GE InternalQ.1) Which of the following are virtual memory based caches? (Choose Three) A. Rule Cache (Correct Answer) B. Rules Assembly Cache (Correct Answer) C. RuleResolution Cache (Correct Answer) D. Lookup List Cache E. Static Content Cache F. Dictionary Cache Q.2) When a rule executes what is really executed? (Choose One) A. XML which is stored in the BLOB B. Java code which is compiled from the XML stored in the BLOB (Correct Answer) C. A class file which is stored in the BLOB D. A serialized java object which is stored in the BLOB Q.3) Which statement best describes the Rules Assembly Cache? (Choose One) A. The Rules Assembly Cache is a disk based cache that stores the generated XML and resulting class files, post compilation since what finally gets executed is XML, not java code. B. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that reduces PegaRULES database traffic as it contains copies of rules recently accessed or recently updated by developers C. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that allows Process Commander to rapidly identify compiled Java CLASS files that correspond to compiled and assembled rules (Correct Answer) D. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache used by PRPC to feed the Instance Cache as the Instance Cache is the instance of a given rule for which code has been generated. Q.4) Where can you view the contents of the Rule Instance Cache? (Choose One) A. . Using the SMA you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the form of an Excel file (Correct Answer) B. B. Using the Developer Portal you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the form of an excel file and is accessed from the tools > instance cache menu C. C. By viewing the XML files from the TEMPDIR\PRGenJava\XML directory D. . By viewing the XML files from the pzInsKey column by using JDBC code Q.5) What determines which table a work object is persisted to? (Choose One) A. A. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record for the class group the work object belongs to and the access group the current user belongs to B. B. The RuleSet the class belongs, and Data- Admin-DB-Table definitions C. C. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record associated to the class group the work object belongs to (Correct Answer) D. D. The RuleSet the class belongs to Q.6) The BLOB is stored in the pzPVStream column of a table and contains the data associated with the instance. Which two statements are false? (Choose two) A. Since it is a column in a table in a database, you can extract the BLOB and use it in another system (Correct Answer) B. The blob contains the same clear text xml you see when clicking the rule data or the View XML option in the clipboard (Correct Answer) C. The ? PzPVStream? Can be eliminated by use of simple tables (those without embedded pages and page lists) D. The BLOB enables a single table to store complex data structures that would normally require multiple tables in a normalized database. Q.7) PegaRULES is installed on a multi-node system, and a copy of the various caches is stored on each node. Each of these nodes must be updated with rule changes. Which functionality in PRPC manages the update process? (Choose One) A. Node- Pulse B. Rule Cache C. System-Update D. System-Pulse (Correct Answer) Q.8) Which statements in regards to commits in PRPC are false? (Choose Two) A. All database updates require that the requestor holds a lock on the object (Correct Answer) B. The system performs commits automatically when processing for a submit operation of a flow action completes, for both connector and local flow actions C. Commit operations can trigger the execution of Declare- Trigger rules D. Assuming distributed transaction is not configured and the deferred operation list contains operations for only one database. When the system commits all deferred operations for the requestor, if any of the writes fail, they all fail E. The deferred operations will be committed when you use the write-now option with the obj-save method because this causes a commit to occur (Correct Answer) Q.9) PRPC can be installed using a WAR or EAR configuration. Which of the following does NOT require an EAR configuration? (Choose One) A. JMS message services support need to be provided B. Support for two-phase commits is required C. Support for EJB services need to be provided D. J2EE security is required E. JSR-94 support is required (Correct Answer) Q.10) Select the valid modes an Agent can have since PRPC 5.4? (Choose Three) A. Normal B. Legacy (Correct Answer) C. Standard (Correct Answer) D. Advanced (Correct Answer) E. Modes are not required to be selected for Agents in PRPC 5.4 Q.11) Why does PRPC create a Data-Agent-Queue instance when you create a Rule-Agent-Queue instance? (Choose One) A. Data- Agent-Queue instances are not locked so they allow you to control the behavior of Agents in a locked RuleSet at runtime (Correct Answer) B. Data-Agent-Queue instances are created by PRPC to support the new Queue For Agent functionality which was provided since PRPC v5.4 C. Data-Agent-Queue instances are created automatically by PRPC whenever the Queue-For- Agent method is used in an activity tep to queue work for the Agent D. Data-Agent-Queue instances are data instances which are used by the Queue Manager functionality to allow for concurrent access to a queued piece of work by agents running on multiple nodes E. Data-Agent-Queue instances represent the master definition of PRPC agents and have been deprecated as of PRPC v5.4 in favor of using Rule-Agent-Queue Q.12) Which statement is true regarding how locking works with covers? (Choose One) A. By default, the cover does not get locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable B. By default, the cover is locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable (Correct Answer) C. The cover must always be locked when working on the cover or one of its covered work objects because updates occur on the cover throughout processing of the covered work objects D. Cover object locking is identical to that of other work objects, in that it is only locked when it is opened by a requestor Q.13) What purpose and effect does the Obj-Refresh-and-Lock method have? (Choose One) A. It has no effect if a lock is held and has not expired (Correct Answer) B. It will reacquire a lock and will always refresh the contents of the object from the Database C. If the lock is not held, the method will acquire a lock and always replace the step page contents with the current values from the database D. This method has been deprecated as of PRPC 5.3 in support of the Obj-Browse method which handles refresh and locking automatically E. This method is highly efficient and will only refresh the object if the content on the clipboard is older than the current state in the database and will also force lockthe object regardless ofholds the lock Q.14) What does the rollback method do? (Choose Two) A. Cancels/Withdraws any pending obj-save and obj-delete methods (Correct Answer) B. Rollback is not supported by PRPC when using a WAR deployment. The only way you can do a rollback is by using the compensating actions method C. Rollback is a way to rollback an object to a previous state using the History instance for a work object D. Rolls back the deferred stack of operations for the specified page (Correct Answer) Q.15) What does the system pulse do? (Choose Three) A. It is used by PRPC to synchronize changes to the Data-Agent-Schedule instances whenever a Rule-Agent-Queue instance is modified B. It invalidates rule caches on a per node basis using entries in the pr_sys_updatescache table (Correct Answer) C. It processes changes to the Lucene indexes that support full text searches (Correct Answer) D. It synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes (Correct Answer) E. It is used by PRPC to send out information to PAL on a weekly basis so that performance analysis can be performed over a period of time Q.16) Which one of the following statements is true regarding the PRPC threading model? (Choose One) A. PRThreads are similar to Java threads and the types include STANDARD, DEVELOPER, and OPENPORTAL B. A PRThread is essentially a namespace which allows a Requestor to have separate clipboard pages that do not interact with each other (Correct Answer) C. Multiple PRThreads can be executed concurrently depending on whether multi-threading is enabled D. All of the above Q.17) A customer implementation necessitates the usage of Message-driven beans. Which of these platforms can the solution be deployed on? (Choose Two) A. JBoss (EAR Deployment) (Correct Answer) B. WebLogic (WAR Deployment) C. WebSphere (EAR Deployment) (Correct Answer) D. Tomcat (WAR Deployment) E. All of the above Q.18) A PRPC installation has 3 nodes. An Agent rule has a single agent listed which takes data from an external system. It would cause contention issues if it ran on more than one node. What is the recommended way to ensure the agent only runs in one cluster? (Choose One) A. Delete the Agent schedule on two nodes B. Disable the Agent schedule on two of the nodes, either from the Agent Schedule rule form or using the System Management Application (Correct Answer) C. Disable the master agent on two nodes D. In your Agent activity call a decision table to verify host name of the system (application) Q.19) What four steps must be taken to unit test a connector within a flow when the target interface/system is not yet available? (Choose Four) A. Create a Simulation activity (Correct Answer) B. Set the connector to simulate in the Simulation data instance and specify the activity (Correct Answer) C. Use Tracer and set a breakpoint D. Define a Connect Simulation instance (Correct Answer) E. Test the flow with simulation enabled (Correct Answer) F. Create a new Integrator task Q.20) Which methods of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a listener? (Choose Two) A. BPEL B. HTTP C. JMS (Correct Answer) D. MQ (Correct Answer) E. dotNet Q.21) Which method of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a listener? (Choose One) A. SOAP B. BPEL C. EJB D. JMS (Correct Answer) E. SQL Q.22) Which two statements are false when using stateless services? (Choose Two) A. You are guaranteed to connect to a new application requestor each time the service is invoked (Correct Answer) B. You cannot assume which application requestor you will connect to C. You must manually clear the clipboard of any data left on from previous application requestors (Correct Answer) D. When invoked your service may or may not result in the creation of a new application requestor Q.23) What is the default error handling mechanism for connector rules generated through the Connector wizard? (Choose One) A. The connector activity does not handle a failure in the connector; processing is transferred to the ConnectionProblem flow (Correct Answer) B. The connector activity handles the result of the connector via a Precondition on the step following the call to the connector C. The connector activity handles the result of the connector via a Transition D. The connector activity does not handle a failure in the connector; processing is transferred to the FlowProblems flow Q.24) Which statement is true about running Connect- methods in parallel? (Choose One) A. Only Connect-SOAP and Connect- HTTP methods offer a RunInParallel parameter B. Many Connect- methods offer a RunInParallel parameter (Correct Answer) C. The Connect- Hold is used with the RunInParallel parameter to wait for the parallel connector(s) to finish D. All Connect- methods offer a RunInParallel parameter Q.25) Is it appropriate to use the RDB-Save method to save/update work object instances to the PegaRULES database out of the box table structures? Select the most appropriate answer. (Choose One) A. Yes, you can run SQL inserts and updates against the PRPC database for any PRPC object and maintain proper data integrity B. Yes, but access via RDB-Save will be less efficient than an Obj-Save call C. No, because not all properties are distinct database columns and some data may be lost (Correct Answer) D. No. The byte governor will prevent me from opening an RDB connection to the PegaRULES database Q.26) Compare SOAP and HTTP messaging protocols. Which of the statements below are correct? (Choose Two) A. HTTP is a low- overhead alternative to SOAP (Correct Answer) B. SOAP is a more reliable protocol than HTTP C. SOAP is needed if I want to exchange XML messages D. HTTP services can be configured to process service requests asynchronously (Correct Answer) E. HTTP connectors can be generated with the Connector and Metadata accelerator Q.27) Which two statements are true about testing services and connectors? (Choose Two) A. Using tools that allow you to monitor traffic and interaction between a SOAP client and service can be helpful in determining where the problem lies (Correct Answer) B. Service invocation in PRPC cannot be traced because the requesto does not exist before the service invocation C. When connect simulation is enabled for an MQ connector, the connector itself is not tested (Correct Answer) D. The only way to simulate a connector when the service isn't available is to comment out the Connect-SOAP method and replace it with an activity that directly creates pages and properties as the connector would Q.28) Which two statements are true about services and the Services Accelerator? (Choose Two) A. The Service Accelerator generates service activities that allow services to create or manage work B. The Service Accelerator generates a service rule for activities of your choice, allowing you to invoke those activities remotely (Correct Answer) C. Services can be configured so that service requests that fail PRPC processing are re-queued for another attempt (Correct Answer) D. The performance of long running service requests can be significantly improved through requestor pooling Q.29) What is the recommended way to configure Service endpoint URLs and other connector specific information? (Choose One) A. The requestor page B. The process page C. A declarative page (Correct Answer) D. The primary page Q.30) Which of the following is the best way to detect long-running services and connectors in a production PRPC environment? (Choose One) A. Use PAL B. Use SMA C. Use Tracer D. Use the System Logs E. Use the Alerts Logs (Correct Answer) F. There is no way to detect long-running services or connectors Q.31) Which two of these statements about Obj-* methods are correct? (Choose Two) A. Obj- methods can only access internal classes B. Obj- methods must be used if PRPC locking is to be used (Correct Answer) C. Obj- methods require that the referenced database table contains a column named pzPVStream D. Specifying WriteNow on an Obj- method will always commit regardless of other transactional settings E. Specifying WriteNow on an Obj- method is discouraged in favor of allowing PRPC to dictate commit points as part of flow execution (Correct Answer) Q.32) Not all connectors can be run in parallel. Which of the following can be run in a parallel? (Choose Two) A. 1 Connect-EJB (Correct Answer) B. 2 Connect-FTP C. 3 Connect-File D. 4 Connect-SOAP (Correct Answer) Q.33) Which two statements are true about RuleSet prerequisites? (Choose Two) A. RuleSet prerequisites as specified in the ? Requires RuleSet and Virsions ? fields of the RuleSet form are enforced at run time B. Prerequisite RuleSets govern the creation of new rules during development. (Correct Answer) C. RuleSet prerequisites are validated during export of application archives D. When saving application rules, RuleSet prerequisites are validated. (Correct Answer) Q.34) Which one of the following techniques is most appropriate for specializing by COUNTRY or STATE? (Choose One) A. Class B. Circumstancing C. Class or Circumstancing (Correct Answer) D. RuleSet (e.g. a separate RuleSet where rules apply to the same class) E. RuleSet or Class Q.35) Which one of the following techniques is most appropriate for specializing by DATE? (Choose One) A. RuleSet Only (e.g. a separate RuleSet where rules apply to the same class) B. Class C. Circumstancing (Correct Answer) D. RuleSet and Class E. Class and Circumstancing Q.36) Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose Two) A. Work and Data classes should always go into separate RuleSets to ensure reusability B. In most cases there is no need to separate Work from Data classes by RuleSet as they are both part of the application (Correct Answer) C. Interface classes should go in a separate RuleSet because this achieves the highest level of reuse and portability (Correct Answer) D. Interface and Data classes should be stored in the same RuleSet to keep the number of RuleSets down E. Work, Data and Interface classes should be stored in the same RuleSet to keep the number of RuleSets down Q.37) Which two statements are true about the Application Accelerator (EAA)? (Choose Two) A. The AA can create a framework layer and a corresponding Implementation lyer in one run (Correct Answer) B. You need to generate framework and implementation layers in tw separate AA runs C. The AA can create the Enterprise Organizational and Divisional Reuse layers (Correct Answer) D. When generating a new implementation, I can pick the work classes in the framework for which to generate the implementation classes Q.38) Which statement is true about withdrawn rules? (Choose One) A. Withdrawn rules make reflecting a class a rule ?applies to? Easier (Correct Answer) B. Setting a rules availability to ?withdrawn? is the same as setting it to ?NO? C. Withdrawn rules remove all instances of the rule from the database D. Withdrawn rules are the same as blocked rules E. A withdrawn rule affects other rules in its applies to class and any parent classes Q.39) Which one statement is valid for As-Of date processing and date qualified circumstancing? (Choose One) A. As-Of date processing uses the rule whose date circumstance matches a work object property B. As-Of date processing requires a RuleSet effective date, and date qualified circumstancing uses the current system time C. As-Of date uses a property on the work object, and date qualified circumstancing uses the current system time (Correct Answer) D. Date qualified circumstancing allows selecting rules based on a work object property, and As- Of date processing uses the current system time Q.40) primary reason for using the Enterprise Class Structure to reach reusability goals is? (Choose One) A. To put most rules in the Enterprise Shared layer B. To create new classes for each type of specialization C. To consider the most appropriate class and RuleSet for each rule (Correct Answer) D. To use it as is and do not try to alter it Q.41) Which of the following is not a fundamental way to improve reusability? (Choose One) A. Thoroughly document all rules B. Parameterize rules C. Use a Dynamic Class Referencing design pattern D. Limit your design to utilize no more than 8 different rule types (Correct Answer) E. Use naming conventions when naming rules Q.42) Withdrawn rules are important in reuse and specialization because? (Choose One) A. It is the primary way to notify other developers that the rule should not be reused B. It is the primary way to notify other developers that the rule can be reused but should not be overridden C. It allows a developer to ?move? the rule to a more generic class in the class structure (Correct Answer) D. It allows a developer to use an older version of the same rule (and the same applies to classes) Q.43) You want to restrict developers to save rules that apply to the MyApp-Loan-JumboLoan class only in the JumboLoanRS RuleSet. How can you accomplish this? (Choose One) A. Use the Restrictions tab on the Class Definition form (Correct Answer) B. Create an access rule C. Lock the JumboLoanRS RuleSet D. Create a series of activities and declarative expressions IncorrectQ.44) What are the benefits of the "framework layer" and why is it important? (Choose Three) A. It allows you to collect all enterprise shared rules in a single layer B. It can be overridden with rules specific to an organizational division or line of business (Correct Answer) C. It promotes reuse of application frameworks across the enterprise (Correct Answer) D. It allows you to implement a common business process (Correct Answer) E. It allows for simultaneous development across organizations Q.45) What is the Int-class in the Divisional Reuse Layer used for? (Choose One) A. For generated connector classes and rules that are shared by all applications within a division (Your Answer) B. For classes and rules internal to a given division C. For generated connector classes and rules that are shared across all divisions D. To internationalize an application Q.46) Which of the following statements is false? (Choose One) A. The Enterprise Class Structure (ECS) allows building enterprise- grade applications that are scalable and extensible B. Pega best practices call for all applications on PRPC v5 platform be built using the Enterprise Class Structure (ECS)patterns C. The Enterprise Class Structure (ECS) provides the foundation for superior application performance (Correct Answer) Q.47) According to Pega best practices, in which class should rules that are reusable across the work classes of all divisions reside? (MyCo stands for an arbitrary company name and Div1 stands for an arbitrary division name) (Choose One) A. Work- B. MyCo- (Correct Answer) C. MyCo-Work- D. MyCo-Div1-Work Q.48) What does PRPC do when executing a blocked rule? (Choose One) A. It writes a message to Log4J B. It only ignores the rule and continues to search for the next rule via rule resolution C. It throws an exception (Correct Answer) D. It either ignores the rule or throws an exception depending on the prconfig.xml settings Q.49) Rules with circumstances rank ahead of unqualified rules . (Choose Two) A. except when the base rule flag is checked on the circumstanced rule B. even when the unqualified rule is in a higher RuleSet version (Your Answer) C. except when the base rule flag is checked on the unqualified rule (Correct Answer) D. only when the unqualified rule is in the same RuleSet version as the circumstanced rules Q.50) We can improve the reusability of a rule in PRPC in following ways: (Choose Three) A. By using Application Profiler B. By following naming conventions and documentation (Your Answer) C. By using the Availability feature in the Rule form D. By using parameters in the rules where possible (Your Answer) E. E. By completing the History tab (Correct Answer) Q.51) What rule will PRPC select if no circumstances match the current clipboard data? (Choose One) A. The base rule (Your Answer) B. It will fail to find a rule that matches and throw a general ?nt found? Exception C. It will choose the last version created as the best match. D. An @ baseclass default activity is called that returns no value and logs the failure of the attempted call Q.52) An activity rule has multiple circumstanced instances. All instances are in RuleSet Xray:01-01-01 and have availability = Yes. Each rule has an as-of date circumstance and a Date Range. The bananaGrownDate property of the work object is 12th September 2008 and the system date is 20th September 2008. Which of the following rule would be selected by rule resolution? (Choose one) A. bananaGrownDate Date Circumstances (as-of) 09/12/2009, Date Range 01/01/2009 to 12/31/2009 B. bananaGrownDate Date Circumstances (as-of) 09/13/2008, Date Range 09/21/2008 to 09/30/2008 C. bananaGrownDate Date Circumstances (as-of) 09/01/2008, Date Range 08/01/2008 to 09/20/2008 (Correct Answer) D. None of the above ? the base rule would be selected. Q.53) What is true about Container-Managed and PRPC Managed authentication? (Choose One) A. Container-Managed authentication disables the entire PRPC authorization mechanism(s) B. Container-Managed authentication cannot be used when deploying a PRPC WAR on Tomcat (Correct Answer) C. Container-Managed authentication eliminates the need to store the Operator ID in PRPC (Your Answer) D. PRPC does not support Container-Managed authentication CorrectQ.54) A user wants access to modify activity EstablishOperatorExternally in class Code-Security, with the system level setting being 5. If the following class mappings are the only part of that access role, which combination does NOT give the user sufficient access rights? A. (Choose One) A. B. C. D. (Your Answer) B. DDD Note : Screen shots are not added . Please read Security document.Q.55) Which three statements are true about roles? (Choose Three) A. A role defines the levels of access to rules that apply to a class and instances of that class (Your Answer) B. Roles can be created and modified using the Role Editor C. A role defines various levels of access to RuleSets and RuleSet versions D. Each Access of Role to Object rule may have zero or one privilege E. An Access When rule defines a test that the system performs to allow, or disallow, a requestor to perform an operation on an instance of a specific class (Correct Answer) F. An access group can only have one role applied at one time Q.56) Which two statements are true about PRPC security? (Choose Two) A. An access group can reference one or more access roles. (Your Answer) B. A production level of 0 identifies an experimental system C. Security in PRPC can be controlled at a class level (Your Answer) D. A users RuleSet list is a proper mechanism to control access to rules Q.57) A user's access group has two roles listeD. ? RoleA and RoleB (in that order).? RoleA has the "Open Instances of Data-Admin- Operator-ID" set to 0, and RoleB has it set to 5. Assuming there is no Access Deny rule, will this user be able to open an operator instance on a production system and why? (Choose One) A. Yes, the higher of the two production levels wins B. Yes, access roles are applied until a role grants access (Correct Answer) C. No, if any role is set to 0, access is not granted D. No, all access roles must grant access Q.58) Where do you configure the authentication timeout in PRPC? (Choose One) A. In the web.xml file B. In the prconfig.xml file C. In the access group (Your Answer) D. In the Rule-Admin-System-Settings Q.59) If an Access Role to Object and an Access Deny rule are defined on the same class, which rule takes precedence with respect to security? (Choose One) A. Access Role to Object B. Access Deny (Correct Answer) C. PRPC prevents them from both being applied to the same class D. None ? they are both applied Q.60) A user has an access role that allows them Level 5 access to modify instances of the MyCo-Work- PolicyApp-Endorse class. Which rule type should you use to disallow access to instances of the MyCo-Work-PolicyApp-Endorse class? (Choose One) A. Access Settings B. Access Role to Object C. Access Deny (Correct Answer) D. Access Privilege CorrectQ.61) (True of False) Even if you use a centralized directory (LDAP) and/ or identity management system for authentication, you need to store Operator IDs in PRPC. (Choose One) A. True, Even requestor in PRPC needs an associated Operator ID (Your Answer) B. True, You need the Operator ID to bind to the LDAP directory. C. False, You use the LDAP User ID instead of the Operator ID D. False, This is only needed if you? Re reporting off of PRPCs database Q.62) There are two session-related timeouts that are configurable in PRPC, the authentication timeout and the requestor timeout. Which statement is true? (Choose One) A. Authentication timeout should be set to occur first (Correct Answer) B. Requestor timeout should be set to occur first C. Both timeouts should be set to the same value D. With passivation enabled, the authentication timeout should be set to 0 CorrectQ.63) Access groups cannot be referenced from which one of the following objects? (Choose One) A. Operator ID B. WorkGroup (Your Answer) C. Organization D. Division CorrectQ.64) Which one rule type cannot be associated with a privilege? (Choose One) A. Correspondence B. ListView C. Decision Table (Your Answer) D. Flow CorrectQ.65) A user has the following class access mappings: ? MyCo-App-Work Modify Rules = 3 ? MyCo- App-Work-CaseCreate Modify Rules = 5 ? MyCo-App-Work-CaseDelete Modify Rules = 0 Which three statements below are correct? (Choose Three) A. The user can modify rules in the MyCo-App-Work-Research class on a Development system (Your Answer) B. The user can modify rules in the MyCo-App-Work-CaseDelete class in an Experimental system C. The user can modify rules in the MyCo-App-Work- CaseCreate class in a Test system (Your Answer) D. The user can modify rules in the MyCo-App-Work-CaseCreate class in Production (Your Answer) IncorrectQ.66) Given the diagram below, what type of rule is canPerform? (Choose One) A. Access Privilege B. Access Settings C. Access When (Correct Answer) D. Access Deny CorrectQ.67) Can the out-of-the-box (OOTB) PRPC Access Roles be modified? (Choose One) A. No, all of these roles are in locked RuleSets (Your Answer) B. Yes, out-of-the-box roles are starter roles that are supposed to be customize C. No, out-of-the-box roles should be overridden in application RuleSets D. Yes, the Role Editor allows you to modify all roles Q.68) An activity (MyCo-Div1-.SaveQuote) is associated with the following privileges: ? mayQuote? maySaveA user has the maySave privilege but not the mayQuote privilege. Can the user run the activity? (Choose One) A. No, the user must have all of the privileges listed on an activity to execute the activity B. Yes, all shared rules can be executed by applications across the enterprise C. Yes, if the user has any of the privileges listed on an activity, they may execute the activity (Your Answer) D. Yes, privileges on an activity only control design-time restrictions CorrectQ.69) How would you determine whether a requestor holds a specific privilege? (Choose One) A. Interrogate the Declare_PrivilegeName page on the clipboard B. Make use of the PublicAPI.- tools.GetPrivilege(Requestor).Rolename method C. Make use of the function: - @ (Pega-RULES:Default).HavePrivilege("tools", privname, privAppliesTo, pagename) (Your Answer) D. Use a section of Java and utilize the out-of-the-box (OOTB) ListRequestorPrivilege(Role r) method Q.70) Using the Access Role editor, you are able to (Choose Three) A. get a tabular overview of all Access of Role to Object rules that make up an Access Role (Your Answer) B. create new privilege rules C. view Operators mapped to selected Role D. copy permissions to another role (Correct Answer) E. create a new role (Your Answer) F. view Access Deny rules to a class Q.71) Which statement is false about Rule-HTML-Property instances? (Choose One) A. Rule-HTML-Property instances can be circumstanced B. Rule-HTML-Property instances belong to a RuleSet version C. Rule-HTML-Property instances can accept parameters as input D. Rule-HTML-Property instances have an Applies To class (Correct Answer) Q.72) In which order does validation occur on a standard flow action? (Choose One) A. Client Side Validation, Post Processing Activity, Validate Rule on Flow Action B. Client Side Validation, Validate Rule on Flow Action, Post Processing Activity (Your Answer) C. Validate Rule on Flow Action ,Client Side Validation, Post Processing Activity D. You can change the order per screen CorrectQ.73) Which two of the following tools are primarily designed to help debug and develop the user interface layout for an application? (Choose Two) A. Rules Inspector (Your Answer) B. Tracer C. Style Viewer (Your Answer) D. Pre Flight E. Profiler CorrectQ.74) Which two statements are true regarding screen flows? (Choose Two) A. Define a single harness for the entire screen flow. (Your Answer) B. Each step in the screen flow can be routed to different worklist or workbasket C. Defer committing changes until the end of the screen flow, if configured to do so in the start shape with Save Later set to true (Your Answer) D. Each assignment in a screen flow allows for you to add more than one flow action Q.75) Which one statement best explains how you can control navigation within a screen flow? (Choose One) A. Each step in the screen flow allows you to determine if you can jump to this step or if you can only jump back after it has been completed (Correct Answer) B. Screen flows only support assignment shapes thus always have a pre-defined number of steps to complete C. The harness defines if you are able to jump forward to future steps in a screen flow D. Screen flows always force the end user to walk through the flow in sequential order without the ability to jump from one screen to another CorrectQ.76) Which client side events are supported within PRPC? (Choose Three) A. OnChange (Your Answer) B. OnMouseout C. OnClick (Your Answer) D. OnBlur (Your Answer) E. OnFocus IncorrectQ.77) According to Pega?s best practice what is the recommended way to implement a solution in this example. You have a list of purchase orders on the screen, each with a price. As you change the price the Grand Total should automatically be updated. (Choose One) A. Put an OnChange client event on each of the price inputs and have it use the refresh section event to call an activity to calculate the Grand Total B. Build a Declarative expression to calculate the Grand Total and use the CalculatedValue HTML-Property on the Grand Total property when displaying it (Correct Answer) C. Build a Declarative expression to calculate the Grand Total and refresh the section when inputs change D. Use OnChange client events on the input elements and have them alter the value in the Grand Total property Q.78) Which statement is true regarding the initial harness that displays for a work object? (Choose One) A. The initial harness is defined in the pyDefault model B. The initial harness is defined on every flow C. The initial harness is only defined for flows that create new work objects and is required D. The initial harness can be skipped and this is configurable from the flow rule(Correct Answer) CorrectQ.79) Which of the following are false? (Choose Three) A. Repeating list displays are only for page lists (Your Answer) B. You can display lists as row or column lists (Top to Bottom or Left to Right) C. You can only display a list as a row repeating list display (List goes from top to bottom) (Your Answer) D. There is no support for tabs when displaying repeating lists (Your Answer) E. A section rule can be used to specify how items of the repeating list are displayed CorrectQ.80) Which four of the following are provided as out-of-the-box (OOTB) widgets when creating user interface rules? (Choose Four) A. A. List-to-List (Your Answer) B. B. Sliders C. C. Dynamic Select (Your Answer) D. D. Toolbar E. E. Auto Complete (Your Answer) F. F. List View (Your Answer) CorrectQ.81) Which layouts are provided out-of-the-box (OOTB) when building forms? (Choose Two) A. Carousel Layout B. Accordion Layout (Your Answer) C. Tabbed Layout (Your Answer) D. Concertina Layouts IncorrectQ.82) Which one statement describes the best practice for branding an application to meet a companys style requirements? (Choose One) A. Use the Application Skin wizard and then use inline styles on the user interface rules B. Use the Application Skin wizard and then modify the generated skin when needed, try to limit inline styles (Correct Answer) C. Only use the style viewer and make changes to the out-of-the-box CSS files and your own RuleSets D. Use inline styles to change displays to meet corporate standards Q.83) Which are best practices when designing user interface rules so they can be re-used? (Choose Two) A. By building all displays within cells of layouts it will allow you the granularity needed to re-use the rule B. By building section rules or HTML-Property rules with parameters it will allow you to re-use these display rules more frequently within an application (Your Answer) C. By grouping related data into section rules, you can re-use these sections throughout the application and control if they should be updateable or read-only in the parent section (Your Answer) D. The best practice for re-using user interface rules is to assure it is in the right part of the class structure CorrectQ.84) Where do you configure the label that displays in the drop down at an assignment (i.e. the list of available actions)? (Choose One) A. It is set within the Assignment shape on the flow B. It is set by the short description from the flow action rule (Your Answer) C. It is set by the usage on the history tab on the flow action rule D. It is set by a parameter in the pre-activity on the flow action IncorrectQ.85) Which features allows the worklist to display additional data from the work object? (Choose Two) A. The JOIN feature on List Views now lets you join the assignment table to the work object table to add exposed columns to the worklist display (Correct Answer) B. The JOIN feature on List Views now lets you join the assignment table to the work object table to retrieve any element from the work object C. The Smart Info hover over lets you display a Section rule to show additional work object information (Your Answer) D. Alter the getContent activity to write custom code to look through items on worklist to perform additional lookups on the work table CorrectQ.86) When working with User Interface rules such as Sections, it is possible to save them in the ?work? or ?data? portions of the class structure hierarchy. Is the following statement true or false? Saving Section rules in the ?data? portion of the hierarchy is usually better because the rules can then be reused wherever its associated data is used, without having to worry about correct property referencing. A. True (Your Answer) B. False IncorrectQ.87) Which tools gives you the broadest picture of your systems overall health? (Choose Two) A. PAL B. Profiler C. System Management Application (SMA) (Your Answer) D. DBTrace E. Autonomic Event Services (AES) (Correct Answer) IncorrectQ.88) Which two actions help to optimize your database or promote effective SQL statements? (Choose Two) A. Partition the database (Correct Answer) B. Avoid arithmetic operations or functions in the SELECT clause C. Write queries that operate on large results sets but only display small amounts of data D. Create and use indexes effectively (Your Answer) E. Avoid using Where clauses IncorrectQ.89) What are three performance impacts of having an extremely large work object? (Choose Three) A. Slower persistence to database as the BLOB needs to be compressed (Your Answer) B. Garbage collection impacts when object is released (Correct Answer) C. Large clipboard page footprint (Correct Answer) D. Large work objects waste space in the instance cache E. E. Large work objects are stored as XML files on the file system and will lead to ?out of disk? errors if they are not purged frequentlyIncorrectQ.90) The PAL indicators that refer to the ?stream? are measuring what? (Choose One) A. The HTML data going to the browser B. Any processing of requests and responses via Services C. Reading and writing data in the database D. Database operations pertaining to the BLOB (Correct Answer) IncorrectQ.91) What is the Byte Governor alert (PEGA0004) and how does it work? (Choose Two) A. It is a critical alert that can take the form of an alert or an error (Correct Answer) B. It is triggered when the total number of bytes sent to the browser in an interaction exceeds a byte count threshold C. It is triggered when the total number of bytes read from all queries in an interaction exceeds a byte count threshold (Correct Answer) D. It is triggered when the total number of bytes saved to the database in an interaction exceeds a byte count threshold(Your Answer) CorrectQ.92) Where do you customize the thresholds for alerts? (Choose One) A. PRLOGGING.XML B. Rule-Admin-System-Settings C. PRCONFIG.XML (Your Answer) D. You cannot customize the thresholds; the defaults are fine and do not need to be adjusted CorrectQ.93) Which tool is best to use if you want to compare PRPC Errors with Alerts, as well as the JVM Garbage Collection Log? (Choose One) A. PLA ? PegaRULES Log Analyzer (Your Answer) B. AES ? Autonomic Event Services C. SMA ? System Management Application D. Excel CorrectQ.94) Your application just went into production and the users are complaining that response times are terrible. Your best initial action should be? (Choose Two) A. Use the PLA ? PegaRULES Log Analyzer to analyze ALERTS, System Logs, and the GC (Garbage Collection) (Your Answer) B. Run PAL on every screen in the application C. Run Pre-Flight D. Check the Pega Alert logs (Your Answer) CorrectQ.95) Which one of the following are true about DB Trace and Application Profiler? (Choose Two) A. They are essentially the same thing, it?s a personal preference as to which to use B. You can see Activity rule executions only in the Application Profiler C. To see where database actions are taking place, the Application Profiler provides more detail than DBTrace (Your Answer) D. The Application Profiler is the better tool to see step-by-step where the elapsed and CPU time is being spent (Your Answer) CorrectQ.96) Why is allowing instances to be stored in a default table (pr_other) a poor design practice? (Choose Two) A. The default table does not contain adequate indexes and columns for performance (Your Answer) B. The default table does not have adequate exposed columns (Your Answer) C. The default table names are too generic D. The default table is too small to hold all of your data E. Because the Preflight tool will flag it as bad practice IncorrectQ.97) Which three of the following measurements are used by the alerts reported to the PRPC Alert log? (Choose Three) A. The overall time elapsed from when a user triggers Client Side JavaScript B. The time spent executing Declarative expressions C. The time for a response from a web service called using the Connect-SOAP method (Your Answer) D. The time for a database query to execute and return results to PRPC (Your Answer) E. The size of the HTML stream returned to the user/browser (Correct Answer) CorrectQ.98) Which one of the following statements is true? (Choose One) A. The overall size of a PRPC work object impacts the time it takes to compress and store the object in the database (Your Answer) B. During List View execution, PRPC will only retrieve/expand the BLOB if the properties retrieved are not exposed C. During List View execution, PRPC will only retrieve/expand the BLOB if the properties used in the generated Where clause are not exposed D. PRPC only retrieves/expands the BLOB via the use of the Obj-Open and Obj-Open-By-Handle methods E. By default the PRPC BLOB is stored in an encrypted format in the database IncorrectQ.99) Which of the following statements are true regarding PRPC and garbage collection? (Choose Two) A. Effective clipboard management is one of the best ways for an architect to reduce an applications memory footprint and time spent in performing garbage collection (Your Answer) B. When available, additional JVM heap space may or may not improve the time spent in garbage collection (Correct Answer) C. As PRPC architects it is important to set properties to null so that they can be discarded as part of garbage collection D. As long as reporting is done by a 3rd party tool garbage collection will have minimal impact on the performance of a PRPC application IncorrectQ.100) Given the following situation: A BPM application was deployed into production nine months ago and was performing well initially. Now, users complain of slow response times on certain screen interactions irrespective of the time of day. Which one of the following statements is most likely to be accurate as to the root cause of this issue? (Choose One) A. Over time more rows have been added to work, history, assignment and operator tables and inefficient queries against those tables are taking longer than they did 9 months earlier (Correct Answer) B. A memory leak in the configuration has led to more and more garbage collection over the past nine months C. If the PRPC application server has not be restarted recently it is likely the case that the PRPC caches have filled up and are not being utilized well D. As new rules have been added to the PRPCrule base, the database containing the rules needs to be properly indexed and tuned so that frequent access to the rules is made as efficient as possible IncorrectQ.101) Which two statements are false about the Log-Message method? (Choose Two) A. You can force a stack trace B. You can specify the filename where you want to write the message (Correct Answer) C. It allows you to avoid using Java steps to write to the PageRULES log D. You can add a message that will show up in Tracer E. It always uses the Debug log level (Your Answer) IncorrectQ.102) Which one of the following is not a refactoring tool provided by PRPC? (Choose One) A. Renaming a class and propagating the name change through the hierarchy and rule references B. Converting a Map-Value into a Decision Table (Correct Answer) C. Search and replace of a string in all rules D. Merging one RuleSet into another CorrectQ.103) Which feature is available when using Tracer? (Choose One) A. You can set a breakpoint for a specific step within an activity B. Open an named clipboard page to display current data C. Select which requestor session you wish to trace, using the SMA tool (Your Answer) D. Re-run a specific set of steps with updated data CorrectQ.104) How can you debug an agent using Tracer? (Choose One) A. There is a way to select the agent and force its execution B. You can trace a given requestor by delaying an agent in SMA (Your Answer) C. You can set a break point in the activity that the agent runs to have Tracer pick it up D. You can set a log-message step in the activity the agent runs to have Tracer find the activity IncorrectQ.105) Which two statements are true regarding configuring log files in PRPC? (Choose Two) A. You cannot configure within an Activity rule to which log file you want to write errors (Correct Answer) B. You are able to configure within SMA which rules write to which log files C. You can update prlogging.xml file to change the default PegaRULES log file names D. You can update the prlogging.xml file to change the log file names, roll over settings and even add new log files for specific rule type and class within PRPC (Your Answer) CorrectQ.106) Which of the following caches maintains references to the java class generated when a Flow rule is executed against a work object for the first time? (Choose One) A. Rules Assembly cache (Your Answer) B. Rule cache C. Lookup List cache D. Personal cache IncorrectQ.107) All of the following are ways in which you can access system logs except: (Choose Two) A. From the Developer menu selecting; Tools > Log Files B. Clicking the Save icon from the Tracer tool (Your Answer) C. From the System Management Application menu selecting ; Logging and Tracing > Log Files D. Remote logging using log4j E. Through the prdbutil interface (Correct Answer) IncorrectQ.108) You are unit testing your flow and have meticulously clicked ?Add Reading? at every transition. The result is below. Is this a fair reflection of the likely performance of your flow? (Choose One) A. Yes, there?s nothing wrong with it B. No, it shows clear performance issues (Your Answer) C. No, you should run it again; these results have been skewed by rules assembly(Correct Answer) IncorrectQ.109) Which one of the following statements about logging is false? (Choose One) A. All log messages are written to either the Alert log or the Pega log B. Log severity level can be configured for rules, rule types, activities, classes and packages C. The alert threshold settings are configured in prlogging.xml (Correct Answer) D. The severity levels of logging are:fatal, error, alert, warn, info, and debug E. Daily rolling logs are configured in prlogging.xml IncorrectQ.110) Which two of the following statements are true about Summary Views? (Choose Two) A. Summary View reports provide a multi-level report display with drill-down capabilities (Your Answer) B. The ?drill down? capability provides only the ability to invoke another Summary View rule C. Because of the aggregate first-level display, Summary Views allow you to report on very large report sets of 10,000 rows or more (Correct Answer) D. Summary View rules generate HTML and JSP for display that can be further customized CorrectQ.111) Which three out-of-the-box (OOTB) features do List Views provide? (Choose Three) A. Pagination (Your Answer) B. Defining thresholds C. Single or multi-selection (Your Answer) D. Trend Reporting E. Class Joins (Your Answer) IncorrectQ.112) Which three statements are true about List View reports? (Choose Three) A. A List View report can be displayed in a flow action B. Both developers and managers can create and update List View rules (Your Answer) C. In an activity, a List View rule can be executed to provide searching and sorting, with no display, as an efficient alternative to the Obj-List method (Correct Answer) D. List View reports can only run queries against PRPC assignment and work object tables Q.113) Pick the one most appropriate statement about PRPC reporting. (Choose One) A. PRPC is an excellent reporting solution and is recommended for reporting instead of purchasing expensive Business Intelligence reporting software B. You can always get the reporting data you need by exposing properties as database columns C. If the reporting data is stored in sources other than PRPC, you need to create connectors to retrieve the data from the source system D. PRPC reporting is highly optimized; the impact of running large reports in a production system is negligible E. PRPC includes powerful Business Activity Monitoring reports that provide business managers with real-time and historical information to measure and manage business process performance (Correct Answer) Q.114) Which three statements are true about the out-of-the-box (OOTB) PRPC reports? (Choose Three) A. A database view can simplify reporting, especially with properties from two or more classes that are in separate class groups (Correct Answer) B. Reports in the Monitor Processes category support day-to-day monitoring of the backlogs of work that has arrived but is incomplete (Correct Answer) C. Reports in the Analyze Performance group analyze which flow actions were selected how often, by assignment, and the timeliness of the selection (Correct Answer) D. Analyze Performance and Analyze Quality reports cover only unresolved work objects E. Monitor Assignments and Monitor Processes reports cover resolved work objects only F. The Final Conflicts report allows developers to identify rules in the current application RuleSet version that conflict with previous RuleSet versions Q.115) Which two of the following statements are true about exposing BLOB data? (Choose Two) A. Declare Expression or Declare Trigger rules can be used to copy a single embedded property to a top-level property, and this top-level property can be exposed (Correct Answer) B. Declare Index rules can be used to expose many, or all, of the items in an embedded list or group (Correct Answer) C. Ask your DBA to create a database-level index, because this is a good mechanism to expose embedded properties D. Exposing a new property with the Modify Database Schema wizard will automatically populate all rows of the respective database column ? both for new rows and existing ones Q.116) Which two statements are true about SmartInfo displays? (Choose Two) A. May utilize input fields B. SmartInfo can display as a popup window or ill automatically populate all rows of the respective database embedded (Correct Answer) C. The SmartInfo feature is part of Client-Side processing and handled completely by the browser D. The SmartInfo display can contain images (Correct Answer) Q.117) Which three statements are true about Summary View and List View reports? (Choose Three) A. Summary View reports allow you to drill down to another Summary View report (Correct Answer) B. Summary View reports allow you to drill down to a detailed view (Correct Answer) C. Both summary views and list views provide client side and server side filtering capabilities in addition to the database where clause D. List views allow you to pass in parameter values to be used as selection criteria (Correct Answer) E. Parameters can be used to override selection criteria that are hard-coded in a summary view Q.118) Which two statements are true about the Report Wizard? (Choose Two) A. The Report Wizard can only be used to create reports on work B. Using the wizard will ensure best possible performance of your report C. You can use the Report Wizard to delegate created reports to an access group (Correct Answer) D. You need a special privilege to run the Report Wizard (Correct Answer) Q.119) Which two statements are true about reports? (Choose Two) A. List View and Summary View rules allow you to present the results in segments, known as pages B. The criteria specified in Filter By become part of the SQL WHERE clause C. Paging improves response time and reduces the size of the clipboard (Correct Answer) D. The report display generated by a list view can be embedded in a section(Correct Answer) Q.120) Which two statements are true about the getContent activity? (Choose Two) A. The getContent activity should not be replaced as it provides highly optimized retrieval of reporting data B. You can customize the getContent activity by creating a copy of the same name in your application RuleSet C. Creating a custom getContent-like activity that is specified as the report source allows you to fetch data from sources other than databases (Correct Answer) D. Data can be fetched from an external database table so long as the key of the table is mapped to the pxInsHandle property (Correct Answer) Q.121) Which two statements are true about reports? (Choose Two) A. Summary views allow you to drill down into another Summary View, List View, or a Detailed View (Correct Answer) B. Both List View and Summary View rules can use an override sort function C. Both List View and Summary View rules can use class joins to reference properties from multiple classes (Correct Answer) D. Only List View rules may use parameter Q.122) Which of the following is true? (Choose One) A. You can test the persistence connectivity for a class on the Class rule form, on the associated Data-Admin-DB-Table record, as well as on the Class Structure Viewer B. All four foundation classes (Rule-Obj- Class, Data-Admin-DB-Table, Data-Admin-DB-Name, Data-Admin-DB-ClassGroup) must be stored in pr4_rule table C. One can use Obj- methods to the PRPC database to read/write data to the work-object tables without impact on data integrity (Correct Answer) D. Process commander searches the Data-Admin-DB-Table using the pattern and direct inheritance mechanism to find the table that stores the instances of a given class Q.123) Which one action should you not take when designing for rule delegation? (Choose One) A. Choose rule names and property names that are meaningful in the business context tion? B. Identify which rules are useful to delegate to managers for maintenance C. Ensure that the RuleSet(s) that contain the delegated rules are part of the Application Rule, not the Production RuleSet list (Correct Answer) D. After initial testing, copy the rules into a RuleSet containing only the delegated rules so that later changes can be segregated from the rest of the application E. Make sure the delegated RuleSet is locked Q.124) Which groups of rule types use Functions Alias rules on their rule forms? (Choose One) A. Decision trees, Map values and Decision tables B. Declare expressions, activities and Rule-Access-When C. Decision trees, Map values, and Rule-Declare- Constraint (Correct Answer) (Refer Funcation Alias doc in PDN / Help) D. Decision trees, When rules, and Declare expressions Q.125) Which two of the following are Declarative rules? (Choose Two) A. Rule-Declare-DecisionTree B. Rule-Declare- DecisionTable C. Rule-Obj-MapValue D. Rule-Declare-Expression (Correct Answer) E. Rule-Declare-OnChange (Correct Answer) Q.126) Which one of the following rules can use backward chaining as a method of propagation? (Choose One) A. Rule-Declare- Expression (Correct Answer) B. Rule-Declare-OnChange C. Rule-Declare-Constraints D. Rule-Declare-Trigger E. Rule-Declare-CaseMatch Q.127) During the execution of a Rule-Declare-OnChange will declarative expressions execute? (Choose One) A. Yes B. No (Correct Answer) Q.128) Which one of the following rules allows you to copy the previous value of one property to another property if you want to audit property level changes? (Choose One) A. Rule-Declare-OnChange B. Rule-Declare-Trigger (Correct Answer) C. Rule-Declare-Expression D. Rul-Declare-DecisionTree E. Rule-Obj-MapValue Q.129) Choose three times when a Thread level Declarative page is removed from memory? (Choose Three) A. When the user does not refer to it for a duration more than the timeout setting B. When the user logs out (Correct Answer) C. When the user session expires (Correct Answer) D. When the application server is brought down (Correct Answer) E. When the SMA is used to ?refresh? a declarative page Q.130) As part of a BRE implementation, is it possible to execute unordered rules dynamically if given a set of conditions that statE. execute all Decision rules when State is Ohio, and audit as to which rules get executed? (Choose One) A. No PRPC has no (out-of-the-box (OOTB) facilities to support this and we will have to build something custom to support this B. Yes, you can do this using a List View in conjunction with a Rule-Declare-Collection (Correct Answer) C. Yes, you can do this using a Summary View in conjunction with Rule-Declare-Collection D. Yes, you can do this using a Rule-Declare-Expression in conjunction with a Rule- Declare- CaseMatch E. Yes you can do this using a Rule-Declare-Trigger in conjunction with Rule-Obj-MapValue Q.131) If you created a Rule-Declare-Expression rule on a target property A first, will PRPC let you to use property A in the left hand side of a Property-Set in a new activity? (Choose One) A. Yes B. No (Correct Answer) Q.132) The calculation types (e.g. Sum Of, Value Of, etc) available in a Declare Expressions rule are ____________________? (Choose One) A. Dependent on the ?applies to? class of the rule B. Dependent on if the expression is context-free or context sensitive C. Dependent on the type of the input properties D. Dependent on the type of the target property (Correct Answer) Q.133) Which of the following is a difference between a Declarative Page defined as Node level versus Thread level? (Choose One) A. Node level pages are read-only and thread level are not B. Thread level pages can use a when to determine when the page needs to refresh, node level cannot (Correct Answer) C. Only Node level pages must be named Declare_Node_ D. Node level pages are loaded when PRPC starts up and thread level pages are loaded when the user logs in Q.134) Rule-Declare-OnChange rules are different from Rule-Declare-Expressions in that? (Choose One) A. OnChange rules can directly execute an activity in a background process rather than set a single property B. Expressions allow configuring of the execution context to any, top level, or only specific pages (Correct Answer) C. OnChange rules fire when designated properties change on the clipboard as opposed to expressions which require a database commit D. OnChange rules ONLY use backward chaining to track changes whereas expressions can use either forward or backward chaining Q.135) Which of the following is true? (Choose One) A. Decision Tables can call only Decision Trees without having to use a utility function B. Decision Trees can only call other Decision Trees without having to use a utility function C. Decision Trees can call other Decision Trees, Decision Table or Map Values without having to use a utility function (Correct Answer) D. Decision Tables can call other Decision Tables, Decision Trees or Map Values without having to use a utility function Q.136) (True or False) Decision tables can associate a privilege with the ability to edit each individual cell. A. True B. False (Correct Answer) Q.137) A Rule-Declare-Page named Declare_RichieTest is of page scope Thread. It has a Refresh period of five minutes and no timeout. There is also a ?Page is fresh when? rule ?CodIsInStock? based on a True/False property CodIsInStock Consider this sequence of events:? Declare_RichieTest is first accessed and loaded at 14:34? CodStock is set to false at 14:38? Declare_RichieTest is next accessed at 14:45When is the Declare_RichieTest page loaded again? (Choose One) A. 14:45 (Correct Answer) B. 14:39 C. 14:38 D. Never, once loaded the page is never reloaded Q.138) Which of the following is false about Declarative Pages? (Choose One) A. Load Activity type must be set to "LoadDeclarativePage" B. Only Node level declare pages prompt you to configure an Access Group. If left blank, Requestor Access Group is used (Correct Answer) C. Refresh conditions can be configured on rule form D. Only Thread pages may utilize the ?Refresh Page When? option to refresh the page E. Cannot be directly saved to database Q.139) Which three statements are true about primary and step pages within activities? (Choose Three) A. A primary page acts as the context for the entire activity (Correct Answer) B. A step in an activity where the Step Page column is blank indicates that the step page is the primary page (Correct Answer) C. When iterating through embedded pages, each instance of the embedded page becomes the step page for that step (Correct Answer) D. When an activity calls another rule, the primary page of the calling activity becomes the primary page of the called rule E. The primary keyword always refers to a top-level page Q.140) What are the 6 R's? (Choose Six) A. A. Repeat B. B. Reply C. C. Reserve D. D. Report (Correct Answer) E. E. Re-examine F. F. Receive (Correct Answer) G. G. Return H. H. Resolve (Correct Answer) I. I. Respond (Correct Answer) J. J. ROI K. K. Route (Correct Answer) L. L. Research (Correct Answer) Q.141) When is it appropriate to use a sub-flow shape instead of a spin-off flow shape? (Choose One) A. When you wish to run calculations in a separate thread from the current process B. When you wish to perform work on a different work object C. When you want to transfer control to another flow rule (Correct Answer) D. When you wish to route work to a different department while continuing down the current process path Q.142) Which two of the following statements are true about the Split-For-Each and Split-Join shapes? (Choose Two) A. Both shapes allow you to continue processing when ANY or ALL of the sub processes complete (Correct Answer) B. Split-Join allows you to execute different sub-flows whereas Split-For-Each calls the same process on different pages (Correct Answer) C. Split-For-Each allows you to execute different sub-flows whereas Split-Join calls the same process on different pages. D. Both shapes create separate Threads for sub- processes they create E. Split-For-Each can only be used when iterating over a list of work objects Q.143) Which one of the following statements is true about the implementation of PRPC?s Spin-Off flow behavior? (Choose One) A. Spin-Off flows are executed in the current requestor in a serial manner; however they do provide business parallelism by allowing multiple users to have assignments on the same work object (Correct Answer) B. Spin-Off flows achieve greater throughput by allowing assignments to be worked on by multiple users at the same time by obtaining a separate lock for each sub-process C. Spin-Off flows create separate Threads which allow for faster processing of assignments and calculations D. Spin-Off flows create separate requestors so that work can be assigned to different users Q.144) Which two of the following statements are true regarding the use of Draft Flows? (Choose Two) A. Draft flows allow users to directly capture processes without requiring referenced rules to be completed (Correct Answer) B. Draft flows can be executed to demonstrate the process (Correct Answer) C. Draft flows can only be executed if a previous, non-draft-mode version exists D. Once a flow is checked in it cannot be marked as a draft flow. You can?t change the status of a checked in rule, can you? E. Draft flows can only be executed if the flow actions they reference have been created Q.145) Which one of the following statements are true regarding passing page references to activities? (Choose One) A. Both page name parameters and prompt pages provide a way to pass a page reference to an activity so page names don?t need to be hardcoded (Correct Answer) B. Page name parameters can only be used to pass top-level pages C. Page names parameters create aliases for pages that can be used by any rule that is executed after an activity D. Passing pages by reference requires java code Q.146) Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose Two) A. Assignment and work object SLAs allow for separate service levels to be defined on individual tasks and overall work resolution (Correct Answer) B. Work object SLAs are normally specified in a model but can be modified during subsequent processing (Correct Answer) C. Work object SLAs can only be set during work object creation D. Assignment SLAs default to the work object SLA if not specified E. Work object SLAs are defined on the start shape of a flow and are overwritten by SLAs on individual assignments Q.147) Which one of the following is true about the concepts of push and pull routing as implemented in PRPC? (Choose One) A. Assigning work to a worklist is an example of push routing and using get next work to grab work from a workbasket is an example of pull routing (Correct Answer) B. Assigning work to a worklist is an example of pull routing and using get next work to grab work from a workbasket is an example of push routing C. Using a load balancing algorithm to assign work to individual operators is an example of pull routing D. A single application should only use one type of routing, push or pull Q.148) Out of the Box Get Next Work functionality is NOT useful in solving which one of the following business problems? (Choose One) A. The "cherry-picking" of easy work selected first from workbaskets causing some work to not be done in a timely manner B. Retrieving work based on highest urgency C. Evenly distributing work to all members of a team (Correct Answer) D. Retrieving work from one or more workbaskets or worklist Q.149) Which two of the following statements are true about covers? (Choose Two) A. Covers cannot cover another cover (Correct Answer) B. By default, only one covered item that belongs to the same cover can be processed at a time (Correct Answer) C. Covers cannot belong to a folder D. Covers can only cover 10 objects or less E. The links between a cover and its covered objects is stored using foreign keys in the database Q.150) Which two of the following statements are true about folders? (Choose Two) A. Folders can contain two covers (Correct Answer) B. A folder can contain another folder (Correct Answer) C. A folder contains an embedded page of all the work objects that it contains D. A folder cannot have a process run on it E. A folder does not have a status Q.151) Work parties are . (Choose One) A. stored in a page list with the subscript representing the priority of the party B. stored in a value group with the subscript representing the identity of the party C. data instances that are linked to work objects as attachments D. roles with potentially multiple occurences that participate in a work object (Correct Answer) Q.152) Which one of the following actions could set different urgency values for a work object and an assignment on that work object? (Choose One) A. An assignment?s SLA has an urgency escalation (Correct Answer) B. An update to the work object urgency occurs when a lock is not obtained on the assignment C. An update occurs to the assignment SLA and the pyUrgencySync property is set to false D. This cannot occur as a rule-declare-trigger is used to keep the values in sync Q.153) Which one of the following statements is true about work lists and workbaskets? (Choose One) A. Work can only be routed to a work list if a data-admin-operator-id exists for the specified worklist (Correct Answer) B. GetNextWork only uses workbaskets when determining which work to process C. Workbaskets automatically notify all eligible operators that new work exists D. Work can only be routed to a workbasket if a data-admin-operator-id exists for the specified workbasket Q.154) Which one of the following statements is true about work object history in PRPC? (Choose One) A. History is automatically added during key events, such as SLA deadlines as well as by application specific rules (Correct Answer) B. History is automatically deleted from the PRPC database when the associated work object is resolved C. History is only added by application specific rules D. History is stored as a page list inside the work object so it can be easily displayed in the harness Q.155) Which of the following is true about out-of-the-box (OOTB) work history tracking in PRPC? (Choose Three) A. History is added when a Service Level Agreement (SLA) is processed by the SLA Agent (Correct Answer) B. The Log-Message method can be used to add the history to the work object C. By default history is written to database table ?log_history? (Correct Answer) D. Reviewing a work object adds an entry in Work History table E. Audit notes on flow shapes are recorded in Work History (Correct Answer) F. The level of history recordedcannotbe controlled Q.156) Which statement IS TRUE about Folders? (Choose One) A. Folder objects are stored in the PC_LINK_FOLDER table B. A folder cannot be resolved when foldered objects are still unresolved C. Folders can contain covers (Correct Answer) D. As a best practice, a folder should contains 20 or less objects Q.157) In the context of Correspondence, identify the statement that is false? (Choose One) A. Correspondence can only be sent to users who are defined as operators in PRPC (Correct Answer) B. You cannot add notify shapes to the Integrator shape in your process for correspondence C. Sending emails on a work object is supported out-of-the-box (OOTB) as long as PRPC can connect to a mail server D. It is possible within PRPC for a user to modify the correspondence text within a flow action Q.158) Which of the following statements are true about routing in PRPC? (Choose Three) A. Users should be free to choose their next work assignment from those listed in their workbasket B. The GetNextWork algorithm can be amended by modifying a Decision tree (Correct Answer) C. GetNextWork will always check the users? Work List before it checks any WorkBaskets D. The behavior of GetNextWork is controlled by flags set on the Operator ID rule (Correct Answer) E. Operators can nominate substitutes to receive their assigned work when they are unavailable (Correct Answer) Q.159) Which statement is true about creating a Rule-Admin-Product ZIP file? (Choose One A. You must specify the URL of the target system before generating the zip file B. RuleSet versions must be locked C. You need to include major, minor and patch RuleSet versions D. You must create a When rule to include data instances E. All rules being referenced in the Product should be checked-in, otherwise errors will be reported(Correct Answer) Q.160) When are RuleSet prerequisites important? (Choose One) A. In both development and run-time B. In run-time only C. In development only (Correct Answer) D. None of the above Q.161) The customer wants to rollback a recently deployed Rule-Admin-Product which was imported into a target production system. What are the best ways to solve this problem? (Choose Two) A. By doing an export of the RuleSets from the target production system. An export also deletes the rules which were packaged B. By taking a DB backup before the import on the target system and restoring from the DB backup in case a rollback is desired (Correct Answer) C. By explaining to the customer that even though the new rules are in the target system we can control which rules are executed through the access groups (Correct Answer) D. There is no way to do this in the product or outside of the product currently E. By selectively deleting the imported rules by logging into the target system F. By selectively executing delete operations on the database and hope that you deleted everything Q.162) Should you specify Agent Schedule instances as part of your Rule-Admin-Product definition? (Choose One) A. YES otherwise none of your agents will work B. NO the Agent Schedule instances will be automatically created by the target PRPC system (Correct Answer) Q.163) If user A is working in version 01-01-02 and user B is working in version 01-01-03 of the same RuleSet, and if user A modifies an activity in his version which user B is also working on in his version, what does PRPC do ? (Choose One) A. This situation will never occur as PRPC will never allow you to check out the activity in version 01-01-03 if it has been checked out in version 01-01-02 B. PRPC will flag the activity in version 01-01-03 with a merge flag which user B will have to manually resolve by responding to changes that user A introduced similar to how other SCMS / RCS systems such as ClearCase work C. PRPC will not warn User B if User A modifies the activity in a lower version of the same RuleSet (Correct Answer) D. PRPC will warn User B if User A modifies the activity in a lower version of the same RuleSet by displaying a yellow warning at the bottom of the rule Q.164) When adding the data portions to the Rule-Admin-Product, all of these classes should be included except one. (Choose One) A. Data-Admin-Organization B. Data-Admin-WorkBasket C. Data-Agent-Queue (Correct Answer) D. Data-Admin-Operator-AccessGroups Q.165) (True or False) RuleSet prerequisites are not part of rule resolution. (Choose One) A. True (Correct Answer) B. False Q.166) Which of the following statements are true about service packages? (Choose One) A. Service Packages allow you to configure error handling B. Service Packages allow you to specify the page name that is created on the clipboard upon an external request C. Services Packages allow you to configure a requestor pool for when they are stateless and unauthenticated (Correct Answer) D. Service Packages allow you to either execute the service synchronously or queue for later execution Q.167) In the context of flow actions, identify the false statement. (Choose One) A. The likelihood value of flow actions is used to determine the order of presentation of user choices on the Perform Harness B. A local flow action may change the status of the work object C. By default, local actions are displayed when buttons are used for the Connector flow actions (Correct Answer) D. Two flow action connectors can have the same likelihood Q.168) Which two statements are incorrect in regards to Java stack traces and PRPC? (Choose Two) A. They are thrown only to log files when an internal engine class file throws and exception (Correct Answer) B. They are helpful in debugging because it shows you the entire execution process up until the point of error C. They can be found in the log file, or within the application (on the screen) depending upon where the exception was thrown D. They are thrown only when you call the Log-Message and check the generate stack track checkbox (Correct Answer) Q.169) Which of the following rules fit the ?Build for Change? paradigm and are best candidates for being delegated to business users? (Choose Four) A. Rule-File-Text B. Rule-Declare-Casematch (Correct Answer) C. Rule-Declare-Constraints (Correct Answer) D. Rule-Declare-DecisionTree (Correct Answer) E. Rule-Edit-Validate F. Rule-Obj-when (Correct Answer) Q.170) Route work to the operator specified in the .RecommendedOperator property, if the property has a value. Otherwise route work to the ?GeneralWorkBasket?. Which one of the following approaches is most valid? (Choose One) A. Assigning work to a worklist is an example of push routing and using get next work to grab work from a workbasket is an example of pull routing (Correct Answer) B. Assigning work to a worklist is an example of pull routing and using get next work to grab work from a workbasket is an example of push routing C. Using a load balancing algorithm to assign work to individual operators is an example of pull routing D. A single application should only use one type of routing, push or pull Q.171) Which three of the following statements are false regarding the PRPC log files? (Choose Three) A. The Alert Log contains garbage collection details to help support performance monitoring (Correct Answer) B. The Pega Log details the internal runtime exceptions thrown by the Application Server (Correct Answer) C. The Pega Log contains messages created by the Application Server D. The Log Usage Log contains details on how the system is being used (Correct Answer) E. The Alert Log contains only alerts and supports performance monitoring Q.172) Which two of the following statements regarding the Prefight tool are false? (Choose Two) A. Rules identified by the Preflight tool cannot be run in Production unless corrected (Correct Answer) B. The Preflight tool checks the Preflight table to find which rules have warnings on them (Correct Answer) C. The Preflight tool is flexible and allows for you to create your own custom warnings on rules, possibly to implement additional best practices for a client D. An activity that has a Java step is an example of a rule that would be identified by the Preflight tool Q.173) Which of the following statements are true? Service packages . (Choose Two) A. are instances of the data class Data-Admin-ServicePackage (Correct Answer) B. do not need to be deployed to other environments C. assess incoming messages and write input parameter values to the clipboard D. are used to publish deployment artifacts (Correct Answer)