related to the current work object.

True

False IncorrectNote: Using a When rule you can associate the declarative page with the work object and refresh the declarative page when the work object changes.42) True or False: You can include a section on a harness that refers to a Declare_ page as long as all fields are marked read-only.

True

False IncorrectNote: Declarative pages can have sections built on them and displayed on a work object

harness.

43) Which of the following is true about debugging declarative pages?

Choose one answer.

a. You can use the Flush Page button on the rule form to force a page to be flushed. Incorrect

b. The Declare Page Tracer event type allows you to see the loading of declarative pages. Incorrect

c. PAL contains a number of counters specific to declarative pages. Incorrect

d. All of the above.Note: All of the above options can be used in debugging declarative pages.

44) Which of the following statements is false?Choose one answer.

a. Decision tables can call other decision tables without having to use a utility function. Incorrect

b. Decision trees can call other decision trees without having to use a utility function. Incorrect

c. Decision trees can call other decision trees, decision tables, or map values without having to use a utility function. Incorrect

d. Decision tables can call other decision tables, decision trees, or map values without having to use a utility function.

Note: Decision tables can only call other decision tables using the Call syntax; to call a

different rule type would require the execution of a utility function.

45) Which of the following rule types can take advantage of function aliases to improve the readability of business rules?Choose one answer.

a. Map Values Incorrectb. Decision Trees

c. Decision Tables Incorrect

d. Declarative Pages Incorrect

Note: Only decision tree forms utilize function aliases.

46) Which of the following rule types would normally NOT be delegated to business users?Choose one answer.

a. Rule-Declare-DecisionTable Incorrect

b. Rule-Obj-MapValue Incorrect

c. Rule-Obj-Activity

d. Rule-Declare-DecisionTree Incorrect

Note: Activities are normally not delegated to the business as they require a deeper technical knowledge and often do not contain pure business logic.

47) True or False: Decision trees and decision tables allow you to set a number of different properties for each result that is returned.True

False Incorrect

Note: You can set multiple properties per rule using the Take Actions feature on decision

trees and the Additional Action Columns on a decision table.

48) Which of the following statements is true about Rule-Declare-Trigger execution?Choose one answer.

a. Declarative triggers run directly in the database. Incorrect

b. Declarative triggers always run in a separate requestor from the user's session. Incorrect

c. By default declarative triggers run in the user's current requestor but can be configured to run in a child requestor.

d. Declarative triggers run only in the current user's requestor. IncorrectNote: Triggers provide the options to run the trigger activity in the current requestor (default) or 'In Background On Copy'.49) Unlike Rule-Declare-Trigger instances, Rule-Declare-OnChange instances:Choose one answer.

a. Can only run once per user interaction. Incorrect

b. Can programmatically review the changes that caused the rule to fire. Incorrectc. Can see the previous value of any changed property. Incorrect

d. Can be executed by PRPC running a property-set.Note: OnChange rules can be executed by the simple act of changing a property's value.

Triggers require some type of persistence operation to occur.

50) Rule-Declare-OnChange rules are different from Rule-Declare-Expressions in that:Choose one answer.

a. OnChange rules can execute an activity directly, rather than set a single property.

b. OnChange rules require a front end user to make a change. Incorrect

c. OnChange rules can only track top level properties. Incorrect

d. OnChange rules ONLY use backward chaining to track changes whereas expressions can use either forward or backward chaining. Incorrect

Note: Expressions can only set a single property at a time.

51) Which of the following allows you to create a zip archive containing rules?Choose one answer.

a. Rule-Admin-Product Incorrect

b. Choosing File > Export Archive from the Developers Portal Incorrect

c. Choosing Tools > Rule Management > Delete a RuleSet Incorrect

d. All of the above Correct.

Note: Each of the listed processes has an output of a zip archive file. The Delete a Ruleset option creates a zip archive for recovery purposes.

52) When selecting work from the WorkList the out of the box (OOTB) functionality will be ranked on which of the following? (Choose one)

Choose one answer.;lj09a. Work Object urgency value defined by the pySLAName property of your work object and depending on the assignment urgency. Incorrect

b. Both WorkObject and Assignment Urgency are considered in ranking. Incorrect

c. Assignment urgency onlyd. Neither - it works on the FIFO principle Incorrect53) On the Security Tab of an Activity there is a "May Start" checkbox. In which circumstance would it be appropriate to leave this box unchecked? (Choose one)Choose one answer.

a. You don't want the activity to be used yet as it is still under development Incorrect

b. This activity is to be limited in its scope and is not to start other activities. Incorrect

c. You would like to promote the security of your application and want to limit what actions can start

this activity. Correct, 54) What is the only declarative rule that can use backward chaining?a. Constraint Incorrect

b. Expressions

c. Index Incorrect

d. OnChange Incorrect

e. Trigger IncorrectNote: Backward chaining is used only by declare expression when the change tracking option has one of the following:

When used, if no value present.

When used, if property is missing.

Whenever used.

When applied by a Rule collection.55) A context-free Declarative Expression allows you to define and execute expressions on embedded data

classes. True or FalseChoose one answer.

a. True

b. False56) How would you delegate a rule to a specific group of users? (Choose two)a. By adding this rule to System-User-MyRules through the Favorites and specifying the access groupb. By creating a link to that rule in the portal Incorrect

c. By making sure security and portal configuration for this group of user is appropriated. By providing developer access to restricted set of users in that group Incorrect

Note: We have to add the rule in the Favorites; we also have to make necessary changes to that Roles security setting so those users can actually save these rules.

57) Which query will require more memory in the PRPC clipboard memory? Please choose one answer.Choose one answer.

a. Select count (*) from pc-work Incorrect

b. Select pzINSKEY from pc-work where pzINSKEY = '1234' Incorrect

c. Select * from pc-work Correct!d. Select PVZSTREAM from pc-work where pzINSKEY = '1234' Incorrect58) A production system is suddenly running very slow. Looking at the PRPC Alert log file you see thousands of "Query time exceeds limit" alert messages for the same query with long elapsed time.

Which one of the following is the correct answer to resolve the problem?Choose one answer.

a. Remove the "Where Clause" from the query. Incorrect

b. Verify that the database table contains an index on the column name used in the query "where clause".

Correct!

c. Increase the alert threshold number of the "Query time exceeds limit" alert message to a higher number to avoid the logging in the alert log file. Incorrect

59) Identify the two statements that are true in the context of the SMA? (Choose two)a. The SMA is available in both the prweb.war and prpc_j2ee14.ear deployment files. Incorrect

b. Using SMA you can get the PegaRULES build information. Correctc. Using SMA you can manage the JDBC connection pool size. Incorrect

d. Using SMA you can see all the integration service listeners and their individual status Correcte. Size of the Rules Assembly Cache and Database Cache can be seen in the Memory Management option. Incorrect

f. SMA cannot be configured to access multiple nodes. Incorrect60) What is the best way to report on embedded data structures? (I.E. data that lives within a pagelist)a. Build a list view which reports directly on the embedded data Incorrect

b. Build a declarative index that maps to the embedded data structure and build the report in the index classc. Expose as many columns as needed so you can build the listview report Incorrect

d. Use a custom activity to write the data to an external table and then build a listview to report on the data. IncorrectNote: b is the best option as it uses PRPC to map the embedded data to the index class and your reports can run on the exposed columns in the index table.61) Which of the following are true about Summary View but are not true for List View? (Choose three)a. Can have multiple criteria Incorrect

b. Can define threshold. True, we can only define threshold in summary view.

c. Can have paging. Incorrect

d. Can have charts. True, only summary view can have charts.

e. Can have trend reporting. True, only summary view can have trend reporting.62) We can improve the reusability of a rule in PRPC in which of the following ways? (Choose Three)a. By using Application Profiler Incorrectb. By following naming conventions and Documentation Correct.

c. By using Availability feature in the Rule form Incorrect

d. By using parameters in the rules where possible Correct.

e. By completing the history tab63) Please complete the following sentence. Access When rulesChoose one answer.

a. Are instances of Rule-Obj-When referenced that determine which users have access to a given application. Incorrect

b. Are used to dynamically grant privileges and define role entitlements based on the specified criteria

Correct!

c. Can only refer to properties on the primary clipboard page. Incorrect

d. Are the same as Rule-Obj-When rules except that they can call utility functions. Incorrect64) Which four statements are true about roles? (Choose four.)a. A role defines the levels of access to rules that apply to a class and instances of that classb. Roles can be created and modified using the Role Editor

c. A role defines various levels of access to RuleSets and RuleSet versions Incorrect

d. A role defines a list of privileges a user has on a class level

e. Rule-Access-When rules provide conditional grants of privileges.

f. An access group can only have one role defined Incorrect

65) In the context of PRPC Services and Connectors, identify the statement(s) that are true? (Choose two)a. Service Package is used to generate the WSDL file for an end client that wishes to use a SOAP service.

WSDL files are used only in the context of web service integration.

b. The JMS integration interface supports both point-to-point and publish/subscribe messaging models.

The JMS integration interface supports interactions between your Process Commander application and other systems through the Java Message Service (JMS). Process Commander supports JMS through both services and connectors. JMS services can receive (consume) messages from a JMS topic or queue and produce responses to those messages. This facility supports both point-to-point and publish/subscribe messaging models. It supports durable subscriptions, automatic acknowledgment and, if Process Commander is deployed as an enterprise application, transaction-based processing.

c. The service package locates the service rule and then assembles a response message from the input

properties. Incorrect

d. Connector rules are used within PRPC to provide services to external systems. Incorrect66) An extremely cost-conscious client uses Tomcat servers but need services exported from PRPC. Can you implement Rule-Service-EJB?Choose one answer.

a. Yes Incorrect

b. NoNote: Tomcat is not a full application server and cannot support this67) Which of the following is NOT a PRPC provided tool that assists in creating rich and dynamic user interfaces?Choose one answer.

a. A Style Wizard that assists in creating and maintaining CSS styles that are applied to screens. Incorrect

b. A list to list control that allows users to simply drag and drop items from one list to another. Incorrect

c. Selectable listviews, that allow users to view report style data and interact with it by selecting one or many rows Incorrect

d. A carousel style widget for displaying related work objects68) Which of the following is not true about portals?Choose at least one answer.

a. An operator can have multiple portals. Incorrect

b. In PRPC v5.5 developers must use Composite Portal type No, it is not a requirement, traditional

portal can also be used.

c. Portal is rule resolved Incorrect

d. Portal is specified in Data-Admin-Operator ID No, portals are specified in the access group not in the operator record.

e. Skin of the user portal is specified in Portal Rule Incorrect69) RuleSet prerequisites are part of rule resolution and enforced during run-time. True or FalseTrue Incorrect

FalseNote: Correct, RuleSet prerequisitesare enforced at development time, not during run-time.70) You can define a circumstance of a rule if a base rule does not exist. True or FalseTrue Incorrect

FalseNote: False is the correct answer. A base rule must exist before a circumstanced version can be created.71) Can you create an agent in Legacy Mode in PRPC v5.5?Choose one answer.

a. Yes Incorrect

b. NoNote: Legacy Mode was been deprecated in PRPC v5.72) When you create a Standard Agent to queue work, under which access group does the agent process a work object?Choose one answer.

a. Its own specified on the security tab. Incorrect

b. The requestor who queued the work.

c. The access group specified under Data-Admin-Requestor:Batch Incorrect

d. It doesn't need an access group as the system figures out how to process the queue. IncorrectNote: Standard agents that use Auto Queue management are context based. They use the same Access Group to run as the requestor who queued the work.73) What are the three modes in which an agent can run in PRPC v5.5?a. Legacyb. Advanced

c. Standard

d. Deprecated IncorrectNote: Deprecated is not a mode.74) Can you enable Auto Queue Management for Advanced agents?Choose one answer.

a. Yes Incorrect

b. NoNote: Auto Queue Management is available only for Standard Agents.75) Do you have to explicitly create Schedule instances for the Agent on every node?Choose one answer.

a. Yes Incorrect

b. NoNote: Schedule instances are auto created by PRPC.76) What is the Agent ManagerChoose one answer.

a. An out of the box agent that manages PRPC requestor sessions and times them out. Incorrect

b. A master agent that creates schedule instances from Agent definitions.

c. An out of the box agent that manages the queue for standard agents. Incorrectd. A master agent that bypasses activity authentication for agents. Incorrect77) Are Agent Schedule instances created if the Enable this Agent checkbox on the Agents Definition is disable?Choose one answer.

a. Yes Incorrect

b. No78) What kind of a cache is the lookup list cache?Choose one answer.

a. Database level cache for properties and metadata about properties Incorrect

b. App Server disk based cachec. App server memeory based cache Incorrect

d. The only way to cache compiled rules IncorrectNote: Lookup list cache is a mechanism to store the results of a query against the database on the application server in the PRPC temporary directory.79) How do you utilize the lookup list cache?Choose one answer.

a. By calling @baseclass.lookuplist or one of its subclass variants in an activity stepb. By calling tools.retrieveLookupList() in a java step Incorrect

c. By calling out of the box supplied Rule Utility Function listLookup IncorrectNote: @baseclass.lookuplist forms the basis for all lookuplist calls. This activity allows you to specify two parameters for doing lookups.80) What will happen if the System Pulse does not run in an multi-node environment? Choose Two.a. Rule changes made on one node will not be visible on other nodesb. Static content caches wont be synchronized. Incorrect

c. Lucene indexes for full text searching wont be synchronizedd. Property conclusion cache wont be synchronized IncorrectNote: general, the following four events are published to the pr_sys_updatescache table:

Cache (changes to the rules)

DELLC (Lookup list cache changes)

Index (Lucene Index)

RFDEL (Rule File Deletes)

The pulse running on each node will wake up and pick the records that were not created by it within the window of time starting with the last pulse run which in turn would invalidate the cache entries on the node and cause RA Cache and possible Rule Instance Cache to be refreshed after compilation of that rule occurs.81) What is the advantage of Rule Assembly Cache?Choose one answer.

a. No advantage, databases are superfast and so is code generation this is an overhead Incorrect

b. Generated and compiled code ensures that there is no further database activity to retrieve rules and makes the system fast

c. Even though the code is generated external systems can update the rules thereby forcing the system to regenerate the rules so there is no advantage Incorrect

d. First Use Assembly forces the system to regenerate the code every time the system restarts thereby ensuring that the latest rules are always available to the user IncorrectNote: The process of generating java code, compiling it and storing java compiled class files on disk ensures that once a system is primed further database activity is minimized thus ensuring faster performance.82) What happens if the extract marker file is deleted from the temporary directory?a. Only Rule-Utility-Function rules are recompiled Incorrect

b. Previously generated code is moved to the backup directory and full code regeneration occurs

c. The usage of the file is deprecated and it makes no difference if the file is deleted Incorrect

d. The file is created every time you reboot the application server and tells the system to regenerate the code IncorrectNote: Contrary to what the contents of the extract marker file says, deleting the file will cause code regeneration and compilation.83) What is the Rule Instance Cache?Choose one answer.

a. In Memory Cache of the XML of a frequently accessed rule

b. Disk based cache of the XML of a frequently accessed rule Incorrect

c. First Use Assembly cache Incorrect

d. Cache of the generated and instantiated rule instance Incorrect84) What happens if you delete the java file for a rule and restart the system?Choose one answer.

a. Code is regenerated and compiled again Incorrect

b. Nothing as the class file still existsc. Code is retrieved from the PRGenBackup directory and recompiled Incorrect

d. Class file is deleted and code is regenerated and recompiled IncorrectNote: The rule execution process is highly optimized if a class file is present it uses that to prevent

compilations.85) I am trying to find out who is holding the lock on a given work object. What is the best way to do this without trying to lock the object?Choose one answer.

a. Use Ob-Open-By-Handle and use the LockInfoPage Incorrect

b. Run a RDB method against the database to see who holds the lock Incorrect

c. Use the tools.getLockManager().isLocked method in a java stepNote: The public API has powerful facilities that can be leveraged to find information about locks without locking the work object.86) I am entering my expense report into PRPC and it always crashes due to bad active controls. I log back in as the same person and I am prompted to release a lock. If I am the same person, why I am prompted to release the lock?

Choose one answer.

a. PRPC locks are held at the requestor levelb. Someone else locked the object while your browser crashed. Incorrectc. The lock went soft and someone stole it. Incorrect

d. The Expense Report system has special code in it that always asks you to release a lock. IncorrectNote: All PRPC locks are held at the requestor level. There can be multiple requestors for a given user, which means you can open two IE windows to do work on the same object. Requestor level locking prevents you from opening two windows to work on the same object.87) When you select File > Open > Portal > WorkUser and a new portal opens in a window, is this a new requestor, thread, Thread?Choose one answer.

a. New Requestor, New Thread, and New thread Incorrect

b. New Requestor, New Thread, and Old thread Incorrect

c. Same Requestor, New Thread, and same threadd. Same Requestor, same Thread, and same thread IncorrectNote: One Requestor, one underlying Operating System thread and multiple Thread namespaces.88) If I perform the tasks listed below in the sequence shown in an Activity on an Integer Property X, what is the final value in the database?1. Property-Set (value = 5)2. Obj-Save

3. Property-Set (value = 10)

4. Obj-Save with Write now

5. CommitChoose one answer.

a. 10 Incorrect

b. 5

c. 0 Incorrect

d. 15 IncorrectNote: The first obj-sav puts the value of 5 on teh deferred ops list. The second obj-save writes the value of 10 to the database directly. The final commit flushes the deferred ops list which means the at the value of 5 will overwrite the value of 10.89) If I perform the tasks listed below in the sequence shown in an Activity on an Integer Property X, what is the final value in the database?1. Property-Set (value = 5)2. Obj-Save

3. Property-Set (value = 10)

4. Obj-Save

5. CommitChoose one answer.

a. 10

b. 5 Incorrect

c. 0 Incorrect

d. 15 IncorrectNote: Only one update statement will be on the deferred ops list so 10 will overwrite 5.90) If I perform the tasks listed below in the sequence shown in an Activity on an Integer Property X, what happens?1. Property-Set (value = 5)2. Obj-Save

3. Property-Set (value = 10)

4. Obj-Save

5. RollbackChoose one answer.

a. All Ob-Saves are rolled back and Deferred Ops list is empty

b. Ob-Save #4 is rolled back Incorrect

c. Obj-Save #2 is rolled back Incorrectd. Nothing happens as there is no commit IncorrectNote: PRPC rolls back the entire deferred operations list.91) If I perform the tasks listed below in the sequence shown in an Activity on an Integer Property X, how many SQL update call are made to the datatabasee?1. Property-Set (value = 5)2. Obj-Save

3. Property-Set (value = 10)

4. Obj-Save

5. CommitChoose one answer.

a. 1

b. 2 Incorrect

c. 0 Incorrect

d. 3 (2 for Obj-Saves, 1 for Commit) IncorrectNote: Updates are consolidated so only one statement is applied.92) Which API in JEE is responsible for asynchronous messaging?Choose one answer.

a. JMS

b. EJB Incorrect

c. JNDI Incorrect

d. JSF IncorrectNote: JMS allows you to connect to queues and topics and thus provides for asynchronous forms of messaging.93) Can you delete a Declarative Page from the Clipboard using the controls in the clipboard window?

Choose one answer.

a. Yes Incorrect

b. NoNote: You cannot delete this from the clipboard, but you can flush it from the clipboard using the

Rule-Declare-Page definition or the SMA.94) If you log in as a Developer and then open the Work Manager portal from within the Developer portal, can you view the Developer Portal clipboard from the clipboard page of the Work Manager?a. Yes

b. No IncorrectNote: One Requestor has only one thread but can have multiple Threads. Clipboard facilities allow you to switch context of the Threads.95) Which two JavaMail protocols does PRPC support? Choose Two.a. POP

b. IMAP

c. MAPI Incorrect

d. UDP IncorrectNote: POP and IMAP are in the public domain and are free so Java supports them.96) On what Page in the clipboard would you find the currently logged in requestor?Choose one answer.

a. User Pages > pxRequestor Incorrect

b. pxRequestorc. OperatorID Incorrect

d. psThread > pxRequestor Incorrect97) What does VFS stand for?Choose one answer.

a. Very Fine System Incorrect

b. Virtual File Systemc. Virtual Federated System Incorrect

d. Vitrual Foreign System Incorrect98) What is Requestor Persistence? Choose Twoa. You can put a requestor to sleep on demand. Incorrect

b. PRPC's way to store requestor details in the database so that sessions can be regenerated on another node in case of a node failure

c. PRPC's way to duplicate a requestor on multiple application servers to do load balancing Incorrect

d. PRPC's way to reduce the number of concurrent requestors in a JVM by passivating idle or orphaned requestors thereby reducing the impact of memory usage in the JVMNote: Failover configuration is achievable by configuring two settings in prconfig.xml. PersistRequestor to AtInteractionEnd (never AtInteractionEnd OnTimeout) and PersistRequestor/storage to database (database filesystem). If failover is not required, but memory space taken by the requestor is a problem, you can choose filesystem instead of database and OnTimeout instead of AtInteractionEnd.99) If the client wants to do authentication and authorization using Siteminder, which mode of deployment would you choose?Choose one answer.

a. Doesn't matter

b. WAR Incorrect

c. EAR IncorrectNote: Authentication with Siteminder does not require JEE facilities such as JAAS so the mode of deployment can be EAR or WAR.100) The client has a requirement to do JSR94 integration. What kind of deployment model would you choose?Choose one answer.

a. EAR with an application server like Tomcat Incorrect

b. WAR with an application server Websphere Incorrect

c. EAR with an application server like Weblogic Incorrect

d. Deployment is not required.Note: JSR94 invokes PRPC outside the context of the application server so a deployment is NOT required.101) Select two statements that describe Manifest files.a. A Manifest file is created by the jar tool and contains the details on when an archive was created and by what JDK.b. Manifest files can be used to declare classpath dependencies for the WAR file when it is packaged inside an EAR file so that the jar files can be stored at the EAR level, thus reducing the size of the WAR file.

c. Manifest files are a byproduct of doing a deployment on Tomcast and are automatically produced by the Servlet container. Incorrect

d. Manifest files are usually shipped by the Global Customer Service (GCS) department for Pegasystems and contain hot fixes. Incorrect

Note: MANIFEST files are created by the jar tool and can include references to jars located in other places in an EAR hierarchy. These are independent of Pega or a container like102) A client wants to monitor an email account and create work objects whenever an email is received by that account. However, the client does not support IMAP or POP and can only do MAPI integration. Does PRPC support this out of the box?a. Yes Incorrect

b. NoNote: Javamail only supports POP and IMAP. To do MAPI integration would require a JNI-COM Bridge or

leverage the new Outlook Wev services provided by Microsoft.103) In an EAR deployment are MQ Listeners disabled by default?a. Yes

b. No IncorrectNote: They are disabled by default but can be enabled by making changes to prconfig.xml as they are polling threads which are slower as compared to the dedicated ones in a WAR deployment.104) What does the -t option do on a jar command?a. Verbosely describe what the command does Incorrect

b. Create a new archive file Incorrect

c. Unjar an existing archive file if used with the -f option Incorrect

d. List the table of contents for the archive105) What is an advantage of externalizing prconfig.xml?a. No need to repackage the deployment in the event of a change

b. No need to restart the application server to pick up changes in the prconfig.xm. Incorrect

c. No need to encrypt and decrypt prconfig.xm. every time you unzip the file Incorrect106) The Byte Governor alert is triggered when:Choose one answer.

a. The number of bytes read or written to the database exceeds the threshold Incorrect

b. The number of bytes in the clipboard exceeds the threshold Incorrect

c. The number of bytes read from the database in a single query exceeds the threshold Incorrect

d. The number of bytes read from all queries in an interaction exceeds the thresholdNote: The sum of all the bytes read from the database are accumulated for the interaction, and if the sum

exceeds the threshold it triggers this alert. Therefore, when running a number of smaller queries that add

up to a lot of data, the last query that goes over the limit causes the alert.107) If you get an alert for DB Time, a possible root cause could be all of the following except:Choose one answer.

a. Too many rows fetchedb. Missing index on a table Incorrect

c. Lock Contention Incorrect

d. Too few connections in the connection pool IncorrectNote: The time measured by this alert is actually from the time the SQL is sent from PRPC to the database to the time that the database responds that the results are ready. The actual fetching of rows is not included when determining the time for this threshold.108) Allowing class instances to be stored in a default table is a poor design practice because:Choose one answer.

a. The default table does not contain adequate indexes and columns for performanceb. Data is purged by the system cleaner. Incorrect

c. The default table is too small to hold all of your data. Incorrect

d. The default table names are too generic. IncorrectNote: The default tables only contain a primary key index and have the minimal set of exposed columns thus

insuring the worst performance. While it is possible to add indexes and expose columns from these OOTB tables, it is better to isolate each classs instances to a dedicated table and create indexes and columns that are unique to that class.109) The PAL reading for Bytes read from database Storage Stream refers toChoose one answer.

a. How many bytes were read from exposed columns. Incorrect

b. How many bytes were read from pzInsKey and other PRPC internally used properties. Incorrect

c. How many bytes were read from pzPvStream.

d. All of the above Incorrect

e. None of the above IncorrectNote: The term Storage Stream is synonymous with the terms BLOB and pzPvStream . Excessive values

here are potentially due to ListViews and other rules that are not fully relying on exposed columns.110) pxOutputBytes is a measure of:a. The number of bytes sent to the browser.b. The number of bytes sent to PRPC from services. Incorrect

c. The number of bytes sent to connectors. Incorrect

d. The number of bytes sent to the PegaRULES database. IncorrectNote: pxOutputBytes is a key indicator that measures how many bytes are sent from the PRPC server to the

browser. A very large number indicates that too much information or a very complex structure is being

sent to the browser and could be an indication for why the browser machine might be slow, why the

network is strained, and/or why PRPC as a server might be CPU bound in generating all this content.111) The RA counter in the PAL summary screen pertain to:Choose one answer.

a. How many Rule Alerts were generated. Incorrect

b. Rules Assembly counters.c. These are for internal use only and can be safely ignored. Incorrect

d. None of the above Incorrect112) Alert messages can be retrieved from a variety of sources, except:Choose one answer.

a. Alert Log Incorrect

b. Autonomic Event Services (AES) Incorrect

c. PALd. MyAlerts IncorrectNote: Alerts are generated by the system and are retrievable via the development portal on MyAlerts ; via the System Management Application to retrieve the Alert log; and optionally using the add-on product AES.

PAL is the tool used to show performance counters.113) To speed up ListView reports that refer to certain properties, you can expose the property. Which of the following can be directly exposed?Choose one answer.

a. Embedded Property Incorrect

b. Page List/Group Incorrect

c. Value List/Group Incorrect

d. None of the aboveNote: When you determine that you need to expose properties for reporting, consider the following guidelines: For single-value, non-embedded properties, you can directly change the schema of the storage

tables by adding new columns for the properties For complex or embedded properties, you must use declarative indexing to expose the properties114) Since performance related messages are sent to the ALERT Log file, it is not important to inspect the Error Log file.True Incorrect

FalseNote: While most performance related issues will be reported in the ALERT log, there are times that errors

reported in the Error log file are root causes for subtle and indirect performance issues. A clean error log

is a PRPC best practice.115) The CPU counters for PAL are always available.True Incorrect

FalseNote: CPU counters are produced only when PRPC is running on a Windows server, and then only if the

Initialization/ usenativelibrary prconfig.xml setting is enabled.

116) The generation of alerts should be disabled in a production system.True Incorrect

FalseNote: It is not possible to disable this feature in PRPC. Also, it is desirable to continue to monitor for and correct alerts that are generated in production.117) When you export the results of a report to Excel, you can do which of the following?Choose at least one answer.

a. You can use Excel to only view data. Incorrect

b. You can export numbers to Excel using a different precision than what is displayed

c. You can both view data and modify data in Excel - submitting the changed values back to your PRPC application.

d. You can bypass Excel and export directly into Access. Incorrect

118) If you have an embedded property, page list, or page group, you can easily use these in PRPC Reporting via these mechanisms. (Select all that are true.)a. There is no need to expose any additional properties, as PRPCs report mechanisms can efficiently report on even unexposed columns. Incorrect

b. Declare Index rules can be used to expose many, or all, of the items in an embedded list or group.c. Declare Trigger rules can be used to copy a single embedded property to a top-level property, and this top-level property can be exposed so that it can be used in reports.

d. Declare Expression rules can be used to copy a single embedded property to a top-level property, and this top-level property can be exposed so that it can be used in reports.119) When Paging is enabled in a List View and the user clicks a column header at runtime to sort, what happens?Choose at least one answer.

a. Nothing - the column headers aren't clickable. Incorrect

b. Pagination is only supported Summary Views Incorrect

c. The List View can be configured to sort all of the result set - not just rows that are currently displayed.

d. The List View can be configured to just sort the rows that are currently displayed.120) In an Activity, you can pass parameters to a ListView by:Choose one answer.

a. In a step before calling Obj-List-View, include a Property-Set step to place values into the parameter page.

b. List View rules cannot accept parameters. Incorrect

c. Including them directly into the parameters for the Obj-List-View method Incorrect

d. Include a Java step to place values onto the parameter page/ Incorrect121) When creating reports, which of the following performance implications should you consider (select all that apply)?a. If incorrectly implemented, reports can have a huge drain on the systems performance.

b. If possible, you should limit untrained resources from changing the fields in the criteria sections (the values are OK), since they may choose fields that are not properly indexedc. PRPC Reports always run against the same database that is being used for ongoing work transactions. Incorrect

d. You should insist in doing performance tests using a representative amount of data to what you expect in production.122) You can create reports as graphs using which of the following mechanisms? Choose one answer.

a. Using the Obj-Graph Method Incorrect

b. List View Incorrect

c. Summary Viewd. Either a Summary View or a List View Incorrect123) Rule-Declare-Index rules . . . . (select all that are correct).a. Provide a way to expose properties from the TOP and PARENT pages for the page list or group

b. Automatically create database-level indexes Incorrect

c. Provide a way to expose properties on embedded and repeating Page Listsd. Provide a way to expose properties that are Value Lists and Value Groups. Incorrect124) You have a report where each row is really packed with data. However, 5% of the time users need to see 10 additional fields. Which of the options below would be your initial recommended way to approach this problem?Choose one answer.

a. Leverage the Smart Info capability so that when users need the additional fields, all they need to do is hover over the row of interest.

b. Convince the user that this requirement cannot be implemented. Incorrect

c. Provide an additional button or flow action that, when the is clicked, the initial report will be replaced with a screen showing all of the detailed information for that single row. Incorrect

d. Reduce the font size of the report to cram in the additional 10 fields, even if this makes the report barely readable. Incorrect125) A Summary View provides multi-level report display with drill-down capability. The drill-down can be (select all that are true).a. Summary View

b. Detailed View

c. List View

d. Graph Incorrect126) Select all of the statements below that are true about Summary View rules.a. They provide Trend reporting - presenting counts of events that occurred at a past moment in timeb. Can provide Averages over a list of values.c. They support Thresholds - a colored background that appears behind rows of a report (or behind values in an interactive chart) to mark a meaningful range.d. They are often used to implement searches providing the user with a mechanism to select one or more search results Incorrect

127) In the Application Profile, use cases are categorized by:Choose one answer.

a. Work Types Only Incorrect

b. Work Party Incorrect

c. Project Resources Incorrect

d. Actors Incorrect

e. Work or Supporting TypesNote: Atomic use cases must be associated with a Work or Supporting type in the profile.128) What is the primary purpose of the generated Framework class layer?Choose one answer.

a. As a replacement for the Pega supplied Work- classes. Incorrectb. To contain specialized rules used by the application. Incorrect

c. As a temporary placeholder for a Pega purchased Framework. Incorrect

d. To contain rules that will be used across the enterprise.

Note: The Framework class layer is a place to hold generalized rules that can be reused throughout the

enterprise.129) What is the best way to address a customers request to see custom default text placed into the

Application Profile document each time it is generated?Choose one answer.

a. The Application Profile document cannot be changed. Incorrect

b. Create a section rule named ApplicationProfile in an unlocked RuleSet and edit and save changes. Incorrect

c. Locate the Word template named ApplicationProfile and save a copy into an unlocked RuleSet to edit and save changes.d. Locate the Word template named ApplicationProfile, edit, and save changes. IncorrectNote: The Word Template ApplicationProfile exists in a locked RuleSet and cannot be edited. To make changes you must save a copy of the template in an unlocked RuleSet and then make changes.130) Checking the Store Separately checkbox on the Work Types screen implies:Choose one answer.

a. A new database table will be automatically created for this work type. Incorrect

b. A new database will be automatically generated for this work type. Incorrect

c. The work class will inherit from the Work-Folder- class. Incorrect

d. A new class group will be generated for this work type.Note: The Store Separately checkbox indicates that you want the work objects from this work type to be stored in a separate database table. The Accelerator will create a separate class group for this work type, which can be mapped to an existing database table. PRPC does not automatically create databases or tables.

131) The Application Accelerator bases the class and RuleSet names on two configuration records. What two records are used to determine the names and must be configured prior to running the accelerator?Choose one answer.

a. Work Pool and Work Group Incorrect

b. Division and Unit Incorrect

c. Organization and Division

d. Operator ID and Access Group IncorrectNote: The class names and RuleSets generated from the Accelerator use the developers current Organization and Division name. This can be changed, but the Organization and Division records must exist in the system.132) According to Pega best practices, in which class should rules that are reusable across the work classes of all divisions reside?Choose one answer.

a. Work- Incorrect

b. MyCo- // MyCo stands for an arbitrary company name

c. MyCo-Work- Incorrect

d. MyCo-Div1-Work- // Div1 stands for an arbitrary division name Incorrect133) The Enterprise Application Accelerator will generate a work class in the implementation layer for each corresponding work class in the Framework layer.Choose one answer.

a. Correct. There will be one Implementation layer class for each Framework layer class.

b. Not Correct. I can choose which Implementation layer classes to generate. Incorrect134) Pegasystems provided frameworks are part of the:Choose one answer.

a. Pega Product Layer Incorrect

b. Framework Layerc. Enterprise Reuse Layer Incorrect135) What are the two methods of inheritance in PRPC?Choose one answer.

a. Named and Pattern inheritance Incorrect

b. Directed and Indirect inheritance Incorrect

c. Pattern and Directed inheritance136) What does CBF stand for?Choose one answer.

a. Customer Built Frameworkb. Core Business Framework Incorrect137) What is class pollution?Choose one answer.

a. The burgeoning numbers of custom rules in the Work- class that make navigation in application work classes difficult.

b. The improper creation of sub-classes to the Work- class. Incorrect

c. The creation of too many rules in the application work class. Incorrect138) What is the Int- class in the Divisional Reuse Organizational Layer used for?Choose one answer.

a. For generated connector classes and rules that are shared by all applications within a divisionb. For classes and rules internal to a given division Incorrect

c. For generated connector classes and rules that are shared across all divisions Incorrect139) Which layer is not part of the 5.4 Enterprise Class Structure?Choose one answer.

a. The Framework Layer Incorrect

b. The Divisional Reuse Layer Incorrect

c. The Shared Layer140) Which of the following statements is false?Choose one answer.

a. The Enterprise Class Structure allows building enterprise-grade applications that are scalable and extendable. Incorrect

b. Pega best practices call for all applications on PRPC v5 platform be built using the Enterprise Class Structure patterns. Incorrect

c. The Enterprise Class Structure provides the foundation for superior application performance.141) True or False: Data and work should always reside in separate RuleSets.True Incorrect

False142) True or False: It is best practice to call reusable flows that are part of the framework layer directly from the work portal.True Incorrect

False143) Which of the following is a good way to minimize the need for hard-coded class names?Choose one answer.

a. Use the New Class parameter on the Page-New method and pass in a dynamic value from a clipboard property.

b. Clone rules and change the name of the class on the Pages & Classes tab. Incorrect

c. Using java code to instantiate pages programmatically. Incorrect

d. Specialize the rule in a new RuleSet and change the class definition. IncorrectNote: You would use the New Class parameter on the Page-New method to pass in a dynamic value from a

clipboard property.144) Which of the following is least important in promoting reuse?Choose one answer.

a. Building a single activity with many steps all doing different things.b. Creating a robust and intuitive class structure and placing rules in the right class. Incorrect

c. Creating rules that execute a single logical function. Incorrect

d. Documenting rules well so they can be read by other users. IncorrectNote: Building a single activity with many steps all doing different things is least important in promoting reuse.145) Which of the following statements is false?Choose one answer.

a. Reuse can occur within an application and across applications. Incorrect

b. Specialization is only important to BRE implementations.

c. Reuse and Specialization are key aspects of good PRPC design. Incorrect

d. Specialization can occur based on many different factors. IncorrectNote: Specialization is important in all types of implementations.146) Security and Persistence Type models are often implemented as classes because:Choose one answer.

a. Classes provide the most OOTB security options. Incorrect

b. Classes provide the most work object persistence flexibility. Incorrect

c. Creating classes is easy and can be done live in production. Incorrect

d. All of the above Incorrect

e. A & B onlyNote: Classes provide the security and work object persistence required in SP Type model implementations.147) The most beneficial type of reuse is being able to copy a rule from one class to another.True. Incorrect

FalseNote: This is false because copying a rule is not true reuse. Reusability is the ability execute the same rule from multiple places. Creating copies of rules leads to maintenance issues as more and more copies are

created.148) Do workgroups (Data-Admin-WorkGroup) get rule-resolved?Choose one answer.

a. Yes Incorrect

b. NoNote: Rule types inheriting from Data- do not get rule-resolved.149) During the "Find Best Candidate Instance" step in rule resolution, which of the following criteria takes precedence over the rest?Choose one answer.

a. Exact match of a circumstanced rule, either multivariate or property.

b. The base rule. Incorrect

c. The correct circumstance date. Incorrect

d. A correct date/time range. IncorrectNote: Exact match of a circumstanced rule, either multivariate or property, is considered first.150) What is the 'Skim RuleSet feature?Choose one answer.

a. A default performance report. Incorrect

b. An administration option to bring rules forward among RuleSets versions.c. An administration option to bring rules forward among RuleSets. Incorrect

d. It does not exist. IncorrectNote: Since the Rule Resolution algorithm does not look at previous RuleSet version major releases, you might need to bring all the original rules forward to use as a starting point.151) Which of the following options is false regarding the role played by the Rule Cache in the Rule Resolution process?Choose one answer.

a. Makes the rule resolution process operate faster. Incorrect

b. Includes all rules on the final rule candidate list. Incorrect

c. Clearing the Rule Cache has significant performance implications. Incorrect

d. Does not include the RuleSet list the request was based on.Note: Rule Cache does include the RuleSet list the request is based on.152) True or False: Availability = Blocked halts the processing of your application and throws an exception.True

False IncorrectNote: The correct answer is True as Availability = Blocked does indeed halt the processing.153) True or False: It is more important to have fewer variations in RuleSet lists than small lists.True

False IncorrectNote: The correct answer is True, since fewer variations in RuleSet lists are better for overall performance.154) Order the Rule Resolution Algorithm steps as they occur during rule-resolution:Discard inapplicable RuleSets and Versions Step 4

Discard rules where Availability = No/Draft Step 3

Find best instance (and check to make sure there is not a duplicate) Step 8

Choose all instances with correct purpose Step 2

Verify that the user is authorized to reach the rule (security) Step 10

Discard all candidates not defined on a class in the ancestor tree Step 5

Rank remaining candidates by: Override, Class, RuleSet, Circumstancing, Date/Time Step 6

Set the cache Step 7

Check that Availability does not show BLOCKED Step 9

Check Rule Cache. If rule is present in cache, go to Step X. Step 1

155) Given the class structure below, what are the first eight classes PRPC will interrogate to find rules if the initial reference class is B5?

B0 6

B1 5

B2 4

B3 3

B4 2

B5 1

C1 8

C2 7156) Given the example class structure shown below, in what order will PRPC interrogate classes to find an activity called MyActivity if the request begins at class TRN-Work-Curr?

The correct interrogation order is:

1. TRN-Work-Curr

2. TRN-Work

3. TRN-

4. Work-Cover-

5. Work-

6. @baseclass157) A user requests an activity called MyActivity for the first time. This activity has been previously used by another user. All of the following must be true for PRPC to find the cached rule except:Choose one answer.

a. A user will never use the cache of another user.b. The RuleSet list of both users match exactly. Incorrect

c. The class from which the rule is being requested is exactly the same as that of the first request. IncorrectNote: Rule Cache does not belong to any user. In order for PRPC to find and use the cached rule, both users must have exactly the same RuleSet list (in the same order) and the Applies To class of the rule must be the same as that of the first request.158) All of the following are rule features considered in the Rule Cache except:Choose one answer.

a. The Applies To class of the rule. Incorrect

b. The rule requested. Incorrect

c. The maximum number of circumstances allowed.

d. The RuleSet list of the user when executing the rule. IncorrectNote: Rule Cache includes all the circumstanced versions instances of the rule, but not any maximum number of circumstances, since such a limitation does not exist.159) All of the following circumstancing options are considered during candidate rule ranking except:Choose one answer.

a. Multivariate Incorrect

b. Single property Incorrect

c. Date/Time Range Incorrect

d. Duplicate rulee. Effective date IncorrectNote: All except Duplicate rule are circumstancing options taken into account during the candidate rule ranking step in rule resolution.160) Do Rule-Declare-OnChange rules get rule-resolved?Choose one answer.

a. Yesb. No Incorrect

c. Depends on the rule context Incorrect161) Regarding ranking of rules that have a circumstance Date/Time Range, which of the following statements is true?Choose one answer.

a. Rules that have a circumstance Date/Time Range are ranked first by their end date in ascending order, and then by the start date in descending orderb. Rules that have a circumstance Date/Time Range are ranked last by their end date in ascending order, and then by the start date in descending order. Incorrect

c. Rules that have a circumstance Date/Time Range are ranked first by their end date in descending order, and then by the start date in ascending order Incorrect

d. Rules that have a circumstance Date/Time Range are ranked last by their end date in descending order, and then by the start date in ascending order Incorrect

Note: Rules that have a circumstance Date/Time Range are ranked first by their end date in ascending order, and then by the start date in descending order.162) Which of the following are not rule availability statuses?Choose at least one answer.

a. Final Incorrect

b. Blocked Incorrectc. Yes Incorrect

d. Withdrawn Incorrect

e. Overridef. No Incorrect

g. CircumstancedNote: Override and Circumstanced are not rule availability statuses.163) Which of the following are valid Rule Resolution Algorithm outputs?Choose one answer.

a. A security exception Incorrect

b. The best rule is ready to be executed Incorrect

c. A duplicate rule exception Incorrect

d. All of the aboveNote: All options are valid Rule Resolution Algorithm outputs.164) Which rule is ranked higher given Circumstance Property = Membership Level and Circumstance date as listed?Choose one answer.

a. Platinum, March 2007 Incorrect

b. Gold, March 2006c. Silver, January 2007 IncorrectNote: The correct answer is Gold, March 2006, since the circumstance property Membership Level is

considered first when ranking candidates, and the candidate order applied is alphabetical.165) You have just created a custom rule called Rule-Declare-BusinessDecision and want to enable

class-based inheritance for rule resolution of that rule. What would you do?Choose one answer.

a. Check the Use class-based inheritance to arrive at the correct rule to execute? box in the rule definition.b. Check the Allow multiple versions with the same key value? (rule resolution) box in the rule definition. Incorrect

c. It is not possible for that particular rule. IncorrectNote: By checking the Use class-based inheritance to arrive at the correct rule to execute? box, you enable

class-based inheritance during rule resolution for that rule.166) True or False: Availability = No halts the rule resolution process and throws an exception.True Incorrect

FalseNote: The correct answer is False. Availability = No does not halt the processing. It just discards that rule from the candidate list.167) True or False: Rule-Declare-Constraints rules use class-based inheritance while rule-resolved.True

False IncorrectNote: Rule-Declare-Constraint rule types, as do all inheriting from the Rule-Declare-, have class-based

inheritance enabled by default.168) Which TWO statements are true about Access Groups? (Choose Two)Choose at least one answer.

a. An operator ID record can reference only a single access group. Incorrect

b. To switch between multiple access groups, users must log off and log back on. Incorrect

c. In the Work User portal, users can dynamically switch between multiple access groups using a portal drop-down.

Note: This application selector will be displayed above the work pool selector in the standard WorkUser and WorkManager portals if a users operator record references more than one access group.

d. A requestor Thread (browser, batch, or other) can only be associated with a single access group at a

time.Note: If a user with multiple access groups switches access groups PRPC will create a new Thread and associate that requestor Thread with the selected access group. That means that this session will contain

multiple Threads; each Thread is associated with a single access group.169) Which two statements are true about access roles?a. The order in which access roles are referenced in the access group is significant in determining the users access rights. Incorrect

b. It is a best practice to use standard access roles such as PegaRULES:User4 in lieu of application specific custom access roles. Incorrect

c. It is a best practice to list only roles for one application in each access group.

Note: As a best practice to reduce future maintenance, list only roles for one application. For workers or managers who routinely work in multiple applications, create separate access groups for each application, and list all but one in the Additional array on the Operator tab of the Operator ID instance.

d. Access roles implement the PRPC class based security model.Note: Each access role is comprised of a series of Access of Role to Object instances. Each of these instances controls access of the bearer of the role to a single class. Therefore, security is class based, where each class inherits security properties from their parent classes. Security settings for a leaf class override the settings for its parent classes.170) Which TWO statements accurately describe Access Roles in PRPC? (Choose Two.)a. Access of Role to Object rules are not subject to rule resolution

Note: Rule resolution does not apply to Access of Role to Object rules. Your system can contain at most one

Access of Role to Object rule for each Applies To class and Role Name combination. Stated another way, you can't override Access or Role to Object rules.

b. Access roles convey privileges to a userNote: The privilege form defines only the existence (name and Applies To class) of a new privilege. It contains no other information and conveys no capabilities by itself. By referencing privileges in Access of Role to Object rules and in certain rules rule types such as flows, privilege rules can affect which application users can do what.

c. Every Access of Role to Object rule instance must have an associated Privilege rule instance Incorrect

d. Production levels are the only way to control access to the class that the Access of Role to Object instance refer to Incorrect

171) Which two statements are true concerning privileges? (Choose Two)a. Privileges offer finer access control than access roles alone.Note: Privileges complement the security and access control features provided by access roles and RuleSet lists, by restricting access to specific rules rather than to entire classes or RuleSet versions.b. Privileges can limit operations that can be performed on an attachment category.Note: The Security tab of the Attachment Category rule form allows you to reference a combination of when rules and privileges to define conditions so that a specific operator is allowed a specific capability while disallowing another.

c. Users must hold all privileges associated with a flow action in order for the flow action to be available to them.

d. Privileges can be used to enable or disable access to entire classes. Incorrect172) Choose TWO statements that accurately describe Production Levels in PRPC. (Choose two.)a. Users with access to production level 3 automatically have access to all higher production levels (4 and 5). Incorrect

b. Production levels should be used in Access When rules to enable or disable access to an object class.

Incorrect

c. A system's production level should be used to conditionalize certain operations of your application.Note: Through System Setting rules, you can assign distinct values for a setting based on the current production level. For example, you can use the production level to circumstance an activity or model, which can be useful when configuring global resource settings, i.e. external server names, URLs, JNDIs, etc.

d. If the production level of an Access Deny rule is zero (or blank), access to the respective class is permitted.Note: For Access Deny rules, access is denied when the access control value is greater than or equal to the

production level of this system. If an access control field contains 0 or is blank, access is permitted (not denied).173) To successfully configure the security of a PRPC application, what role should you be assigned in your access group?a. PegaRULES:SysAdm4b. PegaRULES:SysArch4 Incorrect

c. PegaRULES:ProArch4 Incorrect

d. PegaRULES:User4 IncorrectNote: You must have the SysAdm role and have the Developer portal assigned to your access group. Only the PegaRULES:SysAdmn4 access role provides sufficient access to be able to create rules of the

Rule-Access child classes, such as Access Role Names, Access of Role to Object, Access Deny, Access

When, etc.174) In which class would you find out-of-the-box and custom authentication activities?Choose one answer.

a. Rule-Obj-Activity Incorrectb. Code-Securityc. Embed-AccessSetting Incorrect

d. System-Security IncorrectNote: Search for authentication activities in the Find Gadget. LDAP authentication activities, the single sign-on sample activities, and the example EstablishOperatorExternally activity all apply to Code-Security. The Authentication Service form expects authentication activities in the Code-Security class.175) Even if you have a centralized identity management system for authentication and authorization, you will need to keep Operator ID records in the PRPC database.True

False IncorrectNote: Even if you use an external directory to maintain user credentials and entitlement information (application access), your authentication activity will need to create an operator record in PRPC. PegaRULES needs the operator ID to associate it with work objects, assignments, create drop-down lists for transferring assignments, and so on. The operator record can be created on the fly when the user first logs on to PRPC.176) When executing a PRPC service, it is possible to change the state of an existing work object by executing a flow action. What is the standard activity rule used for this purpose?Choose one answer.

a. ResumeFlow Incorrect

b. resumeWorkProcessc. performFlowAction Incorrect

d. runFlowActionActivity Incorrect

e. DisplayFlowAction IncorrectNote: resumeWorkProcess is specifically designed to process flow actions during a service interaction. It takes in parameters for the key of the work object, the name of the flow, and the name of the flow action.177) Which component of web services is typically used at design-time to perform code generation?Choose one answer.

a. SOAP Envelope Incorrect

b. SOAP Body Incorrect

c. WSDLd. UDDI IncorrectNote: A WSDL is a file that describes the operations available in a web service. All other options have run-time usage.178) You have a service rule configured to return simple values such as a string. When performing unit testing, where are the return values listed in the Clipboard?Choose one answer.

a. pySimulationDataPage.pyResponseHeaderValues Incorrect

b. pySimulationDataPage.pyResponsePropertyValues Incorrect

c. pySimulationDataPage.pyResponseContext Incorrect

d. pySimulationDataPage.pyResponseParameterValuesNote: pyResponseParameterValues is a PageList where each row of the PageList identifies a value to be sent back in the service response.179) What is the default error handling mechanism for connector rules generated through the Connector Wizard?Choose one answer.

a. The connector activity handles the result of the connector via a Transition. Incorrect

b. The connector activity handles the result of the connector via a Precondition on the step following the call to the connector. Incorrect

c. The connector activity does not handle a failure in the connector. Processing is transferred to the ConnectionProblem flow.d. The connector activity does not handle a failure in the connector. Processing is transferred to the FlowProblems flow. Incorrect

Note: The Service tab of a connector rule specifically allows you to identify a flow as the Error Handler Flow.180) What is the most appropriate data transformation technique given the need to parse out the contents of the following string containing an organization, division, and unit: "BIG.com#BIGDiv#BIGUnit."a. Use an Apply-Parse-Delimited rule. Incorrect

b. Use an Apply-Parse-Structured rule. Incorrect

c. Use an Apply-Parse-XML rule. Incorrect

d. Use a custom Rule-Utility-Function rule.Note: It would be a custom parse to break up the string at the # sign and divide the various portions into

properties representing an Org, Div, and Unit. Although Apply-Parse-Delimited may be used to parse out

information based on a single character delimiter such as #; it is meant to be used to process records of

a file that would be read in via a File Listener.181) Which method of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a Listener?Choose one answer.

a. SQL Incorrect

b. SOAP Incorrect

c. JMSd. BPEL Incorrect

e. EJB IncorrectNote: JMS is based on processing incoming messages, and that requires a Listener.182) Which of the following is not a true statement regarding Service Oriented Architectures?Choose one answer.

a. Supports tight coupling between applications.b. Can execute composite applications. Incorrect

c. Communication may be performed via a variety of transport protocols. Incorrect

d. Supports reuse. Incorrect

e. Orchestrates system to system communications. IncorrectNote: Service Oriented Architectures are about flexibility in how applications communicate with one another,

and tight coupling removes this flexibility.183) Which of the following types of service rules contain an Exceptions or Faults tab in support of error handling?Choose one answer.

a. COM, EJB, JSR94, Java, JMS, MQ, dotNET, SOAP Incorrect

b. COM, EJB, JSR94, Java, dotNET, SOAPc. EJB, JSR94, Java, Email, File Incorrect

d. COM, EJB, Java, JMS, MQ Incorrect

e. Email, File, BPEL, dotNET, SOAP IncorrectNote: These are the set of service rules containing either an Exception or Faults tab.184) True or False: You should configure an instance of Data-Admin-IS- ClientSimulation to set up a connector simulator.True Incorrect

FalseNote: An instance of Data-Admin-IS-Simulation is configured, not Data-Admin-IS- ClientSimulation .

Data-Admin-IS- ClientSimulation exists, but is for a different purpose.185) What is a Disintegrator shape?Choose one answer.

a. A shape in a flow that defines a reverse of what an Integrator shape is Incorrectb. There is no such shapec. A shape in a flow that allows you to setup synchronous connector calls Incorrect

d. A shape in a flow that allows you to setup asynchronous service calls Incorrect186) Which rule type allows you to connect to non SOAP compliant web services?Choose one answer.

a. Rule-Connect-HTTPb. Rule-Service-HTTP Incorrect

c. Rule-JMS-Listener Incorrect

d. Rule-MQ-Listener Incorrect187) Can you connect to a stored procedure which returns a result set using cursors?Choose one answer.

a. Yes with PRPC v5.5

b. No Incorrect188) What does {Asis} keyword do in Rule-Connect-SQL?Choose at least one answer.

a. {Asis} defines the name of a class Incorrect

b. {Asis} defines the name of a table Incorrect

c. {Asis} tells the system not to place quotes around the value

d. Allows you to generate Dynamic SQLNote; {Asis: property-name} instructs the system to not place spaces or quotes around the value. For example, using dynamic SQL - SELECT Property1 FROM Table1 WHERE {Asis: .MyDynamicSQL}189) Do RDB calls do a commit on their own?a. Yesb. No Incorrect190) Can you retrieve a CLOB data type from the RDB call?a. Yes Incorrect

b. No191) Can a File Listener listen on a read only volume/directory?a. Yes Incorrect

b. No192) Select three statements that correctly describe a Service?a. A pool of Requestors that respond to service calls similar to database connection pooling

b. Allows you to generate deployment files for certain service types

c. Allows you to specify an access group for the incoming calls

d. Allows you to specify an operator ID so that the service can run as that operator Incorrect193) How will you let an external caller read the PRPC database table pc_work?a. Rule-Service-SQL Incorrect

b. Create a different service type such as SOAP or HTTP and expose a service which in turn can read the database using PRPC facilities such as Obj Methodsc. Use RDB methods Incorrect

194) What mode of deployment should you choose if you need to expose a SOAP service?a. WAR Incorrect

b. EAR Incorrect

c. Doesn't matter195) Which two HTTP Methods does Rule-Connect-HTTP allow? (Choose Two.)a. PUT Incorrect

b. GETc. POST196) Which two SOAP versions are supported by PRPC?a. SOAP 1.1b. SOAP 1.2c. SOAP 2.1 Incorrect197) Choose which statements describe why you would choose Axis 2? (Choose all that apply.)a. If you are connecting to a service which has SOAP attachments.

b. If you are connecting to SOAP 1.2 based web services

c. If there are any XSD constructs in the Web service's WSDL file that the Connector Accelerator could not interpret (untyped elements, wildcards, nested choice groups)198) If the client requires the standard blue colors in the portal to be replaced with green colors, which style sheet class would you NOT change?Choose one answer.

a. .portalBarTitleBackground Incorrect

b. .dataTableHeadCenter Incorrect

c. A.portalLinks Incorrect

d. BODY.spaceBarTitleNote: Look through the style sheet classes to identify what each class controls. Use the style picker and style view to help you.199) Can you create a completely new portal?a. Yesb. No IncorrectNote: You can create new portals. For example, you may want to create a portal that is useful to Business

Architects.200) CSS styles are instances of which class?Choose one answer.a. Rule-File-Textb. Rule-PortalSkin Incorrect

c. Rule-HTML-Fragment IncorrectNote: CS